Food Saftey

Sunita 110071102771
How do enzymes catalyze reactions?

by lowering the Ea barrier
True or False: Enzymes start chemical reactions.

FALSE. Enzymes don't start reactions- they HASTEN reactions that would occur eventually.
Star this term

You can study starred terms together
enzyme substrate
the reactant that an enzyme acts on
Star this term

The enzyme binds to its substrate, forming what?

an enzyme-substrate complex
Star this term

Play audio for this term
What is the active site?

The active site is the region on the enzyme where the substrate binds.
Star this term

True or false: Enzymes fit with any shape of molecules.

FALSE. Each substrate/reactant has a unique shape. Enzymes that act upon different molecules fit specifically with
their shape.
An enzyme's activity can be affected by what two factors?

General environmental factors (such as temperature and Ph) -AND- chemicals that specifically influence the enzyme
Each enzyme has an optimal _________ and _________ in which it can function.
temperature / pH
If a cell's metabolic pathways were not tightly regulated, what would result?
CHEMICAL CHAOS
What does a cell do to regulate metabolic pathways?

The cell switches on or off the genes that encode specific enzymes.
Structures within the cell help ____________.

bring order to metabolic pathways
Some enzymes act as _____________.

structural components of membranes
Some enzymes reside in specific organelles, such as...

enzymes for cellular respiration being located in mitochondria
by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to occur

FALSE. Enzymes don't start reactions- they SPEED UP reactions that would occur eventually.

Enzyme substrate
The reactant that an enzyme acts on

Enzyme-substrate complex


FALSE. Each substrate/reactant has a unique shape. The have a specific substrate the work on
An enzyme's activity can be affected by what three factors?

Temperature, pH and Concentration of the Substrate
Temperature / pH

Enzymes for cellular respiration are located in mitochondria
The names of enzymes mostly end in

" ASE" Protease
Exception: Pepsin
Lysomsomes
Contain enzymes that digest waste and damaged organelles so the cell can dispose of them

Activation Energy
The energy required to initiate a reaction.
Optimal Enzyme Temperature Graph

The temperature at which each enzyme specifically works at. In this graph it is 37 degrees C or 98.6 degrees F.
Denature (verb)
destroy the characteristic properties of (a protein or other biological macromolecule) by heat, acidity, or other effects
that disrupt its molecular conformation.
Lock and Key Model

Enzymes are specific. The only wok on the substrate that they "fit." Just like a lock has a specific key to open it.
competitive inhibitor
A substance that reduces the activity of an enzyme by entering the active site in place of the substrate whose structure it
mimics.
non competitive inhibitor

a substance that reduces the activity of an enzyme by entering a site away from the active site, thus changing the shape
of the active site

Biological detergent
Detergents that contain enzymes. They are also biodegradable.

Enzyme substrate




Temperature / pH


" ASE" Protease
Exception: Pepsin
Pepsin works on what substrate?

Protein in the human stomach
Catalse works on what substrate?

Blood and human cells creating H2O2 Hydrogen Peroxide
Lysosomes

Activation Energy

Denature (verb)
Lock and Key Model

mimics.

of the active site
allosteric inhibitor
change the shape of the active site, and may enhance enzyme function
reversible inhibition
when an inhibitor forms weak chemical bonds with the enzyme, can be competitive or non competitive
irreversible inhibition
inhibitor that binds covalently and cannot be remove
feedback inhibition
A method of metabolic control in which the end product of a metabolic pathway acts as an inhibitor of an enzyme within
that pathway

induced fit model
a more accurate model of the enzyme's action. enzyme and substrate fit; substrate binding causes enzyme to change
shape for a tighter fit.

Enzyme substrate



An enzyme's activity can be affected by what factors?

Temperature, pH, Concentration of the Substrate, Activators, and Inhibitors
Temperature / pH


" ASE" Protease
Exception: Pepsin
Lysomsomes
Activation Energy

Denature (verb)
Lock and Key Model

mimics.

of the active site
Activators
molecules that bind to an enzyme and change the shape of an active site so that the enzyme becomes more active.
Inhibitors
molecuels that bond to an enzyme and change the shape of an active site so that the enzyme becomes less active
Simple Enzyme
just the protein
Holoenzyme
part protein
apoenzyme + co-enzyme/ cofactor
Co-enzyme
Larger organic molecules derived from vitamins and are involved directly in the enzymatic reactions
apoenzyme
protein
cofactor
Metal ions
Reactions
Exergonic - reactions that release energy. Spontaneous reaction
Endergonic - reactions that absorb energy
Activation energy - the energy needed for a reaction to occur
Transition state - Point in a reaction where there is a chance it will return to substrate or create product.

Enzyme substrate





Temperature / pH


" ASE" Protease
Exception: Pepsin

Denature (verb)
Lock and Key Model

mimics.
1) Chemical constitutes of food
2 types of browning
caramelization: burned sugar
mallard browning: a chemical reaction between the amine group and aldehyde group
2 types of proteins
simple- contains only amino acids
conjugated- contains amino acids plus additional groups of vitamins and minerals

7 ways to denature a protein
* heat
* acid
* enzymes
alkalide
excessive mechanical agitation
salt
alcohol
Amino Acids
contain elements C, O, N, H and P, S
essential amino acids must be consumed
non essential amino acids can be converted from other AAs by our bodies
Amylase
starch splitting enzyme
C4
C6
C8 names
butyric
caproic
caprylic
C4-C10 result in what

rancid off flavors
C6-C10
goaty fatty acids because fat of goats milk is highest in these fatty acids
C10
C12
C14
capric
lauric
myristic
C16
C18
palmitic
stearic
complete proteins
contain all essential amino acids
Constituents (13)
fats
carbs
proteins
vitamins
minerals
water
enzymes
flavors
pigments
emulsifiers
oxidants
antioxidants
acids
Constituents affect... (6)

structure
texture
flavor
nutritional value
keeping quality
color of foods
Difference in arrangement of elements in sugars makes a difference to what?
solubility
sweetness
fermentation rates by microorganisms
Disaccharides
C12H22O11
sucrose, maltose, lactose
Enzymes
chemical substances produced by living plant and animal cells that are capable of speeding up or slowing down
reactions already in progress without being changed or becoming part of the end products formed
Essential amino acids (9)

isoleucine, phenylalanine, valine, methionine, threoline, tryptophan, lucine, lysine, histadine (children)
Flavors
very complex
gas chromatography used to identify flavors in foods
Fruit acids
citric
malic
tartaric
Hydrogenation equation
oil + H2 + Ni + high heat and pressure ---> fat
Incomplete proteins
deficient in at least one of the essential amino acids
ex. cereal grains usually deficient in lycine
items close to being a complex protein (3)

egg
milk
meat
Monosaccharides
building blocks for complex sugars
C6H12O6
glucose/dextrose, galactose, fructose
The more complex the sugar...

the less sweet and less water soluble
The more unsaturated, the...

more liquid the oil
Natural Anti-oxidants in foods

lecithin
vitamin E
sulfur with amino acids (methionine, cystine, cystaine)
Natural emulsifiers in food

lecithin: ties water and fat together and prevents them from separating
found in egg yolks milk fat globule membrane
Organic acids in foods

* helps slow bacterial spoilage
gives tartness
Oxidants
oxygen/air
sunlight/UV
Cu, Fe, Ni
Peptide bond
ties amino acids together to form proteins
Phospholipids
lecithin
cephalin
sphingomyelin
Pigments/Colors
chlorophyll: green in plants
carotin: orange in carrots
lycopene: red in tomatoes
anthocyanonins: purple in grapes
oxymyoglobin: red color of meats
Properties of complex sugars

not sweet
insoluble in cold water
reserve source of energy
Properties of simple sugars

sweet
soluble in cold water
instant source of energy
Protease, Lipase
protein,fat splitting enzymes
Protein breakdown
good when controlled (cheddar cheese aging)
bad when uncontrolled (rotten eggs)
Protein denaturation
structure is changed and protein precipitates out
ex. milk: acids and enzymes ---> cheese
Starch
a polysaccharide
(C6H10O5)x where x is 4+
major starch in plants is amylose
major starch in animals is glycogen
Structures of proteins
straight
folded
coiled
Sucrose vs. Lactose

sucrose is 6x sweeter
4.5x more soluble
Trisaccharides
C18H32O16
raffinose (found in feed stocks)
Two types of fatty acids

saturated: one that has no double bonds between carbons
unsaturated: has at least one set of double bonds (1-3)
Unsatturated Fatty Acids

olaic 1 double bond between C9 and C10
linoleic 2 double bonds between C9/C10 and C12/C13
linolenic 3 double bonds between C9/C10, C12/C13, C15/C16
Water
major constituent in foods
avg of 70% in foods
60-65% in meat, 87% in milk, 85-90% in fruits, 90-95% in vegs, 10-15% in grains
What are the two sterols?

animal cholesterol
plant ergosterol
What causes oxidized off flavor in unsaturated fatty acids?

oxygen will attach the FAs at the double bond proteins
Collagen
Connective tissue in meat which softens when heated. Turns into gelatin when heated. Surrounds muscle
Elastin
Resistent to heat. Little change to cooking, yellow in color. Foun in ligaments.
Myofibrils
Muscle composed of bundels of fibers
Marbiling
Fat deposited around organs in muscles.
Finish
Amount of fat cover on carcass.
What is the main contributor to color of meat?

Myoglobin and Oxymyoglobin
Oxymyoglobin
Myoglobin and oxygen = bright red color of meat.
Myoglobin
purple red apperance of meat.
Wholesome Meat Act of 1967

-Meat be inspected interstate.
-Done at slaughter.
-Assures WHOLESOMESS NOT QUALITY.
-Shown with purple rounds stamp.
-USDA
USDA Agriculture Marketing Service

-Quality
-Grades Prime, choice, select
National Association of Meat Purveyors (NAMP) and Institutional Meat Purchasing Specifications
(IMPS)
meat specifications utilizing numbering system for order wholesale cuts.
What affects tenderness of meat?

1.Rib and loin area cuts of meats
2.Fat and marbling
3.Heredity and aging
Moist Cooking Methods

For less tender meats such as brisket and flank. Methods inlude steaming, stewing, simmer, braising and proteolytic
enzyme (papain).
Dry Cooking Methods

For tender meats such as loin, backbone, and chuck. Baking, broiling, pan-broiling, frying, roasting, and stir frying.
Two Classes of Seafood

-Fin Fish
-Shell Fish
The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA)

-Voluntary Seafood Inspection
Poultry Inspection
-Wholesome Poultry Products Act indicates all poultry sold in US to be inspected for wholesomeness.
Meat Alternatives
-Meat Anologs
-Food made with soy and other ingredients to imitate meat.
Candling
-Process in which eggs are graded
-AA,A,B
-A in grocery stores
-B usually shipped to food manufactures for recipes

What temperature are eggs refrigerated?
-40 degrees f
Addition of acid to eggs

-Ex cream of tartar may stabalize eggs
Addition of vinegar and salt to eggs

-Aids in coagulation.
Avidin
-A component of raw eggs that binds to biotin if its not broken by heat.
Pasteurization
Sanitation process in which milk is heated to kill bacteria.
Evaporated Milk
60% of water removed.
Condensed Milk
50% of water removed and sugar added.
Buttermilk
Cultured Milk, made up of bacteria.
Homogenization
Breaking of fat globules by forcing through a screen to allow fat to break into small particles and form an emulsion.
Components of Grains
-Bran: Outer part covers kernel-fiber and vitamins
-Endosperm: Centralized area-contains starch and protein
-Germ: Must be refrigerated. When exposed to air prone to rancidity.
Slurry
Mixing starch with cold water prior to adding to hot water.
Roux
Melted fat with flour.
Gelatinazation
Starch is heated a paste is formed
Synersis
Separation of liquid from gel.
What amino acid is cereal deficient in?

Lysine
When a cake is raised in the middle what may be the problem?

The oven is too hot
Tough compact product

Over Kneading
Course texture and Low Volume of a product

Under Kneading
Tough Crust
Not enough sugar
Bitter Flavor
Too much baking powder
Muffins: Flat tops

Too little mixing
Turgidity
Crispiness due to water pressure in the plant
Chlorophyll
-Pigment in which in acid it turns olive green turns into pheopytin.

-In alkaline it turns bright green pigment turns into Chlorophyllin.
Caretenoids
Orange. Little changes in acid or alkaline solutions.
-Ex is lycopene giving tomato and watermelon the red color
-Fat soluble more stable
Anthocyanins
-Red, blue,purple
-Acid-turns bright red
-Alkaline turns blue
-Water soluble
Anthoxanthins or flavones
-Colorless in acid
-Yellow in alkaline solutions
-Ex onions turn yellow when cooked in alluminum pan.
-Water soluble
Glycerol
-Backbone of a tryglyceride
What is a tryglyceride composed of?

-3 Fatty Acids
Saturated Fats
-No double bonds
-Saturated with hydrogens
-Lard and Butter
Monosaturated Fats
-One double bond
-Olive Oil and Canola Oil
Polysaturated Fats
-More than 1 double bond
-Sunflower Oil and Corn Oil
Hydrogenation
-Changing liquid oils into solid
-Reduces rancidity
-Undesirable flavor or oil
Smoke Point for Fat

-420 degrees.
Fat Function in Cooking

-Flavor
-Flakiness and tenderness
-Emulsion
What some important properties of proteins?
Foaming, emulsion stabilization and gelation
Colloidal dispersions
particles of ONE substance are distributed, dispersed, in ANOTHER substance WITHOUT dissolving
- has two phases: dispersed and continuous
Dispersed phase
Substance that is dispersed within another
Continuous phase
Substance that extends throughout the system and surrounds the dispersed phase
What are the types of dispersion?

sol (not solution), emulsion, solid emulsion, gel, foam, solid foam
Describe sol (name its continuous and dispersed phase, and an example)
suspension of LARGE molecules dispersed in a liquid, generally water
- continuous phase: liquid
- dispersed phase: solid
- examples: starches, proteins and some plant polysaccharides in water
Describe emulsion (name its continuous and dispersed phase, and an example)
suspension of LIQUID DROPLETS (fat or water) within a LIQUID medium (fat or water)
- food emulsions can either be oil in water (o/w) or water in oil (w/o)
- continuous phase: liquid
- dispersed phase: liquid
- Homogenized milk is a dispersion of milk fat droplets in a liquid medium (skim portion of milk - which is a
suspension of milk protein particles, casein micelles in a liquid medium)
- Another example: margarine
Describe solid emulsion (name its continuous and dispersed phase, and an example)
dispersion of LIQUID DROPLETS within a SOLID phase
- continuous phase: solid
- dispersed phase: liquid
Examples: butter, margarine (both are water in oil emulsions)
- continuous phase is solid under refrigerator or low ambient temperatures
- oil is liquid, but if hydrogenated or a lot of SATURATED fats, it becomes more solid
Describe gel (name its continuous and dispersed phase, and an example)
a dispersion of water held within a continuous matrix of POLYSACCHARIDES (starch gels) or PROTEINS (gelatin
gels). Some scientists consider the water in gels to be a second continuous phase rather than a dispersed phase
Continuous phase: solid
Dispersed phase: [liquid]
Examples: starch, pectin or gelatin gels
Describe foam (name its continuous and dispersed phase, and an example)
a dispersion of GAS bubbles distributed within a LIQUID phase
- a typical foam is created when egg whites are beaten and air is incorporated within the liquid by the action of the egg
white proteins which stabilize the bubbles by forming a film around the gas
Continuous phase: liquid
Dispersed phase: gas
Examples: beaten egg white, whipped cake frostings
Describe solid foam (name its continuous and dispersed phase, and an example)
created when gas bubbles are dispersed within a SOLID phase (ice cream). In the case of whipped egg whites, the foam
is converted to a solid foam by the action of heat on the egg proteins.
Continuous phase: solid
Dispersed phase: gas
Examples: meringue, ice cream, bread
What are the major food components of food systems (4)?

carbohydrates, fats, proteins and water
- minor food components: organic acids, pigments, aroma compounds, vitamins and minerals
Describe carbohydrates
- one of the three main classes of nutrients (the other two being fats and proteins)
- occur in foods like sugars and starches and are the human body's main source of energy
- digestible carbohydrate contribute 4 cals of metabolized energy/gram
- most of the carbohydrates we consume should be in the form of complex carbohydrates (polysacchardies) such as
starch rather than as simple sugars (monosaccharides and disaccharides) such as table sugar
What are the main MONOsacchardies found in food?

glucose, fructose, galactose
- they are referred to as SIMPLE sugars because one of their main functions is their ability to impart a sweetness
sensation
T/F: sweetness is related to caloric contribution of a sweetening agent and the more calories the
sweeter
False; there is no relation

- sugars vary in their sweetening power
- both fructose and lactose produce 4 cals/g but lactose is only 1/7 as sweet as fructose
What is the sweetness index of glucose (dextrose), fructose (levulose), sucrose and lactose?
70-80; 140; 100; 10-20
What are disaccharides and what disaccharides are found in food?

- formed by the union of 2 monosaccharide molecules
- also considered as "simple" sugars
- can be split into their component monosaccharides by enzymes or by boiling with dilute acids
- most important disaccharides: lactose, sucrose, maltose
-- differ in solubility, sweetness and other properties
Describe sucrose
- table sugar, obtained from sugar cane or sugar beet, is mainly pure sucrose
- formed from GLUCOSE + FRUCTOSE
- can be found in a variety of fruits, grasses and roots
Invert sugar
- a replacement for sucrose; sweeter than sucrose
- has a greater sweetening power per unit weight of the fructose containing sweetening systems
- produced by hydrolyzing sucrose with the enzyme INVERTASE or with acid to produce a mixture of glucose + fructose
What are the primary sugars in honey?

It is glucose and fructose in a 40:60 ratio
- most of the nectar collected by honey bee contains sucrose which is hydrolyzed by invertase in the saliva of the honey
bee
- some of the glucose is converted to gluconic acid and hydrogen peroxide by GLUCOSE OXIDASE, another enzyme
secreted into the collected nectar by the honey bee
- gluconic acid and hydrogen peroxide act as preservatives in the nectar
Describe lactose
- also known as milk sugar, occurs in the milk of all animals
- formed by linking GLUCOSE + GALACTOSE together
- hydrolysis of lactose found in dairy products into its monosaccharides is catalyzed by the enzyme LACTASE
- Lactose can be fermented by lactic acid bacteria, producing lactic acid
- Lactic acid is the acidulant and PRESERVATIVE agent in yogurt and numerous cheeses
T/F: Breaking down lactose substantially decreases the sweetness

False; it increases!
What do lactose-intolerant people lack?

lactase to digest lactose
- lactose-free products have the enzyme lactase (usually isolated frmo yeast) added to them
- lactose intolerant individuals can take tablets containing the enzyme, prior to eating or drinking dairy or other food
products with lactose or milk solids
Describe maltose
- contains 2 GLUCOSE units linked together
- obtained when starch is hydrolysed by the enzyme AMYLASE or by heating with dilute acid
- further hydrolysed by the enzyme MALTASE into its D-glucose units which are then enzymatically isomerized by
GLUCOSE ISOMERASE to produce a liquid syrup composed of 42% fructose, commercially known as high fructose
corn syrup (HFCS 42)
starch/amylose (not sweet) -- amylase --> maltose (slightly sweet) -- maltase --> glucose + glucose (sweet) -- glucose
isomerase --> fructose (very sweet)
What enzyme helps create HFCS 42?

Glucose isomerase;
online: this enzyme causes isomerization of glucose to fructose
HFCS
High Fructose Corn Syrup has 42% fructose, 52% glucose and 6% starch
HFCS 90 is made by HFCS42 + HFCS55 which has a sweetness profile similar to sucrose
- many soft drinks are now sweetened with HFCS especially when costs of these syrups is lower than the cost of sucrose
or even invert sugar

sugars are widely used for their sweetening power. the sweetness of carbohydrates is determined by
their ___ ___ and ___ with sensory receptors on the tongue.
molecular structure; interaction
Sugars produce ___ and ___ feel when they are incorporated into foods at concentrations high
enough to affect the viscosity of the food product
mouth; body
production of hot ___-saturated sugar solutions with controlled crystallization during cooling is the
basis of formation of many hard candy products and toffees
super
sugars are readily soluble in ___ because they contain many hydroxyl groups which form hydrogen
bonds with ___.
water; water
Solubility of sugars ___ as the temperature of water increases.

Increases
- this property is used to produce syrups of varing concentrations for various uses
Sugars can be ___ from solution when water is evaporated. This is the basis of production of table
sugar (sucrose) from the juice extracted from sugar cane and sugar beets
crystallized
Sugars, in sufficiently high concentration, can be used to ___ growth of undesirable

microorganisms. They function as a ___ by binding water needed by the microorganisms
inhibit; preservative
Sugars are ___ by microorganisms with the concomitant production of acids and/or alcohols as well
as flavouring compounds
fermented
- this is the basis for production of fermented foods and ingredients obtained by means of microbial fermentations
When exposed to high temperatures, sugars c___.

caramelize
___ (non-reducing/reducing) sugars react with proteins and amino compounds to produce flavours
and colours in foods (Maillard Browning).
Reducing
What are two non-enzymatic browning reactions that simple sugars serve as reactants in?
Caramelization and Maillard browning reaction
Caramelization
involves reaction of sugars (reducing and non-reducing sugars) when heated at high temperatures (200 oC) to produce
caramel and butterscotch flavours. The brown pigments formed during the heating of sugars contributes to the colour
of caramel candies and toffees. The pigments are NOT the same as the melanoidins formed during the Maillard reaction
Maillard browning reaction

involves REDUCING sugars react with NITROGENOUS compounds such as amino acids, proteins or amines
Reducing sugar + amino compound (NH2) --> Maillard reaction products
- many LOW molecular weight intermediate compounds are formed and these often are aroma and flavour compounds
that contribute to the desirable or undesirable flavours produced in a food by the Maillard reaction
- examples of desirable compounds are the aroma and flavour of baked bread, toasted bread and roasted coffee while
undesirable aromas and flavours are those that form in skim milk powder during storage, etc.
- brown colours are HIGH molecular weight pigments, MELANOIDINS, formed as a result of POLYMERIZATION of
some of the LOW molecular weight intermediate fractions
Reducing sugar
contains a FREE aldehyde or ketone group = contain a FREE "OH" group on the position next to the O in the ring
structure
What are examples of reducing sugar?

Glucose, fructose, galactose and lactose (and maltose)
- sucrose is NOT a reducing sugar
Is invert sugar a reducing sugar?
Yes..?
What is the difference between simple and complex carbohydrates?

- simple sugars: mono- and di-saccharides
- complex carbohydrates (polysaccharides) such as starch, cellulose, pectin and glycogen ("animal starch")
Why is HFCS used in low-calorie products?

Less needed for more sweetness and it's less expensive
Why are sugar alcohols used in chewing gum?

no tooth decay and texturizing process
What sugar alcohols are less sweet than sucrose? Which sugar alcohol is known to have a laxative
effect and why?
sorbitol, mannitol, maltitol;
solbitol, apparently because of its slow intestinal absorption
Polysacchardies
- classified as COMPLEX carbohydrates
- high-molecular weight, long chains (polymers) of monosaccharide units (i.e. glucose)
- differ from simple sugars by being INSOLUBLE in water and generally tasteless
- most are derived from plant or seaweed sources; a few from microbial origin
- contribute to the THICKNESS Or VISCOSITY and textural properties of food products
Starch
- made out of polymers of glucose (400-100,000s) joined by an alpha, 1-4 link
- do not elicit a sweet taste and taste rather bland
- mostly used as a thickening, suspending and gelling agent
Why does starch taste bland?

Because its length and bulkiness prevents it from interacting with our tongue receptors!
Amylose
a straight/linear chain starch molecule
Amylopectin
a branched starch molecule
Starch granules
foods like cereal and tubers starch exists in the form of starch granules
- starch molecules are packed within starch granules
- not digestible, nor is it soluble in cold water unless it is heated
Gelatinization
- occurs when starch is HEATED in water
- starch granules ABSORB water and sell up as water entering the granule begins to "loosen" the bonds between the
starch molecules
- hydrogen bonds form between the water and starch molecules
- starch granules eventually bursts becoming soft and pliable
- this leads to the conversion of hard, unchewable, raw rice kernels to soft, easily chewed, cooked rice
Retrogradation
Gelatinized starch can lose some of its water holding capacity upon cooling and/or during refrigerated storage
- involves the reassociation of starch molecules, especially the amylose polymers into an ODERED structure
- linear amylose molecules orient themselves in crystalline regions, leading to a squeezing out ("syneresis") of water and
a loss of tenderness of the food (e.g. staling of bread) or the development of a gritty texture (eg. starch based pudding
stored in the refrigerator)
It is interesting to observe that bread stales more quickly in the refrigerator than the freezer or at
room temperature. Can you think of why that it is?
my speculation:
freezer - freezes water and bread in original orientation = no retrogradation
in refrigerator - the process of gelatinzation is reversed = squeeze out water
How can retrogradation be avoided?

Can be avoided to a certain extent through the use of dextrins and/or modified starches, thus reducing the tendency for
alignment of linear amylose chains
- starch can be partially hydrolysed by acids or enzymes to produce products of intermediate chain length (dextrins)
that have a numerous uses in food products
- some of the dextrin products are used to create foods that provide the sensation of containing fat but that are low in
fat
- retrogradation can also be partially reversed by heating the food (eg. heating stale bread or buns in an oven or
microwave oven); however, once the product cools the starch quickly retrogrades again
Cellulose
- polysaccharides present in many plant tissues
- polymers of glucose but joined by a beta 1-4 link
- humans do not have the enzyme needed to break the beta link and therefore, cellulose is indigestible
- along with pectin and other carbohydrate gums, cellulose forms the indigestible portion of our carbohydrate intake
that is known a dietary fibre
dietary fibre
indigestible portion of our carbohydrate intake
Xanthan gum
a polysaccharide with a B-D-glucose backbone like cellulose, but every second glucose unit is attached to a
trisaccharide
- used in salad dressings as a THICKENING agent, which enables the dressing to cling to the salad components
- also used as a thickener for sauces, to prevent ice crystal formation in ice cream and as a low-calorie substitute for fat
- produced by the bacterium Xanthomonas campestris which is found on cruciferous vegetables such as cabbage and
cauliflower
Pectin
- a polysaccharide that acts as a cementing material in the cell walls of all plant tissues
- used in jam and jellies as a GELLING agent
- contributes to the viscosity of tomato paste and ketchup
- will give contribute to the mouth-feel of foods, and help maintain particles in suspension
- the white portion of the rind of lemons and oranges contains approximately 30% pectin
Agar, Alginates and Carrageenan

- polysaccharides extracted from different types of seaweed
- used as THICKENING, GELLING and SUSPENDING agent
Alginates keep solids and liquids in suspension in fruit juices, and provides thickness to dietetic and regular salad
dressings, puddings, pie fillings, ice cream, sherbet and icings
Carrageenan is used as a suspending agent to keep cocoa particles in suspension in chocolate milk and also used as a
stabilizer in ice cream (stabilizing the colloidal dispersions)
Gum Arabic (Acacia gum)

- plant exudates from the bark of the acacia trees
- used as thickener and stabilizer in products like beer, soft drinks and ice cream
Lipids
- fats and oils are part of a group called lipids
- lipids can be found in the form of triglycerides, phospholipids and sterols
- triglycerides make the largest class of lipids (we consume mostly triglycerides)
What is the nutritive value and calorie of fat?

9 cal/g
How are unsaturated fats further classified?

cis (same) and trans (across)
Describe the process used to convert a liquid oil into solid or spreadable margarine
Hydrogenation
T/F: Fats have important functions on foods as they can influence the flavour and texture of foods
and are even necessary for the absorption of fat soluble vitamins
True
Fats act as a ___ in food making the food more palatable and easier to chew and swallow
lubricant
Fats have ___ ___ because they coat the flour particles (protein and starch) in baked goods,
creating a flaky, lighter texture that make them easy to tear apart. Fats work best as shortening
when the crystals are in the beta prime form, which produces a fine texture in the baked foods.
Cakes will have a crumbly texture without the moistness given by fats
tenderizing power
Another function of fats in baked goods is called ___ (adding air).

Aeration
- fats add air (gas) to batter and doughs
- fat surrounds the air molecules that are being incorporated into the batter
- contribute to the FORMATION of the dispersion by DECREASING the viscosity in the batter, thus making it easier to
flow and rise
Fats and oils are carriers of many ___ ___ in foods that are usually fat soluble. Thus, fats contribute
to the overall flavour of food.
aroma constituents
T/F: Fats and oils can be heated to very high temperatures before they begin to smoke and vaporize.
Foods fried in hot fats and oils (deep fat frying foods) cook very fast because of the temperatures
that can be attained.
True
Fats gradually ___ (soften/harden) when heated.

soften; this contributes to the desirable features such as chocolates that melt in your mouth and butter and margarines
that are spreadable
Fats form part of emulsions (review colloidal dispersions) by acting as the dispersed phase or
continuous phase. Some facts and also act as ___, assisting in keeping the emulsion stable.
emulsifiers
What are the two types of emulsions?

water in oil; oil in water
Homogenization
Homogenization or other high-energy mixing processes may be used to disperse one liquid phase into another may be
used to disperse one liquid phase into another
- nevertheless, after two liquid phases such as oil and water are mixed and then left to stand, the natural tendency is for
the two phases to separate
Emulsifiers
- compounds that promote the formation of emulsions, i.e., the dispersion of one phase in the form of small droplets, in
the second continuous phase
- amphiphillic molecules that have a hydrophilic portion and a hydrophobic portion
- assist in formation of an emulsion by orienting themselves at the interface between the two phases, with their
hydrophilic and hydrophobic portions facing water and oil, respectively, thereby reducing the interfacial tension
between oil and water phases
- also help STABILIZE emulsion by preventing the dispersed oil droplets or water droplets from coalescing together
- certain type of fat molecules called phospholipids function as emulsifiers
- other naturally occurring emulsifiers include the proteins from milk, egg yolk or other foods
Phospholipids
- emulsifiers
- structurally similar to triglycerides, except that only two fatty acids are linked to glycerol (making it a diglyceride), and
a charged group (negatively charged phosphoric acid esterified with positively charged choliine group) is linked to the
third position of glycerol
Lecithin
- example of a phospholipid
- naturally occurring emulsifier commonly found in egg yolk and soybean oil
What factors affect emulsion stability?

Droplet size, viscosity of the continuous phase
- droplet size must be such that, the downward pull of gravity, is balanced by the upward forces of buoyancy
= reduce the tendency for creaming (floating to the top) of the less dense (oil) phase
Stabilizers
compounds that INCREASE the viscosity of the CONTINUOUS phase, keeping the droplets suspended or dispersed and
thus reducing the rate of creaming
Examples: xanthan gum, propylene glycol alginate
The ___(less/more) viscous the emulsion, the more stable

more
Protein
- molecules made up of long chains of hundreds or even thousands of amino acid units joined together
amino acids
- a type of organic acid
- made up of an amino group (NH2) and a carbonyl group (COOH) attached to the same carbon atom
- 20 different amino acids
essential amino acids (not synthesized by human tissues and must be obtained via food) are isoleucine, leucine, lysine,
methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, valine, histidine (essential for infants only)
Proteins consumed in excess of body requirements is converted to energy or is converted to ___ for
storage
fat
Proteins produce ___calories/gram when they are digested and the amino acids are metabolized for
energy
4
Proteins in tissue systems such as meats and fish contribute to the ___ of products
texture; difference between a tender and tough steak can often be related to the types and relative abundances of
various types of protein molecules within the muscle structure.
Proteins can act as emulsifiers - describe how they help emulsion formation
- many proteins are amphiphillic molecules as they contain hydrophilic and hydrophobic portions (from amino acids)
allowing them to act as emulsifiers
- one part of these amino acids is attracted to water, forming hydrogen bonds, while the other part avoids water and
binds with oil
example: egg yolk and mustard proteins in mayonnaise
Proteins can also help with formation of foams - describe how they help foam formation
- proteins have the ability to trap air in bubbles and this leads to the formation of foams
- egg white proteins function as foaming agents in the making of whipped egg whites
- whipping introduces air and denatures (unfolds) the protein molecules. the protein molecules then coagulate to form a
fine film around the air pockets
-- solid foams such as meringue are formed when the whipped egg whites are heated causing the protein to denature
and form a more rigid three-dimensional structure, which won't collapse when the air escapes
- bread and ice cream are also examples of solid foams. ice cream is also a solid emulsion
Gluten
a protein in wheat flour, traps air bubbles in bread making.
Proteins can also help form gels

- Gelatin (from the animal protein: collagen) forms a gel by trapping large volumes of water within a semi rigid 3D
protein matrix
- heating of meat proteins during the manufacture of luncheon meats, such as bologna and frankfurters, leads to
gelation and formation of the textures characteristic of cured meats
-- products like frankfurters and bologna are also emulsions
- milk protein also forms a gel when it is acidified, such as in making of yogurt and cheese. the gel holds water and has a
smooth texture
casein
a milk protein that acts as an emulsifier preventing the fat globules to separate (cream) from the skim milk portion
- in cheese it forms a gel structure in the cheese curd
___ (an enzyme) can ruin a starch gel

amylase
___ (an enzyme) can cause lipolytic rancidity which is the release of free fatty acids from glycerides
lipase
T/F: enzymes in living tissue food systems like fruits and vegetables are responsible for the reactions
associated with ripening. those same enzymes will continue the ripening process after harvest and
unless they are inactivated the enzymes will EVENTUALLY cause spoilage of the product
True
T/F: Many HEATING processes in food processing are designed to INACTIVATE enzymes and
undesirable microorganisms to extend storage life
True

T/F: Microorganisms, when added to food systems, to produce fermented foods are essentially
sources of desirable enzymes required to catalyse the desired chemical reactions needed to make
fermented food products
True
T/F: Enzymes are also extracted from a variety of sources (plants, animal by-products,
microorganisms) and purified for use as aids in food processing (eg. proteases used for milk
coagulation during cheese making; pectinases to enhance juice recovery and for clarification of
apple juice; invertase for conversion of sucrose to invert sugar; isomerase to produce high fructose
corn syrup)
True
T/F: Intolerance to certain proteins in foods is the basis for many food allergies
True
What two forms does water exist in food?

Free water and Bound water
Free water
- water that is free and not bound by food components generally retains its usual physical properties, can also function
as a dispersing agent for colloidal substances, can function as a solvent and can be used by microorganisms
- some water may be present within inter-granular spaces, within pores of the food matrix and as a thin film of water on
the surface of many foods
- free water can be found in tissue food systems and in dispersion
Bound water
- some water can be adsorbed on surfaces of macromolecules like starches, pectins, proteins through forces such as van
der Waals forces and hydrogen bond formation
- does not display all of its normal physical properties and it is not readily available for use by microorganisms and
chemical or enzymatic reactions
- another form of bound water is that water that is associated with food matrices as water of hydration
- not readily available for use b microorganisms and chemical or enzymatic reactions in the food matrix, whether it is a
tissue based food system or a dispersion
- sugars and salts (sodium chloride) can bind substantial amounts of water and are often added to foods for the purpose
of decreasing the amount of free water in the food system. in the context, sugars and salts can be used to control or
prevent growth of certain microorganisms in foods
Water activity
measurement that is frequently used in monitoring the availability of water (free water) in foods for the support of:
- microbial growth
- chemical reactions
- enzymatic reactions
can be measured as the ratio of the vapour pressure of water in the food to the vapour pressure of pure water, both
measured at the same temperature
aw = (vapor pressure of water in food at XoC)/(vapor pressure of pure water at XoC) * 100
- can range from 0 (no free water) to 1.0 (all water is free)
What is the water activity of pure water?

1.0; and the pressure exerted by water vapor is 4.579
Water activity can be adjusted by PHYSICALLY removing water from foods during ___ and ___
processing operations, also when the water in the food is ___ (the free water is in a solid state, in the
form of ice crystals) or by adding substances (like sugar and salt) that ___ water thus lowering the
proportion of water in free form.
Dehydration; Concentration; Frozen; Binds
Is water activity the same as moisture content?

No. Measurement of moisture content of a variety of food systems is a frequently conducted quality assurance
measurement. However, measurement of water content of foods does NOT indicate whether the water is bound or free
What are examples of minor constituents?

organic acids, pigments and aroma compounds
What are the major uses of organic acids?

- adjust pH or acidify food and impart flavour
- some act as antimicrobial agents
- have a wide range of textural effects in food systems due to their reactions with proteins, starches, pectins and other
food constituents

pH
a measure of acidity of foods
- foods and beverages differ in pH because of their content of acids which produce hydrogen ions
Low acid food

pH > 4.6
examples: meat, fish, poultry, milk, corn, wheat flour, potatoes, peas, carrots, figs
Acid food
pH < 4.6
examples: apples, cherries, oranges, pears, tomatoes, pickles, lemon/lime juice
pH = 4.6 is an important pH (borderline between an acidic food and a low acid food)
Will acid foods support the growth of pathogenic microorganisms?

No
Chlorophyll
green pigment in plants - responsible for the green colour in apples, lettuce, celery and broccoli
- chlorophyll a: a blue green hue (e.g. in the florets of fresh broccolli)
- chlorophyll b: a yellow green hue (stems of broccoli)
Carotenoids
a diverse group of pigments, can be sub-classified into carotenes and xanthophyls
- naturally produce red, orange and orange-yellow colours in many foods (eg. tomatoes, carrots, pineapples, shrimp)
Anthocyanidins and anthocyanins (anthocyanidin complexed with glucose or other sugars)

- pigments are the predominant colour pigments in blueberries, cherries, cranberries, plums and red cabbage
- anthocyanins are particularly sensitive to changes in pH, showing marked changes in colour with pH changes in the
food system
- color of anthocyanin is most stable and most highly coloured at low pH values (colour is gradually lost as the pH
increases)
T/F: No single chemical compound can be attributed as being the sole source of the aroma of a
particular food product
True
- it is the specific mixture of chemicals in a particular concentration that creates the aroma that we associate with a high
quality food product
T/F: Any changes in that specific mixture of volatile compounds or their concentrations will alter the
aroma that we perceive
True
The ___ constituents that contribute to the aroma of foods are present in very low concentrations
but are nonetheless very important constituents of foods
volatile
The ___ constituents are either present as part of the food matrix (fresh strawberries) or are
modified (cooking of strawberries) or created (roasting of coffee) during processing or cooking
flavour
Vitamins are mainly classified into ___-soluble and ___-soluble vitamins

water; fat
Vitamins
organic compounds that make up a small portion of food - but are very important nutritionally and are essential
components of the huan diet
What are some water-soluble vitamins?

Vitamin C (ascorbic acid), thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, pyridoxine, vitamin B12 and folacin
- found within the water (aqueous) phase of foods
What are some fat-soluble vitamins?

Vitamin A, D, E are found within the fat (oil) portion of foods
T/F: Although vitamins do NOT contribute to the physical characteristics of food, some are actually
used as "food additives"
True
Example:
Ascorbic acid - can be a bleaching agent (hasten oxidation and aging processes as in flour whitening treatment), and
preservative (antioxidant - slow down rancidity and browning agents), vitamin E can be a preservative - antioxidant
Minerals
calcium, magnesium, sodium, potassium, iron, zinc
- are often associated with various cellular components in tissue food systems and often are active participants in
chemical and biochemical reactions that affect the chemical properties and textural characteristics of food systems
2)Enzymes
What is an enzyme?
A biological catalyst, usually a protein; ribozymes are RNA enzymes
Star this term

What do catalysts do?

Speed up reactions by lowering EA and providing alt path; does not change G for rxn; k doesn't change; enhances fwd
and rev equally
What is a substrate?
Rxt acted upon by enzyme
What are important features of an enzyme?

Speed up rxns by 10^3 or more; high specificity; have domains; isozymes
What is an isozyme?
Different structural forms of an enzyme that have the same function
What is the rxn rate of a zero order rxn?

V=k
What is the rxn rate of a first order rxn?

V=kx[A]
List the 6 classes of enzymes

1) oxidoreductases 2) transferases 3) hydrolases 4) lyases 5) isomerases 6) ligases
What do oxidoreductases do?

Oxidizes using cofactor (hydride)
What do transferases do?

Transfers group (phosphate using ATP/equiv)
What do hydrolases do?

Cleave a peptide bond
What do lyases do?

Decarboxylation, remove grp
What do isomerases do?

Cis-trans isomerization, mutase; move groups from one position to another
What do ligases do?

Carboxylation, add group
What is Keq?
Pdts over rxts = [ES] complex over [E] times [S]
What is an exergonic rxn?

delta G is less than 0; spontaneous when negative; gives off heat
What is an endergonic rxn?

delta G is positive, greater than 0; non-spontaneous; needs to be coupled
Name the most common coenzymes
AMP (part of ATP), Coenzyme A, FAD, NAD+
Where are coenzymes found in the cell?

Water soluble, in aq and held by polar forces; lipid soluble, in non-aq and held by VDW forces
What are functions of coenzymes?

Chemical changes (that AA cannot do); reduction and oxidation rxns
What is catabolism?
Large molecules are broken into smaller ones to provide energy
What are the 2 major classes of redox coenzymes?

Nicotinamide and flavins
What redox rxn are flavins involved in?

C=C double bonds
What important bond/structure does flavin have?

Phosphoanhydride bond
What is the "higher energy" form of flavin?

Reduced, with loss of stability, loss of double bonds
What redox rxn are nicotinamides involved in?

C=O double bonds (carbonyl redox)
What is the "higher energy" form of nicotinamide?

Reduced, with loss of stability, loss of double bonds
What are the 2 main models of the active site of an enzyme?

Induced fit and lock & key models
What are the types of specificity for enzymes?

Absolute (1 for 1); stereochemical (1 stereoisomer); group (1 functional grp); and linkage specificity (1 type of bond)
What do rates depend on?

Viscosity of rxn medium; concentrations of reacting components; rate constants (k)
Enzymatic rate constants depend on:

Temperature and pH
What is the diffusion control?

Value in water = 10^8 - 10^9; number of collisions possible b/w two reacting components (max probability)
What kind of graph will a Michaelis-Menten enzyme give? An allosteric enzyme?

A hyperbolic curve; a sigmoidal, S-shaped plot
What does the MM steady state approximation show?

In early stages of a rxn, it is likely [ES] complex returns to [E] and [S] and no [P] pdt formed
What are steady state assumptions?

The concentration of substrate must be much greater than the enzyme concentration
What is half Vmax?

Where half the active sites are filled with substrate
What is Km?
The dissociation constant of [ES] complex; [E][S]/[ES] or k-1/k1
How does Km show a greater affinity?

Smaller Km; power increases; stronger bind/association
What is catalytic perfection?

Measured by kcat, the turnover number; Vmax/Et; when every substrate that hits enzyme is converted to pdt
How do inhibitors work?

They mimic or resemble substrates and either compete for active sites or change protein conformation
Name modes/types of inhibitors

Reversible competitive, reversible non-competitive, and irreversible

What do competitive inhibitors accomplish?
Compete with reg enzymatic substrate for their active site
What is a Ki and significance of low value?

A low Ki value means the inhibitor has a greater affinity for active site, this is relative to Km; effectiveness of drug
In competitive inhibition, what happens to Vmax? To Km?

Vmax does NOT change; Km will increase (substrate will NOT bind as well to enzyme in the presence of an inhibitor)
What is non-competitive inhibition?

The inhibitor has a different site than substrate to active site; large [S] will NOT overcome inhibition
In non-competitive inhibition, what happens to Vmax? To Km?

Vmax decreases; Km does not change
Why does Km remain unchanged with non-competitive inhibition?

The inhibitor binds equally well to enzyme and enzyme-substrate complex, so apparent Km is NOT changed
Explain non-competitive inhibitor effect on Vmax

The inhibitor binds to site on enzyme and inactivates the enzyme; therefore substrate cannot bind, this reduces [E] total
for catalysis; and Vmax is proportional to [E]t, reducing Vmax; non-comp decreases turnover #
What are irreversible inhibitors?

AKA suicide inhibitors, destroy enzyme by covalent bond
In irreversible inhibition, what happens to Vmax? To Km?

Vmax app decreases; Km remains unchanged; looks like non-competitive inhibition on MM plot
What factors influence enzymatic activity?

Availability of substrates, cofactors; covalent modification; allosteric effects; genetic regulation
What are the levels of enzyme regulation, from fastest control to slowest control measure?
Enzyme level; hormonal; and gene as slowest
Phosphate grp
An example of a transfer group of reversible covalent modification
What is allosteric regulation of an enzyme?

An allosteric enzyme is usually composed of two chains with regulatory site on one and active site on the other, where a
molecule binding on reg site will alter catalytic property of active site
What are some properties of allosteric enzymes?

Catalyze irreversible rxns, are rate limiting; contain more than one polypeptide chain; do NOT follow MM; up/down
regulated; activators/inhibitors have no structural resemblance to substrate structure
Differentiate between hetero-/homo- tropic effectors

Hetero-, different effector than substrate; homo- same substrate acts as an effector
Name catalytic mechanisms

Bond strain; proximity and orientation; acid/base catalysis; covalent catalysis
How do metal ions help enzyme catalysis?

They bind substrates to orient for catalysis; thru redox rxns; electron sink/stabilization, or neg charge shielding
How can familial hypercholesterolemia be treated?

With statins, HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
3) Characteristics of microorganisms
4 types of Protista
amoebae
flagellates
ciliates
apicomplexans (sporozoans)
5 primary events of the synthesis phase

1. transcription (DNA only)
2. translation
3. inhibition of host mechanisms
4. nucleic acid copies produced

5. capsids produced
5 primary sequence of events during viral infection

1. attachment
2. penetration and uncoating
3. synthesis phase
4. maturation
5. release (lyse or bud)
Aerobic
needs oxygen
Anaerobic
needs to be in the absence of oxygen
Antigenic Group
organisms possessing a major antigen common to more than one species
Antigenic Type
organisms possessing a specific antigen only known to one genus or species
Are Fungi Eucaryotic or Prokaryotic?

Eucaryotic
Aschelminthes (Nematode)
unsegmented cylindrical body
300um-1m
complete alimentary tract
dioecious
axial filaments
bundles of fibrils which allow spirochetes to move
Bacillus
rod
A capsule is composed of ______.

polysaccharides
cccobacillus
plump bacillus
Cestode
segmented body (flat)
2mm-12m
no alimentary tract
monoecous
Coccus
sphere
coryneform (diphtheroid)
club shaped
Do Eucaryotic cells have a nuclear membrane?

yes
Do Procaryotic cells have a nuclear membrane?

no
Does a virus have a nucleus?

No they don't have cells. Their structure that holds their genetic material is known as the Core.
Does RNA enter nucleus to replicate?

No only DNA enters nucleus to replicate
Eucaryotes are _________ cellular

multi
Eucaryotic cell types have _______ chromosomes that are _______ in shape.
multiple, linear
facultative
has extra enzymes which allow it to grow in the presence of and absence of oxygen
Fungi are _______ cellular.

single
Growth factors
organic compounds which can't be synthesized by bacteria
Helminths are _______ cellular.

multi
How do Eucaryotic cells replicate?

mitosis
How do Procaryotic cells replicate?

binary fission
How does a virus acquire its envelope lipid bilayer?

host cell or nuclear membrane
How does a virus replicate?

metabolic processes of living cells
How many and what shape are Procaryotic cell chromosomes?

one and circular
How Mould reproduce

hyphae spores
How Yeast reproduce

budding
Lipid A is _______ to humans.

toxic
Microaerophilic
needs reduced oxygen
Morphology
external appearance
Mould size
2-15um
Mycelium
visible mass of hyphae
Name 3 functions of a capsule.

resist phagocytosis
hide
attachment
Name 3 Platyhelminthes
Trematode, Cestode, Aschelminthes
Name the 5 Kingdoms of classification

Plantae, Animalia, Protista, Fungi, and Monera
The periplasmic space is the size of certain _______ processes

enzymatic
pleomorphic
multiple forms
Procaryotes are ________ cellular

single

Protista are _______ cellular
single
Protista are ________ cell type.

eucaryotic
Protista have what two stages?

trophozoit (vegitative)
cystic (dormant, nonmotile)
Protista's cell morphology is ________.

pleomorphic
spirochete (spirillum)
spiral or corkscrew shaped
Taxonomy
science of biological classification
teichoic acids
part of the gram positive cell wall that is connected to cytoplasmic membrane
Trematode
leaf shaped body
500um-60mm
partial alimentary tract
monoecious
Typical procaryotic cell length is _____?

1-6um
Typical size of Yeast

4-15um
A virus can contain both DNA and RNA. True or False?

False they can contain either DNA OR RNA not both.
Virus size
18-300nm
What allows some bacterium species to survive under harsh conditions?

endospore
What are at least 3 things a Gram-negative cell wall has that a Gram-positive doesn't?
Lipopolysaccharides, Lipd A, Lipoprotein, periplasmic space
What are the 5 types of cell arrangements

single- one
double -two
chains -cells attached end to end
clusters - group
palisades - cells attached side to side
What are the differences between typical and atypical bacteria?

size - typical bacteria are larger
modified cell wall structures
complicated/modified reproduction
what are the three common bacterial cell structures that all typical bacteria contain?
cytoplasm
cytoplasmic membrane
cell wall
What are the three components of a virus?

core
capsid
envelope
What are the three metabolic types of bacterium?
saprophyte - non-living matter

parasite - lives in a host
fastidious - elaborate nutritional requirements
What are the two functions of the cytoplasm?

metabolism and replication
What are the two ways protista reproduce?

schizogony (multiple divisions)
conjugation (two cells fuse)
What are two types of Fungi?

Yeast and Mould
What bacterial cell structure has the function of selective permeability, energy production,
transport, and secretion?
What cell type does a virus have?

none virus are not living and don't have cells
What do Eucaryotic cell types use to produce energy?

mitochondria
What do Procaryotic cell types use to produce energy?

What does 2 sugar molecules cross linked with amino acids create?
cell wall structure
What does a bacterial virus have that a human virus doesn't?

tail
What is flagellum composed of?

protein
What is one step that an enveloped virus must complete that a naked virus doesn't?
uncoating
What is the common cell generation time range for typical bacteria? (minutes)
30-60min
What is the function of glycoprotein strands known as fimbriae?

attachment and conjugation
What is the ideal pH range for bacterial growth?

6.8-7.4
What is the ideal temp for bacterial growth?

35C
What is the name of fimbriae which are used during conjugation?

pili
what is the viral envelope composed of?

lipid bilayer and glycoproteins (spikes)
What part of the virus holds the genetic information?

nucleic acid
What process does a DNA virus have to do for replication that an RNA virus doesn't?
transcription
What structure of the virus contains the genetic information?

Core
What type of stimulus assists in flagellum moving a cell?

chemical and photo
Where does DNA virus replication take place?
host cell nucleus
Where does RNA virus replication take place?

host cell cytoplasm
Which atypical bacteria has no cell wall at all?

mycoplasma
Which bacterial cell structure is used for locomotion

flagellum
Which bacterial cell wall structure is highly resistant and metabolically dormant?
endospore
Which cell structure has the functions of shape, protection, and antibody attachment?
cell wall
Which cell structure is composed of phospholipid bilayer and proteins?

Which cell structure is composed of thick aqueous elastic cell sap and genetic material?
cytoplasm
Which cell type contains specialized Organelles? Procaryote or Eucaryote?

Eucaryote
Which Helminth absorbs its nutrients?

Cestode
Which Helminth doesn't have both male and female reproductive organs (monoecious)?
Nematode
Which Helminth is leaf shaped?

Trematode
Which Helminthe is the largest?

Cestode
Which is listed first when naming a microorganism? Genus or species?

Genus
Which kindgdom do Helminths belong to?

Animalia
Which of the following are not Eucaryotic in nature?

A: Fungi
B: Bacteria
C: Plantae
D: Protista
E: all of the above are eucaryotic
B: Bacteria are Procaryotic Monera
Which of the following is not a Kingdom of classification?

A: Monera
B: Animalia
C: Virus
D: Plantae
E: all of the above are kingdoms
C: Virus is no a kingdom
Which type of cel lwall (Gram+ or Gram-) has a thicker peptidoglycan layer?
Gram+
Which type of cell wall (Gram+ or Gram-) includes protein more often?
Gram-positive
Which type of virus causes a cell to bud?

enveloped
Which type of virus causes a cell to rupture?
naked
Antibodies are made to counter what significant surface molecules that can be used for identification?
Antigens
Are algae eucaryotic or procaryotic?

Eucaryotic
Are bacteria eucaryotic or procaryotic?

Procaryotic
Are fungi eucaryotic or procaryotic?

Eucaryotic
Are parasitic worms eucaryotic or procaryotic?

Eucaryotic
Are protozoa eucaryotic or procaryotic?

Eucaryotic
Are viruses eucaryotic or procaryotic?

Neither, viruses are classified differently since they are not living organisms.
Describe the composition of bacterial cytoplasm.

Thick, aqueous and elastic. It contains genetic material and water, nutrients and storage capsules (collectively known as cell sap).
Describe the composition of bacterial cytoplasmic membrane.

8-10% of the dry weight of the cell and consists of a phospholipid bilayer and proteins
Describe the difference between a eucaryotic cell's and procaryotic cell's chromosomes.
Eucaryotic cells have multiple, linear chromosomes, and procaryotic cells have one circular chromosome.
Describe the difference between a eucaryotic cell's and procaryotic cell's nuclear membranes.
Eucaryotic cells have a nuclear membrane, procaryotic cells do not.
Describe the difference between a eucaryotic cell's and procaryotic cell's replication.
Eucaryotic cells replicate through mitosis, and procaryotic cells replicate throught binary fission (membrane attachment).
Describe the structure of a gram-positive bacteria's cell wall.

60-80% is peptidoglycan, with teichoic acids connecting the cell wall to the cytoplasmic membrane, and infrequent protein inclusions.
How are cells normally observed?

At 1000 power magnification after performing a gram stain.
How do antibiotics use cell structure to neutralize bacteria?

Disrupt bacterial cell wall production or destroy cell wall
What are the 4 functions of the cytoplasmic membrane?

Selective permeability, energy production, secretion of extracellular hydrolytic enzymes, and synthesis and transport of cell wall
materials (peptidoglycan and teichoic acids)
What are the four levels of classification relevant to medical microbiology?

genus, species, group, type
What are the two functions of proteins in the cytoplasmic membrane?

To form channels (known as porins) that allow large molecules to pass through the membrane and/or to act as enzymes
What are three variations of shapes that bacillus can take?

coccobacillus, coryneform/diphtheroid, and pleomorphic
What arrangement do chain cell arrangements have?

Cells remain attached end to end (in a chain), and division occurs on one plane perpendicular to the long axis .
What arrangement do cluster cell arrangements have?

Cells congregate/mass together, and division occurs on three planes.
What arrangement do pairs cell arrangements have?

Daughter cells remain paired and division occurs on one plane
What arrangement do Palisades cell arrangements have?

Cells align parallel to each other like a picket fence, and division occurs on one plane perpendicular to the short axis of the chain.

What arrangement do single cell arrangements have?
No particular arrangement
What color does the Gram stain turn Gram-negative bacteria?

pink to red
What color does the Gram stain turn Gram-positive bacteria?

blue to purple
What does the abbreviation "spp." mean when placed after a genus?
Several or all members of the genus.
What is another name for coryneform bacteria?

diphtheroid
What is another name for spirochete bacteria?

spirillum bacteria
What is cell morphology?

The external appearance of a cell
What is one micrometer equivalent to in mm, meters and inches?

1/1000 mm, 1/1,000,000 m and 1/25,400 in
What is peptidoglycan?
N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acids cross linked by short peptide chains
What is the average diameter of a bacteria cell?

0.5 to 0.8 um
What is the function of cytoplasm?

metabolism and replication
What is the function of the cell wall?

To provide a bacterium with shape and rigidity, protection from the environment and/or antimicrobial agents, and it is the location of
antibody attachment to major cell antigens.
What is the genus of staphylococcus aureus?

Staphylococcus
What is the hardest bacteria to identify?

coccobacillus
What is the maximum diameter of a bacteria cell?

1.5 um
What is the most common length of bacteria cells?

1-2 um
What is the only shape of bacteria that arranges itself in palisades?

bacilli
What is the range of lengths of bacteria cells?

1 to 6 um
What is the species of Escherichia coli?

Coli
What is unique about coryneform/diphtheroid bacteria?

stain unevenly, creating "exclamation points"
What must a procaryotic cell do IOT produce energy?

fold cytoplasmic membrane (to look like mitochondria), arranging ribosomes across from each otehr
What part of a cell determines if it is gram-negative or gram-positive?

cell wall
What shape do pleomorphic bacteria have?

Multiple distinct shapes. For example, the same species can be both short & plump and long & slender.

What shape do spirochete/spirillum bacteria have?
spiral or corkscrew
What shape is bacillus bacteria?

rod or cylindrical
What shape is coccobacillus bacteria?

A short plump bacillus (rod/cylindrical) that resembles a coccus (spherical)
What shape is coccus bacteria?

spherical
What shape is coryneform/diphtheroid bacteria?

Club shaped
Where do eucaryotic cells produce energy?

mitochondria
Where do procaryotic cells produce energy?

Where is the cell wall located in relation to the cell membrane?

Exterior
Why may it be difficult to identify spirochete/spirillum bacteria?

They are thin and poorly staining, so they are usually not visible by the Gram stain method.
Describe the appearance of a colony.
Smooth, shiny and often with butterlike consistency
Describe the composition and disposition of a bacteriophage's base.

Contains enzymatic pins that punch a hole in the bacterial cell wall through which viral nucleic acid can enter
Describe the composition and disposition of a bacteriophage's sheath.

A column of protein connecting the head to the base that reconfigures into a tube when the virus attaches itself to a
bacterium
Describe the composition and disposition of a bacteriophage's tail fibers.

Protein fibers with polysaccharide tips which help in determining the attachment site on bacterial cells
Describe the structure of a gram-negative bacteria's cell wall.

10-20% is peptidoglycan with a lipoprotien layer creating a periplasmic space between the peptidoglycan and the outher
membrane.
Do viruses contain RNA, DNA, or both?

Each contains only one type of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA), never both
How are viruses classified?

Similar to the animal kingdom, even though they are not considered to be living organisms
How do you cultivate fungi in a laboratory?

Grown in artificial media like bacteria, but it usually contains antibiotics to inhibit bacteria during longer growth period
How does yeast reproduce?

By budding new cells from an existing cell or by spore formation
How is CO2 beneficial to bacteria?

buffering agent for pH
How long does it take to form a colony?

15-48 hours for most; some need days or weeks
How long does it take to grow mould colonies?

5-21 days
How long does it take to grow yeast colonies?

2-5 days
How many cells can rapidly growing bacteria grow in 18-24 hours?
usually 1-3 million cells

How to moulds reproduce?
By forming spores on reproductive hyphae
List the classes of microorganism from largest to smallest.

cestodes, nematodes, trematodes, protozoa, moulds, yeast, typical bacteria, atypical bacteria, viruses
Name three atypical bacteria

Mycoplasma, rickettsia, chlamydia
What are axial filaments?

Bundles of fibrils arising from the outer sheath and spiraling around the cell to cause corkscrew motion.
What are four structures that may or may not be present in bacterial cells depending on the species?
endospore, capsule, flagellum and fimbriae
What are growth factors?

Various organic compounds (ie hemin, vitamin, specific amino acids) which fastidious organisms are unable to
synthesize
What are hyphae?

Multicellular long filementous cells that branch and intertwine (in moulds)
What are pili?

Fimbriae that lengthen, attach to another bacterial cell and transfer DNA during sexual conjugation.
What are some characteristics of atypical bacteria?

Obligate, intracellular parasites; modified cell walls if even present; complicated or modified reproductive method
What are the general characteristics of an endospore?

Metabolically dormant, germinating from one vegetative cell, and they are highly resistant to environmental effects.
What are the size of fungal spores?

1-10 um
What are the size of hyphae?

2-15 um diameter; up to 30 um long
What are the three components of the tail of a bacteriophage?

Sheath, tail fibers and base with enzymatic pins
What are the three functions of a capsule?

To resist phagocytosis, "hide" surface antigens and assist in attachment (ie dental plaque).
What are the three main components of a virion?

Core, capsid and envelope
What are the three metabolic types?

Saprophyte, parasite and fastidious
What are the two classifications of fungi?

Moulds and yeast
What are the two functions of flagella?

To provide motility (via propelling and locomotion) and to move toward a favorable environment/away from an
adverse one.
What are the two main components of a bacteriophage?

The head and the tail
What are two limiting factors for bacterial cultivation in a lab?

available food and the bacteria's ability to get rid of waste
What are two shapes of viruses?

Helical (capsid follows shape of nucleic acids) and icosahedral (capsids stitch together shapes, ie pentagrams, like a
soccer ball)
What bacterial structure aids in determining the location of infection due to its adhesive tips that
selectively attach to human tissue?
fimbriae

What characterizes fastidious metabolism?
Requires specific nutrients that a bacterium cannot synthesize
What characterizes parasite metabolism?

Obtains organic nutrients from living host
What characterizes saprophyte metabolism?

Utilizes non-living organic matter
What do rod-shaped viruses normally infect?

plants
What does a mycelium look like?

Cottony, velvety, fluffy or leathery in various colors
What does laboratory cultivation of atypical bacteria require?

A living host (ie tissue culture or embryonated egg) or special highly enriched media
What does the capsule feel like?

slimy and sticky, like molasses
What does the head of a bacteriophage contain?

A core that contains nucleic acid and a capsid that is a protective protein surrounding the nucleic acid
What does yeast look similar to under a microscope, and how does one distinguish between the two?
Coccus. Yeast is much bigger, and can be seen without a gram stain
What effect do antibiotics have on viruses?

Most have no effect, because bacterial cell morphology and structure differs from that of a virus
What feature of the human body is a defense against bacteria's preferred pH?
The high acidity of stomach acid (resting pH: 4-5)
What is a bacteriophage?
A virus that infects bacteria
What is a colony?
A clump of a few mission identical bacteria orginitating from the same bacterium.
What is a flagellum composed of?

