QDB 15 HPL

1.
The rate of accidents in commercial aviation (excluding sabotage and acts of terrorism):
Is approximately 1 accident per million airport movements
2.
As a cause of accidents, the human factor
Is cited in approximately 70 - 80 % of aviation accidents
3.
Thinking on human reliability is changing.
Human errors are now considered as being inherent to the cognitive function of human and are
generally inescapable
4.
In the initial phase of flight training the relationship between confidence and expertise can be
described as:
The pilot is competent enough to fly the aircraft at this stage, but does neither have a great deal of
confidence in his/her abilities nor in the whole system
5.
Concerning the relation between performance and stress, which of the following statement(s) is (are)
correct?
A moderate level of stress may improve performance
6.
Stress is a frequent aspect of the pilot's job. Under which of the following circumstances does it
occur?
1. Stress occurs whenever the pilot must revise his plan of action and does not immediately have a solution
2. Stress occurs with inexperienced pilots when the situational demands exceed their individual capabilities
3. Stress occurs if a pilot is convinced that he will not be able to find a solution for the problem he just is
confronted with
1, 2 and 3 are correct
7.
Divided attention is the ability:
1. to execute several mental activities at almost the same time (i.e. when switching attention from outside
the aircraft to the airspeed indicator on the instrument panel)
2. to monitor the progress of a motor programme (i.e. flying or taxiing the airplane) on a relatively
subconscious level, while making a radio call at the same time (requiring a rather conscious level)
3 .to select information and check if it is relevant to the task in hand. At the same time no other operation
can be performed.
4. to delegate tasks to the copilot while concentrating on the procedures
1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
8.
The physiology of stress is now well known:
Stress promotes an increase in physical strength rather than promoting mental performance
9.
An overstressed pilot may show the following symptoms:
1. mental blocks, confusion and channelized attention
2. resignation, frustration, rage
3. deterioration in motor coordination
4. high pitch voice and fast speaking
1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
HPL - P a g e | 1
10.
What airplane equipment marked a substantial decrease in hull loss rates in the eighties?
GPWS
11.
Between which components, with reference to the SHELL Concept, covers pilot misinterpretation of
the old three-point altimeter?
Liveware - Hardware
12.
Between which components is an interface mismatch causing disturbance of the biological rhythm,
thus leading to reduced human performance?
Liveware - Environment
13.
The errors resulting from an illogical indexing system in an operations manual are related to an
interface mismatch between
Liveware - Software
The cooperating cockpit crew is the central function in the model which makes the judgements and
decisions to bring all the other factors into a harmonious and safe working whole.
HPL - P a g e | 2
14.
A pilot is skilled when he/she:
-1 : trains or practises regularly
-2 : knows how to manage himself/herself
-3 : possesses all the knowledge associated with his aircraft
-4 : knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected
1,2,4
15.
In civil air transport, linear accelerations (Gx):
- 1 : do not exist
- 2 : have slight physiological consequences
- 3 : may, in the case of pull-out, lead to loss of consciousness
- 4 : cause sensory illusions on the pitch axis
2,4
16.
Which of the following symptoms is not typical for a decompression sickness:
Red out
17.
The following statements are true except
Poor circulation is called hypoxic hypoxia
18.
The following situations can lead to stagnant hypoxia
Excessive G forces
19.
Smoking can cause hypoxia due to an increase in carbon monoxide. This is called a
Hypemic hypoxia
Hypoxia is a lack of oxygen at the tissue level of the body due to a decrease of oxygen pressure in inspired
air or because of conditions that interfere with the diffusion or absorption of oxygen within the body.
Types of Hypoxia
Histotoxic Hypoxia- Interference of the tissue's ability to absorb or metabolize delivered oxygen. This is
often caused by alcohol, narcotics or poisons.
Hypemic Hypoxia- Reduction of the blood's ability to carry oxygen. Carbon monoxide is the most common
cause followed by anemia, blood loss and smoking.
Hypoxic Hypoxia- Lack of oxygen in the tissues due to decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen at altitude.
20.
Stages of performance decrements due to hypoxic hypoxia are
Indifferent stage up to 6'000 ft, disturbance threshold at 12'000 ft
21.
The most dangerous sign of hypoxic hypoxia is
Impaired judgment and self criticism
22.
TUC at 25'000 ft at rest is about
4 minutes
23.
A common phenomenon of hypoxia and hyperventilation is
Tingling sensation of arms and legs
24.
The following statement about respiration is true
Transport of oxygen in the blood is made by combination with hemoglobin
HPL - P a g e | 3
25.
Oxygen is transported through the walls of the alveoli according to
The Diffusion law
26.
A healthy young subject should have the following lung volumes
A residual volume of 1.2 liter
27.
Usually, the body has a remarkable store of the following gases
Carbon dioxide
28.
The respiratory control center is primarily sensitive to
Carbon dioxide
29.
Ventilation is primarily stimulated by
An increase of carbon dioxide
30.
The following statement is true
Increased carbon dioxide causes shortness of breath
31.
The partial pressure of the respiratory gases within the pulmonary alveoli is
40 mmHg pCO2, 47 mmHg pH2O, 100 mmHg O2
32.
Signs or symptoms of hyperventilation are
a) increased rate and depth of respiration
b) muscle twitching and tightness
c) breathlessness, feelings of suffocation
All above mentioned signs or symptoms
33.
The problems of hyperventilation are caused by
Increased exhaling of carbon dioxide
34.
The following maneuvers may be used to treat a hyperventilation except
Increasing rate and depth of breathing
35.
The symptoms of hyperventilation are easily confused with those of
Hypoxia
36.
The heart consist of
Two atriums, two ventricles and four valves
37.
Expired air contains
15% oxygen and 4% carbon dioxide
38.
The following statements are true except
Pulmonary veins contain venous blood
39.
The following statements are false except
Blood consists of ~45% blood cells and ~55% blood plasma
40.
What is the correct remedial action if symptoms of hyperventilation occur at an altitude where
hypoxia is not a consideration?
Decrease rate and depth of breathing
HPL - P a g e | 4
41.
A pilot who has been scuba diving should avoid flying:
Within 12 hours, or 24 hours if a depth of 30 ft has been exceeded
42.
The time of useful consciousness without oxygen at an altitude of 25 000 ft is:
2 3 minutes
43.
What does the "H" in the SHELL model mean?
Hardware
44.
The term "pilot error" constitutes a certain relative amount of main causes in air accidents. Which of
the following is correct?
Around 70%
45.
A person experiencing light headaches, dizziness, tingling at the fingertips and breathing rapidly
may be suffering from:
Hypoxia or hyperventilation
46.
According to Jens Rasmussen, riding a bicycle is:
Skill based behaviour
47.
You are flying from London to Oslo as commander. One of your passengers suffers a heart attack
during flight, and the situation is life threatening for him. You evaluate the situation, and decide to divert to
Amsterdam. What type of behaviour is this, according to Jens Rasmussen?
Knowledge based behaviour
48.
What is the meaning of the "S" in the SHELL model?
Software
49.
At an altitude where the pressure is half of that at sea level a person will have to:
Use supplementary oxygen
50.
What is meant by Episodic memory?
Memory of experienced events, held in the long term memory
51.
What is meant by "divided attention"?
Switching of attention from one set of stimuli to another
52.
Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?
Emotional tension, anxiety or fear
53.
Which one of the following signs distinguishes hypoxia from hyperventilation?
Cyanosis
54.
What is a normal blood pressure?
Diastolic 80 mm Hg Systolic 120 mm Hg
55.
A person experiences increased breathing rate. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
A high level of waste carbon dioxide in the lungs
56.
What is the remedy for decompression sickness, or "bends"?
Increase the pressure on the body
HPL - P a g e | 5
57.
What is the name of the blood vessels which carry blood away from the cells?
Veins
58.
Up to what altitude will generally healthy people be able to stay without showing any signs of
suffering from hypoxia?
Up to 10-12000 feet
59.
The Skill-based, Rule-based, Knowledge-based Model (Jens Rasmussen) is associated with:
Behaviour
60.
In 1972, a psychologist named Edwards presented a concept of the interface between flight crew
and other parts of the airspace environment. What is this concept called and the names of those elements
involved?
The SHEL Concept: software, hardware, environment and liveware
61.
The "Swiss Cheese Model" deals with:
Analysis of weaknesses of the organization structure and model of operation with respect to the
possibility of an accident occurrence
62.
A pilot using a checklist is an example of the interaction within the SHELL concept of:
L and S
63.
Liveware - Liveware interaction is:
The interface between people
64.
Which is an example of an error caused by liveware-hardware interface problems?
Switches, control or displays with poor design
65.
Which is true regarding the interaction between various elements of the SHELL model?
The liveware is the hub of the SHELL model; therefore the non-human components should be
adapted and matched to this central component
66.
With respect to the "Swiss Cheese Model", an accident is likely to happen if:
The openings in the "cheese slices" momentarily align, thus creating an open trajectory for the
accident opportunity
67.
The distribution of primary causes of accidents in the worldwide jet aircraft commercial fleet shows
that human error is involved in:
About 70 % of cases
68.
The most significant item of technical equipment introduced in the 1980s and 1990s which has
contributed to a reduction in accidents is:
GPWS
69.
Who in the aviation industry is responsible for flight safety?
Everyone involved
70.
In the case of fire in flight most fatalities are caused by:
Suffocation from fumes caused by aircraft furnishing and wiring
HPL - P a g e | 6
71.
The changes in atmospheric gas pressure with altitude are:
Non-linear, with a higher rate of change at lower levels
72.
A certain amount of water vapor saturated air (i.e. intestinal gases) is transported from sea-level up
to 34 000 ft. In the same amount of dry air, the volume of this gas is :
Larger
73.
Breathing 100% oxygen at 38000 ft is equivalent to breathe ambient air at:
10 000 ft
74.
At what altitude (breathing 100% oxygen without pressure) could symptoms of hypoxia be expected?
Approximately 38 - 40 000 ft
75.
You can survive at any altitude, provided that
Enough oxygen, pressure and heat is available
76.
To safely supply the crew with oxygen, at which altitude is it necessary to breathe 100% oxygen
plus pressure after a rapid decompression?
Approximately 38 000 ft
77.
When a pilot suffers from hypothermia (e.g. after loss of cabin heating) his/her demand for oxygen
will be:
Initially increased
78.
Fatigue and stress
Lower the tolerance to hypoxia
79.
The atmosphere contains the following gases:
78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases
80.
The earth's atmosphere consists of different gases in various concentrations. Match the following:
1 nitrogen
A 0,03%
2 oxygen
B 0,92%
3 carbon dioxide
C 20.95%
4 rare gas
D 78,10%
1D, 2C, 3A, 4B
81.
Gases of physiological importance to men are:
Oxygen and carbon dioxide
82.
The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is 21% which
Is constant for all altitudes conventional airplanes can reach
83.
The following applies for the physical properties of gases:
At sea-level a gas has 1/3 of the volume it would have at 27000 ft
84.
The percentage of oxygen in the air at an altitude of approximately
34 000 ft is:
21%
HPL - P a g e | 7
85.
The respiratory process consists mainly of
The diffusion of oxygen through the respiratory membranes into the blood, transportation to the cells,
diffusion into the cells and elimination of carbon dioxide from the body
86.
Inhaling carbon monoxide can be extremely dangerous during flying.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
Carbon monoxide is odourless and cannot be smelled
87.
Carbon monoxide poisoning
Is more likely to occur in aeroplanes where the cabin heat is technically supplied by coating the
exhaust
88.
In the following list you will find several symptoms listed for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning.
Please mark those referring to carbon monoxide poisoning.
Headache, increasing nausea, dizziness
89.
Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide poisoning?
Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon monoxide poisoning
90.
The momentum of gas exchange in respiration is
Dependent on the pressure gradient between the participating gases during respiration
91.
Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in the blood?
Hemoglobin in the red blood cells
92.
Affinity to hemoglobin is best with:
Carbon monoxide
93.
Which of the following is true concerning carbon monoxide?
It is to be found in the smoke of cigarettes lifting up a smoker's "physiological altitude"
94.
An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to:
Shortness of breath
95.
The rate and depth of breathing is primarily regulated by the concentration of:
Carbon dioxide in the blood
96.
Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse from the blood into the lungs?
Carbon dioxide
97.
Which statement is correct?
Oxygen diffusion from the blood into the cells depends on their partial oxygen pressure gradient
98.
"Tunnel vision" (loss of peripherical vision) can be observed if a pilot is subjected to more than:
+ 3.5 Gz
99.
+ gZ
"Grey out" occurs in case of:
100. The negative (radial) acceleration of an airplane affects the sitting pilot with inertia along:
The vertical body axis upwards
HPL - P a g e | 8
101. How can a pilot increase his tolerance to +Gz?

Tightening of muscles, ducking the head and perform a kind of pressure breathing
102. Oxygen in the blood is primarily transported by
The hemoglobin in the red blood cells
103. During hyperventilation:
Acidity level of the blood is reduced
104. Hypoxia is caused by
Reduced partial oxygen pressure in the lung
105. Hypoxia can be caused by:
1. low partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere when flying at
high altitudes without pressurisation and supplemental oxygen
2. a decreased saturation of oxygen in the blood due to carbon
monoxide attached to the hemoglobin
3. blood pooling in the lower extremities due to inertia (+ Gz)
4. malfunction of the body cells to metabolize oxygen (i.e. after
a hangover)
106. A pilot may suffer from hypoxia:
After decompression at high altitude and not taking additional oxygen in time
107. Why is hypoxia especially dangerous for pilots flying solo?
Since the first signs of hypoxia are generally hard to detect (hypoxia of the brain), the solo pilot
may not be able to react in time (i.e. activate his emergency oxygen system)
108. The symptoms of hypoxia include:
Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria
109. Which of the following is a/are symptom(s) of hypoxia?
Lack of concentration, fatigue, euphoria
110. Flying a non-pressurised light aircraft at 9000 feet your passenger develops blue lips:
Assuming he is suffering from hypoxia you reduce altitude and supply him with oxygen
111. Which statement applies to hypoxia?
Sensitivity and reaction to hypoxia varies from person to person
112. Hypoxia can also be caused by
A lack of red blood cells in the blood or decreased ability of the hemoglobin to transport oxygen
113. Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for conducting safe flight?
The interference of reasoning and perceptive functions
114. A pilot, climbing in a non-pressurised aircraft and without using supplemental oxygen will pass the
"critical threshold" at approximately:
22 000 ft
HPL - P a g e | 9
115. Breathing 100% oxygen will lift the pilot's physiological safe altitude to approximately:
38 000 ft
116. The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude are
Euphoria and impairment of judgment
117. When consciously breathing fast or hyperventilating due to high arousal or overstress, the carbon
dioxide level in the blood is lowered, resulting in:
Less oxygen to be diffused into the cells
118. With hyperventilation, caused by high levels of arousal or overstress:
An increased amount of carbon dioxide is exhaled causing muscular spasms and even
unconsciousness
119. Which of the following symptoms can mark the onset of hyperventilation?
Dizzy feeling
120. Out of the list of possible measures to counteract hyperventilation, the most effective measure is:
Breathe into a plastic or paper bag
121. What event can cause a hyperventilation (not required by physical need)?
1. Pressure breathing.
2. Anxiety or fear.
3. Overstress.
4. Strong pain.
5. Jogging.
1,2,3 and 4 are correct, 5 is false
122. Which of the following could a pilot experience when he is hyperventilating?
1. Dizziness
2. Muscular spasms
3. Visual disturbances
4. Cyanosis
1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
123. A good method to treat hyperventilation is to:
Talk oneself through the relevant procedure aloud to emotionally calm down and reduce the rate of
breathing simultaneously
124. What could cause hyperventilation?
Fear, anxiety and distress
125. A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of time may even get unconscious.
Hyperventilation is likely to occur, when:
The pilot is emotionally aroused
126. Hyperventilation can cause unconsciousness, because:
Blood circulation to the brain is slowed down
HPL - P a g e | 10
127. At what altitude ("threshold for compensatory reactions") does the human organism start with
remarkable measures to compensate for the drop in pO2 when climbing?
At about:
6000-7000 FT
128. Where is the "critical threshold" at which a pilot not using oxygen reaches the critical or lethal zone?
It starts at:
22000 FT
129. Short term memory can already be affected when flying as low as:
8000 FT
130. Breathing pure oxygen (without pressure) will be sufficient up to an altitude of:
38000 FT
131. What is the Time of Useful Consciousness?
The length of time during which an individual can act with both mental and physical efficiency,
measured from the moment at which an adequate oxygen supply is no longer available
132. The "Effective Performance Time" or "Time of Useful Consciousness" after a decompression at 35
000 ft is:
Between 30 and 60 seconds
133. The time between inadequate oxygen supply and incapacitation is called TUC (Time of Useful
Consciousness). It
Varies individually and depends on cabin pressure altitude
134. After a decompression to 43 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be approximately:
5-15 seconds
135. Flights immediately after Scuba-diving, using compressed gas, to depths greater than 10 metres:
Are forbidden
136. Pain in the Joints ("bends"), is a symptom of:
Decompression sickness
137. After a cabin pressure loss in approximately 35 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness)
will be approximately:
30 -90 seconds
138. You suffered a rapid decompression without the appearance of any decompression sickness
symptoms.
What should you do before flying?
Seek prompt aeromedical advice
139. Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving equipment (> 10 m depth)
Can cause decompression sicknesses even when flying at pressure altitudes below 18 000 FT
140. After a decompression at high altitude
Nitrogen gas bubbles can be released in the body fluids causing gas embolism, bends and chokes
HPL - P a g e | 11
141. In airline operations decompression sickness symptoms

