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SBI PO 2015 - Prelims (Tier I) Mock Test


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SBI PO 2015 Prelims (Tier I) Mock Test - II


This Mock Test consists of 100 questions which are spread across 3 sections English Language,
Quantitative Aptitude and Reasoning Aptitude. The mock test carries 100 marks and of one hour duration.
There is negative marking of 1/4 marks for each wrong answer.

Pattern of the Mock Test

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-5): Read each sentence to find out whether
there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be
in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the
answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5), i.e no error.
(Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
1. The buzz at the party was / that a famous / filmstar and
politician, would/ probable drop by for a while. No error
(1) The buzz at the party was
(2) that a famous
(3) filmstar and politician, would
(4) probable drop by for a while
(5) No error
2. The opposition disrupted proceeding / in both Houses of
Parliament / for the second consecutive day / above the
plight of farmers in the country. No error
(1) The opposition disrupted proceeding
(2) in both Houses of Parliament
(3) for the second consecutive day
(4) above the plight of farmers in the country.
(5) No error
3. In response to the growing crisis, / the agency is urgently
asking for/ more contributions, to make up for / its
sharp decline in purchasing power. No error
(1) In response to the growing crisis
(2) the agency is urgently asking for
(3) more contributions, to make up for
(4) its sharp decline in purchasing power

(5) No error
4. The tennis player easy through/ the opening set before
her opponent,/ rallied to take the final two sets / for the
biggest victory of her young career. No error
(1) The tennis player easy through
(2) the opening set before her opponent
(3) rallied to take the final two sets
(4) for the biggest victory of her young career
(5) No error
5. Aggression in some teenage boys / may be linkage to
overly / large glands in their brains, / a new study has
found. No error
Directions (6-10): Each question below has two blanks,
each blank indicating that something has been omitted.
Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the
meaning of the sentence as a whole.
6. The organization _______ to popularize Indian classical
music among the youth which has lost ____ with its
cultural roots.
(1) endeavors, touch
(2) wishes, interest
(3) efforts, experience
(4) exerts, intrigue
(5) need, relation
7. One of the major critiques of the examination system is
that it ______ to a spirit of _______ competition among the
students.
(1) results, defective
(2) accompanies, adequate
(3) develops, intense
(4) takes, serve

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(5) leads, unhealthy


8. Auroras are natural light displays in the sky, usually
______ at night, ________ in the Polar Regions.
(1) watch, upward
(2) noticed, peculiar
(3) observed, only
(4) found, most
(5) follows, mainly
9. After the board examinations, students are ______ up for
the various entrance examinations _______ for next month.
(1) ready, timed
(2) gearing, scheduled
(3) prepared, programmed (4) set, duration
(5) geared, kept
10. The governmental _____ spurred dramatic improvements
in the way waste management is ______ out in many
hospitals.
(1) rule, thrown
(2) plans, conduct
(3) crusade, one
(4) efforts, carried
(5) venture, disposed
Directions (Qs. 11 20): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
Economists have rightly emphasized the risks to
globalization from economic and financial instability. But
they have ignored environmental destruction, and the
resulting global warming which is now the central global
concern. Fast-growing middle- income nations, such as
China, Malaysia and India, have a big stake in globalizationand therefore, in confronting this environmental danger.
Their rise has been tied to globalization. They have doubled
their trade in the past decade, and by liberalizing commercial
policies, have also helped others gain. To China, Indonesia as
well as India, environmental outcomes have a special
significance. The possess 60% of worlds freshwater
resources, 60% of the forests, much of the coral reefs, and
valuable biodiversity. But they also face massive degradation
of air, forest, land, freshwater and marine resources, with the
rise in population, adding up to high cost. The atmosphere
concentration of carbon dioxide reached 379 parts per
million in 2005 compared to pre industrial level of 280
ppm. Scientist concurs that to avoid massive climatic
instability, the change in the global temperature ought not to
be more than 20 C above preindustrial levels. To secure that
outcome with some certainty, the concentration of carbon
dioxide needs to stay below 400 ppm. Rich countries like
United States, Japan and the European nations are by far the
most responsible for this and other greenhouse gas
emissions in per capita terms. So they must propel
mitigation measures to improve energy efficiency and

