2010H2Physics RI

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RAFFLES INSTITUTION
2010 Preliminary Examination
PHYSICS
Higher 2
9646 / 01
9745 / 01
Paper 1 Multiple Choice
24 September 2010
1 hour 15 minutes
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Data
speed of light in free space,
3.00 x 108 m s1
permeability of free space,
4 x 107 H m1
permittivity of free space,
0 = 8.85 x 1012 F m1
(1 / (36 )) x 109 F m1
elementary charge,
1.60 x 1019 C
the Planck constant,
6.63 x 1034 J s
unified atomic mass constant,
1.66 x 1027 kg
rest mass of electron,
me
9.11 x 1031 kg
rest mass of proton,
mp
1.67 x 1027 kg
molar gas constant,
8.31 J K1 mol1
the Avogadro constant,
NA =
6.02 x 1023 mol1
the Boltzmann constant,
1.38 x 1023 J K1
gravitational constant,
6.67 x 1011 N m2 kg2
acceleration of free fall,
9.81 m s2
Formulae
uniformly accelerated motion,
ut + 21 at 2
v2
u 2 + 2as
pV
hydrostatic pressure,
gh
gravitational potential,
displacement of particle in s.h.m.,
x0 sin t
velocity of particle in s.h.m.,
v0 cos t
work done on/by a gas,
Gm
r
(x
2
0
x2
mean kinetic energy of a molecule

of an ideal gas
E =
resistors in series,
R 1 + R2 +
1/R
1/R1 + 1/R2 +
electric potential,
Q
4 0 r
alternating current/voltage,
x0 sin t
transmission coefficient,
exp(2kd)
where k
radioactive decay,
decay constant,
resistors in parallel,
3
kT
2
8 2 m ( U E )
h2
x0 exp (t)
0.693
t1
2
The coefficient of viscosity, , for a fluid is given by:
FL
Av
where F is the external force on the fluid, v is the relative motion of the fluid layers, L and A
are the width and area of the fluid layer respectively. The base units for are
A N s-1 m-2
kg m s-1
B N s m-2
kg m-1 s-1
Estimate the number of atoms in 1 cm3 of a solid.
A 1010
1030
B 1024
1040
At time t = 0 s, a ball was released from rest above a floor. In the velocity-time graph shown
below, at which time does the ball reach its maximum height after bouncing from the floor?
velocity v
B
0
time t
C
Consider a falling raindrop undergoing constant acceleration. Which pair of quantities would
yield a straight line graph when plotted to represent the motion of the raindrop?
A Velocity of the raindrop and its displacement.

B Displacement of the raindrop and its time in motion.
C Kinetic energy of the raindrop and its displacement.
D Kinetic energy of the raindrop and its time in motion.
Two particles of identical masses are initially projected towards each other on a smooth
surface with speeds u1 and u2 respectively. They collide elastically with each other, and their
directions and speeds after the collision are shown in the figure below.
u1
u2
v1
v2
Before collision
After collision
Which one of the following equations cannot be applied to the collision of this system?
A u1 - u2 = v2 + v1
u12 u22 = v12 + v22
B u1 + u2 = v2 v1
u12 + u22 = v12 + v22
A movable notice-board of mass 2.0 kg is placed on a smooth floor. What is the initial
acceleration of the notice-board when a horizontal stream of water, travelling at speed
8.0 m s-1, strikes it at a rate of 1.0 kg s-1 for a duration of 50 s.
A 0.16 m s-2
4.2 m s-2
B 4.0 m s-2
8.0 m s-2
A pendulum bob is suspended in a bus of mass 3000 kg undergoing constant deceleration.

