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Department of Business Management and

Entrepreneurship
COLLEGE OF ARTS & SCIENCES

San Beda College

Mendiola, Manila

MGT4- Human Resource Management

Quiz # 3- HRP, Recruitment and Selection

September 17, 2012

Mr. Marc David C. Achacoso, MBA

1. The first step in the human resource planning process is

A) forecasting labor demand and supply.
B) goal setting.
C) program implementation.
D) program evaluation.
2. The process of attempting to ascertain the supply and demand for various types of human
resources is called
A) goal setting.
B) program evaluations.
C) forecasting.
D) strategic choice.
3. An advantage of statistical forecasting methods is that
A) under the right conditions, they provide predictions that are much more precise than
judgmental methods.
B) they are particularly useful in dynamic environments.
C) they are particularly useful if important events that occur in the labor market have no
historical precedent.
D) in the event of a legal dispute, they are more acceptable as evidence by juries.
4. Statistical planning models almost always have to be complemented by which of the
following?
A) competitor information
B) objective judgments of people with expertise in the area
C) subjective judgments of people with expertise in the area
D) a prediction of the future state of the economy
5. A leading indicator is
A) an objective measure that accurately predicts future labor demand.
B) a subjective measure that accurately predicts future labor supply.
C) an objective measure used to evaluate whether or not the organization successfully
avoided a pending labor shortage or surplus.

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D) a subjective measure used to evaluate whether or not the organization successfully
avoided a pending labor shortage or surplus.
6. A(n) _____ shows the proportion of employees in different job categories at different
times.
A) employee task diagram
B) transitional matrix
C) job evaluation diagram
D) task role matrix
7. The goals that are set in the human resource planning process should come directly from
A) mid-level managers, who tend to be most in touch with the organization's needs.
B) the analysis of the labor supply and demand.
C) the strategic choices that are made.
D) the feedback provided by the organization's customers.
8. An organization seeking to reduce a projected labor surplus must select from a number of
possible options aimed at obtaining that objective (e.g., retirements, layoffs, work
sharing, etc.). This occurs at what step in the human resource planning process?
A) Goal-setting and strategic planning
B) Program evaluation
C) Forecasting
D) Program implementation
9. Which of the following options for reducing an expected labor surplus has the benefit of
being a relatively fast solution, but the disadvantage of being high in human suffering?
A) Downsizing
B) Retirement
C) Retraining
D) Work sharing
10.
Your company's primary concern is to reduce an expected labor surplus fast; its
secondary concern is to minimize human suffering. The options that would best address
the company's concerns (in the priority indicated) are
A) layoffs and transfers.
B) transfers and work sharing.
C) retirement and retraining.
D) natural attrition and transfers.
11.
Forecasting indicates your company needs to reduce its white-collar workforce in
order to avoid a labor surplus in the next three to five years. Consistent with the corporate
culture it wants to maintain, your company places a higher priority on minimizing human
suffering than on achieving the labor reduction quickly. The options that are most
consistent with these priorities are
A) demotions and transfers.

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B) transfers and work sharing.
C) retirement and retraining.
D) natural attrition and transfers.
12.
A small company that manufactures special-order wood furniture has kept its
employees busy on a 40-hour-a-week schedule for the past two years. The company just
received the largest contract in its history from a Saudi company opening offices in the
area. There is no expectation of repeat business from the Saudi company. In order to
complete the contract in the required six months, additional skilled woodworking
manpower is needed. Under these circumstances, to avoid an expected labor shortage, the
best option would be
A) overtime.
B) the use of temporary employees.
C) turnover reduction.
D) new external hires.
13.
Which of the following options for avoiding an expected labor shortage has the
benefit of being a relatively fast solution with high revocability?
A) Overtime
B) Retrained transfer
C) Turnover
D) New external hires
14.
A)
B)
C)
D)

The most typical organizational responses to an expected labor shortage are

fast response and low revocability.
fast response and high revocability.
slow response and high revocability.
slow response and low revocability.

15.
Which one of the following is not a major reason organizations engage in
downsizing?
A) To stem current losses
B) To reduce future labor costs
C) To close outdated plants or introduce technological changes to old plants
D) To reduce bureaucratic overhead resulting from mergers and acquisitions
16.
A study of 52 Fortune 100 firms that announced downsizing efforts showed that
in the following years most firms showed?
A) improved financial performance.
B) worse financial performance.
C) improved employee morale.
D) similar financial performance.
17.
Reasons for the failure of most downsizing efforts to live up to expectations
include all of the following except
A) downsizing efforts eliminate people who turn out to be irreplaceable assets.