protect the environment. But middle income countries now


account for half of all emissions, and they would not want to
emulate the poor example set by rich countries.
In Brazil, China and India, air and water pollution is
severely impairing peoples health and productivity in the
workplace with a direct impact on growth prospects.
Moreover, globalization has speeded the spillover of these
damages. Growth fuelled by energy intensive industry,
urban crowding and deforestation has added to atmospheric
concentrations of carbon, warming land and ocean and
bringing extreme weather. In turn, climate change threatens
to erode coastlines and provoke droughts and floods, in rich
countries and poor. A clear link is emerging between
deforestation and soil degradation on the one side, and the
fastest rising natural disasters, which are floods and wind
storms, on the other. Societal benefits of abating high level
of emissions far outweigh the costs of doing so. Yet
economists and policy, makers have not drawn the
implication of this calculus for the reform agenda, be it in
trade, energy or infrastructure. Sadly, the costs of such
neglect are large. Also, no country, rich or poor, has enough
motivation to confront global problems alone. Because only
a part of the benefits of addressing those problems would
accrue to countries taking action, while others could have a
free ride. The gains are also spread over time, beyond the
horizon of politicians interest.
The crucial questions is how best countries might
participate in collective measures to mitigate environmental
threats to growth. One opening involves avoiding
deforestation. Cutting down forests accounts for a fifth of the
emissions, more than those from all transportation. By
protecting their forests, countries can reduce carbon
emissions in the atmosphere, paving the way for new
markets for tradable emission permit that would
compensate them for the protection. Whether and how
quickly the environment is accorded top priority will
determine the future of the world economy.
11. Which of the following is True in the context of the
passage?
(1) Pollution from vehicles is the single greatest
contributor to global warming.
(2) The rise of middle income countries has doubled
the levels of greenhouse gas emissions.
(3) China and India have the motivation but not
sufficient influence to implement environmental
reforms.
(4) Urban crowding has resulted in extreme weather
conditions.

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(5) To reduce climate instability global temperature


should be just below or at preindustrial levels.
12. The authors main objective in writing the passage is to:
(1) exhort scientists to provide feasible solutions to stop
climate change.
(2) warn politicians not to disregard the threat of
economic instability while focusing on environmental
challenges.
(3) coerce middle income countries into taking some
initiative in bringing about environmental reform.
(4) criticize the citizens of rich countries for not
pressuring their governments to do more to protect the
environment.
(5) urge countries to take the threat of global warming
seriously and take necessary steps to address the
problems.
13. According to the author, why are politicians reluctant to
formulate environmental reforms?
(A) The expenditure of implementing environmental
reform does not justify the benefits.
(B) Economic stability is more pressing concern for
countries today.
(C) The impact of these policies will only be felt in the
long run which does not benefit them politically.
(1) Only C
(2) Both A & B (3) Only A
(4) All A, B, C
(5) None of these
14. What is the view of scientists on the current climate
change?
(1) Rich countries are solely responsible for global
warming.
(2) Pre industrial levels of carbon concentration are
unachievable.
(3) Controlling rise in global temperature is possible by
maintain carbon concentration below a certain level.
(4) Massive climate instability is unavoidable and the
focus should be on measures to cope with the fallout.
(5) None of these
15. What impact has globalization had on India?
(1) It has exacerbated the fallout of environmental
degradation.
(2) Its economic benefits are not felt by all its citizens.
(3) India has ignored infrastructure development.
(4) Professionals have left to seek better employment in
foreign countries.
(5) None of these

16. Which of the following is a means to reduce the


environmental threat to growth?
(A) Government should conduct a cost benefit analysis
of various environmental protection measures and
implement those which are cost efficient.
(B) Participation of all countries in arriving at a
consensus on measures necessary to combat
environmental challenges to growth.
(C) Scientists not economists should determine the risks
to globalization.
(1) None
(2) Only B
(3) Both A & B
(4) All A, B & C
(5) None of these
17. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in
meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the
passage.
ABATING
(1) relaxing
(2) alleviating (3) varying
(4) intensifying
(5) contracting
18. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in
meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the
passage.
STAKE
(1) perspective
(2) chance
(3) support
(4) gamble
(5) share
19. Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in
meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the
passage.
PROPEL
(1) sanction
(2) collapse
(3) discourage
(4) abhor
(5) deplete
20. Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in
meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the
passage.
EMULATE
(1) copy
(2) fake
(3) replace
(4) originate
(5) rival
Directions (Qs. 21 25): Rearrange the following six
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph: then answer the
questions given below them.
(A) It was a cycling race launched in 1903, by Henri
Desgrange, a magazine editor in Paris.
(B) The Tour de France is a test of human endurance.
(C) His idea worked and the magazine boomed.
(D) His aim was to boost the circulation of his magazine.
(E) He wanted to achieve this by covering every stage of the
three week long 3,500 kilometer long cycling race.