The pendulum makes an angle of 18 with the vertical. What is the deceleration of the bus?
direction of motion
18
A 0.32 m s-2
3.2 m s-2
B 3.0 m s-2
9.3 m s-2
A clown on a unicycle accelerates to the left.
direction of motion
road
What is the direction of the resultant force due to the road acting on the wheel of the
unicycle?
A 1.6 kg block slides down a plane that is inclined at 25 with the horizontal, at a constant
speed of 2.0 m s-1. At what rate is the frictional force doing work on the block?
A -28 W
13 W
B -13 W
10
28 W
A 100 kg crate is pulled from rest across a floor with a constant force of 320 N. For the first
20.0 m, the floor is frictionless and for the next 10.0 m, a constant frictional force of 30.0 N
acts on the crate. What is the final speed of the crate?
11
A 8.00 m s-1
13.6 m s-1
B 8.37 m s-1
13.9 m s-1
A car travels on a curved track of radius 150 m. The track is banked at an angle of 15o. At
what speed must the car travel such that friction is not required for it to travel safely in the
circular path?
12
A 13 m s-1
28 m s-1
B 20 m s-1
38 m s-1
A roller coaster starts from rest on a hill-top. It accelerates along a frictionless track and
enters a loop-the-loop of radius 60 m as shown below.
60
In order for the roller coaster to just remain in contact with the track when it is at the top of the
loop-the-loop, the vertical height H between its starting point and the entrance of the loop-theloop must be
A 90 m
150 m
B 120 m
13
180 m
A rock is thrown vertically upward near the surface of Planet X with a velocity of 45 m s-1 and
it comes to an instantaneous rest 5.2 s later. If the same rock is now thrown up near the
surface of Planet Y with the same initial velocity as that on Planet X, at 5.2 s later it is still
moving upwards at a speed of 25 m s-1. If both planets do not have atmosphere, the ratio of
the gravitational field strength near the surface of Planet Y to that of Planet X is
14
A 0.25
0.44
B 0.38
0.62
Suppose a planet has radius R and mass M. An object of mass m is moved from the surface
of the planet to a height h above the surface, where the planets gravitational field is
negligible. What is the change in gravitational potential energy of the object?
A
B
15
GMm
R+h
GMm
R+h
GMm
R
GMm
R
A body in simple harmonic motion makes n complete oscillations in 1.0 min. What is the
angular frequency of this motion?
n
rad s1
60
n
rad s1
30
n rad s1
2 n rad s1
16
A mass of 2.0 kg is executing simple harmonic motion. The net force F acting on the mass
varies with displacement x as shown. What is the maximum speed of the mass?
F/ N
8
4
0.4
0.2 0
0.2
0.4
x/ m
4
8
17
1.0 m s1
1.4 m s1
1.3 m s1
2.0 m s1
Four different solids A, B, C and D of equal masses at 20C are separately heated at the
same rate. Their melting points and specific heat capacities are as shown in the table below.
Which of these solids will start to melt first?
18
Liquid
Melting point/ C
Specific heat capacity/ J kg1 K1
80
1200
100
800
150
600
300
250
The piston of a gas-tight syringe containing an ideal gas is pulled outwards quickly. Which of
the following changes is incorrect?
A The density of the ideal gas decreases.

B The pressure of the ideal gas decreases.
C The temperature of the ideal gas decreases.
D The root-mean-square speed of the atoms increases.
10
19
Which of the following statements about electromagnetic waves is not true?
A They can be polarised.

B They are transverse waves.
C They always travel at 3.0 108 ms-1 .
D They are diffracted when they pass through a small aperture.
20
Some fine sand particles are present in a long transparent tube. A speaker is placed at the
end of the tube, and the frequency of the sound emitted is varied until the fine sand settles
into a series of small heaps. The diagram below shows a section of the tube and some of the
heaps that were formed.
Which of the following statements is true?
A The air molecules are vibrating vertically.

B The wavelength of the sound is given by L.
C The air pressure where the heaps are is the lowest.
D The positions of the heaps show the positions of the displacement nodes.
11
21
A horizontal steel wire is fixed at one end and is kept under tension by means of weights
suspended over a pulley. The length of wire between the fixed end and the pulley is 1.0 m.
Magnets are placed near the centre of the wire, and an alternating voltage supply is
connected to the wire between the fixed end and the pulley. Standing waves are formed when
the voltage supply is turned on. Five antinodes are observed on the wire.
1.0 m
S
Fixed
end
pulley
weights
Given that the speed of the wave on the wire is 24 m s-1, what is the frequency of the voltage
supply?
22
A 48 Hz
96 Hz
B 60 Hz
120 Hz
In a diffraction grating experiment, the first order image of a 438 nm blue light occurred at an
angle of 16.2. A second order coloured light was observed at 47.4. What is the wavelength
of this coloured light?
A 578 nm
637 nm
B 631 nm
696 nm
12
23
Two charges + 2q and q are placed at a distance 2d apart. The electric potential at X, a
distance d away from q is
2d
+2q
24
q
4 0d
q
12 0d
q
36 0 d 2
7q
36 0 d 2
The diagram shows two plates J and K, a distance 0.080 m apart in a vacuum. An electron,
originally at rest, is accelerated by a uniform electric field of 3.0 105 N C 1 from K to J. What
is the gain in the electrons kinetic energy?
Plate J
0.080 m
Plate K
Electron
moving
towards J
4.3 10 26 J
4.8 10 14 J
3.8 10 15 J
6.0 10 13 J
13
25
Eight small conductors of charge Q are placed on the edge of an insulating disc of diameter
D. The angular frequency of rotation of the disc is .
Q
Q
Q
D
Q
Q
Q
Q
What is the equivalent electric current at the edge of the disc?
A
B
26
4Q
8Q
D
C
D
8Q
16Q
A car battery of e.m.f. 12 V and internal resistance 0.020 is connected to a load of 4.0 . If
the potential difference across the load is 10 V, what is the power lost in the connecting
wires?
A 0.13 W
4.9 W
B 1.0 W
5.0 W
14
27
Five resistors of equal resistance are connected as shown.
R
Which two points would give the maximum combination resistance?
28
A PQ
PS
B PR
QS
The diagram below shows a simple potentiometer circuit used to determine the internal
resistance of a cell of e.m.f. E. The driver cell has an e.m.f. of 2.0 V with negligible internal
resistance and the metre wire PQ is 1.0 m long. The cell is connected in parallel with a
resistor of 2.0 . When the switch is open, the balance length is 0.70 m and when the switch
is closed, the balance length is 0.50 m.
2.0 V
Q
E
Switch S
2.0
What is the internal resistance of the cell?
A 0.15
0.50
15
29
D 0.80
B 0.40
Wire 1 carries a current of 4.2 A to the right as shown in the figure below. What is the
magnitude and direction of the current that is carried in Wire 2 so that the net magnetic flux
density at point A is 4.0 x 10-6 T.
10 cm
5 cm
The magnetic flux density at a perpendicular distance r from a straight current-carrying

