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CHEM 1110 Final Exam Practice

CHEM 1110 Practice Final Exam


This exam is intended for diagnostic purposes only. Success on this exam in no way
guarantees success on the actual final exam. It is suggested that you take this exam in a
way to simulate the actual conditions of the final (2 hours; only a calculator and periodic
table available) and use the results to guide your studying.
1) The boiling of a substance is a ____________________________________________
change that occurs as a result of breaking _____________________________________:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

physical; intermolecular forces


physical; intramolecular bonds
chemical; intermolecular forces
chemical; intramolecular bonds
reversible; atoms

2) Based on Avogadros Law:


a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The volume of a gas is intensive because it is independent of the amount of gas.


The volume of a gas is intensive because it is dependent on the amount of gas.
The volume of a gas is extensive because it is independent of the amount of gas.
The volume of a gas is extensive because it is dependent on the amount of gas.
The volume of a gas is neither intensive nor extensive.

3) A group of students is asked to count the number of a given object in a jar. The table
below shows their responses:
Student
1
2
3
4

# Reported
250
260
245
253

There were actually 500 of the objects in the jar. What can be said about the accuracy
and precision of the students reports?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The students were both accurate and precise.


The students were accurate, but not precise.
The students were precise, but not accurate.
The students were neither accurate nor precise.
The accuracy and precision of the measurements cannot be adequately assessed.

CHEM 1110 Final Exam Practice


4) A student records the following data for the displacement of water in a graduated
cylinder by an unknown solid:
7.4625
10
12.5

Mass of solid (g)


Initial volume of water (mL)
Final volume of water (mL)

What is the density of this material (in g/mL), reported with the proper number of
significant figures?
a) 2.9850

b) 2.985

c) 2.99

d) 3.0

e) 3

5) A typical American football field has an area of 6,396 square yards (yd2). What is the
area of a football field in square meters (m2)? 1 meter = 1.0936 yards.
a) 5,348

b) 5,848

c) 6,994

d) 7,649

e) 8,365

6) Which of the following was not one of the conclusions reached as a result of
Millikans oil drop experiment & Rutherfords gold foil experiment?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The nucleus is positively charged.


The atom is mostly empty space.
The nucleus of an atom contains only protons.
The charge of an electron is -1.6022x10-19 C.
The mass of an electron is 9.11x10-28 g.

7) How many of each particle indicated are present in


a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

46 4+
22Ti

22 protons, 48 neutrons, 18 electrons


22 protons, 24 neutrons, 18 electrons
22 protons, 48 neutrons, 26 electrons
22 protons, 24 neutrons, 26 electrons
24 protons, 24 neutrons, 24 electrons

8) Which of the following nuclides would be the most likely to be stable?


a)

145

Pm

b)

He

c)

d)

252

Es

e)

131

CHEM 1110 Final Exam Practice


9) The element antimony (Sb) occurs naturally as two isotopes, antimony-121 and
antimony-123. The atomic weights of these isotopes are 120.9038 amu and 122.9041
amu respectively. What is the percent abundance of each isotope? The atomic weight of
antimony is 121.760 g/mol.
Antimony-121
57.20%
42.80%
36.95%
63.05%
51.00%

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Antimony-123
42.80%
57.20%
63.05%
36.95%
49.00%

10) A student studies a dull, brittle substance and finds that it does not conduct
electricity as a solid, liquid, or dissolved in aqueous solution. The student finds that the
substance cannot be decomposed into simpler substances by chemical means. Based on
this information, the substance is most likely:
a) A metallic element
b) A nonmetallic element

c) An elemental metalloid
d) An ionic compound

e) A molecular compound

11) Epinephrine (C9H13NO3) is an important neurotransmitter. How many moles of


epinephrine are in 0.458 kilograms of the substance?
a) 458

b) 8.39x104

c) 2.5

d) 2.5x10-3

e) 83.9

12) How many hydrogen atoms are in 2.00 mol of water?


a) 1.66x10-24

b) 3.32x10-24

c) 6.02x1023

d) 1.24x1024

e) 2.41x1024

13) As the wavelength of an electromagnetic wave increases:


a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The energy and frequency of the wave decrease.