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(F) Till today the race remains more popular than he could
ever have dreamed.
21. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence
after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
22. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence
after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
23. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence
after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
24. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence
after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F
25. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (Last)
sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
Directions (Qs. 26 30): In the following passage there are
blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers
are printed below the pas-sage and against each, five
words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Recently the World Bank and the Asian Development Bank
(ADB) released separate reports on poverty. The World Bank
(26) its benchmark of extreme poverty by 25 cents from $ 1

per person per day to $1.25 per person a day. The ADB
announced an even (27) benchmark of $1.35 per person a
day. These new benchmarks are based on surveys in the
worlds poorest countries.
Experts often like to claim that poverty has declined
because of economic growth in India and China. This is
wrong and (28). In the past twenty five years the poverty
rate in India has (29) by less than one percentage point a
year. Whether we use a poverty line of $1 per person per day
or $1.25 per person per day makes little difference. The
number of poor in India is large. The purpose of these
statistics is not to dispute them but to (30) whether the
benefits of economic growth are being shared with the poor.
26. (1) heightened
(2) announced
(3) print
(4) issue
(5) publish
27. (1) better
(2) significant
(3) plausible
(4) higher
(5) lower
28. (1) adverse
(2) opposing
(3) corrupt
(4) rejected
(5) misleading
29. (1) deplete
(2) plunge
(3) declined
(4) weaken
(5) fell
30. (1) acknowledge
(2) suggest
(3) care
(4) inspire
(5) study

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Directions (Qs. 31 35): What approximate value should
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
questions? (You need not to calculate the exact value.)
31. 388 0.8 0.7 = ?
(1) 681
(2) 654
(3) 693
(4) 670
(5) 700
32.

729 x 338 = ?

(1) 470
(2) 482
(4) 530
(5) 496
33. 1875 35 x 3242 48 = ?
(1) 3325
(2) 3618
(4) 3591
(5) 3636

(3) 521

(3) 3641

34.

41132 =?

(1) 35
(2) 42
(3) 22
(4) 29
(5) 45
35. 15.28 x 12.36 + 41.17 x 21.34 = ?
(1) 1125
(2) 1098
(3) 1132
(4) 1032
(5) 1067
Directions (Qs 36-40): What should come in place of the
question mark (?)
36. 59.76 58.66 56.46 52.06 ? 25.66
(1) 48.08
(2) 46.53
(3) 43.46
(4) 43.26
(5) None of these

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37. 36 157 301 470 ? 891


(1) 646
(2) 695
(3) 639
(4) 669
(5) None of these
38. 14 70 350 ? 8750 43750
(1) 1570
(2) 875
(3) 1750
(4) 785
(5) None of these

39. 13 13 65 585 7605 129285 ?


(1) 2456415
(2) 2235675 (3) 2980565
(4) 2714985
(5) 2197845
40. 1 16 81 256 625 1296 ?
(1) 4096
(2) 2401
(3) 1764
(4) 3136
(5) 6561

Directions (Qs. 41-45): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions.
Table giving the number of candidates appeared in the examination and percentage of students passed from various institutes
over the years.
Institutes
Year

App

2001
2002
2003
2004
2005
2006
2007

450
520
430
400
480
500
550

B
%
Pass
60
50
60
65
50
40
58

App
540
430
490
600
570
450
470

C
%
Pass
40
70
70
75
50
60
60

App
300
350
380
450
400
500
470

41. What is the total number of students passed from all


institutes together in the year 2006?
(1) 1895
(2) 1985
(3) 1295
(4) 1465
(5) None of these
42. Approximately, what is the overall percentage of
students passed from institute C for all the years?
(1) 60
(2) 70
(3) 75
(4) 55
(5) 65
43. What is the ratio of number of students passed from
institute F in 2003 to the number of students passed
from institute B in 2005?
(1) 95:154
(2) 154:95
(3) 94:155
(4) 155:94
(5) None of these
44. What is the ratio of the average number of students
appeared from institute A for all the years to that from
institute D?
(1) 463:333(2) 353:463
(3) 461:333(4) 333:461
(5) None of these
45. What is the overall percentage of students passed from
all the institutes together in 2004? (rounded off to the
nearest integer)