conductor is given by B =
o I
, where I is the current in the conductor.
2 r
A 0.40 A to the left
1.4 A to the left
B 0.40 A to the right
1.4 A to the right
16
30
One end of a flat rectangular coil of negligible mass is placed at the centre of a 1000-turn
circular coil of diameter 25 cm as shown in the figure below. A current of 5.0 A is passed
through the rectangular coil and when a 5.0 g paper rider is placed at 2.0 cm to the right of
the pivot, the rectangular coil is balanced horizontally. What is the magnitude of the current
that the 1000-turn circular coil must carry in order for the rectangular coil to remain
horizontal?
4.0
cm
The magnetic flux density at the centre of a flat circular coil of N turns and radius r is given by
B=
o N I
2r
where I is the current carried in the coil.
A 3.3 A
6.5 A
B 5.0 A
9.0 A
17
31
Large alternating currents in a straight conductor can be measured by the e.m.f. induced in a
small coil. Which of the following arrangements of the coil induces the largest e.m.f.?
32
A right-hand drive car heads East at a speed of 20 m s-1. It cuts the vertical component of the
Earths magnetic field of flux density 5.0 X 10-5 T acting downwards. Taking the width of the
cars bonnet to be 1.5 m, what is the e.m.f. generated across the bonnet and which side of the
car will be positive?
E.m.f. generated
33
Side of car which is positive
0.67 mV
Driver
0.67 mV
Passenger
1.5 mV
Driver
1.5 mV
Passenger
An alternating current I in amperes in a load resistor of 8.0 varies with time t in seconds
according to the equation:
I = 5.0 sin(100t )
Which of the following is the mean power dissipated in the resistor?
40 W
100 W
50 W
200 W
18
A transformer steps up 120 V at the primary coil to 240 V at the secondary coil. If the
34.
current in the primary coil is 2.0 A and the power loss in the windings and core of the
transformer is 48 W, what is the current in the secondary coil?
35
A 0.2 A
1.0 A
B 0.8 A
1.2 A
In a photoelectric emission experiment, a metal is irradiated with photons of wavelength .

The minimum frequency to cause photoelectric emission is f0. If c is the speed of light, what
fraction of the photon energy is converted to kinetic energy in the electron travelling with the
greatest speed?
f0c
B
36
c
c f0
1
1
f0 c
f0
c
The figure below shows the wave function (x) of an electron.
(x)
Which of the following statements is correct?
A The probability of locating the electron at x = 0 is the highest.

B
(x )
is the probability of locating the electron within a given region.
C There is greater probability of locating the electron on the left of the vertical axis.
D The probability of locating the electron between positions P and Q is
( x ) dx .
19
37
Which of the following about doped semiconductors is correct?
A
B
C
D
38
Charge of semiconductor
Majority charge carriers
p-type
positive
holes
n-type
negative
electrons
p-type
neutral
holes
n-type
neutral
electrons
p-type
positive
protons
n-type
neutral
neutrons
p-type
neutral
protons
n-type
neutral
electrons
The figure below shows how the potential V(x) varies with the distance x across a p-n
junction.
V(x)
Which of the following graphs correctly shows the variation of V(x) when reverse bias is
applied across the p-n junction?
20
V(x)
n - type
p - type
V(x)
p - type
n - type
21
V(x)
n - type
x
p - type
V(x)
p - type
x
n - type
22
39
Two samples of radioactive nuclides X and Y are prepared. Y has twice the initial
activity and twice the half-life of X. After 6 half-lives of X, what is the ratio of the activity
of X to Y?
40
1
2
1
4
1
8
1
16
The nuclear reaction P + Q X + Y proceeds with a release of energy. Which of the

following statement must be correct?
Mass of X and Y is larger than mass of P and Q.
Momentum of X and Y is larger than momentum of P and Q.
Total binding energy of X and Y is larger than total binding energy of P and Q.
Binding energy per nucleon of both X and Y are larger than binding energy per
nucleon of P or Q.
END OF PAPER
Centre Number
Index Number
Name
Class
RAFFLES INSTITUTION
PHYSICS
9646 / 02
Higher 2
Paper 2
21 September 2010
1 hour 45 minutes
Candidates answer on the Question Paper.