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B) short-term cost savings often turn negative in the long term.
C) downsizing efforts reduce a firm's competitiveness.
D) employees who survive downsizing become narrow-minded and risk-adverse.
18.
A)
B)
C)
D)

The key to a successful downsizing effort is to

perform surgical strategic cuts.
perform indiscriminate across-the-board cuts.
downsize at random.
cut the oldest and best-paid employees first.

19.
Which of the following options for reducing an expected labor surplus is a
relatively slow solution, but offers the benefit of being low in human suffering?
A) Work sharing
B) Demotion
C) Retirement
D) Transfers
20.
In the face of demographic pressures dealing with an aging workforce, many
employers try to induce
among their older workers through early retirement
incentive programs
A) wage and salary penalties
B) work penalties
C) involuntary attrition
D) voluntary attrition
21.
Which one of the following is not an advantage of employing temporary workers
as a means of eliminating a labor shortage?
A) The use of temporary workers frees the firm from many administrative tasks and
financial burdens associated with being the employer of record, such as health care,
pensions, workers' compensation, and unemployment insurance
B) Since temporary workers are just that, they do not pose a threat to current employees
in terms of job security
C) Many temporary agencies train employees prior to sending them over to employers,
which reduces training costs and eases the transition of both the temporary worker
and the company
D) Temporary workers have little experience in the host firm, thus they bring an
objective perspective to the organization's problems and procedures that is sometimes
valuable
22.
All of the following about outsourcing are true except one. Name the exception.
A) Outsourcing is a logical choice when firms lack experience in an area
B) Offshoring is a form of outsourcing
C) Technological advancements have slowed the momentum of outsourcing being done
today
D) Outsourcing is driven by economies of scale

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23.
A special case of outsourcing where the jobs that move actually leave one country
and go to another is called
A) insourcing.
B) out-distancing.
C) offshoring.
D) overseas sourcing.
24.
All of the following have contributed to wiping out the cost savings attributed to
lower wages created by offshoring except
A) quality control problems.
B) employees weak work ethic.
C) security violations.
D) poor customer service experiences.
25.
is
A)
B)
C)
D)
26.
A)
B)
C)
D)

A critical aspect of the program implementation step of human resource planning

the setting of a benchmark for determining the relative success of a program.
selecting the best option for redressing a pending labor shortage or surplus.
making sure that some individual is held accountable for achieving the stated goals.
ascertaining whether or not the company has successfully avoided any potential labor
surpluses or shortages.
The final step in the planning process is to
evaluate results.
set goals and objectives.
formulate strategies.
establish forecasting methods.

27.
The goals of personnel recruitment include all but one of the following. Name the
exception.
A) To increase the number of people who apply for vacancies
B) To control the type of people who apply for vacancies
C) To finely discriminate among reasonably qualified applicants
D) To inflate the number of applicants for statistical purposes
28.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Recruitment activities are designed to affect all of the following except

the number of people who apply for vacancies.
the type of people who apply for vacancies.
the likelihood that those applying for vacancies will accept positions if offered.
the evaluation of employees once hired.

29.
Which of the following tends to have the most positive influence on job choice
decisions?
A) The kind of recruiters used
B) The recruitment sources
C) The use of realistic job previews

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D) Job vacancy characteristics
30.
A)
B)
C)
D)

An approach that pays higher than current market wages is called a

premium-wage-approach.
lead indicator approach.
lead-the-market approach.
first mover approach.

31.
Organizational recruitment materials that emphasize due process, rights of appeal
and grievance mechanisms send a message that
A) the organization has many problems.
B) the organization values employee rights over productivity and profitability.
C) job security is high in the organization.
D) employee morale is low in the organization.
32.
A)
B)
C)
D)

ABS-CBNs Kapamilya campaign is an example of

general advertising.
reputation advertising.
image advertising.
proactive advertising.

33.
A)
B)
C)
D)

The sources from which companies recruit potential employees are

dictated largely by legal constraints.
determined by demographic patterns.
typically regulated by industry standards.
a critical aspect of its overall recruitment strategy.