D
%
Pass
65
60
50
70
75
68
60

App
640
620
580
600
700
750
720

E
%
Pass
50
40
50
75
65
60
70

App
600
580
680
720
700
450
560

F
%
Pass
45
70
70
60
48
50
60

App
680
560
700
780
560
650
720

%
Pass
60
70
66
70
50
60
50

(1) 68
(2) 70
(3) 69
(4) 71
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 46-50): In the following questions two
equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve
both the equations and give answer:
(1) If x > y
(2) If x > y
(3) If x < y
(4) If x < y
(5) If x = y or the relationship cannot be established
46. I. 5x2 18x + 9 = 0
II. 20y2 13y + 2 = 0
47. I. x2 + 29x = -210
II. Y2 + 28y = -195
48. I. 3x2 + 17x + 20 = 0
II. 4y2 + 9y + 5 = 0
49. I. 2x2 + 13x + 21 = 0
II. 2y2 + 15y + 28 = 0
50. I. 3x2 - 13x + 12 = 0
II. 2y2 + 17y + 33 = 0
51. Two equal sums are lent at the same time at 6% and 5%
SI. Former is received 24 months earlier than the latter
and the amount in each case is Rs 2400.find sum of
money lent initially.
(1) Rs. 5000
(2) Rs. 4000
(3) Rs 5500
(4) Rs. 4600
(5) Rs. 3300

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52. A treacherous fruit vendor, while purchasing apples


from the wholesaler, manages to receive 25% more
apples than the quantity for which he pays. He cheats his
customers as well and while selling the apples to them he
delivers (50/3) % less apples than the quantity for
which the customers pay. If he claims to sell the apples at
their cost price, find his net profit percentage.
(1) 25%
(2) 45%
(3) 50%
(4) 33%
(5) None of these
53. On 1st January, 2000 the average age of a family of 6
people was 'A' years. After 5 years a child was born in
the family and one year after that the average age was
again found to be 'A' years. What is the value of 'A'?
(Assume that there are no other deaths and births.)
(1) 28
(2) 33
(3) 46
(4) 56
(5) 37
54. A motor boat went downstream for 350 km and
immediately returned. It took the boat 16 hours to
complete the round trip. If the speed of river was twice
the normal, the trip downstream and back would take 20
hours. What is the speed of boat in still water?
(1) 140/3 kmph
(2) 137/3 kmph
(3) 145/3 kmph
(4) 119/2 kmph
(5) None of these
55. A certain amount has to be shared among A, B and C in d
ratio 3:6:8 but erroneously the amount was shared
among A and C in the ratio 8:17 as a result B got 25%
less amount than actual share if the diff between the
actual amount and the amount received by A is 100 find
the actual share of C ?
(1) Rs. 600
(2) Rs. 750
(3) Rs. 800
(4) Rs. 700
(5) None of these
56. There are three taps A, B, and C. A takes thrice as much
time as B and C together to fill the tank. B takes twice as
much time as A and C to fill the tank. In how much time
can the Tap C fill the tank individually, if they would
require 10 hours to fill the tank, when opened
simultaneously?
(1) 24 hrs
(2) 8 hrs
(3) 18 hrs
(4) 10 hrs
(5) 16 hrs
57. Mr. A and Mrs. B have two sons P and Q and a daughter
R. R is the youngest among the three children. Mrs. B is
five years younger than Mr. A. The ages of the children
form an Arithmetic Progression whose common
difference is 1. The sum of the ages of the male members
is 92 while that of the female members of the family is
67. What is the sum of the ages of Mr. A and Mrs. B?

(1) 100
(2) 95
(3) 115
(4) 105
(5) 90
58. There are 3 solutions.
Solution 1: Consists of A and B in the volume ratio 3 : 2.
Solution 2: Consists of B and C in the volume ratio 1 : 4.
Solution 3: Consists of B and C in the volume ratio 7 : 3.
The 3 solutions are mixed in the volume ratio X : 3 : 2. If
the percentage composition of A and B are equal in the
resultant mixture, then what is the value of X?
(1) 15
(2) 21
(3) 10
(4) 12
(5) None of these
59. By selling 18 articles, a shopkeeper earns the cost price
of 24 articles. By what percent should he increase the
selling price so that by selling 24 articles, he earns cost
price of 36 articles?
(1) 12.5%
(2) 10%
(3) 14.5%
(4) 16.33%
(5) None of these
60. A couple has two children. The probability that the first
child is a girl is 50%. The probability that the second
child is a girl is also 50%. The couple tells you that they
have a daughter. What is the probability that their other
child is also a girl?
(1) 4/3
(2) 1/3
(3) 3/7
(4)
(5) None of these

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Directions (Qs. 61-65): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Total number of Boys and Girls in Five different departments.