Protein
What is a mycelium?
A visible mass of hyphae (ie a colony)
What is a nutrient?
A growth supporting substance taken by a cell from its environment and is used in metabolic activities
What is a potential defense in the human body against bacteria's optimal temperature?
Fever- most bacteria start dying off at 37.5-38 C, and the normal human temperature is 37 C
What is a virion?
A fully developed, individual animal virus particle
What is agar?
A gelatinous substance that provides a "solid" surface support for growth
What is cultivation of bacteria?

The growth of particular organisms, usually under controlled conditions (ie pH, temperature, nutrients)
What is culture media?

The material in/on which bacteria grow in the laboratory. Contains organic nutrients, water and other enriching
ingredients.
What is more environmentally resistant: bacterial spores or fungal spores?

bacterial spores
What is the average size of atypical bacteria?

Very small (0.1-0.3 um)

What is the cell generation time (time for one cell to divide to two) for bacteria?
30-60 min for most; 15-30 hours for some
What is the colony morphology of a yeast cell?

smooth, shiny, and similar to bacteria
What is the composition of an endospore?

Concentrated, dehydrated, densely packed nucleic acids and metabolic proteins within a thick spore coat.
What is the composition of fimbriae in bacterial cells?

Short, think threadlike glycoprotein strands protruding from the cell.
What is the composition of the capsule in a bacterial cell?

Polysaccharides
What is the composition of the outer membrane of a gram-negative cell wall?

Lipoproteins, lipopolysaccharides, and phospholipids
What is the composition of the virion capsid?

protein
What is the composition of the virion core?

nucleic acid (DNA or RNA, not both)
What is the composition of the virion envelope?

phosophlipid bilayer (acquired from host cell or nuclear membrane) and glycoproteins (spikes)
What is the diameter of the average colony?

1-3 mm
What is the diameter of yeast cells?

4-15 um
What is the function of an endospore?

To resist heat, chemicals and irradiation to ensure survival
What is the function of fimbriae?

To facilitate bacterial attachment to appropriate cells.
What is the function of the outer membrane of a gram-negative cell wall?

It is the cite of the "O" antigen in Escherichia, Salmonella and Shigella antigenic test and the site of Lipid A (the
endotoxin molecule).
What is the function of the virion capsid?

To contain and protect nucleic acid, to serve as antigens in infection, and to be the site for attachment (when no
envelope is present)
What is the function of the virion core?

Contain genetic information
What is the function of the virion envelope?

lipid bilayer provides protection form the environment and glycoproteins serve as primary site of attachment to host
cell surface, act as antigens, and provide a site for antibody attachment
What is the optimal CO2 concentration for bacterial cultivation?

Most medically significant bacteria do not require increased CO2, but some bacteria need 5-7% CO2.
What is the optimal humidity for bacterial cultivation?

60-80% (water is 70% of cell volume)
What is the optimal pH for bacterial cultivation?

6.8-7.4
What is the optimal temperature for bacterial cultivation?

35 C
What is the oxygen utilization of aerobic bacteria?

Requires ~21% atmospheric oxygen
What is the oxygen utilization of anaerobic bacteria?

Requires absence of oxygen
What is the oxygen utilization of facultative bacteria?

Can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
What is the oxygen utilization of microaerophilic bacteria?

Requires reduced oxygen concentration (5-10%)
What is the shape of yeast?

Oval or spherical shape
What is the size of a virus?

18-300 nm (0.018-0.3 um) but some up to 14,000 nm in length
What shape of bacteria move via axial filaments?

spirochetes
What type of cells are fungi?

Eucaryotic
Which virus shape is enveloped, and which one is non-enveloped?

both helical and icosahedral can be either enveloped or non-enveloped
Why are viruses considered obligate, intracellular parasites?

They take control of the host cell and require metabolic processes of the living/host cell IOT reproduce
Why do oxygen needs of different bacteria vary?

Less efficient enzymatic systems are not able to remove toxic waste (created by oxygen metabolism) quickly enough to
live in oxygen-rich environments
Why is the absence of a flagellum not a good way to identify a microbe?

flagella are too small to see on a gram stain; special treatments are required
Why is the periplasmic space of gram-negative cell wall important?

Enzymes that are too big or harmful to be assemble inside the cell are manufactured in pieces and secreted to the
periplasmic layer for assembly.
abundance of growth
a cultural characteristic in nutrient agar slants; the amount of growth is designated as non, slight, moderate, or large
arborescent
a type of "form" to describe nutrient agar slants; thin, treelike growth
beaded
a type of "form" to describe nutrient agar slants; nonconfluent to semiconfluent colonies
buttery
a type of "consistency" in nutrient agar slants; moist and shiny
circular
a type of "form" in nutrient agar plates; unbroken, peripheral edge
consistency
a cultural characteristic in nutrient agar slants; can be described as dry, buttery , or mucoid
convex
a type of "elevation" in nutrient agar plates; dome-shaped elevation
crateriform
a cultural characteristic of nutrient gelatin (liquefaction); liquefied surface area is saucer-shaped
cultural characteristic
differences in the macroscopic appearance of a microorganism's growth; are used as a basis for separating microbes into taxonomic
groups; contained in Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology
dry
a type of "consistency" in nutrient agar slants; free from moisture
echinulate
a type of "form" to describe nutrient agar slants; continuous, threadlike growth with irregular edges

effuse
a type of "form" to describe nutrient agar slants; thin, spreading growth
elevation
a cultural characteristic in nutrient agar plates; the degree to which colony growth is raised on the agar surface is described as follows:
flat, raised, convex, umbonate
entire
a type of "margin" in nutrient agar plates; sharply defined, even
filamentous
a type of "margin" in nutrient agar plates; threadlike, spreading edge
filiform
a type of "form" to describe nutrient agar slants; continuous, threadlike growth with smooth edges
flat
a type of "elevation" in nutrient agar plates; elevation not discernible
flocculent
a cultural characteristic of nutrient broth cultures (distribution of growth); flaky aggregates dispersed throughout
form
a cultural characteristic in nutrient agar slants; the appearance of the single-line streak of growth on the agar surface is designated
as:filiform, echinulate, beaded, effuse, arborescent, rhizoid
form
a cultural characteristic in nutrient agar plates; the shape of the colony as described as follows: circular, irregular, or rhizoid
infudibuliform
a cultural characteristic of nutrient gelatin (liquefaction); funnel-shaped
irregular
a type of "form" in nutrient agar plates; indented peripheral edge
lobate
a type of "margin" in nutrient agar plates; marked indentations
margin
a cultural characteristic in nutrient agar plates; the appearance of the outer edge of the colony; described as: entire, lobate, undulate,
serrate, filamentous
mucoid
a type of "consistency" in nutrient agar slants; slimy and glistening
napiform
a cultural characteristic of nutrient gelatin (liquefaction); bulbous-shaped liquefaction at surface
optical characteristic
a cultural characteristic in nutrient agar slants; evaluated on the basis of the amount of light transmitted through growth; described as
opaque, translucent, or transparent
pellicle
a cultural characteristic of nutrient broth cultures (distribution of growth); thick, padlike growth on surface
pigmentation
a cultural characteristic in nutrient agar plates; color of colony
pigmentation
a cultural characteristic in nutrient agar slants; the coloration of organisms as seen in surface colonies
raised
a type of "elevation" in nutrient agar plates; slightly elevated
rhizoid
a type of "form" in nutrient agar plates; rootlike, spreading growth
rhizoid
a type of "form" to describe nutrient agar slants; rootlike growth

saccate
a cultural characteristic of nutrient gelatin (liquefaction); elongated, tubular
sediment
a cultural characteristic of nutrient broth cultures (distribution of growth); concentration of growth at the bottom of broth culture may
be granular, flaky, or flocculent
serrate
a type of "margin" in nutrient agar plates; toothlike appearance
size
a cultural characteristic in nutrient agar plates; pinpoint, small, moderate, or large
stratiform
a cultural characteristic of nutrient gelatin (liquefaction); complete liquefaction of the upper half of the medium
umbonate
a type of "elevation" in nutrient agar plates; raised, with elevated convex central region
undulate
a type of "margin" in nutrient agar plates; wavy indentations
uniform fine turbidity

a cultural characteristic of nutrient broth cultures (distribution of growth); finely dispersed growth throughout
Alcohol how is it disinfects/antiseptic
* denatures proteins
* disrupts membranes by causing lipid dissolution
* used in many handsantizers
Aldehydes
* other agents for sterilization
* causes cross-linking that inactivates proteins and nucleic acids
Antisepsis
Refers to the killing or removal of microbes on living tissues
Autoclave and pressure cooker (steam under pressure)

*121/15 minutes at 15# pressure
*kills all forms of life including bacterial endospores.
*The substance being sterilized must be maintained at the effective Temp for the full time
Autoclaving
*Moist heat
*Denaration
*Sterilization (autoclaves, pressurecookers, retorts)
*Media, linens,equipment, dressings
Benzoic acid and benzoates

*0.1% effective concentration
*Antifungal agent in margarine, cider, relishes, soft drinks
Benzoic Acid and Sodium Benzoate

*are used to preserve oyster sauce, fish sauce, ketchup,
nonalcoholic beverages, fruit juices, margarine, salads, confections, baked goods, cheeses,
jams and pickled products.
*They have also been found to cause hyperactivity.
Propionic Acid and Propionates~ used in bread, chocolate products, and cheese for lasting freshness.
Bisphenols are..
combination of 2 phenol molecules
Boiling
*100
*30 minutes of boiling kills microbial pathogens and vegetative forms of bacteria
*but may not kill bacterial endospores
Boiling
*Moist heat
*Denaturation
*Kills vegetative cells but not spores

*Equipment,dishes
Catalase how is it disinfects/antiseptic

in wounded tissue transforms it to oxygen and water
Characteristics of Phenol and Derivatives

Phenol
* is expensive
* is caustic
* has a pungent order
Derivative
* has a greater germicidal activity
* has lower toxicity than phenol
Chemical Control (general principles)

Medicinal chemicals came into widespread use in the 1800s.
Chemical agents rarely achieve sterilization.
However, they do disinfect (destroy pathogens).
Antiseptics are used to destroy pathogens on living tissue.
Sepsis refers to contamination by microorganisms.
Sanitizing means reducing microbial population to a safe level.
De-germing means removing organisms from an object's surface.
Chlorine
*Cl gas
*Forms hypochlorous acid (HClO), a strong oxidizing agent
*Disinfect drinking water
Chlorine Dioxide
* is non-toxic
* is non-carcinogenic
* was used to decontaminate the anthrax expose mail in 2001
Chlorine does what, where

Keeps bacterial population low in municipal water supplies and swimming
Clean
Clean" has a very restricted meaning in microbiology. In this context, clean refers to the removal of VISIBLE dirt and
debris from tissues or objects. Clean does not equal sterile
Deep Freezing
*low temp
*Growth slows Preservation
*70oC
*Drug, food & culture
Detergent
*ex: quaternary ammonium compounds
*disrupts cell membranes
* skin antiseptics and disinfectants
Disinfection
Refers to the killing of microbes on inanimate objects or materials
Distinct properties of Antiseptics and Disinfectants

They should be:
To kill/slow growth of microbes
Nontoxic to humans and animals
Soluble in water.
Storable.
Effective quickly
Even in low concentration.
Also important in choosing an agent are:
Temperature.
pH.
Duration of disinfection.
Dry and moist heat are applied differently
Dry heat requires long periods of exposure to high temperatures.

The dry heat changes microbial proteins and removes water, slowly burning the microbes.
Moist heat (like boiling water) is faster and effective at a lower temperature thandry heat.
It kills microbes by denaturing their proteins.
Boiling water may not kill all spores or inactivate all viruses.
Pressurized steam is used in an autoclave as a more dependable way to sterilize a variety of objects.
The prevacuum autoclave decreases cycle time and exposure of sensitivematerials to steam.
Dry heat (hot air oven)

*160/2 hours
or
*170/1 hour
*For materials that must remain dry and which are not destroyed at Temp
between 121 and 170
*Good for glassware, metal, not plastic or rubber items
*Note increasing Temp by 10 degrees shortens the sterilizing time by 50 percent
Ethanol
*50-70%
*Denatures proteins and solubilizes lipids
*Antiseptic used on skin
Ethanol how is it disinfects/antiseptic

* is affective against vegetive cells, but not spores
* I think it's a type of alchohol
Ethylene oxide
* is effective by carcinogenic (potential to cause cancer) and explosive gas
Ethylene oxide gas

*Alkylating agent
*Disinfectant used to sterilize heat-sensitive objects such as rubber and plastics
Filtration(B)
*Separation Liquid through screen
*Heat labile material
Flaming
*dry heat
*Burning to ashes
*Sterilization Inoculating loops
Formaldehyde
*
8%
*Reacts with NH, SH and COOH groups
*Disinfectant, kills endospores
Fractional sterilization
Fractional sterilization on 3 consecutive days is used for sterilization if materials are not suited
Fridge
*low temp
*Growth slows
*Bacteriostatic
*Drug, Food
Germicide/Biocid
A chemical agent that demonstrates killing power against various microbes
Halogen how is it disinfects/antiseptic

Oxidizes proteins
Heavy metals
* are disinfect/antispetic
* they interfere with the microbial metabolism
High temp, short time (HTST)
*pasturization
*Denaturation
*72oC / 15secs
*Milk: Flash method through continous winding pipe
Hot air sterilization

*dry heat
*Oxidation170oC / 2hrs
*Glassware, needles, glass syringe
how to evaluate the effectiveness of antiseptics and disinfectants in-use test

compare the samples of substrate before and after disinfection
How Ultraviolet light can control microbial growth.

Exposure to UV light causes thymine molecules to link together in DNA.
Errors in protein synthesis and impairment of chromosome replication occur.
Other types of radiation also can sterilize materials.
X rays and gamma rays (ionizing radiations) force electrons out of microbial molecules.
This affects cell metabolism and physiology. Radiation is used to control microbes in food.
How/why Filtration traps microorganisms

As fluid passes through a filter, organisms above a certain size threshold are trapped in the
pores.
Air can be filtered using a highefficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter.
Ultraviolet light can be used to control microbial growth.
Exposure to UV light causes thymine molecules to link together in DNA.
Errors in protein synthesis and impairment of chromosome replication occur.
Hydrogen peroxide how is it disinfects/antiseptic

*damages cellular components
* it has a Catalse & Oxygen
Idophores how is it disinfects/antiseptic

release iodine over a long period of time
Incineration
*dry heat
*Burning to ashes
*Sterilization animal cacasses, dressings, wipes
Incineration
>*500
*Vaporizes organic material on nonflammable surfaces
*but may destroy many substances in the process
Intermittent boiling
*100
*Three 30minute intervals of boiling, followed by periods of cooling
*kills bacterial endospores
Ionizing
*Radiation(D)
*DNA destruction
*Not commonly used
*Sterilizing medical & dental supplies
Isopropanol
*50-70%
*Denatures proteins and solubilizes lipids
*Antiseptic used on skin
Lactic acid
*unknown effective concentration
*Antimicrobial agent in cheeses, buttermilk, yogurt and pickled foods
Low temp long time (LTLT)

*pasturization
*Denaturation
*63oC/30mins
*Milk: batch process intanks

Lyophilization
*Desiccation(C)
*Growth arrested
*Long term preservationof microbes
*Food, Drug & culture
Mercuric chloride
*Inactivates proteins by reacting with sulfide groups
*Disinfectant, although occasionally used as an antiseptic on skin
Nitrates
*can be found in some cheeses
*adds flavor
*maintains pink color in cured meats
*prevents botulism in canned foods.
*Can cause adverse reactions in children, and potentially carcinogenic.
Nonionizing
*Radiation(D)
*DNA py-py-dimers (eg:UV)
*Not very penetrating
*radiation
*UV(germicidal)lamp
nosocomial
infections gained fromt he hospital
Osmotic Pressure
*Desiccation
*Plasmolysis
*Loss of water
*Food preservation
Oxygen how is it disinfects/antiseptic

is effective agains anaerobic bacteria
Ozone
*generates lethal oxygen radical
*Purification of water, sewage
Pasteurization
A heating process that REDUCES the number of spoilage germs and eliminates pathogens in milk and other heat
sensitive foods
Pasteurization (batch method)

*63/30 minutes
*kills most vegetative bacterial cells including pathogens such as streptococci, staphylococci and Mycobacterium
tuberculosis
Pasteurization (flash method)

*72/15 seconds
*Effect on bacterial cells similar to batch method
*for milk, this method is more conducive to industry and has fewer undesirable effects on quality or taste
Pheno coefficient (PC) how is it disinfects/antiseptic

*indicates disinfecting ability compared to that of phenol
Phenol and phenolic how is it disinfects/antiseptic

denature proteins
Phenolic compounds
*Ex: carbolic acid, lysol, hexylresorcinol, hexachlorophene
*denature proteins and disrupt cell membranes
*anteseptics at low concentrations
*Disinfectants at high concentrations
Physical Methods of Control

Heat is one of the most common physical control methods.
At temperatures above the growth range:
proteins and nucleic acids are destroyed.

water is removed
Incineration uses direct flame to kill microbes
Pressurized steam
is used in an autoclave as a more dependable way to sterilize a variety of objects.
Propionic acid and propionates

* 0.32% effective concentration
*Antifungal agent in breads, cake, Swiss cheeses
Salt
*retards bacterial growth.
*Not good for blood pressure.
Sanitization
Usually used by the food industry. Reduces microbes on eating utensils to safe, acceptable levels for public health
Silver nitrate
*AgNO
*Precipitates proteins
*General antiseptic and used in the eyes of newborns
Soaps & Detergents how is it disinfects/antiseptic

* acts as a surface-active agent
* cause cytoplasm leakage from the microbial membrane
* soaps - removes microbes by emulsifying and solubilizing particles on the skin
* Detergents - are surfactants
Sodium chloride
*Prevents microbial spoilage of meats, fish, etc.
Sodium diacetate
*0.32& effective concentration
*Antifungal agent in breads
Sodium nitrite
*200 ppm effective concentration
* Antibacterial agent in cured meats, fish
Sorbic Acid and Sorbates

*prevent mold formation in cheese and flour confectioneries
Sorbic acid and sorbates

*0.2% effective concentration
*Antifungal agent in cheeses, jellies, syrups, cakes
Static
Processes or chemical agents that inhibit bacterial growth but do not necessarily kill microbes
Sterilization
Kills or removes all forms of life, including bacterial endospores
Sugar
*Prevents microbial spoilage of preserves, jams, syrups, jellies, etc.
Sulfur Dioxide and Sulfites

*are used as preservatives and to prevent browning in alcoholic
beverages, fruit juices, soft drinks, dried fruits and vegetables.
*Sulfites prevent yeast growth
*also retard bacterial growth in wine.
*Sulfites may cause asthma and hyperactivity.
*Sulfites destroy vitamins.
Sulfur dioxide, sulfites

*200-300 ppm effective concentration
*Antimicrobial agent in dried fruits, grapes, molasses
Thermal death point

The minimum temperature at which it dies in a given time period.
Thermal death time

The minimum time at which it dies in a given temperature.
Tincture of Iodine
*2% I in 70% alcohol
*Inactivates proteins
*Antiseptic used on skin Disinfection of drinking water
Types of heavy metals that disinfect/antiseptic. and what do they do

* Mercury, Copper, Silver
* they are reactive with the protein
* they kill the microbes by disrupting the cellular metabolism
Types of Preservation methods

Drying removes the water necessary for microbes to live.
Salting causes water to diffuse out of organisms by osmosis, causing dehydration
and death.
Low temperatures lower microbial metabolic and growth rates, retarding spoilage.
Note the microorganisms in the food retard the spoilage
UHT
*moist heat
*Denaturation
*Sterilization, 141oC/2 sec
*Milk falls ina thin film through a super heated checker
Ultrapasteurization (direct method)

* 140/2 seconds
*Effect on most bacterial cells is lethal. For milk, this method creates a product with relatively long shelf life at
refrigeration temperatures.
What does iodine disinfects

is used to disinfect wound, water, and resturant equipment
What is a typical set-up in a microbiology laboratory for filtration

sterilization of medium components that would be denatured or changed by heat sterilization. The filter is placed
(aseptically) on the glass platform, then the funnel is clamped and the fluid is drawn by vacuum into a previously
sterilized flask. The recommended size filter that will exclude the smallest bacterial cells is 0.22 micron.
Wood smoke
*Prevents microbial spoilage of meats, fish, etc.
"Typical" Bacteria
Kingdom = MoneraCell Type = procaryotic, single cell orgnaisms w/o formed nucleus or organelles such as possessed by higher
organisms.Cell Size = 0.5-0.8 um in diameter, 1 -6 um in length
Aerobic
requires atmospheric oxygen (-21%)
Anaerobic
requires the absence of oxygen
Baccillus
rod or cylindrical
Cell Arrangements
singlepairschainsclusterspalisades
Cell Shapes
Coccus Bacillus Spirochete or spirillum
Chains
division on one plane, perpendicular to the long axis of the chain; cells remain attached "end-to-end"
Chemotaxis
Moving toward or away from certain chemicals.
Clusters
division on three planes
Coccus
spherical
Describe peptidoglycan
Peptidoglycan makes up 60-80% of the cell wall and includes N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic (NAM) acids. Also
includes short peptide chains that crosslink the peptidoglycan layers.
Describe the Gram-negative cell wall

Includes the peptidoglycan layer 10-20%, lipoprotein layers, periplasmic space, and an outer membrane.
Describe the Gram-positive cell wall

Includes the peptidoglycan layer, along with teichoic acids and protein inclusions. Gram-positive cell wall is on the outside of the
cytoplasmic membrane.
Describe the major characteristics of Aschelminthes

- nematodes (the true roundworm)- unsegmented and cylindrical: body surface may be wrinkled- elongated 300um - over 1 metercomplete alimentary tract- reproduction: (dioecious) - sexes separated into male and female worms
Describe the major characteristics of Cestodes

- tapeworms- multiple body parts, segmented- 2mm - 12 meters- no alimentary tract- reproduction: monoecious
Describe the major characteristics of Trematodes

Belong to Platyhelminthes (flatworms) and are called Trematodes (the flukes) - one body part, non-segmented; leaf-shaped (most
trematodes)- 500um - 60mm- partial alimentary tract (mouth, esophagus, caeca, but no anus)- reproduce: (monoecious) - male and
female reproductive structures in one organism (internal fertilization)
Describe the outer membrane of the Gram-negative cell wall

Composed of lipoproteins, lipopolysaccharides, and phospholipids. Also is the site of "O" antigen in Escherichia, Salmonella and
Shigella. It also has the site of Lipid A, the endotoxin molecule.
Eucaryotic Cell Type

Nuclear Membrane - presentChromosomes - multiple, linearCell Replication - mitosisEnergy Production - MitochindriaSpecialized
Organelles - Several (Golgi, ER, etc.)
Explain fastidious
organisms that have elaborate requirements for specific nutrients which they cannot synthesize
Explain parasite
an organism which lives in or on a host organism from which it secures some advantage such as deriving organic nutrients from a
living host.
Explain saprophyte
It is an organism which utilizes non-living organic matter.
Explain what a virus is.

It is an obligate intracellular parasite that takes control of the host cell and requires the metabolic processes of the living cell to
reproduce virus.
Facultative
can grow in presence or absence of oxygen
General characteristics of "Atypical" bacteria

- very small (0.1 to 0.3 um); much smaller than "typical" bacteria- some are obligate, intracellular parasites- modified cell wall, if
present (Mycoplasma has no cell wall)- complicated or modified reproductive method (still binary fission, but in a different manner)
Gram-negative stain
communist red is negative
Gram-positive stain
purple is positive
How does the protozoa reproduce?

Depends on the species.Schizogony has multiple divisions of the nucleus before the cell divides.Conjugation (ciliates) is where two
cells fuse, each fertilizing the other; then they divide.
how many types of nucleic acid does it have?

One. Either RNA or DNA, never both.
Kingdom of "atypical" bacteria

Monera
List Fungal cell morphology and structures for Yeast

- single cell organism- oval or spherical shape- reproduce by budding- size (4-15 um) in diameter- Colony morphology: smooth, shiny
Microaerophilic
requires reduced oxygen concentration (5-10%)
Morphology
external appearance of the cell, colony, or other item
Moulds
- hyphae: multicellular long filamentous cells that branch and intertwine- reproduce by forming spores on reproductive hyphae- size:
hyphae (2-15 um in diameter); up to 30 um long; spores (1-10 um)- mycelium: visible mass of hyphae (i.e. colony); may be cottony,
fluffy, velvety, or leathery in various colors
Pairs
division on one plane; daughter cells remain paired
Palisades
"picket fence", division one plane perpendicular to the short axis of the chain (bacilli only)
Phototaxis
Moving toward or away from light.
Procaryotic Cell Type

Nuclear Membrane - absentChromosomes - one, circularCell Replication - binary fission Energy Production - Cytoplasmic
MembraneSpecialized Organelles - Few (e.g. ribosomes)
Sequence of events during animal virus infection (lytic cycle)

- Attachment- Penetration and Uncoating of Nucleic Acid- Eclipse or Synthesis Phase- Maturation- Release
Single
no particular arrangement
Size of protozoa
2um - 1mm
Spirochete or spirillum
spiral or corkscrew shape, not usually visible by Gram stain
True/FalseMoulds typically grow on artificial media similar to that used for bacteria, except that the media usually contains antibiotics
to inhibit viruses.
False, the medium contains antibiotics to inhibit bacteria.
What are axial filaments?

Bundles of fibrils arising at the ends of the cell beneath outer sheath and spirals around the cell (corkscrew).Spirochetes move in this
fashion.
What are fimbriae and their function?

They are short, thin, threadlike glycoprotiein strands protruding from the cell. They aid in attachment to appropriate cells.
What are the bacterial metabolic types?

SaprophyteParasiteFastidious
What are the classifications of protozoa's method of locomotion?

Amoebae - move by pseudopodia (false feet)Flagellates - move by flagellaCiliates - move by cilia (short-hair like
structures)Apicomplexans (Sporozoans) - non-motile in their mature forms
What are the environmental needs of bacteria?

Oxygen, Temperature, pH, Humidity, carbon dioxide
What are the general characteristics of Helminths?

- Kingdom Animalia- Eucaryotic- Multicellualr- Generally possess specialized, simple body systems- Locomotion is either reduced or
lacking.
What are the major components and function of the bacterial cytoplasm membrane?
Phospholipid bilayer and proteins.Function:selective permeabilitysite of energy productionsynthesis and transport of
peptidoglycansecretion of extracellular hydrolytic enzymes
What are the major components and function of the bacterial cytoplasm?
Composition is thick, aqueous, and elastic and is composed of cell sap and genetic material and mechanisms. Function is metabolism
and replication.
What are the major overall functions of the bacterial cell wall?
Provides:shape and rigidityprotection from the environment and from some antimicrobial agentssite of antibody attachment to major
cell antigens
What are the morphological stages of protozoa's?

Trophozite stage - active, vegetative, motile, feeding stage. Responsible for major pathological conditions in host.Cystic stage dormant, nonmotile, non-feeding stage. Protected by formation of cyst wall; able to survive certain adverse environments.
What are the optimal temperature, pH, humidity, and carbon dioxide requirements for the growth of a "typical" medically significant
bacteria?
Temperature - 35 degrees celsiuspH - 6.8 to 7.4Humidity - 60-80% Carbon dioxide - most medically significant bacteria do not require
increased carbon dioxide levels, however, some need 5 to 7%.
What cell type are protozoa?

Eucaryotic, single-celled organisms with intracellular organelles.
What cell type is Fungi?

Eucaryotic - possess membrane-bound nucleus and organelles, etc.
What does the head of the bacteriophage consist of?

- Head, with a core made up of nucleic acid and a capsid which provides protection of that genetic material.- Tail
What does the tail of the bacteriophage consist of?

- Sheath, which is a column of protein that connects the head to the base.- Tail fibers made up of protein fibers with polysaccharide
tips which help in determining the attachment site on bacterial cells.- Base with enzymatic pairs that will punch a hole into the
bacterial cell wall.
What does the viruses capsid consist of?

The composition is protein and it helps to contain and protect the nucleic acid. The proteins also serve as antigens in infection and as a
site for attachment.
What does the viruses core consist of?

The composition includes nucleic acid (DNA or RNA, but not both) and the function of the genetic material is to provide it's genetic
information.
What does the viruses envelope consist of?

It is made up of a lipid bilayer acquired from the host cell or nuclear membrane and glycoproteins (spikes), which aid in attachment
and serve as antigens.Remember, the envelope is not present in some.
What is a bacteriophage?
It is a bacterial virus (mostly DNA viruses).
What is a colony?
A clump of a few million identical bacteria originating from the same bacterium.
what is a culture media?

The material in/on which bacteria grow in the laboratory.
What is an endospore?
It is a spore that is highly resistant to environmental effects and is metabolically dormant (one spore germinates to form one vegetative
cell).
What is meant by "antigenic group"?

organisms possessing a major antigen that may be common to more than one genus or more than one species; usually designated by
capital letters.e.g. Group A
What is meant by antigenic type?

organisms possessing a specific antigen that is common to only very limited, closely related orgnaisms (such as members of a
antigenic group); usually designated by numbers.e.g. Type 1
What is the capsule?
The capsule, also referred to as the glycocalyx or slime layer, is made up of polysaccharides and is resistant to phagocytosis, helps to
"hide" surface antigens, and sometimes assists in attachment (dental plaque).
What is the classification of Protozoa?

Kingdom Protista
What is the endospore composed of?

It has concentrated, dehydrated, densely packed nucleic acids and metabolic proteins within a thick spore coat.
What is the flagellum?

It is a long, slender, threadlike appendage that is made up of protein and aids in the motility of the bacteria.
What is the function of the endospore?

To survive under adverse environmental conditions (resist heat, chemicals, and irradiation). Spores may be viable for years.
What is the function of the viruses envelope?

The lipid bilayer provides general protection from the environment. The proteins aid in attachment and serve as antigens during
infection and as a site for antibody attachment.Remember, the envelope is not present in some.
What is the growth time for bacteria?

30-60 minutes for mostsome 15-30 hours
What is the Kingdom for viruses?

None. They are not considered living organisms, but they could be classified into their own "Kingdom virus".
What is the size of a virus?

18 - 300nm (0.018 -.3 um) - some can be up to 14,000 nm's in length
what is the structure of the virus composed of?

Core CapsidEnvelope - not present in some viruses
What Kingdom does Fungi belong to?

Kingdom Fungi, includes moulds and yeast
What type of cell morphology do protozoa's have?

Pleomorphic
A __________ persistent viral infection may take years to cause discernible damage.
A. slow
B. latent
C. chronic
D. suspended
A. slow
Adsorption occurs via special receptors, which are located on which viral component?
A. Capsid
B. Envelope
C. Nucleic acid
D. Both A and B
D. Both A and B
Amino acids are linked together to form:

a. polysaccharides
b. DNA/RNA
c. proteins
d. fats
c. proteins
An antibiotic is a:
a. chemical substance produced by a microorganism that can inhibit the growth of or destroy some
other microorganisms
b. protein that is produced by the body in response to an antigen and is capable of binding
specifically to that antigen
c. chemical agent used to kill microorganisms on contaminated operatory surface
d. negatively charged ion
a. chemical substance produced by a microorganism that can inhibit the growth of or destroy some other
microorganisms
Bacteria that can survive and grow in the presence of acids are called?
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
c. aciduric
d. acidogenic
c. aciduric
Bacteria that die in the presence of oxygen are called:

a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
c. fermentative
d. acidogenic
b. anaerobic
Bacteria that makes acids are called:

a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
c. aciduric
d. acidogenic
d. acidogenic
Candida albican is a:
a. prion
b. bacterium
c. virus
d. yeast
d. yeast
Candida albicans is part of the natural oral microbiota for:

A. 1 in every 10 adults.
B. 3 in every 10 adults.
C. 5 in every 10 adults.
D. 7 in every 10 adults
B. 3 in every 10 adults.
Denture stomatitis is caused by which infectious agent?

A. Prion
B. Virus
C. Fungi
D. Bacteria
C. Fungi
The final end product of fermentation is:

A. glucose.
B. lactic acid.
C. pyruvic acid.
D. adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
B. lactic acid.
How many new viruses are released when an infected host cell lyses?
A. Several
B. Hundreds
C. Thousands
D. Millions
C. Thousands
In the metabolism of sugar, lactate dehydrogenase is the:

A. enzyme.
B. product.
C. cofactor.
D. substrate.
A. enzyme.
A special form of bacterium that is dormant and highly resistant to heat and chemicals is a:
a. vegetative cell
b. virus
c. rickettsia
d. Spore
d. Spore
Structures that allow certain bacteria to attach to surfaces are called:

a. flagella
b. ribosomes
c. cocci
d. fimbriae
d. fimbriae
Water is a necessary requirement for bacterial hydrolysis. Aciduric bacteria are the only
microorganisms that do not need water to grow.
A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. The first statement is true; the second is false.
D. The first statement is false; the second is true.
C. The first statement is true; the second is false.
What bacterial cell structure protects the cell from being crushed?
a. Cell membrane
b. Cell wall
c. Capsule
D. Fimbriae
b. Cell wall
What bacterial structure inhibits phagocytosis and allows bacteria to escape death caused by white
blood cells?
a. Nucleus
b. Capsule
c. Cytoplasmic membrane
d. Cell Wall
b. Capsule
What part of the name Streoticoccus mutans is the species name?

mutans
Which agent effectively treats thrush?

A. Antiviral
B. Antifungal
C. Antibacterial
D. None of the above
B. Antifungal
Which description accurately depicts gram-positive Streptococcus mutans?

A. Pink, curved cells
B. Purple, spherical cells
C. Blue, rod-shaped cells
D. Red, spiral-shaped cells
B. Purple, spherical cells
Which is smaller?
a. Human red blood cells
b. Bacterium
c. Virus
c. Virus
Which method cultures a pure bacterial colony?

A. The bacterial sample is poured into the agar medium.
B. The bacterial sample is tapped or dripped onto the agar medium.
C. The bacterial sample is spread or streaked across the agar medium.
D. The bacterial sample is pressed into the surface of the agar medium.
C. The bacterial sample is spread or streaked across the agar medium.
Which of the following best described a psychrophilic bacterium?

a. Grows best at cold temp (fridge)
b. Produces acid during growth
c. Gram d. Needs oxygen for growth
a. Grows best at cold temp (fridge)
Which of the following microbes do not need to multiply inside of living cells?
a. DNA viruses
b. RNA viruses
c. Chlamydia
d. Regular bacteria
d. Regular bacteria
Which sequence accurately depicts the life cycle of a virus?

A. Penetration, adsorption, assembly, release, uncoating
B. Adsorption, penetration, uncoating, assembly, release
C. Uncoating, release, assembly, penetration, adsorption
D. Release, penetration, uncoating, adsorption, assembly
B. Adsorption, penetration, uncoating, assembly, release
Which step is the first in culturing bacteria?

A. The solution is sterilized and poured into Petri dishes.
B. Bacteria are placed on the surface of the agar medium.
C. Temperature and atmospheric conditions are simulated for incubation.
D. A seaweed derivative (agar) is added to the solution of bacterial nutrients.
D. A seaweed derivative (agar) is added to the solution of bacterial nutrients.
Which structural component is present in both bacterial and viral microbes?

A. Capsid
B. Flagella
C. Nucleic acid
D. Cytoplasmic membrane
C. Nucleic acid
Which type of bacteria thrives in an oral environment?

A. Acidogenic
B. Psychrophile
C. Microaerophile
D. Obligate aerobic
A. Acidogenic
Which type of bacterium is shaped like a sphere? Cocus

a. Bacillus
b. Coccus
c. Spirillum
"Nicks" 60S subunit of ribosome
(The 28S portion)
Shigatoxin (Shigella sp.) & Shiga-like toxin (EHEC)
Adherance invovles? (theres 4)

1. Pili/fimbriae Gram (-) cells
2. Teichoic acids Gram (+) cells
3. Adhesins Colonizing factor adhesins, pertussis toxin, & hemaggluttins
4. IgA proteases Bind bacteria to Fc receptors, thus preventing opsonization & phogocytosis
(Neisseria, Haemophilus, S. pneumoniae)
ADP-ribosylation causing increase cAMP (Gi-alpha)

Pertussis toxin
ADP-ribosylation causing increase cAMP (Gs-alpha)

Cholera & E. coli toxin
Alpha-toxin
(& organisms that have it)
Cytolysin
-C. perfringes
-S. aureous
*Similar mechanism to PLC, catalyzes splitting of phospholipids (except this causes cell lysis)
Antigens of Enterobacteriacae
("HOKVi")
H = Flagella (Not seen in shigella)
O = Outer membrane
K = Capsule
Vi = Capsule of Salmonella
Antiphagocytic surface components? (theres 3)

S. pyogenes M. protein (degrades C3b & escapes phagocytes)
N. gonorrhoeae pili
Staphyl. aureous A protein

Bacteria that aquire toxins/VFs/etc.. via a lysogenic phage
S. pyogenes (Erythrogenic toxin)C. diptheriae (Exotoxin)C. botulinum (Neurotoxin)
Charcoal-yeast extract agar (CYE agar) (S)

Legionella
Chocolate agar
Neisseria, Haemophilus
Cholesterol & purines & pyrimidines

Mycoplasma
Claire's rule for virulence factors

"If its got a capsule, that is the VF"-"Some Killers Have Pretty Nice Capsules"Strep. pneumoniae/SalmonellaKlebsiella
pneumoniaeH. influenzaPseudomonas aeruginosa/PneumococcusNeisseria meningitidisCryptococcus neoformans(Don't forget
about the Enterobactericiae family!)
Congenital CMV infection

*MC congenital infection-Deafness & Chorioretinitis-Intracranial calcifications (periventricular), Microcephaly, & MRHepatosplenomegaly
Congenital HSV infection

3 distinct syndromes:1. Localized skin, eye, & mouth inflammation (45%)2. CNS DS: Meningitis or encephalitis (30%)3.
Disseminated DS: Involves multiple organs (25%)
Congenital Other (Treponema, Listeria, EBV, Parvo, HIV, etc) infection

Cryptorchidism (EBV & rare)
Congenital Rubella infection

CRS (Tetrad)1. Cataracts2. Cardiac defects (PDA, Pulmonary stenosis)3. Deafness4. Mental retardation/Microcephaly
Congenital Toxoplasma infection

-Blindness (Chorioretinitis) & hearing loss-Nephritis & Jaundice-CNS symptoms (Spasticity, SZs, mental-status changes) Hydrocephalus: Diffuse intracranial calcifications
Cysteine
Francisella, Brucella, Legionella, Pasteurella, & Corynebacterium ("Fat Boys Love Pie & Cake")
Entetobacteriaceae(From left to right)

"Established Kinky Personalities SAlvage SHivelrous People"
Eosin methylene blue (D)MacConkeys (D)

Enteric bacteria
Exotoxin (ADP-R of AC)-increase cAMP

Bacillus anthracis
Exotoxin (ADP-R of eEF-2)-decrease activity of eEF-2

C. diptheriae & P. aeruginosa*Causes NAD Niacin + eEF2-ADP-ribose
Facultative anaerobes
Most bacteris (e.g. Enterobacteriaceae)
Hektoan enteric agar (D)Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate agar

Enteric pathogens
Loffler's coagulated serum medium (S)Tellurite agar (D)

Corynebacterium
Lowenstein-Jensen medium (S)

Mycobacterium
Microaerophilic
Campylobacter, HelicobacterBorrelia sp
Obligate aerobes
Mycobacterium, Pseudomonas, (Bacillus)
Obligate anaerobes
Actinomyces, Bacteroides, Clostridium ("ABCs")
Organisms capable of antigenic variation

Borrelia spp.Salmonella spp.TrypanosomesNeisseria gonorrheaeH. influenzaeHIV (Retrovirus)
Organisms that can trigger Reiter syndrome (Reactive arthritis): 75% of pts are HLA-B27
Shigella sp. Salmonella sp. Yersinia sp. Campylobacter sp.Chlamydia trachomatis
Parasites that stain acid fast

Cryptosporidium (MC), Microsporidium, Isospora, Cyclospora
Partial adherence?
Biofilms:-Staph. epidermis-Strep. mutans
TCBS (Thiosulfate Citrate Bile Salts Sucrose agar) (S)

Vibrio cholerae (likes alkaline growth medium)
Thayer-Martin media (S)-chocolate agar supplemented with vancomycin, nystatin, & colistin
Neisseria
Thioglyconate
Anaerobes
Top 3 organisms for Necrotizing Fascitis?

1. Strep. pyogenes2. Staph. aureous3. Clost. perfringens
X (protoporphyrin) & V (NAD)

Haemophilus (influenzae & aegypticus require both)
9) Processing of oil seeds
(CCA) Certified Crop Advisor
has passed 2 exams, signed code of ethics, 40 hours of education every 2 years
1 acre=___sq/ft
43560
1 bushel of sb=___ pounds

60
1 cup=___ ounces
8
1 gal=___pounds
8.3
1 mile=___sq feet
5280
1 mL=___ounces
30
1 ounce=___tablespoons
2
1 pound=___ounces
16
1 pound=___sb seeds
3000
1 tablespoon= ___ teaspoons

3
3 categories of insects
foilage feeders, pod feeders, root and stem feeders
4 soybeans per sq/ft =

1 bushel/acre

Bacteria types
bacterial leaf spot, bacterial chlorosis
bacterial chlorosis
light yellow, causes leaf to form abnormal amino acids
cylinder should be...

narrow enough to separate soybean and pod, wide enough to avoid crushing soybean, and fast enough to thresh
soybean without plugging
disease causing organisms

nematodes, fungi, bacteria, viruses
foilage feeders
most common
Fungi types
southern stem, sudden death syndrome, asianic soybean rust
Header loss should be...

3% or less
HOW fast should the reel run

25% faster than ground speed
how many insects can't be controlled?

none if you can id them
how much loss should be at separating

1%
most common nematode types

cyst, root-knot
most serious soybean pest in NC

cornear worm
NC's frog eye leaf spot rank in U.S.

9th
Nematode control tools

rotation, varieties, nematicides, lime
pod feeders
most serious
primary nematode types

cyst, sting, root-knot, lesion, columbia lance
pytheroids have resistance in some pests like...

cornear worm
reel should be how high

1/4 the height of the canopy
reel should be in front of cutter bar about

6in
reel should run fast enough to...

tip plants back
root and stem feeders

not common or serious
Roundup Ready SB varieties are resistant to all nematodes in NC (T/F)

False
SDS id
leaves dried up in 4 days

secondary nematode types
stubby-root, lance, ring, stunt, spiral, dagger
southern stem id
white fluff at bottom of stem
stinkbug threshold
5 stinkbugs per 15 sweeps
threshold for foliage feeders @ bloom

15% defoliation
threshold for foliage feeders @ pre-bloom

30% defoliation
weed control tools

rotation, competition, cultivation, herbicides
what is key to insect management in soybeans?

scouting
what percentage of NC is infested with SCN (soybean cyst nematodes)

60%
0.3-20 per 1000 plants
Double Haploids.They naturally occur in all varieties at what rate?
5
Hybrid oilseed rape varieties come to market in ____ years.
45
The average oil content in OSR is ____%.
Star this term

Be stored
FRH.What can the seed not do?
Brassica napus (swede rape)

The species of rape grown in the UK, and majorly in the world is...
Brassica oleracea, Brassica rapa

The species of rape grown in the UK is formed by a cross of what rape species?
By applying 2% colchicine to young buds

Double Haploids.How is chromosome number doubled?
Characterising, recombination techniques, parental genotypes

Molecular Breeding.A genetic map is made by ________ the ________ ________ that have taken place amongst a population of
plants derived from 2 or more ________ ________.
Club root, Phoma stem canker

The main OSR disease in the north is..., while in the south it is...
Complicated, heterozygosity
Double haploids see selection in early generations ________ by ________.
Cultured, haploid plants

Double Haploids.Pollen grains are ________ to produce ________ _________.
F2-3, F6, selfing for 7-8 yrs

The pedigree method involves selection at ____, with a stable line by ____. Before national trials what occurs?
A fragment of DNA associated to a unique part of the genome

Molecular Breeding.What is a molecular marker?
Genes, nucleus, fertile F1 hyrbids

The use of a restorer line with the ________ in its ________ allows for the production of what?

High yielding inbred lines
The pedigree method leads to the production of what?
Hybrid, pollinator, poor and inefficient pollination (so lower yield)

Varietal association.Differences in vigour between ________ and ________ led to...
Increased vigour and growth, increased stress tolerance and lower seed rate
Hybrid oilseed rape varieties heterosis leads to...
It has weed characteristics (pods shatter, intermediate habit, long term seed viability)
Why does OSR pose more of a threat to breeders?
Labour restrictive, F1 lines

Double Haploids.The process is ________ ________ and limited to ________ ________.
Low erucic, low glucosinate

The back-cross method of breeding has led to the varieties, single low, ________ ________, and double low, ________ ________.
A male sterile line (female) and a pollinator line (male)

Varietal association.A F1 hybrid is formed by a cross of what?
A male sterile line (female) and a restorer line (male)

FRH.Accounting for ______% of UK OSR, FRH varieties are produced via a cross of what?
Mitochondrial growth, dominant trait

CMS leads to a genetic mutation in ________ ________ and the character is inherited as a ________ ________.
A north/south divide and different site/soil types

In the pedigree method the F5 sees what occur for the first time?
OSR is exposed to Phoma and light leaf spot (2 biggest UK problems) and is analysed for oil, erucic acid and glucosinate content
In the pedigree method the F1 involves growing and selfing, whilst the F2 is grown in the field. At the F2 what also happens?
Primary branches, being rooted and treated with colchicine

Double Haploids.Naturally occurring double haploids may have cutting taken from ________ ________ as they come into flower
before...
Producing genetic maps and molecular markers

Molecular Breeding.What is this based upon?
Reduce breeding time by 50% compared to the pedigree method

Double Haploids.The method has the potential to do what?
Restored fertility and allows pollen production to produce seed

FRH.The male plant does what?
Slim buds, small petals and male sterile flowers

Double Haploids.Haploid plants exhibit what characteristics?
Specific chromosomes, specific traits (i.e. yield, disease resistance...)

Molecular Breeding.ID markers are aimed to be associated with ________ ________, related to ________ ________.
Varietal associations and fully restored hybrids

The two types of hybrids available are...
Wheat
Double Haploids.The technology is widespread in wheat, barley and OSR. ________ is the least responsive to it, yet has the largest
market.
12)Fluid milk
How is metering measured?
Volumetric displacement,
mass flow rate or velocity
How many head of dairy cows are in the US in 2010?

9.17 million head
The most important reason native lipase need to be destroyed is why?

It is responsible for hydrolytic rancidity.
RANCID FLAVOR
Organic food sales are about what percentage of all food?

4%
Since 2006 has milk production increased or decreased?

Increased from 182 billion pounds to 193 billion pounds
T or F. Organic milk sales in the US have decreased since 2008.

False. Increased by 15.8%
T or F. There are significant differences between organic and traditionally produced milk.
False. No significant differences.
What are important details when receiving the milk and recording inventory?
Hauler's weights may be the only weights
Most handlers make a double check
What are the components in receiving milk, cleaning and sanitizing (Phase III)?
CIP (Clean in place)
Tanks sealed and tagged before leaving plant
Pump and exterior of truck are driver responsibilities
What are the components of receiving the milk and unloading it, phase II?
High capacity centrifugal pumps
Filtration/clarification
Open vents before starting pumps
What are the levels of sedimentation distance?

0 (sediments at bottom)
1t (sediments at s,2s, 4s)
2t (sediments increase)
3t (sediments reach top)
What are the mechanical devices used in phase II?

Air eliminator
Pump
Filter
Metering device
What are the receiving preparations for unloading milk in phase I?

Agitating the milk
Sampling
What components have helped slow the fall in fluid milk consumption?
Improved packaging such as rounded, reclosable plastic containers
what does 'd' stand for in the formula?

the diameter of the particle
What does 'n' stand for in the formula?

viscosity
What does 'r' stand for in the formula?

Distance of particle from center of bowl
what does 'w' stand for in the formula?

centrifugal speed (rpm)
What happens in a centrifugal clarifier bowl?

The milk enters the disc stack at the periphery and flows inwards through the channels
What happens in a centrifugal separator bowl?

the milk enters the disc stack through the distribution holes, separation of fat globules from skim milk occur
What happens in the desludging separator?

Solids ejection by short opening of the sedimentation space at the periphery of the bowl
What is (Pp-Pl) in the formula stand for?

the difference in density of solution and particle
What is agitating the milk?

Recirculation
Mechanical
Air (quality must meet 3A standards)
What is important when storing milk in the plant?

To protect and maintain the product
What is metering affected by?

Air content, temperature, flow rate, back pressure and position of meter
What is sampling the milk?

Odor during agitation
Lab sample
Antibiotic residue testing prior to unloading
SPC, Fat, etc testing after unloading
What is the centrifugal process?

Centrifugal force is generated in a rotating vessel. Separates heavy and light particles.
What is the centrifuge formula?

a = r w^2
What is the composition of sludge?

67% water
30% organic matter
3% minerals
What is the difference between homozygous milk and raw milk?

Homozygous cream is mixed well (<2 um globules), while you can see a cream line in raw milk (3-20 um globules).
What is the displacement velocity formula?

Vc = d^2 (Pp-Pl) / 18n (rw^2)
What is the end product after 1800 psi is applied in a homogenizer?

break up of fat globules, homogenized product
What must be weighed for inventory regulation?

Tankers (snow on top?)
Measuring not acceptable in tankers
Weighing in receiving or storage tanks (most accurate)
Measure storage tanks (pressure)
Metering
What prevents reverse flow in a homogenizer?

Discharge valve
When zero pressure is applied in the homogenizer, what is the end product?
Raw milk, big milk globules
Why is homogenized milk great?

after 48 hours of storage, the top 100 ml of milk will not differ in fat percentage by more than 10% from the remaining
mixed sample.
Why is it important to recognize that milk production has increased?

Milk prices are the same as they were 20 years ago, but feed and fuel prices have been increasing.
Why is the removal of insoluble suspended particles important?

it is more efficient than filtering.
mostly used for quarq cheese
not many left in fluid milk plants
Why must homogenization be combined with heat treatment?

Destruction of IgM (responsible for clumping)
Destruction of native lipase (exposes milkfat to lipase.)
How is pasteurization records kept?
Pasteurizer's log (Cali and Wisconsin require a licensed operator)Recording charts

If you heat milk for .01 seconds, what temperature does it have to be at?
212*F
If you heat milk for 1 second, what temp does it have to be at?
191*F
If you heat milk for 15 seconds, what temp does it have to be?
161*F
If you heat milk for 30 minutes, what temp does it have to be?
145*F
Is raw milk 100% safe?

No, especially if typically drink homogenized milk. 5 sick with campylobacter in NY encouraged Dept of Ag to make a statement
against raw milk consumption.
What are some issues with commercial sterilization?

Heat resistant enzymes may destroy acceptability of productsPhosphatase test may not be valid
What are some methods of indirect heating systems?

Plate heat, Scraped surface heat exchangerTubular heat exchanger
What are the heat induced changes in fluid milk products?

All components may be affectedHeat sensitivity free enzymesOver processing to increase shelf life may be more detrimental to sales
What are the heat sensitivity free enzymes, most to least?

Whey proteinsBound enzymesCa/P casein complexLactoseLipids
What are the purposes of heat treatment?

Destroy pathogens******Destroy spoilage organismsDestroy endogenous enzymes
What are the two methods of heating?

Direct and Indirect heating
What does HTST stand for?

High Temperature, Short Time Pasteurization
What is a direct heating system?

Product is touched by media (steam)
What is a downfall of infusion sterilization?

Requires more space
What is a indirect heating system?

Product does not touch media (steam).
What is aseptic packaging?

H2O2 removal All must be evaporated prior to product filling
What is pasteurization?
Some Bacteria and enzymes are destroyedNOT STERILIZATION
What is the downfall for injection sterilization?

Noisy and hard to control pressures to maintain complete condensation
What study proved improvements with pasteurized milk?

Infant mortality
When did commercial use of heat treatment begin in the US?

19001930's became well accepted
Which individual applied it to milk, and when?

Soxhlet of Germany in 1886
Who was the pioneer of heat preservation?

Pasteur
1 gal= 8.62 LBS
How much does a gallon of milk weigh
3.25% milk fat and not less than 8.25%milk SNF

whole milk contains how much milk fat
9 million
The national dairy herd in the US has decreased from over 20 mill.cows in 1956 to approx.---------- in 2006. YET milk
production jas increased
10 to 14 days
How long can properly processed milk be kept for
50%
Most milk produced on U.S.dairy farms goes to plants and dealers for processing more the ------- of fluid jilk is maketed
by suermarkets
80 persent
dairy cows produce ----------- of the world fluid milk supply
90%
cooperative milk marketing ass.located near large population centers give producers more bargaining power,as they
control approx. ---- of the milk prod.
100 lbs 8-16lbs

the cheese making process reduces -------- of milk to-------- of cheese
100 F (38)
What is a cow's body temp
400 / 2000
How many different kinds of chesse are made and how many names are there
acidified
the food was produced hy souring milk or cream with or without the addition of microbial oganisms
Bloating, abdominal cramps,nausea, and diarrhea

what are some of the signs of lactose inrolerance
brucellosis and tuberculosis

milk sold through commercial outlets is certified to be from herds that are tested and found to be free from
butter churns
what is the oldest dairy equipment
calcium,phosphorus,protein, and B vitamins

Milk and other dairy producgt make a significant contribution to the nation's supply of dietary nutrients,large
percetages of
calcium,phosphorus,protein,and B vit.
Milk and other dairy products make a significant contribution to the nation's supply of dietary nutrient.Particularly
noteworthy are the relatively large percentages of
casein
a milk protein, 82%of the total milk protein
coagulation
the process of forming semisolid lumps in a liquid
colostrum
mother's first milk
condensed milk
Milk with water removed and sugar added
cream
liquid milk product,high in fat that has been separated form milk.
curdling
the process of forming semisolid lumps in a liquid
Europen,north america,south america
leading chesse producing regions
evaporated milk
Whole milk which has approximately 60% of the water
homogenized
6th step of milk processing
homogenized
A substance that has been mechanically mixed to prevent separation of solids and liquids such as milk.
Imitation
one that look like,tastes like, and is intended to replace the traditional product couterpart but is nutritionally inferior to it.
India / 3
on a global basis ---------- is the leading butter producing nation generating nearly ------- times more than all of North America
Iron
What nutrient is milk low in
It flows into a refrigerated tank, where it is rapidly cooled to 40-42*F

3rd step of milk processing
lactose
glucose + galactose, Approximately 4.8% oc cow's milk is lactose. 54% of the SNF content in milk
Milk fat
50% Synthesized, 50% preformed (mobilized from adipose)
Milk is taken from the cow by sanitized milk machine

the 1st step of milk processing is
nutrient density
the amount of nutrients relative to the number of calories they provide
osteoporosis
A disease of gradual bone loss, which can cripple people in later life
Pasterurization
mild heating to kill microorganism or pathogens 161F (71.5C) for 15 sec.
Pasteurization
5th step of milk processing
Proteins
Milk contains approx.3.3% protein. Protein accounts for about 38% of the total SNF
rennet
a substance that curdles milk in making cheese and junket/obtained from the stomachs of young calves
soft,semisoft,hard,very hard
What are the 4 classifications of chesses
Solids not fats

What does SNF
Substitute
Resembles the traditional food and also meets the FDA's definition of nutritional equivalency
They take a sample for testing later at the processing plant. Then the cold milk is pumped from the refrigerated frm tank
through a sanitized hose into the insulated tank on the truck
4th step in the milk proccessing
Transitional milk
contains lactose, water-soluable, vitamens, fats and more calories than colostrum. Lasts from day 3 til 2 wks postpartum.
transported through sanitized pipes into holing tanks

2nd step of milk processing

Ultra high temperature
that does (uht) stand for
Vitamins
All ------------ essential in human nutrition are found in milk.
wisconsin,california,idaho
leading cheese producing states
A _____ cup is a cup with fine wire mesh on top used to detect the presence ofabnormal milk.
Strip
_____ is the cause of the rancid flavor in milk.

Extreme agitation of raw milk
A _____ needs to be applied to the teat end in order for a milking machine toremove milk.
Vacuum
The _____ or uniform price is determined by the proportion of the total deliveryused in products of these classes.
Blend
________ is exposure of hot milk or milk product to reduced pressure to affectthe removal of volatile substances, especially those that
enter milk from feed.
Vacuumization
_________ amino acids are commonly found in milk proteins, including theessential amino acids.
19
_________ is the time after processing during which a dairy product normallyremains suitable for human consumption.
Shelf date
__________ is a milk process that makes milk more easily digested by thosewith a sensitive digestive system.
Homogenization
The __________ test is used to detect if milk has been pasteurized properly.
Phosphatase
___________ cause(s) off flavors in milk such as acid, high acid, or sour milk.
Microorganisms
___________ is a test for rancidity.

Acid degree value
A "acidified" label on a milk product indicates that the product was produced by:
Souring the milk
"Cultured" in front of the name of a milk product indicates:

Product has appropriate bacteria added to it
The "set aside" of $0.15 per hundred pounds of milk from a milk producer'scheck is used in programs that support ______.
Promotions & research
The 2009 dairy export value was over 2 billion dollars down approximately________% over 2008.
40
The ability of lipase in milk to attack milk fat and produce a rancid off flavor isenhanced by:
Excessive agitation of warm raw milk
About ____________percent of the calcium available in the food supply isprovided by milk and milk products.
76%
The absence of _____ and _____ is not an accident, because they wouldcatalyze oxidation, their producing metallic or oxidized
flavors.
Iron-copper
According to a report compiled by the Institute for Food Technologists,_________is now America's favorite at-home snack.
Yogurt
According to HACCP, what is a receiving station?

Anywhere raw milk is received, handled, stored, etc

According to the American Veterinary Medicine Association, what is thepreferred method of dehorning cows?
Disbudding
According to the Food & Nutrition Board of the National Academy of Sciences,all people need at least _________ milligrams of
calcium per day.
1000
According to USDA'S economic research service, total per capita of all fluid products was approximately __________ pounds.
177
Adolescents have a recommendation of _________ milligrams of calcium perday.

1300
Adulterants of milk that are detrimental to human health are _____.

Pesticides
The advantage of making processed cheese is:

Extended shelf-life
Aflatoxins sometimes found in dairy feeds are produced by:

Mold
Although milk from the cow is processed, it is not an engineered or fabricatedfood and contains about ________ % solids.
13
Approximately ______% of the frozen dessert market was ice cream. (Hard andsoft and low-fat/non-fat)
86.7
At refrigerated temperatures, butter will begin to lose some of its natural flavorafter how long?
Within 6 months
The average Federal order price per hundredweight in 2009 for class 1 milkwas _______dollars per hundredweight.
14.40
The Babcock test is a rapid, simple and accurate test for:

Fat content
Bacteria that survive specific heat treatment are said to be _____.

Thermoduric
Badly dented or damaged milkers unit parts are caused by

Careless handling
Based on ice cream consumption figures, the second most popular flavor is
Chocolate
Behind the U.S., the country, which averages the largest production per cow, is_____.
Japan
Body condition scoring is one way to measure cow health. What is the idealscore for a milking cow?
3
Butter is made from milk and/or cream and must contain a minimum of:
80% fat
Butter production now accounts for _______% of the total milk supply.
18
Buttermilk is the product resulting from:

Removal of the butter (fat particles) form raw fluid milk
By FDA definition of an imitation product, which of the following is NOT true:

Has the same nutritional value as the real product it represents
By regulation, milk from cows treated with antibiotics usually must be withheldfor ____ hours.
48 - 72
By using a _____ with plastic beads of varying density, nonfat solids in milk canbe rapidly estimated.
Hydrometer

California is the leading state in production of ice cream, which state wassecond?
Indiana
The California Mastitis Test (CMT) asks that you used only ___________milk.
The 2nd stream during milking
Cheddar cheeses sold in the United States, which are not made frompasteurized milk, must be ripened at least _________ days.
60
Cheese consumption in the U.S. was approximately ______pounds per capita.

32
The cheese price series is based on 63 U.S. cheese plants that make 80-85percent of the bulk Cheddar. What is the price series called?
NASS Cheddar Cheese Price Survey
The cheese that has maximum moisture of 45% and a minimum of 45% fat andis a pasta filata cheese is?
Provolone
Chemical sanitizers containing __________ are most widely used for sanitizingmilking equipment.
Chlorine
The CMT should be read within _____________.

20 sec
The CMT test results that indicate a somatic cell count of 400000 to 1500000are _____.
Distinct precipitate forms, but no gel
Condensed milk on the grocery shelf may have ________added.

sugar
A consumer found an off-flavor in milk packaged in transparent plastic andexposed to high intensity fluorescent light. The off-flavor
probably was
Oxidized
Cooperatives Working Together (CWT) is the ______program that aims tostrengthen and stabilize milk prices by balancing supply
and demand.
Farmer-funded
Cottage cheese from the grocery shelf must contain no less than:
4% fat
Cottage cheese is a soft, unripened cheese with approximately_____________moisture content.

80%
The country which imported the largest amount of U.S. ice cream and relatedproducts was:
Mexico
Cow's milk contains _____ percent lactose.

Five
Cows treated with BST typically show an increase of __________ in daily milkproduction.
10%
Cows with _____ have a higher incidence of mastitis because physical injury ismore likely.
Pendulous udders
Cream cheese is different from cottage cheese because:

Cream cheese requires a started culture of bacteria and cottagecheese does not
Cream is a liquid milk product separated from the fluid milk that must contain aminimum of:
18% fat
A cryoscopy is an important tool that test for __________ in milk.