34.
Which of the following is an advantage of relying on internal recruitment
sources?
A) They are likely to increase diversity
B) They minimize the impact of political considerations in the hiring decision
C) They are generally cheaper and faster than other means
D) It will increase innovation within an organization
35.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Which one of the following best exemplifies the process of self-selection?

An applicant posts his or her resume on an online job bulletin board
While at a job fair, an applicant decides to interview with the ABC Company
An applicant is asked to return for a second interview with the ABC Company
An applicant takes an online job fitness test before deciding to apply to the ABC
Company

36.
Recruiting advertisements in newspapers and periodicals\
A) are exempt from the requirements of Title VII.
B) are most effective in attracting applicants who are currently employed.
C) are generally not needed.

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D) typically generate less desirable recruits than direct applications or referrals.
37.
A)
B)
C)
D)

The most effective source for recruiters is

referrals.
job fairs.
the Web.
local newspapers.

38.
Van Roehling Inc., located in a small town 40 miles from Detroit, is seeking to
hire ten production workers. The company also wants very much to improve the diversity
of its presently all-white, male workforce. Which of the following combinations of
recruitment sources would be the best for the company to use?
A) Referrals from current employees and walk-in applicants
B) A job search firm and an advertisement in the local newspaper
C) Referrals from current employees and an advertisement in the local newspaper
D) Advertisement in a metropolitan Detroit newspaper and Michigan's public
employment service
39.
Executive search firms (ESFs)
A) are a relatively expensive way to recruit.
B) work almost exclusively with high-level, unemployed executives.
C) typically require the person being placed to make the initial contact with the
prospective employer directly.
D) are not subject to the requirements of Title VII.
40.
Yield ratios express the
A) output yielded by a new hire in relation to the cost of recruiting the new hire.
B) percentage of applicants who successfully move from one stage of the recruitment
and selection process to the next.
C) dollar costs per hire.
D) quality of new hires by comparing the cost of training the new recruits to the cost of
hiring them.
41.
A)
B)
C)
D)

The recruiting source that is likely to be least costly per recruit hired is
a college/university.
newspaper ads.
an employee referral.
an executive search firm.

42.
A)
B)
C)
D)

The recruiting source that is likely to have the highest yield ratio is
a college/university.
walk-ins.
a public employment agency.
an executive search firm.

43.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Cost per hire is

useful in establishing the efficiency of a recruiting source.
lower for private employment agencies than for public employment agencies.
lower for executive recruits than for clerical recruits.
a measure of applicant quality.

44.
Which of the following recruiter characteristics do applicants tend to respond to
most positively?
A) Warmth
B) Race (same as applicant)
C) Age
D) Gender
45.
All but one of the following would enhance recruiter effectiveness. Name the
exception.
A) Ensure recruiters provide applicants with timely feedback
B) Conduct dual-purpose recruitment and selection interviews
C) Ensure recruiters are knowledgeable about company policies and procedures and the
characteristics of the position
D) Do recruiting in teams rather than individually

46.
______ is performed by demonstrating that the items, questions, or problems
posed by a test are a representative sample of the kinds of situations or problems that
occur on the job.
A) Flexible validation
B) Predictive validation
C) Content validation
D) Concurrent validation
47.
Concerns about the large role that subjective judgments play should be greatest
when using
A) predictive criterion-related validation.
B) concurrent criterion-related validation.
C) content validation.
D) test-retest estimates of reliability.
48.
______ is defined as the degree to which the validity of a selection method
established in one context extends to other contexts.
A) Utility
B) Generalizability
C) Reliability
D) Legality
49.
The best alternative for validating selection methods for companies that cannot
use
criterion-related or content validation is
A) validation by demonstrating very high reliability.
B) validity generalization.
C) the use of commercial selection tests.

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D) validation by demonstrating a very low standard error of measurement.
50.
The process of determining statistically whether criterion-related validity obtained
in one sample holds up in another sample is
A) selection validity.
B) cross validation.
C) predictive ability analysis.
D) validity generalization.
51.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Which of the following is not a primary context which we might generalize?

different situations
different geographic areas
different time periods
different samples of people

