ITIL V3 Sample Paper 1

1. Which of the following is NOT a step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
model?
a) What is the vision?
b) Did we get there?
c) Is there budget?
d) Where are we now?

2. What is the RACI model used for?

a) Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity
b) Defining requirements for a new service or process
c) Analyzing the business impact of an incident
d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service Management

3. What is the main reason for establishing a baseline?

a) To standardize operation
b) For knowing the cost of services provided
c) For roles and responsibility to be clear
d) For later comparison

4. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Service Operation?

a) Through testing, to ensure that services are designed to meet business needs

b) To deliver and support IT services

c) To manage the technology used to deliver services
d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes

5. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about patterns of demand generated by

the customers business?
a) They are driven by patterns of business activity
b) It is impossible to predict how they behave
c) It is impossible to influence demand patterns
d) They are driven by the delivery schedule generated by capacity management

6. Which of the following is NOT one of the ITIL core publications?

a) Service Optimization
b) Service Transition
c) Service Design
d) Service Strategy

7. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

1. Only one person can be responsible for an activity
2. Only one person can be accountable for an activity
a) All of the above
b) 1 only

c) 2 only
d) None of the above

8. Which is the correct sequence of events in the selection of a technology tool?

a) Select Product, Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product
b) Selection Criteria, Requirements, Evaluate Product, Select Product
c) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Select Product, Evaluate Product
d) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product, Select Product

9. Which of the following are the three main types of metrics as defined in Continual
Service Improvement (CSI)?
1. Process Metrics
2. Supplier Metrics
3. Service Metrics
4. Technology Metrics
5. Business Metrics
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 4 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4

10. The priority of an Incident refers to?

a) The relative importance of the Incident based on impact and urgency

b) The speed with which the Incident needs to be resolved
c) The number of staff that will be assigned to work on the Incident so that it is resolved in time
d) The escalation path that will be followed to ensure resolution of the incident

11. The goal of Service Asset and Configuration Management is to?

a) Account for all financial assets of the organization
b) Provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure, correlating IT services and different IT
components needed to deliver the services
c) Build service models to justify the ITIL implementations
d) Implement ITIL across the organization

12. Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the following?
1. Incident Management
2. Problem Management
3. Access Management
4. ?
5. ?
a) Event management and Request Fulfillment
b) Event Management and Service Desk
c) Facilities Management and Event Management
d) Change Management and Service Level Management

13. Which of the following identifies two Service Portfolio components within the Service
Lifecycle?
a) Requirements Portfolio and Service Catalogue
b) Service Knowledge Management System and Service Catalogue
c) Service Knowledge Management System and Requirements Portfolio
d) Requirements Portfolio and Configuration Management System

14. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service
Design phase of the Lifecycle?
1. Hardware and Software design
2. Environmental design
3. Process design
4. Data design
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only

15. Business drivers and requirements for a new service should be considered during?
a) Review of the router operating system patches
b) Review of the current capabilities of IT service delivery
c) The Post Implementation Review (PIR) of a change

d) Decommissioning legacy servers

16. The BEST definition of an event is?

a) An occurrence where a performance threshold has been exceeded and an agreed Service Level
has already been impacted
b) An occurrence that is significant for the management of the IT infrastructure or delivery
of services
c) A known system defect that generates multiple incident reports
d) A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to announce a new service or improvement
program

17. What does the Service V model represent?

a) A strategy for the successful completion of all Service Management projects
b) The path to Service Delivery and Service Support for efficient and effective utilization of
resources
c) Levels of Configuration and testing required to deliver a Service Capability
d) The business perspective as perceived by the customer and the user of services

18. Technical Management is NOT responsible for?

a) Maintenance of the technical infrastructure
b) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support the IT
infrastructure
c) Defining the Operational Level Agreements for the technical teams
d) Diagnosis of, and recovery from, technical failures

19. The following options are considered within which process?

1. Big bang vs. Phased
2. Push and Pull
3. Automated vs. Manual
a) Incident Management
b) Release and Deployment Management
c) Service Asset and Configuration Management
d) Service Catalogue Management

20. Which of the following activities is Service Level Management responsible for?
a) Design the configuration management system from a business perspective
b) Create technology metrics to align with customer needs
c) Create a customer facing service catalogue
d) Train service desk on how to deal with customer complaints about service

21. When analyzing an outcome for creation of value for customers, what attributes of the
service should be considered?
a) Objectives, Metric, Desired outcome
b) Business Objectives, IT objectives, Process metrics
c) Desired outcome, Supplier metrics, IT objectives
d) People, Products, Technology

22. Setting policies and objectives is the primary concern of which of the following elements
of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy
b) Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvement
c) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service
Improvement

23. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of Event Management?
a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control
action
b) The ability to implement monitoring tools
c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
d) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of
infrastructure devices