Added water
Cultured sour cream is required by Federal standards to have a minimum of___________.

18% fat
Curd is the _______________during the cheese making process.
Custard-like substance formed at the top of the container
The current U.S. per capita consumption of milk is approximately _____ gallonsper year.
20
Dairy cows need _________ day dry periods for rejuvenation of secretorytissue and restoration of body condition.
60
Dairy farmers can buy and sell dairy futures on what exchange?
Chicago Mercantile Exchange
Dairy farmers receive what percent of the sale of a half-gallon of milk?

26 %
The decision of a milk hauler to accept or reject milk at the producing farm:
Depends on knowledge of milk quality and ability to smell off odors
Demand for dairy products is typically the lowest in

Summer
Dry cream is produced by removing the water from pasteurized milk and/orcream. Dry cream is required to contain a minimum of:
40% fat
Dry cream is produced by removing the water from pasteurized milk and/orcream. Dry cream will have a maximum milk fat of
_______ for economic factors.
75%
Dry milk can be stored for long periods of time:

In a sealed atmosphere of nitrogen or carbon dioxide
Dry milk must have less than _________% moisture by weight.

5%
Dry whey
Mexico
Due to high leukocyte counts, farmers should not use the CMT before the________ day after calving or test milk from cows that are
being dried off.
Third
The enzyme _______ is almost completely inactivated during pasteurization.

Alkaline phosphatase
The establishment of a Federal milk marketing order is generally initiated by________.

Dairy farmers, through their cooperative association
Evaporated milk has been preheated to stabilize the protein, followed by theremoval of:
60% of the water
An example of an extra hard cheese is:

Parmesan
Farm marketing cooperatives have been in existence since the early

1800's
Farm water supplies must be protected from surface contamination. Water isusually tested for __________ as an indicator of possible
sewage contamination
Coliform bacteria
Fat globules in raw milk average about ____________________in diameter:

6/25,000 of an inch, more or less 6 microns
The fat in one serving of whole milk (8 ounces) provides _______ calories.
90
Federal Definitions and Standards of Identity specify that Whole Milk containnot less than _____.
3.25 percent milk fat and 8.25 percent solids-not-fat
Federal Milk Marketing Orders affect prices consumers pay for fresh milk ingrocery stores by:
Leaving them to be determined in the marketplace

Federal Milk Marketing Orders are a mechanism for:
Market stabilization
Federal milk marketing orders give _______ an active voice in determiningminimum milk prices through public hearings.
Milk handlers
Federal Milk Marketing Orders provide or describe:

Payment made to milk producers for milk
The Federal Orders of today are based on the Agricultural Agreement Act of
1937
The feed additive isoacid gives a ______ pound daily milk response, withmaximum response in early lactation.
4 to 6
The first milk produced after parturition is called:

Colostrum
Five countries accounted for approximately _______% of the total U.S. dairyexports.
59
Flavors of milk may be caused in general by _______________.

Feeds consumed by the cow
Fluid milk accounts for ______% of the U.S. milk supply.

15
A fluid milk product that contains at least 8.25% nonfat milk solids and no morethan 0.5 gram of fat in a single serving of 8 fluid
ounces is called
Nonfat milk
For every pound of dry matter, cows should consume how much water?
4 to 5 pounds
For the maximum intake of calcium, one should consume_______.

Skim Milk
The form of mastitis that is hidden from sight is known as

Sub-Clinical
The four primary taste sensations are _____________________.

Bitter, salt, sour, sweet
From the mid 1950's until 2009, individual production per cow has:
Increased by 400%
From the mid 1950's until 2009, the size of the U.S. dairy herd has:
Decreased by 50%
Gouda can be described by all of the following except:

Tart flavor
The Grade A Pasteurized Milk Ordinance (PMO) specifies requirements for theproduction of Grade A raw milk for pasteurization and
is recommended by_________.
The Food and Drug Administration
Heavy cream (whipping cream) contains a minimum milk fat of:

36%
A high acid flavor (sour) in milk is caused by ________.

Growth of bacteria in the milk
The hormone oxytocin is released by the ____ gland.This act stimulates themammary gland.
Pituitary
How long should Calf hutches be left empty between calves to prevent diseasespread?
10 to 14 days
How many cc's of milk is required for the CMT?
2 cc
How many years does it take for a dairy farm to fully transition to becomecertified organic?
3
How often will HACCP inspect each Dairy Farm?

A minimum of every 6 months
Humans may contract ______________ from using raw cows' or goats' milk,should the animals have brucellosis.
Undulant fever
Ice cream must weight a minimum _______pounds to the gallon.

4.5
Ice cream, including both hard and soft serves, represents _______% of theentire frozen dairy product market.
25-26
The ideal cleaning material for removing milk stone from milking equipmentsurfaces is _____.
Acidic detergent
If the CMT has a somatic cell count of 1,200,000 to 5,000,000 what is theinterpretation?
Serious mastitis
If the dairy ingredients to be pasteurized have a fat content of 10% or more, thespecified temperature shall be increased by
______degrees F.
5
If vitamin A is added to milk, it must be at a level of no less than ______international units (I.U.) per quart.
2000
In ______when the Capper-Volstead Act was enacted, cooperatives were giventhe right and power to organize producers of a farm
commodity to its fullestextent.
1929
In 2009, the annual farm milk price was about $_________ per hundredweight,down $5.60 per hundredweight from 2008.
12.80
In cows, salmonellosis infections are most common in those that have calvedwithin
10 days
In Federal order markets, milk sold for consumption in fluid form is in__________.
Class I
In regards to commodities, what best defines hedging?

The act of protecting yourself against price possibilities
In what year were Federal milk-marketing orders reformed?

2000
The increased use of bulk cooling and storage equipment has made _____bacteria the primary organisms in raw milk.
Psychrophilic
The International Dairy Federations (IDF) mission is to promote______________.

Scientific, technical & economic progress
It requires ________pound(s) of milk to produce one gallon of gourmet icecream.

12
It requires ______pound(s) of milk to produce one pound of butter.

22
It takes approximately ____ pounds of skim milk to make a pound of dry curdcottage cheese.
7.3
It takes approximately _______ lbs. of whole milk to make one pound of wholemilk cheddar cheese.
10
It takes approximately _____pounds of skim milk to make one pound of non-fatdry-milk.

11
The Italian cheese with the second largest per capita consumption was?
Provolone
Lactose is the principal ________ in milk.

Carbohydrate
The largest increase per capita in all dairy products in 2009 was
Yogurt
The largest percentage of the U.S. milk supply is utilized in the production of______.
Cheese
The largest production of Italian cheese went to the production of_____________cheese.

Mozzarella
The largest supermarket sales of cheese by type was:

Cheddar
The largest total exported dairy product by volume in 2009 was:

Dry whey
The largest U.S. exports of a dairy product by dollars were?

Non-fat dry milk
The leading state in 2009 in pounds of milk per dairy cow was:
New Mexico
The leading state in total milk production is?

California
Light whipping cream has a minimum of _____% milk fat.

30
Low fat cottage cheese must contain a maximum of:

2% fat
Low levels of the enzyme lactase may lead to lactose intolerance. Symptoms oflactose intolerance include ALL of the following
EXCEPT:
Headaches
Low sodium cheddar cheese contains no more than ________milligrams ofsodium per pound of finished food.
96
Low-fat yogurt must have a minimum of _______ fat and a maximum of________fat.
.5%, 2%
The main objection to dirt and milk stone on parts is _____.

Increased bacterial count
16) Preservation of foods

Nitrate (NO3) and nitrite (NO2):
Meat flavour, preservative, anti-botulinum activity, fixes the red colour of cured meats, retards oxidative rancidity
pH(6)
= Oxidation-reduction potential (Eh), = Moisture content or Water activity (aw),= Nutrient content,= Antimicrobial constituents, =
Biological structure (poultry skin and eggs shell), = Any combination of the above.
Radiations
Ionising Radiation: X-rays or gamma rays,Electromagnetic "nin-ionising" radiation: Microwaves UV rays
Sodium chloride (Salt):

Mild preservative and adds flavour, but contributes to lipid oxidation, Improves yield and influences texture,protein extraction.
"Darfresh" SystemPROCEDURE (3)

1. The air in the chamber and package is EVACUATED, drawing the top web to the ceiling of the dome. The top web absorbs heat
from the dome and becomes formable,2. A gentle AIRFLOW is introduced and the top web relaxes and drapes itself gently over the
product and the bottom web,3. The dome opens and the top web shrinks skin-tight around all the product's contours. - The top and
bottom films are heat-sealed to each other to form a completely flat seal right up to the edges of the product
"Darfresh" System:
Uses specially formulated top and bottom webs to create a vacuum skin consumer pack that fits around the product like a second skin.
Advantages
- INCREASED SHELF LIFE - LITTLE OR NO NEED FOR CHEMICAL PRESERVATIVES-GOOD PROTECTION OF PRODUCT
DURING STORAGE- REDUCED WEIGHT LOSS
Aim of Food Preservation Inactivating or controlling:(2)

= Inactivating or controlling: Microorganisms, Enzymes.= Reducing or eliminating chemical / physical reactions that cause
food spoilage.
Antimicrobial Constituents(2)
Milk: Lactoferrin Conglutinin Lactoperoxydase system Eggs: Lysozime
Bacteria Inactivation
= Normally: Spore > gram (+) > gram (-),= Heat-resistant bacteria are usually more pressure-resistant than heat sensitive types,=
Pressure resistance often reaches a maximum at ambient temperatures= Initial temperature of the food prior to HHP can be reduced or
elevated to improve inactivation at processing temperature
Bacteria Inactivation 2
Listeria monocytogenes and Staph. aureus are the two most well studied, Staph. aureus appears to have a high resistance to pressure,
There is variability of pressure resistances within strains of S. aureus, L. monocytogenes, Salmonella and E. coli O157:H7.
Choice of Final Temperature(2)

= Foods should be frozen at an internal, temperature -18oC / shelf life.= Microorganisms do not grow at -18oC, but some enzymes
can still work (oxidation) and non-enzymatic reactions are not completely stopped.
Clostridium botulinum(5)
- Heat treatment of 90C for 10 minutes, or a time and temperature combination sufficient to kill C. botulinum spores. - pH of 5 or
less in all parts of the food. - Minimum salt level of 3.5% in the water phase throughout all parts of the food.- Water activity of 0.97
or less in all components of the food. - Combination of the controlling factors can be used at lower levels or with other preservative
factors, such as nitrite.
CO2 and Microbes(4)

= The optimum [ ] ranges from 20-30%,= The inhibition effect increases as: temperature decreases, pH decreases, = Gram-negative
bacteria are more susceptible to the inhibition effect than gram-positive, = Carbon dioxide under pressure has a greater antimicrobial
effect than carbon dioxide that is not under pressure.
Cold(3)
- Refrigeration.- Freezing and Blast freezing. - Vacuum Packaging (VP), Modified Atmosphere Packaging (MAP) and Controlled
Atmosphere Packaging (CAP).
Colours in Foods Six food colours associated with possible hyperactivity in young children.
The colours, identified by the Food Standards Agency, are: sunset yellow FCF (E110) quinoline yellow (E104) carmoisine
(E122) allura red (E129) tartrazine (E102) ponceau 4R (E124)
Controlling Microorganisms
- Heat -Cold -Drying -Acid -Sugar -Probiotics -Bacteriophages -Curing -Micro filtration -Smoke -Vacuum Packaging
-Additives -Radiation -High Pressure
Controlling Microorganisms(4)
= Ambient temperature processing =Processing by application of heat =Processing by removal of heat =Post-processing operation

CRYOVAC MACHINE: BAGS ARE SEALED AIR TIGHT
1. Vacuum pack2. Hot water bath Not enough vacuum tight. Bone splinters or other foreign bodies. Seal not applied properly.
Inappropriate plastic bags.
CuringCHANGES(4)
Is any of various food preservation and flavouring processes, especially of meat or fish, by the addition of a combination of
salt, nitrates, nitrite or sugar. Changes: Preservation, Flavour - unique processed products, Colour, Tenderness.
Degrees of Preservation(6)
= PASTEURISATION EFFECT: Low order of heat treatment, generally at temperature below 100oC, Leaves many bacteria viable,
Designed to destroy most of pathogenic organisms (e.g. milk and liquid eggs, oysters), Limited storage life compared
to commercially sterile products. = PASTEURIZATION (old method): 63oC for 30 minutes, Need cold storage = HTST = 72oC for
15 seconds (shelf life up to 3 weeks) or 88oC for 1 second, Need cold storage= UHT = 138oC for 2 to 5 second (shelf life up to 3-4
months).= Sterilisation - complete destruction of all microorganisms: bacterial spores require at least 121oC wet heat for 15 min., =
Commercially Sterile - may contain small number of heat resistant bacterial spores (these will not normally multiply in the food
supply). Most canned or bottled food products are commercially sterile and have a shelf life of 2 years or more.
Effects of Food Constituents

= Direct effects on microorganisms: pH, fats and oils, starch, protein, sugar (interfere with penetration of wet heat).= Wet heat is
more lethal than dry heat: Moisture is an effective conductor of heat and penetrates into microbial cells and spores.
Effects on Microorganisms (7)

= Denaturation of essential microbial proteins. = Ribosom denaturation. = Loss of osmotic function of microbial cell membrane. =
Spores are more heat resistant due to their state of dehydration. = Gram+ bacteria are more heat resistant than Gram-. = Level of
bacterial contamination of food influences the efficency of the heat treatment. = Lag and stationary phases help bacteria to be more
heat resistant.
Eh(3)
= Meat reduced to -200mV (O2) produces -SH radicals and bacteria produce H2S. Role of ascorbic acid. = Differences between
moulds, yeasts and aerobic, anaerobic and facultative anaerobic bacteria. = Interference with microbial enzymes function (O2).
Extrinsic Parameters.(4)
= Ambient temperature, = Humidity of environment, = Microbial competition, = CO2, O2 and O3
Factors Determining Freezing Rate(6)

= Air velocity. = Thickness of product. = Geometry of the system. = Agitation degree of contact Between food and cooling medium. =
Composition of the product. = Resistance of heat transfer of the food package.
Food Additive Means...Regulation (EC) No 1333/2008 on Food AdditivesAndThe Food Additives (Scotland) Regulations 2009
... "any substance, whether or not it has nutritive value, that is not normally consumed as a food in itself or used as a characteristic
ingredient of food, and which, if added intentionally for a technological purpose to food in its manufacture, processing, preparation,
treatment, packaging, transport or storage, results, or may reasonably be expected to result , in the substance or its by-products
becoming directly or indirectly a component the food concerned"
Food Preservation Concerns(6)

= Food safety: Raw materials, Ingredients, Packaging, Growth of pathogenic bacteria, Shelf-life. = Nutritional value, = Healthy
eating (e.g. fat and salt in the diet), = Additives and colorants, Formation of toxic substances. = Change in organoleptic properties. =
New technologies (e.g. radiation, UV light)
Food Preservation... Why?

Food Security. Commercial reasons: Extending the shelf-life, Enhance product's characteristics, Create a new product, Recycling
of meat, offal and other food sources.
Food Spoilage Spoilage is the process in which fooddeteriorates to the point in which it is not edible to humans or its quality of
edibility becomes reduced.(10)
Growth and activities of micro-organisms (bacteria, yeast and moulds), Activity of food enzymes, Chemical reactions in food,
Inappropriate storage temperature for a given food, Infestation by parasites, Either excessive gain or loss on moisture, Reaction
with oxygen, Light exposure, Physical stress, Time.
Freezing Methods (3)

=> AIR FREEZING. => DIRECT OR INDIRECT CONTACT FREEZING -food or food package is in contact with a surface that is
cooled by a refrigerant.=> IMMERSION FREEZING - direct contact of the food or package with the refrigerant: Submerging the
food or spaying the cold liquid onto the food or package surface. Using freezing agents like liquid carbon dioxide or nitrogen.
Growth of MicroorganismsA Two Way System(7)

= pH, = Oxidation-reduction potential Eh), = Moisture content or Water activity (aw), = Nutrient content, = Antimicrobial
constituents, = Biological structure (poultry skin and eggs shell), = Any combination of the above.
HEAT (8)
- Pasteurization -Sterilisation -Evaporation and distillation -Extrusion -Dehydration -Baking and roasting --Frying -"Cook &
Chill"
Heat - Advantages(4)
= Simple control of processing conditions, = No refrigeration required for storage, = Improves digestions of some nutrients, =
Improves flavour, colour, taste and texture.
Heat - How does it work?(4)

= Conduction: Transfer of heat from the heat source directly to the utensil. = Convection: Heat transfer by convection requires the
movement of air or liquids. = Radiation: The transfer of heat by electromagnetic waves. = Any combination of the above.
Heat Preservation Practices(2)

= Foods are heated in their final containers: Commercial sterilization uses steam under pressure, Consider resistance of containers to
pressure. See practical class notes on canned food.= Foods are heated prior to packaging: Less damaging to food quality, Requires
aseptic or nearly aseptic packaging conditions, Containers disinfected with hydrogen peroxide, heated air or UV light.
High Hydrostatic Pressure

= Independent of product mass, size and geometry,= Minimise treatment time,= Inactivates vegetative cells, spores and toxins,=
Destroys enzymes (peroxidases, xanthine oxidase, amino acids oxidase),= Minimal impact on quality and nutrition
High Hydrostatic Pressure Pascal's principle:

"A pressure exerted on an incompressible liquid is evenly distributed in all directions and with the same intensity at all points of the
liquid (isostaticpressure) and also on the surface of a body (food) immersed in the liquid". Compression raises temperature of
the product to 2- 8C per 100 MPa (<600MPa pasturization effect, >700MPa sterilization effect), Target of microorganisms, Product
selection and formulation, including choice of packaging.
High Hydrostatic Pressureprocess

= Batch processing = Only for some products (no canned) = Juices
High Pressure and UV Light

= Advanced further then other alternative physical methods of food treatments, = Emerged technologies for some applications:
Ready-To-Eat meats and fresh juices. = Commercially economical processes became viable, = Approved by some regulatory agencies
(USA and Canada)
Inactivation of Parasites- Anisakis simplex- Trichinella spiralis

Anisakis simplex larvae are killed by treatments employing pressures of 200MPa for 10 minutes at 0-15C Trichinella spiralis is
inactivated by pressures above 175MPa for 10 minutesat 25C.
Legislation
= The thawing of foodstuffs is to be undertaken in such a way as to minimise the risk of growth of pathogenic microorganisms or the
formation of toxins in the foods.= During thawing, foods are to be subjected to temperatures that would not result in a risk to health.=
Where run-off liquid from the thawing process may present a risk to health it is to be adequately drained. = Following thawing, food is
to be handled in such a manner as to minimise the risk of growth of pathogenic microorganisms or the formation of toxins
LIMITATIONS
ADDED COSTSTEMPERATURE CONTROLLEDDIFFERENT GAS COMPOSTION /PRODUCTPRODUCT
APPEARANCEPRODUCT SAFTEY (EG C.BOTULISM , LISTERIA)
Main ParametersHeat penetration characteristics in a particular food:

Size, Geometry, Moisture content, Can or container of choice, if it is packed.
Main Parameters Time - Temperature combination:

Required to reach the CORE of any food and inactivate the most-heat resistant pathogens and spoilage bacteria, Difference with reheating of food
Meat Products "Products resulting from the processing of meat or from further processing ofsuch processed products, so that the cut
surface shows that the product no longer has the characteristics of fresh meat". To differentiate from:(3)
Minced meat, Meat preparations, Mechanically separated meat (MSM).
Meat ProductsFBO cannot use:(7)

Genital organs (except testicles), Urinary organs (except kidneys and bladder), Urinary organs (except kidneys and bladder), Eye
and eyelids External auditory meatus, Horns Poultry: head, oesophagus, crop, intestines, genital organs.
Methods of Curing(3)
=> Dry salt: Dry salt (salt alone or in junction with nitrite and nitrate), Dry "country style" curing - salt, sugar, nitrate and nitrite,
Brine soaking. => Curing pickle injection: Artery pumping, Stitch pumping, Multiple needle injection curing.=> Any Combination
of the above
Modified Atmosphere(2)
VACUUM PACKAGING is the practice of extracting air from a packaging containing food before it is sealed. MODIFIED
ATMOSPHERE is the practice of modifying the composition of the internal atmosphere of food packages inorder to improve the shelf
life of theproduct.
Nitrate and Nitrite (6)

=Nitrate (NO3) =Nitrite (NO2) =Nitrous Acid (HNO2) =Meat colour =Antimicrobial effect (especially on Clostridium Spp.)=
Limitations (nitrosamine, abnormal meat)Responsible for typical pink colour.
Nutrient Content(4)
= Water, = Sources of energy, = Sources of nitrogen, = Growth factors (minerals and vitamins).
Possible Concerns(6)
= Chronic toxicity (e.g. nitrosamine) = Allergic reactions (e.g. eggs, celery, etc.) = GI problems = "Chinese restaurant syndrome"
(monosodium glutamate syndrome) instead of salt = Hyperactivity (e.g. some food colours)= Endocrine Active Substances (e.g.
Biosphenol A) Substances that can interact or interfere with normal hormonal action. When this leads to adverse effects, they are
called endocrine disruptors.
Possible Problems(5)
= Dark meat (Maillard reaction) = Dry meat and Weight Loss = Rancidity = Moulds = Costs associated with the Cold chain
Preservative Packaging (3)

=Vacuum Packing (VP) - oxygen-deficient environment: Primary transport and storage of large cuts of meat.= "Modified"
Atmosphere Packaging (MAP): Gaseous environment around the product is modified before sealing. Gaseous environment changes
during storage.= "Controlled" Atmosphere Packaging (CAP): Gaseous environment more constant than in MAP, uses gas selective
permeable materials (plastic aluminium foil laminates or metallised films)
Preservative Packaging Normal composition of air:

78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.035% CO2, Other gases. Increase CO2, Reduction of oxygen (colour), Nitrogen (N2) (reduce
oxidation and aerobic bacteria).
Principal Additives
- salt - nitrate- sweeteners- spices - develop mycotoxins if not stored properly - olive and sunflower oil, vinegar
Processed Products2
= Process Products results from the processing of: Meat Raw milk Eggs Fishery = Or from further processing of such processed
products. Shelf-life, Colour and Odour, Consistency and Taste
Radiation and Microorganisms

These than further reacts to cause changes in irradiated material known as radiolysis. It is this reaction that cause the destruction of
micro-organisms. Insects and par asites during food irradiation. Particularly effective in foods with high moisture content.
Radiolysis: Formation of hydrogen, hydrogen peroxide, hydrogen radicals (H-), etc..)

An important effect is on DNA and RNA in cell nuclei. Long term disruption of microorganisms functions due to failure in
enzyme production and cell replication. Smaller and simpler organisms are more resistant to radiation.
Radiation in Food Advantages:

Little or no heating of food with negligible change to sensory characteristic, Packaged or frozen foods can be treated, No chemical
preservatives needed, Very low energy requirement, Low operating cost.
Radiation in Food Categories of food where use of radiation is allowed in UK are:

Fruits (max 2kGy); Vegetables (max 1kGy); Cereals (max 1kGy); Bulbs and tubers (max 0.2kGy); Dried aromatic herbs, spices
and vegetable seasonings (max 10kGy); Fish and Shellfish (max 3kGy); Poultry (max 7kGy);
Radiations
= In physics, radiation is a process in which energetic particles or energetic waves travel through a medium or space.= There are two
distinct types of radiation; "ionising" and "non-ionising".= The word radiation is commonly used in reference to ionising radiation
only (i.e., having sufficient energy to ionise an atom).
Radiations "Ionising radiation"

means any gamma rays, X-rays or corpuscular radiations which are capable of producing ions either directly or indirectly; Gamma
rays and X-rays are used in food preservation because they don't produce secondary radiation in products of animal origin.
Radiations Co-60 and Cs-137 have insufficient emission energies to induce radioactivity in food via X-rays or gamma-rays. Ionising
radiation have the ability tobreak chemical bonds when absorbed by materials producing:
Electrically charged (ions), Neutral particles (free radical).
Radiations Compton scattering:
The photon hits the atom transferring energy and determining the detachmentof an electron from the external orbit and transforming
the atom into an ion (hence the term ionizing radiation). The electrons that are released from the process induce the stimulation of
other neighbouring atoms and the production of other ions (primary effect).
Radiations In the USA are commonly used for the decontamination of minced meat (X-rays) and poultry meat (since 1990).
The maximum recommended dose for food is 15kGy, with the average dose not exceeding 10kGy (WHO, 1977, 1984, 1994).
Packaging material and food can be easily altered by radiations (cancerogenic agents).
Radiations in Food Intrinsic

(food contaminated at source): Radio-isotopes are normally present innature (radium, caesium, cobalt, plutonium, polonium, etc...),
As a consequence of a natural disaster (Earthquake in Fukushima Japan, 2011). As a consequence of human-made disaster
(Chernobyl in Ukraine, 1986).
Radiations in FoodExtrinsic
(radiation applied to food during processing).
Rate of Freezing
= RAPID or Ultra rapid- small ice crystals inside and outside the cells (-30 to -50oC for 12 to 18 hours), = SLOW - large ice crystals
and clusters of crystals outside the cells (-8 to -20oC),= Acceptable for most foods 1.3 cm/hour.
Refrigeration and Freezing(2)

= Refrigeration and cold storage: Temperatures above freezing (7oC down to -1oC), Commercial and household refrigerators (4.5 7oC).= Freezing and frozen storage: Minimum freezing -12oC, Good freezing -18oC or below.
Regulatory Status USA: Health Canada

USA USDA has approved HHP as an intervention method for Listeria contaminated pre-packed RTE meat products, FDA has
accepted the commercial use of pressure-assisted thermal sterilization (PATS) processes for application in the production of low acid
foods (LAF).HEALTH CANADA- Novel Foods Decisions: Use of HHP for processing RTE Meat Products.
Salt as Antimicrobial Agent (4)

- Dehydration. -> psmotic agent - Remove oxygen from the product. - Bacteria more sensitive to CO2. - Depends on concentration.
Smoke Antimicrobial Effects From the combustion of lignin:(6)

Phenolic compounds (pyrogallol - cresol -creosote - guaiacol, etc.). Tar From the combustion of cellulose: Acids (acetic - butyric caprylic - carbonic -etc.). Alcohol (methanol - ethanol) Ketones (acetone) Aldehydes (acetaldehyde - furfural)
Smoke Antimicrobial Effects Strong: enterobacteria spp, salmonella spp, bacillus subtilis; Poor: clostridia spp, yeast
Acids = bactericidal / antiseptic Aldehydes = bactericidal / antiseptic Alcohols = secondary alcohols antiseptic Phenols = antioxidant
action Phenols and ketones = Flavorings
Smoke Generation
Friction Smoldering Steam Phases Liquid smoke
Smoke Generation
=The wood used for the production of "smoke" should NOT be treated, with chemical substances unless it can be demonstrated that
the substance used for the treatment does not give rise to potentially toxic substances during combustion.= The water-insoluble highdensity tar phase and the water-insoluble oily phase which is a by-product of the process should not be used for the production
of smoke flavourings.
Smoke GenerationHot smoking:

Temp: 45- 80C Humidity: 90% Time: few hours
Smoke Generation Regulation (EC) No 2065/2003: on smoke flavourings used or intended for use in or on foods. Art. 4:
The use of smoke flavourings in or on foods shall only be authorised if it is sufficiently demonstrated that: It does not present risks to
human health, It does not mislead consumers.
Smoke Generation Wood is subjected to controlled burning, with a maximum temperature of 600C. The smoke is condensed and
separated to obtain the following phases:
A water-based 'primary smoke condensate' mainly containing CARBOXLIC acids, CARBONYLIC and PHENOLIC compounds, A
water-insoluble high-density TAR phase which during the phase separation will precipitate, A 'water-insoluble OILY phase'.
Smoke GenerationShort smoking:

Temp: 25- 40C Humidity: 75% Time: around 24 hours
Smoke GenerationSlow smoking:

Temp: 20- 25C, Humidity: 70% Time: few days
Smoke House (4)

Size and types Hot versus cold smoke Airflow Humidity
Smoke Side Effects

Polycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons: Benzo (a) pyrene Benzo (a) anthracene Dibenzo (a, h) anthracene Benzo (g, h, i) perylene
Benzo (b) fluoranthene Benzo (k) fluoranthene Indeno (1,2,3-c-d) pyrene Mutagen agents: Forma
Smoking
=It consists in exposing food products to smoke obtained from the incomplete combustion of different types of wood (beech, oak,
juniper, chestnut).= Herbs, spices, twigs of juniper and twigs, needles and cones of picea may be added if they are free of residues of
intentional or unintentional chemical treatment.= These fumes are rich in aromatic substances (phenol) which are of particular
antiseptic power.
Smoking Effects(6)
= Drying effect to meat, fish and dairy products= Taste = Pleasant odour = Brings out the colour of the meat = Antioxidant =
Antimicrobial
Sweeteners (sucrose, dextrose, corn syrup):

Helps stabilise colour and adds flavour,counteracts the harshness of salt. Aspartame (E 951). - Diet drinks
Temperature and Microbial Growth (4)

=Most food spoilage icroorganisms grow rapidly at temp 10oC. = Some microorganisms are able to grow at temperatures as low as
0oC. = Below -9.5oC there is no significant growth of spoilage or pathogenic microorganisms in food (there is a gradual decrease of
the number of microorganisms). = Freezing is not an efficient way to eliminate microorganisms.
Thawing of Products(3)
= Very rapid thawing may have negative implication on quality: Meat exudation. = If thawing is too slow bacteria can start
multiplying. = Rapid thawing (15 to 20oC for 24 hours).=Air (chiller, tunnel). = Water (immersion or spray). = Microwave (oven or
tunnel)
UV Light
Well developed for water and air treatment since 1930, Viable option for non-food contact and food surface treatment, Viable nonthermal alternative for liquid foods preservation, Physical method - no chemicals, Cost effective and energy efficient, Approved by
some Regulatory Agencies.
UV Light
- Destroys protozoa (Cryptosporidium and Giardia), - Destroys bacteria (E. coli, L. monocytogenes, Staph. aureus), Destroys toxins in
food (aflatoxins in milk, patulin in fresh fruit juice),- Virus are not inactivated.-The antimicrobial effect of light at UV wavelength are
due to the absorption of energy that disrupt cellular metabolism,- In contrast to irradiation, light doesn't cause ionisation of small
molecules,- Promote production of Vitamin D in milk.
UV Light - Cons (4)

= UV light doesn't penetrate opaque substances: Surface shielding effects = High doses of UV can cause unwanted effects furan
formation in sugar solution (fructose and glucose),= Changes in the nutritional value, = May affect quality appearance of foods.
UV Light in the Food Industry(4)

- To reduce levels of pathogens (Listeriaand Salmonella) on meats, poultry and fish, -Salmonella in Shell-eggs,- Extended Shelf-life
bakery products,- Food powders (black pepper and wheat flour).
Water Activity(3)
= Differences between moulds, yeasts and bacteria.= Minimum aw values bacteria vs. food: Pseudomonas - aw 0.97 E. coli
O157:H7 - aw 0.96 Clostridium spp. - aw 0.97= Interference with microbial cell membrane (osmotic stress) and transportation of
nutrients.
Bacteriocin
bactericidal proteinsnarrow range of activityadsorption to specific cell envelope receptors
Characteristics of Nisin
heat stable, nontoxic, natural, stable during storage, destroyed by digestive enzymes, no off-flavor
Competitive Exclusion
bacteria from uninfected organisms will bind to intestinal sites (that pathogens attach to) and colonize, preventing pathogen binding
Competitive Exclusion: Salmonella

1. outer membrane protein A (OMPA) is attachment molecule for salmonella in chicken intestine2. block OMPA attachment3. OMPA
injection4. animal creates antibodies against OMPA, salmonella can't bind
Criteria for Selecting Probiotic Bacteria (5)

1. normal inhabitant of gut of animals2. adhere the intestinal mucosa of animals3. overcome low pH in stomach4. tolerate toxicity of
bile acids in intestine5. compete well with other normal gut bacterial flora
Example of Probiotic Culture
Lactobacillus acidophilus
Example of Protective Culture

Microguard
Examples of Bacteriocins
Nisin (Lactococcus lactis)Plantaracin A (Lactobacillus plantarum C11)
IgA
mucosal immunity in GI tract
Natamycin
antibiotic produced by Streptomyces natalensisfights molds/yeasts
Nisin
effective against gram+ spore formers
Other name for Reuterine

Beta-hydroxypropionaldehyde
Prerequisites for bacteriocins/antibiotics (5)

1. agent shouldn't inhibit natural intestinal microflora2. should decompose into inactive products in intestine3. should be destroyed by
cooking4. not yield resistant microorganisms5. not inactivated by food components
Probiotic Bacteria
beneficial bacteria that control pathogen colonization in animal intestinesproduce metabolites that are antimicrobial to specific
pathogens
Probiotic Cultures
added to food to improve human intestinal health
Protective Cultures
added to food to improve safety
Reuterine Antimicrobial Effect

inactivates some enzymes (such as ribonucleotide reductase)
1) What are chemical, enzymatic, physical changes in frozen foods promoted by?2) Chemical changes3) Enzymatic changes4)
Physical changes
1. promoted by concentration of components (concentration effect) in unfrozen water phase2. Chemical: oxidative rancidity/oxidation
of flavours, pigments, vitamins3. Enzymatic: enzymatic browning/lipolyticrandicity4. Meats -> tougher b/c of protein denaturation by
chemical effects & cell breakage by ice crystals
Advantages of air freezing

- Economical- can freeze various sizes and shapes of food- IQF has more efficient heat transfer, increase rate of freezing
Advantages/disadvantages of immersion and cryogenic freezing

ADVANTAGES:- Rapid freezing process- Almost no dehydration (no freezer burn!!)- Oxygen is excluded, decreasing oxidative
spoilage- Individual freezing pieces have less freezing damageDISADVANTAGES:- Difficult to find suitable freezants- Cost of
operating is high
Advantages/disadvantages of Indirect contact freezing

ADVANTAGES:- Economical- Minimal dehydration- Minimal package bulgingDISADVANTAGES:- Slow freezing processProducts must be of uniform thickness
Air blast freezer - freezing rate, temp, velocity

i. Moderately fast freezeii. Higher temp than still-air freezersiii. -18 to -34 Civ. Cold air, high velocity (100-3500 lineal ft/min)
Air freezing methods

1. still air "sharp" freezer2. air blast freezer3. Fluidized-bed freezer
at what temperature can pathogenic organisms not rapidly reproduce

-9.5'C, but ones that survive can grow during thawing
Below 0'C does not

kill all MOs
Changes in food during refrigerated storage; caused by

caused by microbial spoilage:1. staling of bread2. loss of crispness in fruits and veg3. change in colour of fresh meat4. loss of
flavour and nutrient value (vitamins)5. oxidative changes6. drip of syneresis (gel) from fish
Concentration effect =
Components in the unfrozen water phase are concentrated hence causing chemical, enzymatic and physical changes in the food
Cryogenic liquids used; process; examples of food method is used on

- Liquid nitrogen (N2), liquid CO2- very rapid, small ice crystal formation- unpackaged/thinkly packaged- extremely cold freezantheat removal by change of state by freezant{unlike immersion}- excellent retention of quality eg. TV dinners, preformed hamburger
patties, other high value food prods
Disadvantages of air freezing

- Possible excess dehydration (freezer burn)- Undesirable bulging of packages (by expansion of product) may occur- Non-uniform
products cannot be fluidized (IQF) easily
Drip occurs when

cells bust when product is thawed (conditions not carefully monitored)
drop of 10C slows ?

- degradation by 2-3x- microbial growth by 3-6x
Example for what a scraped surface freezer is used for; rotator promotes
- making hard ice cream mix -> soft ice cream- rotator promotes:(i) Rapid freezing(ii) Development of small ice crystals(iii)
Incorporation of air bubbles -> forms solid foam (gas in solid - lesson 2)(iv) May see shrinkage/graininess of ice cream in home
freezer b/c of partial melting and temp fluctuations -> destabilization and crystallization of lactose b/c of concentration effects
Factors affecting quality of frozen foods

1. rate of freezing (determines small/large ice crystals)2. Final storage temp3. stability of storage temp4. rate of thawing
Factors affecting rate of thawing

a. Maximum quality is when there is quick thawing ratesb. Latent heat of fusion: the quantity of heat needed to change the state of a
substance without changing its temperature
Factors that affect final storage temp

a. Different for each type of foodb. Depends on texture changes, chemical rxnsc. Commercial freezers optimal storage temperature is
-18 C
Factors that affect rate of freezing

a. Temperature difference (greater difference= faster freezing rate)b. Product thickness (thinner food piece= faster freezing rate)c. Air
velocity (faster air= faster freezing rate)d. Degree of contact (more contact= faster freezing rate)
Faster rate of freezing =

better retention of sensory and nutritional quality
Fluidized-bed freezer - aka, temp, how it works, examples

i. Individually quick frozen (IQF)ii. -20 to -34 Ciii. High velocity as pass along mesh conveyer belt -> Cause vibratory motion ->
accelerates freezing rateiv. Cold air blown upward through belt -> lifts and suspends foodv. Food items frozen as individual piecesvi.
Frozen, then packagedvii. Garden peas, corn, strawberries, prawns
freezing also called; temp; preserve for how long

- frozen storage- below 0'C (most foods don't freeze until -2'C or lower)-preserve for months/years
Freezing methods
1. Air freezing (oldest and most common type)2. Indirect contact freezing3. Immersion & cryogenic freezing
Freezing point =
temp when ice crystals in equil with air-saturated water (when a volume of air at a given temperature holds the maximum amount of
water vapour) at 1 atm
Freezing temp at home/commercial

home: -12 to -14C commercial: min -18C required
Frozen food packaging musts/shoulds

Must be resistant to transfer of water vapour from food to freezer Must not shatter in cold temps (No glass - shatters, not flexible)
Should resist formation of holes -> holes = freezer burn (moisture loss) Should provide protection against light and/or oxygen
Should assist in preventing undesirable changes (oxidation rxns, freezer burn, ice crystal dmg)
How cryogenic freezing works

refrigerant sprayed on
how do packaged food come in contact with metal plates

(i) Rest on(ii) Slide against(iii) Pressed between
How much unfrozen water remains depends on

- temp- food product
How to minimize changes in food during freezing, frozen storage, thawing

1. Blanching (lesson 6)2. Proper temp control for freezing and frozen storage3. Appropriate packaging
Ice crystals - small/large

1. Small ice crystals desired so cells do not rupture during thawing2. Rupture leads to water loss when food thawed3. Drip = b/c of ice
crystal dmg, leakage of cellular fluids4. Large ice crystals form b/c of temp fluctuations
Immersion and cryogenic freezing methods

a. Heat exchange fluidb. Compressed gasc. Refrigerant spray
Importance of stability of storage temp

small changes in temperature can cause melting of small ice crystals, refreezing into large ice crystals (bad)
In food, why is there an increasingly large amount of concentrated water - soluble solutes in unfrozen phase
b/c frozen water in food is pure water -> less and less unfrozen water gets mixed with same amount of solutes
Indirect contact freezing methods

1. Single plate2. double plate3. pressure plate4. slush freezer/scraped surface heat exchangers
Latent heat
quantity of heat required to change state of a substance without changing its temp
Latent heat of fusion/crystallization =

conversion of water from crystalline state to liquid (or vice versa) state at 0C
Liquid nitrogen cryogenic freezing - steps

1. Product on conveyer belt moved through pre-cooling freezing unit2. Cooled food sprayed with liquid nitrogen as moving on belt ->
food freezes3. Food further cooled to desired final temp (-20 to -34C)
Moulds can grow as low as?

-8'C
Optimal refrigeration conditions for certain foods

meats, fish, dairy best at 0C bananas, sweet potato - colour change < 13C apples - soggy/browning <12C potatoes, avocados brown <5C/7C
Purpose of refrigeration (how long, for certain kinds of foods)

short term extension of storage life can be used to get desired attributes of some fermented foods (b/c of cool ripening/aging):
cheeses, beef, wine
Refrigerant that cools walls of single/double plate freezing

(i) Cold brine (very salty water)(ii) Vaporizer -> ammonia
Refrigeration also called; temp; preserve for how long

- cool storage-above 0'C-preserve for days/weeks
Refrigeration favours growth of what MO?

psychrotrophic microorganisms
Refrigeration temp at home/commercial

home: 2 - 16C (4C) commercial: 4C
Refrigeration will not

improve quality of food
Single/double plate freezing - how it works

i. Food placed on belts/trays ii. Refrigerant circulates through a wall beside the foodiii. Food quickly cools and freezes with comes in
"contact" with cold walliv. Two major surfaces of package in contact w/ plates to prevent bulging of package
Single/double plate freezing - what kind of products it's used for

- For products w/ uniform shapeeg. Fish sticks, fish fillets
Slush freezers/scraped surface heat exchangers used for what kind of products
liquid (fluid) products only
Still air freezer - freezing rate, velocity, use where

i. No circulation, slow freezing rate, low air velocity systemii. Household refrigerator & deep freezer

Undesirable changes during freezing & what does it cause
1.Formation of Package ice2. Freezer dehydration (burn) Loss of nutrients Moisture loss Surface of food unappealing
what can grow slowly at refrigerator temps

psychrotrophic pathogens(some spoilage causing pathogens can grow below 0'C if unfrozen water avail)
What gasses get monitored during refrigeration?

CO2, O2 and N2
What is MA-packaging (MAP); exampes

packaging used to enhance shelf life air vacuumed out, desired gas mixture backflushed usually w/ CO2 and N2 -> apples, salad in
package, raw packaged pasta vacuum packaged-no backflushing -> much longer storage life than when stored with air -> supresses
growth of aerobic spoilage-causing bacteria (common in cheeses) raw packaged salad cured meats
What is the food immersed in; examples of food that used this method
- Immersion of packaged/unpackaged food products in refrigerant fluid- Propylene glycol, NaCl, CaCl, sugar, sins, salt brine, glycerol
{non-toxic}eg. Turkeys, chicken, ice cream popsicles
What kind of changes occur in food during freezing, frozen storage, thawing
chemical and physical
What lowers freezing point

solutes in water
what must be stored at 4'C and below? and what determined this
The Food and Drug Regulations of Canada state that perishable foods that can support the growth of disease-causing microorganisms
must be stored at temperatures of 4C and below.
What needs to be controlled during refrigeration; why

o temp ->storage life, prevent chill injury (eg. freezer burn):o humidity -> prevent dehydration/mould growth/food spoilageo gas
atmosphere composition -> storage life
Why are factors affecting qualities of frozen foods controlled

controlled to prevent undesirable changes (oxidation rxns, freezer burn, ice crystal dmg)
Why is freezing useful

Can preserve quality without causing major changes in appearance, texture, flavour Higher nutritional value & aesthetic quality than
thermally processed foods
Why use freezing vs. refrigeration

1. lower temp (microorganisms cannot grow below -9.5C)2. lower water activity (by freezing free water in food) 1&2 slow down
chemical and enzymatic rxns & microbial growth
Canning
processing food and then sealing it in an air tight container so bacteria can't get in and grow
Dehydration
remove the water from the food to prevent bacteria growth example: ramen noodles, pastas, dried foods (raisins)
Freeze Drying
type of dehydration process that is used on perishable food - make it easier to store/transport
Freezing
reduces temperature to 0 degrees F. This inactivates the bacteria to stop growingexample: meats, veggies, popsicles, etc.
Irradiation
exposing food to high energy rays to break down DNA of bacteria (kills bacteria)
Pasteurization
heating the food to a warm enough temperature to kill SOME of the bacteria. Goal- reduce the amount of bacteria, slows its growth,
and extend shelf life (Still has expiration date).- Heating is below boiling point , to not ruin food quality
Pickling
soaking the food in salt and vinegar
Salting
adding dry salt to food because bacteria CANNOT survive in a salty environment- usually done to meat and fishexample: salting ham
to make prosciutto
Smoking
preserving food by exposing it to smoke from a burning plant (usually wood)- the smoke creates chemicals and PH that's not good for
bacteria.
Ultra High Pressure

subjecting foods to high pressure to kill bacteria.-does not "crush" food- good if food shouldn't be heated- foods such as deli meats,
potato salad, salsa, and fruit pieces , can be exposed to high pressure to reduce spoilage
Ultra High Temperature

sterilizing food by exposing it to a VERY high temperature for 1-2 seconds.
3 methods of dehydration
1) Sun drying2) Hot air drying3) Freeze drying (lyophilization)
Acetic acid targets

Gram positive and negative bacteria, molds and yeast are generally resistant.
Benefits of food irradiation

Drastically reduces the presence of foodborne pathogens while maintaining the nutrition, preserves flavor and texture and increases
shelf life
Benzoic acid targets

Inhibits yeasts and molds, first antimicrobial permitted in foods by the FDA
Commercial sterility
12-D concept (botulinum cook) to reduce spores by a 12 log reduction
Downfall to food irradiation

May create ROS, not trusted by the consumer
Examples of chemical preservatives

Organic acids like acetic, lactic, propionic, sorbic and benzoic acids
Method to remove microbes

Filtration
Methods to destroy microorganisms

Heat, ionizing radiation, high pressure, pulsed electric fields
Methods to prevent microbial replication

Dehydration, refrigeration, frozen storage
Parabens target
Yeast, molds and some gram positive bacteria
Pasteurization
Destruction of non-spore forming pathogenic bacteria (sanitizer)
Sodium and potassium nitrites

Primarily used as a curing agent, inhibits C. botulinum and outgrowth of spores.
Sorbic acid or sorbate targets

Inhibits yeast, molds and some bacteria, naturally found in berries
Sterilization
Destruction of ALL living organisms
Sulfite targets
Inhibits DNA replication, enzymes, protein synthesis, and damages the cytoplasmic membrane
What is the D value

Decimal reduction time, or the time required to destroy 90% of the organisms , reflects resistance to a specific temperature
What is the Z value

Number of degrees required to change a D value by a factor of ten, relative resistance to different temperatures
When is a chemical preservative most inhibitory?

When pH is below pKa, Acid dissociates and can penetrate membrane of the pathogen
14)Quality assurance
Additional areas of monitoring (CLSI standards):

Water qualityCalibration of balancesCalibration of glasswareElectrical power supply stability and correct wattageInstrument temp.
Aliquot
A portion of a whole sample taken to determine the quantitative composition of the whole.
Analytical Factors
Directly influence the analytical factors primarily dependent upon instrumentation and reagents.
Calibrators
Used in the calibration process of a particular instrument to establish parameters, ensure instrument reliability and to compensate for
variables.
CLSI
Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute
CLSI requires SOPs to contain, but not limited to:

Test nameTest principlePatient prepSpecimen requirementsReagent prep and materialsIntrumentation, equipment, and materials
neededTest procedureCalibration analysis/ Quality Control procedureCalculations/ResultsLimitations of the procedureSafety
precautionsReference valuesPanic valuesSignature and date reviewed
External Quality Control

To survey or test lab proficiency by periodically providing test specimen of unknown concentrations.
Internal Surveillance
Initiated by local supervisorIn-house inspectionsIssuance of blind specimens and blind quality control, to verify accuracy of results
Labeling of Reagents must include:

Content and quantity, concentration or titerStorage requirementsDate recievedDate preparedDate placed in serviceExpiration
dateTechnician initial
Laboratory Instrumentation
Prepare daily, monthly, annual (etc.) preventive maintenance schedule for each instrument, in a timely manner, with calibration
checks.
Post-Analytical Factors
Primarily dealing with reporting of results and other aspects that occur after the analysis phase.
Post-analytical factors include:

Reporting the results in a timely, accurate, legible manner to the appropriate health-care professionalTransciption errors are the
greatest single cause of errors in the labData is transmitted with computers using a lab instrument server/system (LIS), called the
"Composite Health Care System" (CHCS)
Pre-analytical Factors
Occur prior to testing the patient specimen, mostly happen outside the laboratory.
Quality Assurance (QA)

A broad spectrum of plans, policies, and procedures that provide an administrative system to manage a laboratory's efforts to achieve
quality goals.
Quality Control (QC)

Designed to assist in identifying and minimizing analytical errors.
Specimens must be:

processed within a specified time and returned for comparison with results from other participating laboratories
Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)

A manual that establishes step by step procedures to be followed for a given operation in any situation.
Standards
Standards are used as a basis for the comparison of other solutions in the clinical laboratory, must be suitable for qualitative and
qualitative analysis.
Storage of Reagents
Reagent must be stored according to the manufacturer's directions and used within the indicated expiration dates.
Total Quality Improvement

Studies have revealed that most failures or mistakes occur in the pre-analytical or post-analytical process. 29% of mistakes were from
non-laboratory personnel.
Turn-Around Time
Total amount of time required to obtain or collect a specimen.
What are some pre-analytical factors?

Nutritional StateAlcoholDrugsSmokingExerciseStressSleepPosture
Accuracy
is how close the estimate is to the real value
Aroma
Smell detected through nose, sensory characteristic
Astringency
unripe persimmon
Chroma
clarity and purity of color
Color
appearance used to determine quality, sensory characteristic
Consumer Acceptability
Willingness to buy and eat a product, involves consumer preferences which are hard to measure
Different types of hazaards

Biological Ex: Mold, virvuses Chemicals Ex: Cleaners, AntibioticsPhysicals Ex: Bone,metal
Different types of texture

AstringencyCoolHeatPungency
Flavor
Mix of taste with smell
Government Agencies for Sanitation

*Current good Manufacturing Practices (CGMP)*Sanitation Standard Operating Procedures (SSOP) from USDAFood code for
restaurants
Hazard Analysis & Critical Control Point (HACCP)

Science based approached to prevent production of unsafe foods, developed by NASA
Hidden Characteristics
Qualities that can't easily be seen, nutrition and safety
Hot compounds
1. Capsaicin2. Gingerol3. Piperine4. Isothiocyanates
How do you get more quality?

Absence of defects and Sensory Characteristics
Hue
Acctual color
Instruments
Devices used to measure quality in foods
Intensity
range of lightness to darkness of color
Market Segments
Potential CustomersCurrent Customers
Mouthfeel
all sensations in mouth from chewing, to swallowing
Orthonasal olfaction
The detection of an odor through the nostrils by sniffing or inhalation
Precision
is how close that estimate is each time it's measured
Principles of HACCP
1. Conduct a hazard analysis2. Determine critical control points3. Establish critical limits4. Establish monitoring procedures5.
Establish corrective actions6. Establish verification procedures7. Establish record-keeping procedures
Quality
describes properties of food the can be measured
Quality Assurance (QA)

Considers whole process when evaluating quality with an empathetic on constancy, by testing at different points of unit operations
Quality Control (QC)

Inspecting Products to make sure they meet standards
Quality Management (QM)

Defines quality in terms of customer acceptance, includes QA by developing standard for what customers want.
Relevance
is how important the measurement is to consumer acceptability
Reliablity
how accurate the machine is reading
Remember This!
Quality focuses on characteristics while acceptability considers attitudesThe goal of product quality is to satisfy the consumerHACCP
is a system designed to ensure safety of food productsQuality measurements must be accurate, precise, sensitive, relevant
Retronasal olfaction
The detection of an odorant when it is released from food in your mouth during chewing, exhalation, or swallowing.
Role of marketing in product development

make a product successfulTracking marketing trendsDeveloping concepts for productsTesting reactions to food
Sanitation
Major obstacle to food quality and safety is product contamination, about keeping (facilities, equipment, people, and materials) clean
to reduce contamination
Scoville heat units

measurement of spiciness in foods, 2000 units is low- 1000000 units is high.
Sensitivity
is how effective the method is at detecting very small amounts
Sensory Analysis
Measuring quality by using human senses, Ex: winemakers, brew masters
Sensory Characteristics
Characteristics picked up by 5 senses
Statistical Process Control (SPC)

Element of QA and QM, measurement of effectiveness of unit operations by using sensors to collect data
Taste
Evaluation of flavor, sensory characteristic
Texture
touch perception of food structure when held, touched, or chewed, influenced by structure of food, sensory characteristic
Types of tastes
salty, sweet, bitter, sour and umami
What are factors that influence reliablity?

InstallationOperator competence CalibrationMaintenance
15) Food poisoning
3 types of Shellfish poisoning and Toxins that cause each?
Neurotoxin BrevetoxinAmnestic Domoic acidParalytic Saxitoxin
2008 China contamination of milk?

Melamine: non-nutritious nitrogen-containing compound. Forms kidney stones and can cause renal failure
Acidic fruit punch served _______ causes ______

metal-lined containers; Antimony, zinc, copper, tin, cadmium
Amnestic shellfish caused by and produced by?

domoic acid, a structural analogue of glutamic and kainic acids. N. pungens
Amnestic shellfish?
Netzschia pugens
characterized by
GI symptoms and neuro symptoms including memory loss and less commonly sz, coma, hemiparesis, ophthalmoplegia,
chewing/grimacing.
Ciguatera poisoining?
one of the most common reported forms of vertebrate fishborne poisonings in the US. 90% of cases that occur in the US are in Hawaii
and Florida. Most commonly May through August
Ciguatoxin origins?
in blue-green algae, protozoa, and free algae dinoflagellates (Gambeirdiscus toxicus)
Classic finding symptom?

reversal of temperature discrimination
Clenbuterol
beta agonist administered to cattle raised for human consumption causing toxicity. tachy, tremors, nausea, HA, HTN
Death from?
respiratory failure usually within the first 12 hours, weakness may persist for weeks.
Diatoms responsible for Paralytic poisoning?

Protogonayaulax catanella and Protogonayaulax tamarensis
Differential Diagnosis of Foodborne poisoning with neuro symptoms

Anticholinergic, Bacterial, Botulism, Eaton-Lambert syndrome, Metals, MSG (monosodium glutamate), organic phosphorus
compounds, Plant ingestions (poison hemlock, buckthorn), tick paralysisCiguatera, Tetrodotoxin, Neurotoxic shellfish, Paralytic
shellfish, Amnestic shellfish, botulism
Differential diagnosis of scombrotoxic flush?

disulfiram-like reaction and ingestion of niacin or nicotinic acid
Dinoflagellates are the....which leads to?

main nutritional source for small herbivorous fish which in turn are the major food source for larger carnivorous fish thereby
increasing the ciguatoxin concentrations in the larger fish
Eating raw fish?

roundworms (Eustrongyloides anisakis) and fish tapeworms (Diphyllobothrium)
FDA considers what level of histamine hazardous?

50 mg/100 G fish meat
Fecal leukocytes typically found?

with invasive shigellosis, salmonellosis, campylobacter, typhiod fever, invasive E. Coli, Vibro, Yersinia
Fried rice
Bacillus cereus
gastroentertis, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and azotemia?

HUS hemolytic uremis syndrome... most common organism E. coli O157:H7
GI symptoms VS CV/Neuro symptoms

GI subside 24-48 hours, Neuro may persist for days to weeks.
GI symptoms, followed by malaise, fatigue, diplopia, dysphagia, and rapid development of small muscle incoordination
Clostridium Botulinum
Grade A eggs in the 1980's and drinking raw milk

Salmonella
Hydroponically grown vegetables and watermelons contaminated with pesticides?

Aldicarb

Ingestion of mussels from Prince Edward Island, Canada?
Domoic acid poisoning
Invasive organisms causing diarrhea illness?

Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, invasive E. Coli, Vibro parahaemolyticus, Yersinia
Isoniazid may have what effect in scombroid poisoning?

increase the severity of the reaction to scombroid fish by inhibiting enzymes that break down histamine.
Lab analysis?
ELISA test and HPLC
Major symptoms neuro with minor GI

Ciguatera
Mannitol?
In one RCT failed to produce improvement over NaCl. Can cause hypotension.
meats, pastries, salads

Staph aureus
Mechanism of ciguatoxin poisoning?

the molecule binds to voltage gated sodium channels in diverse tissues and increases the sodium permeability of the channel. (Na
channel opener). Causes hyperpolarization and a shift in the voltage dependence of channel activation.
Mononulcear fecal leukocytes?

typhoid fever
Monosodium Glutamate"?
"chinese restaurant syndrome" burning sensation of upper torso, facial pressure, HA, flushing, chest pain, n/v, bronchospasm,
angioedema
Mortality and long term effects

2% deaths; 10% suffer long term antegrade memory deficits.
The most common causes of food borne disease include 4 bacteria?

Salmonella, Campylobacter, Shigella, and E. coli
Most extensive documented outbreak of ASP?

1987 Canada; Prince Edward Island 107 pts
The most poisonous mushroom?

Amanita phalloides
MSG duration of symptoms?

1 hour
no focal neuro signs, but facial flushing, headache, dysphagia

Scombroid
NSP (Neurotoxic Shellish poisioning) caused by and characterized by

brevetoxin: produced by Karenia Brevis, similar to ciguatoxin. GI symptoms /gastroenteritis with associated neuro symptoms
NSP mechanism
acts by stimulating Na influx through the Na channels of both nerve and muscle
onset and symptoms

within 30 mins; paresthesias and numbness of the mouth and extremities, a sensation of floating, HA, ataxia, vertigo, weakness,
paralysis, and cranial nerve dysfunction. GI symptoms are less common.
Onset of ciguatoxin
majority begin 2-6 hours after ingestion, 75% in 12 hours, 96% in 24 hours.
Organisms producing toxins causing gastroenteritis?

Staph aureus, Bacillus cereus, Clostridium perfringens, enterotoxigenic E. Coli
Paralytic poisoning toxin? Mechanism?

Saxitoxin; blocks the voltage sensitive Na channel in a manner identical to tetrodotoxin
poultry, eggs, pets

Salmonella
Pregant women and fetuses, elderly, immunocompromised

Listeria monocytogenes
Properties of Ciguatoxin?
heat stable lipid soluble, acid stable, odorless, and tasteless
Pts receiving Deferoxamine may aquire this infection?

Yersinia....deferoxamine-iron complex acts as a siderophore for organism growth.
Scombroid poisoning? Common sources?

tuna, albacore, mackerel, bonito, Mahi Mahi, amber jack. Entirely preventable if fish is properly stored after removel from water. Due
to high concentrations of histidine in fish. Bacteria convert histidine to histamine
Scombroid symptoms?
numbness, tingling, HA, and a unique flush of intense erythema of the face, neck, and upper torso
Scombroid tx?
supportive care, antihistamines H1 and H2, Beta agonists possibily epi for broncospasm
Sea urchin contains toxin where and effect?

venom containing gonads; acetylcholine like substance that causes cholinergic syndrome: profuse salivation, abd pain, n/v/d.
Shellfish poisoning
mollusks ingest and filter large quantities of dinoflagellates. (responsible for red tides.)
Short incubation peroid of diarrhea illness?

Staph, B. Cereus, enterotoxic E. coli.....typically less than 6 hours
source
puffer fish (Fugu)
Source of ciguatera?
Large reef fish barracuda, sea bass, parrot fish, snapper, grouper, amber jack, kingfish, and sturgeon the most common sources.
symptoms include?
diaphoresis, HA, abd pain/cramps, n/v/d, and dramatic neuro symptoms. Sensation of loose, painful teeth, Peripheral dysesthesias and
paresthesias predominate. Tingling of the lips, tongue, throat, perioral region
Symptoms of TTX? onset?

within minutes of ingestion; HA, diaphoresis, dysesthesias, and paresthesias of lips, tongue, mouth, face, fingers, and toes evolve
rapidly. Ascending paralysis with risk of resp paralysis occur in 4-24 hrs.
Tetramine?
highly lethal neurotoxic rodenticide: Mechanism: noncompetitive binding on the GABA receptor which blocks Cl influx
Tetrodotoxin (TTX)
heat-stable, water-soluble, nonprotein, found mainly in fish skin, liver, ovary, intestine.
Travelers to the Caribbean or Pacific islands?

ciguatera poisioning
Treatement of TTX?
supportive. Emphasizing airway protection, intubation if necessary
Treatment of Ciguatoxin?
supportive care, AC may be of some benefit, IVF for n/v/d. IV Mannitol may alleviate neurologic and muscular dysfunctional
symptoms, no effect on GI symptoms.
treatment of NSP?
supportive and severe resp depression is uncommon. NOT fatal
treatment of paralytic shellfish poisoning?

supportive, Early intervention for resp failure
TTX and saxitoxin are produced

by marine bacteria and accmulate in animals higher on the food chain.
TTX mechanism?
inhibition of Na channels and blockade of neuromuscular transmission. Contains a guanidinium group that fits into the external orifice
of the Na channel. Causes external "plugging"
#1 cause of acute gastrogenteritis in kids and adults, bloody diarrhea
campylobacter jejuni
antigen on enterobacteria related to flagella

H antigen
antigen on enterobacteria related to virulence

K antigen--capsular
bacteria that ferment glucose and oxidase negative

enterobacteria
bloody diarrhea caused by protozoan

entamoeba histolytica
bloody diarrhea in day care outbreaks, can mimic appendicitis

yersinia enterocolitica
bloody diarrhea, comma shaped, grows at 42

campylobacter
bloody diarrhea, lactose negative, flagella

salmonella
bloody diarrhea, lactose negative, low infectious dose, shiga toxin

shigella
bloody diarrhea, shiga-like toxin

Enterohemoorrhagic E. coli
bulging cans
C. botulinum
can be aspirated to cause lobar pneumonia in alcoholics and diabetics

klebsiella
can remain in gall bladder in carrier state

salmonella typhi
causes mesenteric adenitis that mimics crohn's or appendicitis

yersinia enterocolitica (colitis like crohns)
coma shaped, oxidase positive, grows in alkaline media

vibrio cholerae
comma shaped oxidase positive bacteria that grows at 42 degrees (hot)

campylobacter (hot campfire)
common cause of UTIs, produces urease that splits urea to form staghorn calculi
proteus
diarrhea common in day care centerscan be transmitted via pet poop

diarrhea from gram negative bacteria that doesn't ferment lactose, motile
salmonella
diarrhea from gram negative bacteria that doesn't ferment lactose, non-motile
shigella
diarrhea from gram negative bacteria that ferments lactose, no fever

E coli
diarrhea from pet feces

E. coli that causes diarrhea in kids
EPEC (P for pediatric)
E. coli that causes traveler's diarrhea, watery

ETEC
E. coli that produces heat stabile and heat labile toxin

ETEC
E. coli that produces invasive dysentery, no toxins produced

EIEC
food poisoning from eggs, poultry, meat

salmonella
food poisoning from preformed toxins in mayo, custard, meat

S. aureus
food poisoning from refried rice

Bacillus cereus
food poisoning from seafood

V. parahaemolyticus, vulnificus
food poisoning from undercooked hamburger

EHEC H157:H7
have flagellaanimal reservoirproduce H2S

salmonella (salmon swim)
how do salmonella and shigella cause diarrhea?

invade intestinal mucosa to cause bloody diarrhea
how do the 2 toxins in C. difficile work?

toxin A--binds brush border in guttoxin B--destroys cytoskeleton of enterocyte
moves via actin polymeraization, not flagella

shigella
name the enterobacteria

P SSEEKSsalmonella, shigella, E. coli, enterobacter, klebsiella, serratia, proteaus
O157:H7 serotype, can cause HUS--endothelium swells, narrowing lumen and causing mechanical hemolysis
EHEC
only E coli that doesn't ferment sorbitol

EHEC
part of E. coli that can cause cystitis and pyelonephritis

fimbriae
part of E. coli that can cause pneumonia, neonatal meningitis

K capsule
part of E. coli that can cause septic shock

LPS endotoxin
produces shiga-like toxin

EHEC
psuedomembranous colitis is caused by what?