May develop after a decompression from 7000 FT cabin pressure altitude to 30000 FT flight altitude
142. Symptoms of decompression sickness
Are bends, chokes, skin manifestations, neurological symptoms and circulatory shock
143. Decompression sickness symptoms may develop due to
Cabin pressure loss when flying at higher altitudes (above 18000 FT)
144. The eustachian tube serves for the pressure equalization between
Middle ear and external atmosphere
145. Disturbances of pressure equalization in air-filled cavities of the head (nose, ear etc.) are called:
Barotrauma
146. Barotrauma caused by gas accumulation in the stomach and intestinals can lead to:
Pressure pain or flatulence
147. What counter-measure can be used against a barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis)?
Close the mouth, pinch the nose tight and blow out thereby increasing the pressure in the mouth
and throat. At the same times try to swallow or move lower jaw (Valsalva)
148. How can you determine if a person is suffering from a barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose
(aerosinusitis) or the middle ear (aerotitis)?
Hearing difficulties will normally accompany aerotitis
149. Barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis)
Is caused by a difference in pressure existing between the sinus cavity and the ambient air
150. Barodontalgia
Arises especially with irritations of the sensitive tissues close to the root of a tooth
151. At a high altitude flight (no cabin pressure system available), a pilot gets severe flatulence due to
trapped gases. The correct counter-measure is:
Descend to lower altitude
152. A barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis)
Is more likely when the pilot is flying with a respiratory infection and during descent
153. Trapped intestinal gases can cause severe pain.
When is this case?
More frequent when flying above 18 000 FT in a non-pressurized aircraft
154. Please mark the counter-measure a pilot can use against a barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis).
Stop descending, climb again and then descend with reduced sink rate
155. Barotrauma of the middle ear most likely will occur
When descending rapidly
156. Barotrauma of the middle ear is usually accompanied by
A reduction in hearing ability and the feeling of increasing pressure
HPL - P a g e | 12
157. The risk of a barotrauma of the middle ear is more likely to occur
With colds and rapid descents
158. A barotrauma of the middle ear is
An acute or chronic trauma of the middle ear caused by a difference of pressure on either side of
the eardrum
159. The effect of hypoxia to vision
Is stronger with the rods
160. When oxygen is being transferred from the blood into the tissues and carbon dioxide from the body
cells into the blood, it is called:
Internal respiration
161. Hypoxia effects visual performance.
A pilot may:
Get blurred and/or tunnel vision
162. Which of the following symptoms could a pilot get, when he is subjected to hypoxia?
1. Fatigue
2. Euphoria
3. Lack of concentration
4. Pain in the joints
5. Pain in the inner ear
163. The type of hypoxia, which occurs at altitude, is explained by:
Daltons law
164. Gaseous exchange in the human body depends on:
1. diffusion gradients between the participating gases
2. permeable membranes
3. partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolus air
4. acid-base balance in the blood
165. Hyperventilation causes
A lack of carbon dioxide in the blood
166. Anxiety and fear can cause
Hyperventilation
167. Symptoms of decompression sickness
Sometimes can appear with a delay after the airplane is on the ground
168. The first effect to be noticed on gradual exposure to high positive radial accelerations is
Grey-out
169. The ozone-layer is situated in the
Stratosphere
HPL - P a g e | 13
170. The chemical composition of the earths atmosphere (ICAO standard atmosphere) is
78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide
171. According to the I.C.A.O. standard atmosphere, the temperature lapse rate of the troposphere is
approximately
- 2 C every 1000 feet
172. The barometric pressure has dropped to 1/2 of the pressure at sea level at
18 000 feet
173. Decompression sickness occurs in association with exposure to reduced atmospheric pressure.
The evolution of bubbles of nitrogen coming out of solution in body tissues can be derived from:
Henrys law
174. The normal rate of breathing is
12 to 16 cycles a minute
175. The main function of the red blood cells is
To transport oxygen
176. Altitude-hypoxia, when breathing ambient air, should not occur (indifferent phase)
Below 3 000 m
177. "The Bends" as a symptom of decompression sickness consists of:
Pain in the joints
178. The primary symptom of decompression sickness/illness is:
The bends
179. Hypoxia is:
A physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the body tissues, leading to
mental and muscular disturbances, causing impaired thinking, poor judgment and slow reactions
180. Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing and can produce the following symptoms:
Dizziness, tingling sensation in the fingers and toes, nausea and blurred vision
181. In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba diving, subsequent flights should be delayed
24 hours
182. The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the gases
which compose the mixture corresponds to:
Daltons law
183. The cabin pressure in airline operation is
Normally not exceeding 6 000 to 8 000 feet
184. Someone who has anaemia has:
Not enough functional hemoglobin
185. The average pulse of a healthy adult in rest is about:
60 to 80 beats/min
HPL - P a g e | 14
186. Pulse rate is influenced by the following factors:

1. Adrenalin
2. Cortisol
3. Physical exercise.
4. Glucose concentration in the blood
187. During gas exchange, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is:
Lower than in the blood
188. The symptoms of hyperventilation are caused by a:
Shortage of CO2 in the blood
189. A pressurized cabin helps to prevent:
1. decompression sickness
2 the problem of expansion of gases in the intestines
3. hypoxia
4. coronary disease
190. Healthy people are usually capable to compensate for a lack of oxygen up to
10.000 - 12.000feet
191. When flying above 10.000 feet hypoxia arises because:
The partial oxygen pressure is lower than at sea level
192. Saturation of oxygen in the blood at sea level is 98%. This saturation decreases with:
1. decreasing air pressure
2. carbon monoxide poisoning
3. increasing altitude
4. increasing air pressure
1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
193. Hypoxia is a situation in which the cells
Have a shortage of oxygen
194. The severity of hypoxia depends on the:
1. rate of decompression
2. physical fitness
3. flight level
4. individual tolerance
1,2,3 and 4 are correct
195. Which of the following statements concerning hypoxia is correct?
It is a potential threat to safety
HPL - P a g e | 15
196. With regard to the humidity of air in current in a pressurized cabin, we know that it :
-1 : varies between 40 and 60%
-2 : varies between 5 and 15%
-3 : may cause dehydration effecting the performance of the crew
-4 : has no special effects on crew members
2,3
197. Which of the following statements concerning barotrauma are correct?
It is caused due to pressure differentials between gases in hollow cavities of the body and the
ambient pressure
198. Decompression sickness may occur as from:
- 1: an altitude of more than 18,000 ft
- 2 : an altitude of more than 5,500 ft
- 3 : a rate of climb of more than 500 ft/min exceeding 18,000 ft
- 4 : a temperature of more than 24C
1,3
199. With regard to decompression sickness associated with flight, we know that:
Age, obesity and scuba diving are risk factors
200. The procedure to be followed in the event of decompression when flying above 10,000 ft must:
Allow for the rapid supply of oxygen in order to prevent the pilot becoming hypoxic
201. What is the "Time of Useful Consciousness" for a progressive decompression at 25,000 ft?
Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected pilot
202. The Time of Useful Consciousness may vary according to:
1 : physical activity of the subjected crew
2 : the experience of the pilot on the type of aircraft in question
3 : the strength and time of decompression
4 : the cabin temperature
1,3
203. During a climb, we can observe the following with regard to the partial oxygen pressure:
An identical decrease to that for atmospheric pressure
204. The following may occur during gradual depressurization between 12,000 and 18,000 ft:
A loss of coordination associated with fatigue and headache
205. What is the main problem caused by positive (+Gz) accelerations?
A pooling of blood in the lower portions of the body, and hence less blood available
206. What type of acceleration has the most significant physiological effect upon the pilot?
Radial acceleration (+ Gz)
HPL - P a g e | 16
207. Incapacitation caused by barotrauma from gaseous expansion after decompression at high altitude
may be associated with the following part(s) of the body:
1 the digestive tract
2 the ears
3 the eyes
4 the sinuses
1
208. Of the following alternatives, which objective effects are due to positive acceleration (+ Gz)?
- 1: Decrease in heart rate
- 2: Pooling of blood into lower parts of the body
- 3: Drop in blood pressure above heart-level
- 4: Downward displacement or deformation of soft or mobile organs
2,3,4
209. What is hypoxia?
Any condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is below normal limits or where the
oxygen available to the body cannot be used due to some pathological condition
210. What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying without oxygen) above 12,000 ft?
Headache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of coordination
211. Which of the following statements are correct?
-1: Modern aircraft allow for 50 - 60% relative humidity in the cabin air under any conditions of flight, which
is satisfactory for the body
-2: Thirst is a belated symptom of dehydration
-3: Dehydration may lead to clinical manifestations such as dizziness and fatigue
-4: Drinking excessive quantities of water must be avoided since resistance to periods of low hydration will
otherwise be lost
2,3
212. What is the procedure above 10.000 ft altitude when faced with explosive decompression?
Don an oxygen mask and descend to below 10,000 ft
213. What is the average Time of Useful Consciousness after a rapid decompression at 40,000 ft?
About 12 seconds
214. What is the Time of Useful Consciouness?
The length of time during which an individual can act with both mental and physical efficiency and
alertness, measured from the moment at which he loses his available oxygen supply
215. What are the main clinical signs of hypoxia during explosive decompression?
Increase in heart and respiratory rates, euphoria, impairment of judgment, memory disorders
216. Which is the procedure to be followed when symptoms of decompression sickness occur?
Descend to the lowest possible level and land as soon as possible
217. What is decompression sickness?
A sickness resulting from the formation of nitrogen bubbles in bodily tissues and fluids after a
cabin pressure loss at high altitude
HPL - P a g e | 17

-1: Scuba diving may be practiced without restriction
-2: Many medicines have effects which are incompatible with flight safety
-3: An adequate amount of fluid should be drunk when flying
-4: Alcohol has no effect on the inner ear
2 and 3 are correct
219. The atmospheric pressure at 18,000 feet altitude is half the atmospheric pressure at sea level.
In accordance with this statement,
The partial oxygen pressure at that altitude will also drop to 1/2 of the pressure of oxygen at sea
level
220. You climb from 0 to 50.000 ft and measure the decrease of the pressure per 5.000 ft. The absolute
difference in barometric pressure is greatest between:
0 and 5.000 feet
221. Physiological problems due to increasing altitude are caused by:
Decreased atmospherically pressure
222. The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 30.000 feet remains at 21 %; but the partial
pressure of oxygen:
Decreases with decreasing barometric pressure
223. Air at an altitude of 18.000 feet contains, approximately:
21% oxygen
224. Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is about:
21% oxygen,78% nitrogen, 1% other gases
225. Which data compose the ICAO standard atmosphere?
1. Density
2. Pressure
3. Temperature
4. Humidity
1,2 ,3
226. Boyle's law is directly applicable in case of:
The expansion of trapped gasses in the human body with increasing altitude
227. Dalton's law explains the occurrence of:
Altitude hypoxia
228. Henry's Law explains the occurrence of:
Decompression sickness
229. Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse from the blood to the alveoli?
Carbon dioxide
230. The blood in the pulmonary artery is:
Lacking in oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide
HPL - P a g e | 18
231. The thin walls of capillaries are permeable for:

Gases
232. The circulatory system, among other things, allows for :
1. transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide
2. transportation of information by chemical substances
1 and 2 are correct
233. The part of blood without cell is called:
Plasma
234. Oxygen, combined with hemoglobin in blood is transported by
Red blood cells
235. Haemoglobin is:
In the red blood cells
236. With a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml the cardiac output is about:
5 liters/min
237. At rest the cardiac output (the quantity of blood the heart pumps in one minute) of an adult is
approximately:
5 liters/min
238. The heart muscle is supplied with blood from:
The coronary arteries
239. The normal arterial blood-pressure of a healthy adult is (systolic/diastolic):
120/80 mm Hg
240. Which of the following statements is correct?
The blood-pressure which is measured during flight medical checks is the pressure
In the artery of the upper arm (representing the pressure at heart level)
241. Blood-pressure depends on:
1. the cardiac output
2. the resistance of the capillaries (peripheral resistance)
1 and 2 are correct
242. The blood-pressure depends on:
1. the work of the heart
2. the peripheral resistance
3. the elasticity of the arterial walls
4. the blood volume and viscosity
243. Changes in blood-pressure are measured by:
Pressoreceptors
244. The pressoreceptors are located in
The carotid and aortic arterial vessels
HPL - P a g e | 19
245. When the pressoreceptors signal a lowering of the blood-pressure there are adaptation mechanisms
which result in:
1. an increase of respiratory activity
2. the arteriols to constrict
3. an increase of cardiac output
4. the heart rate to rise
246. The physiological effects of accelerations to the human body depend on:
1. the duration of the G-forces
2. the onset rate of the G-forces
3. the magnitude of the G-forces
4. the direction of the G-forces.
247. Positive g will cause the blood flow to the brain to:
Decrease
248. During sustained positive G-forces the order of symptoms you can expect is:
Tunnel vision, grey out, black-out and unconsciousness
249. Which of the following measures can reduce the chance of a black-out during positive Gmanoeuvres?
A tilt back seat
250. The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is about:
16 cycles per minute
251. The volume of air exchanged during a normal breathing cycle (tidal volume) is about:
500 ml of air
252. When exhaling, the expired air contains:
More carbon dioxide than the inspired air
253. The primary factor to control the rate and depth of breathing is the:
Pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood
254. What law(s) governs the oxygen transfer at the alveoli?
Gas Diffusion Laws
255. The transfer of carbon dioxide from the blood to the alveoli can be described by:
The law of diffusion
256. Early symptoms of hypoxia could be:
1. euphoria
2. decreased rate and depth of breathing
3. lack of concentration
4. visual disturbances
1,3 and 4 are correct
257. One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety is:
Impaired judgment, disabling the pilot to recognize the symptoms
HPL - P a g e | 20
258. Which of the following symptoms can indicate hypoxia?

1. Blue lips and finger nails
2. Euphoria
3. Flatulence
4. Unconsciousness
1, 2 and 4 are correct.
259. What human function is most sensitive to lack of oxygen?
Night vision
260. You are crossing the Alps in a non-pressurised aircraft at an altitude of 15.000 feet. You do not use
the oxygen mask because you feel fine. This is unsafe, because:
Your judgment could be impaired
261. During a night flight at 10,000 feet you notice that your acuity of vision has decreased. In this case
you can increase your acuity by:
Breathing supplementary oxygen
262. During flight all crewmembers have one or more of the following symptoms:
1. blue lips
2. mental disturbances
3. tingling sensations in arms and/or legs
4. reduction of peripheral vision
Which is the possible cause?
Hypoxia
263. Which measure(s) will help to compensate hypoxia?
1. Descend below 10 000 FT.
2. Breathe 100 % oxygen.
3. Climb to or above 10 000 FT.
4. Reduce physical activities.
264. Hypoxia can be prevented when the pilot
Is using additional oxygen when flying above 10.000 feet
265. A pilot should not fly immediately after donating blood because:
You have an increased susceptibility to fainting
266. Hyperventilation is:
Increased lung ventilation
267. Hyperventilation is:
A normal compensatory physiological reaction to a drop in partial oxygen pressure (i.e. when
climbing a high mountain)
268. If somebody starts breathing faster and deeper without physiological need
The blood turns more alkaline
HPL - P a g e | 21
269. During running your muscles are producing more CO2, raising the CO2 level in the blood. The
consequence is:
Hyperventilation (the rate and depth of breathing will increase)
270. During a final approach under bad weather conditions, you feel dizzy; get tingling sensations in your
hands and a rapid heart rate.
These symptoms could indicate:
Hyperventilation
271. When hyperventilating you should:
Control your rate and depth of breathing
272. A pilot can overcome hyperventilation by:
Controlling the rate and depth of breathing, breathing into a bag or speaking with a loud voice
273. You can overcome hyperventilation by breathing into a plastic or paper bag. The intention is:
To raise the level of CO2 in the blood as fast as possible
274. A passenger complains about a painful inflated belly at 8.000 feet. You advise him to:
1. unbuckle and massage the belly
2. stand up and let go the gases out of the intestines
3. eat less gas forming food and avoid carbonated beverages before flight in the future
4. drink a lot of water throughout the flight
275. On ascent the gases in the digestive tract will
Expand
276. Pain in the middle ear during descent may be eased by:
Leveling off and possibly climbing
277. The occurrence of pain in the joints (bends) during decompression can be explained by the principle
that:
The quantity of a gas dissolved in a fluid is proportional to the pressure of that gas above the fluid
(Henry's Law)
278. Pain in the joints caused by gas bubbles following a decompression is called:
Bends
279. Which symptom does not belong to the following list?
Leans
280. The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin following a decompression are called:
Creeps
281. Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs, following a decompression are called:
Chokes
282. Some hours after a rapid decompression at FL 300 you experience pain in the joints. Which of
following answers is correct?
You should ask for medical advice (flight surgeon) since this is a symptom of decompression
sickness
HPL - P a g e | 22
283. Tolerance to decompression sickness is decreased by:

1. SCUBA-Diving
2. Obesity
3. Age
4. Body height
284. Decompression symptoms are caused by:
Dissolved gases from tissues and fluids of the body
285. In the event of rapid decompression the first action for the flight deck crew is:
Don oxygen masks and ensure oxygen flow
286. After a rapid decompression at an altitude of 30.000 FT the first action of the pilot shall be:
Maintaining aircraft control and preventing hypoxia (use of oxygen mask)
287. The following actions are appropriate when faced with symptoms of decompression sickness:
1. climb to higher level
2. descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA and land as soon as possible
3. breathe 100 % oxygen
4. get medical advice about recompression after landing
288. Decompression sickness can be prevented by:
1. avoiding cabin altitudes above 18 000 FT
2. maintaining cabin pressure below 8 000FT when flying at high altitudes
3. performing physical exercises before and during the flight
4. breathing 100 % oxygen for 30 min prior and during the flight
289. What is the TUC at 18'000 FT?
About 30 minutes
290. Following a rapid decompression at 30.000 feet, the time of useful consciousness would be about:
Between 45 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds
291. What is the approximate Time of Useful Consciousness for a seated pilot following a rapid
decompression at 35000 ft?
45 seconds
292. After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feet of depth) you have to wait a period of time before flying
again. This period is at least:
24 hours
293. Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk of getting:
Decompression sickness without having a decompression
294. If someone hyperventilates due to stress his blood will get:
More alkaline
HPL - P a g e | 23
295. Which phenomenon is common to hypoxia and hyperventilation?

Tingling sensations in arms or legs
296. What can be said concerning the following two statements?
1) Euphoria can be a symptom of hypoxia
2) Someone in an euphoric condition is more prone to error
1 and 2 are both correct
297. The composition of the atmosphere at 50 000 ft is
78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, ~1% argon, 0.03% carbon dioxide
298. The composition of the atmosphere
Is constant up to ~100 km
299. The atmospheric pressure
Decreases about exponentially with increasing altitude
300. The temperature lapse rate
Within the troposphere is ~2C per 1000 ft
301. The following statement about atmospheric humidity is true:
The relative humidity measures percentage of water vapor saturation
302. The following statement about relative humidity is false:
If an air mass is warmed, its relative humidity increases
303. The atmospheric pressure
At sea level is twice the amount of the pressure at 18 000 ft
304. Boyle's law states
The volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure
305. Henry's law states
The quantity of a gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas
306. Dalton's law states
The partial pressure of a gas is proportional to its fractional concentration in a gas mixture
307. Charles' law states
The volume of a gas at constant pressure is proportional to its absolute temperature
308. The general gas law states

The volume of a gas multiplied by its pressure divided by its absolute temperature is constant
309. The statement: Adjacent gases of different concentration mix until the concentration is balanced:
Is known as Diffusion law
310. The ozone layer
Absorbs UVB better than UVA
HPL - P a g e | 24
311. Ozone
Consists of molecular oxygen
312. The following statement about UV radiation is false:
UVB penetrates deeper into the skin than UVA and causes skin cancer
313. The ozone layer is
In the stratosphere
314. The following signs or symptoms may be harmful effects of ozone except
Bends and chokes
315. The following statement about ozone is false:
During a sunny day ozone is enriched more over rural areas
316. The following statement about UV radiation is false:
Light- skinned, blond, blue-eyed subjects are least sensitive to UV radiation
317. To maintain sea level conditions at 25'000 ft, the percentage of oxygen breathing is
62 %
318. What is the major factor in the general population which predisposes an individual to heart attack?
Family history
319. What is the approximate percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 18000 ft?
21 %
320. What is meant by "barotrauma"?
Trapped gases inside your body create pain as ambient pressure decreases
321. When exposed to decreasing barometric pressure, 1 litre of gas contained in the stomach and
intestines at sea level will expand to 8 litres at:
40 000 feet
322. Why does carbon monoxide (CO) lead to hypoxia?
CO in blood displaces oxygen from the blood corpuscles impairing oxygen transport
323. Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning, as from smoking tobacco, increases as:
Altitude increases
324. What is the content of Boyle's law?
The volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure, with temperature remaining constant
325. A balloon with 10 litres of air is brought from mean sea level up to 34 000 feet. What is the volume
of the balloon at this altitude provided the temperature is kept constant?
40 litres
326. What is dysbarism?
Dysbarism refers to the various medical problems caused by gas expansion induced by decreased
barometric pressure
HPL - P a g e | 25
327. It is not advisable to immediately fly after donating blood because