24. Consider the following statements:

1. CSI provides guidance on how to improve process efficiency and effectiveness
2. CSI provides guidance on how to improve services
3. CSI provides guidance on the improvement of all phases of the service lifecycle
4. CSI provides guidance on the measurement of processes and services
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above

25. Which of the following statements are CORRECT about Functions?

1. They provide structure and stability to organizations
2. They are self-contained units with their own capabilities and resources
3. They rely on processes for cross-functional coordination and control
4. They are costlier to implement compared to processes
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above

26. If an organization is able to become more proactive in its ITSM processes, what is likely
to happen to support costs?
a) They are likely to increase gradually
b) They are likely to increase dramatically
c) They are likely to gradually reduce
d) They are likely to reduce initially and then gradually return to current level

27. Which of the following statements about Supplier Management is INCORRECT?

a) Supplier Management negotiates internal and external agreements to support the

delivery of services
b) Supplier Management ensures that suppliers meet business expectations
c) Supplier Management maintains information in a Supplier and Contracts Database
d) Supplier Management should be involved in all stages of the service lifecycle, from Strategy
through Design and Transition to Operations and Improvement

28. Which of the following BEST describes a Local Service Desk structure?
a) A Service Desk that also provides onsite technical support to its users
b) A Service Desk where analysts only speak one language
c) A Service Desk that is situated in the same location as the users it serves
d) A Service Desk that could be in any physical location but uses telecommunications and IT
systems to make it appear that they are in the same location

29. What is the role of the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)?
a) To assist the Change Manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made during particularly
volatile business periods
b) To assist the Change Manager in implementing emergency changes
c) To assist the Change Manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide whether
the change should be approved
d) To assist the Change Manager in speeding up the emergency change process so that no
unacceptable delays occur.

30. Which of the following is a good use of a baseline?

a) The desired end state of a project

b) A marker or starting point for later comparison

c) The current desktop models in use
d) The type of testing to be done for a release

31. The main objective of Availability Management is?

a) To monitor and report availability of services and components
b) To ensure that all targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are met
c) To guarantee availability levels for services and components
d) To ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the agreed needs of the business

32. Operations Control refers to?

a) The managers of the Technical and Applications Management functions
b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of IT operational events and activities
c) The tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT Infrastructure and Applications
d) The situation where the Service Desk is required to monitor the status of the infrastructure
when Operators are not available

33. Which off the following is a characteristic of every process?

1. It is measurable
2. It is timely
3. It delivers a specific result
4. It responds to a specific event

5. It delivers its primary result to a customer or stakeholder

a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
d) All of the above

34. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?

a) A user calls the Service Desk to order a toner cartridge
b) A user calls the Service Desk because they would like to change the functionality of an
application
c) A Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access to an application
d) A user logs onto an internal website to download a licensed copy of software from a list of
approved options

35. A Service Level Package is best described as?

a) A definite level of utility and warranty associated with a core service package
b) A description of customer requirements used to negotiate a Service Level Agreement
c) A description of the value that the customer wants and for which they are willing to pay
d) A document showing the Service Levels achieved during an agreed reporting period

36. Incident Management has a value to the business by?

a) Helping to control infrastructure cost of adding new technology
b) Enabling users to resolve Problems

c) Helping to align people and process for the delivery of service

d) Contributing to the reduction of impact
37. A Service owner is responsible for which of the following?
a) Recommending improvements
b) Designing and documenting a Service
c) Carrying out the Service Operations activities needed to support a Service
d) Producing a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of all Services

38. The four stages of the Deming Cycle are?

a) Plan, Measure, Monitor, Report
b) Plan, Check, Re-Act, Implement
c) Plan, Do, Act, Audit
d) Plan, Do, Check, Act

39. What is the CORRECT order of the first four activities in the 7 Step Improvement
Process?
a) Define what you should measure, define what you can measure, gather data and process
data
b) Gather data, process data, analyze data and present data
c) What is the vision, where are we now, what do we want to be, how do we get there?
d) Gather data, process data, define what you should measure and define what you can measure

40. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for all processes?

a) They define activities, roles, responsibilities, functions and metrics

b) They create value for stakeholders
c) They are carried out by a Service Provider in support of a Customer
d) They are units of organizations responsible for specific outcomes
Free ITIL Dumps Exam Questions Version-3 Paper 2
1. The ITIL V3 core is best described as?
a) An Operations Lifecycle
b) An IT Management Lifecycle
c) A Service Lifecycle
d) An Infrastructure Lifecycle

2. Which aspect of Service Design is missing from the list below?

1. The design of services
2. The design of Service Management systems and tools
3. The design of technology architecture and management systems
4. The design of the processes required
5. ?
a) The design of Functions
b) The design of Service Level Agreements
c) The design of applications
d) The design of measurement systems, methods and metrics

3. Which of the following Roles is responsible for identifying

opportunities for improvement?
1. Service Owner
2. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Manager
3. Process Owner
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2 and 3 only