Clostridium difficile after clindamycin/ampicillin use
red currant jelly sputum

klebsiella
rice water diarrhea

vibrio cholerae
rose spots on abdomen, fever, headache, diarrhea

salmonella typhi

toxin that permanently activates Gs to increase cAMP
cholerae toxin
treatment for psuedomembranous colitis

metronidazole or vancomycin
triad: anemia, thrombocytopenia, acute renal failure in kids

HUS from EHEC
very small infectious dose (10)

shigella
watery diarrhea in travelers, heat stabile and heat labile toxin

enterotoxogenic E. coli
watery diarrhea, comma shaped

vibrio cholera
what are the 4 A's of klebsiella?

aspiration pneumoniaabscess in lungs, liveralcoholicsdiAbetics
what can campylobacter progress to?

guillain-barre syndrome
which responds to antibiotics, salmonella or shigella?

shigella (ella likes biotics)
wound infections from contact with contaminated shellfish

V. vulnificus
Colonoscopy of C. diff will reveal what {703}
Pseudo-membranous colitis
Does campylobacter jejuni cause fever {696}

Yes
Does enterotoxigenic E. coli cause fever {696}

No
Does invasive E. coli cause fever {696}

Yes
Does salmonella cause fever {696}

Yes
Does shigatoxin producing E. coli cause fever {696}

No
Does shigella cause fever {695}

Yes
Does vibro parahemolytics cause fever {696}

Yes
A fever suggests what kind of infection {699}

Invasive
How good are stools for ova and parasites {700}

Usually not cost effective
How good is fecal lactoferrin {699}

90-100% sensitivity and specificity for inflammatory and noninflammatory diarrhea
How good is fecal leukocytes {699}

73% sensitivity and 84% specificity for inflammatory diarrhea
How soon does Staphylococcus aureus cause nausea and vomiting {695}
1-6 hours
How soon does the heat labile toxin of bacillus cereus cause diarrhea {695}
8-16 hours
How soon does the heat stable toxin of bacillus cereus cause nausea and vomiting {695}
1-6 hours
How soon dose clostridium perfringens cause diarrhea {695}

8-16 hours
More than 99% of normal bowel flora are what kind of bacteria {694}
Anaerobic bacteria
Neurotoxic shellfish poisoning is caused by what {695}

Shell fish harvested during "red tide"
Severely ill patients with C. diff can develop what {702}

Toxic megacolon with bowel perforation
Stool analysis of C. diff will reveal what {702}

Fecal leukocytes
A stool elisa for C. diff looks for what {703}

Toxins (not organisms)
What are important historical facts to know about food borne illness {694}
When and how it began, stool, presence of dysenteric symptoms, symptoms of volume depletion
What C. diff toxin activates the release of cytotoxins and monocytes {703}
Toxin B
What C. diff toxin leads to increased fluid secretion into the intestine {703}
Toxin A
What causes death due to respiratory failure, usually without GI symptoms {694}
Paralytic shell fish poisoning
What causes GI symptoms and cold to hot sensory reversal, pain in teeth, myalgias {694}
Ciguatera (large fish)
What causes nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and paralysis in inadequately processed foods {698}
Clostridium botulinum
What causes profuse watery diarrhea {697}

Vibrio cholerae
What chemical causes burning sensation in chest, neck, abdomen, extremities, sweating, bronchospasms {695}
Chinese restaurant syndrome
What chemical causes cholinergic poisoning, altered mental status, visual disturbance, GI symptoms {695}
Mushroom toxin poisoning
What closely resembles Shigella and is travelers diarrhea {696}

EIEC
What drug is usually used to treat C. diff {703}

Metronidazole
What fish causes parathesias numbness {695}

Pufferfish
What fish has histamine like substance and GI symptoms, flushing, headache, dizziness, mouth burning {695}
Scambroid (spoiled fish)
What has been linked to hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) {697}

E. coli 0157:H7 (EHEC)
What has been linked to thromboic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) {697}

E. coli 0157:H7 (EHEC)
What has common symptoms of leukocytosis and abdominal pain and blood diarrhea {697}
EHEC

What has hypotension, tachycardia, confusion, shock {694}
Severe dehydration
What has increased thirst, dry mouth, decreased sweat, slight weight loss {694}
Mild dehydration
What has orthostatic BP, skin tenting, sunken eyes {694}

Moderate dehydration
What immune function provides mucosal immunity {694}

Secretory IgA
What is a major cause of traveler's diarrhea and is from salads, cheese, meats, water {697}
ETEC
What is acute diarrhea {693}

<= 14 days
What is adherence {693}

Initial step in pathogenic process, organisms must compete with normal bowel flora and colonize the GI mucosa
What is an invasive disease in pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals {698}

Listeria
What is associated with cold processed meals and dairy products {698}
Listeria
What is associated with contaminated shell fish {697}

Vibrio parahemolyticus
What is associated with eggs {696}

Salmonella
What is associated with fried rice {695}

Bacillus cereus
What is associated with gravy {695}

Clostridium perfringens
What is associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome {696}

Campylobacter jejuni
What is associated with lettuce and raw vegetables {696}

Shigella
What is associated with pet reptiles (turtles) {696}

Salmonella
What is associated with post infectious reactive arthritis {698}

Yersinia
What is associated with raspberries {698}

Cyclosporidium
What is associated with raw or undercooked pork {697}

Yersinia
What is associated with reactive arthritis (Reiter's syndrome) {696}

What is associated with severe outbreaks traced to municipal water supplies {698}
Giardia
What is associated with undercooked contaminated poultry {696}

What is associated with undercooked ground beef {697}

EHEC
What is chronic diarrhea {693}

> 30 days
What is church picnic food poisoning {695}

Staphylococcus aureus
What is classic dysenteric diarrhea {696}

Shigella
What is cruise ship diarrhea {697}

Norovirus
What is diarrhea {693}

Alteration in normal bowel movement characterized by and increase in water content, volume, or frequency
What is endemic along with Gulf coast and East coast {697}
Vibrio parahemolyticus
What is innoculum size {693}

Number of organisms or toxin ingested
What is persistent diarrhea {693}

> 14 days
What is related to almost all antibiotic use {702}

Clostridium difficile
What is the average duration of Traveler's diarrhea {701}

About 4 days
What is the best recommendation for Traveler's diarrhea {702}

Boil it, cook it, peel it, forget, it!
What is the leading cause of food borne illness {696}

Salmonella
What is the most common cause of infectious nosocomial diarrhea {702}

Clostridium difficile
What is the most frequently recognized pathogen of waterborne disease in the US {698}
Giardia
What is the most notable strain of EHEC {697}

E. coli 0157:H7
What is the role of endoscopy {700}

Rarely needed, but can help distinguish infectious diarrhea from inflammatory bowel disease
What is Traveler's diarrhea {701}

Defined as 3 or more unformed stools in a 24 hour time period with at least one of the following: abdominal pain, cramps, nausea,
vomiting, fever, tenesmus
What may resemble acute appendicitis {697}

Yersinia
What spores survive boiling and then germinate in un-refrigerated conditions {695}
Bacillus cereus
What toxin acts on central or peripheral nervous system {694}

Neurotoxin
What toxin causes bacterial invasion of the intestinal mucosa {694}

Invasion
What toxin causes destruction of mucosal cells responsible for inflammatory diarrhea {693}
Cytotoxin
What toxin causes watery diarrhea by acting directly on secretory mechanisms in the intestinal mucosa {693}
Enterotoxin
What was the classic drug used to treat C. diff {703}

Vancomycin
Star this term

When is the peak incidence of food borne disease {693}

Winter
Those with decreased GI motility are at increased risk of what {694}

Bacterial overgrowth and enteric infection
With EHEC, you must test stool for what {697}

0157 LPS or presence of Shiga-toxin
18)HACCP
Hazard
Something that has the potential to do harm
What are the 3 types of hazards?

Physical, chemical and bacterial
What are the hazards when serving food?

Discard cold food after 4 hours and hot food after 2 hours. Use seperate serving equipment for each dish to prevent cross
contamination. Only place small amounts on display so that you can top up frequently. Check that hot or cold serving units are
operating at correct temperatures.

What are the possibe hazards in the cooking of food?
Ensure food is cooked to correct core temperature (above 75C) to ensure bacteria are killed.
What are the possible hazards in the cooling of cooked food?

Cool quickly to ensure food is not in the danger zone (5C to 63C) within 2 hours of cooking.
What are the possible hazards in the preparation of ingredients?

Avoid cross contamination by using seperate chopping boards and utensils for raw and cooked foods.Wash all fruit and vegetables
before use.Carefully check ingredients for any signs of bacterial or physical contamination.
What are the possible hazards in the purchasing of ingredients?

Contamination of ingredients if you do not buy from a supplier with a good reputation for standards and quality.
What are the possible hazards in the receiving (taking in delivery) of ingredients?
Out of date products could be contaminated with bacteria which could lead to food poisoning.Damaged packaging.High risk
ingredients not delivered at correct temperatures.
What are the possible hazards in the storing of ingredients?

Incorrect storage could lead to bacterial contamination.Use old stock first (FIFO)Ensure foods are correctly wrapped or put in sealed
containers.Chilled (5C) and frozen foods (-18C) stored at correct temperatures.
What are the possible hazards when chilling cooked foods?

Ensure food is stored between 1 and 5C to prevent bacteria multiplying.
What are the possible hazards when reheating previously cooked food?
Ensure that a core temperature of 72C for at least 2 minutes is achieved to ensure bacteria do not multiply.
What are the possible hazards with hot holding cooked food?
Ensure food core temperature is above 63C so that bacteria can not begin to mutiply.
What do the letters HACCP stand for?

Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points
What type of hazard is this?

Physical

Physical

Physical

Physical

Bacterial

Chemical

Physical
Why do we use HACCP in Catering?

HACCP is a food management system to identify hazards that could cause danger to the customer and then put in place rules to
minimise the risk of those dangers/hazards happening.
"aW' or water activity is represented by a number between
0 and 1
The "growth rate" of bacteria is

the rate at which cells grow during the exponential growth phase.
5-log reduction refers to

amount of living bacteria in juices acceptable for human consumption
30 people died in 1985 because of the contamination of _________ in ______

Listeria monocytogenes; cheese
An abstract in a research article is

summary of all research
Amino acids are the building blocks of all the following except
lactose
Bacteria are names by________ and __________

genus and species
A disease is considered endemic

when infection is maintained in the population
Equipment sanitation is an example of what prerequisite program?

Sanitation standard operation procedures
Examples of surface of water include all but:

well water
Facility maintenance is an example of what prerequisite

Good manufacturing practices
Fencing is an example of what prerequisite program?

Good agricultural practices
Foodsafety.gov is a website created by which of the following

usda-fsis, fda-cfsan, and cdc
HACCP is
preventative, not reactive
Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (hus) is a disease characterized by _______ and is associated with _____?
a kidney failure; E.coli 0157:H7
Honey should not be given to child/infant <1 year old because of the threat of
botulism
Latex and kiwi are known as what?

cross-reactive allergens
Lead can be leached from all the following sources except:

window curtains
Lead is found in all of the following except

fruit
Listeria monocytogenes has been implicated in numerous deaths over the past 25 years due to the
resilience of the microbes to temperature extremes.
A methods section in a research article contains the following except

data table
The MOST ideal pH for bacteria to grow is:

4.6 and 7.5
The most ideal temperature for bacteria to grow:

between 70-121 degrees farenheight
The national academy of sciences committee, NACMCF is responsible for what?

Conducts food safety research and makes food safety recommendations.

Neurotoxins, like ___, is a toxin that specifically acts on nerves and can cause severe and irreversible brain damage
methylmercury
The peanut corporation of america was responsible for the death of ___ individuals in 2009
8
Prerequisite programs are also known as

the foundation for the 7 haccp principles
Recycled water should be treated with

chlorine
Research articles have all of the following components except

concept
Retail facilities that meet minimum state food safety standards are issued
A permit to operate
The spinach outbreak in 2006 really caused _______ illnesses?

4,000
Standard Operating Procedures are considered _________________ within your haccp plan?
prerequisite programs
Symptoms such as rash, trouble breathing, swollen lips and low blood pressure are signs of
anaphylaxis
Toxins from c.botulinum can enter the body in all of the following ways except
kissing
Washing produce is an example of what prerequisite program?

Good manufacturing practices
Water management (in the field) includes all by:

soil filtration
Wheat allergies are specifically caused from an immune response to:

prolamins
Which is not considered a "naturally" occurring chemical?

recombinant bovine somatrophin hormone (rbst)
Which of the following does not apply to staphylococcus aureus?

If it is italicized because it is Greek.
Which of the following has a true pH of 7

distilled water
Which of the following industries has not had a highly publicized food borne illness outbreak?
Carrots
Which of the following industries is regulated by the USDA to use HACCP

School food service
Which of the following is NOT a good agricultural practice

Inclusion of pests
Which of the following is NOT a part of the immune system

Gliadin
Which of the following is not considered a biochemical hazard

sweet n low
Which of the following is NOT considered a naturally occurring chemical?

recombinant bovine somatatrophin hormone
Which of the following is NOT on the FDA food allergen list

oats
Which of the three industries or organizations initially developed HACCP?

Pillsbury, US army, NASA
Which physical hazard is most common in the beverage industry

glass
Which recall classification "will cause" serious health consequences or death

Class I
Acid anionics advantages
stable, non-corrosive, non-staining, low odor, not affected ny hard water, removes and controls mineral films, good bacteriophage
activity
Acid anionics disadvantages

expensive, pH sensitivity, limited and antimicrobial activity (poor yeast and mold) corrosion potential, high foaming, skin irritant
Basic requirements of sanitizer

selective toxicity, broad spectrum action, FDA approved, EPA registration
Carboxylic acid advantages

low foaming (CIP), broad spectrum bactericidal activity, stable, not affected by hard water salts, non-corrosive, relatively low cost
Carboxylic acid disadvantages

limited activity against fungi, optimum activity ph, inactivated by cationic surfactants, temperature sensitive, corrosive to nonstainless, rubber, and plastics
Chlorine compounds advantages

broad spectrum bactericidal, available as solid, liquid, or gas. Colorless, relatively odorless, non-staining
Chlorine compounds disadvantages

corrosive (tissues and metals), light, temperature deteriorates it in storage, production of trihalomethanes
Chlorine dioxide
very soluble in cold water, stronger oxidizer that HOCl, very expensive, must be generated onsite
Chlorine dioxide advantages

strong oxidizing chemical, more tolerant to organic material, less corrosive, less pH senstitive
Chlorine dioxide disadvantages

safety, toxicity, sensitive to light and temperature, cost
comparative costs for water treatment

UV-least expensiveClO2-mediumO3-most expensive
considerations for method of choice

if residual killing is important-ClO2If disinfection/solids settling is important-O3if not a chemical method and no residual killing
required- UV
detergent
penetrates (suspends soil)
Disinfectant
Kills 99.9999% of pathogens, 6 log reduction, may/may not kill spores or viral pathogens, works in 5-10 minutes
Factors affecting bacteriocidal actions

endocrine concentration, organic matter, pH, water, temperature of water
FDA-Approved No-Rinse Food Contact Surface Chemical Sanitizers

chlorine, chlorine dioxide or mixture of oxychloro, iodophors, quats, acid-anionic, carboxylic acid, peroxy-acid phenolic
Gluteraldehyde
food grade lubricant sanitizer
Iodophors
iodine + surfactant + acid; maximum concentration 25 ppm
Iodophors advantages
broad spectrum of activity, less irritating/corrosive than chlorine, low toxicity, effective ph range (more broad than chlorine), stable,
long shelf life, color of use provides visual control
iodophors disadvantages
staining porous and plastic materials, poor activity against bacteriophage, poor low temperature efficacy, corrosive at high
temperatures, may product excessive foam, more expensive than chlorine, odor may be offensive
methods of application
manual: most labor intensive and dangerousCIP: circulation cleaning, reduce labor cost, improved performance, expensive yet
versatileCOP: free standing equipment
Ozone gas
kills by lysis phenomenon, deposes to O2 in water solution if it does not react with organic matter, unstable, must be generated onsite
Ozone gas advantages

powerful oxidizing gas, broad spectrum germicidal activity
Ozone gas disadvantages

unstable, pH sensitive, temperature sensitive, safety issues, toxicity, cost, corrosive
Peroxyacetic acid advantages

best against biofilms, low foaming (CIP), no residual, no phosphate, environmentally friendly, relatively tolerant to organic matter and
pH, temp stable, non-corrosive, broad-spectrum of bactericidal activity, up to 7.5 ph, combines sanitizing and acid rinse
Peroxyacetic acid disadvantages

corrosive to some metals, full strength solutions, pungent smell, effective against fungi, expensive
Process factors affecting use and efficiency for chlorine alternatives

water temperature, pater pH, organic matter, residual monitoring, microbial resistance, health concerns
Quat advantage
good foaming and penetrating power, good against listeria, forms bacteriostatic film on surface, stable to organic matter, works best in
neutral to slightly alkaline solution, odorless, colorless, non-toxic, non-corrosive, temperature and shelf stable, mold and odor control
Quat disadvantages
long bacteriostatic residual, limited activity again gram-negative bacteria
Recommended cleaner for:heavy and fat oil depositsburned/dried on depositsmost food waster deposits
heavy and fat oil deposits: strong alkalineburned/dried on deposits: strong alkalinemost food waster deposits: moderately alkaline
cleaners
Recommended cleaner for: protein waste depositsmineral/hard water depositsheavy mineral deposits
protein waste deposits: chloroicacid, mildly alkalinemineral/hard water deposits: mildly acid heavy mineral deposits: strongly acid
Sanitizer
reduces microbes to a safe level, 5 log reduction, works within 30 seconds
Sterilant
Kills all microbial life including spores, are either chemical or physical, >250F for 15 minutes
surfactant
lowers water tension
Types of Halogen sanitizers

chlorine, iodine, quaternary ammonium compounds
UV
mechanical disinfectant system, microbes bombarded with energy of specific wavelength, energy destroys cells DNA/RNA molecules,
cell death relative to UV energy dose absorbes
UV advantages
activity independent of pH and temperature, no residual taste or color, lox toxicity
UV dusadvantages
poor penetration, safety issues, bacterial regrowth, interferences, costs
water quality
hardness, impurities, temperature
When are mildly alkaline acids used

manual cleaning
When are moderately alkaline acids used

CIP, high pressure sprays

When are strongly alkaline acids used
commercial ovens, meat smokehouse
Why do we clean?
remove dirt vs. oildeprive microbial growthphysical barrier/inhibit sanitizerensure equipment performancemaintain empoylee
moralereduce food contamination
agricultural chemicals (pesticides, fungicides, fertilizers, GH), lead, zinc
unintentially or incidentally added chemicals
any point, step, or procedure at which biological, physical, or chemical factors can be controlled
control point
any potentially harmful extraneous matter not normally found in food (cherry pits)
physical
a biological chemical or physical property that may cause food to be unsafe for consumption
hazard
CCP are specific for

process and product
CCP may change with differences in

plant layout (kitchen), formulation (recipes are different), process flow, equiptment, ingredients
criteria that are more stringent that critcal limits and that are used by an operator to reduce risk of deviation
operating limit
a criterion that must be met for each preventive measure

critical limit
examples of prerequisite programs

sanitation, GMP, training, recall program
first used when foods were developed for the

space program
food additvies (perservatives, nutritionaly additives, color)

intentially added chemicals
HACCP is ________ not __________

preventive not reactive
HACCP is a management tool used to protect the food supply against

biological, physical, and chemical hazards
HACCP is designed to
minimize risks of food safety hazards
HACCP is not
a zero risk system
HACCP stands for

hazard analysis and critical control point system
HACCP started in
1960
in HACCP, "hazards" refer to conditions or contaminants in foods that can cause illness or injury. It does not refer to undesirable
conditions or contaminants such as:
insects, hair, filth, spoilage, economic fraud
microbiological hazards include harmful:

bacteria, viruses, protoza
nonsporeforming bacteria
E coli
A point, step, or procedure at which control can be applied and a food safety hazard can be prevented, eliminated or reduced to
acceptable levels
critical control point
Principle 1
hazard analysis
Principle 2
determine CCP
Principle 3
establishing critical limits
Principle 4
establish monitoring procedures
Principle 5
identify corrective action
Principle 6
verify that the system works
Principle 7
procedures for record keeping and documentation
a proactive rather than reactive approach to addressing the CDC's risk

active managerial control
procedures to be followed when a deviation or failure to meet a critcal limit occurs

corrective action
a significant hazard must be controlled if it is

reasonably likely to occur, likely to result in an unacceptable risk
sporeforming bacteria (pathogens)

clostridum botulinum
steps or procedures that control the in-plant environmental conditions that provide a foundation for safe food production
prerequisite program
to conduct a planned sequence of observations or measurements to access whether a CCP is under control and to produce an accurate
record for future use verification
monitor
viruses
hep A and E, rotavirus, norwalk virus group
Approach to food safety
-identify hazards-making a plan to control them-put plan into action -document results
Benefits of HACCP
-systematic approach-application of technical and scientific principles -all levels of personnel -reduction of food borne disease and
product waste-increased operational efficiency, profits and consumer confidence
Codex
-1991-Codex Alimentarius Committee on Food Hygiene
FDA
-1970's -Low-acid canned foods and acidified foods (21 CFR 113,114)
FDA- Seafood HACCP

1997
FDA-FSMA
2011preventative controls
FDA-Juice HACCP
2002
Flow Diagram
-ingredients -storage-steps in prep and processing -equipment associated with process steps -packaging -finished product storage
HACCP Goal
-to chance the safety of our products by systematically controlling the hazards
HACCP is...
-preventative, not reactive -HACCP is not a zero risk system -designed to minimize the risk of food safety hazards
History of HACCP
-Modes of failure*gather knowledge of the food product/process*predict what might go wrong *selected points in the process to take
measurements/observations *when points are out of control probability of a problem increases (CCP)
How to establish prerequisite programs

-requires commitment from management -documented-systematic and objective -employee training -verification -resources
International use of HACCP

-European Union -Canada-Australia -New Zealand -Japan
NACMCF
1989-National Advisory Committeee on Microbiological criteria for foods "HACCP principles for food production"
Obstacles of HACCP
-leadership commitment -Employee buy-in -cost-Proactive thinking -Burden of proof
Prerequisite programs
-provide basic environment and operating conditions necessary to produce safe and wholesome food -based on GMP's -writsen,
monitored, reviewed and verified -some required by regulations
Prerequisite vs HACCP
Prerequisite: -indirect food safety issues -more general across the facility HACCP-solely with food safety issues -specific to a
product -deviations will result in unacceptable conditions
Seven principles of HACCP

1. Conduct Hazard Analysis 2. CCP's in process 3. Critical limits 4.Monitor CCP5. Corrective actions 6. Verification procedures 7.
Record-keeping & documentation procedures
USDA/FSIS
1996 "Pathogen Reduction & HACCP"
Who developed HACCP?

-NASA-Pilsbury -Army 1959
Original Alphabetical
______ means you have a lack in calcium
ostreoprosis
6 essential nutrients
water, carbohydrates, protein, vitamins, minerals
anorexia nervosa
lose weight, fear of gaining, diet and excersice, sypmtoms include dieting when thin, obession with colories, fat, pretending to eat
apples
b.c and p.e.i
bacteria
fungi, bacterium
bacteria needs
moisture warmth oxygen

bolus
a ball of chewed food
botulism
canned or preserved foods
bulimia nervosa
binge eating then vomiting
can bacteria be helpful
yes
can food be rehydrated?
yes, addd water
chyme
pulpy acidic fluid from stomach to small intestine
a closed fist equals to _____ in food guide servings
grains
complete protein
animal source
complex carbohydrates
potato, bread, cereal, rice, whole grain
compulsive eater
frequent uncontrolled eating, binge eating
conserve
made with several fruits and usually raisians and nuts
cross contamination
the transfer of bacteria from one food to another
cutting celery
slicing knive
dairy
calcium, protein, riboflavin, vitamin a

danger zone for bacteria is
21c or 70f
a deck or card resembles ____ of meat, fish or poultry
3 ounces
defefiency that causes beriberi
thaimine
defefiency that causes bleeding gums
vitamin c and k
defefiency that causes night blindness
vitamin a
defefiency that causes scurvy
vitamin c
dice
small square peices
duodenum
first part of the small intestine
e coli 0157h7
from raw ground beef
fish, berries
all around canada
food groups with high protein
dairy and meat and alternatives
freezing bacteria
slows down a lot
fruit and vegetables
vitamin a and vitamin c
grains
carbohydrates, fibre, iron, b vitamins

Ground beef temperature
68c
how are the ingredients listed
in order of quantity
how do measure a large quantity of milk
with a measuring cup
how do we measure one teaspoon of salt
with measuring spoon
how do you put out a grease fire
cover with pot lid and pour baking soda
how long should food stay at room temperature
as little as possible
is it ideal to eat raw cookie dough?
no since you can get samonella
is price required on the food label
no
jam
made with chopped, chrushed fruit and sugar
jelly
clear gel made with fruit juice and sugar
liver
nutrient rich blood filtered of toxins, excess fats soluble vitamins stored here
lobster
eastern canada
measuring dry ingredients
put it in cup overfilled then level off
meat and alternative
protein, iron, b vitamins

metal spatula
used to lift and turn during cooking
milk and alternatives: 14- 19
3-4
nutritional goal
specific
measurable
attainable
realistic
time bound
other
high sal, high fat, low nutrient qualities
oxidation
chemical reaction of oxygen with other substances
pancreas
produces enzymes that aid in digestion and hormones that regulate blood sugar
peristalsis
constriction and relaxition of muscles in the digestion
pork
quebec
preserve
made with whole or large peices of fruit cooked in thick rich syrup of juice and sugar
removing bones
boning knife
removing skin from fruits
paring knife
roast beef temperature
60c
roast chicken temperature
74c
rubber spatula
removes food from sides
samll intestine
nutrient absorbes
samonella
raw things, yeast, peanut butter and chocolates
slicing bread
bread knife
staple food
food that can be stored thorughout the year and stay fresh
stomach
chemical breakdown
to fight bac
clean, separate, chill, cook
tong
use tongs to lift and turn hot foods
vegetables and fruits: 14- 19
female 7
male 8
vegetables you can freeze
beans, corn
vegetables you cant freeze
radishes, lettuce
villi
lining of small intestine
water displacement method
place water in cup to make up difference, add pices of fat until its at top level
what age group should consume the highest amount of calcium
14-18
what are 6 ways to keep the kitchen safe
wash hands, remove loose clothing, tie back hair, keep drawers and doors closed, minimize clutter, never leave fat unattended
what are nutritional claims
free none
low small amount
reduced 25% less
light 50% les
what are some consideration need to make a meal look pleasing?
colour, shape, texture, flavours, temperature
what are the basic ingredients for a pie crust
flour, salt, shortening, cold water
what are the cornerstones of any culture
food and diet
what are the main components of a entree
begetable and fruits, starch, protein
what are the parts in the digestive system?
mouth, teeth, salivary glands, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine, pancreas, gall bladder, liver
what are the symptoms of food borne illness? what do they confuse it with?
symptoms include abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting, diarhea, fever, dehydration. they confuse it with the 24 hour flu
what are the three body types
eketomrph(tall and skinny) misomorrph (middle) endomorph (short and fat)
what are the three types of vegetarians
vegasns, vegetarians, lacto- ova vegetarians
what causes jams and jellies to set
pectin
what colour vegetables should you eat
orange and green
what enzye is used in the mouth
salivary glands
what enzyme is used in the stomach

hydrochioric acid
what happens if you eat a high carb breakfast
you feel tired thorought the day
what influences your food choices
geography, history, religion
what ingredients do you need to start a fire
fuel, air, heat
what is dehydration and what are the 2 conditions to get it?
when heat and air are added to dry it out
what is required on the food label
calorie, fat, aaturated fat, cholesteral, sodium, carbs, sugar, protein, vitamins
what is the correct order for washing dishes
fill right sink with hot soapy water and left with hot clear water and put dishes from least dirtiest to dirtiest and clean with a cloth
what is the proper method for measuring brown sugar
pack lightly in a dry measuring cup and level off
what kind of grain products should you eat more often
ones with complex carbohydrates
what minerals protect your bones
magnesium and phosphurus
what nutrients do we get energy from
fat, proteins, carbohydrates
what nutrients prevent constipation
fiber
what should a balanced meal consist of
most or all of the four food groups
whats the first step of the digestive system
you chew on the food
whats the sunshine vitamin

vitamin d
when can food poisioning lead to death? which people in the society are most likly to die?
Low class people are most likly to die from it. you can get severe food poisioning from unhygenic places.
where does most of the digestion occur
small intesine
where is exact measurement required
in baking such as a cake
where is the most absorption in the digestive system
large intestine
where shold the fork, spoon and knife be placed
the spoon and knife should be on the right of the plate and the fork should be on the left
where should the napkin be placed
far left
where should the water glass be placed
above the knife
where should you keep eggs
fridge bottom shelf
why arent bread knifes suppose to be sharpened
since they are usually to cut cake and bread and arent originallly sharp
why do females more likly to be anemic
we lose blood becaue of periods and babies
why do we eat
physical needs, psychological needs, social needs
why do we sift
to add in air
why is it important to eat breakfast
to do well and to not get diseases
wire whisk
use for beating and blending
yeild
how much a recipe makes
____ ____ has a lower cost, high in digestible and indigestible carbs, trace fat, b complex vitamins, iron and protein (exclude
soy)
plant protein
____ are highest in biological value
soybeans
____ based products are not always low fat
soy
____ or ____ amino acids are required by nature
8 or 9
____ veggies lose flavor in moist heat
bulb
a _____ is moist, soft, orange flesh
yam
the ______ is the white, inner rind of citrus fruits(rich in pectin and aromatic cells)
albedo
_______ is dry, mealy pale flesh
sweet potato
3 ways to tenderize elastin is
grinding, marinating, swissing
activated yeast added to flour mixture
- mix
- knead
- proof
adding baking soda to heated veggies....
oversoftens tissues and destroys nutrients
adding other ingredients to salad is...

an american custom
aggregate
develop from several ovaries in one flower (berries, strawberries)
aging improves
flavor
aging of meat is a process which allows
for enzymatic activity to breakdown connective tissue
aging: cyrovac (vacuum packed)
carcass cut to primal or fabricated cuts and wrapped in heavy, shrink wrapped plastic (inc shrinkage)
aging: dry=
hung in fridge for 2-6 weeks
aging: fat=
70*F, 90% humidity for 2 days
Air
-mixing
-using egg white foam
-sifting dry ingredients
-creaming fat and sugar
all animal proteins except ____ are complete protein quality
gelatin
all baking powders composed of baking soda and acid ingredients
- co2 produced from soda
- all baking powder must contain at least 12% available co2
all flour mixtures are minimally leaved by
steam
all fruits are....
vegetables
all veggie proteins except ____ and ____ are incomplete
nuts and soy
alpha, beta, gamma carotinoids are ____ in color

yellow-orange
amino acids are
building blocks of proteins
amt of pasta for cooking....
1 lb yields 2 lbs cooked
animal proteins score is
70+ biological value
anthocyanin: heat + alkaline=
purple
anthocyanin: heat+acid=
red
anthoxanthin: heat + alkaline=
yellow
anthoxanthin: heat+acid=
white
an antioxidant donates an electron to....
a free radical causing the compound to become stable
as fruit ripens......
green color diminishes, flesh softens, acids develop, organic acids decrease
as heat applied to dry heat method of meat,
collagen unwinds to gelatin in presence of moisture in meat itself= tenderizing
at high temps and longer times for heating meat,
cross molecular bonding increases firmness
at the ends of muscles,
long ends of connective tissue join to form a mass to attach to bone
baking powder
- produces co2 when combined w dry acid and sodium bicarbonate (baking soda)
- single acting : produces co2 one time
- double acting: produces co2 twice (SAS phosphate)
baking soda
-sodium bicarbonate
- produces co2 when heated
- used only in acid containing mixtures
beta carotene is converted to.....
vitamin A in the body
beta glucan reduces risk of
cardiovascular disease
betalains: heat + acid=
bright red
betalains: heat + alkaline=
yellow
biological L.A : yeast
- ferments sugar
- produces co2 and h20 and alc
- requires sugar
- temp: 77-95*F
- time
- process controlled to get desired texture and flavor
(add NaCl)
biological leavener
yeast, bread
biological value is measured of
nitrogen absorbed vs nitrogen retained by the body
biotechnology improves
availability by improving shelf life or resistance to pests
biotechnology refers to the
genetic engineering, recombinant, DNA technology and genetic modification to develop new products
breakfast cereals are consumed in
ready to eat form
buy in season for fruit requires
flavor, nutrient content, lower cost

calcium is serving size is
2-3 servings from dairy
canned fruit and veggies are ____ and _____ for preservation
cooked and sealed
canned veggies texture, nutritional value and palatability are reduced if .....
heated to 212*F
carotinoid stability:
heat+ acid=
isomers of carotene (some yellow)
carotinoid stability:
heat+ alkaline=
no effect
cereal grains are...
milled to produce flour
chemical leavener
baking soda and food acid, baking powder
chlorophyll is
insoluble in water, green, present in chloroplasts, responsible for photosynthesis
choose mature well developed product when buying...
fruit
collagen + moist heat =
gelatin
collagen increases with
use and age
collagen is
3 polypetide strands and white
collagen is responsible for increased
tenderness when conversion is complete
complementary proteins use

a small amt of animal protein with a larger amount of incomplete protein to add missing amino acid to veggie protein
complete proteins contain
all essential amino acids in proportions capable of promoting growth
the composition of fruit is......
trace fat, trace protein, carb
conduction
-KE generated
-gas flame or electric coil heats pan, heats food mass at bottom of pan
-facilitated thru use of conductors (Al, Cu, Fe)
ex) sauting, deep fat frying, roasting
the connective tissue of meat is a part of
ligaments and tendons, bind muscle tissues together
convection
- heated air or liquid expands and rises to surface of mixture
- heat transferred by movement
ex) convection oven, boiling water
cook meat at (low heat of a temp) ....
200*F
cornmeal
coarsely ground corn
cornstarch
finely ground endosperm
creates texture of finished product is
crumb
cytoplasm of muscle cells are filled with
water containing protein, emulsified fat, fat-like substances, minerals and vitamins
degree of doneness is determined by
time/weight, color changing, internal temp and touch
denaturation of protein occurs when meat is heated to
140F
denatured protein by heat increases ____, and loss of ____

firmness, solubility
dry heat meat prep: broiling
3/4-1" thick cuts, steaks chops, radiant energy source (direct flame) positioned 2-6 in away from meay
dry heat meat prep: deep fat frying
used for cube pieces of meat or poultry, fat is preheated 400*F or more
dry heat meat prep: grilling
used for thinner cuts, 1/2 or less, add fat to pan or grill, grill for half of recommended time
dry heat meat prep: panbroiling
used for cuts less then 1/2 in, fat is removed (unlike grilling)
dry heat meat prep: roasting
larger cuts of meat, boneless or bone in, roast 5 to 10 degree below desired degree of doneness, allow roast to stand for 15 to 20 mins
before carving
dry heat meat prep: stir-frying
freeze meat to ease slicing, cut into thin slices, cook with veggies
dry heat method of meat prep is
application of heat without added moisture to denature or coagulate proteins
dry heat methods are used for
tender cuts
during protein denaturation.... meat is very
juicy and tender
edible part of fruit is
pericarp
effect of heat on chlorophyll- heat + alkaline + Zn, Cu=
chlorophyllin, bright green color, destroys b complex vitamins, affects texture
effect of heat on veggies: color
ph, heat and metals affect
effect of heat on veggies: flavor
flavor rich in orgo acids, s compounds, salts, volatile oils, carvs and phenolic compounds
effect of heat on veggies: nutrients

most water soluble, use minimal water in preparation
effect of heat on veggies: odor
cruciferous and allium veggies are harsh
effect of heat on veggies: texture
starch gelatinizes, cellulose softens, water lost, digestibility doesnt change, inc tenderness
elastin has no affect to
heat and moisture
elastin is
strong fibers used to support weight of the body, yellow
elastin is deposited underside of the body on
brisket, short plate and flank
elastin is tenderized
mechanically or chemically
ethylene gas is.....
contained in fruit which promotes ripening
example of dry heat method for meats:
beef cuts along spine of carcass, veal, pork, lamb
example of moist heat methods for meats:
beef that isnt along spine
examples of catechins
tea (black, green, oolong)
examples of flavonoids: anthocyanin, anthoxanthins
anthocy: blueberries, cranberries, strawberries
anthoox: potato, turnip, parsnip
examples of major processed meat
sausage (made from pork)
factors affecting air leavening
1) more manipulation, greater air incorporation

2) ingredients at room temperature
3) viscosity- thicker mixture holds air better, air creamed into solid fat hold better than oil
4) bench time- length of time mixture sits on countertop b4 heating
factors that effect shrinkage are...
amt of fat, heating temp, degree of doneness
fermentation
1) yeast +oxygen + glucose= carbon dioxide+ water
2) yeast w/o water + glucose= ethanol +carbon dioxide
finished flour mixture partially responsible for....
crumb formation
finished flour products based on amylase which...
breaks down starch to dextrin, glucose and malt (sweetness)
flavonoid pigment: anthocyanin=
red, purple
flavonoid pigment: anthoxanthin=
white, yellow
flour
starting point for all baked products
flour mixture - dough
stiff (pasta, pie dough)
soft (biscuits, rolls, scones)
flour mixture term: proof
incubation time required for yeast to produce co2
requires controlled temp
flour mixtures are classed according to.....
viscosity (dough vs batter)
flour mixtures contain....
milled cereal grain as major ingredient
flour mixtures- batters
drop (cream puffs, muffins)
pour (pancakes, popovers, waffles)
food biotechnology
dna isolated from bacterium and transferred to another bacterium called rDNA
frozen fruit and veggies make....
texture reduce, retain color, retain flavor
the fruit respiration occurs as
the fruit grows, matures, and ripens
fruitarian doesnt eat
cabbage, lettuce leaves, bean sprouts, celery, or root veggies
fruitarian only eats
veggie fruits, nuts, and seeds
fruits are preserved in sugar to
preserve integrity of pieces
gelatinization is
Moist heat applied to starch.
Cells swell, absorbing water, increase volume, improve viscosity.
gelatinized starch provides.....
additional structure and crumb
generic quality is not
predictable
generic quality varies from
very good to poor
genes control ripening in bananas, tomatoes when
biotechnology is used
germ
smallest portion of grain, contains embryo for future plant, high in fat and protein
gluten
protein portion of wheat flour w/ elastic characteristics for structure of most baked products
gluten sensitivity has only been shown in individuals with.....
celiac disease
glutenin+gliadian+h20+kneading=
gluten
grains bran
under husk, indigestible fiber, vitamins and minerals, protects grain endosperm, aleurone- high in protein
grains endosperm
largest portion, contains all grains starch, complex digestible carbs
grains husk
rough outer cover protecting grain
greatest concentration of collagen in muscle groups used are
neck, shoulders, front legs, back legs
ground meat containing recipe enclosed in a casing can be
artificial(not edible) or natural
heat
energy produced by moving molecules
heat + acid = (effect of heat on chlorophyll
olive green color
heating meat at 160-175F=
coagulation of protein
heating meat develops...
flavor
heavier mass of connective tissue surrounds
each bundle
high dosage of ____ is toxic
zinc
the higher the heating of meat,
the colliding proteins straigthen out and become hard (firmness)
hominy
endosperm soaked in lye

how is pasta prepared
using moist heat to gelatinize starch and denature protein
how long does it take for brown rice to cook
1 hr
how much flour?
- too much= reduced volume
- too little= structure collapse
how much leavening agent do you use?
- too much= low volume
- too little= compact product
how to reduce browning on fruits.......
use acid containing ingredients
2 people get sick and investigation
A foodborne-illness outbreak is confirmed when
Seafood toxin
An example of a biological contaminant?
Time temperature abuse
Failing to cook food correctly is an example of
Ready to eat foods
Washed fruits and vegetables and deli meat are examples of
Cross contamination
Transferring pathogens from one surface or food to another
Diarrhea
A common symptom of foodborne illness?
Anisakiasis
Which condition might develop if people eat contaminated raw or undercooked fish?
Time and temperature
What are two conditions for pathogen growth that managers are most able to control?
Carbs and proteins
What causes TCS food to be a high risk for bacterial growth? (What two things facilitate bacterial growth?)
Log
In which phase of bacterial growth do bacteria begin reproducing rapidly?
E. Coli
Cooking ground beef to its required internal temperature helps to prevent the growth of which pathogen?
Pathogens
Microorganisms that are capable of causing a foodborne illness are known as?
Bleeding
Physical contaminants are most likely to cause?
Nausea
A common food allergy symptom?
Soy
A common food allergen?
Additives
What cannot increase nutritional value?
70 (21 C)
When thawing food under running water, what is the maximum allowable temperature of the water?
155 for 15 seconds (68 C)
What is the minimum internal cooking temperature for ground meat or seafood?
60 Minutes
In the partial cooking process, what is the maximum amount of time that food should be cooked during initial cooking?
Ice Bath
Where is the best place to cool a large pot of corn chowder?
Blast Chiller
What type of cooling method pushes cold air across food at high speeds to remove heat?
15 seconds
When reheating TCS food for hot-holding, how long must it hold an internal temperature of 165F (74C)?
False
T or F. Freezing food kills pathogens.
True
T or F. Cooking can reduce pathogens in food, but will not destroy spores or toxins they may have produced.
Every 4 hours
On average, how often should food temperature be checked when holding hot or cold items?
70 (21C)
When holding cold food without temperature control, it can be kept for up to 6 hours as long as the food's temperature does not exceed
(this temperature) while it is being served.
Rim
Kitchen staff should avoid touching which part of glasses?
14 Inches
Sneeze guards must be placed over self-service areas at a minimum height above the counter of?
Once a day
How often are managers required to check the shelf life of products in a vending machine?
7
When vending machine refrigerated food that was prepped on-site is not sold within _ days, it should be thrown out.
False
T or F. Raw and ready-to-eat food is never offered for self-service.
Hands
According to the FDA's public health interventions, what is considered a "vehicle of contamination"?
Variance
What is a document allowing a requirement to be waived or changed?
Create a plan
What is the first step of creating a crisis management plan?
Legal authorities
When developing a foodborne illness incident report form to use in the foodservice operation, you should obtain guidance from?
Correction or closure
An imminent health hazard is one that requires?

True
T or F. A critical control point is the point in the food process where an identified hazard can be prevented, eliminated, or reduced to
safe levels.
Porosity
A flooring's _____ refers to the extent to which a material will absorb liquids.
Ceramic tile
What material is best to use on the walls of cooking areas?
Handwashing stations
These should be located in restrooms or next to them, in food-prep areas, in dishwashing areas, and in service areas.
NSF
This organization ensures that foodservice equipment that comes in contact with food meets certain standards.
Carousel
Which type of dishwashing machine has multiple tanks and moves tableware on either a conveyor or in racks?
Prep areas
Which areas of the kitchen need the brightest light?
Holes
When cleaning the foodservice operation, an employee should watch the floors, foundation, and ceilings for leaks, cracks, and ____.
Resilency
A floor's _____ refers to how well it reacts to a shock without breaking or cracking.
Ventilation
__________ is responsible for removing heat, steam, and smoke from cooking lines.
USDA
What government agency is responsible for the regulation and inspection of meat, poultry, and eggs?
CDC
What government agency publishes statistical data and case studies in the Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR)?
More often
Operations with a history of low sanitation scores or consecutive violations might be inspected _____ _______.
Credentials
What should a foodservice manager ask for from a health inspector before allowing entry to the back of the operation?
Health Inspector
Foodmanagers should present the following documents to _______ _______?Purchasing records, proof of food safety knowledge,
PCO treatment plan, HACCP records
72 hours
When a foodservice operation has been found to be in violation of a priority item, how long is typically given to correct the problem?
Cleaning and Sanitizing
These skills: Handling garbage, spotting pests, and washing dishes fall under what?
Controlling time and temperature
Under which food safety skill does knowing how to label food for storage fit best?
Guided discussion, jigsaw design, and role-playing
What are three successful methods of classroom training?
Jigsaw
Which method of training is built on the premise of, "You have learned something when you can teach someone else how to do it"?
50
What percentage of information is typically retained when a person both reads and listens to food safety information?
Today how fat are people?
65% overweight, 33% obese.
Overweight
BMI of 25-29.9 (10 to 15 lbs)
Obese
BMI > 30, 25 to 40 lbs or more
3 Factors that influence eating and weight.
Genetics and Environmental and Psychological
Hunger
Psychological need for nourishment.
Appetite
Psychological factors that prompt you to eat
Satiety
sensation that you have had enough to eat and length between eating time.
Ghrelin
produced by the stomach and stimulates hunger
Leptin
suppresses hunger and food intake
Distention
signals brain to decrease hunger
Cholecystokinin
hormone that decreases hunger
leptin deficiency
leads to individuals becoming massively obese
genetic "set point"
theory that the body fights to remain at a specific body weight with mechanisms that oppose significant weight loss or gain.
environmental factors
events, work, people, convenience and aromas. work more cook less, eat more and more and sit more and move less.
how many people fall short of physical activity recommendations
half of Americans
more time spent in front of the screen
40 percent of american homes have 3 or more tv's. youth logs 5 hours of screen time a day
how to lose weight
eat vegetables, fruit and fiber, protein and fat, mypyramid
how many energy deficit calories are required to lose a pound of fat.
3,500 calories
250-500 calories daily will resulty in weight loss of what.
.5 to 1 pound a week
three areas for successful weight loss
diet, physical activity and behavior change
vegetables, fruit and fiber

high in satiety and reduce calorie intake
energy density foods
low, medium and high
fat and protein
also increase satiety
how many minutes a day should you exercise
60 minutes
how many steps a day to avoid overweight
10,000
behavior modification
food log, control environmental cues, manage stress
how many people regain there weight
90 to 95 percent
Energy gap
when a person loses weight they will have lower energy needs because there is less body weight to maintain. to avoid weight loss
plateaus you must increase daily physical activity.
extreme obesity
bmi greater than 40
dietary guidelines of 1995 recommend how much fat
less than 30 percent total fat and less than 10 percent saturated fat.
heat stability
standing frying temperatures
emulsification
dispersing one liquid into another liquid and in the process of breaking down fat
extenders
partial removal of fat substituted with fat replacement.
barriers
retard fat from being absorbed during frying in the food.
mimetic
imitate one particular function of fat but not all functions. cannot replace on 1 to 1 gram basis
analogs
can replace on 1 to 1 gram basis has many fat sensory properties but with fewer calories or no calories
fats have how many calories per gram
9....attempt to reduce to 1-2
carb fat replacers
gums, starches, litesse, oatrim, z-trim.
protein fat replacers
used in yogurts, cheese spreads cream cheese and sour cream
caprenin
triglyceride of capric, caprylic and behenic fatty acids. partially absorbed. 5 kcal. used in candy. milky way.
salatrim
nestles chocalate chips 5kcal not suitable for frying.
olestra
can be used in frying. first used in pringles. lowers blood cholesterol.
saccharin
non caloric sweetener, 400x sweeter, sweet and low
sucralose
non caloric sweetener, splenda, 600x sweeter
aspartame
200x sweeter, causes brain cancer
sorbitol
2.6kcal expensive used in diet foods
mannitol
used as a sweetener for ppl with diabetes has a positive heat of solutions. popular for chewable tablets.
60 percent water
average healthy adult
65 water
muscle tissue
10-40 water
fat tissue
electrolytes
attracts water in and out of cells
solvent
liquid in which a substance dissolves to form a solution
insensible water loss
loss of water through evaporation of breathing and through skin. not sweat
increased what cause a dry mouth
electrolytes in blood
hyponatremia
low levels of sodium in blood from overhydration
distillation
the way liquor is made, alcohol is heated to vaporize ethanol. vapor is collected and cooled.
moderate alcohol consumption
reduce risk for heart disease and risk of dying
red wine and dark beer
contain flavonoids, phytochemicals and antioxidants that reduce LDL.
what does red wine and dark beer increase
HDL
how much alcohol is absorbed in stomach and small intestine.
20 percent stomach, and 80 percent small intestine.
alcohol dehydrogenase
alcohol that is metabolized in the stomach
liver takes how long to metabolize one drink
1 to 2 hours.
depressant
substance that slows the transmission of nerve impulses. slows reaction to stimuli. confuses though. impairs judgment. sleepiness
alcohol in woman
20 to 30 percent less dehydrogenase, bigger so more water. 1 1/3. drink.
alcohol causes
Alcohol Can Disrupt Sleep and Cause Hangovers
Alcohol Can Interact with Hormones
Alcohol May Lead to Overnutrition and Malnutrition
Alcohol Can Harm Your Digestive Organs, Heart, and Liver
Alcohol Can Put a Healthy Pregnancy at Risk
alcohol interacts with hormones
sex drive, breast cancer and osteoporosis
alcohol
7 cal/gram
heavy drinkers higher risk of what
gastritis
fatty liver
results from few days of heavy drinking, by products of alcohol metabolism further contribute to fatty buildup in liver
alcoholic hepatitis
liver is harmed by harmful by products of alcohol metabolism. causes nausea
cirrhosis
liver cells dies, liver no longer able to filter toxins and waste products.
fetal alcohol syndrome
abnormalities in children from mother drinking. face, behavior, learning, leading cause of mental retardation.
17 percent of those who drink alcohol
alcoholics
binge drinking
5 or more or 4 or more
legal driving limit
.08
alcoholism in youths
age 15 drinker four more times likely than a age 20 drinker. 14 is average age.
food labels three important functions
tell you ingrediants, nurtitional facts, and daialy values.
fda says every label must have what
name, net weight, name of manufacturer, ingrediant list, nutrition info for one serving. serving sizes. indication of how it fits into dies.
definitions for labels. health claims that are accurate. eight common allergens present.
restaurants with 20 or more locations
must list calorie content information same with vending machines (20)
dv
used only on food labels. based on 2000 cal diet. not current. non for trans fat, sugars and protein. 20 more is high. 5 less is low
nutrient content claims
level of nutrient in a food
health claims
food health relationship
fda allows 3 types of claims
content claims, health claims and function claims
low sodium
< 140mg
less
25% less per serving.
high, rich in
20% of more of the dv nutrient
good source of
10 to 19% of the dv
more, extra, added
10% more, vitamins minerals protein and fiber
health claims
food or dietary compound. corresponding disease or condition associated with the claim
3 types of health claims

authorized, health claims based on authoritative statements and qulified health claims.
authoritative
government approved. words may must be used.
function claims
do not need to be approved by the FDA
functional foods
a food shown to have a positive effect on your health beyond its basic nutrients.
carrots
high in vitamin A help fight cancer. beta carotene
oats
beta glucan. lowers cholesterol levels
phytochemicals
beneficial compounds derived from plants
zoo chemicals
beneficial compounds derived from animals
functional foods are people buying them
25 billion spent of functional foods and 70 percent believe it helps
probiotics
healthy bacteria, live microorganisms. in yogurt.
americans who buy vitamin and mineral supplements
40 percent. over 1 billion annually
us pharmacopoeia
non profit organization that provides guidance for consumers. tests supplements for ingrediants dissolvable free of contaminants and
were built safely.
erogenic aid
any substance used to improve athletic performance, including dietary supplements.
sports bars and shakes
not dietary supplements
the science of identification, classification and nomenclature of living things.
Taxonomy
grows at temps. greater than 100 C
Pyrolobus fumarii
Transformed fro rough to smooth colonies
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Cause tumors on plants
Agrobacterium tumefaciens
cervical cancer
Human Papillomavirus
Symbiotic nitrogen fixer
Rhizobium leguminosarum
Lysogenic conversion yields toxin
Vibrio cholerae or Streptococcus pyogenes or Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Contaminates air conditioner cooling towers
Legionella pneumophila
Histidine auxotroph used to test reversion rate
Salmonella typhimurium
Chicken pox/shingles
Varicella/Zoster virus
Target in discovery of penicillin
Staphylococcus aureus
Energy to fuel microbial metabolism comes from one of two general sources:
Sunlight or chemical source
Carbon for the building blocks of cells comes from one of two sources:
organic carbon(sugars) or CO2
Methanogens use CO2 as a terminal electron acceptor, creating what?
methane
What are purple bacteria purple?
photosynthetic pigments
What are two examples of the resting stage structures associated with bacteria living in the soil?
1. endospores
2. Cysts
3. fruiting bodies
4. mycelia
The complete set of genetic information
Genome
What does it mean to be antiparallel in relation to the structure of DNA?
One strand is oriented 5' to 3' prime and the other is 3' to 5' prime
In DNA replication, what is always synthesized away from the replication fork.
lagging strand
the activity of DNA polymerase that limits mutations in newly synthesized DNA.
proofreading
the DNA sequence that directs RNA polymerase to begin transcription.
promoter
the DNA sequence directing transcription to end.
terminator
the DNA sequence that serves as the binding site for the repressor.
operator
is clavulanic acid an antimicrobial?
No. its beta-lactamase inhibitor
removal or addition of nucleotides can shift the what of a gene?
reading frame
another name for French Polio
Guillain-Barre' syndrome
How does the Ames test measure the mutagenicity of a chemical?
The Ames test compares the rate of spontaneous reversion of a histidine auxotroph of Salmonella typhimurium, with the reversion rate
in the presence of a test chemical.
stable, heritable changes in the base sequence of DNA
Mutations
uptake of naked, single-stranded DNA
transformation
Plasmid DNA can be transferred
transformation; conjugation
Lysogeny is a necessary step in this mechanism of gene transfer.
specialized transduction
what two structural features do all viruses have?
Nucleic acid genome and capsid
where does the envelope of enveloped viruses come from?
from the cell host
By what route are enteric viruses generally transmitted?
fecal-oral route
What feature of influenza virus makes antigenic shift possible?
segmented genome
What feature makes antigenic drift possible?
Error prone polymerase
Give an example of how a single point mutation can result in antibiotic resistance.
it can change the target so antibiotic wont bind
What are the two major influenza envelope proteins and which one mediates virus adsorption?
hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
hemagglutinin
Where does Herpes Simplex establish a permanent infection?
Trigeminal ganglia
Give an example of a virus associated with cancer in humans and name the cancer associated with it.
Hepatitis B and liver cancer
What is the mechanism of action for Floroquinolones?

Inhibit DNA replication (DNA gyrase/ topoisomerase)
What is the mechanism of action for the antibiotic Vancomycin?
Inhibits cell wall synthesis
What is the mechanism of action for the antibiotic Bacitracin?
Inhibits cell wall synthesis
What is the mechanism of action for the antibiotic Sulfonamide?
Inhibits metabolic pathway for pABA (nucleic acid/folate) synthesis
What is the mechanism of action for the antibiotic Azithromycin
Inhibits protein synthesis
what is the difference b/w the effectiveness of an antibiotic and a microbes susceptibility to that antibiotic?
Susceptibility refers to sensitivity int he lab, while effectiveness takes into account the ability of the antibiotic to reach the site of
infection
Give one disadvantage of using a broad spectrum antibiotic
promotes resistance, harmful to normal flora/ could trigger C. difficile (or yeast) outgrowth
What antibiotics inhibit Cell wall (peptidoglycan) synthesis?
B- lactam drugs
Vancomycin (IV)
Bacitracin (topical)
What antibiotics inhibit Nucleic Acid Synthesis?
Fluoroquinolones
Rifamycins
What antibiotics inhibit Cell Membrane Integrity?
Polymyxin B
What antibiotics inhibit metabolic pathways (folate biosynthesis)?
Sulfonamides
Trimethoprim
What antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis?
Aminoglycosides
Tetracyclines
Macrolides
Chloramphenicol
Lincosamides
Oxazolidinones
Streptogramins
What are the different mechanisms of action that antibiotics do? (5)
Cell wall synthesis
protein synthesis
nucleic acid synthesis
metabolic pathways or essential processes
cell membrane integrity
During WWII, what disease killed more people than combat?
Typhoid
What arsenic derivative was the 1st successful antimicrobial; used for syphilis
Salvarsan
first sulfa drug
body converts this to Sulfonamide
Prontosil dye
Discovered Penicillin while working with S. aureus
Alexander Flemming
took over from Flemming and purified penicillin
Earnest Chain and Howard Florey
what drug was mass produced during WWII?
penicillin
discovered lysozyme
Alexander Flemming
Why are "Next Generation" antibiotics required?
the emergence of resistance to each new derivative.
Where do most antibiotics come from?
the soil
What bacteria from the soil do antibiotics come from?
Streptomyces and Bacillus
What fungi from the soil do antibiotics come from?
Penicillum and Cephalosporium
What does selective toxicity target?
generally target structures/ processes that are unique to bacteria
How can antimicrobial drugs differ in adverse affects?