You have an increased risk susceptibility to fainting
328. The total gas volume of the lung is the sum of:
1) tidal volume
2) inspiratory reserve volume
3) expiratory reserve volume
4) residual volume
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3, 4
329. The effects of galactic radiation:
Increase with altitude
330. Galactic radiation is:
Steady and reasonably predictable
331. Among the symptoms of hypoglycaemia are:
Headache and lack of concentration
332. In order to avoid hypoglycaemia:
A pilot should eat regularly and ensure he/she has a balanced diet
333. Select the correct statement from the answers given below:
Galactic radiation effects increase with altitude
About 89 % of the nuclei are hydrogen (protons), 10 % helium and about 1 % heavier elements. The
common heavier elements (such as carbon, oxygen, magnesium, silicon and iron) are present in
about the same relative abundances as in the solar system
335. There are several sources for radiation. What is the maximum allowable dose per year for a pilot
who is in contact with galactic radiation?
5 milli-Sieverts
336. The percentage of oxygen in cabin air:
Is the same as at sea level
337. Human breathing 100% oxygen at 33700 ft is the equivalent of breathing air at:
Sea level
338. Below 70000 ft, what gas makes up the major part of the atmosphere?
Nitrogen
339. Carbon monoxide is particularly dangerous because:
1) its initial symptoms are not alarming
2) it is colourless
3) it is odourless
4) it is highly toxic
5) its effects are cumulative
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
HPL - P a g e | 26
340. What is the effect of increasing altitude on the total pressure and partial pressure of the main gases
in the atmosphere?
The total pressure will decrease and the partial pressures will decrease
341. The percentage of oxygen in the troposphere in dry air:
Is independent of altitude
342. After a rapid decompression at 35000 feet, the Time of Useful Consciousness is about:
30 to 60 seconds
343. Carbon monoxide poisoning can be treated by:
Increasing the amount of oxygen being physically dissolved in the blood
344. The exchange of gases between the alveoli and the blood is due to:
Diffusion
345. The circulation of blood:
1) transports oxygen to the body cells
2) withdraws waste products from the cells
3) conveys nutrients to the cells
1, 2, 3
346. Hypoxic hypoxia may be caused by:
1) climbing to a high altitude without using additional oxygen
2) malfuction in the oxygen supply system
3) loss of cabin pressurisation at high altitude
1, 2, 3
347. Which of the following gases is fundamentally responsible for decompression sickness?
Nitrogen
348. When faced with sustained cold temperature, how does the body resist this physical stress?
By intense vasoconstriction
349. Up to what altitude is blood oxygen saturation reduction unlikely to affect a pilot's judgment?
10000 ft
350. How are oxygen and carbon dioxide transported throughout the body?
Circulation
351. List the constituent parts of the blood and state their function:
Red cells carry oxygen, white cells are involved in immunity and platelets coagulate blood
352. How does an increase in altitude affect the haemoglobin oxygen saturation?
As altitude increases, the haemoglobin oxygen saturation decreases
353. How will hyperventilation cause the acid-base balance of the blood to be affected?
Hyperventilation causes too much CO2 to be removed from the blood causing the level of carbonic
acid to fall
HPL - P a g e | 27
354. Define Hypoxia and explain why living tissues require oxygen:
Hypoxia is the lack of sufficient oxygen to meet the needs of the body tissues which require oxygen
for oxidation of carbohydrates from food to produce energy
355. Expanded abdominal air following rapid decompression at 30000 feet:
May be dangerous causing great pain
356. Decompression sickness/illness is charaterized by:
Over-saturated nitrogen gas molecules in the body tissues
357. Preventing hypoxia at altitude is achieved by:
Pressurizing the air inside the aircraft to achieve oxygen saturation in blood of more than 90%
358. During a rapid decompression in a 2-crew aircraft, the other pilot becomes incapacitated. Your first
action is to:
Don your own oxygen mask
359. During a steady climb above Flight Level 100 if cabin pressurisation fails:
The effects of hypoxia may be gradual and difficult to recognise
360. The partial pressure of oxygen in inspired air:
Is a highly significant factor in ensuring that oxygen diffuses from the lungs to the blood
361. Oxygen transport to the tissues:
Depends on haemoglobin level and blood flow
362. Carbon dioxide:
Is a normal product of internal respiration
363. Internal respiration:
Is a metabolic process that takes place inside the cells during which oxygen is used and carbon
dioxide produced
364. Which of the following statements is true concerning the pulse rate?
It has a normal range of 60-100 beats per minute
365. Blood pressure is normally measured in:
mmHg
366. Pilots should not fly immediately following giving a donation of blood:
Because there is a small increased risk of low blood pressure due to loss of blood volume
367. Ozone in the air of a pressurised cabin can be eliminated by:
Ozone converters
368. The low level of humidity found in a pressurised aircraft cabin:
Should be compensated for by drinking water before one gets thirsty
369. Records of radiation are normally kept for flights above:
49000 ft
HPL - P a g e | 28
370. One of the dangers of extreme cold is that:

Sleepiness occurs associated with a feeling of contentment or apathy
371. What are the main sources of radiation at height?
Galactic (cosmic) radiation caused by galactic particles and solar radiation caused by solar flares
372. One of the earliest and most significant features of Hypothermia (extreme cold) is:
Apathy
373. Among the factors that increase tolerance to long-duration g forces are?
Bending forward or supine body position and tensing of the abdominal muscles
374. Which sensations does a pilot get, when he is rolling out of a prolonged level turn?
Turning into the opposite direction
375. How can a pilot prevent "pilots-vertigo"?
Avoid steep turns and abrupt flight maneouvers and maintain an effective instrument cross check
376. How can a pilot overcome a vertigo, encountered during a real or simulated instrument flight?
1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-check.
2. Always believe the instruments; never trust your sense of feeling.
3. Ignore arising illusions.
4. Move the head sidewards and back and forth to "shake-off" illusions.
377. Dizziness and tumbling sensations, when making head movements in a tight turn, are symptoms of
"Pilot`s vertigo"
378. "Pilot's vertigo"
Is the condition of dizziness and/or tumbling sensation caused by contradictory impulses to the
central nervous system (CNS)
379. What can a pilot do to avoid "Flicker vertigo" when flying in the clouds?
Switch strobe-lights off
380. What do you do, when you are affected by "pilot`s vertigo"?
1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-check.
2. Believe the instruments.
3. Ignore illusions.
4. Minimize head movements.
381. A pilot is prone to get vertigo, as visibility is impaired (dust, smoke, snow). What is the correct action
to prevent vertigo?
Depend on the instruments
382. The risk of spatial disorientation increases when:
There is contradictory information between the instruments and the vestibular organs
383. The Seat-of-the-Pants Sense is including receptors in the
Muscles, tendons and joints sensitive to the position and movement of body parts
HPL - P a g e | 29
384. Equalization of pressure is limited between the middle ear and the ambient, when:
The eustachian tube is blocked
385. The proprioceptive senses (seat-of-the-pants sense) are important for motor coordination.
They
Are completely unreliable for orientation when flying in IMC
386. The so-called "Seat-of-the-Pants" sense is
Not suitable for spatial orientation when outside visual references are lost
387. Sensory input to the "Seat-of-the-Pants" sense is given by
Subcutaneous pressure receptors and kinesthetic muscle activity sensors
388. Orientation in flight is accomplished by
1. eyes
2. utriculus and sacculus
3. semicircular canals
4. Seat-of-the-pants-Sense
389. What should a pilot do to keep his night vision (scotopic vision)?
Not smoke before start and during flight and avoid flash-blindness
390. Adaption is:
The adjustment of the eyes to high or low levels of illumination
391. The "Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense"
Can give false inputs to body orientation when visual reference is lost
392. Illuminated anti-collision lights in IMC
Can cause disorientation
393. A shining light is fading out (i. e. when flying into fog, dust or haze). What kind of sensation could
the pilot get?
The source of light moves away from him
394. To prevent the "autokinetic phenomena", the following can be done:
Look out for additional references inside and/or outside the cockpit using peripheral vision also
395. Autokinesis is
The apparent movement of a static single light when stared at for a relatively long period of time in
the dark
396. A pilot is used to land on small and narrow runways only. Approaching a larger and wider runway
can lead to :
An early or high "round out"
397. The impression of an apparent movement of light when stared at for a relatively long period of time
in the dark is called
"Autokinesis"
HPL - P a g e | 30
398. Generally, the time for dark adaptation is:

30 min
399. Which of the following statements is correct concerning flight in an environment of low contrast (fog,
snow, darkness, haze)?
It difficult to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objects
400. A pilot approaching an upsloping runway:
May feel that he is higher than actual. This illusion may cause him to land short
401. The area in front of a threshold descends towards the threshold.
Possible danger is:
Approach is higher than normal and may result in a long landing
402. Sunglasses with variable filtration (phototrope glasses)
Can have disadvantages when used in the cockpit due to their dependence on ultraviolet light
which is screened by the cockpit glass
403. Illusions that pilots experience in conditions of fog or mist are that:
Objects appear further away than they really are and can lead to steep approaches
404. Depth perception when objects are close (< 1 m) is achieved through
Seeing with two eyes (binocular vision)
405. Adaptation is
The adjustment of the eyes to high or low levels of illumination
406. The approximate time required for complete adaption of the eye when moving from darkness to light
is:
10 seconds
407. The requirement of good sunglasses is to
Absorb enough visible light to eliminate glare without decreasing visual acuity, absorb UV and IR
radiation and absorb all colors equally
408. Why does a deficiency in vitamin A cause night-blindness?
Vitamin A is essential to the regeneration of visual purple
Vitamin A regenerates the visual purple (Rhodpsin), vitamin A deficiency causes night blindness
409. Scanning at night should be performed by:
Slight eye movements to the side of the object
410. Approaches at night without visual references on the ground and no landing aids (e.g. VASIS) can
make the pilot believe of beeing
Higher than actual altitude with the risk of landing short ("ducking under")
411. A pilot accustomed to landing on a wide runway may find, when approaching to a narrow runway,
that he/she is at a:
Greater height than he actually is with the tendency to land short
412. Flickering light when reflected from spinning rotor blades
Can cause spatial disorientation and/or nausea, when looked at for a longer period of time
HPL - P a g e | 31
413. A pilot approaching a runway which is narrower than normal may feel he is at a greater height than
he actually is. To compensate he may fly a
Flatter than normal approach with the tendency to undershoot
414. The proprioceptive senses ("Seat of-the-Pants-Sense")
Give wrong information, when outside visual reference is lost
415. Resonance of the body parts can result from:
Vibrations from 1 to 100 Hz
416. What impression do you have when outside references are fading away (e.g. fog, darkness, snow
and vapor)?
It is difficult to determine the size and speed of objects
417. Hypoxia will affect night vision
At 5000 FT
418. What does not impair the function of the photosensitive cells?
Fast speed
419. The fovea centralis is
The area of best day vision and no night vision at all
420. The retina of the eye
Is the light-sensitive inner lining of the eye containing the photoreceptors essential for vision
421. The eustachian tube is the passage way between the
Nasopharynx and the middle ear
HPL - P a g e | 32
422. Which force(s) affect(s) the otoliths in the utriculus and sacculus?
Gravity and linear acceleration
Any linear acceleration can be divided into a horizontal (utricle) and a vertical (saccule) vector. The brain
calculates the sum vector which provides the perception of the original acceleration. The angular
acceleration is recognised with the semicircular canals.
423. The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor

Angular accelerations
424. Which part of the ear could be affected due to air pressure changes during climb and/or descent?
The eustachian tube and the tympanic membrane (ear drum)
425. Which part of the inner ear is responsible for the perception of sound?
The cochlea
HPL - P a g e | 33
426. Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by changes in gravity and linear acceleration?
The sacculus and utriculus
427. Which part of the vestibular apparatus is responsible for the impression of angular acceleration?
The semicircular canals
428. The vestibular apparatus
Reacts to linear/angular acceleration and gravity
429. Which is the audible range to human hearing?
Between 16 Hz and 20 KHz
430. Which of the following components belong to the middle ear?
Ossicles
431. Through which part of the ear does the equalization of pressure take place, when altitude is
changed?
Eustachian tube
432. The most probable reason for spatial disorientation is
A poor instrument cross-check and permanently transitioning back and forth between instruments
and visual references
433. What could the crew do in order to avoid air-sickness with passengers?
1. Avoid turbulences.
2. Avoid flying through rough weather.
3. Seat passenger close to the center of gravity.
4. Give pertinent information.
434. The probability to suffer from air-sickness is higher, when
The passenger or student is afraid and/or demotivated to fly
435. What should a pilot do if he has no information about the dimensions of the runway and the
condition of the terrain underneath the approach? He should
Make an instrument approach and be aware of the illusory effects that can be induced
436. Vibrations within the frequency band of 1/10 to 2 Hertz are a factor contributing to air-sickness,
because they
Upset the vestibular apparatus
437. Vibrations can cause blurred vision.
This is due to tuned resonance oscillations of the:
Eyeballs
438. What is understood by air-sickness?
A sensory conflict within the vestibular system accompanied by nausea, vomiting and fear
439. When spinning an aircraft, the predominating type of acceleration will be
Angular acceleration
HPL - P a g e | 34
440. Flying a coordinated level turn will

Make the body`s pressure receptors feel an increased pressure along the body`s vertical axis
441. Being pressed into the seat can cause illusions and/or false reactions in a pilot lacking visual
contact to the ground, because this sensation
Corresponds with the sensation a pilot gets when starting a climb or performing a level turn
442. Vertigo is the result of
"Coriolis-effect"
443. Which flight manoeuvre will most likely induce vertigo? Turning the head while
Banking
444. With "vertigo" the instrument-panel seems to tumble. This is due to
The Coriolis Effect in the semicircular canals
445. "Pilot's vertigo":
Is a sensation of rotation during flight due to multiple irritations of several semicircular canals at
the same time
446. What is the name for the sensation of rotation occurring during flight and which is caused by
multiple irritations of several semicircular canals at the same time?
"Pilot's" Vertigo
447. Without visual reference, what illusion could the pilot get, when he is stopping the rotation to recover
from a spin? He will get the illusion of
Spinning into the opposite direction
448. Starting a coordinated level turn can make the pilot believe to
Climb
449. When accelerating forward the otoliths in the utriculus/sacculus will
Give the illusion of climbing (body tilting backwards, nose of the a/c going up)
450. A pilot, accelerating or decelerating in level flight may experience:
The illusion of climbing or descending
451. The cupula in the semicircular canal will be bent, when a rotation begins. This is because
The fluid (endolymph) within the semicircular canal lags behind the accelerated canal walls
452. The semicircular canals monitor
453. Changes in ambient pressure and accelerations during flight are important physiological factors
limiting the pilots performance if not taken into consideration. Linear accelerations along the long axis of
the body
Change blood pressure and blood volume distribution in the body
HPL - P a g e | 35
454. Vitamin A and possibly vitamins B and C are chemical factors and essential to good night vision:
1. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease night vision performance
2. An excess intake of vitamin A will improve night vision performance significantly
3. Pilots should be carefully concerned to take a balanced diet containing sufficient vitamin A
4. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease visual acuity in photopic vision but not in scotopic vision
455. The semicircular canals detect
456. To prevent vertigo in flight we should
Not move the head suddenly while we are turning
457. When flying at night the first sense to be affected by a slight degree of hypoxia is the
Vision
458. The group of tiny bones (the hammer, anvil and stirrup) are situated in
The middle ear
459. The semicircular canals form part of the
Inner ear
460. Angular accelerations are picked up in the inner ear by
461. When stopping the rotation of a spin we have the sensation
That we are starting a spin into the opposite direction
462. When accelerating in level flight we could experience the sensation of a
Climb
463. Any prolonged exposure to noise in excess of 90 db can end up in
Noise induced hearing loss
464. All pilots are going to suffer some hearing deterioration as part of the process of growing old.
The effects of aging
Are to cut out the high tones first
465. The human ear is capable of perceiving vibrations between the frequencies
16 - 20,000 Hz
466. The intensity of a sound is measured in
Decibels
467. The part(s) of the eye responsible for night vision
Are the rods
468. The fovea
Is an area in which cones predominate
469. When the optical image forms in front of the retina; we are talking about
Myopia
HPL - P a g e | 36
470. Noise induced hearing loss is influenced by

The duration and intensity of a noise
471. During flight in IMC, the most reliable sense which should be used to overcome illusions is the:
Visual sense, interpreting the attitude indicator
472. Spatial disorientation will be most likely to occur during flight:
If the brain receives conflicting information and the pilot does not believe the instruments
473. Man possesses a system for maintaining his internal equilibrium in the face of variations brought
about by external stimulations.
This internal equilibrium is called:
Homeostasis
474. Which of the following systems are involved in the appearance of motion sickness ?
-1 : Hearing
-2 : The vestibular system
-3 : Vision
-4 : The proprioceptive senses "Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense"
-5 : The gastrointestinal system
2,3,4
475. The rate and depth of breathing is primary regulated by the concentration of:
Carbon dioxide in the blood
476. Perceptual conflicts between the vestibular and visual systems are :
1 - classic and resistant when flying in IMC
2 - sensed via impressions of rotation
3 - sensed via distorted impressions of the attitude of the aircraft
4 - considerable during prolonged shallow turns under IMC
1,2,3,4
477. Which of the following illusions are brought about by conflicts between the visual system and the
vestibular system?
-1: Illusions concerning the attitude of the aircraft
-2: Autokinetic illusion (fixed point viewed as moving)
-3: Illusions when estimating the size and distance of objects
-4: Illusions of rotation
1,4
478. The vestibular system is composed of
-1: two ventricles
-2 : a saccule
-3 : an utricle
-4 : three semicircular channels
2,3,4
HPL - P a g e | 37
479. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

- 1: The retina has rods on its peripheral zone and cones on its central zone
- 2: The retina has cones and the crystalline lens has rods
- 3: The rods allow for night-vision
- 4: The cones are located on the peripheral zone of the retina
1,3
480. In order to perceive colour vision, it is necessary:
-1 : for there to be considerable amount of light (ambient luminosity)
-2 : at night to look at the point to be observed at an angle of 15
-3 : to allow the eye a period of time to get used to the light
-4 : to avoid white light
1
481. The retina allows for the acquisition of colours as a result of the:
Cones located in its central part
482. Accommodation, which enables a clear image to be obtained, is accomplished by which of the
following?
The crystalline lens
483. We know that, in the mechanism of sight, the retina allows for:
The acquisition of the visual signal and its coding into physiological data
484. We know that transverse accelerations (Gy)
- 1 : are above all active in turns and pull-outs
- 2 : are present during take-off and landing
- 3 : are rare during routine flights
- 4 : often lead to loss of consciousness
3
485. Rods (scotopic visual cells) allow for:
Good night-vision after adaptation to darkness (30 min)
486. To optimise one's night-vision performance, it is necessary:
- 1 : to spend some time getting adapted to low levels of illumination
- 2 : to increase the instrument panel lighting by reducing the cockpit lighting
- 3 : not to focus on the point to be observed
- 4 : to avoid blinding
1,3,4
487. Visual perception of depth at close to medium distance is primarily due to
Binocular vision
488. Autokinetic illusion is:
An illusion in which a stationary point of light, if stared at for several seconds in the dark, may without a frame of reference - appear to move
489. With regard to illusions due to perceptive conflicts, it may be said that they:
Are mainly due to a sensory conflict concerning perception of the vertical and the horizontal
between the vestibular and the visual system
HPL - P a g e | 38
490. With regard to central vision, which of the following statements are correct?
-1: It is due to the functioning of rods
-2: It enables details, colours and movement to be seen
-3: Its very active both during the day and at night
-4: It represents a zone where about 150.000 cones per mm are located to give high resolution capacity
2,4
70% of information processed by man enters via the visual channel
492. The ability of the human eye to read alphanumeric information (piercing vision):
Is limited to the foveal area of the retina
493. Rising the sensory threshold of a sensory organ means:
A lesser sensitivity
494. Subcutaneous pressure receptors are stimulated by:
The pressure created on the corresponding body parts when sitting, standing or lying down
495. The kinesthetic sense does not orient an individual to his surroundings, but informs him of
The relative motion and relative position of his body parts
496. A stereotype and involuntary reaction of the organism on stimulation of receptors is called:
Reflex
497. The amount of light which strikes the retina is controlled by:
The pupil
498. When focusing on near objects:
The shape of lens gets more spherical
499. The ability of the lens to change its shape is called:
Accommodation
500. The mechanism of accommodation is controlled by:
The functioning of the ciliary muscle around the lens
501. Presbyopia is:
Far sightedness linked with age
502. Glaucoma
1. can lead to total blindness
2. can lead to undetected reduction of the visual field
3. reduces visual acuity in its final stage
503. Glaucoma is:
High intra-ocular pressure
HPL - P a g e | 39
504. Glaucoma is characterised by:

1. disturbed light adaptation
2. progressive narrowing of the visual field
3. insidious onset and concealed progression
4. an increase in intra-ocular pressure
2, 3 and 4 are correct ,1 is false
505. The peripheral vision is important for:
Detecting moving objects
506. Although we have a field of vision of more than 180 it is important during flight to use the scanning
technique, because
Only in the foveal area resolution is good enough to see an object clearly
507. The time an eye needs to adapt fully to the dark is about:
25 - 30 minutes
508. The photosensitive cells being responsible for night vision are called:
The rods
509. When flying through a thunderstorm with lightning you can protect yourself from flashblindness by:
a) turning up the intensity of cockpit lights
b) looking inside the cockpit
c) wearing sunglasses
d) using face blinds or face curtains when installed
a), b), c) and d) are correct
510. Which scanning technique should be used when flying at night?
Look to the side (15 - 20 deg) of the object
511. The Eustachian tube connects:
The middle ear and the throat
512. Excessive exposure to noise damages:
The sensitive membrane in the cochlea
513. The inner ear is able to perceive:
1. angular acceleration
2. linear acceleration
3. noise
1 and 2 and 3 are correct
514. Angular accelerations are perceived by:
515. The otoliths in the inner ear are sensitive to:
Linear acceleration and gravity
HPL - P a g e | 40
516. Visual disturbances can be caused by:

1. hyperventilation
2. hypoxia
3. hypertension
4. fatigue
517. Disorientation is more likely to occur when the pilot is:
1. flying in IMC
2. frequently changing between inside and outside references
3. flying from IMC into VMC
4. having a cold
518. Positive linear acceleration when flying in IMC may cause a false sensation of:
Pitching up
519. Linear acceleration when flying straight and level in IMC may give the illusion of:
Climbing
520. Coriolis illusion, causing spatial disorientation is the result of:
Simultaneous head movements during aircraft manoeuvres
521. When turning in IMC, head movements should be avoided as much as possible. This is prevention
against:
Coriolis illusion
522. A pilot, trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit floor during a tight turn, experiences:
Coriolis illusion
523. Empty field myopia is caused by:
Lack of distant focal points
524. When a pilot is staring at an isolated stationary light for several seconds in the dark he might get the
illusion that:
The light is moving
525. When you stare at a single light against the dark (an isolated star) you will find the light appears to
move after some time. This phenomenon is called:
Autokinetic phenomenon
526. How is haze effecting your perception?
Objects seem to be further away than in reality
527. The 'Black hole' phenomenon occurs during approaches at night and over water, jungle or desert.
When the pilot is lacking of visual cues other than those of the aerodrome there is an illusion of
Being too high and too far away, dropping low and landing short
528. You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 27 m), to an international airport (runway width 45
m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a:
High approach with overshoot
HPL - P a g e | 41
529. You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 45 m) to a small airfield (runway width 27 m). On
reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a:
Low approach with undershoot
530. What can be said about the following statements?
1. In case of conflicting information you can always trust your Seat- of-the-Pants-Sense.
2. In case of conflicting information between the sensory organs and the instruments you must believe the
instruments.
1 is false, 2 is correct
531. How can spatial disorientation in IMC be avoided? By
Maintaining a good instrument cross check
532. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments
533. How can a pilot prevent spatial disorientation in flight?
Establish and maintain a good instrument cross check
534. If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying you should:
Continue on instruments
535. If you are disorientated during night flying you must:
Rely on instruments
536. How long does it take to develop full night vision adaption?
30 minutes
537. The optic system of the eye consists of
Cornea, lens, vitreous humor
538. The three coats of the eye are
Sclera, uvea, retina
539. The refractive power of the lens is
Variable from 16..... 30 D
540. Shortsightedness means
Subjects start later with presbyopia than usual
541. The onset of presbyopia depends
On age and whether the subject is shortsighted, farsighted, or normal sighted
542. The following statements are true except
Cones are responsible for night vision and are most densely in the fovea centralis
543. Color vision is performed by three different classes of cones:
Red, green, blue
544. The normal visual acuity allows discrimination of two different points under an angle of
1 minute of arc
HPL - P a g e | 42
545. Sound waves are transferred from the outer ear to the inner ear by:
The Ossicles
546. The organ that transfers vibrations to nerve impulses in your ear is called
The cochlea
547. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight?
The use of regular white light, such as flashlight, will impair night adaption
548. Below are four statements about rods and cones. Which one is true?
Cones give the best visual acuity
549. Visual acuity is best within .. degrees of the fovea and reduces .. towards the periphery of vision:
2-3, rapidly
550. The part of the eye that bends the light the most is:
The cornea
551. What is the audible range of the human ear?
20 20 000 Hz
552. What technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and the left during straight and level
flight?
Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals
553.
dB
What unit of measurement is used for intensity of sound?
554. The function of the Eustachian tube is to equalise the pressure between the:
Middle ear and the external atmosphere
555. What is the World Health Organisation (WHO) definition of alcoholism?
When the excessive use of alcohol repeatedly damages a persons physical, mental or social life
556. How should you scan for other traffic at night?
Look to the side of the object and scan slowly
557. By "long duration acceleration" we mean that it lasts longer than:
1 sec
558. Among the factors which can cause illusions while taxiing are:
Relative movement and cockpit height above the ground
559. The proprioceptors do not orient an individual to his/her surroundings, but informs him/her of:
The relative motion and relative position of his body parts
560. The system which controls breathing, digestion, heart rate, etc., over which there is no voluntary
control, is:
The autonomic nervous system
561. The Peripheral Nervous System passes information from the:
Sensory inputs to the CNS through sensory and motor nerves
HPL - P a g e | 43
562. The 5 human senses tend to adapt.

This statement is true
563. The Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) regulates:
Sweating, arterial pressure, body temperature and the General Adaption Syndrome
564. What are the main parts of the Central Nervous System and where is vision processed?
The brain and spinal chord are the main parts of the CNS and vision is processed at the cortex
565. During poor weather conditions a pilot should fly with reference to instruments because:
Perception of distance and speed is difficult in an environment of low contrast
566. Glaucoma is due to:
Increase in pressure of the liquid within the eye
567. What is meant by presbycusis?
Gradual loss of hearing with age
568. Night vision is significantly reduced (i.e. a loss of more than 25%) at 15000 ft in which stage of
hypoxia?
Compensatory
569. Which factors can lead to deterioration in vision?
1) Hypoxia
2) Smoking
3) Poor diet, lacking Vitamin A
4) Exposure to bright lights
1, 2, 3, 4
570. To prevent empty field myopia at higher altitudes:
It is recommended that a pilot uses short sharp scans, or periodically focuses on a distant object
such as a wingtip or cloud edge
571. Night vision:
Requires up to 30 minutes reaching its best performance
572. The cornea and the crystalline lens of the eye:
Cause the convergence of light rays onto the retina
573. During the cruise, at night, when the workload is low, it is recommended that:
The lighting in the cockpit be increased in order to prevent low vigilance
574. Vision of terrain relief (e.g. hills, valleys, etc.):
Is based on binocular vision at short distances and the rules of proportion and perspective for
objects that are further away
575. Among the factors which affect visual acuity are:
Hypoxia, age and angular distance from the fovea
HPL - P a g e | 44
576. Among the factors which affect night vision are:

Age, cabin altitudes above 5000 ft, smoking and alcohol
577. Presbyopia causes a:
Decrease of accommodation
578. Astigmatism is caused by:
A mis-shapened cornea
579. Cataract is caused by:
A clouding of the lens
580. If warned of an imminent thunderstorm:
Cockpit lights should be turned up
581. When scanning, how does the eye move and how is smooth vision achieved?
The eyes move in short jerky movements called saccades. Smooth vision is achieved in the visual
cortex
582. At which altitude (within the "indifferent zone") may a degradation of night vision occur?
From approximately 1600 m
Scotopic Vision is vision through the operation of the Rods
584. The eye can fully adjust to:
High levels of illumination in 10 seconds and darkness in 30 minutes
585. Concerning the light sensitive cells of the eye:
The cones detect colour vision and are highly sensitive to hypoxia
586. Which is correct with regard to Glaucoma?
Is a condition detected by pressure testing the eye ball
587. Colour Blindness:
May be subtle and only detected using specialised tests
588. Presbyopia:
Is common over the age of 50
589. Presbycusis results in:
Reduction in the perception of high tones first
590. By what action could the pressure gradient between the middle and the outer ear be balanced?
By swallowing
HPL - P a g e | 45
591. The damaging effects of noise on the pilot depends on:

1) the intensity of the noise
2) the frequency of the noise
3) the exposure time to noise
4) proper use of the headset in the cockpit
1, 2, 3, 4
592. The Ossicles (the malleus, incus and stapes) are:
Located in the middle ear
593. Presbycusis causes initial loss of:
High tones
594. Equalization of air pressure between the outer and the middle ear is:
Important to prevent pain and loss of hearing during flight
595. Hearing tests are carried out during pilot medicals to:
Detect early signs of deafness
596.
dB
Sound is measured in:
597. The vestibular apparatus consists of the:

Semi-circular canals and the otoliths
598. The following three conditions will decrease the G-tolerance:
Obesity, alcohol, sleeps deprivation
599. What is the correct action to counteract vertigo?
Believe the instruments
600. What can cause spatial disorientation?
False perception of orientation of the aircraft with respect to spatial references
601. When might a pilot have the sensation of a nose-low attitude?
When decelerating in straight, horizontal flight
602. How can vertigo be prevented in conditions of good visibility?
By looking at the horizon
603. On approach, by day, in snowy conditions, without reference to glideslope information:
Judgment of height is extremely difficult
604. On experiencing a vestibular illusion in straight and level flight, it is recommended that:
You avoid head movements and rely on your instruments
605. When the weather is foggy, on approach, a pilot may get a feeling of:
The airfield being further away than it actually is
HPL - P a g e | 46
606. A pilot may get the illusion of low altitude on approach although the aircraft is on the correct
glidepath:
When the runway is wider than he is used to
607. The "Leans" or Somatogyral illusion can be caused by:
Reducing bank following a prolonged turn
608. The Somatogravic illusion gives the pilot a false impression of:
Climbing or descending
609. State the conditions which cause the "black hole effect" and the danger to flight safety:
The "black hole effect" can be caused by flying over water at night on the approach to an airfield
which can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it is, leading to a low
approach being flown
610. While flying VFR "wings level" on top of clouds at 10000 feet, your artificial horizon indicates a 20
degree bank:
You trust the instrument and level off according to the instrument read-out
611. Perceptional illusions are:
Normal an can be prevented by trusting instrument read-out
612. Which of the following factors may have an influence on medical disqualification?
High and low blood pressure as well as a poor condition of the circulatory system
613. Alcohol, even when taken in minor quantities
Can make the brain cells to be more susceptible to hypoxia
614. When assessing an individuals risk in developing coronary artery disease, the following factors may
contribute:
1.obesity
2.distress
3.smoking
4.family history
615. Concerning flying and blood alcohol content the following statement is correct:
No flying under the influence of alcohol
616. The metabolisation of alcohol
Is a question of time
617. Concerning the effects of drugs and pilots performance
The primary and the side effects have to be considered
618. When drugs against sleep disorders and/or nervosity have been taken and the pilot intends to fly,
attention has to be paid to
The effect they have on reaction time and perceptional awareness
HPL - P a g e | 47
619. Drugs against allergies (antihistamines), when taken by an aviator can cause the following
undesirable effects:
1. Drowsiness, dizziness
2. Dry mouth
3. Headaches
4. Impaired depth perception
5. Nausea
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct
620. The consumption of medicines or other substances may have consequences on qualification to fly
for the following reasons:
1. The disease requiring a treatment may be cause for disqualification.
2. Flight conditions may modify the reactions of the body to a treatment.
3. Drugs may cause adverse side effects impairing flight safety.
4. The effects of medicine do not necessarily immediately disappear when the treatment is stopped.
621. Cigarette smoking has particular significance to the flyer, because there are long-term and shortterm harmful effects. From cigarette smoking the pilot can get:
A mild carbon monoxide poisoning decreasing the pilots tolerance to hypoxia
622. A pilot who smokes will loose some of his capacity to transport oxygen combined with hemoglobin.
Which percentage of his total oxygen transportation capacity would he give away when he smokes one
pack of cigarettes a day?
5 - 8%
623. Flying at pressure altitude of 10 000 ft, a pilot, being a moderate to heavy smoker, has an oxygen
content in the blood equal to an altitude
Above 10 000 FT
624. Which of the following applies when alcohol has been consumed?
Even after the consumption of small amounts of alcohol, normal cautionary attitudes may be lost
625. Alcohol, when taken simultaneously with drugs, may
Intensify the effects of the drugs
626. Alcohol metabolism (elimination rate)
Is approx. 0.015% per hour and cannot be expedited
627. Carbon monoxide, a product of incomplete combustion, is toxic because
It competes with oxygen in its union with haemoglobin
628. The rate of absorption of alcohol depends on many factors. However, the rate of metabolism or
digestion of alcohol in the body is relatively constant. It is about
0,01 - 0,015 mg % per hour
629. A slight lack of coordination which can make it difficult to carry out delicate and precise movements
occurs when the level of alcohol in the blood is exceeding
0.05 % blood alcohol
HPL - P a g e | 48
630. The carcinogen (a substance with the ability to produce modifications in cells which develop a
cancer) in the bronchi of the lungs is
Tar
631. One of the substances present in the smoke of cigarettes can make it significantly more difficult for
the red blood cells to transport oxygen and as a consequence contributes to hypoxia. Which substance are
we referring to?
Carbon monoxide
632. It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is:
Pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during fast descents
633. The so-called Coriolis effect (a conflict in information processing in the brain) in spatial disorientation
occurs:
On stimulating several semicircular canals simultaneously
634. To reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, exercise should be
Double the resting heart rate for at least 20 minutes, three times a week
635. Which of the following is most true?
Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, but the most efficient way to lose weight is by
reducing caloric consumption
636. The chemical substance responsible for addiction to tobacco is
Nicotine
637. It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is:
The tissue around the nasal end of the Eustachian tube is likely to be swollen thus causing
difficulty in equalising the pressure within the middle ear and the nasal/throat area. Pain and
damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during fast descents
638. A large number of medical preparations can be bought without a doctors prescription. In relation to
using these preparations, which of the following is correct:
A pilot using any of these preparations should get professional advice from a flight surgeon if he
intends to fly and self-medicate at the same time
639. Carbon monoxide is always present in the exhaust gases of engines. If a pilot is exposed to carbon
monoxide, which of the following responses is correct?
A short exposure to relatively high concentrations of carbon monoxide can seriously affect a pilots
ability to operate an aircraft
640. The following occurs in man if the internal body temperature increases to 38C:
Impairment of physical and mental performance
641. Which of the following mechanisms regulate body temperature when exposed to extreme high
environmental temperatures?
-1 : Shivering
-2 : Vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels
-3 : Sweating
-4 : Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels
3,4
HPL - P a g e | 49
642. The following can be observed when the internal body temperature falls below 35C:
Shivering will tend to cease, and be followed by the onset of apathy
643. We can observe the following in relation to a state of hypothermia:
Reasoning problems as soon as body temperature falls below 37C
1 Hypothermia affects physical and mental abilities.
2 Man has effective natural protection against intense cold.
3 Shivering makes it possible to combat the cold to a certain extent, but uses up a lot of energy
4 Disorders associated with hypothermia appear at a body temperature of less than 35C
1,3,4
645. Which of the following statements about hyperthermia is correct?
Complete adaption to the heat in a hot country takes about a fortnight
646. Exchange of gases between the body and the environment takes place at the:
Lungs
647. Our body takes its energy from:
1: minerals
2: protein
3: carbonhydrates
4: vitamines
2,3
648. What is meant by metabolism?
The generation and utilisation of energy by the body's cells and tissues
649. One of the waste products of the metabolic process in the cell is:
Carbon dioxide
650. The body loses water via:
1. the skin and the lungs
2. the kidneys
1 and 2 are correct
651. Visual acuity during flight at high altitudes can be affected by:
1. anaemia
2. smoking in the cockpit
3. carbon monoxide poisoning
4. hypoxia
652. Conductive hearing loss can be caused by:
1. damage to the ossicles in the middle ear caused by infection or trauma
2. a damage of the auditory nerve
3. an obstruction in the auditory duct
4. a ruptured tympanic membrane
HPL - P a g e | 50
653. Noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) is caused by:

Damage of the sensitive membrane in the cochlea due to overexposure to noise
654. Having a serious cold it is better not to fly, due to the extra risk of:
1. flatulence
2. pain in the ear during descent
3. pressure vertigo
4. pain in the nasal sinuses
655. Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can you expect?
Pain in the sinuses
656. Which statement is correct regarding alcohol in the human body?
Judgment and decision making can be affected even by a small amount of alcohol
657. Which statement is correct?
1. Smokers have a greater chance of suffering from coronary heart disease
2. Smoking tobacco will raise the individuals physiological altitude during flight
3. Smokers have a greater chance for lung cancer
658. Smoking cigarettes reduces the capability of the blood to carry oxygen. This is because:
Hemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon monoxide than it has for oxygen
659. CO (carbon monoxide) present in the smoke of cigarettes can lead to:
1. reduction of time of usefull consciousness
2. hypoxia at a much lower altitude than normal
660. Carbon monoxide in the human body can lead to:
1. loss of muscular power
2. headache
3. impaired judgement
4. pain in the joints
5. loss of consciousness
1, 2 , 3 and 5 are correct
661. Adverse effects of carbon monoxide increase as:
Altitude increases
662. What is meant by the term "Incapacitation"?
The gradual or sudden loss of a crew members ability to function
663. When flying with a cold you might primarily experience problems with:
Pain around the forehead
664. Noise Induced Hearing Loss (NIHL) is:
Governed by intensity and duration of noise in excess of 90 dB
HPL - P a g e | 51
665. A pilot has caught a cold. What may happen to his susceptibility to hypoxia?
It will increase due to the need to generate more oxygen which leads to a greater demand for
oxygen
666. How can a person be infected by yellow fever?
From a contaminated mosquito
667. What is (are) typical diseases caused by contaminated water?
Typhoid, Dysentery, Cholera
668. How is dengue fever transmitted?
By several species of mosquitoes during daytime
669. The body obtains its energy from:
Carbohydrates, protein and fats
670. To avoid incapacity due to gastro-intestinal problems, it is recommended that a simple, easily
digested meal before boarding the aircraft should be accompanied by:
Non-carbonated water
671. Caffeine may cause an increase in cardiac rate, restlessness/nervousness, insomnia, anxiety and
intestinal irritability. Excessive consumption is considered to be in excess of:
250 mg/day
672. Physical exercise in high temperatures (tropical climates) may:
Cause painful muscle and abdominal cramps
673. Medical conditions such as high blood pressure, coronary problems and diabetes are associated
with:
Obesity
674. Hepatitis "A" is transmitted through?
Food or water which has been contaminated
675. A pilot, height 1.7m and weighing 57kg. She is?
Normal
676. When using the Body Mass Index (BMI) formula, when is a pilot considered to be obese?
Over 30 for males, over 29 for females
677. The main purpose of lumbar support is to:
Produce an even pressure on the discs by allowing the lower spine to curve naturally
678. Which of the following statements is true concerning regular physical exercise?
1) It increases pulse rate and stroke volume in the short term
2) It reduces blood pressure and heart rate in the long term
3) It reduces human tolerance to hypoxia
1, 2, 3
679. How is yellow fever contracted?
A virus transmitted by infected mosquito
HPL - P a g e | 52
680. Among the measures that a pilot should take when in an area where gastro-intestinal upsets are
endemic is?
Avoidance of ice in cold drinks
681. Cholera can be transmitted by?
Food or water which has been contaminated
682. Tetanus is transmitted through?
Bacteria in the form of spores via puncture in the skin
683. Hypoclycaemia can be caused by:
Not eating regularly and fasting
684. In the event of a fuel spillage onto the body it is advisable that the affected area is?
Initially washed with copious water and without the use of soap
685. Tattooing and immunisation with the use of improperly sterilised needles or syringes may expose
the receiver to which of the following?
Hepatitis B or C
686. In tropical zones, it is recommended that:
Cold drinks be taken from sealed containers
687. In-flight incapacitation of a pilot is most frequently caused by:
Acute gastrointestinal disorders
688. When considering the eating habits of pilots:
Breakfast should bring about 25% of the daily calorie intake
689. Trace elements should be obtained through:
A balanced diet
690. The organ which metabolises alcohol from the body is the:
Liver
691. Approximately how long will a blood/alcohol level of 60 mgm/100 ml take to return to normal?
4 hours
692. Phobic states or obsessional disorders will:
May require successful treatment before flying may be permitted
693. Excessive intake of aspirin can cause:
Gastric bleeding
694. Alcohol degrades:
Paradoxical sleep
695. The most dangerous type of incapacitation in flight in one that:
Develops slowly and gradually (insidious)
696. What diseases can be associated with contaminated water?
Typhoid, Cholera, Dysentery
HPL - P a g e | 53
697. Smoking 3 cigarettes in 1 hour at sea level will:

Cause a lower degree of hypoxic tolerance
698. Flying while suffering from a cold may expose a pilot to:
Otic and sinus barotrauma
699. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to alcohol?
It is absorbed directly from the stomach and intestines into the bloodstream
700. When travelling in developing and tropical areas of the world, aircrew should avoid:
1) ice cubes in drinks
2) swimming in local lakes or rivers
3) eating unpeeled fruit
4) local ice cream and salads
5) wearing short clothing in the evenings
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
701.
No
Is it possible to suffer from Aerodontalgia in the descent?
702. Hypertension:
Increases the risk of a heart attack and stroke
703. Heart attack (myocardial infarction):
Is the commonest cause of death in men over the age of 40
704. Heart attack (myocardial infarction):
Is a total blockage of a coronary artery leading to the death of a piece of heart muscle
705. Otic Barotrauma is worse during the descent than climb because:
The air in the middle ear is at a lower pressure than the cabin, this closes the eustation tube so that
the pressure cannot be equalised
HPL - P a g e | 54
706. The maximum number of unrelated items that can be stored in working memory is:
About 7 items
707. Concentration is essential for pilots.
However, capacity of concentration is limited
708. The quality of learning:
Is promoted by feedback on the value of one's own performance
709. Long-term memory is an essential component of the pilot's knowledge and expertise.
It is desirable to pre-activate knowledge stored in long-term memory to have it available when
required
710. Less experienced pilots differ from experienced pilots in the following way:
Inexperienced pilots refer to information more than experts when carrying out the same task
711. The first stage in the information process is
Sensory stimulation
712. The capacity of the short-term memory is
About 7 items
713. Information stays in the short-term memory
About 20 seconds
714. The ability of detecting relevant information which is not presented in an actively monitored input
channel is known as
Attention
715. The human information processing system is highly efficient compared to computers because of its
Flexibility
716. Motor programmes are:
Stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed without continuous conscious
control
717. Working memory enables us, for example,
To remember a clearance long enough to write it down
718. In the short-term-memory, information is stored for approximately
20 seconds
719. The Cocktail Party Effect is:
The ability to pick up relevant information unintentionally
720. Once we have constructed a mental model we tend
To give undue weight to information that confirms the model
721. Our mental model of the world is based
On both our past experiences and the sensory information we receive
HPL - P a g e | 55
722. Which of the following tasks are possible to do simultaneously without mutual interference?
Maintain manual straight and level flight and solve a problem
723. Mental training, mental rehearsal of cognitive pretraining is called the inner, ideomotor simulation of
actions.
It is most important for the acquisition of complex perceptual motor skills
724. How can the process of learning be enhanced?
By reinforcing successful performance
725. Learning is called each lasting change of behaviour due to
Practice and experience
726. Mental rehearsal is helpful to improve flying skills
At all levels of flying proficiency
727. A selective attentional mechanism is required
Because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working memory
728. Working memory:
Is sensitive to interruptions which may erase all or some of its content
729. Motivation is an important attribute which contributes to flight safety.
Which of the following statements is correct with regards to motivation?
Excessive motivation leads to stress which adversely affects performance
730. In order to provide optimum human performance it is advisable to
Establish strategies for planning, automating and managing resources (in real time)
731. The planning and anticipation of future actions and situations makes it possible to:
-1 : create a precise reference framework.
-2 : avoid saturation of the cognitive system.
-3 : automate planned actions.
-4 : activate knowledge which is considered necessary for the period to come.
The correct statement(s) is (are):
732. Pre-thought action plans may be said to:
-1 : ease access to information which may be necessary.
-2 : sensitize and prepare for a possible situation to come.
-3 : be readily interchangeable and can therefore be reformulated at any time during the flight.
-4 : define a framework and a probable strategy for the encountered situation.
The combination of correct statements is:
HPL - P a g e | 56
733. The workload may be said to:

-1 : be acceptable if it requires more than 90 % of the crew resources
-2 : be acceptable if it requires about 60 % of the crew resources.
-3 : depend on the pilot's expertise.
-4 : correspond to the amount of resources available
734. According to Wicken's theory, the human brain has:
Different reservoirs of resources depending on whether one is in the information-gathering,
information-processing or action phase
735. The available cognitive resources of the human brain:
Are limited and make it impossible to perform two attentional tasks at the same time
736. Mental schemes correspond to:
Memorised representations of the various procedures and situations which can be reactivated by
the pilot at will
737. The acquisition of skill comprises three stages (Anderson model):
Cognitive, associative and autonomous
738. A pilot can be described as being proficient, when he/she:
Has automated a large part of the necessary flight deck routine operations in order to free his/her
cognitive resources
739. Conscious perception
Is a mental process involving experience and expectations
740. Which of the following provides the basis of all perceptions?
The intensity of the stimuli
741. The "gestalt laws "formulates:
Basic principles governing how objects are mentally organized and perceived
742. The effect of experience and repetition on performance
Can both be beneficial and negative
743. Murphy's law states:
If equipment is designed in such a way that it can be operated wrongly, then sooner or later, it will
be
744. In the absence of external reference points, the sensation that the vehicle in which you are sitting is
moving when it is in fact the vehicle directly alongside which is moving is called:
Illusion of relative movement
HPL - P a g e | 57
745. Which of the following are the most favourable solutions to manage phases of reduced or low
vigilance (hypovigilance)?
1. Healthy living
2. Use of amphetamines
3. Reducing the intensity of the light
4. Organising periods of rest during the flight
1,4
746. What are main signs indicating the loss of vigilance?
1. Decrease in sensory perception
2. Increase in selective attention
3. Sensation of muscular heaviness
4. Decrease in complacency
1,3
747. What is "divided attention"?
The management of several matters of interest dealt with individually one after the other
748. Which of the following statements concerning hypovigilance is correct?
Hypovigilance:
May occur at any moment of the flight
749. What are the main factors which bring about reduced or low vigilance (hypovigilance)?
1. The monotony of the task
2. Tiredness, the need for sleep
3. A lack of stimulation
4. Excessive stress
1,2,3
750. Which of the following are primary sources of motivation in day-to-day professional life?
1. Being in control of one's own situation
2. Fear of punishment
3. Success (achievement of goals)
4. Social promotion, money
1,3,4
751. Which of the following statements summarises the impact that motivation may have on attention?
It increases the mobilisation of energy and thus facilitates the quality of alertness and attention
752. What is the main adverse effect of expectation with regards to perception?
Expectation often guides the focus of attention towards a particular aspect, while possible
alternates are neglected
753. With regard to the level of automation of behaviours in the attention mechanism, we know that:
The more behaviour is automated, the less it requires conscious attention and thus the more it
frees mental resources
HPL - P a g e | 58
754. What are the various factors which guide attention?

1. The level of automation of behaviour
2. Response time
3. The salience of the information
4. Expectations
1,3,4
755. The needs of an individual lead to:
A change in the individuals motivation and consequently to an adaptation of the behaviour
756. The main limit(s) of long-term memory is (are):
Data retrieval as a result from a loss of access to the stored information
757. What are the main limits of short-term memory?
It is :
-1 : very sensitive to interruptions and interference
-2 : difficult to access
-3 : limited in size
-4 : subject to a biochemical burn-in of information
1,3 ,4
758. If a pilot has to perform two tasks requiring the allocation of cognitive resources:
The sharing of resources causes performance on each task to be reduced
759. Which of the following characteristics apply to short-term memory?
- 1 : It is limited in time and size
- 2 : It is unlimited in time and limited in size
- 3 : It is stable and insensitive to disturbances
- 4 : It is limited in time and unlimited in size
1
760. With regard to short-term memory, we can say that:
It is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and is limited in its capacity for storing
and retaining data
761. Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are:
Associated with the task of mental construction of the environment
762. To facilitate and reduce the time taken to access information in long-term memory, it is helpful to:
Mentally rehearse information before it is needed
763. Concerning the capacity of the human long-term memory
Its storage capacity is unlimited
HPL - P a g e | 59
764. Which of the following statements about long-term memory are correct?
-1: Information is stored there in the form of descriptive, rule-based and schematic knowledge.
-2: The period of time for which information is retained is limited by the frequency with which this same
information is used.
-3: It processes information quickly and has an effective mode of access in real time.
-4: Pre-activation of necessary knowledge will allow for a reduction in access time.
1 and 4 are correct
765. Whilst flying a coordinated turn, most of your activity is
766. If you approach an airfield VFR at a prescribed altitude, exactly following the approach procedure,
and you encounter no unexpected or new problems you show:
767. The choice of the moment you select flaps depending on situation and conditions of the landing is:
768. The ability to monitor information which could indicate the development of a critical situation:
Is necessary to maintain good situational awareness
1. The first information received determines how subsequent information will be evaluated
2. If one has made up one's mind, contradictory information may not get the attention it really needs
3. With increasing stress, channelizing attention is limiting the flow of information to the central decision
maker (CNS)
770. In an abnormal situation the pilot has an apparently correct explanation for the problem. The chance
that he/she now ignores or devalues other relevant information, not fitting into his/her mental picture is:
Increasing
771. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1) Interesting information is easier to take into consideration for creating a mental picture than boring
information
2) The sequence in which information is offered is also important for the use the pilot makes of it
772. Many pilots think up systems to deal with affairs so they don't have to think up every time what they
have to do.
This has to be positively appreciated for it increases consistency in action
773. The development of procedures makes pilots more effective and more reliable in their actions. This
is called:
Procedural consistency
774. The common illusion created by linear acceleration or deceleration is:
A pitch up feeling when the aircraft accelerates
HPL - P a g e | 60
775. If the pilot of an aircraft approaches a runway that is wider than normal, one of the possible
consequences could be that:
The aircraft would touch down after he expects to
776. An ideal professional pilot is in his behaviour:
Both person and goal oriented
777. What effect does haze have on the abilities to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
Haze creates the illusion of being at a greater distance than actual from the runway and causes
pilots to fly a lower approach
778. You are carrying out a visual approach to a runway which slopes upwards away from the touchdown
end.
What is the main risk in this case?
Landing short due to over-correcting for an apparent height increase
779. Vertigo can be brought on by:
Disease, accelerations, pressure changes and flashing lights
780. As a pilot's workload is increased, what happens to his performance level?
The standard of performance increases until an optimum level of workload and performance is
achieved
781. What are the best visual cues for height during the round out?
Apparent speed and texture of ground objects
782. Which of the following statements about alcohol is true?
Alcohol will lower the tolerance for hypoxia
783. If runway slopes downwards, what is a pilot is likely to do:
Land long
784. What is the relationship between performance and arousal?
Performance is degraded by both high and low arousal
785. A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon and a dark scene spread with ground lights and
stars can create an illusion known as:
False horizon
786. Suppose you make an IMC go-around in a high-speed. Which of the following illusions are you likely
to experience?
Nose up attitude
787. Suppose you make an approach to a runway which is narrower than standard. Which of the
following errors are you likely to commit?
Initiate a flare too late
HPL - P a g e | 61
788. Regarding arousal, which of the following statements is wrong?

A medium level of arousal can be dangerous, since you have little spare mental capacity in this
situation
789. Illusions can often be experienced during flight. One such illusion is created by strong forward linear
acceleration. This phenomenon is called:
Somatogravic or oculogravic
790. The errors of a motor programme are:
Action slip and environmental capture (habituation)
791. A pilot experiences difficulties in the control of his aircraft and consequently omits to monitor the fuel
level. This is caused by:
A lack of attention due to distraction
792. The phases of learning a motor programme are:
Cognitive, associative and automatic phases
793. The main limitation of the long-term memory is:
Unless information is accessed from time to time, retrieval of information can be difficult
794. The acquisition of a motor programme (skill) will mean that:
The more behaviour is automated, the less it requires conscious attention and thus the more it
frees mental resources
795. What are two types of attention?
Selective and divided
796. Select the correct definition of vigilance:
A vigilant task is one that requires consistent monitoring without lapses in attention. Vigilance is
simply defined as sustained attention
797. The long term memory is influenced by:
Experience, repetition, suggestion, desires and expectations
798. One of the major protective measures against illusions is:
Comprehensive briefing and de-briefing
799. The Cocktail Party Effect is associated with:
Attention mechanisms
800. Stimuli must be of certain strength for the receptors to pick them up. This is called:
Sensory threshold
HPL - P a g e | 62
801. We generate mental models on:

Past experience and learning
802. Name the commonest problem of the long term memory and how would you counteract it?
Unless an item is recalled regularly, it becomes more and more difficult to retrieve from the LTM
store
803. Which of the following is correct?
70% - 80% of information processed by man enters the visual channel
804. Information received from the senses is lost:
Within 10-20 seconds unless it is rehearsed and deliberately placed in the long term memory
805. Incorrect perception:
Can be highly persuasive
806. Perception is based upon:
Information received as well as past experience and knowledge
807. Which of the following answers are correct concerning the long term memory?
1) Long term memory can be affected by expectation and suggestion
2) Long term memory is also known as the working memory
3) Long term memory is limited to plus or minus 7 pieces of disassociated pieces of information
4) Long term memory is where motor programmes (skills) are kept
1
Short-term memory is affected by interruptions
809. Which of the following is the best definition of episodic memory?
It is the memory of events which are held in the long-term memory and can be influenced by
suggestion
810. Which of the following is true with reference to semantic memory?
It is the meaning of words and general knowledge of the world; it lasts for a longer period of time
and tends to be more accurate than episodic memory
811. Why are Mnemonics used in aviation?
Because they help to increase retention of information
HPL - P a g e | 63
812. Human errors are frequent and may take several forms:
An error can be described as the mismatch between the pilots intention and the result of his/her
actions
813. Analysis of accidents involving the human factor in aviation shows that:
There is hardly ever a single cause responsible
814. An excessive need for safety
Hampers severely the way of pilot decision making
815. What is meant by the term 'complacency'?
Careless negligence or unjustified self-confidence
816. What does the 'End Deterioration Effect'('Home-itis') mean?
The tendency to sudden, imperceptible errors shortly before the end of a flight
817. 'Environmental capture' is a term used to describe which of the following statements?
1.The tendency for a skill to be executed in an environment in which it is frequently exercised, even if it is
inappropriate to do so
2.The tendency for a skill acquired in one aircraft type to be executed in a new aircraft type, even if it is
inappropriate to do so
3. The tendency for people to behave in different ways in different social situations
4. The gaining of environmental skills
1 and 2 are correct
818. It is desirable to standardize as many patterns of behaviour (operating procedures) as possible in
commercial aviation mainly because
Such behaviour reduces errors even under adverse circumstances
819. According to Rasmussen's model, errors in rule-based control mode are of the following type(s) :
Errors of technical knowledge
820. According to Rasmussen's model, errors are of the following type(s) in skill-based behaviour:
Routine errors
821. Which of the following statements best fits the definition of an active error?
Active error is:
Produced by the operator and can be rapidly detected via the effects and consequences which it
induces on the overall action
822. What are the main consequences of latent errors? They:
-1 : remain undetected in the system for a certain length of time.
-2 : may only manifest themselves under certain conditions.
-3 : are quickly detectable by the front-line operator whose mental schemas on the instantaneous situation
filter out formal errors.
-4 : lull the pilots into a false sense of security.
1,2 and 4
HPL - P a g e | 64
823. Which of the following statements fits best the concept of latent error?
Have been present in the system for a certain length of time and are difficult to understand as a
result of the time lag between the generation and the occurrence of the error
824. A system is all the more reliable if it offers good delectability. The latter is the result of:
-1 : tolerance of the various systems to errors.
-2 : the sum of the automatic monitoring, detection and warning facilities.
-3 : the reliability of the Man-Man and Man-Machine links.
-4 : the alerting capability of the Man-Machine interface.
2 and 4
825. To avoid wrong decisions by the pilot, an aircraft system should at least be able to
Report its malfunction
826. When can a system be said to be tolerant to error? When:
The consequences of an error will not seriously jeopardize safety
827. Once detected, an error will result in cognitive consequences which:
Make it possible to modify behaviour with a view to adaptation
828. Why must flight safety considerations consider the human error mechanism?
-1 : It is analysis of an incident or accident which will make it possible to identify what error has been
committed and by whom. It is the process whereby the perpetrator is made responsible which may lead to
elimination of the error.
-2 : If we have a better understanding of the cognitive error mechanism, it will be possible to adapt
procedures, aircraft interfaces, etc.
-3 : It is error management procedure which enables us to continuously adjust our actions. The better we
understand the underlying mechanism of an error, the better will be our means for detecting and adapting
future errors.
-4 : Since error is essentially human, once it has been identified by the use of procedures, a person will be
able to anticipate and deal with it automatically in the future.
2 and 3
829. Improvement of human reliability should entail:
An effort to understand the causes and find means of recovery for errors committed
830. How can man cope with low error tolerant situations?
By constantly complying with cross-over verification procedures (cross monitoring)
831. What are the various means which allow for better error detection?
-1 : Improvement of the man-machine interface.
-2 : Development of systems for checking the consistency of situations.
-3 : Compliance with cross-over redundant procedures by the crew.
-4 : Adaptation of visual alarms to all systems.
1, 2 and 3
HPL - P a g e | 65
832. What means can be used to combat human error?