4. Learning and improvement is the primary concern of which of the

following elements of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation
and Continual Service Improvement
b) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
c) Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
d) Continual Service Improvement

5. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to

carrying out Service Operations?
a) The internal IT view is most important as Service Operations has to
monitor and manage the infrastructure

b) Service Operations should maintain a balance between an

internal IT view and an external business view
c) The external business view is most important as Service Operations is the
place where value is realized and the customer obtains the benefit of the
services
d) IT Operations does not take an internal or external view as they execute
processes defined by Service Design

6. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk are

CORRECT?
1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication
between IT and its users for all operational issues
2. The Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident Management process
a) 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above

7. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities in

creating value?
a) They are used to create value in the form of output for production
management
b) They are used to create value in the form of goods and services
c) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Support
d) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery

8. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of the

following?
1. Service Portfolio Management
2. Demand Management
3. Financial Management
a) Service Operations
b) Service Strategy
c) Service Transition
d) Continual Service Improvement

9. Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of

Communication during Service Operation?
a) Communication is defined as part of all processes and is executed in
Service Operation
b) Communication is a separate process that needs to be defined and
executed with Service Operation
c) Good communication is essential for successful Service
Operation, just as it is for any other phase of the Lifecycle
d) Communication is more important in Service Operation than in any other
stage of the Service Lifecycle

10. A Process owner is responsible for which of the following?

a) Purchasing tools to support the Process

b) Ensuring that targets specified in an SLA are met
c) Carrying out activities defined in the Process
d) Monitoring and improving the Process

11. Demand Management is primarily used to?

a) Increase customer value
b) Eliminate excess capacity needs
c) Increase the value of IT
d) Align business with IT cost

12. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of organizing

Continual Service Improvement (CSI) using the RACI model?
a) Facilitates clear communication and workflow practice across all parties
involved in the CSI program
b) Clarifies the roles and responsibilities of individual in the CSI program
which could otherwise be overlapping and confusing
c) Identifies where internal Service Level Agreements (SLAs) can be
established to implement CSI
d) Provides a clear focus for matching the CSI processes to financial
planning

13. Which of the following are objectives of the Release and

Deployment Management process?
1. To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans
2. To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and
support staf
3. To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services
4. To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the
business
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) All of the above
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only

14. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Service

Portfolio Management?
a) How should our resources and capabilities be allocated?
b) What opportunities are there in the market?
c) Why should a customer buy these services?
d) What are the pricing or chargeback models?

15. Which of the following statements are NOT included in Access

Management?
1. Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services

2. Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized

users
3. Defining security policies for system access
4. Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to
a) 3 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only

16. Application Management is NOT responsible for?

a) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and
support Applications
b) Managing applications through their lifecycle
c) Assisting in the decision to build or buy new software
d) Developing operational functionality required by the business

17. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented

within which of the following?
a) The Glossary of Terms
b) A Service Level Agreement
c) An Incident Management record
d) A Configuration Item (CI)

18. What is the purpose of the Request Fulfillment Process?

a) Dealing with Service Requests from the users
b) Making sure all requests within an IT Organization is fulfilled
c) Ensuring fulfillment of Change Requests
d) Making sure the Service Level Agreement is met

19. Which of the following areas would technology help to support

during the Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?
1. Data mining and workflow tools
2. Measurement and reporting systems
3. Release and Deployment technology
4. Process Design
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above

20. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about good

practice?
a) It can be used to drive an organization forward

b) It is something that is in wide industry use

c) It is always documented in international standards
d) It is always based on ITIL

21. Consider the following statements:

1. A Process should be traceable to a specific trigger
2. A characteristic of the Process is that it is performance driven and able
to be measured
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
a) 1 only
b) All of the above
c) None of the above
d) 2 only

22. Warranty of a service means which of the following?

a) The service is fit for purpose
b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with
the service
c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of
time
d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity,
continuity and security

23. The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is

most accurately described as?
a) To understand the performance characteristics of assets and Configuration
Items (CIs) in order to maximize their contribution to service levels
b) To manage service assets and CIs from an operational perspective
c) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the business outcomes they were
designed to achieve
d) To define and control the components of services and
infrastructure and maintain accurate configuration records

24. A Service Catalogue should contain which of the following?

a) The version information of all software
b) The organizational structure of the company
c) Asset information
d) Details of all operational services

25. Facilities Management refers to?

a) The Management of IT services that are viewed as utilities, such as
printers or network access
b) The Management of an outsourcing contract
c) The Management of the physical IT environment, such as a Data
Center

d) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations

staf to maintain the infrastructure

26. When planning and implementing a Continual Service

Improvement (CSI) initiative, which of the following benefits is
LEAST useful in supporting a business case?
a) Reduce technology investment by $5m due to more accurate capacity and
performance modeling processes
b) Reduce support manpower demand by 30% due to automated incident
and problem management processes
c) Improve employee morale and therefore create better
relationships between IT and business units
d) Reduce Problem resolution by 50% and minimize critical system outages