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This booklet consists of 20 printed pages including the cover page.
2
DATA
c = 3.00 x 108 m s1
0 = 4 x 107 H m1
0 = 8.85 x 1012 F m1
elementary charge,
e = 1.60 x 1019 C
h = 6.63 x 1034 J s
unified atomic mass constant ,
u = 1.66 x 1027 kg
me = 9.11 x 1031 kg
mp = 1.67 x 1027 kg
molar gas constant,
R = 8.31 J K1 mol1
NA = 6.02 x 1023 mol1
k = 1.38 x 1023 J K1
G = 6.67 x 1011 N m2 kg2
g = 9.81 m s2
3
FORMULAE
s = ut + 21 at 2
v 2 = u 2 + 2as
W = pV
p = gh
displacement of particle in s.h.m.,
x = x0 sin t
velocity of particle in s.h.m.,
v = v 0 cos t
Gm
r
= x02 x 2

of an ideal gas,
E=
kT
R = R1 + R2 + . . . .
1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + . . . .
electric potential,
V = Q/40r
x = x0 sint
T = exp(2kd) where k =
radioactive decay,
x = x0 exp(t)
decay constant,
0.693
t1
2
8 2 m(U E )
h2
4
Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
A cylindrical thermos flask is used to store hot water. The internal diameter and depth of
the thermos flask are measured to be (8.50 0.01) cm and (17.0 0.1) cm respectively.
(a)
State the instrument used to measure its diameter and a systematic error that can
occur with the use of this instrument.
[2]
(b)
Calculate the capacity of the thermos flask and its associated uncertainty.
Volume =
cm3
[3]
5
2
(a)
A mass hanging from a spring balance in air gives a reading of 50 N. When the
mass is completely immersed in water, the reading on the balance is 40 N. It is
now completely immersed in another liquid, giving a reading of 34 N. Calculate the
density of this liquid. Assume that the density of water is 1000 kg m-3.
kg m-3
Density =
(b)
[2]
In Fig. 2 below, a uniform beam of length 10.0 m and weight 500 N is hinged to a
wall at point O. Its far end is supported by a cable that makes an angle of 53.0
with the horizontal. A 70.0 kg worker stands on the beam.
cable
53.0
O
s
Fig. 2
(i)
beam
Draw a labelled diagram showing the forces acting on the beam.
[2]
6
(ii)
The worker walks towards the far end of the beam from O. Calculate the
furthest distance s he can walk if the maximum possible tension in the cable
is 1000 N.
s=
(iii)
[2]
Calculate the magnitude of the force exerted by the hinge on the beam
when the tension in the cable is 1000 N.
Reaction force =
[3]
7
3
(a)
Gravitational field strength g and gravitational potential at a point due to a

d
where r is the distance
spherical body are related by the equation g =
dr
from the centre of the body to the point. Explain the significance of the negative
sign.
[1]
(b) Given the mass of Earth is 5.98 x 1024 kg and its radius is 6370 km, determine
the minimum kinetic energy required to project a spacecraft of mass 2550 kg
from the surface of Earth so that it completely escapes from the gravitational
field of Earth. Ignore air resistance.
Minimum energy =
[3]
(c) As a spacecraft falls towards Earth, it loses gravitational potential energy. State
the energy conversions for the spacecraft when it is falling through Earths
atmosphere at constant speed.
[1]
(d) An astronaut in a spacecraft orbiting around Earth can be said to experience

weightlessness. Explain why this is not true weightlessness.
[2]
8
4
(a)
Explain what is meant by internal energy of a gas.
[1]
(b)
A cylinder fitted with a piston contains 0.20 mole of an ideal gas. Initially the
volume and pressure of the gas are 5.0 10 3 m3 and 1.0 105 Pa respectively.
(i)
Calculate the initial temperature of the gas.
Initial temperature =
(ii)
[2]
The gas is
(1) heated at constant volume to twice its initial temperature
(2) cooled at constant pressure to its initial temperature, and finally
(3) expanded isothermally to its initial volume.
Sketch the above changes on a clearly labelled p-V diagram.
[4]
9
5
Two small identical styrofoam balls of mass 0.50 g and charge +15 nC are placed in a
hemispherical bowl of radius R with frictionless, non-conducting walls. At equilibrium,
they are at a distance of 0.50R apart as shown in Fig. 5.
hemispherical bowl
2
R
0.50 R
Fig. 5
(a)
(i)
Show that 14.5 .
[1]
(ii)
On Fig. 5, indicate all the forces acting on one of the balls in the bowl.
[2]
(iii) Hence determine the radius R of the bowl.
R=
(b)
cm
[3]
State the effect on if the Styrofoam balls are replaced with metal ones of the
same size and charge.
[1]
10
6
Fig.6.1 shows the front view of a large flat circular coil connected to a sinusoidal
alternating voltage supply and a small flat circular coil placed at the centre of the large
coil such that the planes of the two coils are coincident. The smaller coil is connected to
a cathode-ray oscilloscope (c.r.o).
large coil
small coil
To a.c. supply
To c.r.o.
Front view
Fig.6.1
(a)
If the variation of the sinusoidal alternating current to the large coil is as shown in
Fig.6.2, draw sketch graphs, one in each case, to show the variation with time of
(i) the magnetic flux through the small coil and
(ii) the induced e.m.f. in the small coil as displayed on the c.r.o..
Current
In large
coil
time
Fig.6.2
Magnetic flux
through small
coil
time
Induced
e.m.f in
small coil
.
time
[2]
11
(b)
Justify the shape of your sketches in (a).
[3]
(c)
State and explain how the trace on the screen of the c.r.o. would be affected if the
small coil is rotated such that the angle between the planes of the two coils
increase from zero to 900 whilst maintaining a constant root mean square current
in the large coil.
[2]
12
7
Radiation is a significant component of heat transfer in buildings, especially for sunexposed surfaces and regions of large temperature differences. Most countries have
building regulations that contain instructions about limiting heat transfer in order to
reduce the amount of heating or air-conditioning required.
In order to calculate heat transfer, a thermal transmittance coefficient or U-value is
P
where P is the
AT
rate of heat transfer in watts, A is the surface area of the structure and T is the air
measured for each type of building material. Mathematically, U =
temperature difference between each side of the structure in Kelvin. The U-values of
three construction components are given below:
Component
U-value / W m-2 K-1
Single-glazed window
5.6
Double-glazed window
3.2
Uninsulated roof
1.9
A house has windows of total area 24 m2 and a roof of area 60 m2. On average, the
owner heats the house for 3000 hours per year to a temperature that is 14 K above that
of the air outside.
(a)
(i)
Calculate the amount of energy lost in a year through single-glazed windows.
Energy loss =
(ii)
kWh
[3]
By installing double-glazed windows, calculate the owners annual savings if