The energy increases, but the frequency decreases.
The energy decreases, but the frequency increases.
The energy and frequency of the wave increase.
There is no correlation between wavelength, energy, and frequency of a wave.

14) An LED emits light at a wavelength of 525 nm. What is the energy of one mole of
these photons in kilojoules per mole?
a) 3.79x10-31

b) 2.28x102

c) 3.79x10-22

d) 2.28x10-7

e) 6.29x10-46

CHEM 1110 Final Exam Practice


15) When an electron in an atom goes from a higher energy level to a lower energy
level, energy is ____________________ resulting in a ___________________ spectrum.
a) released; continuous
b) absorbed; continuous

c) released; line
d) absorbed; line

e) destroyed; gamma

16) Which of the following transitions in an atom would release/absorb the largest
amount energy?
a) n = 5 n = 9
b) n = 4 n = 3

c) n = 24 n = 23
d) n = 1 n = 4

e) n = 2 n = 3

17) Which of the following quantum numbers describes the spatial orientation of an
orbital?
a) n

b)

c) m

d) ms

e) n +

18) What is the maximum number of orbitals that can have n = 4?


a) 2

b) 4

c) 8

d) 16

e) 32

19) Silver (Ag) is in the same group as copper (Cu), and is therefore expected to have a
similar electron configuration. What is the electron configuration of silver?
a) [Ar]4s23d9
b) [Ar]4s13d10

c) [Kr]5s13f144d10
d) [Kr]5s14d10

e) [Kr]5s24d9

20) What property determines the order of the elements on the modern periodic table?
a) Electron affinity
b) Atomic mass

c) Electronegativity
d) Ionization energy

e) Atomic number

21) Which of the following statements regarding the group 13 elements is false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

They all have the same number of valence electrons.


They are all classified as metals.
The outermost electrons are in the p subshell.
They would all be expected to have similar chemical reactivity.
The atomic mass increases down the group.

22) Which of the following correctly ranks the species in order of increasing radius?
a) Ar < Cl- < S2b) Cu < Cu+ < Cu2+

c) O2- < O- < O


d) Na < Mg < Al

e) I < Br < Cl

CHEM 1110 Final Exam Practice


23) Which of the following correctly ranks the species in order of decreasing ionization
energy?
a) Na > Mg > Al
b) P > Si > Al

e) Ca > Ca+ > Ca2+

c) K > Na > Li
d) O > N > C

24) For which of the following groups on the periodic table would gaining an electron be
the least favorable?
a) Alkali metals
b) Alkaline earth metals

c) Halogens
d) Chalcogens

e) Noble gases

25) What is the electron configuration of the Pb4+ ion?


a) [Xe]6s24f145d106p2
b) [Xe]6s24f145d8

c) [Xe]4f145d10
d) [Xe]6s24f145d10

e) [Rn]

26) How many unpaired electrons are in the Fe2+ ion?


a) 0

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

e) 5

27) Which of the following choices correctly ranks the compounds in terms of
increasing lattice energy?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

KF < CsBr < CaO < BaSe < VN


KF < CsBr < VN < BaSe < CaO
CsBr < KF < BaSe < CaO < VN
BaSe < CsBr < KF < CaO < VN
KF < CaO < VN < CsBr < BaSe

28) What is the systematic name for the compound CrCl3?


a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Chromium chloride
Chromium (III) chloride
Chromium trichloride
Monochromium trichloride
Chlorochromate ion

CHEM 1110 Final Exam Practice


29) Phosphorus sesquisulfide is the common name for P4S3, is one of the components of
strike-anywhere matches. What is the systematic name for this compound?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Phosphorus sulfide
Phosphorus (III) sulfide
Phosphorus (IV) sulfide
Phosphorus trisulfide
Tetraphosphorus trisulfide

30) What is the formula for strontium nitrite?


a) SrNO2

b) SrNO3

c) Sr(NO2)2

d) Sr(NO3)2

e) Sr3N2

d) HBrO

e) HBr

31) What is the formula of hypobromous acid?


a) HBrO4

b) HBrO3

c) HBrO2

32) What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 26.58% potassium, 35.35%
chromium, and 38.07% oxygen by mass?
a) K2CrO3

b) K2CrO4

c) KCr3O5

d) K2Cr3O4

e) K2Cr2O7

33) What is the percent by mass of each element in aluminum sulfate?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Al
35.95%
10.10%
18.34%
15.77%
29.64%

S
42.73%
36.01%
32.71%
28.12%
23.49%

O
21.32%
53.89%
48.95%
56.11%
46.87%

34) Carbon forms up to three bonds with oxygen. Which of these bonds will be the
strongest, and which of these bonds will be the longest?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The CO bond is the strongest and longest.