27. Which of the following would NOT be stored in the Definitive

Media Library (DML)?
a) Master copies of software
b) Backups of application data
c) Software licenses
d) Master copies of controlled documentation

28. The objective of the Change Management process is most

accurately described as?
a) Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and
implemented in a controlled manner

b) Ensuring that changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and

efectively
c) Ensuring that all changes have appropriate back-out plans in the event of
failure
d) Protecting services by not allowing changes to be made

29. Functions are best described as?

a) Without their own body of knowledge
b) Closed loop systems
c) Self-Contained units of organizations
d) Focusing on transformation to a goal

30. What is the best definition of an Incident Model?

a) The template used to define the Incident logging form used to report
Incidents
b) A type of Incident involving a standard (or model) type of Configuration
Item (CI)
c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a
known type of Incident
d) An Incident that is easy to solve

31. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines

Insourcing and Outsourcing delivery model options?

a) Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on

external organization(s) resources
b) Insourcing relies on external organization(s) resources; outsourcing relies
on internal resources
c) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships
d) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies on
application service provisioning

32. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to

improve services?
a) To validate, direct, justify and intervene
b) To validate, measure, monitor and change
c) To validate, plan, act and improve
d) To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train people

33. A benefit of using Service Design tools is?

a) To help ensure that standards and conventions are followed
b) To help ensure that events are detected as quickly as possible
c) To help enable diferent applications to work together
d) To help implement architectures that support the business strategy

34. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Four

Ps of Service Design?

a) A four step process for the design of efective Service Management

b) A definition of the people and products required for successful design
c) A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing design
specifications
d) The four major areas that need to be considered in the design of
effective Service Management

35. Consider the following statements:

1. Service Transition provides guidance on moving new and changed services
into production
2. Service Transition provides guidance on testing
3. Service Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from
an external service provider
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 3 only

36. Which is the first activity of the Continual Service Improvement

(CSI) model?
a) Assess the current business situation
b) Understand high-level business requirements
c) Agree on priorities for improvement

d) Create and verify a plan

37. An Incident occurs when:

1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours
2. An authorized IT staf member is unable to access a service during service
hours
3. A redundant network segment fails, and the user is not aware of any
disruption to service
4. A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an application
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) All of the above
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above

38. Which process reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on

a regular basis?
a) Supplier Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Service Portfolio Management
d) Contract Management

39. The 7 Step Improvement Process can most accurately be

described as?
a) The Seven Ps of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
b) A service improvement methodology based on the Deming Cycle
c) A set of roles and responsibilities for managing service improvements
d) A process for defining what is to be measured, gathering the
data, processing the data and using it to take corrective action

40. The Information Security Policy should be available to which

groups of people?
a) Senior business managers and all IT staf
b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the Security Manager
c) All customers, users and IT staff
d) Information Security Management staf only
Answers to ITIL V3 Sample Paper 2:

01. c. 02. d. 03. c 04. d. 05. b. 06. d. 07. b. 08. b. 09. c. 10. d.
11. b. 12. d. 13. a. 14. b. 15. a. 16. d. 17. b. 18. a. 19. a. 20. b.
21. b. 22. d. 23. d. 24. d. 25. c. 26. c. 27. b. 28. a. 29. c. 30. c
31. a. 32. a. 33. a. 34. d. 35. c. 36. b. 37. a. 38. b. 39. d. 40. c.
ITIL Dumps Practice Paper 3
1. Which of the following best means Combination of Internal & External
Sourcing?

A. Internal Sourcing-.
B. External Sourcing
C. Co-Sourcing
D. Managed Services
2. Major Incidents require?
A. Separate procedures
B. Less urgency
C. Longer timescales
D. Less documentation
3. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Knowledge
B. Information
C. Wisdom
D. Data
4. The spell check module of a word-processing software package contains
a number of errors. The Development department has corrected these
errors in a new version. Which process is responsible for ensuring this
updated version is tested?
A. Configuration Management
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
D. Release Management
5. The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle can be used to plan and implement Service
Management Processes:
How many times should each stage of the cycle be visited?
A. There should be a single Plan and Do, and then Check and Act should be carried
out multiple times to Implement Continual Improvement

B. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act

C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to Implement Continual
Improvement
D. There should be a single %n. then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated
multiple times to Implement Continual improvement
6. Consider the following statements:
1. Processes should be implemented in such a way that the Role and Function
in an organization are defined
2. The RACI model Is beneficial to design Function
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
A. 1 Only
B. Both of the above
C. Neither of the above
D. 2 only
7. Which of the following is the process rather than a department?
A. Application Management
B. Operations Management
C. Service Desk
D. Availability Management
8. Which of the following statements fully describes the aim of Release
and Deployment Management?
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified
by Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements
and deliver the Intended objectives
B. To ensure that each release package specified by Service Design consists of a set
of related assets and service components that are compatible with each other
C. To ensure that all release and deployment packages can be tracked, installed,
tested, verified, and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate

D. To record and manage deviations, risks, and issues related to the new or changed
service
9. Which of the following may be defined in a process?
1. Roles
2. Activities
3. Functions
4. Guidelines
5. Standards
6. Governance Framework
A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
B. All of the above
C. 1. 2, 5 and 6 only
D. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
10. A Service Provider is?
A. An organization supplying services to one or more external customers
B. An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers or
external customers
C. An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers
D. An organization supplying IT services
11. Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT
services by maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT
services?
A. Capacity Management
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Financial Management for IT services

12. The Design Manager Is responsible for the overall coordination and
deployment of quality solution designs for services and processes. Which
of the following are NOT responsibilities included In this role?
A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition Packages
B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved
services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems
that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the
organization
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service
Design process and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the efectiveness and efficiency of the Service Design and supporting
processes
13. Of which ITIL process are Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability
components?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Problem Management
D. Availability Management
14. Which of the following statements is true about Access Management?
A. The Process responsible for allowing Users to make use of IT Services, data, or
other Assets.
B. Access Management helps to protect the Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability
of Assets by ensuring that only authorized Users are able to access or modify the
Assets.
C. Access Management is sometimes referred to as Rights Management or Identity
Management.
D. All of above
15. What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level report
designed for the customer?
A. The average utilization level of the Service Desk
B. The level of availability realized and the time not available per period

C. The percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target

D. The successful and reverted Changes during a specific period
16. Availability Management is responsible for availability of?
A. Services and Resources
B. Services and Business Processes
C. Resources and Business Processes
D. Services, Resources and Business Processes
17. What is the difference between a process and a project?
A. A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has a
finite lifespan.
B. A project is continuous and has no end date, whereas a process has a finite
lifespan.
C. A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a project does
not stop when the objective is met.
D. In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the result is
important
18. Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the Continual
Service improvement (CSI) Model?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the
Solution; continually improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived;
How do we keep the momentum going?
C. identifies the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes;
Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; improve the
solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How
do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum
going?
19. What is the meaning of the term Serviceability?
A. The degree of availability of the IT services that can be ofered

B. The degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer
C. The degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported by
maintenance contracts
D. The degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
are complied with
20. A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk
representative determines that the PC is defective and indicates that
according to the services catalogue, the PC will be replaced within three
hours. Which ITIL process is responsible for having this user's PC replaced
within three hours?
A. Availability Management
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Service Level Management
21. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data
Base (KEDB)
B. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
C. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
D. The CMS is partof the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
22. Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and
Change Management. What information is this?
A. Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change
Management can generate Requests for Change (RFCs)
B. RFCs resulting from Known Errors
C. RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change
Management
D. RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change
Management
23. Which form of outsourcing provides domain based business expertise?

A. Application Service Provision

B. Business Process Outsourcing
C. Knowledge Process Outsourcing
D. Co-Sourcing
24. Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT
service?
A. Service Catalogue
B. Service Improvement Program
C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. Service Quality Plan (SQP)
25. Changes are divided into categories.
What criterion defines a category for a change?
A. The consequences of the change such as limited, substantial,
significant, etc.
B. The speed with which the change is made
C. The sequence in which the change is made
D. The Request for Change number that the change is assigned
26. In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures
are taken, for example using an emergency power provision.
Which of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of
measure?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity management
C. Change Management
D. Incident Management
27. What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure
called?

A. Replacement Request
B. Request for Change
C. Request for Release
D. Service Request
28. Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration
of an interruption of a Configuration Item?
A. Availability Manager
B. Incident Manager
C. Problem Manager
D. Service Level Manager
29. Which of the following steps from the continual improvement Model is
missing?
1. What Is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
6.?
A. What is the ROI
B. How much did it cost.
C. How do we keep the momentum going.
D. What is the VOI?
30. Which of the following best describes the goal of Information Security
Management Process?
A. To align IT security with business security and ensure that information
security is effectively managed in all service and Service Management
activities.

B. To ensure that that the information security risks are appropriately managed and
enterprise information resources are used responsibly.
C. To provide a focus for all aspects of IT security and manage all IT security
activities.
D. To provide the strategic direction for security activities and ensures objectives
are achieved
31. Which of the following statements about Supplier and Contract
Database (SCD) are correct?
1. A database or structured Document used to manage Supplier Contracts
throughout their Lifecycle.
2. The SCD contains key Attributes of all Contracts with Suppliers
3. Its never part of the Service Knowledge Management System.
4. Maintaining it is responsibility of Supplier management process
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1, 2 & 3
C. 1, 2 & 4
D. All of above
32. Which of the following will complete the Four P's of Service Design?
1. Perspectives
2. Positioning
3. Plan
4. ???
A. People
B. Product
C. Patterns
D. Partners
33. What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean?