-allergic reactions- often life threatening
-aplastic anemia- body cannot make RBC or WBC
-suppression of normal flora
-antimicrobial resistance
What dictates the frequency of dosage in antimicrobial drugs?
half life
What mechanism of action does penicillin and cephalosporins use?
B-Lactams (some resistance seen due to production of b-lactamase enzyme.
how do you overcome the resistance seen in penicillin?
proscribe penicillin plus B-lactamase inhibitor
What is targeted in the inhibition of protein synthesis?
the differences in prokaryotic ribosome
what inhibits mycolic acid synthesis in mycobacteria?
Isoniazid
In the inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis, what does Rifamycins do?
block prokaryotic RNA polymerse
what are the general mechanisms for antimicrobial resistance?
1. produce enzyme to chemically inactivate drug
2. Alter target molecule to prevent antibiotic from binding
3. Decrease uptake/ increase elimination of drug (efflux pumps)
how is resistance acquired?
Point mutation and horizontal gene transfer
what does MRSA stand for?
methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus
what are some ways to slow down the emergence of resistance?
-misuse leads to resistants
-patients need to follow instructions and complete treatment
-doc needs to only prescribe when absolutely necessary and educate patients on use
Dmitri Ivanovsky
investigated disease in tobacco that was later discovered to be infectious to other plants through a filterable agent
coined the term "virus"
Martinus Bijerinck
What was the first known virus?
Tobacco Mosaic virus
Are viruses living?
no
what are the different types of viruses (based on different hosts)?
animal virus
plant virus
bacterial virus or Bacteriophage
What are the different shapes of viruses?
Isometric, helical, complex
What is another name for a virus particle?
virion
What is a virus composed of?
nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat (capsid)
What is the viruses genome made of?
a single type of nucleic acid. either DNA or RNA, never both
What type of cell can a virus multiply in?
can only multiply in living cells
What are the two phases of replication in a virus
extracellular phase is inert and intracellular phase is active
What are three general characteristics of a viral genome?
-single type of nucleic acid
-linear or circular
-SS or DS
What are the two types of virus infections?
lytic infection or lysogenic (prophage) infection
what is the general process of a lytic infection?
-adsorption- virus attaches specifically to host cell
-penetration- virus or nucleic acid enters host cell
-transcription and replication- virus takes over cell machinery
-assembly (maturation)- virus components assemble into intact virions
-release- host cell bursts and virions escape
What is different in a Lysogenic infection?

the prophage is integrated into the bacterial chromosome
How are animal viruses grouped?
by route of transmission
What are the different categories of viruses? (5)
1. enteric virus (fecal-oral)
2. respiratory virus (inhaled)
3. Zoonotic viruses (transmitted from animal to human via animal vector)
4. sexually transmitted virus
5. Arboviruses (arthropod-borne)
what are different outcomes depending on type of virus?
Acute infections
persistent infections (latent, chronic, or slow)
Acute virus infections characteristics
usually short in duration and produce a large number of viruses that result in tissue damage. often host develops long lasting immunity
what is the name for the influenza virus and what is unique about its genome?
Orthomyxovirus
and enveloped SSRNA genome in 8 segments
What are two other syndromes that can arise from complications of the Flu virus?
Reyes Syndrome- brain and liver damage, linked to taking aspirin during infection
Guillain- Barre syndrome- french polio
What happens when someone gets Guillain-Barre Syndrome?
they have loss of feeling in extremities and sensory loss; damage to Schwann cells and demyelination= neuropathy
What demographic did the Spanish Flu have the greatest effect on?
young adults
after the spanish flu, how many years did the expectancy rate of life in the US drop?
10 years
What are the two mechanisms for flu genetic variability?
random mutation and genetic reassortment
what is antigenic drift?
random mutation
what is antigenic shift?
genetic reassortment
What is a hybrid virus and what genetic variability is it associated with?
two distinct viruses with segmented genomes infect the same cell; genetic reassortment
What is a persistent virus?
the virus is permanently lost in host
What are the three categories for a persistent virus?
latent infection, chronic infection and slow infection
What is a latent infection?
an infection followed by symptomless period, then reactivation
What are two examples of a latent infection?
Herpes Simplex viruses (HSV1 and HSV2) and chicken pox (varicella)/ Shingles (zoster)
In a latent infection, what can cause symptoms to resurface?
stress, UV exposure, fatigue ect.
Where does the Herpes simplex Virus replicate and where does it travel/live once in the body?
replicates in the epithelial cells of skin and enters the sensory nerve endings (neurotropic) then moves down the nerve cell to
trigeminal ganglion and delivers its genome to the nucleus
What is a chronic infection?
an infectious disease that can be detected at all times
What is an example of a chronic infection?
Hepatitis B or serum hepatitis
What is a slow infection?
the infectious agent gradually increases in amount over long period of time
What is an example of a slow infection
HIV
What causes virus induced tumors in humans?
by DS DNA viruses
genetically speaking, What causes cancer to form from a virus?
integration of a viral genome into host DNA
What is different about cell division in cancers?
cell division is no longer regulated and activated oncogenes drive uncontrolled cell cycle and/ or defective suppressors fail to restrict
cell cycle
What does Epstein barr Virus cause?
1. mononucleosis in developed world
2. Burkitt's Lymphoma in Africa
3. Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma in SE Asia
What cancers does Human Papillomavirus (HPV) cause?
Cervical cancer
Anal cancer
throat cancer
What cancer does Hep B Virus increase the risk for?
liver cancer
What are the cultivation methods for viruses?
Viruses multiply in Host Cells
animal host cells come from cell culture and embryonic eggs
What are the two common inoculation sites in an embryonic egg?
Chorioallantoic membrane inoculation and allantoic cavity inoculation
What are Prions?
made entirely of protein and linked to fatal human disease
What do Prions cause?
brain degeneration (sponge-like holes) and cause the disease transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
what is the name of mad cow disease?
Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy
What is the disease Gadjusek discovered in tribes in Papua New Guinea?
Kuru- acquired from eating dead relatives brains who were carriers of the disease
What is Creutzfeld-Jakob Disease (CJD)
it is a degenerative prion disease found in humans that is transmitted through the same species or can be inherited or acquired
What causes a prion?
mutation causes a normal protein to have different folding properties
What are some characteristics of a mutated or rouge protein in a prion?
it resists proteases (normal protein is sensitive)
resists UV light and nucleases due to lack of nucleic acid
inactivated by chemicals that denature proteins
Why are prions so dangerous in the body?

they are non-immunogenic
what helps protect the brain from dementia and other degenerative problems associated with age
PrPC
what is the rouge scrapie isoform?
PrPSc
Microbe
Includes all life forms. other than plants and animals, that cannot be seen by the naked eye. Can be unicellular or multicellular, but if
multicellular, lack highly differentiated tissues.
Deep Field photograph
This picture from the Hubble Telescope established the approximate date of the Big Bang.
13.7 BYA
How long ago did the Big Bang occur?
4.5 BYA
When did the Earth Form?
4 BYA
How long ago did the Earth cool to habitable temperatures?
3.8 BYA
How far back have the oldest rocks found been dated?
9.5 BYA
When did life begin?
3.5 BYA
How far back are the oldest microbe fossils dated?
False
Some Eukaryotic cells catalyze transformations of chemical compounds necessary to sustain life on Earth
Macromolecules, Lipids
The dry weight of a microbial cell is comprises of __________ and _______.
Macromolecules
Consist of Proteins, Carbohydrates, and Nucleic Acids

10,000
A macro molecule weighs above _______ daltons.
1000
Lipids typically weigh under _______.
Peptide Bond
Bond that is used to form Protein Polymers.
Glycosidic Bond
Bond used to form Carbohydrate Polymers.
Phosphodiester Bond
Bond used to form Nucleic Acid Polymers.
Ether, Ester
2 different bonds used to form lipid chains.
Proteins
_________ are the largest, most diverse category of macro molecules.
Cytoplasm
A dense suspension of ribosomes
Constant flux
The small molecules of the cell are in _________ ____.
70-95
Microbes constitute_______ of the biomass.
Half
Microbes create _____ of the Oxygen we breathe.
Pure Culture
Understanding microbial metabolism, genetics and molecular biology, requires ____________ techniques.
Microscope
Understanding microbial structure-function, ecology and behavior depends on
improvements in ___________ design.
Leeuwenhoek
Discovered microbes in the 1700's

HD Simple Microscope
Which microscope did Leeuwenhoek invent?
swan necked flask
This experiment by Louis Pasteur proved that Germ Theory was the cause of Food spoilage, and not spontaneous generation/creation
of microbes.
Tyndalization
Liquid is boiled and cooled several times in succession with the cooling interval longer than the heating time. First method of
complete microbial sterilization.
Theory
A framework of principles proven by experimentation to explain important natural phenomena while leaving room for new inquiry as well as subsequent addition and modification of those principles.
Hypothesis
An experimental idea proved correct or incorrect through experimentation.
Pasteurization
This process selectively destroys disease-causing bacteria in food and typically extends product shelf life by heating foods to near
boiling followed by rapid cooling and cold storage.
Robert Koch
Developed methods for the growth and isolation of human infectious disease agents
Joseph Lister
Developed disinfection and antisepsis methods for surgery preventing post-surgical infections and reducing occurrence of wound
infections.
Agar
This nutrient medium is ideal for pure cultures due to its easy transfer into plates, and not being broken down by sources in the plate
E. coli
This microbe is the archetype bacterium for studies on growth, gene regulation, and core cell metabolism.
Bacillus subtilis
This microbe is a good model when studying molecular biology, bacterial genetics, and developmental biology. Forms endospores
when stressed.
Bakers Yeast
This microbe is used for studying eukaryotic cell cycle, cell metabolism, protein localization, and eukaryotic molecular gene
regulation.
Objective
The _______ lens of a compound microscope forms a magnified real image inside the tube of the microscope.
Ocular
The ______ lens of a compound microscope magnifies the image a second time.
Resolution
The ability to distinguish bewtwen two closely related spaced objects.
Refractive Index
In order to improve resolution of an optical lens, the _________ of the material between the lens and the specimen must be increased
immersion oil
This is used to extend a high power objective lenses resolution limit to 0.19 micrometers.
Brightfield microscopy
used for observing strained microbial cells
Darkfield Microscopy
Used to view very small, live unstained cells
Phase Contrast Microscopy
Used for observing live, unstained, microbial cells by using light passing through an annular diaphragm, condenser lens, then
magnified by an objective lens finally passing through a lens phase plate.
fluorophore
A compound that is linked to a molecule to be visualized in a cell and illuminated with an exciter wavelength.
Fluorescence Microscopy
Used to view specific molecules within a microbe.
Emitter wavelength
Fluorescence microscopy used a filter that only lets through an _________ _______. by the fluorophore to view the molecule.
Dichroic Mirror
This instrument used in fluorescence microscopy allows long wavelength light through but reflects short wavelength light.
confocal microscopy
A modification of fluorescence microscopy that removes out of focus light.
Electron Microsope
This uses an electron beam and electromagnetic lenses to bend the beam to form an image.
Negative staining EM
This method can reveal the texture of outside of cells, viruses, and isolated subcellular organelles.
Cyro TEM
This type of microscopy uses less electron beam radiation, no use of plastic polymers, and no fixatives and stains, all to reduce cell
damage and reduce distortion for more accurate information.
SEM
This type of microscopy shows a great field of depth, and consists of fixing, dehydrating, and coating the surface of the microbe with
gold a few atoms thick.
Shadow Casting
A variation in microscopy that allows for better 3D resolution of surface features, and involves coating the microbe with a layer of
electron dense metal from an electrically incinerated filament.
Freeze Etch EM
Variation of shadow casting that provides visualization of internal cell structure.
Autoclave
Most common method of sterilization
membrane filtration
Used to sterilize heat-labile solutions
Bunsen Burner
Sterilizes inoculation loops and facilitates sterile transfer of cells between containers without risking contamination
Complex Media
Media composed of natural source components.
Chemically defined media
media composed of exact amounts of purified compounds.
Differential media
media containing dyes or components making different microbial colonies look different after growing on the medium.
Selective Media
Media that enhances-or discourages- the growth of certain microbes due to their components.
Streak isolation
Method used to obtain a pure culture across a solid media
Obligate aerobes
Microbes that require oxygen to grow

Obligate anaerobes
Microbes that are toxic to oxygen
Microbes that can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
Anaerobic chamber
Used for experimentation with microbes under different gas atmospheres
Anaerobe Jar
Used for incubating microbes under different gas atmospheres
BSL 1
for nonpathogenic microbes. Standard GLP.
Safety glasses and closed toe shoes required.
Routine hand washing, autoclave used for biological materials, surface decontamination procedures.
An open, benchtop sink is required.
BSL 2
for pathogens not readily transmitted by aerosol/ contact route.
limited access,lab coats, gloves and masks recommended
Same day decontamination of all materials.
BSL 3
for serious health threat pathogens transferred by the aerosol/contact route. controlled lab access, water in only (no public drains),
decontamination of all waste, protective lab clothing (masks, hats) required, negative, non-circulating airflow.
BSL 4
for readily-transmitted (highly contagious) serious health threat pathogens by the aerosol/contact route causing fatal diseases with no
preventative vaccine or cure. clothing change/shower in & out, full-body air-supplied space suit
Facility normally located in a separate building with no running water in/ no drains out, dedicated building air exhaust
decontamination system (HEPA* filters).
exponential
The unrestricted growth of individual prokaryotic cells is __________.
Binary fission
Exponential growth is a simple consequence of the autocatalytic nature of __________.
Budding
Process that involves a prokaryote producing a bud that enlarges until it reaches the approximate size of the mother cell.
Mutliple Fission
Process that involves a prokaryote growing until is is many times the size of a baby cell and undergoes multiple rounds of division.
Binary Fission
Most common type of division of Prokaryotes
FtsZ Protein
Involved in the mechanism of septation, forming a ring below the cytoplasmic membrane on the equator after chromosome replication
The Baby Machine
This device allows bacterial cultures to be synchronized to study aspects of cell division.
Interdivision Time
Synchronicity is largely lost by the third generation due to variations in the ______________ of individual cells.
Interdivision Time (division Time)
Period between the birth of a new cell, by division of its precursor and its own division into two baby cells
Generation time
The time required for a cell population to double in number.
>60 minutes
Time constraint that makes bacterial cells to have a period equivalent to G1
C period
Period of the bacterial cell that involves chromosome replication
D Period
Period of the bacterial cell between chromosome replication completion and cell division.
Older
_______ poles of bacterial cells slow division time.
spectophotometry
Shines light of a chosen wavelength through a liquid growth culture to determine absorbance. Used to measure generation time and
cell number.
Plate counts
This method of measuring growth can reliably enumerate live microbial cells in a batch culture.
batch population
name for mixture of cell subpopulations
Lag, Balanced, Stationary, Death
4 Phases of batch culture growth

Balanced
Stage of a Batch culture in which primary metabolites are produced.
Stationary
Stage of a batch culture in which secondary metabolites are produced.
maintenance energy
Name for the energy requirement for non-growing cells
Exponential
Microbial death is __________.
Death
Defined as the loss of ability to multiply
chemostat
Used to study microbial growth with constant nutrient concentrations over thousands of generations.
Batch Culture
A bioreactor will run in ___________ mode to harvest cells or cell products.
10
Most prokaryotes have a ___ degrees Celsius growth range
psychrophile
cell that grows between 0 and 20 degrees
mesophile
thermophile
hyperthermophile
cell that grows above 80 degrees
Acidophile
cell that grows in a pH below 4
neutrophile
cell that grows in a pH between 4 and 8

alkaliphile
cell that grows in a pH above 8
Nonhalophile
cell that rows in an osmolarity range under 1
halophile
cell that grows in an osmolarity range of about 2
extreme halophile
cell that grows in an osmolarity range above 1.5
bacillus
rod shaped
coccus
sphere shaped
spiral
spiral shaped
single, pair, chain
types of bacillus arrangements
single, pair, tetrad, cluster, chain
types of coccus arrangements
vibrio, spirillum, spirochete
types of spiral arrangments.
cell envelope
term including cell membranes, cell walls, and cytoskeletal proteins
dilute
are most prokaryotic environments more concentrated or dilute than the cell cytoplams?
osmotic cell lysis
cell walls protect against _____________.
Gram-Negative Envelope
Envelope that consists of an outer phospholipid bilayer membrane, a single layer of peptidoglycan, and in inner membrane.
Gram-Positive Envelope
Envelope that consists of Multiple layers of peptidoglycan and a inner cell membrane.
Planctomycetes
This type of bacterium are the only prokaryotes with a membrane bound nucleoid, which likely protects it from certain DNA
damaging metabolites
Mycobacterium envelope
Envelope consisting of a capsule, outer membrane, SMALLER peptidoglycan layer, glycolipid containing periplasmic space, and a
Corynebacterium envelope
Envelope consisting of a capsule, outer membrane, LARGER peptidoglycan layer, glycolipid containing periplasmic space, and a
Mycoplasma Cytoskeleton
Contains a complex, interlocking system of proteins underneath and extending through their cytoplasmic membrane
Simple/surface protein layer
archaeal cell envelope consisting of an s-layer protein and a cytoplasmic membrane
pseudopeptidoglycan layer envelope
archaeal cell envelope that consists of a protein layer, pseudopeptidoglycan layer, and cytoplasmic membrane
Peptidoglyan
This molecule is comprised of individual glycan stands corss-linked by peptides
transpeptidation reaction
process that crosslinks the polysaccharide chains to produce peptidoglycan
sacculus, wrapped coils
The ________ of gram negative cells and ________ of gram positive cells are comprised of peptidoglycan.
beta lactum antibiotics
blocks the transpeptidation reaction by binding to PBP's that catalyze peptidoglycan transpeptidation
Dont make peptidoglycan, produce excess penicillin binding proteins, produce penicillinase
Ways to counteract beta-lactum antibiotics
true
True or False: Pseudopeptidoglycan is not susceptible to beta lactum antibiotics
techoic acid
Polymers of sugar and alcohol phosphates that are laced through Gram-Positive peptidoglycan and presumed to be important in
linking the peptidoglycan layer to the cytoplasmic membrane
lysozyme
enzyme produced by animals that can degrade peptidoglycan
Gram Negative
Which cell envelope contains Lipopolysaccharide
Endotoxin
Name for the hydrophobic, membrane bound Lipid A Portion of the LPS molecule
Hopanoids
The prokarotic cell used this compound instead of sterols
Squalene
Hopanoids are derived from squalene
Ether
The archaeal cytoplasmic membrane is comprised of either a bilayer or monolayer of _____ linked lipids
Nucleoid
Structure that contains the chromosomes of a prokaryotic cell
terminus, origin of replication
The closed, circular, super-coiled chromosome of the prokaryotic cells contains a ________ at one end and an ________ at the other.
Polyamines
The compaction of DNA into the nucleoid requires neutralization of DNA charges by this compound.
Plasmids
small, circular DNA molecules distinguished from chromosomes by their lack of genes essential for growth and other cellular
functions.
DNA Gyrase
This compound is an essential enzyme involved in the super-coiling of DNA
quinolone
this group of antibiotics inhibits DNA gyrase
Coupled
Transciption and Translation are ________ in prokaroytes

Autoradiography
When radioactive decay precipitates silver grains in silver emulsion photographic film.
MreB and FtsZ
two principle proteins involved in prokaryotic cell cytokinesis
MreB
Protein that helps determine cell shape and is involved in intracellular motility and cell polarity
Iatrogenic
caused by a health-care professional (dentist,doctor) as a result of some treatment or procedure
ex-root canal or colonoscopy>>infection
Nosocomial
acquired in a hospital (because immunity is low)
Community Acquired
acquired outside of hospital environment
ex-school, home
Horizontal
transmission of infection from PERSON TO PERSON
ex-direct contact, sneeze or cough, fecal-oral route, STD, etc
Vertical
infected mother transmits to her unborn/newborn child
1. in utero: across placenta, ascending to uterus from vagina
2. at birth: passage thru vagina
3. after birth: breast-feeding
Vector-borne
pathogens are introduced into the host by intervention of some INSECTS. The insect is the vector. The reservoir is usually some
animal. The human is the host.
Zoonotic
have ANIMALS as reservoir, and the infections spread to human hosts by direct contact with the animals. If human is infected, some
horizontal or vertical transmission can occur
ex-bites or scratches, drinking water exposed to animal urine or feces, or ingestion of food products made from animals
ex-hamburger or pink (raw) chicken
Exogenous
infection comes from source OUTSIDE the host's body
Endogenous
infection comes from source WITHIN the host's body
ex-direct extension, hematological spread, lymphangytic spread, ascending, aspiration into respiratory tract from regurgitation or from
lack of cough response, auto-inoculation
Auto-Inoculation
infection transferred from one place on the host's body to another place on the host's body, usually carried on hand after touching the
infected site or poor hygiene
What are two disadvantages of using chemotheraputic compounds as food preservatives?
1. the cost outweighs the benefits
2. Leads to resistance of chemotheraputic agent
Proton ionosphores
organic acids that inhibit the membrane transport functions. Disassociate once inside the cell, disrupting the PMF. Arrests growth of
cell.
What was the first chemical food preservative approved in the US by the FDA?
Benzoate
Finding pH
pH = pKa + log [A]/[HA]
Parabens
esters of hydroxyparabenzoic acid.
How are parabens less sensitive to pH than most other ionophores?
pKa of paraben is 8.7, so they are still effective at pHs as high as 8.0
What form of paraben is the most effective?
heptyl, which is more effective than propyl, which is more effective than methyl.
Propionate structure
CHCHCOOH
Propionate
Propionate salts are permitted in breads, cakes, and certain cheeses, used as a mold inhibitor. Most effective in acid foods (pKa = 4.87)
Sorbic Acid
pKa = 4.80, more effective in acid foods. primarily effective against yeasts and molds, used in cheese, bakery products, fruit juices,
beverages, salad dressings, and jellies.
What food is V. parahaemolyticus usually associated with?
seafood, especially in shellfish and mollusks

At what season do most V. cholerae outbreaks occur?
V. cholerae thrives in warm water, therefore most foodborne outbreaks occur during the summer.
What type of infection does V. vulnificus cause?
Associated with wound infections, septicemia, and gastroenteritis.
V. vulnificus is assumed to be responsibile for about __% of all seafood-associated deaths in the U.S.
95
Foodborne illnesses caused by B. cereus
1. Diarrheal syndrome - toxin produced during exponential growth.
2. Emitic syndrome - heat and pH-stable enterotoxin - nausea, vomiting, cramps and diarrhea 1-6 hours after eating food.
Foodborne disease caused by Yersinia enterocolitica
Found in the intestinal tract of animals, pigs are the greatest source of infection to humans. Virulence results in tissue invasion after
ingestion of live cells. Includes fever, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and sometimes vomiting. Mimics appendicitis.
Three major parasites that are involved in foodborne disease
1. Giardiasis - found in water, includes diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss. Contaminated water is the most common source.
2. Cryptosporidosis - fecal-oral transmission and water transmission. Excyst in the small intestine and invade host cells, can be lifethreatening in immunocompromised individuals
3. Trichinosis - caused by the roundwork Trichinella spiralis. Contracted most frequently by undercooked pork products.
Mycotoxins
Toxic substances produced by a variety of molds. They are produced as secondary metabolites. Aflatoxins are the most dangerous, and
are found on a wide variety of foods.
Food poisoning caused by the ingestion of mycotoxins is called __________.
mycotoxicosis
Most carcinogenic class of mycotoxins
aflatoxins
Large doses of aflatoxins can cause
chronic liver disease or liver cancer.
Hepatitis A
RNA virus identified in more foodborne outbreaks than any other virus. Fever, anorexia, nausea, jaundice, are some symptoms.
Rotaviruses
RNA virus, estimated to cause 1/3 of hospitalizations for diarrhea in kids under 5.
Norwalk Virus
Leading cause of gastroenteritis
Scombroid posioning
caused by bacterial decarboxylation of histidine to histamine in fish. Includes flushed face, sensation of heat, burning of mouth of
throat.
Paralytic shellfish poisoning
syndrome associated with the consumption of toxic clams, mussels, oysters, scallops, and cockles. A heat-stable neurotoxin called
saxitoxin causes cardiovascular and respiratory failure in humans. Symptoms appear within 2 hours after eating contaminated
mollusks and are characterized by tingling, numbness, or burning around the mouth which spreads to the face, scalp, neck, fingertips,
and toes. Vomiting may also occur.
Sulfur dioxide and sulfites as chemical food preservatives
200-300 ppm max allowable level in foods such as molasses, dried fruits, wine, and lemon juice. More effective at acid pH.
Problems with the use of sulfites in food products
1. Salad bars - 1-2% of severely asthmatic people are hypersensitive to sulfites and were poisoned at salad bars
2. Meats - sulfites in meats were used until 1813 because they can remove decaying odor and impart a bright red color, was banned
3. Vitamins - sulfurous acid and sulfits destroy thiamine, therefore are not permitted in foods which are recommended sources of
Vitamin B
Nitrites and Nitrates in food preservation
Used in meat to:
1. stabilize the read meat color
2. inhibit spoilage and pathogenic microorganisms
3. contribute to flavor
How do nitrites and nitrates keep meat red? And how do they inhibit the growth of pathogenic and spoilage microorganisms?
A. Nitrate is reduced by bacteria to nitrite, which is further reduced to NO, which reacts with heme or iron-sulfur groups
B. In meat, NO reacts with the heme in myoglobin to form nitrosohemochrome which gives meat a red color
C. In bacteria, NO reacts with and destroys the iron-sulfur enzyme ferredoxin which is involved in ATP synthesis, ultimately killing
bacteria--mainly Clostridium
Nitrite use in meats can lead to the formation of ________ ________.
carcinogenic nitrosamines
Ethylene and propylene oxides in food preservation
antifungal gases used a fumigants to sterilize packaging containers for aseptically processed foods. Also used on dried fruits and
spices. They are unstable ring structures that inactivate proteins with susceptible groups.
Nisin as a food preservative
bacteriocin, used in processed dairy foods and low acid canned foods.
Useful properties:
1. nontoxic to humans
2. "natural"
3. heat stable
4. good storage stability
5. doesn't create off odors or flavors
6. no cross resistance to other clinical antibiotics
Why is Nisin beneficial to use in low acid canned foods?
The use in low acid canned food allows a dramatic reduction in heat processing time and temperature--gives increased quality to the
food.
What are some examples of indirect antimicrobials in food preservation?
1. Antioxidants
2. Falvoring agents (diacetyl, wood smoke)
3. Natrual spices
What are the two types of thermal destruction of microorganisms?
1. Pasteurization
2. Sterilization
What is pasteurization designed to destory?
Treatment is designed to destory the most heat-resistant nonsporeforming pathogens. Kills yeasts, molds, gram- and most gram+
bacteria. Thermophilic and thermoduric organisms may survive
What are the pasteurization temperatures and times for milk and eggs?
Milk - LTLT - 63C for 30 min. HTST - 72 for 15 s
Eggs - 60C for 4 min.
Sterilization
The destruction of all viable organisms as measured by an apporpriate enumeration method. "commercially sterile" means that no
viable MO can be detected or else the number of survivors is so low that they are of no consequence
standard for UHT milk
140-150C for a few seconds
What is the relationship between heat resistance of MOs and their optimal growth temperature?
1. Psychrophiles are the most sensitive, thermophiles are the most resistant
2. Sporeforming bacteria are more resistant than nonsporeformers
3. G+ in general are more resistant than G- bacteria
4. Yeasts and molds are fairly heat sensitive, their spores are only slightly more heat-resistant than the vegetative cells
What determines the heat resistance of spores?
Degree of protoplast dehydration, spore protoplasts are rich in Ca and diplionic acid, which together make a gel that enables spores
to remain viable with very little cytoplasmic water. The drier the spore, the more heat resistant it is.
Other factors affecting heat resistance in MOs?
1. Water - heat resistance increasing with decreasing moisture. Proteins do not denature as rapidly
2. Fat - in the presence of fats, heat resistance increases, (reduces cell moisture)
3. Salts - either increase or decrease, depends on the salt
4. pH - MOs are most resistant at their optimal growth pH
5. Number of MO - the more MO, the more heat resistant
6. Age of MO - most heat resistant is the stationary phase of growth. Old spores are more heat resistant than young ones.
7. Growth temp = heat resistance increases with incubation temp. Stress adaptation
8. Inhibitory Compounds - heat resistance decreases in the presence of heat-resistant inhibitors (nisin)
9. Time/Temp relationship - as temp increases, less time is needed to cause the desired kill level
Thermal Death Time (TDT)
time needed to kill a given number of MO at a specified temperature.
D value (Decimal reduction time)
time in minutes needed at a specified temperature to kill 90% of the MO and thus drop the counts by one log
z value
the degree in F required for the thermal destruction curve to drop one log cycle.
F value
the time in minutes that are required to kill all spores or cells at 250F
Radappertization
Sterilization treatment
Radicidation
Pasteurization treatment designed specifically to destroy all non-sporeforming pathogens
Raduriztion
Thermization-like treatment aimed at reducing numbers of viable spoilage MOs
Types of radiation
1. UV light - Powerful bactericidal, non-ionizing, only used on surfaces
2. Beta rays - poor penetration but better than UV, cause ionization of other molecules
3. Microwave - rapidly alternating electromagnetic field, polar molecules try to align and friction is created as they switch back and
forth
4. Gamma and X Rays - very effective. penetrate almost anything
Quick or Fast Freezing
Drops food to -20C within 30 min.
Slow freezing
desired temp is reached in 3-72 hr.
a. done at home
b. large ice crystals are formed which can disrupt cells
Preservation by drying
Fruits are pasteruized after drying, meats are usually cooked before they are dried
1. Low-moisture - no more than 25% moisture, freeze-dried or beef jerky
2. 15-50% moisture, dried fruits, cake, sugars, etc.
What are the two general types of dairy fermentations?
1. Cheeses - needs acid-producing mesophilic or thermophilic (tem-dep). May include a seconday fermentation. Some require starters.
2. Semi-solid Milks - yogurt, sour cream, buttermilk, keifer. MO needed for acid and sometimes flavor production. Ethanol can be
produced, source of beneficial bacteria
Three main sources of rennet
1. calf stomach extract (traditional)
2. microbial rennets
3. recombinant chymosin
Key steps of making cheddar cheese
1. Cook - 39-40C. Starter is mesophilic lactococci.
2. Cheddaring - the curd is spread evenly over the bottom of the vat after whey removal and allowed to knit for 15 min. A knife is used
to cut the curd longitudinally down the middle, and horizontally at 10 inch intervals. The curd blocks are spaced about 1 inch apart,
allowed to rest for 15 min, and then flipped over until the TA of the draining whey reaches 0.5-0.6%, then they are milled
3. Salting - Salt is directly added to curd, 2-2.3% (w/w)
4. Ripening - 6-10% for 3 months to a year. secondary microbiota appear that provide proteases and lipases
Impact of LAB on cheese flavor
1. Fermentation and depletion of fermentable sugar
2. Creating a low REDOX potential. Promotes the stabilization of volatile flavor compounds
3. Synergism among bacteria. Lactate provides basis for secondary fermentation - leads to protelolysis and lipolysis
What two microorganisms exhibit symbiotic growth in yogurt?
1. L. delbruekii - provides proteolysis, degrades casein and provides S. thermophilus with essential amino acids needed for growth.
2. S. thermophilus - produces trace amounts of formic acid and CO which stimulates the growth of L. delbruekii
The most important flavor compound in yogurt
acetaldehyde
Difference between set and stirred yogurt
1. Set - product is formed when fermentation and coagulation of milk is carried out in the retail container, and the yogurt produced is
in a continuous semi-solid mass
2. Stirred - results when the coagulum is produced in bulk and the gel structure is broken before cooling and packaging
Propionibacterium
added with thermophilic stater to Swiss cheese. It ferments lactate to carbon dioxide for eyes, propionic acid and acetic acid for flavor.
Brevibacterium
Used to surface ripen Limburger cheese. It produces reddish brown surface slime. Brevibacterium's proteolytic and lipolytic enzymes
diffuse into the cheese and produce the characteristic aroma and flavor of Limburger.
Penicillium roqueforti
Powdered spores that are sprinkled on blue cheese after whey is drained. Produces blue veins .
Penicillium camemberti
Spores are sprayed on cheese to produce the flavor of Camembert and Brie.
Leuconostoc mesenteroides
Initiate fermentation at salt levels below 5%. Early growth is more rapid than other LAB species. Produces CO2 and organic acids,
which drops the pH and inhibit undesirable microorganisms that can damage the product.
Acetobacter and Gluconobacter
Acetic acid bacteria gram - rods, aerobic, nonfermentative and oxidize alcohols to keto compounds in vinegar production. Acetobacer
usually use in commercial settings. Acetobacter grows as a thick film on the surface.
Candida milleri/ Lactobacillus sanfrancisco
From the starter sponge for San Francisco sourdough. Candida milleri - yeast, acid tolerant that ferments maltose. Lactobacillus
sanfrancisco - bacterium, heterofermantative LAB that requires and acidic environment, unsaturated fatty acids and a CO2 rich
atmosphere.
Aspergillus orysae/ Pediococcus soyae
Used in the production of soy sauce. A. orysae is added in the beginning of production to the tane koji to aid in fermentation. Once
brine is added the high salt content kills the A. orysae and the fermentation is taken over by LAB's like P. soyae.
When was penicillin discovered?
In 1928
What increased as the usage of antibiotics increased?
The complexity of resistance mechanisms in bacteria also increased.
What are antibiotic used for?
- Treating diseases
- Growth promoters
- Improving feed efficiency
Tetracyclines are most commonly used in what in Europe?
Pig production
In Europe antibiotics for growth are banned in what species?
chickens and swine
In the United States there has been how big of an increase in the usage for growth promotion?
80-fold increase.
Which antibiotics are permitted for the use in animal production?

penicillins, tetracyclines, sulfonamides, macrolides, arsenicals, polypeptides, glycolipids, elfamycine, lincosamides, ionophores,
quinoxalines
What is banned in the United States Animal Agriculture in the 1980s
Chloramphenicol
Chloramphenicol resistant porcine_________
E.coli
Talk about the environmental persistence of antibiotics
- Many antibiotics are poorly absorbed in animal's gut
- 90% antibiotic is excreted in urine and 75% in animal feces
- Antibiotic metabolites are bioactive, transformed back to the parent compound after excretion.
Which Clostridium bacteria has been an emerging antibiotic resistant?
C. difficile
What are the implications of Antibiotic resistance
- Increased virulence of pathogens
- Rapidity of resistance development in bacteria
- Higher health care costs
- Increase in mortality rate due to treatment failure.
- Major risk factor for development of resistance = misuse and overuse of antimicrobial drugs.
What are the major risk factors for the development of resistance?
The misuse and overuse of antimicrobial drugs. This is for the use of growth promoters as well as in hospitals.
What is the most multi-drug resistant pathogen?
MDR Salmonella spp.
What three pathogens bear the Extended Spectrum Beta-lactamase (ESBL)?
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Escherichia coli
3. Klebsiella pneumoniae
What is an Extensively Drug Resistant (XDR) bacterium?
Acinetobacter baumannii (Iraqibacter)
What is the Acinetobacter baumannii (Iraqibacter baumannii)?
- gram negative pathogenic bacterium
- Non-motile, opportunistic
- Wounded, elderly, children, immune compromised
- Present in soil
- Resistant to most of the currently used antibiotics
- Multiple reports on the infections in American soldiers wounded in Iraq ("Iraqibacter")
- First line of treatment - carbapenems
- Strains resistant to carbapenems

- Polymixins and tigecyclines - antibiotics for treatment
All Salmonella Typhimurium isolated (1940-1948) from farm aniamls and humans in USA were sensitive to what?
tetracycline
After the introduction of tetracycline in 1948, how did S. Typhimurium become affected?
It's resistance increased steadily
What is DT104?
Salmonella Typhimurium definitive phage type 104
What is the USDA situation assessment report of the DT104 infections?
- ~296,000 human infections annually
- 900 million US dollars loss per year
- Extensive reservoir species
- Vehicles - dairy products/water/fruits/vegetables
Multi-drug resistant (MDR) clonal groups are resistant to how many antibiotics
More than 9 antibiotics.
What is ACSSuT?
its the resistance common for the Salmonella Typhimurium strain.
DT104 has antibiotic resistance due to what five genes?
Streptomycin(aadA2), Sulphonamides(sul1), Florfenicol(floR), Tetracyclines (tetA(G)), and Beta-lactam (blaP1)
DT104 is thought to have acquired the resistance plasmids from what?
aquaculture pathogens
What are Integrons?
- Genetic units conferring antibiotic resistance
- Capture and incorporate gene cassettes by site-specific recombination.
What are several ways of antibiotic resistance mediation in DT104?
1. Efflux pump - the pumps take the antibodies from inside to outside of the cell.
2. Reduced uptake - cell wall prevents entry of antibiotics.
3. Overproduction of target enzyme
4. Metabolic bypass - If antibiotic destroys 1 pathway the cell will create another.
5. Degrading enzymes
6. Altering enzymes - rendering the antibodies inactive.
The mechanisms of Multi Drug resistance in A. baumannii are similar to what?
Similar to the mechanisms of Salmonella Typhimurium DT104
_____________ - Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
_____________ - Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (VRSA)
Methicillin
Vancomycin
Vibrio
Gram negative, facultatively anaerobic rods
V. parahaemolyticus
Almost always linked to seafood, especially shellfish and mollusks. Incidence in the U.S. is relatively low, but it is a leading cause of
food infection in Japan.
Incubation time = 3 to 76 hrs. after ingestion of about 105 cells.
Diarrhea, cramps, weakness, nausea and sometimes chills, headache and vomiting. Symptoms last 1-8 days.
Temp. range is 5-44 C (opt. 30-35 C). pH range is 4.8 -11.0 with optimal growth between 7.6-8.6. Grow in 1-8% NaCl (optimal =
2.4%). Generation time can be as short as 9-13 min. Considered to be heat sensitive but if high cell numbers are present, some may
linger even after 15 min at 80 C.d
V. cholerae
Were separated into two serological groups; strains that caused epidemic cholera all belonged to serovar 0 Group 1, while more
common non-01 strains were responsible for gastroenteritis, soft tissue infections, and septicemia in human. Both types common in
warm ocean waters around California, Texas, Louisiana, and Florida.
However, at least one non-01 strain, V. cholerae 0139, is responsible for an epidemic of cholera that started in India in 1992. This is a
cause for real concern because 01 vaccines do not protect against the new strain and conventional laboratory methods for
identification of 01-type cannot detect this new serotype.
Nearly all outbreaks are linked to the consumption of raw shellfish especially oysters.
Cholera is caused by V. cholerae colonization of the intestines followed by the production of cholera enterotoxin (CT). After a 2-5 day
incubation period, diarrhea, which is characterized by rice-water appearance (clear with small clumps of dead cells) can be profuse.
Abdominal pain and sometimes vomiting are also symptoms.
V. vulnificus
Usually associated with wound infections, a serious form of septicemia (mortality >50%) and gastroenteritis. As few as 100 CFU may
be enough to cause disease. Immunocompromised people, especially those with liver disease, are at greatest risk. Other risk factors
include persons with iron overload. Men over 40 are the most frequent victims. Over 70% of infected persons will develop bulbous
skin lesions.
This bacterium is believed to be responsible for about 95% of all seafood-associated deaths in the U.S. It is frequently isolated from
clams and oysters.
V. hollisae
Another species that causes foodborne gastroenteritis.
Bacillus cereus
Aerobic, sporeforming-rod found in dust, soil and water. Grows at temp range of 4-50 C, pHs between 4.9-9.3.
Strains associated with foodborne illness produce emetic (vomiting) or diarrheal toxins in contaminated foods.
The diarrheagenic toxin is designated hemolysin BL produced during exponential growth. Favored in pH range of 6.0-8.5. Relatively
mild. Symptoms include nausea, cramps, and diarrhea within 8-16 h after eating food contaminated with 10^7-10^8 CFU/g of B.
cereus and they last another 6-12 h. B. mycoides and a few other species of Bacillus also produce diarrheagenic enterotoxins.
Symptoms of emetic syndrome are more severe including nausea and vomiting, sometimes accompanied by cramps and diarrhea, 1-6
h after eating food (usually fried or boiled rice dishes) contaminated with the heat-and pH stable enterotoxin. Cell numbers as high as
10^9/g may be necessary to produce sufficient toxin in the food.
Yersinia enterocolitica
Gram -, fac. anaerobic rod found in soils and water and are also found in the intestinal tracts of animals. It is widely believed that pigs
are the single greatest source in humans.
Symptoms appear 1-2 days after eating contaminated food and include fever, abdominal pain, diarrhea and sometimes vomiting.
Because these symptoms mimic appendicitis, a major "complication" of yersiniosis is unnecessary appendectomy surgery. Outbreaks
are more frequent in the fall than in the spring and often strike the very young and old.
Can grow between -2 to 45 C (no other pathogen displays psychrotrophic growth). Destroyed by heating 1-3 min at 60 C.
Parasites cannot grow in food or on culture media and many require more than one animal host to carry out their life cycle.
True. The definitive host is the animal in which the adult parasite carries out its sexual cycle, while the intermediate host is the one in
which larval or juvenile forms develop.
Since parasites cannot be grown in culture media, their presence in food must be detected by direct examination after concentration
and staining.
Giardia lamblia
Flagellate protozoan that exists in water. Beaver and muskrats are major sources of this organism in water. Produces cysts which are
its primary form in water and food. Cysts excyst in the G.I. tract with the help of stomach acids and proteases and cause clinical
giardiasis in some people. Estimates suggest that as many as 15% of the entire U.S. population is infected with this organism.
The infectious dose is thought to be as few as 10 cysts, and incubation time is 7-13 days with cysts appearing in stools after 3-4 weeks.
Symptoms include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss. Without treatment, symptoms can last months to a year or more.
Giardiasis is highly contagious, with infected persons shedding as many as 9 x 10^8 cysts/day, and cysts can persist for 3 months in
sewage.
Contaminated water is the most common source but fecal contamination of food by humans or animal pests has also been implicated
in disease.
Cryptosporidium parvum
Known pathogen to mammals, birds, and reptiles. Found in environmental waters so transmission through food involves contaminated
water and fecal-oral transmission.
Produces thick-walled, environmentally-resistant oocysts that, when ingested, excyst in the small intestine and invade host cells.
Symptoms include diarrhea and are self-limiting in healthy persons but can be life-threatening in immunocompromised persons like
AIDS patients.
Trichinella spiralis
Althought trichinosis is contracted most frequently by undercooked pork or pork products, about 75 different species can be infected
with this organism including bears, cougars, and marine mammals. Birds appear to be resistant to infection.
Stomach enzymes free the encysted larvae, which then mature in the lumen of the intestines. They remain in the intestine for about 1
month without producing any symptoms (unless high numbers were ingested, in which case symptoms may appear after 1-2 days),
before eggs hatch and larvae penetrate the gut wall, causing nausea, abdominal pain, diarrhea and sometimes vomiting. These
symptoms may persist for several days.
The larvae pass throughout the body and 7-9 days after initial symptoms, begin to penetrate skeletal muscles, especially those in the
eye, tongue, and diaphragm. As the larvae burrow in, patients experience severe pain, fever, and sometimes death from heart failure.
The larvae grow in the muscle then encyst in a calcified wall 6-18 months later. They will not undergo any further development unless
consumed by another animal, but can remain viable for up to 10 years in a living host.
To prevent trichinosis, USDA recommends cooking suspect meat to 170 F (76.7oC) or higher. Freezing is also effective in destroying
T. spiralis; 30 days at -15 C should inactivate the larvae. Microwave cooking is a particular concern with trichinosis because rapid
heating and uneven cooking can allow some larvae to persist.
Mycotoxins are produced as secondary metabolites (non-essential for growth, produced during late exponential phase).
True.
Aflatoxins
Most widely studied and most carcinogenic of all mycotoxins. Discovered in 1960 when peanut meal for turkeys, which had been
contaminated with A. flavus. Also produced by A. parasiticus and A. nominus. 18 aflatoxins have been identified and the most potent
one AFB1, is produced by all AF-positive strains. Six aflatoxins, including AFB1 fluoresce under UV light.
Lethal if eaten in large dosages, sub-lethal doses can cause chronic liver disease or liver cancer. In general, young animals are more
susceptible to their effects. Mutagenic effects include point mutations and frameshifts.
Aspergillus growth and aflatoxin production are favored by warm temperatures and humidity.
Aspergillus spp., Penicillium spp. and other genera of molds produce other important mycotoxins such as citrinin, penicillic
acid, and patulin.
True.
Ergot
Claviceps purpurea is a mold that usually grows on rye. Under moist, cool conditions, this mold produces a group of related alkaloids
collectively referred to as ergot. The primary cleavage product of ergot upon alkaline hydrolysis is lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD),
and some mycologists believe this reaction can occur in the natural state. Individuals who ingest sufficient amounts of ergot
experience a type of poisoning whose symptoms are similar (but usually more severe) to those of persons that ingest LSD.
FDA has established practical levels for toxins like aflatoxin:
20 ppb in most susceptible commodities, 15 ppb in peanut products, 100 ppb in animal feed-except 20 ppb for dairy cattle food. But
safe tolerance levels for most mycotoxins have not been established.
What can you do to prevent mycotoxicosis?
With moldy cheese; if mold developed in fridge, aflatoxins aren't prod at that temp. so just trim inch (1.3 cm) below growth to avoid
fungal metabolites. Don't try to trim soft cheeses like cream or cottage cheeses. Use good sanitation, handling and storage practices to
delay mold growth. Discard moldy foods outside of your kitchen to prevent high spore numbers near your food handling area.
It is generally accepted that a significant percentage of the foodborne illnesses where etiologic agents cannot be identified are
probably due to viruses.
True. In fact, viral gastroenteritis is believed by some to be second only to the common cold in frequency.
Hepatitis A
RNA virus identified in more foodborne outbreaks than any other virus. UT has highest rate in U.S. with >1000 cases in 1996 and
about 600 in 1997. Fever, anorexia, nausea and abdominal discomfort followed by jaundice 15-45 days after ingestion of virus.
Symptoms last 1-2 weeks. Chronic liver disease is rare, and lifetime immunity follows an attack. A Hep A vaccine has recently been
approved by FDA. Outbreaks of a more serious hepatitis virus, Hep E, are linked to food in developing countries.
Rotaviruses
RNA virus. Six groups identified and 3 are known to be infectious to humans. Estimated to cause 1/3 of hospitalizations for diarrhea in
kids under 5. Children 6 month-2 yrs. are most susceptible, and every U.S. child is infected by age 4. Infection produces immunity but
high doses or lowered immunity can lead to mild illness in older children and adults.
Transmission usually occurs through daycare centers and water, with only sporadic foodborne transmission. Incubation time is 2 days,
vomiting for 3 days, watery diarrhea for 3-8 days with abdominal pain and fever are symptoms.
Norwalk and Norwalk-like viruses
Small, round RNA viruses that are a leading cause of gastroenteritis. Placed into 3 groups based on morphology:
1. SRSVS (small round structural viruses). Infective in older children and adults. Associated with travelers diarrhea and polluted water
is an obvious source. Most outbreaks have been traced to raw oysters. Incubation time is 18-48 hours, and symptoms include nausea,
vomiting, nonbloody diarrhea and abdominal cramps. Illness lasts 1-2 days.
2. Caliciviruses. Have surface hollows, cause vomiting and diarrhea in children, 1-3 days incubation time.
3. Astroviruses. Contain a 5 or 6-pointed surface star. Cause gastroenteritis in children and adults but children <7 are most susceptible.
Symptoms appear after 1-2 days and include vomiting, diarrhea and fever.
Poliovirus
Can also occur in shellfish collected from polluted waters. There is a low incidence of poliomyelitis in the U.S. but relaxed
immunization requirements in schoolchildren could lead to new outbreaks. Disease still occurs in many nations.
Transmission of AIDS, HBV or herpesvirus has never been linked to food.
True.
Inactivating viruses in foods:
Some viruses can persist in foods for more than one week at 23 C and several months at 4 C. Heat is the most useful method. Even
modest heat will inactivate foreseeable numbers of virus.
Scombroid poisoning
Caused by bacterial decarboxylation of histidine to form histamine in fish or fish products. Often due to Morganella spp. But other
bacteria can be involved. Histamine formation is favored by low pH and temps above 30 C. Symptoms appear within min or up to 3
hours, include flushed face, sensation of heat, burning in mouth or throat, general discomfort and diarrhea followed by intense
headache which diminishes to a dull ache. Dizziness, itching and faintness may also be experienced. Cooking may not destroy
histamine once it has formed in food.
Paralytic shellfish poisoning
Syndrome associated with the consumption of toxic clams, mussels, oysters, scallops and cockles. The shellfish become toxic after
eating certain species of dinoflagellates from the genus Gonyaulax. In the U.S., G. catenella occurs on the Pacific coast, while the
more toxic species, G. tamarensis is found on the Atlantic coast over to northern Europe. A 3rd species, G. acatenella is found off
British Columbia. Large blooms of these microbes give rise to the red tide condition on oceans.
The dinoflagellates contain a heat-stable neurotoxin called saxitoxin that causes cardiovascular and respiratory failure in humans. The
maximum safe level of saxitoxin is 80 mg/100g. Symptoms appear within 2 hours after eating contaminated mollusks and are
characterized by tingling, numbness or burning around the mouth which spreads to the face, scalp, neck, fingertips and toes. Vomiting
may also occur. There is no known antidote and the mortality rate varies between 1-22%.
Why aren't chemotherapeutic compounds (e.g. antibiotics) used as food preservatives?
The costs of this practice outweigh the benefits, and it invariably leads to microorganisms which are resistant to the agent.
Proton ionosphores
Organic acids that inhibit membrane transport functions. In their undissociated state, these acids are soluble in the cell membrane and
so will move into the cell by simple diffusion. Once inside the cell, they dissociate. As more and more protons are released, membrane
potential is disrupted and the proton-motive force is lost. Although cells may not die, growth is arrested.
Benzoic acid
Sodium benzoate was the first chemical food preservative approved in the U.S. by FDA.
Like all proton ionophores, antimicrobial activity is related to pH because only the undissociated molecule is inhibitory. The pK for
benzoate is 4.20 so at pH 6 only 1.5% is undissociated. Consequently benzoate is only effective in high acid foods (apple cider, soda,
catsup, salad dressings, margarine), where its action is primarily aimed at fungi (molds are inhibited more than yeasts).
Maximum permissible amount is 0.1%. In fruit juices, even this level may impart a peppery or burning taste.
Parabens
Esters of hydroxyparabenzoic acid. Far less sensitive to pH than most other ionophores (pKs around 8.7; so effective at pHs as high as
8.0).
Propylparaben is more effective than methyl, and heptyl may be most effective of the 3.
Propyl and methyl have the same max level as benzoate (0.1%), heptyl is allowed at 12 ppm in beer and 20 ppm in noncarbonated and
fruit-based beverages. Also, more effective against molds than yeasts.
Propionate
Ca2+ and Na+ salts permitted in breads, cakes, certain cheeses and other foods, mostly as a mold inhibitor. Also most effective in acid
foods, pK = 4.87. Probably not effective at pHs around 7.0 or above. 0.32% max allowable level.
Sorbic acid
Ca2+, Na+, or K+ salts used as a food preservative at levels not to exceed 0.2%.
pK is 4.80, also more effective in acid foods, ineffective at pH 6.5, but more inhibitory than benzoate when pH is between 4.0-6.0,
same as benzoate but better than propionate at pH<3.0.
Can use higher levels in cakes than propionates without leaving off-flavor.
Although primarily effective against yeasts and molds, sorbic acid is also effective against a wide range of bacteria including Staph,
salmonellae, coliforms, psychrotophic spoilage bacteria, and Vibrio parahaemolyticus. Lactic acid bacteria are resistant to sorbate, esp.
at pH>4.5, so it is used to control fungi in lactic fermentations.
Widely used in cheese, bakery products, fruit juices, beverages, salad dressings, jellies.
Sulfur dioxide and sulfites
200-300 ppm is max allowable level in foods such as molasses, dried fruits, wine, and lemon juice. These compound are more
effective at acid pH.
100-200 ppm SO2 is bacteriostatic to Acetobacter spp. Lactic acid bacteria (higher levels are bactericidal to these and a few other
species of bacteria).
0.2-20 ppm inhibits yeasts like Saccharomyces and Candida. Molds are even more sensitive.
Sulfites also reduce S-S bonds and so can destroy activity in enzymes with these linkages.
Although it is still used to prevent browning in dried foods (where its presence is revealed on the product label), use in salad has been
prohibited because 1-2% of severely asthmatic people are hypersensitive to sulfites.
Bisulfite can be used to destroy aflatoxins AFB1 and AFB2. 1% bisulfate reduced 250 ppb of AFB1 28.2% in 72 hours, and addition
of 0.2% H2O2 increased aflatoxin degradation to 65.5%.
Sulfites were used as meat preservatives as early as 1813 but because they can remove decaying odor and impart a bright red color,
that use has been banned.
Sulfurous acid and sulfites also destroy thiamine so they are not permitted in foods which are recommended sources of vitamin B1.
Nitrites and Nitrates
Used in meat to stabilize red meat color, inhibit spoilage and pathogenic organisms, and contribute to flavor.
Nitrate is reduced by bacteria in the meat to nitrite, which is further reduced to nitric oxide (NO), a compound that reacts with heme or
iron-sulfur groups. In meat, NO reacts with the heme in myoglobin to form nitrosohemochrome which gives meat a red color. In
bacteria, NO reacts with and destroys an iron-sulfur enzyme, ferredoxin, that is involved in ATP synthesis. Without ferredoxin, the
cells cannot synthesize energy and die. Clostridia contain ferredoxin. Endospores will remain viable, however, and can germinate
when transferred to nitrite-free foods. Enterobacteria, including coliforms and Salmonella, and lactic acid bacteria are not inhibited by
nitrite because they do not contain ferredoxin.

100 ppm or less will give meat the desired color and flavor, at least 120 ppm is required in the presence of salt, lactic acid bacteria, or
lower pH values. The effectiveness of the preservative increases as the pH becomes more acid.
Nitrite use in meats can lead to the formation of carcinogenic nitrosamines:
2o amine + nitrite + acid (or heat) = nitrosamine + water (can also form from tertiary amines and quarternary ammonium compounds).
Several species of bacteria, including some lactic acid bacteria, can nitrosylate amines with nitrite near pH 7.0.
Because of the increased potential for nitrosamine formation at high temps, only 120 ppm of nitrite can be added to cured bacon.
Residual nitrite levels of 200 ppm are permitted in other processed meats like sausages, hams, and comminuted meat products. No
nitrite is allowed in meat-based baby foods.
NaCl and sugar
Both exert a drying effect on cells by creating a hypertonic medium that draws water out of cells.
Organisms that can grow in high salt conc. are halophiles, those that can withstand high salt but cannot grow are halodurics. Similarly,
the terms osmophile and osmoduric apply to comparable organisms that can survive in high sugar conc.
With respect to other microorganisms, it generally takes about six times as much sugar as salt to affect the same degree of inhibition.
Ethylene and propylene oxides
Antifungal gases used as fumigants to sterilize packaging containers for aseptically processed foods. Also used on dried fruits and
spices. These unstable ring structures are alkylating agents that inactivate proteins with susceptible groups (-COOH, -NH2, -SH, and
-OH).
Nisin
Incorrectly called an antibiotic, actually a bacteriocin. Used in processed dairy foods and low acid canned foods.
Nontoxic to humans, "natural", heat stable (at low pH), good storage stability, doesn't create off odors or flavors, no cross resistance to
other clinical antibiotics, no clinical applications.
Use in low acid canned foods (e.g. green beans) allows a dramatic reduction in heat processing time and temp-gives increased quality
to the food.
Use in U.S. is limited to pasteurized process cheese spreads to prevent botulism.
Indirect antimicrobials
Added compounds whose primary purpose in foods is not antimicrobial but which do contribute to antimicrobial activity.
Antioxidants (e.g. butylated hydroxyanisole [BHA] and B-hydroxytoluene [BHT], flavoring agents (e.g. diacetyl, wood smoke),
natural spices (several have antimicrobial oils).
Pasteurization
Treatment designed to destroy the most heat-resistant nonsporeforming pathogens. Kills yeasts, molds, gram-, and most gram+
bacteria. Thermophilic (clostridia and bacilli) and thermoduric organisms (streptococci and lactobacilli) may survive.
In milk; 145 F (63 C)/30 min for LTLT or 161 F (72 C)/15s for HTST.
In eggs; use 60 C for about 4 min.
Sterilization
Destruction of all viable organisms as measured by an appropriate enumeration method. "Commercially sterile" which means that no
viable MO can be detected or else the number of survivors is so low that they are of no consequence under the intrinisic and extrinsic
conditions of the product.

UHT milk; 140-150 C for a few sec.
Some foods, especially liquids like milk, are not sterilized in their packages and must be packaged aseptically after sterilization.
Heat resistance of microorganisms is usually related to their optimal growth temp:
Psychrophiles are the most sensitive, thermophiles the most resistant. Sporeforming bacteria are more resistant than nonsporeformers.
G+ in general are more resistant than G- bacteria. Yeasts and molds are fairly heat sensitive, their spores are only slightly more heatresistant than the vegetable cells.
Heat resistance of spores:
The greatest single determinant of heat resistance in spores is the degree of protoplast dehydration. Spore protoplasts are rich in Ca2+
and dipicolinic acid which together form a gel that enables spores to remain viable with very little cytoplasmic water. The drier the
spore, the more heat resistant it is.
Other factors affecting heat resistance in microorganisms:
Heat resistance increases with decreasing moisture; proteins denature more rapidly in water than in air.
In the presence of fats, heat resistance increases, presumably because fat reduces cell moisture.
Some salts increase heat resistance while others can decrease it. The difference has been attributed to the ability of some salt to
increase (e.g. Mg2+) or decrease (e.g. Na+) water activity.
Presence of sugars increases heat resistance, again as a consequence of lower water activity.
Microorganisms are most resistant at their optimal growth pH (about 7.0). As pH is raised or lowered, heat resistance decreases. This
is why high acid foods require less heat processing than low acid foods.
Proteins have a protective effect. As a result, high protein foods need a higher heat treatment than low protein foods to obtain similar
results.
The larger the population, the higher the degree of heat resistance.
Most heat resistant in the stationary phase of growth, least in logarithmic. Old spores are also more resistant than young one.
Heat resistance increases with incubation temp; may be due to changes in cell membrane composition. Also, the spores from a
microbe grown at high temp are more heat resistant than those from the same microbe grown at a lower temp.
Heat resistance decreases in the presence of heat-resistant microbial inhibitors (e.g. nisin).
Many people mistakenly think that the longer the heating time, the greater the killing effect. It is more correct to say that higher
temperatures kill more efficiently, thus, as temperature increases, less time is needed to cause the desired kill level.
Thermal Death Time (TDT)
Time needed to kill a given number of microorganisms at a specified temperature. Determined by placing a known number of cells or
spores in sealed containers. The containers are put in an oil bath and heated for a test period then cooled quickly. The number of
survivors from each test period is then determined by plate counts. Death is defined by the inability to form visible colonies.
D value (the decimal reduction time)
Time in min. needed at a specified temperature to kill 90% of the MO and thus drop counts by one log number.
When D is measured at 250 F, it is designated as Dr. Thus, D reflects the resistance of an organism to a specific temperature and can
be used to compare the relative heat resistance among different organisms or spores; e.g. Spores of B. stearothermophilus have a Dr =
4-5.0 min, while those of C. botulinum types A&B have Dr values of 0.1-0.2.
D for the same microorganism can vary depending on the type of food in question (e.g. lower in more acid foods, higher in food with
high protein content, etc.).
z Value
The degree F required for the thermal destruction curve to drop one log cycle. z gives information on the relative resistance of an
organism to different destructive temperatures and allow us to determine equivalent thermal processes at different temperatures.
For example, if 3 min at 150 F gives you an adequate heat process and you find that z = 10 F, then 30 min at 140 F or 0.3 min at 160 F
would provide an equivalent heat process.
F value
Better way to express TDT. In simplest terms, F is the time in minutes that are required to kill all spores or cells at 250 F. F is
calculated as follows:
Fo=Dr(log a-log b)
a=initial load and b=final cell numbers
12-D Concept
Used in low acid canned foods (pH>4.6), where C. botulinum is a serious concern. Thermal processing requirement designed to
reduce the probability of survival of the most heat resistant C. botulinum spores to 10-12. So, for the 12-D concept, Fo=Dr(lo9g a-log
b); Dr=0.21 and log a - log b=12 so Fo=2.52 min.
In the U.S., irradiation is defined as an additive instead of a process.
True. It has been approved for use in spices, vegetable seasonings, papayas, strawberries, pork (to control Trichinella), poultry, and
ground beef.
In some foods, radiation treatments can catalyze oxidative changes (e.g. free radical production) that produce:
Product discoloration, tissue softening (in fruits), and rancidity (in high fat products). Radiation at low temperature in the absence of
oxygen can minimize these effects (except softening).
Radappertization
Sterilization treatment. Uses 30-40 kGray (Gray is a unit of absorbed dose measurement = 11 Joule/kg. Rad is another unit of absorbed
dose: 62.4 MeV/g; 1 Gray = 100 rads).
Radicidation
Pasteurization treatment designed specifically to destroy all non-sporeforming pathogens. Levels used are 2.5-10 kGy.
Raduriztion
Thermization-like treatment aimed at reducing numbers of viable spoilage MO. Dose levels are 0.75-2.5 kGy.
UV light
Powerful bactericidal (and virucidal) agent at wavelengths between 2000-2900 angstroms (2600 most effective).
UV is non-ionizing and is absorbed by proteins and nucleic acids, produces lethal mutations.
Poor penetrating capability so used only on surfaces - e.g. packaging materials.
Beta rays (electron rays)
Also have poor penetration but better than UV.
Because electrons have charge, they act as direct ionizing particles.
As they pass through matter, electrons have enough kinetic energy to cause ionization of other molecules through impulses imparted to
orbital electrons of atoms in the medium.
Some of the products from these collisions are radioactive so there is some concern over the use of high energy beta sterilization in
foods.
Microwave
Uses a rapidly alternating electromagnetic field, polar molecules try to align and friction is created as they switch back and forth.
Basically a heat process but, due to uneven heat distribution, microwave radiation is less effective than conventional heat treatment.
Gamma and X rays
Basically the same thing just originate differently. Very effective sterilants.
These are uncharged particles that penetrate almost anything, forming directly ionizing particles (electrons) as they collide with nuclei.
Resistance to radiation:
Generally G+ > G- > yeasts > molds.
Sporeformers are generally more resistant than non-sporeformers, so concerns exist over use of radiation to control botulism.
At present, the most widely used direct applications of radiation in foods are sprout inhibition of seeds and insect
deinfestation.
True. But, recent outbreaks of E. coli 0157:H7 and Salmonella have generated renewed interest in the use of radiation for raw meats.
Foods that are going to be preserved by freezing undergo several processing steps prior to actual freezing.
Sorting, washing, blanching and packaging.
Blanching
Done by either immersion in hot water or by steam injection and accomplishes the following: inactivates enzymes that can cause
undesirable changes during frozen storage, the amount of heat used to inactivate enzymes also reduces the total microbial load in the
food, it enhances or fixes the green color of certain veggies, wilts leafy veggies and displaces air that might be trapped in plant tissue
which makes these products easier to package.
Quick or fast freezing
Drop food to -20 C within 30 min. Best for overall product quality, gives smaller ice crystals in the food which do not disrupt the cells
as much as slow freezing.
Slow freezing
Desired temp reached in 3-72 hours. Large ice crystals are formed that disrupt cells and can affect product texture and flavor.
Preservation by Drying:
Vegetable to be dried are blanched to inactivate enzymes that can catalyze undesirable changes in the dried food.
Some light colored fruits may be treated with SO2 to maintain color (again by inactivating enzymes), conserve certain vitamins and
reduce the microbial load.
Fruits are also pasteurized after drying (150-185 F for 30-70 min).
Meats are usually cooked before they are dried.
Types of dried foods:

Low moisture (LM); no more than 25% moisture, Aw between 0.00-0.60. Includes traditional dried foods like beef jerky and freezedried foods.
Intermediate-moisture (IM) foods; 15-50% moisture, Aw between 0.60-0.85. Examples are dried fruits, cakes, sugars, etc.
The "alarm water" content is a value for moisture content (%water) that should not be exceeded in order to prevent mold growth on
dried foods.
Cheeses
Need acid-producing mesophilic or thermophilic bacteria depending on cook temp.
May include 2o fermentation by other microorganisms such as molds (blue or camembert), brevibacteria (limburger), or
propionibacteria (Swiss). These may be added with the lactic starter or later in the production process.
Some varieties also include starters for flavor; e.g. L. lactis ssp. diacetylactis in Gouda, adjuncts in lowfat Cheddar.
Semi-solid Milks
Microorganisms needed for acid and sometimes flavor production.
Ethanol production in some (heterofermentive lactics and yeasts).
Source of beneficial bacteria (Lactobacillus acidophilus and Bifidobacterium).
Cheddar Cheese
Most made from pasteurized milk, starter and rennet are added.
Key steps for the microbiology:
a. Cook. The temperature used to cook cheese essentially determines whether a thermophilic or mesophilic lactic acid bacteria will be
used. Cheddar is cooked at 39-40 C. Starter - mesophilic lactococci (L. lactis ssp. cremoris and L. lactis ssp. lactis )
b. Cheddaring. During Cheddaring, the curd is spread evenly over the bottom of the vat after whey removal and allowed to knit for 15
min. A knife is used to cut the curd longitudinally down the middle, and horizontally at 10 inch intervals. The curd blocks are spaced
about 1 inch apart, allowed to rest 15 min and then flipped over until the titratable acidity of the draining whey reaches 0.5-0.6% and
then they are milled.
c. Salting. Cheddar-salt is added at a level of 2-2.3 % (w/w). Salt adds flavor, inhibits undesirable microorganisms, slows acid
development from starters, does not inhibit lactobacilli that dominate the 2o microbiota during ripening.
d. Ripening. Cheddar is ripened at 6-10 C for 3 months to a year (mild vs sharp). Starter proteolysis is important, secondary
microbiota appear (lactobacilli, pediococci and micrococci) that provide proteases and lipases.
Rennet Sources
Calf stomach extract (traditional), microbial rennets (not inactivated by cook temps, can create bitterness in cheese), recombinant
chymosin (a major share of the market).
Swiss Cheese
Sweet nutty flavor with eyes (gas pockets).
Milk is not fully pasteurized to provide proper elasticity for eye development. Instead it is either heat treated at a sub-pasteurization
temp (64-70 C/16 s) or it is treated with 0.05% H2O2. Excess peroxide is removed by adding catalase.
a. Cook. Cook temperature is 50-54 C, so a thermophilic starter consisting of S. thermophilus, L. delbuekii ssp. bulgaricus (or L.
helveticus), and Propionibacterium freundenreichii is used. P. freundenreichii main role is to ferment lactate to carbon dioxide for
eyes, propionic acid, and acetic acid
Swiss curd is pressed and hooped into wheels without cheddaring or milling.
b. Salt - Swiss cheese is brined in a saturated NaCl (23%) for 12-48 hours at 8-12 C. After brining, the cheese is stored dry at 7-13 C
for 5-10 days to allow the salt conc. to equilibrate and to encourage the growth of propionibacteria. The salt concentration in Swiss is
lower than Cheddar and can be low enough to permit growth of gaseous spoilage bacteria such as clostridia.
c. Warm Room - the cheese is then moved to a warm room (22-24 C) for 2-7 weeks where the propionibacteria grow and produce the
eyes and the flavor compounds. Good eyes are smooth, 0.4-1.2 inches in diameter, round, and uniformly distributed.
After the warm room, the cheese is stored at 1.5-4.5 C for 3-9 months for final ripening.
Defects in Swiss cheese:
1. Blind - no carbon dioxide produced so no holes or foamy Swiss.
2. Slit open eye defect - too much gas produced or the curd is too brittle.
Parmesan or Romano
Low moisture contents. Made from 2.5% fat milk (pasteurized). The curd is cooked at 47-50 C so thermophilic starters are used.
Characterized by sharp volatile flavors which are the result of milk fat lipolysis. Lipase enzyme powders are added.
A long brine period (2 weeks) is used to help reduce the moisture level. Parmesan and Romano may be aged at 4-15 C anywhere from
5-6 months up to 1-2 yrs.
Pasta filata (pulled curd or mozzarella)
Cooked for 70 min at 42 C, so makers must use thermophilic starters (S. thermophilus and L. delbruekii subsp. bulgaricus or L.
helveticus).
Interestingly, it is also Cheddared but at the higher cook temperature.
The cheddared curd is milled then mechanically mixed and heated in a device called a stretcher-cooker which blends the curd with 70
C water. This step is required to generate the elastic body that characterizes Mozzarella cheese.
The cheese is cooled, brined 2-4 hours, then aged for a short time (7-30 days). Functional characteristics such as stretch, melt, cook
color, and "oiling off" are critical properties.
Surface ripened cheese (Muenster, limburger)
Cook temp is 33-37 C so the mesophilic L. lactis strains are used for acid production.
Limburger is not salted. It is simply hooped and stored at 15-16 C for 4-10 days at 95% RH on wooden racks that provide the surface
inoculum of yeasts and Brevibacterium linens required for proper flavor development.
The yeasts metabolize lactate which raises the pH on the curd surface to about 5.9 which allows B. linens to grow. Within a few days a
characteristic reddish-brown slime of B. linens appears. Proteolytic and lipolytic enzymes of B. linens then diffuse into the cheese and
produce the characteristic flavor and aroma of Limburger.
Limburger is kept in the humid room for 20 days, wrapped (without removing the surface smear), and then stored at 4.5 C for 21 days.
Muenster is brined for 2 days at 10 C, and then surface ripening is allowed to proceed for 2-4 days. The smear is dried and annatto is
wiped on to give the cheese an orange exterior.
Blue veined cheese: Blue or Roquefort.
"Blue cheese"-made from cows milk
"Roquefort"- True Roquefort cheese is made only in the Causses region of southern France, from full cream milk collected from a
special breed of sheep (8% fat vs 3.5% for most cows) and ripened in the famous Roquefort caves.
Because cows milk cream is not as white as sheeps, milk for blue cheese in the U.S. is separated, and the cream may be bleached with
benzoyl peroxide to obtain the whiteness desired in this variety. The milk is pasteurized, then recombined and homogenized (increases
the surface area of fat available for mold lipolytic enzymes).
The curd is cooked at 30-33 C so our acid producer will be mesophilic lactococci.
Curd is cut into larger cubes to help create the open body texture required for proper mold growth. After the whey is drained, 2% salt
and 0.0625% powdered spores (1 oz/100 lb curd) of Penicillium roqueforti are sprinkled over the curd. The curd is hooped, pressed,
and allowed to drain 12-18 hours.