electricity costs $0.25 per kWh.
Savings = $
[3]
13
(b)
The roof is now insulated with two 50 mm thick layers of thermal insulation on
each side to reduce heat transfer, as shown in Fig. 7 below.
t
Fig. 7
U-value for thermal insulation 50 mm thick = 1.4 W m-2 K-1
To calculate the rate of heat transfer P through such a roof, a composite U-value,
Uc, has to be used. Uc can be expressed in terms of the U-values of the individual
materials by the equation
1
1
1
+ .....
=
+
UC U1 U2
(i)
Using the above equation, show that the rate of heat transfer P through the
roof with thickness of thermal insulation on each side t = 50 mm is 430 W.
[1]
14
(ii)
Complete the table below for the different values of t. Leave your answers for
P to 2 significant figures.
t / mm
P/W
50
430
100
150
200
(iii)
[2]
Using the data from the table, plot a graph of P against t.
[2]
P/ W
400
300
200
100
50
100
150
200
250
thickness of thermal insulation on each side/ mm
(iv)
Explain why the rate of heat transfer for a thickness of 250 mm thermal
insulation on each side cannot be accurately determined from the above
graph.
[1]
15
(c)
External work is required to get heat to flow from a cold reservoir to a hot reservoir.
A heat pump is such a device, which applies external work W to extract an amount
of heat QC from a cold reservoir, and delivers heat QH to a hot reservoir, as shown
in the illustration below.
Thermal efficiency, e, of a heat pump is defined as the ratio of W to QH during one

cycle of the process. W, which is equivalent to(QH - QC ), maintains a particular
temperature difference between the hot and cold reservoirs.
Effectiveness of a heat pump can be described in terms of its coefficient of
performance, COP, given by the relationship:
COP(heating mode) =
1
e
The graph below shows the relationship between thermal efficiency, e, of an ideal
heat pump and the temperature of the hot reservoir, Th, for a temperature
difference of 27 K.
x
x
x
x
x
16
(i)
The house loses energy at a rate of 5.00 kW when the interior temperature is
287 K and the outside temperature is 260 K. Assuming a heat pump
operates with a coefficient of performance that is 60.0% of the ideal value,
calculate the electric power the heat pump needs to maintain the interior
temperature at 287 K.
(ii)
[3]
Electric resistance heaters convert all of the electrical energy supplied to

internal energy. Explain why heat pumps are preferred over electric
resistance heaters.
[2]
(iii)
Give an example of an everyday household appliance that behaves like a

heat pump.
[1]
17
It is recommended that you spend about 30 minutes on this question.
Light-dependent resistors or LDRs are used in light sensor circuits. The resistance of a
LDR is very high when the surrounding is dim and very low when it is illuminated with
light.
A student wishes to investigate how the resistance of a LDR varies with the amount of
light falling on it. The LDR has a resistance of 100 when it is in bright light and a
resistance of 500 k when no light falls on it.
Design a laboratory experiment to investigate how the resistance of the LDR depends
on the intensity of the illumination incident on the LDR.
You may assume that the following apparatus is available, together with any other
standard equipment which may be found in a college science laboratory:
electric light bulb
rheostat
light-dependent resistor (LDR)
light meter with light intensity sensor
digital multimeters
dry cells
connecting wires
black cardboard tube
You should draw diagrams to show the arrangement of your apparatus and important
electrical connections. In your account you should pay particular attention to
(a)
the procedure to be followed,
(b)
the measurements that would be taken,
(c)
the control of variables,
(d)
how the data would be analysed,
(e)
any safety precautions that you would take.