A. Average uptime of a service

B. Average downtime of a service
C. Average time between two consecutive incidents
D. Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period
34. Which of the following statements is true about the term Event?
A. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration
Item or IT service.
B. The term Event is also used to mean an Alert or notification created by any IT
Service, configuration Item or Monitoring tool.
C. Events typically require IT Operations personnel to take actions, and often lead to
Incidents being logged
D. All of above
35. Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the
Definitive Media Library (DML)?
A. Copies of all software versions that are needed
B. Copies of all live software programs
C. Authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure
D. Software awaiting user acceptance testing
36. Application Portfolio
1. A database or structured Document used to manage Applications throughout
their Lifecycle.
2. The Application Portfolio contains key Attributes of all Applications.
3. The Application Portfolio is sometimes implemented as part of the Service
Portfolio, or as part of the Configuration Management System.
Which of the above statements is correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 & 3only

C. All of above
D. 1 & 2 only
37. Which of the following best describes Fault Tolerance?
A. The ability of an IT Service or Configuration Item to continue to operate
correctly after Failure of a Component part.
B. The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of their contract. Often this
contract will include agreed levels of availability, reliability and/or maintainability for
a supporting service or component.
C. A measure of how quickly and efectively a service, component or CI can be
restored to normal working after a failure.
D. A measure of how long a service, component or CI can perform its agreed
function without interruption
38. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Capacity Plan?
A. Capacity Forecasts
B. Recommendations
C. Components and resource forecasts
D. Countermeasures for risks
39. How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service
Level Management process?
A. By checking contracts with suppliers
B. By measuring customer satisfaction
C. By defining service levels
D. By reporting on all incidents
40. What is the first activity when implementing a release?
A. Designing and building a release
B. Testing a release
C. Compiling the release schedule

D. Communicating and preparing the release

[ITIL v3 Foundation Notes] Listed here are the key concepts and facts for the ITIL v3
Foundation Certification Exam. I used this as the last minute revision notes for my ITIL
Foundation exam just before the exam.

Service Management as a Practice

ITIL is best practices guidance. ITIL should be used with other bestpractice approaches, e.g. standards, industry practices and proprietary
knowledge to tailor for the particular needs of an organization.
Why ITIL is successful: ITIL is based on the approach of adopt and adapt.
ITIL is successful because it is nonprescriptive, vendor-neutral best practices
for service lifecycle.

Services groups: i) core (business-critical services); ii) enabling (support the

core services); iii) enhancing (add value to the core).

Types of customers: i) internal customers (based in the same organization

as the service provider); ii) external customers (outside of the organization of
the service provider).

Service types: i) Type I (internal, within individual business units); ii) Type II
(shared, providing services shared across a number of business units);
iii) Type III (external, providing services to external customers).

Stakeholder types: i) customers (individuals or groups that buy goods or

services); ii) users (use the services on a daily basis); iii) suppliers
(external parties providing services that support / enable IT services).

Characteristics of processes: measureable, respond to a trigger, deliver a

specific result and deliver to a customer or stakeholder

Definitions of the important terms: service, IT service, outcome, service

management, IT service management and IT service provider.

Automation improves efficiency and effectiveness. Automation and the

use of technology enable process enhancement and improvements.

Core stages of the service lifecycle: i) service strategy, ii) service design,
iii) service transition, iv) service operation, v) continual service improvement.

ITIL core publications are supplemented with complementary

guidance. The complementary guidance can be specific to particular
industries or provide context for adoption.

Service Strategy

Purpose, objectives and scope for the Service Strategy: purpose

provide the strategy for the service lifecycle; objectives the definition of
strategy and governance control; scope define a strategy to meet
the customers business objectives and to manage services.

Definition of utility and warranty: utility ensures that the service is fit
for purpose; warranty ensures that the service is fit for use. Both are
important to ensure delivery of value to customers.

Definition of resources and capabilities: resources used in the delivery

of a service (e.g. financial capital, human resources); capabilities the
organizations ability to perform and achieve value (e.g. processes, tacit
knowledge).

Role of governance: provides the structure and standardization for

management of services

Role of risk management: ensures a repeatable and manageable process

for dealing with risks (risk management is to identify, document, analyze and
mitigate against the likelihood of risks to a project / service).

Patterns of business activity (PBA): important to understand the

strategic and tactical approaches for the management of resources and
capabilities efficiently and cost-efectively to realize organizational goals.

Service portfolio management process: ensures an appropriate mix of

services being delivered and developed.

Components of service portfolio: i) service pipeline (services in the

making); ii) service catalog (customer-facing view of the live operational
services); iii) retired services (decommissioned services).

Financial management process: i) budgeting (plans IT services

expenditure); ii) IT accounting (account for the expenditure on IT services);
iii) charging (charges the customer for IT services). Financial management is
central to understanding value for services.