The cheese is salted again the next day by rubbing dry salt on the surface.
After salting, the cheese block is pierced with a gang of needles to facilitate gas exchange for mold growth. This step creates the
"veins" for mold growth. Mold grows during subsequent storage at 10-13oC in 95% RH and requires 2-4 mo.
The mold produces lipases that hydrolyze milk fat to release free fatty acids and their breakdown products. These compounds create
the sharp peppery flavor and characteristic aroma of Blue cheese.
Cheese with surface mold (Camembert, Brie).
In most countries the only difference between these two cheeses is the size of the cheese wheel, but in France, true Brie cheese has
surface mold and a reddish smear of B. linens on its surface.
Made from pasteurized milk, the curd is not cooked-just kept at 32.2 C from start to finish, so mesophilic lactococcal starters are used.
Penicillium camemberti spores are sprayed onto the cheese and cheese is given a 30 minute brine bath. The absence of a cooking step
and use of only light salting results in a soft, high moisture cheese.
To promote mold growth, the cheese is stored at 14 C for 1-2 weeks at 95% RH. A white mat of mold develops, and the cheese is
turned on the racks to obtain uniform growth. Mold lipases and proteases penetrate the cheese to produce the flavor.
Mold covered wheels are wrapped in foil and ripened at 5 C for 2-5 weeks. Cheeses must be eaten within 6-7 weeks of manufacture or
the flavors become too strong.
Impact of LAB on Cheese Flavor.
1) Fermentation and depletion of fermentable sugars.
2) Creating a low oxidation-reduction potential. This is thought to promote the nonenzymatic evolution and stabilization of volatile
flavor compounds (e.g. sulfur-containing cmpds in Cheddar).
3) Synergism among bacteria. Lactate produced by the starter during manufacture and ripening can serve as substrate for 2o bacteria.
4) Lipolysis.
5) Proteolysis.
6) Synthesis of cheese flavor compounds. Although LAB are thought to catalyze synthesis of other flavor compounds, most of these
compounds remain unidentified.
Absence of a whey removal step differentiates fermented milks from cheese.
True.
Yogurt
To obtain the characteristic body of yogurt, milk is concentrated. Gums or stabilizers may be added to reduce syneresis (whey
expulsion) and to obtain a desired texture. Alternatively, starters that produce an extracellular polysaccharide slime ("ropy cultures")
are used to obtain similar results.
Yogurt milk is homogenized, then heat treated at 80-85 C for 30 min.
The milk is cooled to 42 C, inoculated, then incubated at 40-45 C for 8-24 h, then cooled and sold quickly. The high incubation
temperature requires use of thermophilic cultures. The two starters exhibit symbiotic growth in milk.
L. delbruekii subsp. bulgaricus is more proteolytic than S. thermophilus so the lactobacilli degrade casein and provide S. thermophilus
with the essential amino acids (valine, leucine, histidine, and isoleucine) needed for rapid growth. S. thermophilus produces trace
amounts of formic acid and CO2 which stimulate the growth of L. delbruekii subsp. bulgaricus. The net result is that growth of the
organisms together produces more lactic acid than either culture is capable of producing alone.
Final product contains 10^8 to 10^9 CFU/g but counts decrease with storage time. Normal starter strains are unable to colonize the
gut.
The most important flavor compound in yogurt is...

Acetaldehyde (2.4-41 ppm).
Two main types of yogurt:
Set- the product formed when fermentation and coagulation of milk is carried out in the retail container, and the yogurt produced is in
a continuous semi-solid mass.
Stirred- results when the coagulum is produced in bulk and the gel structure is broken before cooling and packaging.
Therapeutic milks
Consumed primarily for the microorganisms (probiotics) they contain. A variety of health and nutritional benefits may arise from
ingestion of L. acidophilus, a few other lactic acid bacteria, and bacteria in the genus Bifidobacterium.
Acidophilus Milk
Milk containing a pure culture of L. acidophilus. Traditional acidophilus milk is simply a sour milk product. To get a product which
was more acceptable to the American palate, yet still contained high numbers of the therapeutic organism, an unfermented acidophilus
milk product called sweet acidophilus milk was developed. Milk is inoculated with a high number of L. acidophilus harvested after
growth in another medium. Sweet acidophilus milk contains over 500 million CFU/ ml and is more accepted by the American public.
American Buttermilk
Uses both lactic acid producers and citrate fermenters (Lactococci, Leuconostoc). Flavor compounds are lactic acid, diacetyl, and
acetoin. Most flavor compounds excluding lactate are formed from the utilization of citrate.
Pasteurized milk is inoculated and incubated at 21-24 C until a coagulum is formed, usually 14-16 hrs. The product is then cooled and
then agitated to break up the coagulum.
Milk is usually fortified with Na-citrate at a rate of 2-2.5 lbs per 100 gallons to ensure substrate will be available to produce diacetyl.
Milk contains .14 to .17% citrate.
Kefir (Asia)
Uses kefir grains: rice-sized mass of microorganisms which include: Lactobacillus, Leuconostoc, Lactococci and 2 yeasts
(Saccharomyces kefir and Torulopsis kefir) bound together by a polysaccharide coat.
Manufacture: pasteurized milk inoculated with kefir grains at 22 C, soured overnight.
Kefir grains filtered out and used again.
Final product has a cheese-like smell and taste, viscous, slimy appearance and feel.
0.8% lactic acid, 1% EtOH, saturated w/ CO2 so it foams like beer.
Koumiss
Traditionally made from mares milk, modern bulk production in CIS uses pasteurized skimmed cows milk.
Fermented by Lactobacillus delbruekii ssp. bulgaricus with Saccharomyces and Candida sp. yeasts.
Final product has: 0.7-1.8% lactic acid, 1-2.5% EtOH
Used therapeutically by people in Russia for pulmonary tuberculosis.
As early as the third century BC, the Chinese described the preservation of vegetables by fermentation.
True.
Vegetable preservation is achieved by:
The addition of salt, and the fermentative conversion of plant sugars to organic acids by LAB.
The degradation of all readily available carbohydrate is important to...
prevent undesirable secondary fermentations by acid tolerant yeasts.
In general, the procedure used to ferment vegetables:
1-remove dirt from vegetables (don't want to scrub them too much or you may lose some of the necessary bacteria).
2-add salt or brine.
3-incubate anaerobically at a mesophilic temperature for several weeks.
The initial concentration of LABs is small;
0.01-0.1% of the total microflora. Under the proper conditions, these organisms will overcome the other dominant microbiota within a
few days.
LAB rapidly convert plant sugars (primarily glucose, fructose, and sucrose) to...
lactic and acetic acids which allows them to overwhelm all other organisms.
A pickle is defined as...
an immature cucumber, properly prepared without taking up any metallic compound other than NaCl, and preserved in any kind of
vinegar, with or without spices and sugar.
Cucumbers should be delivered to the fermentation plant as soon as possible after harvest because...
respiration in the tissues promotes the growth of undesirable softening organisms.
Three major types of pickled cucumbers are produced:
1. Fresh pack pickles, about 50% of the U.S. market, are not a fermented product.
2. Salt stock undergo a complete lactic acid fermentation in wood, plastic, or fiberglass tanks which will hold up to one ton of
cucumbers.
3. Dill pickles are fermented in a dill-flavored, spiced, salt brine to generate their distinctive flavor and aroma.
The composition and evolution of the dominant microbiota in pickles and other fermented vegetables is primarily influenced
by the following:
1. Natural microbiota of the cucumbers. When properly handled (i.e. not washed excessively, or treated with antimicrobials), all
vegetables will have lactic acid bacteria as a minor part of their natural biota (.01-.1% of total MO).
The most important stage of the process is the initiation of the fermentation, which lasts only 2-3 days. During this time, the numbers
of LAB and oxidizing yeasts increase rapidly while undesirable bacteria are eliminated.
2. Salt concentration. Dill pickles are usually fermented in a low-salt brine of 5% or less. Salt stock pickles are fermented in tanks with
a brine solution of 5-8% NaCl. At salt levels below 5%, the fermentation is initiated by Leuconostoc mesenteroides whose early
growth is more rapid than other LAB species. Leuconostoc produces CO2 and organic acids, which drop the pH and inhibit
undesirable microorganisms and enzymes that may damage the product. The CO2 replaces air and creates an anaerobic condition,
which also inhibits growth of undesirable aerobes. The anaerobic environment and stimulatory activity of carbon dioxide promotes the
growth of other lactic acid bacteria. Heterofermentative Lactobacillus brevis and the homofermentative Lactobacillus plantarum and
Pediococcus cerevisiae begin to grow rapidly and produce lactic acid, carbon dioxide, ethanol, and acetic acid which can contribute to
the flavor of the product.
At higher salt levels (5-8% NaCl), the sequence of lactic microflora begins with the heterofermentative bacterium Lactobacillus
brevis. The fermentation is usually complete within 20 to 30 days and the more acid tolerant lactobacilli are predominant.
3. Fermentation temperature. The speed of the fermentation is governed by the temperature of the brine and the concentration of salt.
Optimum temperature for vegetable fermentations is between 21 C and 26.7 C. At the end, total acidity may be as high as 0.9% lactic
acid with a pH as low as 3.3.
4. Availability of fermentable carbohydrate. Vegetables do not generally contain high levels of mono- and disaccharide sugars which
can be easily fermented by most microorganisms. As a consequence, most of the readily available carbohydrate is depleted during the
fermentation. Because residual sugar can exist and thus contribute to undesirable secondary fermentations by acid tolerant yeasts or
lactobacilli, many pickle products undergo pasteurization (74 C for 15 min) in their glass containers before they are sold.
Defects of Pickles:
1. Softening: pectinolytic or cellulolytic enzymes may be secreted by contaminating microorganisms. These enzymes degrade
cucumber outer tissues and result in damage that ranges from a general loss of texture or firmness to "slippery" pickles whose skin
slips off. Though produced by a wide variety of bacteria, yeasts and molds, pectolytic enzymes are inhibited < pH 5.0. As a result, his
defect arises from poor acid production during the initial stages of fermentation. Molds often grow and secrete softening enzymes into
cucumber flowers. If all flowers are not removed from the fermentation tank, softening of the product is possible. Enzymic
contamination caused by flowers can be minimized by draining the brine once and replacing it with new brine. This reduces the
amount of enzyme.
2. Gaseous spoilage: One defect is termed "bloaters" i.e. pickles that float on the brine or are hollow or have large air spaces in the
interior - due to formation of gas inside the pickles. During the early stages of the fermentation, coliforms and certain halophilic
bacteria can produce hydrogen gas and carbon dioxide. Fermentation of carbohydrates by yeasts produces gas. Respiration by the
cucumber itself can produce gas. Methods to control gas production include piercing of the cucumber, purging carbon dioxide away
with nitrogen gas. Nitrogen does not cause undesirable reactions nor does it stimulate aerobic microbes. Bloaters are not a complete
loss since they may be used in cut pickle and relish products at an economic loss of about 50%.
Sauerkraut is obtained by...
the full fermentation, chiefly lactic, of properly prepared and shredded cabbage in the presence of not less than 2% nor more than 3%
salt. When the fermentation is complete, sauerkraut contains no less than 1.5% acid expressed as lactic acid.
Method of Sauerkraut Manufacture:
1. Prior to making sauerkraut, the cabbage heads are wilted for two or more days to improve shredding since fresh heads fracture too
easily.
2. The heads are then trimmed to remove the outer broken or dirty leaves and washed lightly to remove soil bacteria.
3. The cabbage is then sliced into long shreds .16 to .08 cm in width.
4. The shreds are mixed with 2-2.5% dry salt and packed into plastic lined concrete vats that may be as large as 12 to 14 feet in
diameter and 8 feet deep. The shredded cabbage is packed firmly without crushing to reduce air pockets.
5. The vats are then covered with plastic sheets that are weighted with water to provide anaerobic conditions.
6. Respiration of the cabbage tissue and microorganisms quickly uses up residual oxygen in the tank.
7. If the seal is not airtight, aerobic bacteria, yeasts and molds grow on the surface of the kraut and produce undesirable effects.
Sauerkraut Microbiology:
1. Natural microbiota. Cabbage initially contains about 10^6 microbes/gram and this number includes bacteria yeasts and molds.
Within two days of fermentation at 21 C, 90% of the microflora are lactic acid bacteria, and the pH drops from 6.2 to 4.8.
2. Salt. Like pickles, salt has an important role in the production of sauerkraut. Most producers use between 2.2 and 2.5%, which
serves several functions: extracts water from the shredded cabbage through osmosis thus forming the fermentation brine which
contains carbohydrates and other nutrients needed for growth of the lactic acid bacteria, suppresses the growth of some undesirable
bacteria and influences the type and extent of lactic fermentation, and contributes to the flavor and texture of the sauerkraut. At the salt
levels used in sauerkraut, fermentation is initiated by Leuconostoc mesenteroides and the succession of lactic acid bacteria proceeds as
described for pickles. The anaerobic environment these bacteria help to create prevents oxidation of ascorbic acid and color in the
cabbage.
Another important feature of the sauerkraut fermentation is that mannitol in the cabbage is fermented by the lactobacilli which keeps
the product from tasting bitter.
3. Fermentation Temp. The optimum fermentation temperature is 18.3-21.1 C. Above 26.7 C, pediococci and Enterococcus faecalis
initiate a rapid homolactic fermentation, which results in a raw or sour product.
4. Carbohydrate levels. The sugar content of cabbage is about 3-6%. After four weeks at 21 C, the sugar content of the cabbage is
totally depleted. The fermentation is completed in 1 to 2 months depending on the quantity of fermented materials, concentration of
salt, and temperature used.
The final product may have as much as 1.7% lactic acid, 0.25% acetic acid, a final pH of 3.6 or less, from 2.0 to 2.5% NaCl, and,
hopefully, less than 0.13% ethanol. A higher ethanol content indicates the growth of yeasts and a lower acetic acid content indicates a
depressed heterolactic fermentation.
Raw sauerkraut is packed in barrels or plastic pouches and is highly perishable so it must be kept under continuous refrigeration.
Sauerkraut canned in metal or in glass is pasteurized at 74 C to destroy the lactic acid bacteria and yeasts. Canned sauerkraut rarely
spoils.
Sauerkraut Defects and Spoilage:
Most result from oxygen getting into the vat.
Surface discoloration due to auto oxidation.
Loss of acidity, off-flavors, colors, texture, and odors caused by growth of aerobic bacteria, molds and yeasts.
Slimy or ropy kraut has been observed for many years. It usually is caused by dextran formation by Leuconostoc mesenteroides. The
slime is usually found at an intermediate stage of fermentation but with time, the dextrans are usually utilized by other LAB.
In rare instances, some strains of L. brevis will produce a water-soluble, heat-stable red pigment. It appears that production of the
pigment is pH dependent, occurring at higher pHs of about 5.5 and studies have linked this defect to conditions where the pH does not
fall properly.
There five main varieties of olives produced in California:
Mission variety: with 20% or more oil.
Ascolano variety: with less than 15% oil - used to produce ripe olives.
Seveillano variety: with 15% oil is used for both ripe and green olives
Manzanillo variety: 16-18% oil, is an all-purpose olive.
Barouni variety: sold as a fresh product.
Lye Treatment
Olives may be treated with lye (NaOH) prior to processing or fermentation in order to hydrolyze the bitter component in the olive,
oleuropein.
The concentrations of lye and the number of treatments will vary depending on the particular type of olive and the manufacturers
preference.
Lye is allowed to penetrate to the pit when ripe olives are desired and about two-thirds of the way in green olives.
The time of exposure varies from 4-7 hours depending on the size of the olive and the temperature. Above 27 C, a strong lye solution
may cause blistering of the olive skin by dissolving the pectins.
After the lye treatment, olives are washed several times to remove the base.
To prevent softening, the olive flesh must be kept below pH 8.0. If there is too much residual lye, the final pH of the product will be
too high.
Olives contain glucose, fructose, sucrose, and mannitol in concentrations between 3.7 and 7.5%. When olives are lye treated, as much
as 65% of the sugars may be lost so glucose or sucrose are often added to the olives after the lye treatment.
Ripe black olives
Most popular variety. No fermentation is involved. The black ripe olives are harvested when green with a red blush and made dark
purple by oxidation of polyphenols in the flesh. Oxidation is achieved by treating the olives in lye solution (1-2% NaOH) with
aeration. After oxidation treatment, the olives are rinsed, packed, and heat-treated at ll6 C for 60 min.
Green ripe olives

Also not fermented. Green-ripe canned olives are processed and canned at harvest time (called direct or fresh-cured). Absence of a lye
treatment makes these olives quite bitter.
Sicilian-type, Spanish-type, and Greek type:
True fermented varieties.
Sicilian-type olives
Placed in 5-8% brine without lye treatment so this variety is quite bitter. Open fermentation tanks are filled much in the manner that
cucumbers are. The olives are often needled so that their surfaces do not shrivel in the brine due to osmotic changes. Fermentation
takes about 30 days at 15.6-21oC with Pediococcus and L. plantarum as the dominant lactic acid bacteria. Yeasts appear in the first
two weeks and continue throughout the fermentation. The total acidity of the final product usually ranges between 0.2-0.7% as lactic
acid. Final pH is about 3.6.
Spanish-type olives
Treated with 0.9 and 2.6% lye, which is allowed to penetrate about 3/4 of the way to the pit. After lye treatment, the olives are washed
in water for 24 h with 3-4 water changes to remove residual base. These olives are fermented in 5-10% brine, which is often acidified
with lactic acid to a pH of 4.5-5. Because of the high salt concentration, the initial and critical stage of the fermentation, which allows
lactic acid bacteria to dominate, may require up to 14 days. At 10% NaCl, the only lactic acid bacterium present will be L. plantarum.
Final pH is about 3.6 with an acidity of 0.4-0.6%. During the fermentation, sugar is exhausted and the olives turn the characteristic
"olive green".
Greek type
Also treated with lye but aeration included in lye step to obtain the oxidized black color. The olives are washed then placed in a high
salt brine (7-10% initial then increased to 15%). Because of the high salt level, these olives do not undergo a lactic fermentation.
Instead, they appear to undergo fermentation by salt tolerant yeasts.
Olive Spoilage Problems:
1. Gassy spoilage. Characterized by blisters resulting from the production and accumulation of gasses which cause separation of the
skin from the flesh and by the formation of gas pockets which may extend to the pits. Mainly coliforms, some Bacillus and yeasts may
also cause gassy deterioration. Control - sanitation, controlled reduction of pH by acidification, and pasteurization.
2. Malodorous fermentations: Three main types, all are caused by bacteria. Butyric acid fermentation characterized by the formation
of butyric acid which makes the olives taste like rancid butter. Most of the cultures responsible are related to Clostridium butyricum.
This defect generally starts in the initial stages of the fermentation. Hydrogen sulfide fermentation
caused by production of hydrogen sulfide gas (rotten eggs). Black brines may occur if iron is present as a result of iron sulfide
formation. Desulfovibrio aestuarii, a halophile has been associated with this defect. Preacidification to below pH 5.5 will control this
defect. Spoilage may be remedied by replacing the brine and then aerating violently to oxidize the hydrogen sulfide. Zapatera
spoilage. Associated with a cheesy or sagey odor which sometimes develops into a foul fecal-like stench. This type of spoilage occurs
when the desirable lactic acid fermentation is stopped before the pH of the brine has reached a value of 4.5 or less. Clostridium and
Propionibacterium have been implicated in this defect. To control this type of spoilage, acidification must continue to pH 3.8 or below.
3. Softening: Softening spoilage is due to the pectolytic activity of bacteria, molds, and yeasts. High levels of cellulolytic enzymes
cause sloughing spoilage characterized by skin rupture and sloughing. Olive softening can also be caused by intensive lye treatment,
frosting, or heating. Difficult to differentiate these types of softening from microbial softening.
Kimchi
Fermented blend of radishes, turnips, onions, and Chinese cabbage. Sweet or sour peppers are often included to provide additional
flavor. 3% brine is used in the fermentation which occurs at 10-20 C. Lactic acid bacteria responsible for this fermentation include L.
mesenteroides, S. faecalis, L. brevis, L. plantarum, and P. cerevisiae. Because the ingredients do not contain as much sugar as some
other vegetables, the final pH is 4.2-4.5 (0.8% total acidity). The product also has notable carbonation due to the prevalence of
heterolactic species.
Lager
Beer is made with bottom-fermenting Saccharomyces carlsburgensis yeast. After 7-12 days of fermentation at 6-15 C, the final pH is
4.1-4.2. There are 2 kinds of lager beer; light and dark, named after the color of the product, which comes from roasted malt or
caramel or both.
Ale
Beer is made with top-fermenting Saccharomyces cerevisiae yeast. These lower the pH to about 3.8 after 5-7 days at 18-22 C. Ales are
also distinguished by color.
Good quality water is of prime importance to the manufacture of good beer.
True. Water quality is defined in terms of purity and mineral composition.
Malting
Yeasts are unable to utilize starch and other complex carbohydrates in grains, so these must be broken down to simpler sugars prior to
fermentation. Malt is prepared from barley sprouted under controlled conditions, then dried in a kiln. Germination triggers synthesis of
endogenous enzymes which seedlings normally use to provide fuel during the early growth period. Barley grains are steeped in water
at 10-15 C then germinated at 15-20 C for 3-7 days. Malt contains a- and b amylases, proteolytic enzymes, and substrates for each.
Mashing
Process wherein malt and adjuncts of other cereals are enzymatically converted into a fermentable fluid called wort. Adjuncts are
unmalted cereals, usually corn or rice, which are milled, mixed with water, and boiled in a separate tank before they are added to the
malt mash.
In the first stages of mashing, the malt is ground in a mill until a coarse flour is obtained. The ground malt is mixed with hot water in a
"mashing tun". During mashing, enzymes convert much of the insoluble and unfermentable grain carbohydrates and proteins into
soluble fermentable substrates. The mash is then heated to more than 75 C which inactivates all of the enzymes. By this time, enzyme
activity has converted starches to simpler sugars, principally maltose, and proteins have been reduced to peptides and amino acids.
Extraction and boiling of wort
After mashing, the aqueous extract or "wort" is filtered. The wort is collected in a wort boiling kettle, hops are added, and the mixture
is boiled for 60-90 min.
Hops
Dried flowers of the female vine Humulus lupus.
Reasons for hop addition:
Aid in the coagulation of proteins, inhibition of spoilage bacteria, make important contributions to flavor. Humulone and lupulone
(bitter acids in hops) possess antiseptic properties and together with hop essential oils to impart characteristic flavors to beer.
Beer Fermentation
The wort is pumped into a fermentor with aeration to bring levels of dissolved O2 up to 8-10 ppm. It is then inoculated with 7-15
million yeast per ml and fermentation begins. Beer fermentation consists of a primary aerobic and secondary anaerobic stage.
The purpose of the primary fermentation is to increase yeast numbers in the wort. Aerobic fermentation proceeds for 4-5 days while
dissolved O2 is available. Within 12-26 hours after inoculation, yeast metabolism is very high and the wort becomes saturated with
CO2. As CO2 is produced, agitation is used to keep yeast suspended, and cooling coils may be required to keep the temperature under
control. During the secondary fermentation that follows, metabolism becomes anaerobic and ethanol is produced. At the end of the
fermentation, the beer is cooled and yeast settle out. The final alcohol content may vary between 3.6 and 6.5% depending on the
amount of starch conversion during mashing and the type of beer that is being produced.
Beer Aging
The young or "green" beer is separated from residual yeast and pumped to a 0-2 C storage tank where "lagering" or aging occurs. As
the name implies, lagers are generally aged for longer periods than ales. Lagering provides (1) flavor maturation, (2) physical
stabilization, and (3) clarification.
Sometimes an additional fermentation is desired during aging to produce carbonation. Priming sugar may be added. Carbonation is
performed in closed tanks so that the beer will become saturated with CO2. Carbonation can also be achieved by CO2 injection.
Beer Finishing
This process includes clarification, carbonation, and use of various additives. Then, clarification is performed to remove residual yeast
and other particular matter. The beer is then aged at 0 C to further precipitate insoluble compounds, and during this time the flavor
becomes more mellow. After a final filtration, the beer may be pasteurized before or after it is packaged.
Sugar content increases with maturation time in the grape.
True.
Grape sugar content:
Dry wines require grapes with just enough sugar (<0.2%) to reach a minimal alcohol level while sweet wines require a high sugar
content (up to 6%) and low acidity. At harvest, the main fermentable sugars in the grape are glucose and fructose.
At harvest, the grapes are...
carefully picked by hand to avoid moldy or damaged fruit and to minimize injury. They are transported to the winery as soon as
possible where they are destemmed and crushed.
Must
The resulting mixture of juice, skin and seeds. The pH of the must varies between 3.0-3.9 (optimal is 3.6) with malic and tartaric acids
predominating. The high acidity is desirable because it inhibits spoilage bacteria and yeast autolysis, aids in the extraction of skin
pigments, and in flavor development.
Sulfur dioxide (liquid SO2 or potassium or sodium bisulfite) is added to the must at 100-200 ppm:
SO2 serves several important functions in the wine: control undesirable wild yeasts, molds and bacteria, disrupt grape skin cells thus
releasing pigments, inhibit enzymatic browning (sulfurous acid denatures enzymes involved in Maillard browning), maintain a
reduced environment (act as an antioxidant), react with excess acetaldehydes formed during fermentation and aging, and promotes
proper flavor development. Too much SO2 will inhibit desirable yeast and impart a burnt, sulfur off flavor and odor.
Finally, the juice is separated from the must by pressing it out of the seeds and skin.
The latter fraction is called the pomace. Wine color may be influenced by the time juice is allowed to remain mixed with the pomace.
If red wine is being made, juice and pomace are fermented together and then the pomace is discarded. Skin pigments provide color
and the seeds and skin also contribute flavor compounds such as tannins. For rose, the juice and pomace are left together for 24 hours
before the pomace is discarded and white wines are made either by using white grapes or by separating juice and pomace immediately
after the grapes are crushed.
Wine Fermentation
The juice is pumped into a fermentation tank and inoculated with 1% of a pure wine yeast, usually a strain of Saccharomyces
cerevisiae although other species may be used (S. bayanus, S. fermentation). The finest wines are fermented at temperatures below 30
C. Red wines are fermented with the pomace at 20-32 C for 3-6 days. White wines are fermented for 1-2 weeks at 10-21 C. At the
beginning of the fermentation, metabolic activity is high and generates heat so high capacity cooling systems are needed to control the
temperature.
Effective wine fermentation requires that enough oxygen be present to allow yeast to attain high cell numbers. Once the dissolved O2
is consumed, the anaerobic alcoholic fermentation can proceed. If too much O2 is present, sugars are exhausted by respiration and cell
multiplication and a flat, oxidized wine with poor flavor results.
After the initial fermentation, wine is...
separated from the pomace (if it is present) and transferred into storage vats for 7-11 days at 20-30 C to complete the alcoholic
fermentation and to undergo aging and stabilization. During this time, yeast and other suspended materials sediment to form the
"lees". The wine is then carefully siphoned off ("racked") without disturbing the lees. Racking as soon as possible helps to avoid off
flavors introduced by yeast autolysis in the lees.
Racked wine is stored in...
wooded containers that are filled to the top or else the headspace is filled with CO2 or N3 gas to inhibit spoilage by acetic acid
bacteria. A small amount of O2 diffuses through the cask and helps promote some the oxidation reactions that occur during aging.
During aging, the wine...
clarifies and color stabilizes while alcohols and acids form esters which are important to aroma and flavor. The wine is then filtered,
pasteurized (30 min at 60 C) and bottled. Aging continues in the bottles and a good red wine should be held 5-10 years to reach its
zenith while white wines require about 2-5 years of aging in bottles.
Vinegars sold in the United States must have a minimum of...
4.0% acetic acid. This equals a strength of 40 grains; one grain is equal to 0.1% acid. Most of the vinegars marketed have greater
acetic acid concentrations than the minimum required.
Biochemical reactions in vinegar production:
sugar------>ethanol
2 ethanol + oxygen------>2 acetaldehyde + water
2 acetaldehyde--------aldehyde dehydrogenase---> 2 acetic acid + water
Acetic acid bacteria:
Acetobacter and Gluconobacter.
Gram - rods, aerobic, nonfermentative, and oxidize alcohols to keto compounds.
Organism used commercially is usually an Acetobacter species.
Vinegar made in slow processes...
generally have more aroma, and flavor than those made by quick processes.
In addition to acetic acid, vinegars contain small quantities of...
glycerol, organic phosphates, various organic acids as a result of microbial fermentation, and various aldehydes, ketones, and alcohols.
The distinctive flavor of vinegar is due mainly to compounds other than acetic acid.
Two slow processes:
1. Natural acetification of wines and ciders.
2. The Orleans process - uses oak kegs placed on their sides. To allow exchange of gasses, a hole is left open but is covered. Finished
vinegar is diluted with wine stock to fill half the keg and the film-forming Acetobacter xylinum grows as a thick film on the surface.
When the oxidation of ethanol is complete, a portion of the vinegar is taken off and replaced with new wine stock. Each cycle takes
several weeks.
Two fast processes:
3. Vinegar generator. Developed in 1732 in Holland and in 1823 it was adapted to commercial vinegar production in Germany. The
generator is a cylinder made of wood and is filled with stone, corn cobs, wood shavings, or other particulate material on which the
vinegar bacteria can become established. Wine or another solution containing ethanol is trickled over the surfaces and the acetic acid
bacteria oxidizes the ethanol to acetic acid. Commercial generators use beechwood shavings usually. The packing materials must be
insoluble, indestructable, and must not impart color, odor, or flavor to the vinegar. The effluent is diverted into two portions; one part
is kept for finished vinegar while the other dilutes the fresh wine stock. Cooling coils keep the internal temperature between 25 and 30
C. Various innovations have been added such as aeration controls.

4. Submerged culture fermentation. The Frings Acetator is the most widely used submerged culture generator. It is essentially a
fermentor which is equipped with a high-speed bottom, temperature control, and defoamer. This fermentor is highly efficient in
supplying air very evenly. The Acetator is a batch fermentation and cycle times are about 35 hours. The rate of production can be as
much as ten times as great as that obtained from trickling generators.
The final pH of the vinegar solution ranges from...
2.0 to 3.5
The raw vinegar is finally...
filtered to remove bacteria and other particulates through membranes or through diatomaceous earth materials. Vinegar is often
pasteurized at 60-65 C for 30 min before bottling (although in some countries vinegar is sulfited instead of pasteurizing). The vinegar
is then bottled in airtight containers.
There are three general methods for leavening breads:
Physical - steam is trapped in the dough during baking (soda crackers).
Chemical - use baking soda (sodium bicarbonate plus acid salts to produce CO2
Microbial - slow in comparison to chemical methods, preferred for flavor due to reaction of fermentative by-products with dough
components, yeast activity will be poor in dough with high osmotic pressure (high sugar or salt conc.). As a result, yeasts are used in
bread, rolls and buns while chemical leavening agents are used in cookies, cakes and sweet biscuits.
Yeast provide 3 main functions to bread:
Leavening. Due to CO2 production. Dough environment is anaerobic so each mole of glucose is fermented into 2 moles each of CO2
and ethanol. Most of the carbohydrate for fermentation comes from flour, although yeast may also ferment some of the added
sweeteners. Low levels of free sugars are present in grain and mechanical milling of cereal releases amylase enzymes (from the grain
itself) which slowly convert starches into maltose. As a result, yeast will produce CO2 rapidly for the first hour of fermentation (by
using free sugars) and then the fermentation rate will follow the release of maltose. To ensure sufficient substrate exists for
fermentation, some bread makers add amylase to their dough.
Flavor development. Bread flavor comes from yeast fermentation and crust browning. Organic esters, alcohols, and carbonyl
compounds all contribute. Too much yeast results in a thiamine "yeasty" flavor.
Dough maturation. Alcohol and CO2 produced by the yeast produce alterations in the dough protein structure and pH which promote
good bread structure.
Automated Sponge Dough Process:
The most common industrial method for bread manufacture. Well suited to automation and yields a good flavored product. The
process actually involves 2 fermentation steps:
Sponge manufacture. The "sponge" consists of about 65% of the total flour plus water, yeast and yeast food. It is mixed to uniformity
and allowed to ferment for 4.5 hours at 25 C. During the fermentation, sponge volume increases by a factor of 4-5 due to yeast CO2
production.
After this fermentation, the sponge is transferred to a dough mixer and the remaining flour, water and other ingredients (sweetners,
crumb softeners, etc.) are added. They are blended in at low speed until the dough is uniform and then the blending speed is increased
to develop the dough gets a uniform, sticky, wet-looking texture. This texture results from the combination of wheat proteins glutenin
and gliadin which, under mechanical agitation, form a protein matrix called gluten. Gluten forms a thin film that is capable of
retaining gas. When Saccharomyces cerevisiae grows in the second fermentation, it will produce CO2 that will be trapped in the
gluten and leaven the bread. The dough is allowed to rest for 20-30 min then molded into bread pans. These are placed in proof boxes
to undergo final fermentation for 1 hour at 35-43 C (RH=80-95%) before baking. During bake, CO2, steam and alcohol in the dough
produce more expansion, then the starch gelatinizes at 70oC and the final dough structure is set. When the surface reaches 130oC,
sugars and proteins react to form the brown crust.
Sourdough breads are usually made from...
a mixture of rye and wheat flour and get their acid taste from lactic and acetic acids which are produced by LAB in the dough.
Microorganisms involved in sourdough fermentation are usually a mix of yeast and lactobacilli.
Yeast species can include highly acid-tolerant strains of Candida krusei, Saccharomyces cerevisiae, or Torulopsis holmi. Candida
krusei is the most dominant species and it is also the most acid tolerant, being able to ferment dough at pH 3.6. The lactobacilli have
been identified as homofermentative species such as Lb. plantarum and Lb. delbruekii, or any one of several heterofermentors like Lb.
fermentum, Lb. brevis, and Lb. buchneri.
Whole cereal grains or flour typically contain 10^4-10^6 bacteria per gram:
This number includes 10^2-10^4 coliforms/g and 10^2-10^3 LAB/g. Through "rebuilding" of backslopping from a previous good
batch of dough, numbers of LAB can be raised to 10^7-10^8 CFU/g, which gives little possibility for growth of undesirable
microorganisms. As a consequence, rebuilding has been universally adopted by the sourdough industry. Rebuilding provides the
dough with a good boost in numbers of LAB that are acclimated to the dough environment and thus are well suited to rapid growth in
this substrate.
San Francisco sourdough
The starter sponge contains one species of yeast and one species of bacteria at a ration of 1:100.
Yeast: Candida milleri, an acid-tolerant species that cannot ferment maltose and which is resistant to cyclohexamide, an antibiotic that
inhibits the growth of most yeasts.
Bacterium: Lactobacillus sanfrancisco, heterofermentative LAB that requires an acidic environment (pH < 6.0), unsaturated fatty
acids, and a CO2 rich atmosphere. This bacterium is even more unusual because it ferments only maltose-not glucose, galactose or
sucrose- and because it requires a small peptide (MW=1065) comprised of Asp, Cys, Glu, Gly, and Lys. The peptide is found in fresh
yeast extract and is thought to be produced in the dough through autolysis of C. miller.
The sponge for SF sourdough, which has been maintained continuously for over 140 years, is rebuilt 3 times per day, 7 days a week, to
keep it's good leavening and souring ability. Dough is inoculated with 11% starter sponge then fermented at 27 C for 7-8 hours. The
pH falls from about 5.2 to 3.9-4.0 and the populations of yeast and bacteria approach 10^9 CFU/g.
Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning is caused by....
an enterotoxin that is heat resistant
What type of foods may harbor Staph. aureus
protein rich foods,
meats, fish, and dairy
What is the 2nd most reported food disease?
Staphylococcocal food poisoning
How is food contaminated with Staph. aureus?
boils or abcesses on the handler's skin
sneezing
What are some characteristics of the Staph. aureus organism that help it thrive in/on foods?
the enterotoxin it produces is heat resistant
the organism itself is salt tolerant (halophile)
How is the Staph. toxin dected in foods?
DACK test: a precipitation test with antitoxin
strains are identified by phage-typing
What type of foods harbor clostridial food poisoning? and is it caused by an infection or intoxication?
Protein rich foods: meat, poltry, fish
intoxication...
What organism causes clostridial food poisoning? How does it cause sickness?
Clostridium perfringens
although the enterotoxin itself is heat liable, the SPORES survive cooking, then germinate to produce the enterotoxins
What is a key symptom of clostridium perfringens food poisoning? Does it take much for clinical symptoms to appear?
abdominal cramping and watery diarrhea
yes, high infectious dose is required
symptoms appear after 8-24 hours
The strongest toxin known to man is produced by what organism?
7 strains based on toxin (types A, B, E cause most human disease)
The gram +, spore forming, ANAEROBIC rod produced a deadly NEUROTOXIN (neurotoxins are a type of exotoxin)
the toxin IS heat liable (cook canned foods!)
Botulism is a type of food poisoning that is extremly dangerous. Why?
caused by a powerful neurotoxin.
attacks NERVOUS SYSTEM
causes FLACCID PARALYSIS
within 1-2 days of syptoms onset, the respiratory tract is paralyzed resulting in DEATH
the nervous sytem sends out a nerotransmitter known as _____________ which induces muscle contraction. How does the
botulism toxin cause paralysis?
Acetylcholine
botulism toxin block the release of acetycholine
what is fodder disease?
botulism in animals
botulism in a fowl is know as...
Limberneck
Can botulism be treated?
If treated early, large doses of antitoxins can neutralze the toxin (polyvalent anti-toxin
What causes floppy baby syndrome?
botulism toxin, can occur if you feed babies HONEY bc babies don't have the immune system to fight off even very tiny doses of
toxins
Ironically, the botulism toxin, although the most deadly toxin in the world, has some medical uses. explain.
Since it is a neurotoxin that inhibits muscle contraction. It can be used to treat movement disorders and to remove facial wrinkes
(botox)
A pateint comes in and complains of symptoms such as weakness, blurred vision, nausea, diffuculty swallowing, and is having
trouble speaking.
Yesterday they ate some canned tuna.
What do you suspect? How will you diagnose it?
Clostridium botulinum neurotoxin
precipitation test to find the toxin in the patients serum
find the toxin in the food
it will be rare/difficult to isolate the actual organism since it is anaerobic
typically occurs from eating contaminated GRAINS
Bacillus cereus food poisoning
caused by an toxin
2-6 hour incubation. Recovery in 2 days without treatment
How is typhoid fever transmitted?
Food
Flies
Feces
Fingers
Fomites
What organism causes Typhoid Fever?
Salmonella typhi
A patient comes in with bloody stool, and red spots on their abdomen, they have a fever, are lethargic, and DELERIOUS
What do they have?
Salmonella typhi
bc it is Acid resistant it can pass through the stomach and enter the small intestin causing bloody stool
the organism invades the blood resulting in hemorrhaging (the red spots)
"typhus" = "cloudy/smoky" (hints the delerium)
treatment for typhoid fever
cholamphenicol
Vaccine/s for Typhoid fever?
1. ViCPS: polysaccharide form capsule
2. Ty21a: dead or attenuated Salmonella typhi
Salmonellosis is causes by the organism...
various species of salmonella.
Salmonella sereotypes
What foods is salmonella usually found in?
unpasturized milk and poultry.
Recent outbreak in cantalopes
Unlike Staphyloccocal food poisoning, Salmonella can be transmitted by_______

animals, especially reptiles
the most notable complication of salmonella food poisoning is__________
dehydration from diarrhea, causes the blood to become slow and sluggish
Vaccine for salmonella?
Intramuscular injections stimulate IgG antibody production. Oral vaccines stimulate IgA, which is in bodily secretions and is more
protective of the GI tract
Shigellosis is causes by the organism_________
Shigella sonnei
symptoms include bloody watery stool and dehydration. complications include Hemolytic uremic syndrome, and reactive
arthritis, neurological problems
fast heart rate and low BP
Shigellosis
What is used to treat shigellosis?
Biactrim,, Ampicillin, Ciprofloxacin, Azithromycin
Fluid replacement is the best route
Why is Cholera so dangerous
Cholera toxin causes excessive diarrhea which can result in the loss of 1 liter of fluids per hour!...severe dehydration slows blood and
can lead to shock, coma, and death
infection ouccurs from drinking contaminated water, raw shelfish or oysters
Glassy eyes, fast pulse, RICE WATER STOOL (intestinal lining)
Cholera caused by Vibrio cholerae
To rid foods of Escherichia coli, they must be cooked to what temperature?
160 degrees F or 71 degrees C
causes diarrhea in infants
Enteropathogenic E. coli
traveler's diarrhea or Montezuma's revenge
Enterotoxigenic E. coli
form of E. coli that produces a shiga-like toxin that causes hemorrhagic colitis (bloody watery stool) and can lead to hemolyic
uremic sydrome (kidney failure)
Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
most common form is O157:H&
infectious does less than 100 bacilli
acid tolerant
watery diarrhea 3 or more times per day for 2 or more days

inflammed colon, blood or pus in stool
nausea, dehydration, loss of appetite
Pseudomembranous colitis caused by Clostridium difficile
How does C. difficile function
it produces an enterotoxin that causes fluid loss and a cytotoxin that destroyes cells that like the intestime
What is a complication associated with C. difficile?
Toxic megacolon - colon distended, can't pass stool and gas. Colon becomes perforated and may rupture which could lead to death.
may have to remove feces via esophgeal incubation
Treatment for Clostridium difficile?
stop the antibiotics that caused it
if extreme: Vancomycin or Metronidazole
burining pain below ribs and above navel, hematemesis (bloody, coffee ground vomit) black tarlike stool
Peptic Ulcer disease caused by Heliobacter pylori
diagnosis of Heliobacter pylori
breath test (drink C-13) H. pylori cleaves urea into ammonia and CO2, the C-13 will be exhaled as CO2
endoscopy
stool samples
treatment for peptic ulcer disease?
Amoxicillin, tretracycline, clarithromycin (biaxin) WITH prilosec (an antacid)
Complication of Campylobacterosis?
Guillian Barre Syndrome - rare nervous system disease in which immune system attacks nerve cells, causes paralysis of limbs.
occurs 2-4 weeks after infects and last several weeks
What organism causes 5-14 % of diarrhea illnesses world wide and when are most cases reported?
summer
This type of food borne illness is usually aquired from cold cuts and soft cheeses but recently has been found in cantalopes
Listeria monocytogenes
this food borne illness can cause shock, skin rash, and jaundice
and it takes many forms (endocarditis, meningitis, pneumonia, septicemia)
Listeriosis
pregnant women more succeptable this this foodborne illness, can infect the uterus
Lesteriosis
this foodborne illness is usually found amoung those who work with ruminant animals and its key symptoms is UNDULANT
fever: high fever and sweating during day, low fever and chills at night)
Brucellosis causes by Brucella species
treatment for listeriosis
A, T, Ts
Ampicillin, Tetracycline, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
treatment for brucellosis
Doxycyline and or gentamicin
Discuss the two types of foodborne illnesses known as Vibriosis
Vibriosis vulnificus is found in raw oysters and clams, brackish and sea water areas, it can become systemic and cause necrotic skin
lesions
Vibriosis parahaemolyticus is found in Japan
food poisoning that can be caught from domesticated animals or raw pork
yersiniosis caused by Yersinia enterolitica
Antibiotics are unessecary for this type of food poisoning
Yersiniosis
Yersinia enterocolitica
5 Reasons why agribusiness is imporant
1. patients are now better educated
2. Food is a necessity
3. Market constant evolving
4. Awareness of career opportunities
5. You required knowledge
A food product made without chemical or artificial additives
Natural
Plant or animal food produced without using growth hormones, antibiotics, or petrol based sewage sludge fertilizers
Organic
Development of new products by making a genetic modification in a living organism
Biotechnology
Plant or animal food developed by genetic manipulation
GMO
Chemical compounds in plants that are important to promote healthful reactions in the body but not nutrients or vital for life
Phytochemicals
statement; the hypothesis/goal
Purpose
explains plan used to prepare experiment
Methods
The final project judgement
Evaluation
Often a result of mishandled food, can affect elderly and children the most. Can happen anywhere.
Food Born Illness
Developed by NASA to ensure astronaut safety
HACCP (Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point System)
FBI is caused by
bacteria
2 types of bacteria
1. Aerobic
2. Anaerobic
Requires oxygen for growth and survival
Aerobic
Requires an oxygen free environment for survival
Anaerobic
Examples of 1. Aerobic
2. Anaerobic
1. E. Coli and Salmonella
2. Botulism
Poison formed as waste when certain bacteria thrive and multiply
Exotoxin
Poison in cell walls of certain bacteria
Endotoxin
Special structure of bacteria capable of retaining viability under extremely adverse conditions
Spore
The most fatal form of FBI, requires an antitoxin, produces exotoxins, and is anaerobic.
Botulism
Capable of producing enterotoxin as it grows; found in mucus membranes, boils, and open cuts
Stap aureus
Sometimes found in yoke of unbroken eggs
salmonella
Always caused by fecal matter
E. Coli
Freezing does not ___ bacteria, and only ___ growth
kill; retards
Usually found in meat, meat products unpasteurized milk
Listeria
Pregnant women should avoid __ to avoid getting__
soft cheese; listeria
capable of being engulfed by body cell and eventually altering or killing host cell.
Virus
The most common virus that causes FBI; occurs from fecal matter and can be found in undercooked shellfish.
Hep. A
produces mycotoxins and is commonly found in peanuts
mold
poison produced by some molds that can be lethal when consumed
Mycotoxin
heavy resonsibility for safe food supply; regulates lables, additives, and inspects food plants.
FDA
Ensures meat, poultry, and eggs are safe to consume
USDA
6 methods of food preservation
1. Freezing
2. Canning
3. Drying
4. Pasteurization
5. Salting
6. Smoking
A convenient preservation that doesn't significantly alter the product; retards bacterial growth.
freezing
4 categories of frozen foods
1. Perishable raw foods
2. " " cooked foods
3. Semiperishable foods
4. Nonperishable
When freezinf fruits and vegetables, they must be ___
blanched to wash bacteria and microorganisms
get curdled when frozen unless they contain winterized oil
Emulsified foods
Preservation by heat, usually kept up to 2 years
Canning
Food that has been heat processed enough to kill all pathogenic microorganisms and spores
commercially sterile
2 methods of home canning
1. Pressurized
2. Hot water bath
1. pH of 4.5 or lower can be canned in
2. pH of 4.5 or higher must be
1. Hot water bath
2. Pressurized
processing done under pressure so that temperature is elevated enough to kill microorg.
Pressurized canning
Processing of foods in containers immersed in water at atmospheric pressure; most common method
Water bath canning
Added to fruits to maintain texture
Sugar syrups
Antient pres. method; affective due to absence of moisture
Drying
Exposing fruit to smoke from sulfur flowers to preserve color
Sulfuring
High concentration of sugar establishes osmotic pressure
Sugar preserves
substance added in small amounts to impart or improve desirable qualities or suppress undesirable
Food Additive
any additive, before hitting the market, must be tested by this org.
GRAS - Generally Recognized as Safe
Legislation that burdens proof of safety of food on manufacturers
Food Additives Ammend. 1958
Required that additives produced that cause cancer when consumed in animals or humans can not be added to food
Delany Clause
9 reasons Additives are used:
1. Enhance nutritive value
2. Improve flavor
3. color
4. shelf life
5. texture
6.control pH
7. leavening
8. Bleaching
9. Ease manufacturing problems
2 Categories of Additives
1. Intentional
2. Accidental
Calcium silicate, mannitol, silicon dioxide
Anticaking
Acetic acid, benzoic acid, propylene oxide
Antimicrobial
Ascorbic acid, BHA, BHT
Antioxidants
Ultramarine, yellow dye no. 5, turmeric
Coloring
Ammonium sulfate, locust bean gum, potassium bromide
Dough Strength
Lecithin, monoglycerides, potassium pyrophosphate
Emulsifiers
Amylase, rennet, pectinase
Enzymes
Monosodium glutimate
Flavor enhancers
Synergists
Citric acid, tartaric acid
Subjective method of testing; how you relate opinion to taste
Sensory evaluation
2 ways to sensory evaluate:
1. conducted within company
2. large/small focus group
1. In-house testing
2. Consumer testing
The evaluation of aroma
Smell
The higher the temperature;
the more aroma released
5 flavors of taste
1. Bitter
2. Salty
3. Sweet
4. Sour
5. Umami
Enhance the flavor of other compounds without adding its own unique flavor
flavor potentiator
The examination of texture and color is done by
Sight
The "mouth-feel" of a product

Texture
4 types of sensory testing
1. Difference testing
2. Affective
3. Descriptive
4. Preference
1. Which sample is different between the 2 products
2. Determining the acceptability or preference between the 2 products
3. Pre-defined eval words on a scorecard
4. Preference - which sample they liked best
1. Difference testing
2. Affective
3. Descriptive
4. Preference
Detailed word description developed by a panel
Profiling
2 methods of Objective testing
1. Physical
2. Chemical
Used for measuring baked products
Volumeter
Photocopying and finding circumference
Planimeter
Ratio of density of food to density of water
Specific gravity
Measures tenderness of food
Sheer press
Measures tender and crisp of food
Shortometer
The flow of matter and deformation of flow
Rheology
Measurement of viscosity of a sample by seeing how far it spreads
Line-Spread test
A way of measuring color

Munsell system
Measures vapor and headspace of a sample
Electronic nose
Flavor
Chromatography
3 monosaccharides
glucose
fructose
galactose
3 Disaccharides
Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose
long chained, complex carbs
polysaccharide
3 types of polysaccharides
starch
glycogen
fiber
4 types of sweeteners
HFCS, molasses, sugar, honey
2 types of artificial sweeteners
Non-caloric
and Sugar alcohols
Ability of a sugar to hold and attract water
Hydroscopicity
A sugar has been __ when it has been put in a solution and dried
Crystalized
Sugars can be held in a solution with a __ temp
higher
Most soluble of dissaccharides
Sucrose
Most soluble of monosaccharides
Fructose
large areas of organized sugar crystals
Crystaline candies; fudge and fondant
Dry heat __ to sugar via ___
melts sugar, changes taste, color, and texture via carmelization
Non-enzymatic browning that occurs when a protein and a sugar are heated or stored together
Maillard
Sugar having a free carbonyl that can combine with an amine, leading to non-enzymatic browning via maillard
Reducing sugar
Sugar formed by hydrolysis of sucrose; mix of fructose and glucose
invert sugar
7 Nutritive sweeteners and their kcal/g
sucrose
brown
invert
confectioners/powdered
honey
molasses
corn syrup
4kcal/g
5 non nutritive sweeteners
Saccharin
Aspartame
Sucralose
Sweet One
Stevia
The storage form of glucose in plants
Starch
2 components of starch; the building blocks of glucose
Amylose
Amylopectin
Long & chainlike; contributes to gelling
Amylose
Short chain and highly branched; DOES NOT GEL

Amylopectin
Polysaccharide, a starch that has been modified by heat or acids. Used as adhesives.
Dextrin
pectin, any of various water-soluble colloidal carbohydrates that occur in ripe fruit and vegetables
Pectin
Hold water and used as thickener and gel in salad dressings
Vegetable gum
mix/system where 2 substances are interspersed in each other to provide texture and viscosity
Hydrocolloids
form crystal pattern when looked at in the light
Bifringence
Swelling of starch granules and migration of some amylose into cooking water; heated in water to thicken foods
Gelatinization
Heating that continues after gelatinization creates
Pasting
Process of formation of a gel
Gelation
when amylose molecules reorganize into crystalline regions
retrogradation
Hydrolytic breakdown of starch effected b intense dry heat; produces dextrins
Dextrinization
Starch + water + acid to break chains of H
Chemical modification
used as a thickener and stablilzing agent
cross-linking
forms gels in a cold liquid
instant starch
mimicks fat mouthfeel

starch based fat replacers
Starch that has been geltinized then dehydrated; addition of water produces a thickened product
pre-gelatinized starch
Starch granules are insoluble in
cold water
increase heat, increase
viscosity
Effect on starch:
Stirring
Acidity
Sugar
Cool w/o stirring
smooths out the product
causes starch to lose thickening power
lose thickening power because it absorbs water, causing tenderness and transluecense
Syneresis; starch molecules pull together
Starch molecules pull together, pushes liquid to the top
syneresis
Flowers of plants or ripened ovaries of plant
fruit
root, stem, or leaf of plant
vegetable
portion of vascular system that transports aqueous soln such as nutrients
phloem
The ripening of fruit occurs when
chlorophyll breaks down with the formation of pectin
3 fiber types
Cellulose
Hemicellulose
Pectin
valued for gel forming properties
Pectin
a polysaccharide that is the chief constituent of all plant tissues and fibers
Cellulose
carbohydrate polymers composed of various sugars and uronic acids; structural feature of plant cell walls
Hemicellulose
Structural component of some plant foods that is removed to avoid wooded quality
Lignin
4 Veg. botanically classified as fruit
Tomato
Cucumber
Squash
Eggplant
Grown below the ground; i.e. carrots
root vegetables
Short, thick, fleshy part of underground stem
tubers
Short stem with fleshy leaves
bulb
Seeds; dried; more protein than most veggies
legumes
Flavor found in onion, chive, garlic, and leeks.
allium
Found in brussles, broccoli, cabbage, rutabaga, turnips, cauliflower, kale, and mustard
cruciferae
strong compound formed when garlic clove is crushed.
Alliin
Eye irritating acid substance in onions that decomposes rapidly
propenylsulfenic acid
The 3 tissue systems of fruits and vegetables
dermal, vascular, and ground
Dermal tissueVascularGroundouterlayer
System that transports water and other nutrients
inner layer
the vascular system is composed of 2 things
xylem and phloem
Responsible for transporting water
xylem
Responsible for transporting organic matter
phloem
Typical cell type in F & V, most abundant in ground system
parenchyma cell
Food Chemistry
The systematic evaluation and understanding of water carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, vitamins, minerals, and other ingredients, such
as additives, as they undergo chemical interaction/reaction during harvest, storage and distribution of foods
Pigments
Chlorophylls, carotenoids, anthocyanins, betalains
Toxins
Solanine, amygdaline
Preservatives
citric acid, benzoic acid
Enzymes
papain
Pigments in Fruits and Veggies: Anthocyanins
Water soluble compounds ranging from purple to orange: eggplant, radish, red potato
Pigments in Fruits and Veggies: Betalains
Purple to red-yellow: Beets
Pigments in Fruits and Veggies: Carotenoids
Fat soluble ranging from yellow to red-orange: Carrots, tomatoes, peppers

Pigments in Fruits and Veggies: Chlorophylls
Have a porphyrin ring with Mg and green color: broccoli, lettuce, spinach
Factors Affecting Chemistry of Plant Tissue
-Temperature: reaction rates vary
-Humidity: wilting or spolage
-Washing/Soaking: leaching
-Cutting/Slicing: enzymatic change
-Heating: flavor and texture
-Freezing: slows reactions
Forms of Mb in Meat: Myoglobin (aka deoxymyoglobin)
Purple- reduced Fe+2 No Oxygen
Forms of Mb in Meat: Oxymyglobin
Red- oxygenation and reduced Fe+2 Oxygen
Forms of Mb in Meat: Metmyoglobin
Grayish or brown-oxidation and oxidized Fe+3 Has oxygen but has been sitting out
Forms of Mb in Meat: Nitrosylhemochrome
Pink- cured meat (not cooked)
Factors Affecting Chemistry of Animal Tissues
Cooking-flavor, color, and texture
Drying-flavor
Freezing-slows reactions
Pasteurizing-microbial reduction
In formulated foods, food scientists make use of
specific chemicals in ingredients to produce a desired result
Functionality of Ingredients
defines as the physicochemical properties that affect performance in a food during processing, storage, and preparation
Types of Chemicals in Foods
-Toxic compounds
-Preservatives
-Food additives
-Colors/flavors
-Nutrients
-Enzymes
-Water
Solanine
Potato
Amygdaline
Peach Pits
Myristician
Nutmeg
Safrole
Sassafras root
Thiocyanate
Cabbage
Coumarin
Citrus fruits
Hydrazine
Mushrooms
Ames Test
Developed to identify the mutagenic potential of chemical substances. Based on testing the response of bacterial cells to chemical
structures.
Preservatives work by
slowing, stopping or killing microbes
Salt & Sugar
are the most common preservatives and work by decreasing water activity
Other preservatives include
Organic acids (acetic, citric, benzoic acids) and salts (potassium sorbate)
Food Additive
A substance added to food. Most are intentional and must be approved by FDA. Indirect additives are contaminants but are often
anticipated at a minimal level
Indirect Additive Examples
Antibiotics, dioxins, dirt/dust, hair, hormones, insects, microwave packaging
Major Types of Food Additives: Anticaking and free-flowing agents
Calcium silicates and talc
Major Types of Food Additives: Antioxidants