The CO bond is the strongest, but the C-O bond is the longest.
The CO is the longest, but the C-O bond is the strongest.
The C-O bond is the strongest and longest.
There is no direct correlation between the number of bonds and the strength.

CHEM 1110 Final Exam Practice


35) Which of the following is not a valid Lewis dot structure?
a)

c)

b)

d)

e)

36) Which of the following is/are valid resonance structure(s) for the Lewis dot structure
of perchloric acid shown below?

I
a) I only

II
b) II only

c) I & II

III
d) II & III

e) All of them

37) What are the electron domain geometry (EDG) and molecular geometry (MG) of
iodine pentachloride?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

EDG
Octahedral
Octahedral
Octahedral
Trigonal bipyramidal
Tetrahedral

MG
Square pyramidal
Square planar
Octahedral
Trigonal bipyramidal
Bent

38) What are the approximate bond angles in phosphine, PH3?


a) 90

b) < 109.5

c) 109.5

d) 109.5 >

e) 120

CHEM 1110 Final Exam Practice

39) Which of the following statements correctly describes the polarity of the molecules
SiCl4 and SCl4?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Both molecules are polar.


SiCl4 is polar, but SCl4 is nonpolar.
SiCl4 is nonpolar, but SCl4 is polar.
Both molecules are nonpolar.
There is not enough information to predict their polarity.

40) Which of the following substances will have the strongest intermolecular forces?

a)

c)

b)

d)

e)

41) Which of the following represents the correct relationship between the boiling points
of the two substances listed?
a) He > Ne
b) H2S > H2O

c)
d)

F2 > HCl
CH4 > C2H6

e)

CH3CH2CH2CH3 >

42) What is the hybridization of the central atom, iodine, in IBr2-?


a) sp

b) sp2

c) sp3

d) sp3d

e) sp3d2

43) Acetonitrile, pictured below, is a common solvent in chemical reactions. How many
of each type of bond are present in this molecule?
a) 6 , 1
b) 5 , 2

c)
d)

7 , 0
4 , 3

e)

4 , 0 , 1

CHEM 1110 Final Exam Practice


44) Sodium borohydride reacts with boron trifluoride according to the unbalanced
reaction equation below. When the reaction is properly balanced, what is the sum of all
of the coefficients?
NaBH4 + BF3 NaBF4 + B2 H6
a) 4

b) 8

c) 10

d) 12

e) 16

45) Hydrogen peroxide decomposes according to the equation 2H2 O2 2H2 O + O2 . If


5.00 moles of hydrogen peroxide are decomposed, how many moles of O2 would be
produced?
a) 1.25

b) 2.50

c) 5.00

d) 10.0

e) 20.0

46) A field test to determine if a rock sample contains limestone (CaCO3) is based on the
reaction of calcium carbonate with hydrochloric acid to give calcium chloride, carbon
dioxide, and water. If 10.00 moles of calcium carbonate are reacted with 15.00 moles of
hydrochloric acid, how many moles of water will be produced?
a) 5.000

b) 7.500

c) 10.00

d) 15.00

e) 30.00

47) Alkali metal peroxides (such as Na2O2) can be used in rebreathing apparatuses to
convert exhaled CO2 into breathable O2 according to the equation
2Na2 O2 (s) + 2CO2 (g) 2Na2 CO3 (s) + O2 (g). If the reaction of 10.00 moles of CO2
with excess Na2O2 produces 2.50 moles of O2, what is the percent yield for this reaction?
a) 100.0%

b) 75.00%

c) 50.00%

d) 25.00%

e) 10.00%

48) Which of the following combinations of solutions will produce a precipitate when
mixed?
a) NH4NO3 & CrCl3
b) AgNO3 & NaC2H3O2

c) Ba(NO3)2 & K2SO4


d) NaOH & LiCl

e) H2SO4 & NaOH

49) Which of the following compounds will not act as a base in aqueous solution?
a) KOH

b) Ba(OH)2

c) Fe(OH)3

d) CH3OH

e) NH3

CHEM 1110 Final Exam Practice


50) Which of the following is the net ionic equation for the reaction between sodium
hydroxide and hydrofluoric acid?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