Business case: a tool for decision making on whether an IT service is to be

developed.

Business relationship management: connects customer and service

provider at a strategic level.

Business relationship management vs service level

management: business relationship management focuses on strategic
relationship with the customer whereas service level management is
operational.

Service Design

Purpose, objectives, and scope of service design: consider how the

service will be run and managed when it is operational for both new and
changed services.
Good service design is valuable to business: ensures services fulfill the
business requirements of capacity, continuity, availability and security. Good
design also ensures smooth transition to operation.

Key output service design package

Four ps people, processes, products and partners

Five key aspects of service design STAMP: i) Solution (fulfills the

business requirement and enables the business process); ii) management
information systems and Tools (ensure that the right information is available
when required); iii) technical Architecture; iv) Measurements (ensure the
service is functional as intended); v) new and changed Processes (that need
to be developed, including both business processes and service management
processes).

Purpose, objectives, and scope of service level management

(SLM): SLM ensures that new and current IT services are (to be) delivered to
agreed specific and measurable targets

Basic concepts of service level management: definition of service level

requirements and the role of targets in assessing the level of service being
delivered

Difference between service providers and suppliers.

SLM activities: definition and documentation of service level targets and

negotiation with the business and with stakeholders to agree on targets that
are both challenging and yet achievable.

Underpinning contracts and operational level agreements: to ensure

that targets are achievable

SLAM report (RAG report): monitor, measure and review service level
achievements

SLA structures: service-based, customer-based and multilevel SLAs

Service level management: builds a relationship with the business units by

understanding their requirements and how it delivers a service that meets
these requirements (note: service level manager and the business
relationship manager build relationships with the business on diferent
levels). SLM tracks customer satisfaction levels and takes action to improve
them.

Interface between SLM and other process: e.g. business relationship

management, incident and request management, supplier management and
continual service improvement.

Service catalog: a database or structured document for all live IT services,

including those available for deployment, forming one of the three service
portfolio elements. Two types / views of services customer-facing services
and supporting services.

Service catalog service information: service details, status, interfaces,

and dependencies and the way in which this information is used by other
processes, such as service level management.

Availability: end-to-end availability, measurement of availability takes into

account only agreed service time (excluding agreed downtime and out-ofhours availability).

Availability concepts: reliability (how long a service functions without

interruptions); resilience (component failures without afecting service);
maintainability (how quickly a service can restore); serviceability (how quickly
a third party can response and fix the failure)

Information security policy: it is the responsibility of the information

security manager to then ensure the required level of protection (as
determined by business) is provided

Confidentiality (restricting access to data to authorized users), integrity

(maintaining data free of any corruption or unauthorized change) and
availability (able to be accessed when required) of data.

Supplier management: understand the link between underpinning

contracts as part of service level management and the management of
suppliers

Different categories of suppliers: strategic, tactical, operational and

commodity

Capacity management: provides the current and future capacity and

performance that the business requires, when it requires it, and at a cost it
can aford.

IT service continuity management (ITSCM): responsible for providing an

agreed level of service in the event of a major disruption to normal working
conditions as part of business continuity management and prevent or reduce
the impact of such an event.

Design coordination: provides a single point of coordination and control for

all service design activities and processes, compiles the service design
package and ensures quality and consistency across designs and
conformance of designs to governance requirements. It also ensures the
successful handof of a service from strategy to design / transition.

Roles and responsibilities of service owner: accountable for ensuring

the delivery of the service and liaise with process owners to ensure service
standard

The roles and responsibilities of the process owner, the process

manager and the process practitioner: i) process owner (only
one) accountable for ensuring the successful delivery of a process across all
services and takes a lead role in ensuring that the process outcomes match
the objectives; ii) process managers (can be several) responsible for
managing the day-to-day implementation of the process by the process
practitioners; iii) process practitioner responsible for carrying out the
process tasks under the direction of the process manager(s).

Purpose of the RACI model (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted

and Informed): define roles and responsibilities within processes, only one
person can be accountable for each activity and every activity must have at
least one responsible and one accountable person.

Service Transition

Purpose, objectives and scope of service transition: purpose ensure

new, modified or retired services meet the expectations of the business as
agreed; objectives to plan and successfully manage releases into
production, ensuring good knowledge transfer and expectation setting for the
delivery of the new or modified service; scope includes planning, build,
testing, evaluation, implementation and deployment of new or modified
services into operation or the retirement of services.
Service transition provides value to the business: deliver changes that
are planned, built, tested, evaluated, implemented and deployed according to
expectation and specification

Purpose, objectives and scope of change management

process: purpose to provide controlled change; objectives to manage
changes in a controlled manner, manage risk and meet the needs of the
business; scope only IT changes

Change model: used to assist with management of the process by providing

a set of predefined steps for commonly identified situations.

Standard change: follows a change model that responds to a predefined

trigger and has low risks.