BHA, BHT, ascorbic acid, tocopherols
Major Types of Food Additives: Colorants
FD&C certified color additives, exempt colorants
Emulsifiers
Lecithin, monoglycerides, sodium phosphate
Enzymes (Food Additives)
Pectinase, glucose oxidase, invertase
Flavorings
Essential oils, monosodium glutamate
Humectants
Fructose, glycerine, sorbitol, propylene glycol
Leaving Agents
Baking powder (baking soda and cream of tartar)
pH control agents
Acidulants: malic acid, tartaric acid, citric acid, vinegar, phosphoric acid
Alkaline compounds: sodium hydroxide
Preservatives (Additional Additives)
Salt, sugar, sodium nitrite, potassium sorbate
Sweeteners
Nonnutritive sweeteners: aspartame, saccharin
Nutritive sweeteners: sucrose, lactose, fructose, maltose
Sequestrants (chelating agents)
citric acid, polyphosphates, EDTA
Stabilizers and thickeners
Starch, pectin, gums, cellulose, gelatin
A colorant is a
Pigment used to impact color to a food or beverage
FD&C Colorants
-Certified as safe for food, drug or cosmetic applications

-Color suppliers provide:
dyes: water soluble for entire food
Lakes: insoluble for food surfaces
Exempt Colorants: Annatto
From seeds of a tropical evergreen
Exempt Colorants: Cochineal
From dried cochineal insects
Exempt Colorants: Caramel
From nonenzymatic thermal processing of sugars
Exempt Colorants: Paprika extra
Just know it
Flavors may be either
natural of artificial and contribute uniformity to formulated foods along with quality
Character-impact compounds
Associated with particular products
-Benzaldehyde: cherry of almond
-Isoamyl acetate: banana
Food flavorists study
natural flavors in foods and develop flavor additives
Reaction flavors are produced by
chemical reactions under specific conditions
Maillard reaction products are made by
heating amino acids with reducing sugars
Flavor terms: Extracts
alcohol as solvent
Flavor terms: Essential oil
steam distillation
Flavor terms: Oleoresin
oil-soluble extract
Monosodium glutamate (MSG)
A flavor enhancer for the savory (unami) character in meat products

Carbohydrates: Monosaccharides
glucose, fructose
Carbohydrates: Disaccharides
Sucrose, lactose
Carbohydrates: Oligosaccharides
stachyose, raffinose
Carbohydrates: Polysaccharides
starch, cellulose, gylcogen
Carbohydrates: Dietary fiber
hemicellulose, pectin, lignin
Modified starches are
chemically treated to thicken without heating
Retrogradation
crystallization of starch molecules in stale bread
Lipids are defines as
chemical compounds that are soluble in organic solvents but not soluble in water
Three main groups of lipid
Triglycerides-triaclyglycerol
Phospholipids-lecithin
Cholesterol
Vegetable Gums
-Long chain polymers that can be linear or branched
Examples:
Gum arabic (sap)
Carrageenan and alginate (seaweed)
Guar gum (seed)
Xanthan gum (microbial)
-Uses include thickening, gelling and binding
Fatty acids are saturated if
there are no carbon to carbon double bonds
Fatty acids are unsaturated if
there are one or more double bonds
Oil are more unsaturated and thus

have a lower melting point than fats
In a cis configuration
The H atoms bonded to the C=C are located on the same side
In a trans configuration
The H atoms are bonded on the opposite side of the C=C
Fractionation involves
splitting oils into high and low melting point components
Hydrogenation is the
forced addition of hydrogen atoms to the unsaturated bonds of fatty acids to raise the melting point of the fat (harden)
Hydrolysis is the
breakdown of triglycerides into glycerol and fatty acids
Water Holding Capacity
The ability to retain moisture during the application of external forces like heating, grinding and pressing
Interesterification is a
rearrangement or recombination of fatty acids from a triglyceride
Oxidation
result of oxygen reacting with the double bonds of unsaturated fatty acids to produce a rancid flavor or aroma
Polymerization of fatty acids can occur after
fatty acids are hydrolyzed from glycerol
Proteins
-Important macronutrients and provide essential amino acids
-Provide structure in foods and often serve as enzymes in reactions
-Polymers of amino acids
-Every protein has an acid end and an amino end
Structure of Proteins: Primary
the linear sequence of amino acids
Structure of Proteins: Secondary
refers to the alpha helix or beta sheet configuration
Structure of Proteins: Tertiary
describes the three-dimensional shape of the protein molecule

Structure of Proteins: Quaternary
overall spatial structure if the protein has more than one polypeptide
Denaturation is an
unfolding of protein structure (breaking H bonds) without disrupting covalent bonds
-stops enzyme function and decreases protein solubility
-starches, lipids and vitamins do not denature
Hydrolysis results in
degradation to primary structure by enzymes, heat or extremes of pH
Enzymes
Specialized proteins that catalyze specific reactions converting substrates to products
ex: polygalaturonase in peach: bruising
polyphenyloxidase in apple: browning
Enzymatic hydrolysis utilizes enzymes to
break large molecule into smaller fragments (carbohydrases, lipases)
Enzymatic oxidation-reduction reaction involve
enzymes that cause changes in chemical structures (polyphenol oxidase)
Enzymatic polymerization involves the
condensation of molecules into polymers
Water
-the most abundant chemical in foods
-may be a solid, liquid, or a gas
-knows as the universal solvent
-important for safety and quality of products
Water activity (aw) is a measure
of the availability of water molecules
-is calculated as the ratio of water vapor pressure of the substance divided by the vapor pressure of pure water at the same temperature
-Water activity is related to relative humidity (RH=100Xaw)
The main function of food is to
provide us with energy in the form of calories
-carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and alcohol provide calories
-too many or too few lead to health problems
Noncaloric items
-Vitamins and minerals do not provide calories but are necessary: deficiency diseases result if not in diet
-Dietary fiber does not provide energy but does avert or decrease some problems
Essential Amino Acids

ones that the body cannot synthesize: lysine, methionine, tryptophan, valine
Excessive protein consumption may result in
-lack of glucose for the brain
-ketoacidosis (excessive ketones)
-high urea in urine
Recommended Protein Intake
-0.8g/kg of body weight (female): 40g for 50 kg (110#)
-0.9g/kg of body weight (male): 90g for 100 kg (220#)
-10-15% of caloric intake
Benefits of Food Biotechnology
Provide new products with better quality
Lowering costs
Improving food safety
-the microbial processes on which food producers have long relied,
Improve nutritional value for health and nutritional benefits
Essential Fatty Acids are
required in the diet for absorption of fat-soluble vitamins and because they aren't synthesized by the body
Sterols are required for
Proper brain function and to produce key hormones
-progesterone and testosterone
Lipids are
water soluble substances that transport fat and cholesterol in blood
Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) carries cholesterol
from liver to body cells
Very-low-density lipoproteins carry cholesterol
and TGs from liver to body
High-density lipproteins carry cholesterol
back to the liver
Excessive lipid intake will
accumulate in arteries (heart disease) and contribute to overall weight gain (obesity)
Recommended Lipid Intake
-less than or equal to 30% of calories from total fat
-less than or equal to 10% of calories from saturated fat
-no more than 300mg of cholesterol
Carbohydrates should be main source of calories in the diet T or F

True, however excessive carbohydrate consumption can lead to accumulation of fat and dental caries and diabetes
Glycogen
Animal starch stored in muscles as a source of energy.
Recommended Carbohydrate Intake
-Lower limit: 55% of caloric intake
-Upper limit: 75% of caloric intake
-Sugars: <10% of caloric intake
-Fiber: 20-35g per day
Vitamins are
co-factors for enzymes and affect metabolism
Water soluble vitamins include
B and C vitamins
Fat soluble vitamins include
A, D, E, and K
Ethanol
provides 7kcal/gram and is the fourth source of calories. A moderate amount of alcohol is recommended by many doctors but
excessive consumptions can lead to weight gain, impaired motor skills and poor judgement
Vegetables
-provide minerals, vitamins and dietary fiber
-vegetable fiber is high in pectin and lower in cellulose than fiber from grain
-vegetables are high in moisture and low in fat and sugar
Fruits
-contribute vitamins, minerals, and fiber to the diet
-they have more sugar and less starch than vegetables
-processed juices have less dietary fiber than whole fruits
Milk products are high in
calcium, protein, potassium and vitamin D
Meat and Beans
-Protein is primary nutrient
-many are also rich in B-vitamins, iron, and zinc
-animal products tend to be higher in fat, minerals, and balanced proteins
Fats are
solid at room temperature and have higher levels of saturated fat than oils
Oils provide
essential fatty acids and are needed for absorption of fat-soluble vitamins
Bioavailability
refers to the degree to which nutrients are digested and absorbed
Enzymes are largely responsible for the
digestion or breakdown of food molecules into absorbable units
Enzymes are
protein molecules that cause chemical reactions to occur without being altered in the process. Name usually end in "ase"
Absorption
occurs when digested nutrients enter the bloodstream through capillaries of the small intestine
Transport
is the delivery of nutrients and oxygen to all of the body's cells by the vascular (aka circulatory) system. Exchange of nutrients and
wastes takes place across the walls of capillaries.
Digestive Disorders
-Constipation
-Irritable bowel syndrome
-Flatulence/belching
-Acid reflux
-Ulcers (Helicobacter pylori)
Reduced intake of calories may be due to several situations
-Starvation
-Anorexia
-Bulimia
-Kwashiorkor (limited protein)
-Marasmus
Deficiency Diseases
Anemia: iron
Beriber: thiamin
Goiter: iodine
Osteoporosis: calcium
rickets: vitamin D
scurvy: vitamin C
Microbes are responsible for
almost all food borne illness and cause most food spoilage
Pathogens cause
disease and death
Beneficial microbes may control harmful ones and are used from many products
yogurt, bread, beer, wine, and sausage
Microbiology
the study of the physiology, genetics, growth characteristics, survival, and behavior of microbes
Food Microbiologists focus on
Microbes that contaminate or grow in food
Protozoa
Single-celled eukaryotes
-classified by their morphology, locomotion and life cycle
-they do not grow in foods, but are parasites that require a host to complete their life cycle
Key example: Giardia Lamblia
source: intestinal tract, water
Leg
no or slow growth, getting used to the environment
-control here is most effective
Log
rapid growth
Stationary
as many cells are dying as are being created
-food and waste products become limiting
Death
waste products are toxic, food is gone
Acid Foods
those that have a natural pH of 4.6 or less
Acidified Foods
low acid foods to which acids are added
-pH of 4.6 or less and aw of 0.85 or more
Low Acid Foods
those with a pH greater than 4.6 and aw of 0.85 or more
Psychrophiles
55 degrees
Mesophiles
95 degrees
Thermophiles
150 degrees
Aerobes
require oxygen
prefer oxygen
Microaerophilic
utilize a trace of oxygen
anaerobes
cannot tolerate oxygen
What are the causative agents of lumpy jaw and woody tongue in the cow and how would you differentiate between the two?
Actinomyces bovis (lumpy jaw); Actinobacillus lignieresii (Woody Tongue) Ac. bovis is gram positive rod; A. lignieresii is gram
negative rod Ac. Bovis has a non-painful lesion, bone involvement, A. lignieresii is painful,soft tissues
What clinical signs you would expect to see in a calf or calves affected with Bovine Papular Stomatitis virus?
Asymptomatic at first with an outbreak of signs; Hyperemic foci on various areas (nose, mouth, palate, tongue, esophagus, abdomen,
rumen, rear legs, scrotum (not on feet); In severe cases - weight loss, diarrhea, possible fever,
Name the two oral cavity diseases commonly caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum. How would you clinically differentiate
one from the other?
Oral necrobacillosis (or Necrotic Stomatitis), and Laryngeal Necrobacillosis (Calf Diphtheria), Necrotic stomatitis - younger animals
(2weeks to 6 months), problems eating, Calf diphtheria - older calves (6-18 months), no stomatitis, problems breathing (may have
problems eating)
What is the treatment of choice for each of the following conditions? Lumpy jaw, woody tongue, calf diphtheria:
Lumpy Jaw - Debulk, drain, curette, Penicillin, oxtetracycline, Woody Tongue - Iodides, penicillin, oxytetracycline, soft diet,
supportive care, Calf diphtheria - penicillin, anti-inflammatories, supportive care, fluids, soft feeds
In ruminants, which test on a standard serum chemistry panel serves as the most reliable indicator of renal compromise?
Creatinine (but also BUN)
Urinary tract infections in ruminants are most commonly due to what 2 organisms?
Corynbacterium renale, E. coli
What is the most common route of infection leading to cystitis, ureteritis, and pyelonephritis in ruminants?
Ascending infection
List at least 3 potential causes of acute tubular necrosis in large animals:

Hypovolemia - hemodynamic, reduced renal perfusion, occlusion of renal vasculature, nephrotoxic drugs, nephrotoxic plants, heavy
metals, endogenous pigments, ethylene glycol, monensin, mycotoxins
What is the host-adapted species of leptospirosis in cattle?
Leptospira borgpetersenii hardjo-bovis
How can rabies be differentiated from other infectious disease causes of acute central nervous system (CNS) signs in cattle?
Rabies - death in 10 days, Pseudorabies - mad itch, severe pruritis, Listeriosis - lateralizing signs, Polioencephalomalacia - thiamine
responsive, Thrombotic Meningoencephalitis - eye lesions (retinal hemorrhages), Bovine spongiform encephalopathy - progressive
neurologic signs over weeks to months, Brain abscess - also progressive, asymmetric, Pituitary abscess - persistent Bradycardia, Otitis
media-interna - bright, alert, no postural deficits, Bacterial Meningitis - fever, stiff neck, Tetanus - muscle rigidity, Botulism - flaccid
paralysis
What is the one clinical sign demonstrated by essentially all animals affected with rabies?
Death within 10 days of first signs
List at least 3 diseases that are associated with blindness and acute cerebral signs in cattle. How would you differentiate
between them?
Rabies - all die within 10 days of onset of clinical signs, Pseudorabies - mad itch, Listeriosis - lateralizing lesions, cranial nerve
deficits (esp. VII and VIII), Polioencephalomalacia - respond to thiamine treatment, Hypovitaminosis A - may also have other signs of
abnormal bone development, may have dermatitis, unresponsive pupils, night-blindness, star-gazing, papilledema, Thrombotic
meningoencephalitis - Eye lesions (retinal hemorrhages, hyphema, kypopyon); other systemic signs such as respiratory disease, Salt
poisoning (or water deprivation) - history, death from respiratory failure??, hyperexcitability, Brain abscess - fever, other site of
infection?, cbc findings?, Pituitary abscess - persistent bradycardia, Bacterial Meningitis - stiff neck
Describe briefly the etiology and signs of polioencephalomalacia:
Any cause of disturbance in thiamine metabolism leading to grey matter of cerebral cortex to atrophy - any disturbance in normal
rumen function and fermentation, sulfur toxicosis, thiamine poor diet, plant thiaminases - soybeans, horsetail, high grain diets (low pH
promotes thiaminase producing bacteria), amprolium (thiamine competing analogue; Depression, anorexia, blindness - intact papillary
function, miosis, strabismus, head pressing, ataxia, head and neck extended, bruxism, opisthotonus, recumbency, hyper-reactivity,
seizures, vocalization
What is the treatment of choice for cattle affected with polioencephalomalacia?
Thiamine
What circumstances predispose cattle to clinical signs of hypovitaminosis A?
Growing or feedlot animals
What are the characteristic ophthalmic lesions associated with hypovitaminosis A?
Dilated, unresponsive pupils, papilledema (border of optic disc indistinct, inverted heart appearance, disc faded/flat in advanced
cases), blood vessels tortuous or appear occluded, retinal edema and hemorrhages, corneal changes are uncommon
Brain or pituitary abscesses in cattle are most commonly due to what bacterial organism?
Trueperella pyogenes
What clinical characteristics differentiate cattle with Listeriosis from those with polioencephalomalacia, rabies, or thrombotic
meningoencephalitis?
Listeriosis has lateralizing neurologic lesions

What is the most common cause of neoplastic spinal cord disease in cattle?
Hint - answer is lymphosarcoma
What are the characteristic clinical signs and time course seen in cattle poisoned by over-consumption of urea (non-protein
nitrogen) or ammoniated feeds?
Rapid onset (30 minutes to 4 hours), GI signs - bloat, colic, salivation, shivering, frequent urination, hyperexcitability
How does the treatment of cattle with urea poisoning differ from that for cattle with ammoniated feed toxicosis?
Urea - want to dilute and decrease pH of rumen - 2-6 L of vinegar and 20-30 L of cold water; Ammoniated Feeds - remove the feed
source (sedation and thiamine)
What are the two main target organs damaged in cattle suffering from ionophore toxicosis?
Cardiac and skeletal muscle
Gossypol toxicosis may cause hypolactia, anorexia, diarrhea, dyspnea, weakness, and reproductive in adult animals and is
associated with the feeding of what feedstuff(s) to cattle?
Whole or cottonseed meal
What are the major clinical signs that differentiate acute from chronic selenosis in cattle?
Acute - acute signs of CV and respiratory disruption; Chronic - skin, hair coat issues, lameness; Poor hair coat, abnormal hoof growth,
lameness
What two mycotoxins are commonly associated with lameness and foot lesions including hoof sloughing in cattle?
Ergot alkaloids - from Claviceps purpurea or Acremonium coenophialum; ???
What clinical signs are observed in cattle with nitrate toxicosis?
Hypoxia, respiratory distress, brown blood or urine, dyspnea, weakness, abortion
What is the underlying pathophysiologic mechanism responsible for the clinical signs observed in cattle with nitrate toxicosis?
Nitrates are converted to nitrities before or after ingestion which converts Hb to metHb, which does not bind or transport oxygen
What two factors predispose cattle to salt poisoning?
Lack of water intake or high salt diets; summer - highest time of insensible water loss
What clinical signs would you expect to observe in young cattle affected with lead intoxication?
Acute death, CNS signs - depression, blindness, head-pressing, vocalization, facial spasticity; GIT - rumen stasis, bloat, diarrhea,
constipation, colic, Chronic cases - GIT signs, poor growth, anemia, basophilic stippling, retilculocytosis, mild cerebrocortical signs
What is the goal of beef cow-calf operations?
Transform grass into weaned calves destined for feedlots
What are the three production goals of cow-calf operations?
95% calf crop, 60-day calving season, 500 lb average weaning weights
How do you drive intake in beef cattle?
Salt supplementation
What are the two most critical periods nutritionally for cow-calf operations?
Early lactation (coincides with re-breeding); and Late gestation (coincides with late pregnancy
During what time period of a cows reproductive cycle does protein-energy malnutrition occur?
Late gestation
T or F - Beef cattle with protein-energy malnutrition are models of starvation for other species:
True
What is the most common nutritional deficiency of beef cattle?
Protein-energy malnutrition
Define Protein-energy malnutrition?
Deficiency (but not complete absence) of protein and/or energy in the diet of overwintering beef cows, resulting in a specific clinical
syndrome
What are three consequences of PEM that is economically important?
Dead cows, Anestrus, Weak or dead calves (also reduced weaning weights of calves that live)
What is the number one cause of infertility in beef cattle?
Protein-energy malnutrition
What is the Lower Critical Temperature for a beef cattle?
about 10 degree F
What increases in energy contribute to risk of PEM?
Late gestation, growing heifers, poor condition in fall, cold stress, muddy conditions, parasitism
What are the two general contributors to PEM risk?
Increased demand for protein and energy; Inadequate availability of protein and energy
What is the relationship between plant maturity and forage quality?
Inverse relationship
When feeding beef cattle over winter, what is one thing to remember about pastures?
Never graze after January 1st due to nutrient leaching and selective grazing
Can you feed just corn silage to beef cattle over the winter?
No, energy-rich but relatively protein deficient

Describe the pathophysiology of PEM:
Glycogen stores are rapidly exhausted, gluconeogenesis kicks in but is then exhausted leading to rapid decompensation, there is a
decreased metabolic rate (lower T3 and T4 concentrations; hypothermia and sluggishness), host of specific effects on organ systems maldigestion and malabsorption, broad immunosuppression, dystocias, decreased quantity and quality of colostrum, anestrus, wasting
of muscles (weakness), secondary pneumonia
Do abortions occur with PEM?
Very rare; requires extra stress)
Does PEM produce ketosis?
No; free fatty acids are usually completely oxidized, fat mobilized too slowly
What is the clinical presentation of an PEM cow?
Alert, recumbent cow with excellent appetite, emaciated condition, persistent hypothermia, normal heart and lung sounds (maybe
some mild passive congestion of lungs), rumen contractions decreased or absent (usually full of dry, hard contents); possible some
other primary condition that led to PEM, cows usually die 7-14 days after going down, regardless of treatment effort
What are possible primary conditions that can lead to PEM?
Blindness, chronic debilitating diseases (Johne's disease, bovine leukosis, hardware, abomasal impaction, ect), bad teeth or anything
that would impair intake, chronic lameness
List DDx for PEM:
Parasitism, toxicoses, metabolic disease (hypocalcemai, ketosis), chronic inflammatory conditions (hardware, endocarditis,
pyelonephritis), neoplasia (especially bovine leukosis), and vitamin or mineral deficiency; CU or Se are the nutritional deficiencies
most similar to PEM
What is the only way to confirm a clinical diagnosis of primary PEM?
Necropsy - general emaciation of the carcass - serous (brown) atrophy of the fat that remains (coronary groove, kidney fat and bone
marrow
What does treatment of PEM involve in beef cattle?
Slow progressing, labor intensive - poor prognosis and usually not attempted; need to supply nutrients, correct fluid imbalances,
promote digestion and absorption, possibly give B-vitamins, anti-parasitic drugs, prophylactic antibiotics, may need to therapeutically
abort a cow
What is the function of beef feedlots?
Transform weanlings or yearlings into finished beef
What are the production goals of beef feedlots?
2.5 - 3.0 lbs/head/day average daily gain; 6 lbs dry feed per pound gained, minimum time in feedlot - 5-8 months; <1% death loss with
feeder calved entering lot; <0.25% loss with yearlings; have profitability
How can you minimize the risk of ruminal acidosis when feeding high grain diets?
Gradual adaptation with extremely consistent feed delivery; not too finely ground concentrates, ionophores (increased feed efficiency
as well as reduce ruminal acidosis)
What can be supplemented in a feedlot diet to help with the low protein in the diets?
NPN
When is protein feeding important in the progression of feedlot cattle?
Early on in the feeding period; later lower protein diets are used as fat deposition takes over for muscle growth
What is the most critical period nutritionally for beef feedlot animals?
Upon arrival at the feedlot
How can you prevent problems nutritionally for new arrivals at beef feedlots?
High-energy, palatable feeds and adequate source of long fiber; no NPO at this time (all natural proteins); easily accessible water
source
What is the cause of Chronic Bloat Syndrome in feedlot cattle?
Usually caused by ruminal acidosis - may favor bacteria that produce a stable foam in the rumen
T or F - Urolithiais is not a problem in beef feedlot cattle:
False, it is a problem
How can you prevent urolithiasis in beef feedlot animals?
Promote dieresis with additional salt and calcium; acidify urine with ammonium chloride or calcium chloride
What is "Grass Tetany"?
Hypomagnesemia
What are the risk factors for cows to develop Grass Tetany?
Spring calving beef cattle in early lactation, lush pastures, rapidly growing grass
What are the metabolic abnormalities associated with grass tetany?
Mg required for every metabolic pathway; decreased milk production, anorexia, nervousness, twitching muscle of face, shoulder and
flank, rumen stasis, restless, hyperexcitability, aggressive, frequent urination, bellowing, stiff-gated, sensitive to sound, progresses to
titanic spasm of muscles, ataxia, fall , bounding heart sounds, tachycardia, recumbent, seizure, eyelid flutter, nystagmus, death
How do you treat grass tetany?
Minimize handling (decrease risk of seizure), Ca gluconate with 5% Mg hypophosphate, MgSO4 slowly IV, give some oral, SQ or Mg
enema to help with relapses
What is the initial compound associated with development of Acute Bovine Pulmonary Edema and Emphysema and What is
the toxic metabolite?
L-tryptophan; 3-methylindole and #MI metabolites
How do you manage or prevent ABPEE from occurring in pastured beef cattle?
Pasture management - avoid toxic pastures, prefeed hay, limit access to pasture, delay use of lush pasture till after hard frost, mow
pasture before use, pregraze with less susceptible animals, use continuous strip-grazing; use prophylactic medication - Monensin,
Lasalocid
What is the causative agent of IBK and How is it treated?
Moraxella bovis; Antibiotic - Draxin, long acting Oxytet, Subconjunctival antibiotics - Ceftiofur, ampicillin, penicillin,topical
antibiotics and atropine, protect eye from sunlight, allow for cleansing and discharge from eye, fly control, avoid corticosteroids
Define metaphylaxis?
Timely, mass medication of a group of animals to minimize or eliminate an expected outbreak
What is the cattle lungworm?
Dictyocaulus viviparus
How do you diagnosis Lung worms in live cattle?
Signs in cattle on pasture, Baermann apparatus, Transtracheal wash - eosinophils, larvae
What is the appropriate treatment for liver flukes in stocker cattle?
Flukecidal drugs for adults and juvenile flukes (Fenbendazole, albendazole, closulon for juvenile flukes
What bacterial diseases are associated with liver flukes in cattle?
Black's disease (C. novyi), and bacillary hemoglobinuria (C. haemolyticum)
What are the clinical signs of copper deficiency in stocker cattle?
Young stock - poor growth and loss of coordination of the hind limbs; Adult cattle - diarrhea and hair coat changes; Anemia, diarrhea,
swollen painful joints, infertility, decreased resistance to disease
What is (are) the nutritional factors associated with the development of copper deficiency in these cattle?
Can be primary deficiency or secondary due to dietary imbalance - excess molybdenum, excess sulfates, cadmium, zinc and calcium,
soil ingestion due to overgrazing
What is Buller Steer Syndrome?
Behavioral problem among feedlot steers characterized by repeated mounting of a steer (buller) by a group of steers (riders) - buller
steer becomes exhausted, often shows hair loss, swelling and trauma on rump and tail head, may have broken bones or even die from
injuries;
How do you manage Buller Steer Syndrome?
Prompt isolation and removal of buller to separate sick pen where bulling usually subsides
What are the characteristics and clinical signs of Tracheal Edema Syndrome in feedlot cattle?
An acute dyspnea syndrome in heavy feedlot cattle in last half of feeding period, sporadic during summer; Acute onset of dyspnea
with increased respiratory effort, coughing, loud guttural stertor, open-mouth breathing, cyanosis and possibly death; Edematous
thickening, hemorrhages of the dorsal wall of the trachea from mid-cervical region to tracheal bifurcation; No significant lung disease
What is the major respiratory cause of animal death and/or economic loss in Stocker and Feedlot cattle?
Bovine Respiratory Disease Complex or shipping fever

What is the relationship to the size of farms, the amount of milk cows are producing and lameness prevelance?
As farms are getting larger and cows are producing more milk, lameness levels are rising
What are changes in gait that indicates lameness?
Arching of the back, shortening of the stride on the affected limb, sinking of the dew claws on the unaffected contra-lateral limb, head
bob in a vertical plane, reduction in walking speed and frequent stops, swinging the affected limb in or out depending on the location
of the painful lesion
What animals are you going to Locomotion score?
All the cows or possibly representative groups like fresh, first lactation, high group, etc . . .
What are the two main reasons for locomotion scoring?
To determine the herd prevalence of lameness at a single point in time; To identify lameness in the individual cow so that treatment
may be administered
What locomotion scores show weight transfer?
Scores 3, 4, and 5 and we need to intervene in these cases
What are our goals for Locomotion scores as a whole in the hered?
No score 5; < 10% score 4
What are the costs of lameness?
3 lbs of milk loss/cow/day, 0-50 extra days to conception, increased delayed cyclicity post-partum, culling risk 2-4x that of non-lame
cows, cost of footbathing, trimming and treatments
What is our role as a veterinarian in the hoof trimming of a herd?
We have to determine whether the hoof-trimming program is a net positive, neutral or detrimental to the herd
What are the two components to correct hoof-trimming?
Restore a more upright foot angle; Balances the weight distribution between the inner and outer claw
Which claw tends to over grow in the hind limbs of cattle?
The outer claw
What is the typical length of the dorsal hoof wall of a Holstein cow?
3 inches
What is the growth rate of cattle horn in general?
0.5 cm per month
How long does it take to grow out a hoof wall? A hoof sole?
15 months; 8 weeks
How frequently do you have to trim the hooves of cattle?
Benefits from hoof trimming last around 4 months; All cows should be trimmed at dry off and once during lactation (80-150 DIM);
Heifers with overgrown hoofs should be trimmed before calving
What are the 6 questions you need to answer when assessing trimming of feet on cattle?
Are the toes trimmed too short; Is the heal of the inner claw trimmed too much; Is the axial wall in the toe removed; Is the sole
trimmed with a concave slope rather than flat; Is the outer wall removed excessively; Is the sole too thin
What is the common reason for trimming the toes too short and removing too much sole and heal horn leading to thin soles,
white line disease and toe ulcers?
Problem of adapting to hoof wear in an expanding herd
Why might there be excessive removal of outer wall horn, removal of the axial wall in the toe region, and poor treatment of
existing lesions?
Poor hoof trimming technique
What are 5 general parts to deliberate surveillance for lameness?
Staff members trained to use locomotion scoring, ID and record lame cows when moving to parlor, in each pen once a week, when
returning from a vet check, and at dry off
What are the claw horn lesions?
Sole hemorrhage, sole ulcer, toe ulcer, heel ulcer (sole fracture), white line disease (hemorrhage, fissure, abscess), horizontal fissure,
vertical fissure
Name the infectious hoof lesions:
Digital dermatitis, Interdigital phlegmon (Foot rot), Heel horn erosion
What is another name for Interdigital hyperplasia?
Corn
What are some comparisons you can make with hoof lesion records?
First lactation vs mature cows, Trimmers lameness findings vs lesions causing lameness later, ratio of infectious to claw horn lesions,
ratio of sole ulcers to white line disease
What is the typical location of a sole ulcer?
Beneath the flexor tuberosity of the pedal bone near the axial groove, usually in the outer claw of the rear foot; often bilateral
Where do sole fractures (heel ulcers) typically occur?
At the junction of the sole and perioplic horn (may occur on the medial claw)
What are possible causes of toe ulcers?
Could be from wear or over timming
What is the typical location of a classic white line abscess?

2/3 back from the toe on the outerclaw
T or F - Sole hemorrhage, sole ulcers and white line disease are caused by laminitis:
False - it doesn't seem to be the case
What are the possible factors contributing to claw lesions?
Interactions of diet, calving, and environment
What about calving contributes to hoof lesions?
Hormonal changes at calving - activation of gelatinoproteases in the corium (loosening of the connection between P3 and the horn
capsule of the claw)
What can be seen post-mortem that indicates the first stages of claw lesion formation before any external signs?
Corium hemorrhage
Which comes first, sole ulcer or loss of the hoof fat pads?
Not sure at this point
What does the size of the interdigital fat pads fluctuate with?
The size corresponds with the stage of lactation and the body condition that changes along a cows lactation based on DMI and DIM
What makes the white line weaker than the rest of the wall and sole horn?
The area of interdigitation between the wall and sole does not contain the tubules
What is the relationship between lameness and number of calvings?
Direct relationship (same with WLD, sole ulcers and lameness; Digital dermatitis goes down with parity)
What might be triggering the MMPs that weaken the suspensory apparatus around calving?
Hormonal triggers at calving time or exotoxins probably from the hindgut may trigger the activity of MMPs within the connective
tissue
What is required for white line lesions to develop?
External forces
What are the two forms of heel horn erosion?
Layered or V-shaped
What increases the form of V-shaped heel horn erosion?
Concurrent digital dermatitis infection
Define Foot rot?
Acute or sub-acute inflammation of skin and subcutaneous tissues above the interdigital space; deeply seated process resulting in
disintegration of tissue, necrosis and sloughing; Cellulitis and swelling of the foot above the ID space, extending to the fetlock,
pushing apart the claws
What is the predominant isolate from Foot rot cases?
Fusobacterium necrophorum (endotoxin is leucocidal and hemolytic)
What do you treat foot rot with in dairy cattle? Beef cattle?
Ceftiofur sodium (Naxcel) at 1 ml/100 lbs for 3 days; Long acting oxytetracycline (LA200)
Can you vaccinate against foot rot?
Yes; Fusobacterium necrophorum bacterin
What is the only reason for giving antibiotics in a lame cow?
Foot rot
What is another name for digital dermatitis?
Heel warts
What percent of dairy cattle worldwide suffer with digital dermatitis at any given time?
20% of dairy cattle worldwide
Describe the M stage classification of Digital dermatitis:
M0 - normal skin; M1 - small (<2 cm), circumscribed red or grey erosion (focal bacterial keratolysis); M2 - acute ulcerative or
granulomatous lesion, the acute clinical stage; M3 - healing scab, the healing stage; M4 - chronic dyskeratotic or proliferative, the
chronic stage; M4.1 - chronic w/subacute component
What is the reservoir for digital dermatitis infection on the farm?
The hoof of the cow
What are the bacteria associated with digital dermatitis?
Treponemas - spirochetes
What are Treponemes?
Strictly anaerobic, gram negative spirochetes
What farm conditions are associated with digital dermatitis?
A disease of modern freestall facilities where the cows feet are not adequately separated from their manure - hydropic maceration and
low oxygen tension
What does early effective treatment of digital dermatitis do?
Reduces transition from M2 to M4
What does effective footbath programs do?
Reduces the transition from M4 to M2 (reinfection basically)

What happens to the cows that do not cure from digital dermatitis?
Majority go to M2 and M4
T or F - An animal is not more likely to get lesions again from DD if infected prior to first calving:
False, 2x more likely to get lesions again if you had an infection prior to the first calving
What are the top two chemicals used in footbaths for digital dermatitis?
Copper sulfate, formalin
What is wrong with using copper sulfate and formalin in footbaths?
Copper sulfate is hard to discard (accumulates in the soil); Formulin is a carcinogen and not safe for people to be handling
Should wash baths be used along with footbaths?
No, use of a wash bath increases the manure contamination of the treatment bath
What length of foot bath is recommended to ensure that every back foot gets at least 2 steps in the foot bath?
At least 10 feet in length (the industry standard is 6 feet; using short baths with a high step-in height does not work)
What is the best design of a foot bath?
10 feet long, 2 feet wide with slopes walls; possibly side walls to shoot the cattle through so that they defecate less in the bath
How long can you use a mix of foot bath chemicals before its ineffective?
No one really knows at this point; Typically use it as infrequently as possible to achieve <5% of feet at dry off with DD lesions
Does hoof trimming significantly impact sole ulcer incidence?
Yes
What is the goal of trimming the hoof to help a sole ulcer heal?
Lower the effected heal to shift weight off of it
Where are heel ulcers located?
At the junction of the horn of the sole and the perioplic horn of the heel
What are heel ulcers also known as?
"Sole Fractures"
When using blocks, how long should they stay on the cow?
For at least 30 days; recheck and remove or fit a new block at 30 days
What is the overall prevelance of lameness in grazing herds?
Less lameness (maybe); Have white line disease, axial wall cracks, sole hemorrhages and bruising; But very little infectious causes
and few sole ulcers
Who spends more time laying down each day, Grazing cow or free stall cow?
Free stall cow
How can we impact a cows time budget in the biggest way?
Lower the length of time a cow is milked each day; more time for resting; everything else is non-negotiable
lipids
nonpolar, water-insoluble compounds composed of carbon, hydrogen, and a small amount of oxygen.
simple fats
lipids comprised only of glycerol and fatty acids
glycerol
polyhydric alcohol containing three carbon atoms, each of which is joined to a hydroxyl group
fatty acid
organic acid containing usually between 4 and 24 carbon atoms.
saturated fatty acids
fatty acids containing all of the hydrogen atoms they can possibly hold
mono- and polyunsaturated fatty acids
fatty acids with one (mono) or two or more double bonds (polyunsaturated).
eicosapentonoic acid (EPA)
biologically active omega-3 fatty acid with 20 carbon atoms and 5 double bonds.
docosahexonic acid (DHA)
biologically active omega-3 fatty acid containing 22 carbon atoms and 6 double bonds
conjugated linoleic acid (CLA)
fatty acid in milk fat that has one cis and one trans double bond on alternate carbons; not considered to be a trans fat
melting point
the temperature at which the crystals of a solid fat melt
unsaturation
lack of hydrogen relative to the amount that can be held, a situation characterized by a double bond between two carbon atoms in the
fatty acid chain
stearic acid
saturated 18-carbon fatty acid
oleic acid
monounsaturated 18-carbon fatty acid
linolenic acid
fatty acid (18 carbons) containing three double bonds
cis configuration
the hydrogens attached to the carbon atoms on either end of the double bond are from the same orientation and cause a lower melting
point
trans configuration
the hydrogens attached to the carbon atoms on either end of the double bond are from opposite directions and cause a higher melting
point.
monoglyceride
lipid consisting of one fatty acid esterified to one of the hydroxyl groups of glycerol; synonym for monoacylglycerid
monoacylglyceride
chemical name used to clarify the ester formed with one fatty acid and glycerol
diglyceride (diacylglyceride)
simple fat containing two fatty acids esterified to glycerol.
triglyceride (triacylglyceride)
simple fat containing three fatty acids esterified to glycerol; the most common form of simple fat.
alpha crystals
extremely fine and unstable form of fat crystals
beta prime crystals
very fine and reasonably stable fat crystals.
intermediate crystals
slightly coarse fat crystals that form when B` crystals melt and recrystallize.
beta crystals
extremely coarse and undesirable fat crystals
spherulite
spherical crystalline body of radiating crystal fibers.
rancidity
chemical deterioration of a fat caused by the uptake of oxygen (oxidation) or water (hydrolysis).
oxidative rancidity
development of off flavors and odors in fats as a result of the uptake of oxygen and the formation of peroxides, hydroperoxides, and
numerous other compounds.
free radical
unstable compound containing an unpaired electron
peroxide
compound with oxygen attached to oxygen
hydroperoxide
compound containing a -O-O-H group
autoxidation
oxidation reaction capable of continuing easily with little added energy
antioxidant
compound that can retard oxidative rancidity by providing hydrogen to block formation of free radicals in fatty acids or by scavenging
metal or oxygen.
tertiary-butylhydro-quinone (TBHQ)
antioxidant often added to animal fats used in baking and frying
butylated hydroxyanisole (BHA)
antioxidant effective in animal fats used in baking
butylated hydroxytoluene (BHT)
antioxidant used to retard oxidation in animal fats.
propyl gallate (PG)
antioxidant somewhat effective in vegetable oils, often used in combination with BHA and BHT.
lipolysis
reaction of a molecule of water with a fat molecule to release a free fatty acid in the presence of lipase or heat.
lipase
enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of fat to yield free fatty acids and glycerol
hydrolytic rancidity
lipolysis (hydrolysis) of lipids to free fatty acids and glycerol, often catalyzed by lipases
reversion
development of an off flavor (beany or fishy) in soybean, rapeseed, or various fish oils as a result of a reaction involving only very
minor amounts of oxygen.
smoke point
temperature at which a fat or oil begins to emit some traces of smoke.
acrolein
a highly irritating and volatile aldehyde formed when glycerol is heated to the point at which two molecules of water split from it.
polymerization
formation of a variety of polymers, including simple dimers and trimers, when free fatty acis are subjected to intense heat for a long
period during frying.
acrylamide
carcinogen formed from natural sugars and asparagines in starchy fried foods and also in baked products.
rendering
removing fat from animal tissues by either dry or moist heat
cold pressing
mechanical pressing of appropriate seeds, plant tissue, or nuts to express oil without heat, resulting in an oil of excellent purity.
hot pressing
using steam or hot water to heat plant seeds to about 70 degrees celsius to facilitate extraction of lipids from the seeds, a process that
also extracts some gums, off flavors, and free fatty acids.
degumming
separating natural gums from extracted fats; an important step in refining fats and oils.
neutralizing
removing free fatty acids from fats and oils; a step in refining
bleaching
refining step in which coloring and flavoring contaminants are removed from fats, often by filtration through active charcoal or other
suitable substrate.
deodorizing
using steam distillation or other suitable procedure to remove low molecular weight aldehydes, ketones, peroxides, hydrocarbons, and
free fatty acids that would be detrimental to the aroma and flavor of fats.
winterizing
refining step in which oils are chilled carefully to precipitate and remove fractions with high melting points that would interfere with
the flow properties of salad dressings or other products containing the oils.
fractionation
process of separating oils into fractions using controlled temperature to crystallize fatty acids with high melting points and separate
them from oils with lower melting points.
tempering
removing heat resulting from crystallization of fats and maintaining a selected temperature to promote the formation of stable,
desirable crystals.
bloom
granular-appearing, discolored areas on the surface of chocolate; the result of melting of less stable crystals and recrystallization as
beta crystals on the surface.
hydrogenation
addition of hydrogen to an unsaturated fatty acid in the presence of a catalyst to reduce the unsaturation of the molecule and raise the
melting point.
elaidic acid
trans isomer of oleic acid produced during hydrogenation; raises LDLs.
vaccenic acid
trans isomer of oleic acid occurring naturally in butterfat; does not raise LDLs.
interesterification
treatment of a fat, usually lard, with sodium methoxide or another agent to split fatty acids from glycerol and then to reorganize them
on glycerol to form different fat molecules with less tendency to form coarse crystals.
randomized interesterification
intereserification accomplished using melted fat
directed interesterification
process of interesterification in which the fat is kept below its melting temperature
intraesterification
catalyzed reaction in wihc the fatty acids split from glycerol and rejoin in a different configuration, but with the same fatty acids being
retained in the molecule.
asoyia ultra low linolenic acid soybean oil
soybean oil produced through plant breeding for reduced linolenic acid and no trans fat.
docosahexanoic (DHA)
omega-3 fatty acid containing 22 carbon atoms and 6 double bonds
eicosapentanoic acid (EPA)
omega-3 fatty acid containing 20 carbon atoms and 5 double bonds
omega-3 fatty acid
polyunsaturated fatty acid with the first double bond on the third carbon from the methyl end of the molecule.
oryzanols
class of sterols in rice bran oil of significance for their antioxidant properties
tocotrienols
class of sterols related to vitamin E valued for their antioxidant properties; found in rice bran and palm oils.
stick margarines
spreads made by hydrogenating plant oils and adding water, milk solids, flavorings, and coloring to achieve a product similar to butter
soft or tub margarines
spreads with melting points lower than those of stick margarines because of a higher content of polyunsaturated fatty acids.
whipped margarines
stick margarines that have been whipped mechanically into fat foam; increased volume results in fewer calories per given volume.
plasticity
ability of a fat to be spread or creamed.
shortening power
ability of a fat to cover a large surface area to minimize the contact between water and gluten during the mixing of batters and doughs
creaming
vigorous blending of fat and sugar to incorporate air to promote fine, light texture in cakes
flakiness
quality of thin layers of pastry that shatter when cut or chewed.
salatrim
acronym for short and long acyltriglyceride molecules
recombinant bovine somatotropin (rbST)
genetically engineered hormone that stimulates milk production in cattle.
fat-globule membrane
outer layer of a fat globule in milk; phospholipids and protein coating the fat globule aid in emulsifying the fat
alpha-lactose
less soluble form of lactose, the disaccharide prominent in milk; form of lactose largely responsible for the sandy texture of some ice
creams.
whey
liquid that drains from the curd of clotted milk; contains lactose, proteins, water-soluble vitamins, and some minerals.
curd
milk precipitate that contains casein and forms readily in an acidic medium.
casein
collective name for milk proteins precipitated at pH 4.6
casein micelle
casein aggregate that is comparatively stable and remains colloidally dispersed unless a change such as a shift toward the isoelectric
point or the use of rennin destabilizes and precipitates casein.
rennin
enzyme from the stomach lining of calves that eliminates the protective function of k-casein in micelles and results in curd formation
certified raw milk
milk that has a small microorganism population but has not been heat treated and, therefore, may cause serious illness
pasteurization
heat treatment of milk adequate to kill microorganisms that can cause illness in people
hold method
pasteurization in which milk is heated to 63 degrees celsius and held there 30 minutes before it is cooled to 7 degrees celsius
HTST method
high-temperature short-time pasteurization in which milk is heated to 72 degrees celsius and held there at least 15 seconds before it is
cooled to 10 degrees celsius
UHT pasteurization
extreme pasteurization that kills all microorganisms and makes possible the storage of milk in a closed, sterile container at room
temperature.
creaming
separation of fat from the aqueous portion of milk that takes place when fat globules cluster into larger aggregates and rise to the
surface of the milk.
homogenization
mechanical process in which milk is forced through tiny apertures under a pressure of 2,000-2,500 psi, which breaks up the fat
globules (3-10 microns in diameter) into smaller units (less than 2 microns in diameter) that do not separate from the milk
evaporated milk
sterilized, canned milk that has been concentrated to about half its original volume by evaporation under a partial vacuum
sweetened condensed milk
canned milk to which sugar is added (contains more than 54 percent carbohydrate because of milk sugar and added sugar);
evaporation of about half the water and heat treatment to kill harmful microorganisms precede the canning process.
instantized dried milk
milk that has been dried, moistened until sticky, and then re-dried into spongy aggregates of solids that rehydrate readily without
lumping
glassy lactose
amorphous (noncrystalline) milk sugar
labneh
soft cheese made by separating the curd from yogurt.
cultured buttermilk
low fat or nonfat milk containing S. lactis ad L. bulgaricus that has been incubated to produce some lactic acid.
sweet acidophilus milk
unfermented milk to which l. acidophilus has been added.
kefir
fermented milk that is about 3 percent alcohol because of fermentation by lactobacillus kefir, which also adds CO2.
lactaid
milk in which lactose content has been reduced by an enzyme (lactase) that splits lactose in glucose and galactose
yogurt
milk clotted by inoculating with s. thermophilus and l. bulgaricus and fermenting to pH ~ 5.5
insulin
fructose polymer linked by B-2,1-linkages and with a glucose unit at the end; obtained from chicory root.
soymilk
beverage made from whole, finely ground defatted soybeans; a beverage designed to compete with milk
natural cheese
any cheese made by clotting milk to form a curd and then concentrating the curd by draining the whey; variations are produced by
varying the curd concentration and by ripening with or without the addition of selected microorganisms or other ingredients.
stilton cheese
blue-veined cheese made by an approved process in any of six creameries in leicestershire, nottinghamshire, and derbyshire, england
product designation of origin
legal designation that the european union can grant to food products from specific locations
pasteurized process cheese
cheese product made by heating natural cheeses with an emulsifier and then cooling in a brick form; moisture level is about 41 percent
process cheese food
process cheese product with a moisture content of about 45 percent, which causes the food to be comparatively soft, yet firm.
process cheese spread
spreadable process cheese product with a moisture content of about 50 percent
coldpack (club) cheese
cheese product made by adding an emulsifier to a mixture of natural cheeses
plain ice cream
frozen dessert containing at least 10 percent milk fat and 20 percent total milk solids and no more than 0.5 percent edible stabilizer;
flavoring particles must not show.
composite ice cream
frozen dessert containing at least 8 percent milk fat and 18 percent total milk solids and no more than 0.5 percent edible stabilizer;
flavoring particles are not to exceed 5 percent by volume
frozen custard
ice cream-like product that is a frozen, egg yolk custard
low-fat ice cream
frozen dairy product containing 2-7 percent milk fat and 11 percent total milk solids
sherbet
somewhat acidic frozen dessert containing from 2 to 5 percent milk solids, and no milk fat.
mellorine
imitation ice cream in which the milk fat has been removed and replaced by a different fat
parevine
imitation ice cream in which both the milk fat and the milk solids have been replaced by nondairy ingredients
overrun
increase in volume (expressed as a percentage) that occurs when ice cream is frozen with agitation. calculated as; (volume of
dispersion-original volume/original volume) x 100
meat
red meats, including beef, veal, pork, and lamb.
poultry
fowl, notably turkey, chicken, and duck.
fish
broadly defined as aquatic animals, but more narrowly defined to designate those with fins, gills, a backbone, and a skull
shellfish
subclassification of fish; includes mollusks and crustaceans
mollusks
shellfish with a protective shell
crustaceans
shrimp, lobsters, crabs, and other shellfish with a horny covering.
mysoin
principal myofibrillar protein; long, thin molecule
actin
myofibrillar protein existing primarily in two forms [F (very long) and G (smaller)]
tropomysoin
very small, least abundant of the three principal myofibrillar proteins
actomyosin
muscle protein formed from the union of actin and myosin during muscle contraction
adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
key compound in metabolism that contains energy-rich bonds
adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase)
enzyme in muscle tissue involved in glycolytic reactions leading to lactic acid formation
neutral pyrophosphatase (PPase)
group of enzymes in muscle tissue ingluencing the water-holding capacity of meat
cathepsins
group of proteolytic enzymes that can catalyze hydrolytic reactions leading to the passing of rigor mortis
calcium-activated factor (CAF)
proteolytic enzyme activated by calcium; contributes to tenderizing of aging meat.
myofilament
simplest level of organization in muscle; classified as thick or thin myofilaments
thick myofilament
the thicker, longer type of myofliament; composed of myosin molecules joined together to form a screw-like, thick, and elongated
filament
thin myofilament
thin filament formed by the helical twisting of two strands of polymerized actin
sarcomere
portion of a myofibril
myofibril
linear bundle of several myofilaments that contain a number of sarcomeres
fiber
bundle of myofibrils and sarcoplasm encased in the sarcolemma
sarcoplasm
jelly-like protein surrounding the myofibrils in muscle fibers.
sarcolemma
thin, transparent membrane surrounding the bundle of myofibrils that constitute a fiber.
collagen
fibrous protein composed of three strands of tropocollagen
tropocollagen
fibrous protein consisting of three strands twisted together and containing large amounts of glycine, proline, and hydroxyproline.
pyrrolidine ring
organic ring structure containing one atom of nitrogen; linkage to another amino acid through this nitrogen favors formation of a linear
fibrous protein molecule
elastin
yellow connective tissue occurring in limited amounts intramuscularly and in somewhat greater concentrations in deposits outside the
muscles.
ground substance
undifferentiated matrix of plasma proteins and glycoproteins in which fibrous molecules of collagen and/or elastin are bound
reticulin
a type of connective tissue protein associated with a fatty acid (myristic acid)
endomysium
delicate connective tissue found between fibers
perimysium
connective tissue surrounding an entire muscle (many bundles of bundles of fibers)
______ means you have a lack in calcium
ostreoprosis
6 essential nutrients
water, carbohydrates, protein, vitamins, minerals
anorexia nervosa
lose weight, fear of gaining, diet and excersice, sypmtoms include dieting when thin, obession with colories, fat, pretending to eat
apples
b.c and p.e.i
bacteria
fungi, bacterium
bacteria needs
moisture warmth oxygen
bolus
a ball of chewed food
botulism
canned or preserved foods
bulimia nervosa
binge eating then vomiting
can bacteria be helpful

yes
can food be rehydrated?
yes, addd water
chyme
pulpy acidic fluid from stomach to small intestine
a closed fist equals to _____ in food guide servings
grains
complete protein
animal source
complex carbohydrates
potato, bread, cereal, rice, whole grain
compulsive eater
frequent uncontrolled eating, binge eating
conserve
made with several fruits and usually raisians and nuts
cross contamination
the transfer of bacteria from one food to another
cutting celery
slicing knive
dairy
calcium, protein, riboflavin, vitamin a
danger zone for bacteria is
21c or 70f
a deck or card resembles ____ of meat, fish or poultry
3 ounces
defefiency that causes beriberi
thaimine
defefiency that causes bleeding gums

vitamin c and k
defefiency that causes night blindness
vitamin a
defefiency that causes scurvy
vitamin c
dice
small square peices
duodenum
first part of the small intestine
e coli 0157h7
from raw ground beef
fish, berries
all around canada
food groups with high protein
dairy and meat and alternatives
freezing bacteria
slows down a lot
fruit and vegetables
vitamin a and vitamin c
grains
carbohydrates, fibre, iron, b vitamins
Ground beef temperature
68c
how are the ingredients listed
in order of quantity
how do measure a large quantity of milk
with a measuring cup
how do we measure one teaspoon of salt

with measuring spoon
how do you put out a grease fire
cover with pot lid and pour baking soda
how long should food stay at room temperature
as little as possible
is it ideal to eat raw cookie dough?
no since you can get samonella
is price required on the food label
no
jam
made with chopped, chrushed fruit and sugar
jelly
clear gel made with fruit juice and sugar
liver
nutrient rich blood filtered of toxins, excess fats soluble vitamins stored here
lobster
eastern canada
measuring dry ingredients
put it in cup overfilled then level off
meat and alternative
protein, iron, b vitamins
metal spatula
used to lift and turn during cooking
milk and alternatives: 14- 19
3-4
nutritional goal
specific
measurable
attainable
realistic
time bound
other
high sal, high fat, low nutrient qualities
oxidation
chemical reaction of oxygen with other substances
pancreas
produces enzymes that aid in digestion and hormones that regulate blood sugar
peristalsis
constriction and relaxition of muscles in the digestion
pork
quebec
preserve
made with whole or large peices of fruit cooked in thick rich syrup of juice and sugar
removing bones
boning knife
removing skin from fruits
paring knife
roast beef temperature
60c
roast chicken temperature
74c
rubber spatula
removes food from sides
samll intestine
nutrient absorbes
samonella
raw things, yeast, peanut butter and chocolates
slicing bread
bread knife
staple food
food that can be stored thorughout the year and stay fresh
stomach
chemical breakdown
to fight bac
clean, separate, chill, cook
tong
use tongs to lift and turn hot foods
vegetables and fruits: 14- 19
female 7
male 8
vegetables you can freeze
beans, corn
vegetables you cant freeze
radishes, lettuce
villi
lining of small intestine
water displacement method
place water in cup to make up difference, add pices of fat until its at top level
what age group should consume the highest amount of calcium
14-18
what are 6 ways to keep the kitchen safe
wash hands, remove loose clothing, tie back hair, keep drawers and doors closed, minimize clutter, never leave fat unattended
what are nutritional claims
free none
low small amount
reduced 25% less
light 50% les
what are some consideration need to make a meal look pleasing?

colour, shape, texture, flavours, temperature
what are the basic ingredients for a pie crust
flour, salt, shortening, cold water
what are the cornerstones of any culture
food and diet
what are the main components of a entree
begetable and fruits, starch, protein
what are the parts in the digestive system?
mouth, teeth, salivary glands, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine, pancreas, gall bladder, liver
what are the symptoms of food borne illness? what do they confuse it with?
symptoms include abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting, diarhea, fever, dehydration. they confuse it with the 24 hour flu
what are the three body types
eketomrph(tall and skinny) misomorrph (middle) endomorph (short and fat)
what are the three types of vegetarians
vegasns, vegetarians, lacto- ova vegetarians
what causes jams and jellies to set
pectin
what colour vegetables should you eat
orange and green
what enzye is used in the mouth
salivary glands
what enzyme is used in the stomach
hydrochioric acid
what happens if you eat a high carb breakfast
you feel tired thorought the day
what influences your food choices
geography, history, religion
what ingredients do you need to start a fire

fuel, air, heat
what is dehydration and what are the 2 conditions to get it?
when heat and air are added to dry it out
what is required on the food label
calorie, fat, aaturated fat, cholesteral, sodium, carbs, sugar, protein, vitamins
what is the correct order for washing dishes
fill right sink with hot soapy water and left with hot clear water and put dishes from least dirtiest to dirtiest and clean with a cloth
what is the proper method for measuring brown sugar
pack lightly in a dry measuring cup and level off
what kind of grain products should you eat more often
ones with complex carbohydrates
what minerals protect your bones
magnesium and phosphurus
what nutrients do we get energy from
fat, proteins, carbohydrates
what nutrients prevent constipation
fiber
what should a balanced meal consist of
most or all of the four food groups
whats the first step of the digestive system
you chew on the food
whats the sunshine vitamin
vitamin d
when can food poisioning lead to death? which people in the society are most likly to die?
Low class people are most likly to die from it. you can get severe food poisioning from unhygenic places.
where does most of the digestion occur
small intesine
where is exact measurement required

in baking such as a cake
where is the most absorption in the digestive system
large intestine
where shold the fork, spoon and knife be placed
the spoon and knife should be on the right of the plate and the fork should be on the left
where should the napkin be placed
far left
where should the water glass be placed
above the knife
where should you keep eggs
fridge bottom shelf
why arent bread knifes suppose to be sharpened
since they are usually to cut cake and bread and arent originallly sharp
why do females more likly to be anemic
we lose blood becaue of periods and babies
why do we eat
physical needs, psychological needs, social needs
why do we sift
to add in air
why is it important to eat breakfast
to do well and to not get diseases
wire whisk
use for beating and blending
yeild
how much a recipe makes
Food Preservation... Why?
Food Security.
Commercial reasons:
Extending the shelf-life,
Enhance product's characteristics,
Create a new product,
Recycling of meat, offal and other food
sources.
Food Preservation Concerns
(6)
= Food safety:
Raw materials,
Ingredients,
Packaging,
Growth of pathogenic bacteria,
Shelf-life.
= Nutritional value,
= Healthy eating (e.g. fat and salt in the diet),
= Additives and colorants,
Formation of toxic substances.
= Change in organoleptic properties.
= New technologies (e.g. radiation, UV light)
Food Spoilage
Spoilage is the process in which food
deteriorates to the point in which it is not edible
to humans or its quality of edibility becomes
reduced.
(10)
Growth and activities of micro-organisms (bacteria,
yeast and moulds),
Activity of food enzymes,
Chemical reactions in food,
Inappropriate storage temperature for a given food,
Infestation by parasites,
Either excessive gain or loss on moisture,
Reaction with oxygen,
Light exposure,
Physical stress,
Time.
Aim of Food Preservation
Inactivating or controlling:
(2)
= Inactivating or controlling:
Microorganisms,
Enzymes.
= Reducing or eliminating chemical / physical reactions that cause food
spoilage.
Growth of Microorganisms
A Two Way System
(7)
= pH,
= Oxidation-reduction potential Eh),
= Moisture content or Water activity (aw),
= Nutrient content,
= Antimicrobial constituents,
= Biological structure (poultry skin and eggs shell),

= Any combination of the above.
pH
(6)
= Oxidation-reduction potential (Eh),
= Moisture content or Water activity (aw),
= Nutrient content,
= Antimicrobial constituents,
= Biological structure (poultry skin and eggs shell),
Eh
(3)
= Meat reduced to -200mV (O2
) produces -SH radicals and bacteria produce H2S.
Role of ascorbic acid.
= Differences between moulds, yeasts and aerobic, anaerobic and facultative anaerobic bacteria.
= Interference with microbial enzymes function (O2).
Water Activity
(3)
= Differences between moulds, yeasts and
bacteria.
= Minimum aw values bacteria vs. food:
Pseudomonas - aw 0.97
E. coli O157:H7 - aw 0.96
Clostridium spp. - aw 0.97
= Interference with microbial cell membrane
(osmotic stress) and transportation of nutrients.
Nutrient Content
(4)
= Water,
= Sources of energy,
= Sources of nitrogen,
= Growth factors (minerals and
vitamins).
Antimicrobial Constituents
(2)
Milk:
Lactoferrin
Conglutinin
Lactoperoxydase system
Eggs:
Lysozime
Extrinsic Parameters
.(4)
= Ambient temperature,
= Humidity of environment,
= Microbial competition,
= CO2, O2 and O3
(4)
= Ambient temperature processing
=Processing by application of heat
=Processing by removal of heat
=Post-processing operation
- Heat
-Cold
-Drying
-Acid
-Sugar
-Probiotics
-Bacteriophages
-Curing
-Micro filtration
-Smoke
-Vacuum Packaging
-Additives
-Radiation
-High Pressure
(5)
- Heat treatment of 90C for 10 minutes, or a time and
temperature combination sufficient to kill C. botulinum spores.
- pH of 5 or less in all parts of the food.
- Minimum salt level of 3.5% in the water phase
throughout all parts of the food.
- Water activity of 0.97 or less in all components of the food.
- Combination of the controlling factors can be
used at lower levels or with other preservative factors, such as nitrite.
Processed Products
2
= Process Products results from the processing of:
Meat
Raw milk
Eggs
Fishery
= Or from further processing of such processed products.
Shelf-life,
Colour and Odour,
Consistency and Taste
Meat Products
"Products resulting from the processing
of meat or from further processing of
such processed products, so that the
cut surface shows that the product
no longer has the characteristics of
fresh meat". To differentiate from:

(3)
Minced meat,
Meat preparations,
Mechanically separated meat (MSM).
Meat Products
FBO cannot use:
(7)
Genital organs (except testicles),
Urinary organs (except kidneys and bladder),
Urinary organs (except kidneys and bladder),
Eye and eyelids
External auditory meatus,
Horns
Poultry: head, oesophagus, crop, intestines,
genital organs.
HEAT
(8)
- Pasteurization
-Sterilisation
-Evaporation and distillation
-Extrusion
-Dehydration
-Baking and roasting
--Frying
-"Cook & Chill"
Heat - Advantages
(4)
= Simple control of processing conditions,
= No refrigeration required for storage,
= Improves digestions of some nutrients,
= Improves flavour, colour, taste and texture.
Heat - How does it work?
(4)
= Conduction: Transfer of heat from the heat source directly to the utensil.
= Convection: Heat transfer by
convection requires the movement of air or liquids.
= Radiation: The transfer of heat by
electromagnetic waves.
Main Parameters
Time - Temperature combination:
Required to reach the CORE of any food and inactivate the most-heat resistant pathogens
and spoilage bacteria,
Difference with re-heating of food
Main Parameters
Heat penetration characteristics in a
particular food:
Size,
Geometry,
Moisture content,
Can or container of choice, if it is packed.
Effects of Food Constituents
= Direct effects on microorganisms:

pH, fats and oils, starch, protein, sugar (interfere with penetration of wet heat).
= Wet heat is more lethal than dry heat:
Moisture is an effective conductor of heat
and penetrates into microbial cells and spores.
Effects on Microorganisms
(7)
= Denaturation of essential microbial proteins.
= Ribosom denaturation.
= Loss of osmotic function of microbial cell membrane.
= Spores are more heat resistant due to their state of dehydration.
= Gram+ bacteria are more heat resistant than Gram-.
= Level of bacterial contamination of food influences the efficency of the heat treatment.
= Lag and stationary phases help bacteria to be more heat resistant.
Degrees of Preservation
(6)
= PASTEURISATION EFFECT:
Low order of heat treatment, generally at temperature below 100oC,
Leaves many bacteria viable,
Designed to destroy most of pathogenic organisms (e.g. milk and liquid eggs, oysters),
Limited storage life compared to
commercially sterile products.
= PASTEURIZATION (old method): 63oC for 30 minutes,
Need cold storage
= HTST = 72oC for 15 seconds (shelf life up to 3 weeks) or 88oC for 1 second,
Need cold storage
= UHT = 138oC for 2 to 5 second (shelf life up to 3-4 months).
= Sterilisation - complete destruction of all microorganisms:
bacterial spores require at least 121oC wet heat for 15 min.,
= Commercially Sterile - may contain small number of heat resistant bacterial spores (these will not normally multiply in
the food supply).
Most canned or bottled food products are commercially sterile and have a shelf life of 2 years or more.
Heat Preservation Practices
(2)
= Foods are heated in their final
containers:
Commercial sterilization uses steam under pressure,
Consider resistance of containers to pressure.
See practical class notes on canned food.
= Foods are heated prior to packaging:
Less damaging to food quality,
Requires aseptic or nearly aseptic packaging conditions,

Containers disinfected with hydrogen peroxide, heated air or UV light.
Cold
(3)
- Refrigeration.
- Freezing and Blast freezing.
- Vacuum Packaging (VP), Modified Atmosphere Packaging (MAP) and Controlled Atmosphere Packaging (CAP).
Refrigeration and Freezing
(2)
= Refrigeration and cold storage:
Temperatures above freezing (7oC down to -1oC),
Commercial and household refrigerators (4.5 - 7oC).
= Freezing and frozen storage:
Minimum freezing -12oC,
Good freezing -18oC or below.
Choice of Final Temperature
(2)
= Foods should be frozen at an internal, temperature -18oC / shelf life.
= Microorganisms do not grow at -18oC, but some enzymes can still work (oxidation) and non-enzymatic reactions are not
completely stopped.
Temperature and Microbial
Growth
(4)
=Most food spoilage icroorganisms grow rapidly at temp 10oC.
= Some microorganisms are able to grow at temperatures as low as 0oC.
= Below -9.5oC there is no significant growth of spoilage or pathogenic microorganisms in food
(there is a gradual decrease of the number of microorganisms).
= Freezing is not an efficient way to eliminate microorganisms.
Rate of Freezing
= RAPID or Ultra rapid- small ice crystals inside and outside the cells (-30 to -50oC for 12 to 18 hours),
= SLOW - large ice crystals and clusters of crystals outside the cells (-8 to -20oC),
= Acceptable for most foods 1.3 cm/hour.
Freezing Methods
(3)
=> AIR FREEZING.
=> DIRECT OR INDIRECT CONTACT FREEZING food or food package is in contact with a surface
that is cooled by a refrigerant.
=> IMMERSION FREEZING - direct contact of the food or package with the refrigerant:
Submerging the food or spaying the cold liquid onto the
food or package surface.
Using freezing agents like liquid carbon dioxide or
nitrogen.
Factors Determining Freezing Rate

(6)
= Air velocity.
= Thickness of product.
= Geometry of the system.
= Agitation degree of contact Between
food and cooling medium.
= Composition of the product.
= Resistance of heat transfer of the food package.
Possible Problems
(5)
= Dark meat (Maillard reaction)
= Dry meat and Weight Loss
= Rancidity
= Moulds
= Costs associated with the Cold chain
Thawing of Products
(3)
= Very rapid thawing may have negative implication on quality:
Meat exudation.
= If thawing is too slow bacteria can start multiplying.
= Rapid thawing (15 to 20oC for 24
hours).
=Air (chiller, tunnel).
= Water (immersion or spray).
= Microwave (oven or tunnel)
Legislation
= The thawing of foodstuffs is to be undertaken in such
a way as to minimise the risk of growth of pathogenic
microorganisms or the formation of toxins in the
foods.
= During thawing, foods are to be subjected to
temperatures that would not result in a risk to health.
= Where run-off liquid from the thawing process may
present a risk to health it is to be adequately drained.
= Following thawing, food is to be handled in such a
manner as to minimise the risk of growth of
pathogenic microorganisms or the formation of toxins
Modified Atmosphere
(2)
VACUUM PACKAGING is the practice of extracting air from a packaging containing food before it is sealed.
MODIFIED ATMOSPHERE is the practice of modifying the composition of the internal atmosphere of food packages in
order to improve the shelf life of the
product.
Preservative Packaging
(3)
=Vacuum Packing (VP) - oxygen-deficient

environment:
Primary transport and storage of large cuts of meat.
= "Modified" Atmosphere Packaging (MAP):
Gaseous environment around the product is modified
before sealing.
Gaseous environment changes during storage.
= "Controlled" Atmosphere Packaging (CAP):
Gaseous environment more constant than in MAP, uses
gas selective permeable materials (plastic aluminium
foil laminates or metallised films)
Preservative Packaging
Normal composition of air:
78% nitrogen,
21% oxygen,
0.035% CO2,
Other gases.
Increase CO2,
Reduction of oxygen (colour),
Nitrogen (N2) (reduce oxidation and aerobic bacteria).
CO2 and Microbes
(4)
= The optimum [ ] ranges from 20-30%,
= The inhibition effect increases as:
temperature decreases,
pH decreases,
= Gram-negative bacteria are more susceptible to the inhibition effect than gram-positive,
= Carbon dioxide under pressure has a greater antimicrobial effect than carbon dioxide that is not
under pressure.
Advantages
- INCREASED SHELF LIFE
- LITTLE OR NO NEED FOR CHEMICAL PRESERVATIVES
-GOOD PROTECTION OF PRODUCT DURING STORAGE
- REDUCED WEIGHT LOSS
LIMITATIONS
ADDED COSTS
TEMPERATURE CONTROLLED
DIFFERENT GAS COMPOSTION /PRODUCT
PRODUCT APPEARANCE
PRODUCT SAFTEY (EG C.BOTULISM , LISTERIA)
CRYOVAC MACHINE: BAGS
ARE SEALED AIR TIGHT
1. Vacuum pack
2. Hot water bath
Not enough vacuum tight.
Bone splinters or other foreign bodies.
Seal not applied properly.
Inappropriate plastic bags.
"Darfresh" System:
Uses specially formulated top and

bottom webs to create a vacuum skin consumer pack
that fits around the product like a second skin.
"Darfresh" System
PROCEDURE
(3)
1. The air in the chamber and package is EVACUATED, drawing the top web to the ceiling of the dome. The top web absorbs heat
from the dome and becomes formable,
2. A gentle AIRFLOW is introduced and the top web relaxes and drapes itself gently over the product and the bottom web,
3. The dome opens and the top web shrinks skin-tight around all the product's contours.
- The top and bottom films are heat-sealed to each other to form a completely flat seal right up to the edges of the product
Curing
CHANGES
(4)
Is any of various food preservation and flavouring processes, especially of meat or fish, by the addition of a combination of salt,
nitrates, nitrite or sugar.
Changes:
Preservation,
Flavour - unique processed products,
Colour,
Tenderness.
Food Additive Means...
Regulation (EC) No 1333/2008 on Food Additives
And
The Food Additives (Scotland) Regulations 2009
... "any substance, whether or not it has nutritive
value, that is not normally consumed as a food in
itself or used as a characteristic ingredient of
food, and which, if added intentionally for a
technological purpose to food in its manufacture,
processing, preparation, treatment, packaging,
transport or storage, results, or may reasonably be expected to result , in the substance or its by-products becoming directly or
indirectly a component the food concerned"
Principal Additives
- salt
- nitrate
- sweeteners
- spices - develop mycotoxins if not stored properly
- olive and sunflower oil, vinegar
Sodium chloride (Salt):
Mild preservative and adds flavour, but
contributes to lipid oxidation,
Improves yield and influences texture,
protein extraction.
Nitrate (NO3) and nitrite (NO2):
Meat flavour, preservative, anti-botulinum activity, fixes the red colour of cured meats,
retards oxidative rancidity
Sweeteners (sucrose, dextrose, corn syrup):

Helps stabilise colour and adds flavour,
counteracts the harshness of salt.
Aspartame (E 951). - Diet drinks
Possible Concerns
(6)
= Chronic toxicity (e.g. nitrosamine)
= Allergic reactions (e.g. eggs, celery, etc.)
= GI problems
= "Chinese restaurant syndrome" (monosodium glutamate syndrome) instead of salt
= Hyperactivity (e.g. some food colours)
= Endocrine Active Substances (e.g. Biosphenol A)
Substances that can interact or interfere with normal hormonal action. When this leads to adverse effects, they are called endocrine
disruptors.
Colours in Foods
Six food colours associated with possible
hyperactivity in young children.
The colours, identified by the Food Standards
Agency, are:
sunset yellow FCF (E110)
quinoline yellow (E104)
carmoisine (E122)
allura red (E129)
tartrazine (E102)
ponceau 4R (E124)
Methods of Curing
(3)
=> Dry salt:
Dry salt (salt alone or in junction with nitrite and nitrate),
Dry "country style" curing - salt, sugar, nitrate and nitrite,
Brine soaking.
=> Curing pickle injection:
Artery pumping,
Stitch pumping,
Multiple needle injection curing.
=> Any Combination of the above
Salt as Antimicrobial Agent
(4)
- Dehydration. -> psmotic agent
- Remove oxygen from the product.
- Bacteria more sensitive to CO2.
- Depends on concentration.
Nitrate and Nitrite
(6)
=Nitrate (NO3)
=Nitrite (NO2)
=Nitrous Acid (HNO2)
=Meat colour
=Antimicrobial effect (especially on Clostridium Spp.)
= Limitations (nitrosamine, abnormal meat)
Responsible for typical pink colour.
Smoking
=It consists in exposing food products to smoke obtained from the incomplete combustion of
different types of wood (beech, oak, juniper, chestnut).
= Herbs, spices, twigs of juniper and twigs, needles and cones of picea may be added if they are free
of residues of intentional or unintentional chemical treatment.
= These fumes are rich in aromatic substances (phenol) which are of particular antiseptic power.
Smoking Effects
(6)
= Drying effect to meat, fish and dairy products
= Taste
= Pleasant odour
= Brings out the colour of the meat
= Antioxidant
= Antimicrobial
Smoke Antimicrobial Effects
From the combustion of lignin:
(6)
Phenolic compounds (pyrogallol - cresol -creosote - guaiacol, etc.).
Tar From the combustion of cellulose:
Acids (acetic - butyric - caprylic - carbonic -etc.).
Alcohol (methanol - ethanol)
Ketones (acetone)
Aldehydes (acetaldehyde - furfural)
Smoke Antimicrobial Effects
Strong: enterobacteria spp, salmonella
spp, bacillus subtilis;
Poor: clostridia spp, yeast
Acids = bactericidal / antiseptic

Aldehydes = bactericidal / antiseptic
Alcohols = secondary alcohols antiseptic
Phenols = antioxidant action
Phenols and ketones = Flavorings
Smoke Side Effects
Polycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons:
Benzo (a) pyrene
Benzo (a) anthracene
Dibenzo (a, h) anthracene
Benzo (g, h, i) perylene
Benzo (b) fluoranthene
Benzo (k) fluoranthene
Indeno (1,2,3-c-d) pyrene
Mutagen agents:
Forma
Smoke House
(4)
Size and types
Hot versus cold smoke
Airflow
Humidity
Smoke Generation
Regulation (EC) No 2065/2003: on
smoke flavourings used or intended for
use in or on foods.
Art. 4:
The use of smoke flavourings in
or on foods shall only be authorised if it
is sufficiently demonstrated that:
It does not present risks to human health,
It does not mislead consumers.
Smoke Generation
Wood is subjected to controlled burning,
with a maximum temperature of 600C.
The smoke is condensed and separated
to obtain the following phases:
A water-based 'primary smoke condensate'
mainly containing CARBOXLIC acids, CARBONYLIC and PHENOLIC compounds,
A water-insoluble high-density TAR phase
which during the phase separation will
precipitate,
A 'water-insoluble OILY phase'.
Smoke Generation
=The wood used for the production of

"smoke" should NOT be treated, with
chemical substances unless it can be
demonstrated that the substance used
for the treatment does not give rise to
potentially toxic substances during
combustion.
= The water-insoluble high-density tar
phase and the water-insoluble oily phase
which is a by-product of the process
should not be used for the production of
smoke flavourings.
Smoke Generation
Slow smoking:
Temp: 20- 25C,
Humidity: 70%
Time: few days
Smoke Generation
Short smoking:
Temp: 25- 40C

Humidity: 75%
Time: around 24 hours
Smoke Generation
Hot smoking:
Temp: 45- 80C
Humidity: 90%
Time: few hours
Smoke Generation
Friction
Smoldering
Steam
Phases
Liquid smoke
High Pressure and UV Light
= Advanced further then other alternative physical methods of food treatments,

= Emerged technologies for some
applications:
Ready-To-Eat meats and fresh juices.
= Commercially economical processes became viable,
= Approved by some regulatory agencies (USA and Canada)
= Independent of product mass, size and geometry,

= Minimise treatment time,
= Inactivates vegetative cells, spores and toxins,
= Destroys enzymes (peroxidases, xanthine oxidase, amino acids oxidase),
= Minimal impact on quality and nutrition
process
= Batch processing
= Only for some products (no
canned)
= Juices
Pascal's principle:
"A pressure exerted on an incompressible liquid
is evenly distributed in all directions and with the
same intensity at all points of the liquid (isostatic
pressure) and also on the surface of a body
(food) immersed in the liquid".
Compression raises temperature of the
product to 2- 8C per 100 MPa (<600MPa
pasturization effect, >700MPa sterilization
effect),
Target of microorganisms,
Product selection and formulation, including
choice of packaging.
Bacteria Inactivation
= Normally: Spore > gram (+) > gram (-),

= Heat-resistant bacteria are usually more
pressure-resistant than heat sensitive
types,
= Pressure resistance often reaches a
maximum at ambient temperatures
= Initial temperature of the food prior to HHP
can be reduced or elevated to improve
inactivation at processing temperature
Bacteria Inactivation 2
Listeria monocytogenes and Staph.
aureus are the two most well studied,
Staph. aureus appears to have a high
resistance to pressure,
There is variability of pressure
resistances within strains of S. aureus, L.
monocytogenes, Salmonella and E. coli
O157:H7.
Inactivation of Parasites
- Anisakis simplex
- Trichinella spiralis
Anisakis simplex larvae are killed by
treatments employing pressures of
200MPa for 10 minutes at 0-15C
Trichinella spiralis is inactivated by
pressures above 175MPa for 10 minutes
at 25C.
Regulatory Status
USA:
Health Canada
USA USDA has approved HHP as an intervention
method for Listeria contaminated pre-packed
RTE meat products,
FDA has accepted the commercial use of
pressure-assisted thermal sterilization (PATS)
processes for application in the production of
low acid foods (LAF).
HEALTH CANADA- Novel Foods Decisions:
Use of HHP for processing RTE Meat
Products.
UV Light
Well developed for water and air

treatment since 1930,
Viable option for non-food contact and
food surface treatment,
Viable non-thermal alternative for liquid
foods preservation,
Physical method - no chemicals,
Cost effective and energy efficient,
Approved by some Regulatory
Agencies.
UV Light in the Food Industry
(4)
- To reduce levels of pathogens (Listeria

and Salmonella) on meats, poultry and
fish,
-Salmonella in Shell-eggs,
- Extended Shelf-life bakery products,
- Food powders (black pepper and wheat
flour).
UV Light
- Destroys protozoa (Cryptosporidium

and Giardia),
- Destroys bacteria (E. coli, L.
monocytogenes, Staph. aureus),
Destroys toxins in food (aflatoxins in
milk, patulin in fresh fruit juice),
- Virus are not inactivated.
-The antimicrobial effect of light at UV
wavelength are due to the absorption of
energy that disrupt cellular metabolism,
- In contrast to irradiation, light doesn't
cause ionisation of small molecules,
- Promote production of Vitamin D in milk.
UV Light - Cons
(4)
= UV light doesn't penetrate opaque
substances:
Surface shielding effects
= High doses of UV can cause unwanted
effects furan formation in sugar
solution (fructose and glucose),
= Changes in the nutritional value,
= May affect quality appearance of foods.
Radiations
= In physics, radiation is a process in
which energetic particles or energetic
waves travel through a medium or space.
= There are two distinct types of radiation;
"ionising" and "non-ionising".
= The word radiation is commonly used in
reference to ionising radiation only (i.e.,
having sufficient energy to ionise an
atom).
Radiations
Ionising Radiation:
X-rays or gamma rays,
Electromagnetic "nin-ionising" radiation:
Microwaves
UV rays
Radiations
"Ionising radiation"
means any gamma
rays, X-rays or corpuscular radiations
which are capable of producing ions
either directly or indirectly;
Gamma rays and X-rays are used in

food preservation because they don't
produce secondary radiation in
products of animal origin.
Radiations
Compton scattering:
The photon hits the atom transferring
energy and determining the detachment
of an electron from the external orbit
and transforming the atom into an ion
(hence the term ionizing radiation).
The electrons that are released from the
process induce the stimulation of other
neighbouring atoms and the production
of other ions (primary effect).
Radiations in Food
Intrinsic
(food contaminated at source):
Radio-isotopes are normally present in
nature (radium, caesium, cobalt,
plutonium, polonium, etc...),
As a consequence of a natural disaster
(Earthquake in Fukushima Japan, 2011).
As a consequence of human-made
disaster (Chernobyl in Ukraine, 1986).
Radiations in Food
Extrinsic
(radiation applied to food
during processing).
Radiations
Co-60 and Cs-137 have insufficient
emission energies to induce
radioactivity in food via X-rays or
gamma-rays.
Ionising radiation have the ability to
break chemical bonds when absorbed
by materials producing:
Electrically charged (ions),
Neutral particles (free radical).
Radiation in Food
Advantages:
Little or no heating of food with negligible
change to sensory characteristic,
Packaged or frozen foods can be treated,
No chemical preservatives needed,
Very low energy requirement,
Low operating cost.
These than further reacts to cause

changes in irradiated material known as
radiolysis. It is this reaction that cause
the destruction of micro-organisms.

Insects and par asites during food
irradiation.
Particularly effective in foods with high
moisture content.
Radiolysis: Formation of hydrogen,
hydrogen peroxide, hydrogen radicals (H-),
etc..)
An important effect is on DNA and RNA

in cell nuclei.
Long term disruption of microorganisms
functions due to failure in enzyme
production and cell replication.
Smaller and simpler organisms are
more resistant to radiation.
Radiations
In the USA are commonly used for the
decontamination of minced meat (X-rays) and
poultry meat (since 1990).
The maximum recommended dose for food is

15kGy, with the average dose not exceeding
10kGy (WHO, 1977, 1984, 1994).
Packaging material and food can be easily
altered by radiations (cancerogenic agents).
Radiation in Food
Categories of food where use of radiation is
allowed in UK are:
Fruits (max 2kGy);
Vegetables (max 1kGy);
Cereals (max 1kGy);
Bulbs and tubers (max 0.2kGy);
Dried aromatic herbs, spices and vegetable
seasonings (max 10kGy);
Fish and Shellfish (max 3kGy);
Poultry (max 7kGy);
Processing
Transformation of raw materials into edible products using labor, machinery, energy, science
Preservation
1) actions or methods that maintain food with desirable properties for as long as possible and
2) kill or inhibit microorganisms, spoilage, safety, and prevent
Unit Operation
Common processing step to achieve a desired result; several are linked together to form the overall process
1862
President Lincoln established USDA

1902
Bureau of Chemistry (predecessor of FDA)
1905
Upton Sinclair's "The Jungle"
1906
Pure Food and Drug Act (first law of federal food safety); Federal Meat Inspection Act
1930
FDA established
Delaney Commitee
Congressional committee originally designed to look at additives. 3 amendments
Delaney Clause
Prohibits adding anything to food that will cause cancer to man/animal
Indirect Food Additive
Unintentional, usually migrate into food and serve no purpose
Direct Food Additive
Added to provide nutrients, maintain quality/freshness, make appealing or aid in processing.
GRAS
Generally recognized as safe-based on a long history of safe usage; scientific evidence
PSS
Prior Sanctioned Substance- for use in specific foods, at specific level, specific processing conditions. Also, history of safe usage in
these specific foods.
6 categories of direct food additives
Preservatives, nutritional additives, flavor enhancers, texturizing agents, coloring agents, miscellaneous
Preservatives ex.
BHA, BHT, potassium sorbate, citric/ascorbic, sodium benzoate, EDTA
Nutritional Additives ex.
Vit B1, Vit K, Ferric orthophosphate (iron), Vit C
Flavoring Agents ex.
MSG, hydrolyzed soy protein, disodium inosinate

Coloring Agents ex.
FD&C Yellow 5, 6 caramel
Texturizing Agents ex.
Soy lecithin, mono/diglycerides, gelatin, carrageenans
Misc.
EDTA
Mode of Action
Inhibition= chemical deterioration/microbial growth
Inactivation=of microbes/enzymes
Avoid recontamination
GMP
Are the minimum sanitation requirements for all food processing establishments broad/general
SSOP
Written sanitation procedures, requiring supporting documentation specific, and recipe for cleaning (who, how, when, and what)
Hazard
-biological: (larvae, micro-organisms, viruses, parasites, mold/fungi)
-chemical: (mycotoxins, seafood toxins, plant toxins/pesticides, toxic metals, excessive detergents, sanitizers
-physical: cause injury but not illness (glass, wood, stones, metal, insects, bones, jewelry)
CCP
Critical Control Point-point at which the process where you can apply control and preventing/eliminating/reducing the hazard. Using
that control you are making safer.
Monitoring
Monitoring whether or not you are meeting the critical limit and records of the data that a CCP is in control
Corrective Action
What you do if something goes wrong
Pressing
Pressure applied to oilseeds to remove FFA
Refining
Alkali (caustic) or physical (steam)- treatment to remove FFA (and possibly PLs/pigments).
Economic advantage to physical with oils having high FFA and low PL. Physical gives higher yield, uses less water, less effluent,
fewer chemicals.
Caustic removes a variety of impurities.
Hydrogenations
Addition of molecular hydrogen to unsaturated fatty acids. Reduces the degree of unsaturation and alters the degree of CIS and
TRANS isomers.
Interesterfications
The interchange of FA between TG molecules to alter the FA attached to the glycerol- in order to alter function. (random, directed and
enzymatic)
Winterization
Removes fractions in oil that will crystallize during cooling.
Fractionation
Separation of fats and oils into new materials
Dewaxing
Removes waxes from oils for high unsaturated salad oils to maintain clarity.
Alcoholysis (esterfication)
Formation of mono/diglycerides from glycerol and FFA- process to form emulsifiers from fat.
Emulsifiers
Mono/diglycerides, phospholipids (lecithins), proteins, sterols.
Esters
Carbon linked to another carbon by an oxygen, from a reaction between a carboxyl group (acid and an alcohol)
Basic Steps for Crude Vegetable Oil Processing
Dehulled, crushed/ground, expression using hot/cold press and expellers
Impurities of crude vegetable oil
Pigments, water, FFA, gums, peroxides, waxes
Degumming
Removal of PL or waxes using water/salt sol'n/acid to hydrate the gums
2 methods of refining crude oil to remove impurities
Chemical/caustic (burn/destroy/NaOH) & physical (steam)
Soap stock
FFA used to make up soap

Gums
phospholipids
How is oil bleached?
Filtered through "fullers earth"/clay.
How do you deodorize?
Steam blown through heated oil
Four primary groups that give us edible oils
Animal fat, seeds, nuts and marine
How is soap stock recovered?
Sulfuric acid and heat to break the emulsion between FFA and water
Hydrogenation
Converting unsaturated fat (TG) to a saturated fat (oils--> solid fats). Change the physical form of the oil for improved quality, color,
odor, and flavor (melting properties, frying stability, creaming capabilities, color, odor, flavor); to improve the oxidative stability.
REDUCING C-C double bonds.
How is fat hydrogenated
1) Mixed with Nickle (catalyst)
2) Sealed in vessel and heater
3) Hydrogen gas pumped through vessel
4) Cooled and filtered
4 processing factors that are used to control trans fat
Temperature
Pressure
Agitation
Catalysts
Interestification
Changing the fatty acids on a TG to change the properties of the fat.
HLB
Hydrophilic-lipophilic balance; scale of 1-20. Emulsifying agents contains both hydro/lipophilic regions and the phase in which the
emulsifier is most stable is usually the continuous phase. (O/W or W/O emulsions can be predicted based on the relative HLB
properties of the emulsifier)
HLB promotes W/O emulsion
HLB 3-6 (lipophilic)
HLB promotes O/W emulsion
HLB 8-18 (hydrophilic)

Basestock
Hydrogenated vegetable oils to varying degrees to give different properties
Emulsifier
Molecule with hydrophobic/lipophilic and hydrophilic portions. Used to reduce surface tension. (General, anti-staling, dough
strengtheners, film formers, wetting agents, whipping agents)
Rendering
Heating to liquify the fat and separate it from other tissues. Primarily used for animal tissues.
Solvent Extraction
Hexane the primary solvent used to solubilize the fat or oil then separate the oil from oil seeds.
Bleaching
Hot filtering to remove color/lighten and improve quality/clarity and purify by removing trace impurities...gums, soaps, metals
Deodorization
Steam injection to remove volatile off odors/flavors (esp. cottonseed)
Plasticization
Formation of a "plastic" by supercooling the fat followed with "working" or mixing the material to form a consistent texture.
A-crystalline structured emulsifiers
Random arrangement of TG molecules
B' structured emulsifiers
Gives a creamy/smooth texture which is desirable in foods such as ice cream
B structured emulsifiers
Very ordered and gives a brittle and snady texture to foods.
Free Fatty Acids
The amount of unesterfied fatty acids present in a fat. A good frying oil will have less than 0.05% FFA and most emulsifiers will have
less than 2% FFA. High FFA levels can indicate inadequate refining or breakdown of a fat
Solid Fat Index
A number giving the proportions of solid to liquid present in a fat at a given temperature.
Certified color additives
Man-made, synthetic, prefix FD&C, nine certified colors, each batch tested. (Dyes & Lakes)
Color Additives Exempt from Certification

No batch certification but rigorous safety standards, must comply with identity, purity and use limitations in regulation, derived from
natural sources (vegetables, minerals etc.)
Dyes
Dissolve in water: powers, granules, liquids
Lakes
water-insoluble pigments, Ca/Ba/Alumina slats, tints by dispersion, resists "bleeding", cake/donuts/hard candies/gum
Lipids
Fat/oils are esters of FA + glycerol. Most common dietary fat is triglycerides
Fats
Solid at room temperature
Oils
Liquid at room temperature
Animal Fat Processing
h
Vegetable Fat Processing
Rendered, separated, pressed
Refining fat/oil to remove impurities
degumming-->refining-->bleaching-->deodorizing
4 primary food groups that give us edible oils
Animal fat
Seeds
Nuts
Marine
Soapstock recovered
Sulfuric acid and heat breaks the emulsion between FFA and water
3 Types of interesterification
1) Random- FA freely move and an equilibrium is reached based on the overall FA mixture
2) Directed- Uses catalyst and lowers temperatures which crystalizes a portion of the FA mixture while interchanging FA
3)Enzymatic-uses lipases which catalyze the rxn as all 3 positions on the glyceride
Spoilage caused by
-insect damage
-physical injury
-enzymatic degradation
-microbial acitivity
Types of spoilage
1. appearance: colonies on surface, cloudiness
2.textural: slime formation, softening due to enzymatic degradation
3. changes in taste and odor: nitrogenous compounds, sulfides, organic acids
number and types of MO determined by:
1. environment
2.intrinsic factors
3. handling and processing sanitation
4. packaging, handling and storage conditions
Microflora of whole meats
1. gram negative aerobic rods (pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, Moraxella)
2. Bacillus and clostridia
3. subsurface of meat is generally sterile but lymph nodes may be heavily contaminated
among most perishable foods
most important control factor for meat spoilage
temperature
Meat spoilage characterized by
-off odors
-slime
-surface loads exceed 10E7 cfu/cm2
Ground meats MO
-same MO as whole meats but always higher microbial loads due to greater surface area and additional processing and handling
Ground Meat additives
1. soy extenders
2. mechanically deboned meat
-raise pH which leads to more rapid spoilage
Vacuum packed meats
increased CO2 due to cell respiration gives longer shelf life
Impermeable films
1. CO2 levels are higher
2. Eh lower
microflora shifts to G+ anaerobes and LAB
spoilage of vacuum packed meats manifest by
1. slime
2. greening caused by production of H2O2 (lactic acid bacteria)
-H2O2 reacts with nitrosohemochrome to form porphyrin
H2S greening
vacuum packed fresh meats stored at 1-5 degrees celcius
H2S reacts with myoglobin to form sulphmyoglobin
-Shewanella putrefaciens and Pseudomonas spp. and some lactobacilli
off odors in meats produced by
-release of short chain fatty acids
-production of acetoin, diacetyl, and H2S
Type of spoilage factor in meats influenced by
1. cooked or raw
-cooked:pH 6.=G- facultative path. like Yersinia enterocolitica
-Raw: pH 5.6=LAB
2. nitrate concentration
-High=LAB
-Low= Bronchothrix thermosphacta (G+ rod, facultative anaerobe @ 0-30*C and pH 5.0-9.0)
B. thermosphacta
meat spoilage
anaerobic
low temp
inhibited by nitrate
3 spoilage manifestations in processed meats
1. Slimy- yeasts, lactobacilli, enterococci, B. thermosphacta
2. Sour- LAB
3. Greening- H2O2 and H2S production
Reasons cured meats are resistant to spoilage
1. use of nitrate/nitrite
2. smoking or brining of hams
3. high fat content (low aw) of bacon
-spoilage of cured meats caused by molds
Visceral taint
-in poultry
-a condition manifest by off odors in abdominal cavity
-odors appear before slime
poultry skin spoilage
during initial stages, skin supports growth better than tissue. skin can be removed to save food
Fish factors
-high nitrogen content
-MO content influenced by quality of water it came from
Bacteria on fish are found...
-outer slime
-gills (most susceptible to spoilage)-sniff area for odors produced by Pseudomonas and Acinetobacter-Moraxella (ammonia,
Triethylamine, H2S)
-intestine- if fish is not cleaned quickly, bacteria move through intestine and invade meat.
Spoilage of Crustaceans
-similar to fish
-products have CHO and more free AA so spoilage occurs faster
Spoilage of Mollusks
-have more CHO than crustaceans and the least amount of Nitrogen of all fish
Fish Microflora
-shellfish are filter feeders and can contain almost any MO
-clean water fish-Pseudomonas and Acinetobacter-Moraxella
Vegetable composition
- 88% water
- 8.6% CHO
- 1.9% protein
- 0.3% fat
- 0.84% minerals
-pH around 6.0
- good substrate for yeasts, molds, bacteria
- 20% all harvested fruits and vegetables are lost to spoilage
Microflora of Vegetables
1. Gram+ like LAB
2. Coryneforms and Staphylococci (handling)
3. staph usually can't proliferate but can be transmitted to other foods.
soft rot
-most common type of bacterial spilage
-caused by Erwinia carotovora and Pseudomonas spp. which grow at 4*C
FavrSavr story
1. polygalacturonase (PB) hydrolyzes a glycosidic bond in pectin which leads to softening
2. Calgene made antisense RNA to tomato PB. This gives slower softening so fruit can be harvested after ripe (better flavor)
3. First commercially available genetically engineered vegetable
Mold Spoilage in Vegetables
1. where bacterial growth is not favored
2. invade plant tissue through surface wounds
3. spores are deposited by insects (fruit fly)
4. Botrytis cinerea causes grey mold rot and can penetrate skin on its own
Microflora of veggies reflect...
1. sanitation of processing steps
2. condition of original raw product
vegetable sources of contamination
1. surface contamination ( soil, water, manure)

2. Harvesting (hand picking vs machines, Geotrichium candidum is a mold found on harvestors)
3. packaging
4. processing plant
5. markets (handling, cross-contamination)
Fruit composition
-85% water
-13% CHO
-0.9% protein
-0.5% fat
-0.5% ash
- less water and more CHO than veggies
- low pH 1.8-5.6
- spoilage by yeasts and molds over bacteria
Microflora of Fruit
a. yeasts
b. yeasts initiate food spoilage (grow faster than molds)
c. Molds finish job by degrading polysaccharides
Specific Spoilage organisms
1. Blue rot- Penicillium
2. Downy mildews- Phytophora, large masses of mycellium (grapes)
3. Black rot- Aspergillus, Onions
4. Sour rot- Geotrichum candidum
Raw milk flora
1. all MO found on cow hide (soil/fecal bacteria), udder and milking utensils
2. Gram- or Gram +, yeasts and molds
-when properly processed=primarily Gram+
-Psychrotrophic pseudomonads common in stored raw milk which produce heat stable enzymes that reduce milk quality and shelf life
pasteurization
-kills most G-, yeast and molds
-some G- enzymes, thermotolerant G+, and spores survive
-in the past, milk soured by LAB which dropped pH and curdled milk
-today milk is spoiled by aerobic spore-formers like Bacillus whose enzymes cause curdling
-molds can grow on surface
raw milk MO
-Psycrotrophic Bacillus spp are common in raw milk
Butter
-High lipid, low aw make it susceptible to surface mold
-pseudomonads can cause surface taint and rancidity
Cottage cheese
-spoiled by yeasts, molds, bacteria
-slimy curd-caused by Alcaligenes spp (G- aerobic rod found in soil, water and intestinal tract of vertebrates)
-Penicillum, Mucor and other fungi cause stale, yeast flavors
Ripened cheese factors
1. low aw
2. low pH
3. high salt
inhibit most spoilage MO's except surface mold growth
eggs
-very protected
-pseudomonads
-molds like penicillium and cladosporium can grow in air sac
cereal and bakery products
-low aw
-restricts all MO except molds
-refrigerated frozen dough have more aw and can be spoiled by LAB
common bread mold
Rhizopus stolonifer
Beer and Wine
-pH 4-5
-spoilage by yeasts and bacteria
-LAB, and acetic acid bacteria like Acetobacter and Guconobacter spp. which convert ethanol to acetic acid in presence of oxygen.
Megasphaera cerevisia
-anaerbic, spoil by producing isovaleric acid and H2S
spoilage in packages beer often due to...
- growth of yest Sccharomyces diastaticus which grows on dextrins
- turbidity, off flavors result
spoilage in wine most often due to...
- Candida valida yeast
- turbidity, off flavors result
LAB in wine
convert malic acid to lactic acid (malo-lactic fermentation)
-reduces acidity which affects flavor
Leeuwenhoek
first to observe yeast cells
lister
first to isolate lactococcus lactis (bug organism in cheese) in pure culture
Tyndall
observed that bacteria that contaminated foods were always traceable to air, substance or containers
Tyndallization
heat a solution to kill everything in it and then you let it grow and then kill everything again (heat treat things more than once)
thermophile
bacteria that likes hot temperatures
psychrophile/psychrotrophe
adapted to grow in the cold`
osmophilic
organisms that could grow in the presence of high osmotic pressure
bacillus stearothermophilus
heat loving organism
bacillus
hot dog/rod shaped
pectinases
enzyme that gelatinizes
staphylococcus aureus
gold color when grown
staphylococcus
associated with food poisoning
clostridium botulinum
anaerobic, produces spores, extremely deadly, produces a neurotoxin
bacillus cereus
produces 2 types of illness, emetic (vomiting) and diarrhea
diphyllobothriasis
flat worm/tape worm
zootic
disease passed from animals to people
halophile
a salt loving organism

scombroid poisoning
histamine poisoning, temperature related toxin, certain types of fish that are temperature abused produce this
anisakiasis
round worm
aflatoxin
toxin produced by a mold, associated ith peanuts, work as carcinogens
bovine spongiform encephalopathy
disease of the cows brain that makes it spongy (mad cow disease)
osmophile
high sugar and salt
intoxication
onset of symptoms is fast, chemical or toxin causes symptoms, nausea, vomiting, no fever
infection
takes longer for symptoms to show, diarrhea, fever
bacteria
prokaryotic microorganisms,
gastroenteritis
inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract, diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal pains,
brine
salt solution
sterilization
kills all life forms
d-value
amount of time at a given population to drop the population by 10%
pectinase
enzyme that breaks down pectin(glue that hold fruit cells together)
lipase
breaks down fat

protease
breaks down protein
typhoid
bacterial infection, intestinal inflammation, caused by food or water contaminated with feces
aflatoxin
mycotoxin, produced by fungus, toxic, carcinogenic,
scromboid poisoning
food borne illness from eating spoiled fish,
heat stable
not destructed by heat
heat labile
destroyed or altered by heat
neurotoxin
inhibits the function of neurons,
Enterohemmorhagic
bleeding of the gut
When can meats become contaminated by microbes?
-during and after the slaughtering process
-from the animal itself
-tools and utensils used in the preparation process
-freshly cut meats have rapid bacterial growth
Examples of psychrophiles
-gram negative: Aeromonas, Pseudomonas,Serratia, vibro
-gram positive: Bacillus, Clostridium, Micrococcus
psychrophiles
-5 to 20 degrees celsius (fridge temp 4 degrees celsius)
obligate: seldom grow at 22 degrees celsius or higher
facultative: grow well at 25 degrees celsius and higher
mesophiles
20 to 45 degrees celsius. (human body temp 37 degrees celsius).

-ingestion may lead to food poisoning
thermophiles
35 degrees celsius and up.
obligate: 50 degrees celsius and up
facultative: will grow at 37 degree celsius but optimal at 45 to 60 degrees celsius
-some species may cause food spoilage of food held at high temperatures
Which types of bacteria can cause the most meat spoilage during refrigeration?
psychrophiles and low temperature mesophiles
Hyperthermophiles
65 to 113 degrees celsius .
-no pathogens or food spoilage species
Botulism
food borne infection that can come from canned veggies, cured meats.
Bacillus cereus
food poisoning intoxication
Clostridium perfringens:
food borne infection caused by raw meat and poultry
what is food poisoning caused by
toxins in the food we eat
what is a food borne infection caused by
parasites, viruses. takes longer to show symptoms.
what happens if meat is not cooked thoroughly
possible infection. not all bacteria has been killed. refrigeration slows growth.
dilution scheme
-1mL meat transferred to tube #1, then a series of 1 mL transferred from tube to tube.
- 4 tubes starting with 1,000 and ending with 1,000,000 in the last tube.
-incubated for 2 weeks before counting colonies. gram stain performed.
pharmaceutical spoilage means
not sterile, there is m.o
why a product showed -ve result in sterility test but it was contaminated?
there is endotoxins
prions
limitation for prions means
that there is an acceptable range
for ax. not more tan 1000 CFU
why products contain API w excipients?
to make the formula easy to manufacture, stable, effective, convientent to the patient
what is the high microbial specifications,
i.e. if not sterile?
they are expected to have no more than a minimal microbial population at the time of product release.
what is the consequences of unacceptable level and type of contamination that will escape the quality assurance net?
1- the product may be spoiled, rendering it unfit for use
2- major financial problems for the manufacturer through direct loss of faulty product & loss of publicity through product recall
3- use of contaminated products may present a potential health hazard to patients, perhaps resulting in outbreaks of medicamentrelated infections, and ironically therefore contributing to the spread of disease
what is a very hard system to add a preservative?
emulsion
when there is higher risk for contamination?
in natural products more than the synthetic ones
m.o. possess a wide variety of degradative capabilities, which they are able to exert under relatively mild physicochemical
conditions.
T OR F
T
___________ more effective co-operative biodeteriogens than the individual species alone
Mixed natural communities
example on Mixed natural communities
attack of complex substrates occur where initial attack by
one group of microorganisms renders them susceptible
to further deterioration by secondary, and subsequent, microorganisms
two examples on m.o. that contaminate drugs?
pseudomonas, salmonella
fastidious & non-fastidious examples
salmonella
pseudomonas
what does fastidious means?
need specific environment to grow

sources of contamination
1- raw material
2- environment
3- manufacturing
4- human personal use
example of half-lives of hours rate of degradation of materials?
phenols
example of half-lives of years rate of degradation of materials?
halogenated pesticides
rate of deterioration of a chemical will depend upon:
1- molecular structure
2- the physicochemical properties of a particular environment
3- the type and quantity of microbes present
4- whether the metabolites produced can serve as sources of usable energy and precursors for the biosynthesis of cellular components,
and hence the creation of more microorganisms.
when there is water i am afraid of which m.o?
pseudomans
Crude vegetable and animal drug extracts often contain
wide assortment of microbial nutrients besides the therapeutic agents.
example of half-lives of monthes rate of degradation of materials?
some surfactants
the longest C chain, more branched, sophisicated agents are _______ prone to biodegradation, why?
less
b/c of steric hendrence
for a biogegradation to occur give me a reason
m.o. need to grow
important parameters for physiochemical properties?
1- ph
2- moisture content
m.o. can't live in __________ or in _________
extreme ph or no water at all
what is a self-preserved product?
a product w extreme ph or no water

give example on self-preserved product?
1- well packed tabs w 0% moisture
2- ointments w 0% moisture
other example of self-preserved that can be attacked by fungi?
syrups
order of needness for water?
gm-ve then g+ve then fungi & osmo-philic yeast
syrup is prone to ______ not to_______?
osmophilic yeast but not to gm-ve bacteria
more susceptible preparations to microbial growth?
slns, suspensions and natural products
less susceptible preparations to microbial growth?
tablets & ointments
what do hair dyes contain?
highammonia level so alkaline ph (not suitable except for alkalo-philis) no preservatives
example of biodegradation of surfactants?
cream separations, caking, creaming, formation of droplets
by knowing the ingredients we can tell what kind m.o to expect? T OR F
T
when dealing w animal what to expect?
salmonella, e-coli
when dealing w plants what to expect?
aspergillus, clostridium tetani [soil],
micrococcus, staphylococcus epidermidis
steps to lower microbial attact?
1- preservation
2- not suitable phsiochemical properties
3- following CGMP
4- suitable packaging
CGMP
current good manufacturing practice

instead of wide jar what we should use?
collapsible tubes
Through spoilage, active drug constituents may be metabolized to less potent or chemically inactive forms how?
by presence of enzymes
alkaloids
morphine, , atropine
in eye by fungi
analgesics
Asp. can be deactivated by esterase producing bacteria
in suspensions or damp tablets
steroid esters
be metabolized and serve as substrates for growth.
m.o. used to biological transformation by addition of alkyl to steriods so then will be used commerically
inactivation of penicillin injections by b-lactamase-producing bacteria, other examples?
cephalosporins, carbapenems, aztreonam
chloramphenicol
chloramphenicol deactivation in an oral medicine by a chloramphenicol acetylase-producing contaminant
so damp tablets
steroid metabolism
so creams by
fungi
Anionic surfactants
such
as the alkali metal and amine soaps of fatty acids, are generally stable due to the slightly alkaline pH of the formulations, although
readily degraded once diluted into sewage.
Anionic surfactants examples
alkali metal and amine soaps
Alkyl and alkylbenzene
sulphonates and sulphate esters are metabolized by? products?
oxidation
free FA, glycerol so odorous ketons
ease of degradation _________ with increasing chain length and complexity of branching of the alkyl chain
decreases
Non-ionic surfactants examples
alkylpolyoxyethylene alcohol emulsifiers
Alkylphenol polyoxyethylene alcohols
Alkylphenol polyoxyethylene alcohols or alkylpolyoxyethylene alcohol emulsifiers
more resistant?
Alkylphenol polyoxyethylene alcohols
other example of Non-ionic surfactants
Lipolytic cleavage of the fatty acids from sorbitan
esters, polysorbates and sucrose esters is often
followed by degradation of the cyclic nuclei, producing
numerous small molecules readily utilizable
for microbial growth
Ampholytic surfactants,
phosphatides, betains, alkylamino substetiuted AA readily biodegradable, heavily used in pharmacy industry
cationic surfactants in antiseptic
only slowly degraded at high dilution in sewage by more resistant gm -ve Pseudomonads
Organic polymers. use? spoilage?
Many of the thickening and suspending agents used in pharmaceutical formulations are subject to microbial depolymerization by
specific classes of extracellular enzymes, yielding nutritive fragments and monomers.
examples on enzymes affecting organic polymers?
amylases (starches), pectinases (pectins),
cellulases (carboxymethylcelluloses, but not
alkylcelluloses), uronidases (polyuronides such as
in tragacanth and acacia), dextranases (dextrans)
and proteases (proteins)
________ not biodegradable organic polymers
Agar (a complex polysaccharide) is an example of a relatively inert polymer and, as such, is used as a support for solidifying
microbiological culture media.
Synthetic packaging polymers such as ______________________, resistance?
nylon, polystyrene and polyester are extremely resistant to attack,
Synthetic packaging polymers example susceptible under some humid conditions
cellophane (modified cellulose)
Low molecular weight materials Humectants. example
glycerol and sorbitol

use of Humectants, exception?
included in some
products to reduce water loss and may be readily
metabolized unless present in high concentrations
Fats and oils.
hydrophobic materials are usually attacked extensively when dispersed in aqueous formulations such as oil-in-water emulsions, aided
by the high solubility of oxygen in many oils
Fungal attack has been reported in condensed
moisture films on
the surface of oils in bulk,
or where water droplets have contaminated the
bulk oil phase
Lipolytic rupture of triglycerides liberates
glycerol and fatty acids, the latter often then
undergoing b-oxidation of the alkyl chains and the production of odiferous ketones.
Sweetening, flavouring and colouring agents.
when used in very high concentrations to reduce water activity in aqueous products and inhibit microbial attack
past sweeting,... agents
variety of colouring agents
(such as tartrazine and amaranth) and flavouring
agents (such as peppermint water) were kept as
stock solutions for dispensed & diluted.
in past even though they found
frequently supported the growth
of Pseudomonas spp., including Ps. aeruginosa.
Preservatives and disinfectants.
Many preservatives
and disinfectants can be metabolized by a wide
variety of Gram-negative bacteria, although most
commonly at concentrations below their effective
'use' levels.
Growth of pseudomonads in stock
solutions of
quaternary ammonium antiseptics and
chlorhexidine has resulted in infection of patients
in case of emulsion what to use
parabens to protect both phases and interface
Mucor (characteristics)
Nonseptate hyphae
Smooth, non-striated sporangiospore.
Produce no rhizoids
Mucor (properties)
Grow on refrigerated meat, causes "whiskers"
Black spots on frozen mutton
Very common on bread
Rhizopus (characteristics)
Nonseptate hyphae
Umbrella-shaped columellae
Large sporangiospore with striated wall
Dark sporangia containing dark to pale spores
Rhizopus (properties)
Bread mold
Water soft rot of fruits
Black spot on beef, bacon, frozen mutton
Aspergillus (characteristics)
Black, brownish black, purple brown conidiophore
Yellow to green conidia
Dark sclerotia
Aspergillus (properties)
A. niger: black rot on fruits and vegetables
Yellow, green to black on large number of foods
Penicillium (characteristics)
P. digitarum: yellow-green conidia
P. italicum, P. expansum: blue-green conidia
P. camemberti: grey conidia
Penicillium (properties)
Blue/green rots of citrus fruits
Soft rots of apples, pears, peaches
Geotrichum (characteristics)
Arthroconidia formation
Colorless conidia
White colonies
Geotrichum (properties)
Machinery mold
Soft rots of citrus fruits (peaches)
Common in dairy products

Strong odors
Fusarium (characteristics)
Cottony, pink, red, purple, brown, colonies
Sickle-shaped and colorless conidia
Extensive mycelium
Fusarium (properties)
Soft rot of figs
Brown rot of citrus fruits (pineapples)
Bacon, refrigerated meat spoilage, pickle softening
Saccharomyces (characteristics)
Multilateral budding
Spherical spore
White or cream colonies
Typical yeasty odor
Saccharomyces (properties)
S. cerevisiae: ubiquitous contaminant; fermentative spoilage of soft drinks; some strains are preservative resistant.
Zygosaccharomyces (characteristics)
Multilateral budding
"Dumbbell" shaped asci
1-4 ascospores/asci
Bean-shaped ascospores
Strong sugar fermenter
Zygosaccharomyces (properties)
Z. bailii: highly resistant to preservatives, xerophile, capable of growth at Aw of .8, ph 1.8, heat resistant ascospores, spoil tomato
sauce, mayonnaise, salad dressing, soft drinks, fruit juices, etc.
Z. rouxii: grow at Aw of .62
Candida (characteristics)
Cells are spheroidal, cylindrical, ovoid, elongate
Pseduomycelium formation
Candida (properties)
Common yeasts in fresh ground beef and poultry
C. krusei: preservative resistant; forms film on pickles and olives
C. parapsilosis: spoils cheese, margarine, dairy and fruit products
Substrate composition:
Meat spoilage bacteria utilize GLUCOSE and AMINO ACIDS. When high bacterial numbers, the organisms start degrading the
glucose and later the aminoacids releasing the ammonia and with it the malodours.
Substrate pH.
Fresh range meat (5.3-7.0). The growth of aerobic and anaerobic organisms (Pseudomona, lactic acid bacteria) is sensitive to pH.
-Water activity.
(Aw)- above 0.98 is OPTIMAL for bacterial growth.
Fresh meat is above this value so inhibition of bacterial growth by reduction of Aw needs to be engineered by drying and/or cured
products by the addition of solutes such as sat and water.
Initial contaminating flora.
Major sources are the slaughter animals themselves, the process workers and the environment
Microbial spoilage.
To solve the problem of food spoilage of fresh meat, the classical preservation methods include drying, smoking, salting, curing,
pickling, fermenting and icing or freezing.
Temperature.
Microbial spoilage is prevented if meat is
FROZEN to temperatures too low for microbial growth.
Chilled storage of meat between -2C and -5C prevents the growth of MESOPHILLIC pathogens and delays the onset of spoilage.
The flora developing on chilled meat are the ones carried on the hides of slaughter animals and contaminating carcasses during
dressing.
At chill temperatures, Pseudomonas are the bacteria that dominate in spoilage.
-Gaseous environment.
Gases that influence more the meat spoilage microflora are: oxygen, carbon dioxide and nitrogen.
Requirements for meat packaging:Containment.
The containment function of meat packaging extends from the packing plant to the consumer's refrigerator.
Requirements for meat packaging:
-Protection.
Packaging isolates its contents from environmental effects such as dust, microorganisms, water, chemicals, gases, odors and
compressive forces.
Requirements for meat packaging:Preservation.
For meat and other perishable products, the major cause of deterioration is the MICROBIAL SPOILAGE.
Other causes of deterioration are moisture loss (dessication), color change, and oxidative rancidity.
Loss of water from fresh meat reduces the weight of meat available for sale. However, the packaging with water-impermeable film
prevents the moisture loss but will accelerate the microbial growth.
The color of raw meat is determined by the oxidation state of myoglobin. If no oxygen present (anoxic packs) the meat becomes very
red because myoglobin is deoxygenated.
Fat; the reaction of this with oxygen is responsible for development of rancid odour and flavours.
Requirements for meat packaging:-Apportionament.
This is to reduce the industrial output to an appropriate size.
Requirements for meat packaging:
-Unitization.
Is the function by which primary packages are transferred into secondary or tertiary ones with insertion of cardboard cartons,
pallets ....
Requirements for meat packaging:Convenience.
Microwaveable packs and meat-based whole meals.
Requirements for meat packaging:Comunication.
An attractive and easy recognizable product.
Packaging methods.
Chilled and frozen raw meats are generally protected by flexible plastic packaging. However, consumer packs take a variety of
forms:
-rigid (glass jars, cans, etc..)
-semi-rigid (plastic trays, boxes, etc..)
-flexible (plastic bags, pouches, etc..).
Nonpreservative packaging.
Protects from contamination and water loss without creating in-pack conditions verty different from ambient.
-Wrappers- simplest type of flexible packaging, in which the sheet material is used to enclose a quantity of product.
-Overwrapped trays- widely used in supermarkets for fresh meat and poultry. Fresh meats are placed on a semi-rigid plastic tray that is
overwrapped with a plastic film with high oxygen permeability.
-Preservative packaging.
This group has an ability to extend product life by modifying or restricting microbial growth. This is created by maintaining in-pack
conditions that differ markedly from the environment ones.
-Vacuum packaging- product is placed into a bag that is evacuated and heat sealed. The packaging material has a low permeability to
oxygen and the anoxic environment is maintained.----as a primary transport package and for storage of large cuts.
Product is purple-red (unattractive presentation)
-In modified-atmosphere packaging (MAP)-the gaseous environment around the product is modified before heat sealing, and then
gradually changes as a result of the interaction between product and packaging
-Controlled-atmosphere packaging (CAP)- the gaseous environment around the product is altered but is then maintained at a specific
composition regardless of product or microbial respiration, temperature, or other environmental changes. As plastic materials are not
impermeable to gases, the composition of the in-pack atmosphere will change but very slowly. Gas-impermeable packaging like
plastic aluminium foil have to be used.
Two-phase packaging.
Combined extended product life and a good display potential.
The general principle is to CHANGE the GASEOUS ENVIRONMENT surrounding the meat between storage and display phases.
This can be achieved by allowing gaseous exchange. This will result in the meat COLOUR CHANGE from purple to bright red.
Colour.
Dark Red Discolourations;1. Imperfect bleeding
2. Bruising
3. Haematoma
4. Fevered flesh
5. Suffocation
6. Foetal flesh
Pale Carcasses:-
1. reduced pH
2. anaemic carcasses
3. white muscle disease
Pigmentations:1. anthracosis
2. bile staining
3. carotene pigmentation
4. melanosis
Test for Jaundice.
RIMINGTON FOWRIE TEST
This test is done on YELLOW FAT to determine whether the colour of the fat is due to CAROTENE which would indicate a dietary
problem or the presence of BILE which would be suggestive of jaundice.
The fat is boiled in 5% SODIUM HYDROXIDE, cooled and mixed with an equal volume of ether. The phases are allowed to separate.
If BILE SALTS are present they form water soluble sodium salts in the lower layer and demonstrate a green/yellow colour. If the
upper layer is yellow carotene is present. Both pigments can be present together.
Odours
Two tests can be employed;1. BOILING. The meat is boiled in water for 15 minutes allowed to cool before cutting up and smelling for unpleasant odours such as
the presences of urea.
2. FRYING. Add meat (with a little cooking fat if there is no fat on the meat) to a very hot pan and note nay smell. Allow to cool and
cut up and smell as before.
Osteoporesis is associated with
Calcium.
Which mineral is essential for proper ATP function?
Magnesium.
Hemochromatosis is associated with excess absorption of
Iron.
A mineral associated with control of the amount of fluid in the body is
Sodium.
The mineral that would most likely interfere with calcium absorption is
Phosphorous.
The mineral related to Vitamin E is
Selenium.
The major positively charged ion inside human cells is:
Potassium.
A salt-sensitive person has :
Increased blood pressure after ingesting sodium and Increased risk for heart disease.
The mineral that requires vitamin D for absorption is
Calcium.
A person with high iron levels and one with low levels are fed a dose of iron. The one most likely to absorb the most iron is the
one with
Low Levels.
One of the two mineral that are most important in fluid balance is
Potassium.
Goiter is caused by a lack of?
Iodine.
The major mineral in bone is:
Calcium.
Dwarfism can be associated with the lack of ________ in the diet?
Zinc.
The mineral that in small amount can strengthen bones and teeth is
Fluorine.
Which is true for BMR?
Is lower with an increased ratio of fat cells to muscle cells.
From a food safety standpoint, the "Danger Zone" is:
Between 40F and 140F.
All bacteria contain:
One chromosome.
An organism that can grow a refrigerator temperatures is called
Psychrophilic.
An organism that can make you sick is called
Pathogen.
Bacterial spores are formed:
As a survival mechanism.
If you have been loosing weight for 2 or 3 weeks, your body will::
Become more efficient.
Who dies from food poisoning?
Old people, Very young people, Immuno-compromised people.
The daily value for fat is 75 grams. This means a person should
Try to consume no more than 75 grams of fat.
A psychrophile:
Can grow at refrigerated temperatures.
Water activity refers to
Water available for microbial growth.
Prokaryotes:
Have no nucleus.
Which of these would be a disqualifying nutrient if present at high enough a level?
Fat.
Which is/are a characteristic of Anorexia Nervosa?
Occurs mostly in female and has a higher death rate than other psychological disorders.
Pathogens cannot grow
Below pH 4.6.
Chicken is a common source of
Salmonella.
The organism that is a cause of spontaneous abortions is: :
Listeria monocytogenes.
Bloody diarrhea is a symptom caused by:
E coli O157:H7.
The mycotoxin associated with peanuts is:
Aflatoxin.
Which releases a toxin when it forms spores in the gut?
C. perfringens.
Most deaths caused by __________ result from under processing of home canned foods
Botulinum.
Fever would be associated with food poisoning caused by
Salmonella.
The organism that grows in the refrigerator is:
Listeria monocytogenes.
Food contaminated by ___________ toxin would still be harmful even if it were boiled for 10 minutes.
Staph.
The organism that forms spores is:
Clostridium botulinum.
The food poisoning organism associated with open, runny sores is:
Staphylococcus.
Kidney failure in children is associated with:
E coli.
Almost all food poisoning can be prevented by:
Preventing contamination with pathogens, Keeping the food cold , Keeping the food hot.
The food most commonly associated with B. cereus poisoning is:
Rice.
Jam is safe to store at room temperature because of its high sugar content. The sugar:
Decreases the water activity.
The oldest form of drying is
Sun Drying.
Refreezing thawed food:
Should be done with care.
The FDA has ruled the food irradiation is
A food additive.
An organism that can cause vomiting and diarrhea within 1 to 6 hours is:
Staphylococcus.
A heat process designed to kill all pathogens and all other organisms is called:
Sterilization.
The average person who gets food poisoning will:
Never realize why they were sick.
Which of the following is/are true about pasteurization?
Reduces pathogenic organisms.
A process designed to inactivate enzymes is:
Blanching.
An example of a product that is almost always sun dried:
Raisins.
Dried mashed potatoes would be made with a _______________ dryer
Drum.
The form of drying that can only be applied to liquids is :
Spray Drying.
A company that sells irradiated hamburger in a number of its stores is:
Dairy Queen.
Salting preserves food by:
Lowering water activity.
The processing of low acid foods in the U. S. is designed to kill spores of:
Clostridium botulinum.

Food Saftey

Загружено:

Сведения о документе

Авторское право

Доступные форматы

Поделиться этим документом

Поделиться или встроить документ

Параметры публикации

Этот документ был вам полезен?

Это неприемлемый материал?

Авторское право:

Доступные форматы

Food Saftey

Загружено:

Авторское право:

Доступные форматы

Sunita 110071102771

How do enzymes catalyze reactions?

True or False: Enzymes start chemical reactions.

Star this term

Star this term

The enzyme binds to its substrate, forming what?

Star this term

Play audio for this term

What is the active site?

Star this term

True or false: Enzymes fit with any shape of molecules.

An enzyme's activity can be affected by what two factors?

What does a cell do to regulate metabolic pathways?

Structures within the cell help ____________.

Some enzymes act as _____________.

Some enzymes reside in specific organelles, such as...

True or False: Enzymes start chemical reactions.

The enzyme binds to its substrate, forming what?

What is the active site?

True or false: Enzymes fit with any shape of molecules.

An enzyme's activity can be affected by what three factors?

Some enzymes reside in specific organelles, such as...

The names of enzymes mostly end in

Optimal Enzyme Temperature Graph

Lock and Key Model

non competitive inhibitor

True or False: Enzymes start chemical reactions.

The enzyme binds to its substrate, forming what?

What is the active site?

True or false: Enzymes fit with any shape of molecules.

An enzyme's activity can be affected by what three factors?

Some enzymes reside in specific organelles, such as...

The names of enzymes mostly end in

Pepsin works on what substrate?

Catalse works on what substrate?

Optimal Enzyme Temperature Graph

Lock and Key Model

non competitive inhibitor

True or False: Enzymes start chemical reactions.

The enzyme binds to its substrate, forming what?

What is the active site?

True or false: Enzymes fit with any shape of molecules.

An enzyme's activity can be affected by what factors?

Some enzymes reside in specific organelles, such as...

The names of enzymes mostly end in

The energy required to initiate a reaction.

Optimal Enzyme Temperature Graph

Lock and Key Model

non competitive inhibitor

True or False: Enzymes start chemical reactions.

The enzyme binds to its substrate, forming what?

What is the active site?

True or false: Enzymes fit with any shape of molecules.

An enzyme's activity can be affected by what three factors?

Some enzymes reside in specific organelles, such as...

The names of enzymes mostly end in

Optimal Enzyme Temperature Graph

Lock and Key Model

C4-C10 result in what

Constituents affect... (6)

Difference in arrangement of elements in sugars makes a difference to what?

Essential amino acids (9)

items close to being a complex protein (3)

The more complex the sugar...