-1 : Reducing error-prone mechanisms.
-2 : Improving the way in which error is taken into account in training.
-3 : Sanctions against the initiators of error.
-4 : Improving recovery from errors and its consequences.
1, 2 and 4
833. Human behaviour is determined by:
Biological characteristics, social environment and cultural influences
834. Studies of human error rates during the performance of simple repetitive task have shown, that
errors can normally be expected to occur about
1 in 100 times
835. Which of the following human error rates can be described as both realistic and pretty good, after
methodical training?
1 in 1000 times
836. Situations particularly vulnerable to "reversion to an earlier behaviour pattern" are:
1. when concentration on a particular task is relaxed
2. when situations are characterised by medium workload
3. when situations are characterised by stress
1. and 3.
837. The most dangerous characteristic of perception is, that it
Is extremely resistant to correction
838. The level of automation helps to conserve resources. On the other hand, it may result in:
Routine errors (slips)
839. What would be the priority aim in the design of man-machine interfaces and in the creation of their
application procedures for combating problems associated with human error?
To reduce the risks of the appearance or non-detection of errors entailing serious consequences
840. What may be the origins of representation errors?
1. Perception errors
2. The catering for all available information
3. Incorrect information from the observed world
4. The receipt of a bad piece of information
1,3,4
841. What happens in problem-solving when the application of a rule allows for the situation to be
resolved?
Actions return to an automatic mode
HPL - P a g e | 66
842. In problem-solving, what determines the transition from rules-based activities to a knowledge-based
activity?
The unsuitability of the known rules for the problem posed
843. Under what circumstances will a pilot change from automated level to rule-based level?
When detecting, that an automated behaviour will no longer lead to the intended outcome
844. Which of the following errors occur at rules-based level?
1.Omission
2.The application of a poor rule
3. Attentional capture
4. The poor application of a good rule
2,4
845. Errors which occur during highly automated actions may result from:
1. the capture of a poor action subprogram
2. a mistake in the decision making process
3. the application of a poor rule
4. an action mode error
1,4
846. The descriptive aspect of errors according to Hollnagel's model describes various directly
observable types of erroneous actions which are:
1. Repetition and omission
2. The forward leap and the backward leap
3. Intrusion and anticipation
4. Intrusion
1,2,4
847. What are the main characteristics of active errors? They :
1. are detectable only with difficulty by first-line operators
2. have rapid and direct consequences on the action in progress
3. are down to first-line operators
4. have an impact on the overall action whose timing may be affected significantly
2,3
848. The relationship which exists between crew error and flight safety:
Is dependent on the social and technical system and also on the operational context created by the
system
849. The effects of sleep deprivation on performance:
1. increase with altitude
2. decrease with altitude
3. increase with higher workload
4. decrease with higher workload
1 and 3 are correct
HPL - P a g e | 67
850. Which of the following is a typical "error of commission"?

Taxiing out to a wrong runway
851. The lowest level of Maslow's Model of the Hierarchy of Human Needs is:
Physiological needs
852. Which of the following statements is correct regarding personality?
Your personality develops during the first few years of your life
853. What is the current approach to human error?
Realization that humans are fallible and that systems and procedures should be designed to
minimise human error
854. Anxiety can affect:
1) Judgment
2) Attention
3) Memory
4) Concentration
All are correct
855. Mode error is associated with:
Automation
856. Which of the following concepts relating to human reliability is true?
If equipment is designed in such a way that it can be operated wrongly, then sooner or later, it will
be
857. The causes of human error can be abundant and complex. Which of the following factors could
contribute to human error?
1) Personality
2) Motivation and attitudes
3) Emotional state
4) External environmental factors
Which of the following lists all the correct answers?
1, 2, 3, 4
858. Organizational factors which affect or may have some influence on human error are:
1) malfunction of technical systems
2) fuel-saving policies
3) rostering
4) weather phenomena
2, 3
859. An unnoticed waypoint error entered in an aircraft data base is an example of:
Latent failure/error
HPL - P a g e | 68
860. If one error is allowed to affect a whole system, the system is described as:
Vulnerable
861. Active errors/failures are committed at:
The human/system interfaces and has an immediate effect
862. Which of the following are included in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?
1) Freedom from pain and danger
2) Expressions of capacities and talents
3) Self-esteem needs
4) Self-fulfillment needs
5) Physiological needs
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
HPL - P a g e | 69
863. Which of the following statements is correct regarding decision making?

Deciding means choosing between alternatives
864. Most accidents are mainly caused by lack of:
Good judgment
865. Judgment is based upon:
A process involving a pilots attitude to take and to evaluate risks by assessing the situation and
making decisions based upon knowledge, skill and experience
866. Which of the following is most likely to be overlooked should a pilot make a rushed decision?
Analysis of the actual situation and applying a prepared decision instead
867. In terms of decision-making, the intention to become integrated into the team, to be recognised as
the leader or to avoid conflicts may lead to:
The attempt to agree on decisions made by other crew members
868. What strategy should be put in place when faced with an anticipated period of stress?
A strategy of preparing decisions
869. Which biases relate to human decision making?
1. Personal experience tends to alter the perception of the risk of an event occurring
2. There is a natural tendency to want to confirm our decision even in the face of facts which contradict it
3. The group to which an individual belongs tends to influence the particular decision
4. There is natural tending to select only objective facts for decision-making purposes
1,2,3
870. Habits and routine can influence decision-making in a way that:
A tendency to select the most familiar solution first and foremost, sometimes to the detriment of
achieving the best possible result
871. Decision-making can be influenced by the following factors:
1. people tend to conform to opinions expressed by a majority within the group they belong to
2. people always tend to keep the future decisions in line with those their superiors have made in the past
3. people more easily tend to select data which meet the expectations
4. people hardly base decisions on their personal preferences but rather on rational information
1,3
872. The DECIDE model is based on:
A prescriptive generic model, taking into account the method which seems most likely to come up
with the solution
873. Decision-making is a concept which represents:
A voluntary and conscious process of selection, from among possible solutions, for a given
problem
874. Which of the following characteristics form part of decision-making on the flight deck?
A good decision depends on analysis of the situation
HPL - P a g e | 70
875. In decision-making, the selection of a solution depends:

1. on objective and subjective criteria
2. on the objective to be achieved
3. on the risks associated with each solution
4. above all on the personality of the decision-maker
1,2,3,4
876. Decision-making results in:
A choice between different solutions for achieving a goal
877. The confirmation bias of decision making is
A tendency to ignore that information which indicates that a decision is poor
878. The best method to avoid confirmation bias is to:
Search for information that will falsify the hypothesis
879. Which of the following are either cumulative or tend to escalate?
1) Stress factors (stressors)
2) Errors
3) The effects of carbon monoxide poisoning
4) Human conflict
5) Colour blindness
1, 2, 3, 4
880. Motivation, crew-climate and confirmation bias are factors that:
Can influence the situational awareness
881. A pilot meets the ground engineer in charge on the apron. Although the pilot has not been through
flight preparation yet, he nevertheless instructs the engineer as to the amount of fuel to be loaded, since he
is used to flying this route. This behaviour results from:
A decision bias due to habits (frequency basis)
882. In the decision making process, confirmation bias results in:
A tendency to look for information which confirms the validity of the decision
883. Decisions made by pilots in a cockpit:
Remain valid for a limited time only
884. What are the main advantages that the human possesses over those of a machine in the decision
making process?
Creativity, innovation and adaptability
885. Select from the following list the advantages of teamwork:
1) workload is lessened
2) conformity to group norm
3) flight safety enhanced
4) risky shift
5) work stress is reduced
6) improved decision making
1, 3, 5, 6
HPL - P a g e | 71
886. In order to make sound decisions it is important to:

Understand why and how we make decisions
887. During the decision making process in the cockpit:
The amount of time available has a large influence on the analysis of the situation
888. The "ideal professional pilot" is, in his behaviour,
"person" and "goal" oriented
889. Which of the following statements concerning communication is valid?
Professional communication means: using a restricted and specific language, tailored to minimize
misunderstandings
890. Within communication, what element suggests that a message has been received and understood?
Feedback
891. The process of responding to a sender by confirming the reception of a message is called
Feedback
892. When a pilot is facing a problem during flight he should
Take as much time as he needs and is available to make up his mind
893. The decision making in emergency situations requires firstly:
Distribution of tasks and crew coordination
894. Which of the following abilities will not improve efficient decision making in the cockpit?
Ability to persuade others to follow the own point of view
895. The assessment of risk in a particular situation will be based on
Subjective perception and evaluation of situational factors
896. Once a pilot has developed a certain way of thinking about a problem he will probably
Find it difficult to get out of that way of thinking and difficult to try a different interpretation of the
data
897. To maintain good situational awareness you should:
(1) believe only in your own interpretation of the data
(2) gather as much data as possible from every possible source before making inferences
(3) question whether your hypothesis still fits the situation as events progress and try to make time to
review the situation
(4) consider ways of testing your situational hypothesis to see whether it is correct
HPL - P a g e | 72
898. Doing a general briefing in the preflight phase the captain should emphasize
Particular requirements in the field of crew coordination due to specific circumstances
899. During the preparational work in the cockpit the captain notices that his copilot on the one hand is
rather unexperienced and insecure but on the other hand highly motivated. Which kind of leadership
behaviour most likely is inappropriate?
The captain lets the copilot fly and observes his behaviour without any comments
900. A leader who demonstrates a democratic and co-operative style will deal with conflict by:
Trying to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all persons involved
901. Which of the following sentences concerning crew-performance is correct?
The quality of crew-performance depends on the social-competence of individual team members
902. Informal roles within a crew
Evolve as a result of the interactions that take place among crew members
903. Which statement is correct? Crew decision making is generally most efficient, if all crew members
concerned
Adapt their management style to meet the situational demands
904. Which behaviour does most likely promote a constructive solution of interpersonal conflicts?
Active listening
905. The team spirit of a cockpit-crew most likely depends on both pilots:
Respecting each other and striving for the same goals
906. During the cruising phase of a short-haul flight the captain starts to smoke a cigarette in the cockpit.
The flying copilot asks him to stop smoking because he is a non-smoker. The captain tells him: 'This is your
problem', and continues smoking. What should the copilot do?
He should not further discuss this issue but should come back to this conflict during the debriefing
907. How would you describe the leadership style of a captain who primarily is interested in a friendly
atmosphere within his crew, who is always constructive and encouraging, who usually compromises in
interpersonal conflicts, who trusts in the capabilities of his crew-members, and who leaves the crew
freedom for own decisions, even if this makes the process more difficult?
Low task-orientation and high relationship-orientation
908. If the copilot continuously feels unfairly treated by the captain in an unjustified way, then he should
Duly point out the problem, reconcentrate on his duties and clear the matter in a more appropriate
occasion
909. What does not apply to a constructive and helpful feedback?
Feedback should always state bluntly the personal failings of the receiver
910. Which statement is correct?
Problems in the personal relationships between crew members are likely to hamper their
communication process
HPL - P a g e | 73
911. What is the sender's frequent reason to communicate implicitly ('between the lines')?
Afterwards he/she always can claim to have been misunderstood
912. Metacommunication is defined as
Communicating about the communication
913. Mark the two most important attributes for a positive leadership style:
(1) dominant behaviour
(2) exemplary role-behaviour
(3) mastery of communication skills
(4) "Laissez-faire" behaviour
2 and 3
914. An individually given feedback improves communication. Which of the following rules should a
feedback comply with?
The feedback should always relate to a specific situation
915. Nonverbal communication
Supports verbal communication
916. How do you understand the statement 'one cannot not communicate'?
Being silent as well as inactive are nonverbal behaviour patterns which express a meaning
917. Which elements of communication are prone to malfunctioning?
The sender and the receiver as well as coding and decoding
918. Discussing private matters in the cockpit
Can improve team spirit
919. Of the following statements, which apply to coordinated cooperation?
-1 : It allows for synergy in the actions between the captain and the pilot.
-2 : It represents the simultaneous execution of a single action by the various members of the crew.
-3 : Communication in this mode has the function of synchronizing actions and distributing responsibilities.
-4 : Communication must be essentially focused on temporal and cognitive synchronization.
1 and 3
920. What are the advantages of coordination?
Redundancy, synergy, clarification of responsibility
921. Of the following statements, select those which apply to "information".
-1 : It is said to be random when it is not intended for receivers.
-2 : It is intended to reduce uncertainty for the receiver.
-3 : It is measured in bits.
-4 : Each bit of information reduces uncertainty by a quarter.
2 and 3 are correct
HPL - P a g e | 74
922. Coaction is a mode of coordination which recommends:

Working parallel to achieve one common objective
923. Success in achieving the objectives of a message requires:
The matching of verbal, non-verbal and contextual meanings
924. In order to make communication effective, it is necessary to:
-1 : avoid the synchronization of verbal and non-verbal channels.
-2 : send information in line with the receiver's decoding abilities
-3 : always concentrate on the informational aspects of the message only
-4 : avoid increasing the number of communication channels, in order to simplify communication
Only 2 is correct
925. Which of the following statements regarding interpersonal interactions are correct?
1) If the sender perceives that the receiver is incompetent, he/she will simplify the message
2) If the receiver is of non-native tongue, the sender will reinforce what he is saying by using more
complicated words so as to optimize understanding
3) If the sender considers there is doubt that the message has been correctly understood, he/she must
seek clarification
4) It is much safer to fly with a crew who know each other well because communication will always be
excellent
1, 3
926. Professional languages have certain characteristics, for example:
-1 : They use a limited vocabulary
-2 : They are rich and adapted to the context, which sometimes lead to ambiguities
-3 : Their grammar is rather complicated and complex
-4 : Context provides meaning, therefore reduces the risk of ambiguities
1 and 4 are correct
927. A study by NASA has examined the relationships between incidents linked with ground-to-crew
communication. Which of the following factors is the main reason for disturbances in the correct reception
of a message?
Listening errors
928. An increase in workload usually leads to:
A shorter and less frequent exchange of information
929. With regard to communication in a cockpit, we can say that:
Communication uses up resources, thus limiting the resources allocated to work in progress
HPL - P a g e | 75
930. The intended recipient of a message must:

-1 : give priority and adapt to the sender's situation.
-2 : acknowledge the receipt only in case of doubt.
-3 : be able to reject or postpone a communication attempt if the pilot is too busy.
-4 : stabilize or finish a challenging manoeuvre before starting a discussion.
3 and 4 are correct
931. What are typical consequences of conflicts between crew members?
-1 The quality of work performance decreases as a result of the impoverishment of communications
-2 A decrease in the quality of communications
-3 In the case of a crew made up of experts, conflicts only result in deterioration in relations between the
individuals
-4 A decrease in the usage of available resources on the flight deck
932. Different non-technical related opinions between pilots from different cultural backgrounds might be
seen in connection with:
-1 : the variations of technical training and skills.
-2 : communication problems.
-3 : conflicting ways of management.
-4 : interpersonal problems.
933. The use of modern technology applied to glass-cockpit aircraft has:
Facilitated feedback from the machine via more concise data for communication on the flight deck
934. In a glass-cockpit aircraft, communication between the members of the crew:
Does not lose its importance
935. What are the communication qualities of a good briefing? A good briefing must:
-1 : contain as much information and be as comprehensive as possible
-2 : be of a standard type so that it can be reused for another flight of the same type
-3 : be short and precise
-4 : be understandable to the other crew member(s).
936. Which of the following statements concerning check list is correct?
The most important items should be placed at the beginning of a check list since attention is
usually focused here
HPL - P a g e | 76
937. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the design of a check list?
-1 : The longer a check list, the more it must be subdivided into logical parts
-2 : The trickiest points must be placed in the middle of the check list
-3 : Check lists must be designed in such a way that they can be lumped together with other tasks
-4 : Whenever possible, a panel scan sequence should be applied
-5 : Use should be made of upper case/bold/italics/colour with care to emphasize critical items or points
938. The use of check lists must be carried out in such a way that:
Their execution must not be done simultaneously with other actions
939. The purpose of action plans which are implemented during briefings is to:
Initiate procedures and reactions for situations that are most likely, risky or difficult during the
flight
940. In order to overcome an overload of work during the flight, it is necessary to:
-1 : know how to use one's own reserve of resources in order to ease the burden on the crew
-2 : divide up tasks among the crew
-3 : ensure that the long term memory is used as much as possible as short term memory will add to the
stress
-4 : drop certain tasks and stick to high-level priorities.
941. With regard to the practice of English, which of the following statements is correct?
All pilots should master it because the aeronautical world needs one common language
942. Pilots are more easily inclined to take greater risks when:
They are part of a group of pilots and they feel that they are being observed and admired (e.g. air
shows)
943. The relevance of check procedures during flight becomes even more important when:
Flying an unfamiliar type of aircraft and experiencing mental pressure
944. Which of the following responses is an example of "habit reversion" (negative habit transfer):
A pilot who has flown many hours in an aircraft in which the fuel lever points forward for the ON
position, may unintentionally turn the fuel lever into the false position, when flying a different
aircraft, where the fuel lever has to point aft to be in the ON position
945. Although the anticipation of possible events is a good attitude for pilots to acquire, it can sometimes
lead to hazardous situations. With this statement in mind, select the response below which could lead to
such a hazard:
Mishearing the contents of a reply from an air traffic controller when a non-standard procedure was
given but a standard procedure was anticipated
HPL - P a g e | 77
946. The person with overall responsibility for the flight is the
-1 Pilot in Command
-2 Co-pilot
-3 Navigator
-4 Air traffic controller
1
947. The trend in aeroplane loss rate over the last three decades seems to be related to:
The crew
948. The following course of action must be taken if gastrointestinal complaints in flight crew occur before
take-off:
-1 : take the standard medicines and advise the doctor on returning from the flight
-2 : assess your own ability to fly, if necessary with the help of a doctor
-3 : if in doubt about fitness to fly - do not fly!
-4 : reduce the cabin temperature, and drink before you are thirsty so as to avoid dehydration
2,3
949. Which of the following are strategies for resolving conflict?
1. Seeking arbitration
2. Actively listening to other people
3. Recognise the early signs of conflict and address them
4. Becoming aware of cultural influences
1,2,4
950. Which of the following statements concerning synergy within a crew is most correct?
Synergy must be built up from the start of the mission (briefing) and be maintained until it comes to
an end (debriefing)
951. Which of the following statements best characterise a synergetic cockpit?
1. Decisions are taken by the captain, but prepared by the crew
2. There is little delegating of tasks
3. Communications are few in number but precise and geared purely to the flight
4. Fluid, consensual boundaries exist in regard to leadership-style
1,4
952. Which of the following statements best characterise a self-centered cockpit?
Without taking note of what the other members are doing, each one does his own thing while at the
same time assuming that everyone is aware of what is being done or what is going on
953. What may become the main risk of a "laissez-faire" cockpit?
Inversion of authority
954. What is characterized by a "laissez-faire" cockpit?
A passive approach by the captain allows decisions, choices and actions by other crew members
HPL - P a g e | 78
955. What are the most frequent and the least appropriate reactions on the part of a co-pilot when faced
with a highly authoritarian captain?
1. Self-assertion
2. A scapegoat feeling
3. Delayed reactions to observed discrepancies
4. Disengagement
2,3,4
956. What are the most frequent results of an self-centred captain on the flight deck?
In a two-pilot flight deck, the co-pilot is ignored and may react by disengaging, showing delayed
responses or demonstrate the scapegoat effect
957. Which of the following describes an autocratic cockpit?
The captain's excessive authority considerably reduces communications and consequently the
synergy and cohesion of the crew
958. What optimises crew co-operation?
1. Sharing and common task
2. Confidence in each others capability
3. Precise definition of functions associated with each crew members role
1,2,3
959. What distinguishes status from role?
While role defines- via behaviour- the functions that must be performed by individuals, status
defines the enjoyment of a hierarchical position and its recognition by the group
960. What characterises the notion of role?
The function and behaviour associated with the particular role
961. What is synergy in a crew?
The coordinated action of all members towards a common objective, in which collective
performance is proving to be more than the sum of the individual performances
962. Which of the following statements concerning conflicts is correct?
Conflict management involves the participation of all involved parties in finding an acceptable
collective solution
963. Action plans (SOP's) in a cockpit must:
Be shared by the members of the crew and updated at each modification in order to maintain
maximum synergy
964. Safety is often improved by applying the principles of CRM, e.g.:
Expression of one's doubts or different opinion for as long as this doubt cannot be rejected on the
base of evidence
HPL - P a g e | 79
965. An efficient flight deck (synergetic cockpit) will be observed when:

Decisions are taken by the Captain with the help and participation of the other crew members
966. A non-synergetic cockpit:
Is characterised by withdrawn crewmembers and unclear communication
967. CRM (Crew Resource Management) training is:
Intended to develop effectiveness of crew performance by improving attitudes towards flight safety
and human relationship management
968. You are transporting a passenger who has to be at a certain destination for a meeting. The weather
forecast at destination tends to be much worse than expected, so you consider diverting. The businessman
offers you money if you manage to land there at any case.
What is your appropriate way of action? You will
Decide to divert if you think it is necessary
969. What is meant by the term CRM today?
Crew resource management
970. Synergy is a commonly used term. What does it mean?
The output from the group is better than the sum of the output from each individual in the group
971. What is meant by "groupthink"?
More or less unconscious support of a solution from group member(s)
972. What is meant by "risky shift"?
The tendency for a group to accept a higher degree of risk then any individual in the group
973. Which of the following statements is correct regarding roles and norms within a group?
An airline captain must conform to a role as a leader in the aircraft, but can act as a follower in the
yacht club
974. Being a copilot implies:
a) Assertiveness
b) Inquiry
c) Advocacy
All of the above mentioned alternatives
975. What characterises a good leader?
The situation, the goals and composition of the group
976. Which one of the following is a typical "primary group"?
A family, gathered to celebrate mother's 40th birthday
977. Which one of these represents the steepest trans-cockpit authority gradient?
The captain makes a decision, orders the copilot, but does not give any explanation to his decision
HPL - P a g e | 80
978. What is meant by "feedback" in communication?

The effect of a message is measured and corrected against the original meaning
979. Which of the following is true for "non verbal communication"?
It often dominates verbal communication
980. An airline captain is extremely focused on getting things done, but shows very little interest in
making the crew work as a team. Where is this captain likely to be on the Blake and Mouton diagram?
High on task orientation, low on relationship orientation, a "Rambo" type
981. An airline captain in Safe Airlines Inc scores very high both on task orientation and on relationship
orientation (ref. Blake and Mouton model). Which of the following will probably best describe his
communication in cockpit?
The captain discusses the situation with his copilot, makes a decision based upon this discussion.
The copilot is asked to evaluate the decision
982. Cockpit automation is traditionally intended to:
Relieve the pilots from certain routine tasks
983. Before take-off, a briefing:
Must be done systematically in order to refresh the memory of the crew members and to coordinate actions
984. Planning:
Allows crew members to anticipate potential risky situations and decide on possible responses
985. An experienced pilot:
Prepares thoroughly for a flight and is able to anticipate the majority of possible problems
986. Having interrupted the captain for a sound reason, the co-pilot should:
Remind him/her of his/her last action before the interruption
987. An important aspect of Situational Awareness is:
When a pilot's perception equals reality
988. The expression "when perception matches reality" describes:
Situational awareness
989. The autocratic leadership style is synonymous with:
An authoritarian style
990. With too much cohesion, Groupthink can be:
Negative
991. Cohesion is a major advantage in times of:
Difficulty
992. Differences of opinion should be regarded as:
Helpful
HPL - P a g e | 81
993. CRM and MCC training are designed to improve:

The quality of crew performance
994. Having made an important decision, a commander of an aircraft should:
Always try to make time to explain the reasons for the decision even if it is after landing
995. The three types of Authority Gradient Cockpits are:
Autocratic, laissez-faire and synergistic
996. A Captain running an autocratic cockpit is normally:
Over-loaded
997. A Captain running a "laissez-faire" cockpit will:
Make few suggestions or decisions
998. The "ideal" cockpit can be termed as:
Synergistic
999. Communication efficiency is most sensitive to:
Workload and interruptions
1000. The use of professional languages offers:
Quick comprehension and simplified grammar
1001. Approximately what percentage of all communication is achieved by factors other than words
(Metacommunication)?
80%
1002. Expressed as a simple mathematical statement when considering a crew of two, good synergy is:
1+1=>2
1003. The first cockpit tool that tends to suffer as a result of stress is:
Cockpit communications
1004. An example of potential conflict between status and role is:
A junior ranked captain flying with a senior ranked co-pilot
1005. Non-verbal communication:
Constitutes approximately 70% of human communication
1006. Feedback in communication implies that:
A message is measured and corrected against the original meaning
1007. "Stereotypes" are preconceptions or prejudices which can lead us to:
Mis-judge individuals even if we have contact with them
1008. Group norms:
Regulate the interaction and the behaviour between the members of a group
HPL - P a g e | 82
1009. Non-verbal communication:

Can serve as a substitute for oral speech
1010. During the conflict resolution process it is important to:
1) realize and to accept the conflict
2) verbalize mutual expectations
3) search for common agreements
4) express one's own viewpoint
1, 2, 3, 4
1011. Attitudes are defined as:
Tendencies to respond to people, institutions or events either positively or negatively
1012. Very high ambition and need for achievement
Disturb the climate of cooperation
1013. Which of the following personality characteristics makes crew decision making most effective?
Assertiveness
1014. Which of the following behaviours is most disruptive to teamwork under high workload conditions in
the cockpit?
Mentally absent
1015. A copilot has passed an upgrading course to become a captain. Which psychological consequence
is most likely?
His/her self-concept is going to change because of new roles and tasks which have to be
incorporated
1016. With regard to the average influence of age on pilot performance, it may be said that age:
Has little impact when the pilot is able to compensate for it by his/her flight experience
1017. Which of the following responses lists most of the common hazardous thought patterns (attitudes)
for pilots to develop?
Anti-authority, impulsiveness, invulnerability, resignation, machismo complex
1018. Which of the following is NOT a hazardous attitude?
Domination
1019. Incapacitation is most dangerous when it is:
Insinuating
1020. Contrary to a person's personality, attitudes:
Are the product of personal disposition and past experience with reference to an object or a
situation
HPL - P a g e | 83
1021. Personality is based on:

1. Heredity
2. Childhood environment
3. Upbringing
4. Past experience
1,2,3,4
1022. The effectiveness of the individual depends on:
The ability to balance the dictates of the individual's needs and the demands of reality
1023. Internal conflict within oneself is termed as:
Intra-personal conflict
1024. The behaviour of a leader depends on:
The situation, the goals and composition of the group
1025. The unique organisation of characteristics which determine the typical or standard behaviour of an
individual is known as:
Personality
1026. A person's attitudes define a set of learned dispositions (likes and dislikes) which:
Influence a person's reaction and response to people, situations, etc
1027. For a normal and healthy person, personality traits are:
Stable
1028. Which of the following answers is correct?
Behaviour is the outward result of personality and attitude and is adaptable
1029. What is self-concept?
How you see yourself
1030. An under-confident and self-effacing co-pilot is promoted to captain. It is not uncommon for such
people have a behavioral pattern which is:
Aggressive if challenged by another member of the crew
1031. The individual's personality:
Refers to unique psychological characteristics
HPL - P a g e | 84
1032. Flying from Frankfurt to Moscow you will have a lay-over of 4 days. What time measure is relevant
for your circadian rhythm on the 3 day?
LT (local time)
1033. Signs of stress include:
Perspiration, dilated pupils, fast breathing
1034. Stress management programmes usually involve:
The prevention and/or the removal of stress
1035. In order to completely resynchronize with local time after zone crossing, circadian rhythms require
Less time when flying from east to west
1036. Using a checklist prior start is a contribution to
Safety, because the concentration on the check list items will draw the pilots attention to flight
related tasks, reducing distraction from personal stress
1037. The human performance is generally
Better when relaxed, independent of the period of day
1038. Which of the following statements is true?
Stressors accumulate thus increasing the likelihood to exhaustion
1039. How should a pilot react, when suffering from chronic stress?
Attempt to reduce the stress by using a concept which approaches the entire body and improves
wellness
1040. In case of in-flight stress, one should:
Use all available resources of the crew
1041. The behavioral effects of stress may include:
1) manifestation of aggressiveness
2) a willingness to improve communication
3) a willingness for group cohesion
4) a tendency to withdrawal
1, 4
1042. The cognitive effects of stress may include:
-1 : excessive haste.
-2 : an improvement in memory.
-3 : a complete block: action is impossible.
-4 : a risk of focusing on a particular aspect.
-5 : ease of decision-making.
-6 : an increase in the rate of mistakes.
The combination which brings together all correct statements is:
1,3,4,6
HPL - P a g e | 85
1043. What is the effect of stress on performance?

-1 : It always reduces performance.
-2 : Optimum performance is obtained with optimum arousal.
-3 : Excessive stress weakens performance.
-4 : Insufficient stress weakens performance.
2,3,4
1044. What are the characteristics of the alarm phase of the stress reactions?
-1 : increased arousal level as a result of adrenaline secretion.
-2 : an increase in heart rate, respiration and release of glucose.
-3 : a decrease in stress resistance.
-4 : activation of the digestive system.
-5 : secretion of cortisol to mobilize attention.
1,2,3
1045. The phases of General Adaptation Syndrome are:
Alarm, resistance, exhaustion
1046. The organism is mobilized by a process known as:
GAS: General Adaptation Syndrome
1047. What is the most decisive factor in regard to a very demanding stress situation?
The subjective evaluation of the situation by the individual
1048. Stress occurs:
-1 : only in a situation of imminent danger.
-2 : only when faced with real, existing and palpable phenomenon.
-3 : sometimes via imagination, the anticipation of a situation or its outcome.
-4 : because of the similarity with a formerly experienced stressful situation
3,4
1049. Cognitive evaluation which leads to stress is based on:
The evaluation of the situation and the evaluation of capabilities to cope with it
1050. Which of the following physical stimuli may cause stress reactions?
-1 : noise.
-2 : interpersonal conflict.
-3 : temperature.
-4 : administrative problem.
-5 : hunger.
1,3,5
HPL - P a g e | 86
1051. Which of the following statements concerning stress is correct?

Stress will be evaluated differently depending on whether it improves or reduces performance
1052. Acute stress quickly leads to
The mobilization of resources required to cope with the stressor
1053. The resistance phase of stress reaction is characterized by:
-1 : activation of the autonomic nervous system (ANS).
-2 : testosterone secretion which enables fats to be converted into sugar.
-3 : a sudden fall in stress resistance.
-4 : the appearance of psychosomatic disorders when lasting over a prolonged time.
1 and 4 are correct
1054. The readjustment of the biological rhythms after a time shift is normally more difficult
With flights towards the East
1055. During paradoxical sleep
Rapid eye movements can be observed
1056. A fatigued pilot
Will show signs of increased irritability
1057. The relationship between arousal and flying performance is
Approximately the form of an inverted U
1058. In a complex task high levels of arousal
Narrow the span of attention
1059. A high level of motivation is related
To high levels of arousal
1060. The physiological rhythms of a pilot in a new time zone will resynchronize to this new time zone at a
rate of about
1 - 1.5 hours a day
1061. The duration of a period of sleep is governed primarily by
The point within your circadian rhythm at which you try to sleep
1062. Stress may be defined as:
A normal phenomenon which enables an individual to adapt to encountered situations
1063. What is a stressor?
An external or internal stimulus which is interpreted by an individual as being stressful
1064. What may trigger stress in humans?
The subjective interpretation an individual gives to a situation experienced
HPL - P a g e | 87
1065. With regards to stress, as it affects human beings, which of the following responses is correct?
Stress is a term used to describe how a person reacts to demands placed upon him/her
1066. If during flight a pilot is in a mental condition of "optimum arousal" he/she will be:
Prepared best to cope with a difficult task
1067. Pilot stress reactions:
Differ from pilot to pilot, depending on how a person manages the particular stressors
1068. Fixation or tunnel vision is primarily to be expected when:
Stress is high
1069. Stress is:
A mechanism by which an individual can respond to situations which he/she may have to face
1070. Experiencing stress depends on:
The individual interpretation of the situation
1071. Stress is a reaction to adapt a specific situation.
This reaction
May include various psychological and physiological elements which one can learn to manage
1072. The individual's perception of stress depends on:
The subjective evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to cope with it
1073. Physiological stressors include:
Noise, temperature (low or high), humidity, sleep deprivation
1074. General Adaptation Syndrome is characterised by the following phases:
-1 : alarm
-2 : alert phase
-3 : resistance phase
-4 : exhaustion phase
-5 : vigilance phase
1,3,4
1075. Which of the following statements in regard to motivation is correct?
Extremely high motivation in combination with excessive stress will limit attention management
capabilities
1076. What are the effects of stress?
It increases vigilance and may focus attention
1077. Of the following statements concerning the effects of circadian rhythms on performance, we know
that:
Sensory motor performance is better in the evening whereas intellectual performance is better in
the morning
HPL - P a g e | 88
1078. In order to minimize the effects of crossing more than 3-4 time zones with a layover more than 24
hrs, it is advisable to:
1. Adapt as quickly as possible to the rhythm of the arrival country
2. Keep in swing with the rhythm of the departure country for as long as possible
3. Maintain regular living patterns (waking ,sleeping alternation and regular meal pattern )
4. Try to sleep as much as possible to overcome negative arousal effects
1,3
1079. Concerning circadian rhythm disruption (jet lag), the effects of adjustment to destination time:
1. are longer for western rather than eastern flights
2. are longer for eastern rather than western flights
3. vary little between individuals
4. may vary greatly between individuals
2,4
1080. What seem to be the main roles of Orthodox sleep?
It essentially allows for physical recovery and the reconstitution of neuron energy reserves
1081. What are the main effects of a lack of sleep on performance?
It increases fatigue, concentration and attention difficulties, the risk of sensory illusions and mood
disorders
1082. What is the effect of tiredness on attention?
It reduces the ability to manage multiple matters
1083. Which of the following statements concerning tiredness is correct?
Tiredness is a subjective sensation which is reflected in hypovigilance or in poor management of
intellectual capabilities
1084. What are the main strategies for adapting to time constraints?
The preparation of action and the prioritization of tasks
1085. The maintenance of man's internal equilibrium is called:
Homeostasis
1086. Workload essentially depends on:
The current situation, the pilot's expertise and the ergonomics of the system
1087. The human circadian rhythm is based on a cycle of about:
24 hours
1088. Disturbance of the biological clock appears after a:
1. bad night's sleep
2. day flight Amsterdam - New York
3. day flight Amsterdam - Johannesburg
4. night flight New York - Amsterdam
2 and 4 are correct
HPL - P a g e | 89
1089. Sleeplessness or the disruption of sleeping patterns

1. can lead to symptoms of drowsiness, irritability and lack of concentration
2. will make an individual more prone to make errors
1. A person experiencing sleep loss is unlikely to be aware of personal performance degradation
2. Performance loss may be present up to 20 minutes after awaking from a short sleep (nap)
1091. The sleep cycles repeat during the course of a night's sleep.
1. Each succeeding cycle contains a greater amount of REM-sleep.
2. Frequent interruption of the REM-sleep can harm a human being in the long run.
1. REM-sleep becomes shorter with any repeated sleep cycle during the night.
2. REM-sleep is more important for the regeneration of mental functions than all the other sleep stages are.
1 is not correct 2 is correct
1093. A stress reaction is:
The non-specific response of the body to every demand placed on a person
1094. A person being exposed to extreme or prolonged stress factors can perceive:
Distress
1095. Getting uneasy will affect:
1. attention
2. concentration
3. memory
4. prudence
1096. The biological reaction to stress is identical regardless of the cause of stress. This mechanism
occurs in three phases and is referred to, by Selye, as the "General Adaptation Syndrome".
The sequence is:
Alarm phase - resistance phase - exhaustion phase
1097. According to the different phases of the "General Adaptation Syndrome" check the following
statements:
1. During the alarm phase stress hormones (i.e. adrenalin) will cause a massive release of glucose into the
blood, an acceleration of pulse and blood pressure as well as an increase in the rate and depth of breathing
2. During the resistance phase the parasympathetic system uses a different type of hormone (cortisol)
assisting to convert fat into sugar thus providing sufficient energy supply to the brain and body cells for
sustained operation.
3. During the exhaustion phase the body has to be given time to eliminate the waste products which have
been generated excessively during the two preceding phases
HPL - P a g e | 90
1098. If coping with a stress situation is impossible, one will remain in the state of:
Distress
1099. Please check the following statements:
1. Adaptation is a new state of equilibrium after having coped with a stressful situation.
2. An individual's prospect of the situation and his/her abilities to cope with it will determine the type and
strength of stress.
1100. Learning to fly naturally induces stress in a student pilot because he is lacking experience.
Manifestations of this type of stress are:
1. nervousness and channelized attention
2. being rough at the controls
3. smoke and drink much more alcohol than usual
4. airsickness, lack of sleep
1101. The level at which a pilot will experience a situation as stressful
Depends on the individual's perception of available abilities in comparison to the situational
demands
1102. An identical situation can be experienced by one pilot as exciting in a positive sense and by another
pilot as threatening. In both cases:
The arousal level of both pilots will be raised
1. Psychosomatic means that mental and/or emotional stressors can be manifested in organic stress
reactions
2. Psychosomatic means that a physical problem is always followed by psychological stress
1 is correct, 2 is false
1. Psychosomatic means that a physiological problem is followed by psychological stress
2. Psychosomatic complaints hardly occur in professional aviation because of the strict selection for this
particular profession
1 and 2 are both not correct
1. A stressor causes activation
2. Activation stimulates a person to cope with it
1106. Circadian cycles cause body temperature to change. At approximately what time of day is our
temperature at its lowest value?
0500
1107. For what reason is it important to be familiar with the circadian rhythm of body temperature?
Peak performance occurs at the time of rising or high body temperature
HPL - P a g e | 91
1108. Following a flight that crosses numerous time zones, the associated shifting of Zeitgebers helps
body clock re-synchronization to the new local time at the rate of:
1.5 hours per day
1109. Which of the following routes will cause the worst Jet lag?
Flight from Oslo to Tokyo
1110. What does stress management involve?
Recognizing stress, accepting it and developing a coping strategy
1111. A person can be expected to carry out the following pairs of tasks simultaneously:
Fly straight and level and talk to ATC
1112. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding REM sleep?
REM sleep re-vitalizes your brain after strenuous mental activity
1113. Which of the following can be called a "stressor"?
Increased cockpit noise
1114. Which of the following is correct regarding the five stages in the sleep patterns?
About 50% of sleep is stage 2
1115. On the inverted U-curve, also called the Yerkes-Dodson curve, being on the extreme left side
indicates:
Sleep
1116. With reference to the sleep/wake cycle of "credit" and "debit" system, 6 hours sleep will put the body
in credit by:
12 hours
1117. When is your body temperature at its lowest?
Early in the morning
Stress is cumulative
1119. How can optimum arousal and vigilance be obtained?
Experts believe that arousal and performance are related by an inverted V-shaped curve. Deep
sleep is at one end, extreme panic the other. Both result in poor performance. Optimum arousal and
vigilance are obtained at the mid-point between the two
1120. Where on the arousal/performance graph is a pilot best placed to cope with a difficult task without
performance degrading?
Below the "breakpoint"
1121. Which is correct:
1) Paradoxic (REM) sleep refreshes the brain, memory and body.
2) Paradoxic (REM) sleep decreases during the night.
Neither
HPL - P a g e | 92
1122. In the case of changes to circadian rhythms, the readjustment to a new time zone:
Is most rapid when flying westbound
1123. If a stop-over is more than 24 hours, the correct action is?
Move to the new time zone as soon as possible
1124. The sleep pattern is closely associated with?
Body temperature
1125. On average most human adults require approximately how many hours of sleep per night?
8 hours
1126. If a crew is having a stop-over of less than 24 hours before returning to their home base, what
coping strategy should be used for jet-lag?
Maintain eating and sleeping cycle based on home time
1127. Which of the following statements is true regarding sleep?
1) Metabolic rate falls
2) Arterial blood pressure falls
3) The pulse rate decreases
4) The sensitivity level of the senses is increased
1, 2, 3
1128. Free running circadian rhythms normally have a cycle of approximately:
25 hours
1129. The normal sleep cycle is approximately every.... minutes
90
1130. Including REM, how many stages of sleep are there?
Five
1131. Among the external factors that may contribute to an error, cockpit noise and the restriction of the
field of view due to windscreen design correspond to:
Ergonomic factors
1132. Ergonomics are associated with:
The human/workplace interface
1133. With reference to the relationship between arousal and performance, the highest level of
performance is achieved when the arousal level is:
Optimum
1134. What is the relationship between the perceived level of arousal and the difficulty of a task to be
completed?
At the outset, the level of arousal should be within the optimum range and therefore at a level where
performance does not suffer
HPL - P a g e | 93
1135. High arousal leads to:

Faster but less accurate responses
1136. Man possesses a system for maintaining his internal equilibrium in the face of variations brought
about by external stimulations. This internal equilibrium is called:
Homeostasis
1137. Of the following statements, regarding stress, which is correct?
Stress may be positive, fatigue is always negative
1138. Environmental sources of stress in the cockpit could be:
1) noise and vibration
2) acceleration
3) radiation
4) extreme temperature
The combination that regroups all of the correct answers is:
1, 2, 3, 4
1139. The resistance phase of stress:
Allows fats to be transformed into sugars, thereby prolonging the mobilization of energy in the
body
1140. In order to limit stress when flying, a pilot should:
Maintain his competence by practicing his professional skills and learning from past experiences
1141. A pilot successfully completes a difficult and stressful landing at an aerodrome. The next time a
landing is attempted under the same conditions and at the same aerodrome, is the pilot likely to experience:
A lower level of stress
1142. Which of the following statement is false?
Stress has essentially negative effects and the human will operate efficiently with an absence of
stress
1143. Physical stress takes place:
When outside conditions put a strain upon the homeostatic mechanisms of the body
1144. Among the physiological responses to stress are:
Sweating, dry mouth and breathing difficulties
1145. The General Adaptation Syndrome is associated with the:
ANS (Autonomic Nervous System)
1146. When can the General Adaptation Syndrome activate?
Responding to an imaginary threat
1147. Does noise (above 90 dbs) improve performance?
Never
HPL - P a g e | 94
1148. It is generally considered that the most serious non-professional stressor is:
Death of a spouse or partner
1149. The "Break Point" is that point after which, if stress continues to rise:
Performance is degraded
1150. Stress may cause regression which can lead to:
Correct actions being forgotten and substituted for procedures learnt in the past
1151. Cognitive Coping is associated with:
Ignoring or rationalizing the stress factor
1152. Select from the following list environmental stressors:
1) heat
2) humidity
3) divorce
4) lack of rest
5) loss of job
6) noise
1, 2, 6
1153. Stress can be defined as:
The unresolved pressure, strain or force acting upon an individual's physical or mental systems
and the human response
1154. What physical symptoms can be attributed to stress?
Insomnia, loss of appetite and a dry mouth
1155. What is a physiological stressor?
A stimulus that produces a change in any of the homeostatic mechanisms of the body
1156. In the alarm stage of response to stress what does the body do?
Recognizes the stressor and prepares the body for action
1157. Which is correct?
1) Stress is an inevitable part of human life and in small amounts is necessary to achieve optimum
performance
2) Each individual has a stress limit which, if exceeded, could result in inability to handle even a moderate
workload
3) Anxiety creates worry which may lead to stress
4) Stress is often perceived by the brain as some form of threat which may cause adrenaline to be released
into the blood stream
1, 2, 3, 4
1158. How will the successful completion of a stressful task affect a pilot's performance when a similar
situation is experienced in the future?
The amount of stress experienced will be less
HPL - P a g e | 95
1159. Which of the following is an example of human under load?

An unexpectedly poor landing at an airfield with which the pilot is familiar, in perfect weather
conditions
1160. From the following list of stressors, which are psychological?
1) noise
2) loss of spouse or partner
3) heat
4) loss of job
5) vibrations
6) credit card debt
2, 4, 6
1161. What are the two inputs to a simple model of stress?
The perceived demand of the task to the pilot and the pilot's perceived ability to complete the task
1162. Which statement about acute or chronic fatigue is incorrect?
Acute fatigue generally has psychological roots
1163. The two types of fatigue are:
Chronic short-term and acute
1164. Which of the following list are symptoms of fatigue?
1) Diminished accommodation
2) Slowed reactions
3) Long-term memory access problems
4) Being over-talkative
5) Diminished motor skills
1, 2, 3, 5
1165. Which of the following list can cause fatigue?
1) Sleep loss
2) Jet lag
3) Boredom
4) Low levels of external stimulation
1, 2, 3, 4
1166. Which of the following list are symptoms of fatigue?
1) Tiredness
2) Faster reactions
3) Diminished motor skills
4) Tunneled concentration
5) Increased long term memory capacity
1, 3, 4
HPL - P a g e | 96
1167. How can a pilot avoid automation complacency?

Regard the automatic system as additional crew members that needs to be crosschecked as well
1168. A high degree of cockpit automation may alter the traditional tasks of the pilots in a way, that
The attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced with the consequence of 'being out of the
loop'
1169. One negative aspect of the highly automated cockpit results in:
Complacency among the crewmembers
1170. If man is compared with a computer, it can be said that man:
Has more effective means of action (output) and is above all capable of considerable synergy
1171. Which of the following operations are performed more effectively by people than by automatic
systems?
1. Qualitative decision-making
2. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon
3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not exceeded
4. Detections of unusual conditions (smell, noise, etc.)
1,4
1172. Which of the following operations are performed more effectively by automatic systems than by
people?
1. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon
2. Long term controlling of a set value (e.g. holding of trajectory)
3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not exceeded (e.g. holding of flight path)
4. Qualitative decision-making
1,2,3
1173. As a result of automation in cockpits,
Communication and coordination call for an even greater effort on the part of the crew members
1174. The performance of the man machine system is above all:
A combination which is based on decreasing the pilot's workload and increasing his time for
supervision
1175. Which of the following drawbacks are associated with automation?
1. Reduced competence in manually controlling the aircraft
2. Increased likelihood of slips while programming automatic systems
3. Difficulties in adapting to the use of a side stick
4. General decrease in technical reliability
1,2
1176. Which of the following persons can be referred to as being complacent?
A car driver driving on green light, but he is not looking neither to the left nor to the right as he
passes the light. It is quite safe to drive on green light
1177. List advantages of automation:
Reduced workload, more time to monitor systems, and, when managed properly, better situational
awareness
HPL - P a g e | 97
1178. Define automation complacency:

Boredom and automation complacency may occur because some portions of flight are so
completely automated that pilots are lulled into inattention and are either bored or complacent
1179. The level of automation helps to conserve resources. On the other hand, it may result in:
Routine errors (slips)
1180. What is automation mode awareness?
Being aware of the active mode(s) and understanding the corresponding actions and responses is
necessary for proper use of the automated system
1181. What is automation complacency?
The circumstance where monitoring and cross-checking is reduced because of the belief in the
infallibility of the automatic system
1182. What are the main advantages of the human over the machine?
Creativity, innovation and aptitude to deal with novel situations
1183. What is meant by "passive monitoring" in terms of automation complacency?
A pilot watching what is going on rather than analyzing and constantly checking
1184. What role should automation play with respect to flight safety?
Automation should be used as an aid to the pilot and not as an end itself
1185. An authoritative leader of a group will:
End to become over-loaded in times of high stress or in an emergency
1186. Having a cold or an infection of the upper respiratory tract you:
Should not fly because the congestion of the frontal sinuses may cause great pain which can
seriously affect your ability to control yourself and the aircraft
1187. What is a motor programme with respect to completing a task?
A behavioural sub-routine which once running does not require conscious thought
1188. Safety culture is relatively enduring, stable and resistant to change. This statement:
Is true
1189. How does motivation affect an individual completing a task?
Motivation reflects the difference between what an individual can do and what the individual will do
1190. According to the different phases of the "General Adaptation Syndrom" check the following
statements:
1. During the alarm phase stress hormones (i.e. adrenalin) will cause a massiv release of glucose into the
blood, an acceleration of pulse and blood pressure as well as an increase in the rate and depth of breathing
2. During the resistance phase the parasympathetic system uses a different type of hormone (cortisol)
assisting to convert fat into sugar thus providing sufficient energy supply to the brain and body cells for
sustained operation.
3. During the exhaustion phase the body has to be given time to eliminate the waste products which have
been generated excessively during the two preceding phases
HPL - P a g e | 98
1191. After a decompression at 43 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be approximately:
5-15 seconds
1192. In an organisation where good safety culture is predominant, the accountability rests largely with:
Management
Civil aviation is generally recognized for being:
An open culture activity
1193. Confrontation in high power distance cultures is:
Generally avoided
1194. Which combination of the following statements are true?
1) Total gas volume of the lungs is not usable
2) Total gas volume of the lungs is fully usable
3) The average lung volume is 5-6 litres
4) The process of gas exchange in the lungs is carried out by passive diffusion
1, 3 and 4
1195. Which of the statements below concerning blood pressure is correct?
It needs to be high enough to guarantee an adequate blood flow to the brain
1196. What is the time limit between a pilot going snorkeling and the beginning of his flight duty?
There is no time limit
1197. Is it possible to survive depressurized flight at 40000 feet for more than 10 minutes?
Yes- provided 100 % oxygen under pressure is immediately available from masks
1198. A pilot can prevent hypoxia by:
Using additional oxygen when flying above 10000 ft
1199. Which gas most readily combines with hemoglobin?
Carbon monoxide
1200. The average annual amount of cosmic radiation received by crew members:
Is about the same as the amount of background radiation
1201. Cosmic radiation:
Is at its strongest at very high altitudes
1202. Adaptation to light
Is done in both eyes separately
1203. The human vestibular system performs spatial orientation by:
Measuring linear and radial acceleration within the inner ear
1204. An illusion of obtaining greater height above ground can occur when:
Suddenly flying over small trees after prolonged flying over tall trees
HPL - P a g e | 99
1205. A 'Graveyard Spin' is:

A spin in which the pilot, on recovery, tends to re-enter the spin due to the somatogyral illusion
where the vestibular system no longer senses radial acceleration
1206. In a multi-crew aircraft taking a nap in the cockpit:
Should last between 15 to 40 minutes
1207. Reasons for lower back pain are:
1) Body mass index (BMI) between 20-25 m2/kg
2) Different lenght of lower extremities
3) Slipped intervertebral disk
4) Muscular tension and fatigue of the back muscles
2, 3, 4
1208. Back problems are common amongst pilots. Effective ways of preventing back pain are:
1) Physiotherapy
2) Loosing weight if person is overweight
3) Good physical condition
4) Hypnosis
1, 2, 3
1209. Dengue fever:
Is spread by mosquitoes that are active during day time
1210. Type 2 diabetes may be prevented by:
Avoiding being overweight
1211. The incidence of type 2 diabetes is increasing worldwide. Risk factors for diabetes type 2 are:
1) Obesity
2) Genetic background
3) Physical activity
4) Low calorie intake
1, 2
1212. In the tropcis gastroenteritis is a common disease among travelers. Which of the following
statements are correct?
1) Gastroenteritis is often caused by bacteria
2) Washing your hands is one of the most effective ways of preventing infection
3) The need for liquids is greater than normal when suffering from gastroenteritis
4) Gastroenteritis is the most common cause of pilot incapacitation
1, 2, 3, 4
1213. In cumulative fatigue:
Even in a normal flight duty period the fatigue may increase up to an unacceptable level
1214. What action should a pilot take when he is suffering from a common cold, has no fever, but his nose
is running and he is unable to clear his ears?
He should not fly, because there is a risk of not succeeding to equalize the pressure between
middle ear and ambient air
HPL - P a g e | 100
1215. Hepatitis A infection:

Can be prevented by gamma globulin or vaccination
1216. Having a cold or an infection of the upper respiratory tract you:
Should not fly because the congestion of the frontal sinuses may cause great pain which can
seriously affect your ability to control yourself and the aircraft
1217. To prevent gastro-intestinal problems in tropical climates you should:
1) Not eat salad or raw vegetables
2) Always peel fruit
3) Only eat food that has been properly cooked
4) Avoid ice cream
1, 2, 3, 4
1218. Can the consumption of alcohol affect sleep?
Yes, it affects the sleep patterns
1219. Which of the following beverages or food stuffs are most likely to contain caffeine?
1) Coca Cola
2) Tea
3) Carrots
4) Chocolate
1, 2, 4
1220. Select the correct statement from the ones below:
The harmful effects of smoking are also detected in parts of the body other than the lungs (e.g.
bladder, kidneys and blood vessels)
1221. Select the correct statement from the ones below:
Smoking reduces the oxygen transport capacity of the cardiovascular system
1222. If the flying pilot becomes incapacitated, the most important action for the non-flying pilot is:
To take control of the aeroplane
1223. Pilots should not take antihistamines because they may cause:
1) Drowsiness and dizziness
2) Hypoglycaemia
3) Hyperventilation
4) Flatulence
1
1224. Which of the following list are factors necessary for the promotion of good quality training?
1) Quality of instruction
2) Motivation
3) Knowledge of results (feedback)
4) A large amount of reference material
5) No time restrictions
1, 2, 3
HPL - P a g e | 101
1225. How does motivation affect an individual completing a task?

Motivation reflects the difference between what an individual can do and what the individual will do
1226. What is a skill?
The capacity to accomplish successfully something requiring special knowledge or ability
1227. What is a motor programme with respect to completing a task?
A behavioural sub-routine which once running does not require conscious thought
1228. Regarding forms of learning what is understood by modelling?
Completing a task by imitation
1229. What is learning?
Gaining knowledge through study and past experience
1230. With which risk is skill based behaviour associated?
Action slip
1231. One of the main positive capabilities in an individual's decision making process is:
Creativity
1232. One of the ways human error in aviation currently being addressed is by 'error tolerance'. What is
error tolerance?
The understanding of human limitations by determining how to live with errors
1233. An important contributor to human error is a false hypothesis or mistaken assumption. What should
a pilot be aware of once he has made a decision?
The pilot should monitor carefully evidence which contradicts his decision
1234. Which of the following list are advantages of teamwork?
1) Personality clashes
2) Workload is reduced by sharing
3) Work stress should be reduced
4) Conformity
5) A decision arrived at by a group is likely to be better quality than that derived by an individual
2, 3, 5
1235. What is meant by the term 'followership'?
The ability of an individual to effectively support a recognised leader by being a good team player
1236. The behaviour of a group can be affected by a number of factors including:
Persuasion, conformity, compliance and obedience
1237. What is the main purpose of a checklist?
To enable the crew to carry out a procedure in a well-defined and orderly manner
1238. A non synergistic cockpit:
Is characterised by withdrawn crewmembers and unclear communication
HPL - P a g e | 102
1239. Symptoms of stress may include:

1) Depression or anxiety
2) Low blood pressure
3) Sleep disturbances
4) Abuse of psychoactive substances
1, 3, 4
1240. Select the correct statement from below:
Stressors at home can add to the effects of the stressors in the cockpit
HPL - P a g e | 103

QDB 15 HPL

Загружено:

Сведения о документе

Оригинальное название

Авторское право

Доступные форматы

Поделиться этим документом

Поделиться или встроить документ

Параметры публикации

Этот документ был вам полезен?

Это неприемлемый материал?

Авторское право:

Доступные форматы

QDB 15 HPL

Загружено:

Авторское право:

Доступные форматы

1.

"Grey out" occurs in case of:

101. How can a pilot increase his tolerance to +Gz?

141. In airline operations decompression sickness symptoms

186. Pulse rate is influenced by the following factors:

218. Which of the following statements are correct?

231. The thin walls of capillaries are permeable for:

258. Which of the following symptoms can indicate hypoxia?

283. Tolerance to decompression sickness is decreased by:

295. Which phenomenon is common to hypoxia and hyperventilation?

308. The general gas law states

327. It is not advisable to immediately fly after donating blood because

370. One of the dangers of extreme cold is that:

398. Generally, the time for dark adaptation is:

423. The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor

440. Flying a coordinated level turn will

470. Noise induced hearing loss is influenced by

479. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

504. Glaucoma is characterised by:

516. Visual disturbances can be caused by:

What unit of measurement is used for intensity of sound?

562. The 5 human senses tend to adapt.

576. Among the factors which affect night vision are:

591. The damaging effects of noise on the pilot depends on:

Sound is measured in:

597. The vestibular apparatus consists of the:

653. Noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) is caused by:

697. Smoking 3 cigarettes in 1 hour at sea level will:

Is it possible to suffer from Aerodontalgia in the descent?

733. The workload may be said to:

754. What are the various factors which guide attention?

788. Regarding arousal, which of the following statements is wrong?

801. We generate mental models on:

832. What means can be used to combat human error?

850. Which of the following is a typical "error of commission"?

863. Which of the following statements is correct regarding decision making?

875. In decision-making, the selection of a solution depends:

886. In order to make sound decisions it is important to:

922. Coaction is a mode of coordination which recommends:

930. The intended recipient of a message must:

965. An efficient flight deck (synergetic cockpit) will be observed when:

978. What is meant by "feedback" in communication?

993. CRM and MCC training are designed to improve:

1009. Non-verbal communication:

1021. Personality is based on:

1043. What is the effect of stress on performance?

1051. Which of the following statements concerning stress is correct?

1089. Sleeplessness or the disruption of sleeping patterns

1135. High arousal leads to:

1159. Which of the following is an example of human under load?

1167. How can a pilot avoid automation complacency?

1178. Define automation complacency:

1205. A 'Graveyard Spin' is:

1215. Hepatitis A infection:

1225. How does motivation affect an individual completing a task?

1239. Symptoms of stress may include:

Вам также может понравиться