Emergency change: follows an adjusted process flow, assessment and

authorization may include ECAB, testing may be reduced and documentation
may be completed later on.

Normal change process flow steps and activities

All changes should be documented in an RFC, and this should be logged in a

change record, which is captured as part of the CMS.

A change proposal is needed if the change has a major impact on business

in terms of risk, cost, or resources.

Assessment of changes: include benefits, costs, risks, resources and

relationships for the change.

Output of change process: change schedule (CS) and projected service

outage (PSO) used to communicate change timescales and impact with
stakeholders.

Remediation plan: allows mitigation against potential failure and return to

normal if a change fails.

Changes authorization: changes are authorized by the change

authority with consideration of the size, risk, cost and business impact of the
change.

Change management: responsible for the coordination of the deployment

of the change; need to work with release and deployment management.

Once a change has been deployed, it would be reviewed. The change

record is closed if it meets the acceptance criteria for success.

Change advisory board (CAB): responsible for assessing changes and

making recommendation for authorization.

Purpose, objectives and scope of the transition planning and support

process: ensures that all transitions are managed efficiently.

Purpose, objectives and scope of the service asset and configuration

management process: ensures accurate and reliable information about the
assets are captured.

Configuration management system: integrates information about the

infrastructure and provide a comprehensive view of the configuration items
(CI) and their relationships

Configuration model: provides a model of the services, assets, and

infrastructure by capturing the details of each configuration item and their
relationships; Configuration baseline: the state of the infrastructure at a
specific point that is reviewed and agreed upon, to be used for trending,
comparison and planning. Snapshot: capture of the infrastructure at a point
in time.

Definitive media library: a specific secure area set aside for managing
software media (including physical and electronic stores for master copies
and documents)

Purpose, objectives and scope of knowledge management: ensures

knowledge is available in the right place at the right time to enable informed
decisions, reducing the need for knowledge rediscovery.

DIKW model: Data-Information-Knowledge-Wisdom is used to transition from

data to information to knowledge to wisdom

Service knowledge management system: an overarching system for

managing knowledge relating to service management by integrating all the
existing data sources from service management processes

Purpose, objectives and scope of the release and deployment

management process: ensures that releases are planned, scheduled and
controlled for successful deployment of services into production.

Release policy: describes the manner in which releases will be carried out
and provides definitions for release types

Four phases of the release and deployment management

process: i) release and deployment planning, ii) release build and test, iii)
deployment and iv) review and close.

Service Operation

Purpose of the service operation: to deliver the services that have been
designed and transitioned as efficiently as possible. Escaped faults will be
identified and resolved and service will be optimized and in line with the SLAs
agreed previously.

Service operation ensure that the business benefits from the service
as planned by delivering the services efficiently and within service targets.

Service operation functions: technical management, application

management, IT operations management, and the service desk.

Technical and application management functions: provide resources to

the other lifecycle stages and specify the operational tasks that service
operation staf members should carry out.

Application development vs application support

Operations management: operations control (e.g. console management)

vs facilities management (e.g. monitoring environmental conditions).

Service desk function: skills and attributes that service desk staf members
should possess business awareness, technical awareness, customer focus,
etc.

Service desk structures: local, central, virtual, and follow the sun

Purpose and objectives of incident management: a reactive process to

reduce downtime by resolving incidents quickly (to restore service but not to
identify the cause). Definition of terms: major incidents, incident models, an
incident, a problem and a service request.

Priority = business impact x urgency

Incident and problem models

Lifecycle of an incident and escalation types

Purpose, objectives and scope of problem management: a problem is

the unknown, underlying cause of one or more incidents; problem
management is to find the root cause of incidents and remove it to prevent
recurrence

Workaround and a known error: some problems might not resolved if it is

not cost-efective to implement the fix (known error as stored in known error
database ), workaround would be created to bypass the errors

Even vs alert: events (a change of state that has significance for the
management of a CI) and alerts (a failure or a breach of a threshold)

Role of event management in automation: passive and active

monitoring to reduce downtime

Purpose objectives and scope of access management: not just granting

access but also restricting or removing it as required.

Continual Service Improvement

Purpose, objectives, and scope of Continual Service Improvement: to

ensure IT services are in line with business needs and not simply to meet
service targets, to be carried out on a regular basis for all service areas.

Steps of the CSI and Deming cycle: CSI identify the approach taken to
manage a service improvement initiative and ensure it to meet the objectives
of the business. Deming Cycle Plan, Do, Check, and Act.

Purpose of the CSI register: to track and manage improvement initiatives

taken by the IT service provider, maintained by the CSI manager.

Types of measures: critical success factors and key performance indicators

Three types of metrics: technical, process, and service: interact to

provide a complete measurement of the service

Baselines: function as a comparison basis to verify improvement.

Seven-step improvement process: used to manage gathering, analysis

and presentation of data.

Relationship between seven-step improvement process and the

DIKW knowledge model / Deming cycle.