G
G

G
G

B
B

B
61. The number of girls from Biology department is
approximately what percent of the total number of girls
from all the departments together?
(1) 32
(2) 21
(3) 37
(4) 43
(5) 27
62. What is the difference between the total number of boys
and the total number of girls from all the departments
together?
(1) 440
(2) 520
(3) 580
(4) 460
(5) None of these
63. What is the average number of boys from all the
departments together?

(1) 122
(2) 126
(3) 130
(4) 134
(5) None of these
64. The number of boys from Anthropology department is
approximately what percent of the total number of boys
from all the departments together?
(1) 15
(2) 23
(3) 31
(4) 44
(5) 56
65. What is the ratio of the number of girls from Philosophy
department to the number of girls from Psychology
department?
(1) 1:2
(2) 7:12
(3) 5:12
(4) 3:4
(5) None of these

REASONING ABILITY
Directions (Qs. 66-70): In each question below are given
four statements followed by two conclusion numbered I and
II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts.
Read tall the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts.
66. Statements: Some leaves are flowers. No flower is fruit.
Some fruits are branches. Some branches are stems.
Conclusions: I. All branches being flower is a possibility.
II. Some branches are not leaves.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Both I & II follow
(3) Only II follows
(4) Either I or II follows
(5) Neither I nor II follows

67. Statements: All lions are tigers. All tigers are leopards.
Some leopards are wolves. No wolf is elephant.
Conclusions: I. Some tigers are lions.
II. All tigers being elephant is a possibility.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Both I & II follow
(3) Only II follows
(4) Either I or II follows
(5) Neither I nor II follows
68. Statements: Some caps are umbrellas. Some umbrellas
are raincoats. All raincoats are trousers.
Al trousers are jackets.
Conclusions: I. Some trousers are not raincoat.
II. Some caps are raincoat.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Both I & II follow
(3) Only II follows
(4) Either I or II follows

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(5) Neither I nor II follows


69. Statements: Some fans are coolers. Some coolers are
machines. Some machines are computers.
All computers are televisions.
Conclusions: I. Some cooler not being machine is a
possibility. II. Some computer are cooler.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Both I & II follow
(3) Only II follows
(4) Either I or II follows
(5) Neither I nor II follows
70. Statements: All keys are staplers. All staplers are blades.
Some blades are erasers. Some erasers are sharpeners.
Conclusions: Some sharpener are stapler.
II. Some blades are stapler.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Both I & II follow
(3) Only II follows
(4) Either I or II follows
(5) Neither I nor II follows
Direction(71-75): Read the following information and then
answer the questions below:
Ten students A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are sitting in a row
facing west.
(i) B and F are not sitting on either of the edges
(ii) G is sitting second to the left of D and H is sitting to the
right of J.
(iii) There are four persons between E and A.
(iv) I is to the north of B and F is to the south of D.
(v) J is in between A and D and G is in between E and F
(vi) There are two persons between H and C.
71. Who is sitting at the seventh place counting from the
left?
(1) H
(2) C
(3) J
(4) Either H or C
(5) None of these
72. Who among the following is definitely sitting at one of
the ends?
(1) C
(2) H
(3) E
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
73. Who are the immediate neighbours of I?
(1) B and C
(2) B and H
(3) A and H
(4) B and A
(5) Cannot be determined
74. Who is sitting second left of D?
(1) G
(2) F
(3) E
(4) J
(5) B
75. If G and A interchange their positions, then who become
the immediate neighbours of E?
(1) G and F
(2) F only
(3) A only
(4) J and H
(5) D only