52.
The degree to which the information provided by selection methods enhances the
effectiveness of selecting personnel in organizations refers to the selection method's
A) reliability.
B) validity.
C) generalizability.
D) utility.
53.
Two tests, A and B, have the same validity correlation between the tests and
performance. If the selection ratio is lower when using Test A than Test B, the utility of
Test A
A) is higher than Test B.
B) is lower than Test B.
C) has no relationship to selection ratio.
D) none of the above.
54.
If a measure of some supposedly stable characteristic such as intelligence is
reliable, then the score a person receives based on that measure will ______ over time
and in different contexts.
A) be consistent
B) be relatively the same
C) slightly vary
D) vary
55.
Which of the following is not one of the five generic standards that should be met
in any selection process?
A) utility
B) validity
C) reliability
D) honesty

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56.
A)
B)
C)
D)

_____ is the degree to which a measure is free from random error.

Generalization
Utility.
Reliability
Honesty

57.
The extent to which performance on the selection measure (i.e., the predictor) is
associated with performance on the job is called
A) reliability.
B) validity.
C) generalizability.
D) utility.
58.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Which of the following is not a way to increase the reliability of a test?

make the test easier.
make the test longer.
write clear and unambiguous instructions.
use computer adaptive testing.

Answer: A Page: 231 LO: 1 Difficulty: Medium

AACSB: 6
BT: Knowledge
59.
You would be in the best position to decide whether or not to hire one applicant
versus another based on their respective scores on a cognitive ability test if
A) a content validation design had been used.
B) a concurrent criterion-related design had been used.
C) reliability of the test was known.
D) it was shown that the validity of the test was situationally specific.
60.
During an interview for a sales position, you are asked the following question:
Suppose one of your clients refuses to speak to you after you lost one of his orders; what
would you do to regain his business? What type of interview question is this?
A) Job-skill
B) Job knowledge
C) Situational experience-based
D) Situational future-oriented
61.
______ is an interview procedure where applicants are confronted with specific
issues, questions, or problems that are likely to arise on the job.
A) Expertise interview
B) Reference interview
C) Past-based interview
D) Situational interview
62.

Of the following, your greatest concern regarding the use of a cognitive ability

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testing should be that
A) the validity coefficient was validated in one situation, and you would be generalizing
it to another situation.
B) the true validity coefficient is likely to be substantially lower because of the passage
of time.
C) cognitive ability tests have been shown to have an adverse impact on African
American applicants.
D) because of the costs involved, cognitive ability tests typically have low utility.
63.
A)
B)
C)
D)

A test that differentiates individuals based on mental capacities is called a

intellectual test
concurrent reliability test
cognitive ability test
honesty test

64.
What type of ability is concerned with the speed and accuracy with which one can
solve arithmetic problems of all kinds?
A)
B)
C)
D)

verbal comprehension
quantitative ability
qualitative ability
reasoning ability

65.
Which personality dimension has generally been found to have the highest
validity across a number of different job categories?
A) Extroversion
B) Adjustment
C) Agreeableness
D) Conscientiousness
66.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Which one of the following is not among the Big Five?

Intelligence
Adjustment
Conscientiousness
Inquisitiveness

67.
A)
B)
C)
D)

A typing test for an administrative assistant job is an example of a

spatial abilities test.
perceptual accuracy test.
work sample test.
mechanical test.

68.
An assessment center
A) is a place where job applicants undergo mental and physical analysis.
B) is relatively inexpensive.

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C) uses multiple selection methods to rate either applicants or job incumbents on their
managerial potential.
D) is a selection method used for all types of positions.
69.
Which of the following selection devices typically has the highest validity relative
to the others?
A) Biographical information
B) Cognitive ability tests
C) Honesty tests
D) Personality inventories
70.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Work sample tests tend to have

high reliability, high validity, and low utility.
high reliability, high validity, and high generalizability.
high validity, high generalizability, and moderate utility.
high validity, high legality, and high utility.

71.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Physical ability tests tend to have

high reliability, moderate to high validity, and low generalizability.
moderate reliability, moderate validity, and moderate generalizability.
moderate to high validity, high legality, and moderate generalizability.
high validity, low generalizability, and high utility.

72.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Drug tests tend to have

high reliability, low validity, and low legality.
high reliability, high validity, and high generalizability.
moderate validity, high legality, and moderate generalizability.
low validity, low legality, and low utility.

73.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Reference checks tend to have

moderate reliability, moderate validity, and moderate utility.
moderate validity, high generalizability, and moderate utility.
low validity, high legality, and high generalizability.
low validity, low generalizability, and low utility.

74.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Personality inventories tend to have

moderate reliability, moderate (criterion) validity, and moderate utility.
high validity, high generalizability, and high utility.
high reliability, low (criterion) validity, and low generalizability.
moderate utility, low generalizability, and moderate (criterion) validity.