[12]
18
Diagram
19
20
End of Paper
Centre Number
Index Number
Name
Class
RAFFLES INSTITUTION
PHYSICS
Higher 2
9646/03
9745/03
Paper 3 Longer Structured Questions

15 September 2010
2 hours
Candidates answer on the Question Paper.
No Additional Materials are required.

Write your Centre number, index number, name and class in the spaces provided at the top
of this page.
Write in dark blue or black pen.
You may use a soft pencil for any diagrams, graphs or rough working.
Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid.
Section A
Answer all questions.
Section B
Answer any two questions.
You are advised to spend about one hour on each section.
Write your answers in the spaces provided in this booklet.
At the end of the examination, enter the Section B questions you have answered in the grid
below.
The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.
For Examiners Use
Section A
/ 10
/ 10
/ 10
/ 10
/20
Section B
/20
Total
This booklet consists of 23 printed pages.
/80
Data
3.00 x 108 m s-1
4 x 10-7 H m-1
8.85 x 10-12 Fm-1

(1 / (36 )) x 10-9 Fm-1
elementary charge,
1.60 x 10-19 C
6.63 x 10-34 J s
unified atomic mass constant,
1.66 x 10-27 kg
me
9.11 x 10-31 kg
mp
1.67 x 10-27 kg
molar gas constant,
8.31 J K-1 mol-1
NA
6.02 x 1023 mol-1
1.38 x 10-23 J K-1
6.67 x 10-11 N m2 kg-2
9.81 m s-2
Formulae

ut + at2
v2
u2 + 2as
pV
gh
Gm
r
displacement of particle in s.h.m.
xo sin t
velocity of particle in s.h.m.
vo cos t
(x
2
o
x2

of an ideal gas
3
kT
2
R1 + R2 +
1/R
1/R1 + 1/R2 +
electric potential,
Q / 4or
xo sin t
exp(-2kd)
where k
radioactive decay,
decay constant
8 2 m ( U E )
h2
xo exp (-t)
0.693
t1
2
4
SECTION A
Answer all the questions in this section.
(a)
Define simple harmonic motion.
[2]
(b)
The set up in Fig. 1 is used to demonstrate forced oscillation.

A paper card and pin are taped to the top end of a flexible rod B, which is pivoted
at its lower end such that it can only oscillate in a vertical plane. A pair of magnets
can slide along rod B.
A heavy pendulum P is attached to rod A which is pivoted at a fixed axle. The
position of the heavy pendulum can be adjusted along rod A.
Fig. 1
(i)
State, with a reason, whether B or P is being forced to oscillate.
[2]
(ii)
Suggest the effect of the following changes on the oscillations of rod B.
1.
Turning the paper card by 90 about a vertical axis.
2.
Moving the pair of magnets higher.
3.
Increasing the number of rubber bands.
[3]
(iii) During the experiment, the frequency fP of oscillation of the heavy pendulum
P is kept constant while the frequency fB of oscillation of rod B is adjusted in
steps. After each adjustment on rod B, its amplitude A is noted when the
oscillation becomes steady. Sketch two labelled graphs to show the variation
of A with fB for
1.
one rubber band, and
2.
two rubber bands.
[Assume light damping is present.]
fB
[3]
(a)
Distinguish between resistance and resistivity of a conductor.
[2]
(b)
A cell of e.m.f. 2.50 V and internal resistance R is connected to two uniform

resistive wires in series as shown in Fig. 2.1. The wires are made of the same
material but have different lengths and diameters. Wire AB is 50.0 cm long and
has a diameter d, whereas wire BC is 30.0 cm long and has a diameter 0.30 d.
The ammeter and connecting wires are assumed to have no resistance.
2.50 V
A
R
Fig. 2.1
Show that
RAB
= 0.150
RBC
[2]
(c)
A battery of e.m.f. 2.00 V and internal resistance r is connected across wire BC in

parallel with another resistor of resistance r as shown in Fig 2.2. The galvanometer
shows no deflection when the jockey J is at the midpoint of wire BC.
2.50 V
A
R
J
2.00 V
r
Fig 2.2
(i)
Show that VBC = 2.00 V
(ii)
Determine the internal resistance R of the 2.50 V cell if the ammeter shows a
reading of 0.400 A.
[1]
R=
(d)
[3]
Suggest and explain whether your answer in part (c)(ii) is an over-estimate or

under-estimate if the ammeter is not ideal.
[2]
(a)
Fig. 3.1 shows the essential energy levels of an atom in the production of laser
light.
E3
E2
E1
Fig. 3.1
(i)
Identify each of the energy levels, E1, E2 and E3, with metastable state,
ground state and excited state.
E1
E2
E3
(ii)
[2]
By drawing arrows on Fig. 3.1 to represent the movement of electrons,