NaOH(aq) + HF(aq) NaF(aq) + H2 O(l)


Na+ (aq) + OH- (aq) + H+ (aq) + F- (aq) Na+ (aq) + F- (aq) + H2 O(l)
OH- (aq) + HF(aq) F- (aq) + H2 O(l)
NaOH(aq) + H+ (aq) Na+ (aq) + H2 O(l)
OH- (aq) + H+ (aq) H2 O(l)

51) What is the oxidizing agent in the following reaction?


2-

Cr2 O7 + 4Zn + 14H+ + 14Cl- 2CrCl3 + 4ZnCl2 + 7H2 O?


a) Cr2O72-

b) Zn

c) H+

d) Cl-

e) No redox

52) What are the formal charge and oxidation state of the nitrogen atom in the nitrate
ion?
Formal Charge
0
-1
+1
-1
+1

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Oxidation State
0
+3
+3
+5
+5

53) Magnesium is a more active metal than iron. This means:


a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Magnesium has more valence electrons than iron.


Magnesium is more easily oxidized than iron.
Magnesium is more electronegative than iron.
Iron metal will displace magnesium ions from solution.
Magnesium is harder than iron.

54) An aqueous solution is made from 0.639 g of KMnO4 in 50.0 mL of water. What is
the molarity of KMnO4 in this solution?
a) 0.0809

b) 0.0128

c) 8.09x10-5

d) 12.8

e) 0.735

55) A solution of NaCl in water is prepared. A sample of this solution is then diluted to
double its original volume. What is the effect on the molarity of NaCl in this solution?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The molarity of NaCl in the solution was quartered.


The molarity of NaCl in the solution was halved.
The molarity of NaCl in the solution remained the same.
The molarity of NaCl in the solution doubled.
The molarity of NaCl in the solution quadrupled.
10

CHEM 1110 Final Exam Practice


56) The [H+] in a solution is calculated to be 1.0x10-5 M. What is the pH of the solution,
and is the solution acidic, basic, or neutral?
a) pH = 9.00; basic
b) pH = 9.00; acidic

c) pH = 5.00; basic
d) pH = 5.00; acidic

e) pH = 7.00; neutral

57) How many milliliters of 0.350 M potassium hydroxide are required to fully titrate
250 mL of 0.700 M sulfuric acid?
a) 1000 mL

b) 500 mL

c) 250 mL

d) 125 mL

e) 62.5 mL

58) The combustion of liquid butane (C4H10) has a Hrxn of -5,271.4 kJ/mol. How
much energy, in kilojoules, is released if 2.906 g of butane is combusted in the presence
of excess oxygen?
a) 131.8

b) 263.6

c) 527.1

d) 7,659

e) 1.532x104

59) How much heat (in joules) is required to raise the temperature of a 10.0 g sample of
osmium (Os; specific heat: 0.130 J/molK) from 25 C to its melting point, 3045 C?
a) 393

b) 2.32x103

c) 3.99x103

d) 232

e) 3.93x103

60) In a coffee-cup calorimeter, dissolving 10.64 g of lithium perchlorate in 100.00 g of


water increases the temperature of the solution by 5.79 C. What is the Hrxn for the
dissolving of lithium perchlorate in kilojoules per mole? The specific heat capacity of the
solution is 4.184 J/gC.
a) +26.8

b) -26.8

c) +24.2

d) -24.2

e) 57.6

61) In a bomb calorimeter with a heat capacity of 110 kJ/C, combustion of 19.5 g of
liquid butanol (C4H10O) increases the temperature of the calorimeter by 5.87 C. What is
the Hrxn for the combustion of butanol in kilojoules per mole?
a) -2,456

b) 646

c) -646

d) -71

e) 2,456

62) Given the following equations:


1

V(s) + 2 O2 (g) VO(s)


Cl(g) + O(g) OCl(g)
2V(s) + O2 (g) + Cl2 (g) 2VOCl(s)

Hrxn = -431.8 kJ/mol


Hrxn = -290.2 kJ/mol
Hrxn = -1214 kJ/mol

What is the enthalpy of the reaction VO(s) + 2 Cl2 (g) VOCl(s) in kJ/mol?
a) -1996

b) -1645

c) -1039

d) -782.2

e) -175.2

11

CHEM 1110 Final Exam Practice


63) Which of the following reactions corresponds to the standard molar enthalpy of
formation of lithium nitride?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

6Li(s) + N2 (g) 2Li3 N(s)


3Li+ (g) + N3- (g) Li3 N(s)
3Li(s) + N(g) Li3 N(s)
2Li3 N(s) 6Li(s) + N2 (g)
1
3Li(s) + N (g) Li3 N(s)
2 2

64) Magnesium chloride hexahydrate (MgCl26H2O) can be prepared by the following


reaction:
MgO(s) + 2HCl(aq) + 5H2 O(l) MgCl2 6H2 O(s)

Hrxn = -133 kJ/mol

What is the standard molar enthalpy of formation of magnesium chloride hexahydrate in


kJ/mol?
Hf(MgO) = -602 kJ/mol
Hf(HCl) = -167 kJ/mol
Hf(H2O) = -286 kJ/mol
a) -1444

b) -133

c) -2499

d) +1444

e) +2499

d) 1.260

e) 1.000

65) What is the rate of effusion of Br2(g) relative to I2(g)?


a) 0.6296

b) 1.588

c) 0.7935

66) Hydrogen gas and nitrogen gas react to form ammonia gas. How many liters of
ammonia will be produced when 39.00 L of hydrogen gas are reacted with excess
nitrogen gas at STP?
a) 39.00
b) 13.00
c) 26.00
d) 78.00
e) 58.50
67) A sample of gas held in a 500. mL vessel has a pressure of 560. torr at 0.00 C. How
many moles of gas are in the vessel?
a) 1.25x104

b) 12.5

c) 9.50x103

d) 0.0164

e) 0.00

12

CHEM 1110 Final Exam Practice


68) A given sample of gas is held in a closed container at 400 K. Which of the following
changes will result in the pressure of the gas being doubled?
I Doubling the volume of the container
II Doubling the moles of gas in the container
III Doubling the temperature in Celsius
IV Doubling the temperature in Kelvin
a) II, III & IV

b) I only

c) I, II & III

d) II & IV

e) All of them

69) 1.80 grams of a gas is held in a 2.00 L vessel at STP. What is the identity of the gas?
a) H2

b) Ne

c) N2

d) CO2

e) Cl2

70) Two flasks filled with argon and nitrogen gases at 25 C are connected as shown in
the diagram below:

N2
2.00 L
3.00 atm

Ar
2.00 L
3.00 atm

Which of the following statements regarding the gases in the flasks is false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The moles of gas in each flask are equivalent.


The mass of gas in each flask is equivalent.
The average kinetic energy of the nitrogen and argon molecules is equivalent.
The nitrogen molecules are travelling faster than the argon molecules.
The nitrogen gas is less dense than the argon gas.

71) 4.00 moles of Ar gas and 5.60 moles of Xe gas are added to a flask, giving a total
pressure of 13.44 atm. What is the partial pressure, in atm, due to just Ar gas in this
system?
a) 9.60

b) 18.81

c) 32.25

d) 4.00

e) 5.60

13

CHEM 1110 Final Exam Practice


Answer Key:
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
37)
38)
39)
40)

A
D
C
D
A
C
B
B
A
E
C
E
A
B
C
D
C
D
D
E
B
A
B
E
C
D
C
B
E
C
D
E
D
B
A
B
A
B
C
A

41)
42)
43)
44)
45)
46)
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
52)
53)
54)
55)
56)
57)
58)
59)
60)
61)
62)
63)
64)
65)
66)
67)
68)
69)
70)
71)

E
D
B
D
B
B
C
C
D
C
A
E
B
A
B
D
C
A
E
B
A
E
E
C
D
C
D
D
B
B
E

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