75.
Which of the following selection methods typically involves the least concern
about the legality of its use?
A) Interviews
B) Personality inventories
C) Honesty tests

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D) Work sample tests
76.
The general method of establishing the validity of a selection method by showing
that there is an empirical association between scores on the selection measure and scores
for job performance is called
A)
B)
C)
D)

criterion-related validation.
split-half estimate of validation.
content validation.
reliability of the measurement and validation.

77.
To test the validity of your selection device for widget makers, you have given it
to the present widget makers in your company and correlated it with their latest
performance appraisal scores. What type of strategy have you used?
A) Predictive criterion-related validation
B) Content validation
C) Concurrent criterion-related validation
D) Utility
78.
You want to establish the validity of a test designed for computer technicians
using a predictive criterion-related validation strategy. To do so, you must administer the
test to
A) at least half your present computer technicians.
B) people doing similar jobs in other companies.
C) people applying for computer technician jobs in your company.
D) only your current computer technicians who are performing at or above acceptable
levels.
79.
Because current employees have learned many things on the job that job
applicants have not yet learned,
A) all predictive methods are ineffective.
B) content validation is superior to predictive validation.
C) concurrent validation is superior to content validation.
D) predictive validation is superior to concurrent validation.
80.
Which of the following validation strategies is most likely to be adversely
affected by the restriction of range problem that results from current employees tending
to be homogeneous?
A) Predictive criterion-related
B) Concurrent criterion-related
C) Content
D) Face
81.
A criterion-related validation study with a small sample of employees (e.g., 20
people

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A) is much more efficient and, as a result, is likely to have high utility.
B) requires many subjective judgments about whether the skill or knowledge assessed is
essential to the job.
C) requires the use of a concurrent criterion-related design.
D) is almost doomed to fail from the start.
82.
Which of the following forms of validation becomes relatively more attractive as
the sample available for validation becomes smaller?
A) Predictive criterion-related
B) Concurrent criterion-related
C) Content validation
D) Face validation
83.
A)
B)
C)
D)

Unlike predictive and concurrent validity, content validity is

measured statistically.
more valid.
based on judgments.
not legally approved.

84.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship of reliability
to validity?
A. Reliability is the degree to which a measure (i.e., a selection device) is free from
random error.
B. Validity is the extent to which performance on a measure is associated with
performance on the job.
C. The relationship is that a measure that must be reliable to be valid; but a reliable
measure is not necessarily a valid one.
D. All of the above
85.
The validity of job interviews can be maximized by:
A. Keeping the interview structures standardized and focused on accomplishing a small
number of goals
B. Asking questions that force the applicant to display required knowledge or ability
(e.g., situational interview questions)
C. Using multiple interviewers who are trained
D. All of the above
86.
how does a job sample test meet the demands of reliability, validity,
generalizability, utility, and legality?
A. Work sample tests attempt to simulate the job in some miniaturized form. They
generally have high reliability, high validity, low generalizability, high utility, and
high legality.
B. Asking questions that force the applicant to display required knowledge or ability
(e.g., situational interview questions)
C. Using multiple interviewers who are trained

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D. All of the above

87.
A construction firm is in need of a construction superintendent, whose primary
responsibilities involve organizing, supervising, and inspecting the work of several
subcontractors. It administers a construction-error recognition test, where an applicant
enters into a shed that has been specially constructed to have 25 common and expensive
errors and where he or she is asked to record as many of these problems as can be
detected. What type of validation would best be used for the test
A) Concurrent criterion-related
B) Predictive criterion-related
C) Content
D) Standard error of the measurement
88.
A firm is seeking to hire 15 electricians. It intends to hire only experienced
electricians and, as a result, has no plans to train them. A test is developed that requires
applicants to identify the mistakes in a miswired circuit and to then correct them by
rewiring the circuit properly. What would be the most appropriate method to use in
validating this test?
A) Concurrent criterion-related validation
B) Predictive criterion-related validation
C) Construct validation
D) Content validation
89.
Human Resource Management is Recruitment and Selection
A.) The statement is true
B.) The statement is false
C.) The statement is commonsense
D.) None of the above
90.
Recruitment and selection is Human Resource Management
A.) The statement is true
B.) The statement is false
C.) The statement is commonsense
D.) None of the above