explain the production of laser light.
[3]
(iii) In a ruby laser, electrons may reside at the metastable state for up to 3.0 ms.
Calculate the minimum uncertainty in the frequency of the photon emitted
during the production of laser light.
Minimum uncertainty in frequency =
(b)
Hz
[2]
Fig. 3.2 shows a typical X-ray spectrum produced by an X-ray tube where
electrons are accelerated through a constant accelerating potential towards a
metal target.
Intensity
Wavelength
min
Fig. 3.2
(i)
Account for the value min.
[1]
(ii)
Explain the changes in the X-ray spectrum when the accelerating potential is
decreased. Sketch the new spectrum on Fig. 3.2.
[2]
10
A cyclotron is a device used to accelerate ions to very high speeds. Fig. 4 shows a
diagram of a cyclotron viewed from above. It is composed of two hollow, semi-circular
electrodes called Dees. The Dees are encased inside a vacuum chamber and
exposed to a perpendicular uniform magnetic field. An ion source lies in between the
Dees at point A. An alternating voltage supply is connected across the Dees.
During operation, the voltage supply produces an alternating electric field in the small
gap between the Dees. This is to ensure that the ions are accelerated each time they
cross the gap. On entering the Dees, the uniform magnetic field causes the ions to
move in a circular path. As the ions speed up, they travel in ever larger circles within the
Dees. Once the ions reach a sufficiently large speed, they exit through an outlet in one
of the Dees which is aimed at a target.
Fig. 4
At any time when an ion of mass m and charge q accelerates across the small gap, the
potential difference between the Dees is V. The ion then travels in a circular path in
the Dees where a uniform magnetic field of flux density B is applied perpendicularly.
11
(a)
Show that the time T for the ion to complete one revolution is
2 m
Bq
[2]
Ignore relativistic effects.
(b)
A helium nucleus of mass 6.68 x 10-27 kg and charge 2e is accelerated in the

cyclotron by applying an alternating potential difference of 450 V across the
Dees. The magnetic flux density through the Dees is 0.850 T.
(i)
Calculate the time T to complete one revolution for the helium nucleus.
T=
(ii)
s [2]
Determine the frequency f of the alternating voltage supply so that the

helium nucleus is accelerated everytime it crosses the gap between the
Dees.
f=
Hz
[2]
12
(iii) State an expression for the gain in kinetic energy of the helium nucleus after
one revolution in terms of e and V.
Gain in kinetic energy =
[1]
(iv) Hence, determine the speed v of the helium nucleus after five revolutions.
v=
m s-1
[3]
13
SECTION B
Answer two questions in this section.
A ball of mass m = 3.00 kg is released from rest at a height h = 0.500 m on a frictionless

incline as shown in Fig 5.1. The incline, which makes an angle = 30.0o to the
horizontal, is fastened to an immovable table of height H = 2.00 m.
m
h
Fig. 5.1
(a)
Determine the contact force between the incline and the ball, after the ball is
released.
Contact force =
(b)
[2]
m s-2
[2]
Determine the acceleration of the ball as it slides down the incline.
Acceleration =
14
(c)
(d)
Hence, or otherwise, show that the speed of the ball as it leaves the incline is
3.13 m s-1.
Calculate the horizontal range R of the ball.
Horizontal range =
(e)
[2]
The estimated normal contact force acting on the ball upon hitting the floor is
shown in Fig. 5.2. Assume that the floor is frictionless.
Normal
contact force / N
360
0.200
Fig. 5.2
Time / s
[4]
15
(i)
Determine the impulse delivered to the ball in the vertical direction.
Vertical component of impulse =
(ii)
Ns
[2]
Hence, determine the vertical speed of the ball at the instant it rebounds from
the floor.
Vertical speed of rebound =
m s-1
[4]
(iii) State and explain whether this is an elastic or inelastic collision. Describe the
energy changes during the collision.
[4]
16
(a)
State two conditions for observable interference of two waves.
[2]
(b)
In an aircraft landing system, it is important to guide the aircraft along the centreline of the runway prior to landing. In a simple landing system, rows of light guides
are lined along the runway to help guide the pilot.
The minimum power of light that can be detected by the human eye of area
0.50 cm2 is about 2.5 10-11 W. If an aircraft is 12 km away from the runway, find
the required power of one light guide such that it is observable by the pilot.
Assume that the light guide is a point source and that there are no energy losses.
Power =
[3]
17
(c)
In another type of landing system, aircrafts are guided using interference of radio
waves. Fig. 6.1 shows two radio wave emitters P and Q positioned 50 m apart at
the end of the runway. The two emitters emit radio waves of frequency f1 in phase.
The aircraft can be guided by searching for the strong signal radiated along the
lines of constructive interference, also known as anti-nodal lines. To ensure that
the aircraft is along the centre-line of the runway, the aircraft needs to lock on to
the central anti-nodal line.
Top view
(figure not to scale)
Anti-nodal lines
Q
runway
Fig. 6.1
(i)
Suggest why radio waves are used instead of waves of shorter wavelengths
(e.g. microwaves, etc.).
[2]
(ii)
Explain why the entire centre-line will always be an anti-nodal line.
[2]
18
(d)
One particular aircraft at a vertical height of 480 m strays off the centre-line as
shown in Fig. 6.2. Fig. 6.3 shows the radio wave signals from P and Q detected by
the aircraft in this position.
480 m
(diagram not to scale)
180 m
4800 m
P
50 m
Fig. 6.2
Signal detected by aircraft
Signal A
time
Signal B
Fig. 6.3
(i)
The source of signal B is emitter P. Using Fig. 6.3, explain why this is so.
[1]
(ii)
State the phase difference between signals A and B.