Direction (Q. 76-80): In these questions, relationship


between different elements is shown in the statements.
These statements are followed by two conclusions. Mark
answer
1) If only conclusion I follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) If both conclusions I and II follow.
76. Statements: A < B, B < C, C = D, D > E
Conclusion: I. B = D
II. B < D
77. Statements: M = N > O < P = Q < R
Conclusion: I. N > P
II. R > N
78. Statements: S < T, T < U, U = W, W < X
Conclusion: I. S > W
II. W > T
79. Statements: G < H, I < G, H < J, J < K
Conclusion: I. H < K
II. H > I
80. Statements: C < B, K> G, G = M, B < K, M < B
Conclusion: I. M < K
II. C = G
Directions (Qs. 81 85): Read the following information
and then answer the questions below:
A, B, C, D, E and F live on different floors in the same building
having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is
numbered I, the floor above it, number 2 and so on and the
topmost floor is numbered 6).
A, lives on an odd numbered floor. There are two floors
between the floors on which A and F live. C lives immediately
above the floor on which E lives. C does not live on an even
numbered floor. Only one person lives between C and B.
81. Who among the following lives on 4th numbered floor?
(1) D
(2) B
(3) F
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) E
82. How many person lives between E and B?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Cannot be determined
83. Who lives immediately above As floor?
(1) B
(2) E
(3) C
(4) D
(5) None of these
84. Which of the following pairs of the persons lives on the
even numbered floor?
(1) E, B
(2) F, B
(3) A, D
(4) D, F
(5) D, C
85. Which among the following options is correct regarding
person and floor?
(1) A, 3rd floor
(2) D, 6th floor
(3) B, 4th floor
(4) E, 5th floor
th
(5) A, 5 floor

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Directions (Qs. 86-88): Read the following information and


answer the questions that follow:
Mr. and Mrs. Rana have two children Anushka and Saurya.
Saurya married Rajni, daughter of Mrs. Tomar. Nitin, son of
Mr. Tomar married Ritu. Ram and Shyam are born to Nitin
and Ritu. Reema and Vidhya are the daughters of Saurya and
Rajni.
86. What is Vidhya's relation to Anushka?
(1) Sister
(2) Niece
(3) Aunt
(2) Daughter
(5) None of these
87. How is Ram related to Mr Tomar?
(1) Son in law
(2) Sibling
(3) Grandson
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
88. How is Anushka related to Rajni?
(1) Mother in law (2) Aunt
(3) Sister in law
(4) Niece
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 89-90): Study the following information
carefully to answer these questions.
A vehicle starts from point P and runs 10 km towards North.
It takes a right turn and runs 15 km. It now runs 6 km after
taking a left turn. It finally takes a left turn, runes 15 km and
stops at point Q.
89. How far is point Q with respect to point P?
(1) 16 km
(2) 25 km
(3) 4 km
(4) 0 km
(5) None of these
90. Towards which direction was the vehicle moving before
it stopped at point Q?
(1) North
(2) East
(3) South
(4) West
(5) North West
Directions (Qs. 91-95): Read the following information and
then answer the questions below:
Eight persons-P, S, Q, R, U, B, J and C are sitting in a field in a
circle. Three are facing opposite side and other five are facing
the centre. S is sitting to the third right of B. R is not near C. Q
is sitting to the third to the left of R, who is second right of P,
and among these three ,one is facing opposite to the centre of
circle. Two persons are sitting between C and U and two are
sitting between B and U. Q is sitting second to the left of J,
who is facing the centre of the circle. S is facing the centre of
the circle. U is not sitting opposite to B and Q.
91. Who sits to the immediate left of U?
(1) Q
(2) S
(3) J
(4) B
(5) R
92. What is the position of R, with respect to C?
(1) Second to the left
(2) Second to the right
(3) Third to the right
(4) Immediate right

(5) None of these


93. Which of the following pairs sits between S and B?
(1) P & R
(2) C & P
(3) R & J
(4) Q & U
(5) R & C
94. Starting from Bs position, if all the eight persons are
arranged in alphabetical order in clockwise direction, the
seating position of how many persons (excluding B)
would not be change?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) More than three (5) None of these
95. Who among the following persons sits second to the left
of P?
(1) Q
(2) S
(3) R
(4) B
(5) U
Directions (Qs. 96-100) Study the following information
and answer the questions given.
In a certain code language lu ja ka hu means we provide
study material, fa ka la ju means we score maximum
selection, la fu ja ju means study score the selection and
ju lu na fu means selection of the material. Then
96. What is the code of score in this code language?
(1) ju
(2) la
(3) fa
(4) ka
(5) Cannot be determined
97. What is the code of provide in this code language?
(1) hu
(2) lu
(3) ka
(4) ja
(5) Cannot be detrmined
98. What is the code of provide of maximum?
(1) na hu fu
(2) fa hu na
(3) fu lu na
(4) hu fa la
(5) Cannot be determined
99. What is the code of we the in this code language?
(1) ka fu
(2) na hu
(3) ka na
(4) hu fu
(5) Cannot be determined
100. What is the code of material in this code language?
(1) hu
(2) lu
(3) ja
(4)ka
(5) Canot be determined

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