Phase difference =
rad
[1]
19
(iii) Hence determine the frequency f1 of the radio wave used.
f1 =
(e)
Hz
[4]
As an additional precaution to prevent the aircraft from locking on to the wrong

anti-nodal line, the emitters can simultaneously emit another radio wave of a
different frequency f2. However, for this precaution to work, the ratio of the two
f
1 2 4
frequencies 1 should not be an integer ratio (e.g. , , , etc.).
f2
2 3 3
(i)
Explain how this precaution can prevent the aircraft from locking on to the
wrong anti-nodal line.
[1]
(ii)
Explain why the ratio of the two frequencies should not be an integer ratio.
[2]
20
(f)
Suggest one advantage and one disadvantage of the wave-interference system

over the light guide system in guiding aircrafts to land safely.
Advantage:
[1]
Disadvantage:
[1]
21
(a)
Define binding energy.
[1]
(b)
A minimum energy Q is required to remove a neutron from a helium-4 nuclide to

form a helium-3 nuclide. The following data is given:
Binding energy per nucleon of helium-4 nuclide = 6.8465 MeV
Binding energy per nucleon of helium-3 nuclide = 2.2666 MeV
Mass of neutron = 1.0087 u
1 u = 931.494 MeV
(i)
Write the nuclear equation for this reaction.

[1]
(ii)
Calculate Q.
Q=
MeV
[3]
(iii) Hence, calculate the difference in mass between the helium-3 and helium-4
nuclides.
Difference in mass =
[3]
22
(iv) With reference to the above process, explain why the mass difference is less
than the mass of a neutron.
[1]
(c)
Helium-2 is a hypothetical isotope of helium which consists of two protons and no

neutrons. It has negative binding energy.
(i)
Explain the implication of the italicized terms on helium-2.
[1]
(ii)
Suggest a reason for this.
[1]
(d)
A radioactive source contains a mixture of nuclides

35
16
32
15
S is 6.14 times that of
source comes from the
(i)
32
15
32
15
P and
35
16
S . The half-life of
P . At time t = 0 s, 90% of the total activity from this
P nuclides.
Define half-life.
[1]
(ii)
If the number of
35
16
32
15
P nuclides is N at time t = 0 s, determine the number of
S nuclides in the source in terms of N.
Number of
35
16
S nuclides =
[3]
23
(iii) Calculate the time elapsed for 90% of the total activity to come from the
35
32
16 S nuclides, given that the half-life of 15 P is 14.3 days.
Time elapsed =
days
[4]
32
(iv) Suggest a possible use for 15
P , which is a beta-emitter with a half-life of
14.3 days.
[1]
END OF PAPER

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Paper 1 Multiple Choice

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

This booklet consists of 22 printed pages including the cover page.

permeability of free space,

permittivity of free space,

the Planck constant,

unified atomic mass constant,

rest mass of electron,

rest mass of proton,

molar gas constant,

the Avogadro constant,

6.02 x 1023 mol1

the Boltzmann constant,

6.67 x 1011 N m2 kg2

acceleration of free fall,

displacement of particle in s.h.m.,

velocity of particle in s.h.m.,

work done on/by a gas,

mean kinetic energy of a molecule

The coefficient of viscosity, , for a fluid is given by:

Estimate the number of atoms in 1 cm3 of a solid.

A Velocity of the raindrop and its displacement.

u12 u22 = v12 + v22

u12 + u22 = v12 + v22

A pendulum bob is suspended in a bus of mass 3000 kg undergoing constant deceleration.

A clown on a unicycle accelerates to the left.

Specific heat capacity/ J kg1 K1

A The density of the ideal gas decreases.

Which of the following statements about electromagnetic waves is not true?

A They can be polarised.

Which of the following statements is true?

A The air molecules are vibrating vertically.

What is the equivalent electric current at the edge of the disc?

Five resistors of equal resistance are connected as shown.

What is the internal resistance of the cell?

The magnetic flux density at a perpendicular distance r from a straight current-carrying

A 0.40 A to the left

1.4 A to the left

B 0.40 A to the right

1.4 A to the right

where I is the current carried in the coil.

Side of car which is positive

In a photoelectric emission experiment, a metal is irradiated with photons of wavelength .

The figure below shows the wave function (x) of an electron.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A The probability of locating the electron at x = 0 is the highest.

is the probability of locating the electron within a given region.

Which of the following about doped semiconductors is correct?

Majority charge carriers

The nuclear reaction P + Q X + Y proceeds with a release of energy. Which of the

Mass of X and Y is larger than mass of P and Q.

Momentum of X and Y is larger than momentum of P and Q.

Candidates answer on the Question Paper.

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

For Examiners Use

This booklet consists of 20 printed pages including the cover page.

permeability of free space,

permittivity of free space,

the Planck constant,

unified atomic mass constant ,

rest mass of electron,

rest mass of proton,