1.

Which of the
following polymers is
composed of three
different types of
monomers?
a. proteins
b.nucleic acids
c. tefon
d. cellulose
2. Which statement
about RNA and DNA is
incorrect?
a. The carbohydrates I
nucleic acids are ribose
in RNA and 2deoxyribose in DNA.
b. The bases adenine,
guanine and cytosine
are found in both RNA
and DNA.
c. The fourth base is
uracil in RNA and
thymine in DNA
d. In both RNA and
DNA, guanine and
cytosine always pair by
forming one hydrogen
bond.
3. The functions of
proteins do not include
a. enzymes
b. hormones
c. toxins
d. sugars
4. The order of amino
acids of a protein is
termed the __
structure.
a. isomeric
b. primary
c. secondary
d. tertiary
5. Which of the
following statements
about glucose is false?
a. Glucose is
monosaccharide.

b. Glucose is also
commonly called
dextrose or blood
sugar.
d. Glucose has a
ketone functional
group.
6. The pKb for CH3NH2
is 3.3. What is the
value for Ka of
CH3NH3+
a. 2.0 x103
b. 5 x 1010
c. 2 x 10-11
d. 5 x 10-18
7. The Ka for formic
acid is 1.8 x10 ^-4.
What is the pKb for the
formate ion.
a. 3.74
b.10.26
c.1.87
d.12.13
8. Which of the
following organic
compounds has the
greatest acid strength?
a. phenols
b. alcohols
c. carboxylic acids
d. amines
9. The reaction of
methylamine with HCl
produces ___.
a. ammonia
b. ammonium
methylate
c. methylammonium
chloride
d.chloromethane
10. The Ka values for
acetic acid and ethanol
are 1.8 x 10-18 and 1x
10-18, respectively.
Which of the following
statements is true?

a. Acetate is a weaker
acid than ethoxide.
b. Acetic acid is a
weaker acid than
ethanol
c. Ethanol reacts easily
with strong bases
d. Acetic acid and
ethanol are both
characterized as strong
acids.
11. Which of the
following statements
concerning isomers and
conformation is false
a. Conformation of a
compound differ in the
extent of rotation about
one or more single
bonds.
b. A staggered
conformation is slightly
more stable than
eclipsed conformation.
c. At least one chemical
bond must be broken
and reformed to
convert one isomer to
another.
d. The chair and twist
boast forms two
isomers of
cyclohexane?
12. Cyclohexane can
assume two different
geometries, chair and
twist boat. What is the
relationship between
these two forms?
a. optical isomers
b. geometric isomers
c. structural isomers
d. conformational
isomers
13. Which statement
concerning optical
isomers is false?

a. Optical isomers have

identical physical
properties, except for
their interaction with
polarized light.
b. A racemic mixture is
a single sample
containing equal
amounts of the two
optical isomers of a
compound.
c. Optical isomers react
exactly the same with
any particular
compound.
d. A racemic mixture
does not rotate the
plane of polarized light
because the effects of
the two isomers exactly
cancel.
14. What are the two
types of stereoisomers?
a. geometrical and
optical
b. optical and
positional
c. geometrical and
positional
d. geometrical and
functional group
15. Which of the
following is a chiral
molecule?
a. CH3CBr2Cl
b.CBrCl2I
c. CH3CHBrCH2CH3
d. (CH3)2CHCl
16.What fundamental
class of organic
reactions is a
dehydration reaction?
a. substitution
b. addition
b. polymerization
d. elimination

17. What fundamental

class of organic
reactions results in
increasing of the
degree of unsaturation
of the reacting
compound?
a. substitution
b. addition
c. polymerization
d. elimination
18.Which of the
following statements
about rubber is false?
a. natural rubber is
obtained from sap of
the rubber tree
b. Vulcanization uses
sulfur to prevent
heated rubber from
becoming sticky.
c. To make synthetic
rubber is hardly
possible
d. Zinc oxide is
common filler used in
rubber to increase
durability.
19. Proteins are
examples of
a. natural condensation
polymers
b. synthetic addition
polymers
c. Synthetic
condensation polymers
d. natural addition
polymers
20. Which of the
following is not an
addition polymer?
a. polyvinyl chloride
b. nylon
c. Teflon
d. Styrofoam
21. Benzene and other
aromatic compounds

undergo ___ reactions

readily.
a. addition
b. hydrogenation
c. substitution
d. isomerization
22. In a ___ reaction, an
atom or group of atoms
attached to a carbon
atom is removed, and
another atom or group
of atoms take its place.
a. addition
b. hydrogenation
c. substitution
d. isomerization.
23. Sodium lauryl
sulfate is an effective
__.
a. Lewis acid
b. detergent
c. vasodilator
d. catalyst for
hydrogenation
24. Alfred Nobel
became rich by
discovering how to
make the very sensitive
explosive nitroglycerine
into the more safe to
handle explosive,
dynamite. What was
his method?
a. He carefully distilled
out the impurities
b. He reacted it with
sulfuric acid and
replaced the nitrate
groups with sulfate
groups.
c. He froze
nitroglycerine into a
solid.
d. He absorbed the
nitroglycerin into
diatomaceous meal.

25. Why is it difficult to

prepare only methyl
chloride when reacting
with chlorine?
a. It is difficult to stop
the reaction after only
one chlorine has been
substituted, therefore
the result is a mixture
of compounds with
one, two, three, or four
chlorines per molecule.
b. The reaction is very
slow under all possible
conditions.
c. The methyl chloride
is very unstable and
quickly decomposes.
d. The methane is so
reactive with other
methane molecules
that carbon chains tend
to form.
26.Li, as is often true
for elements of the
second period, differs
in many ways from the
other members of its
family. Li compounds
often resemble the
compounds of what
element?
a. Be
b. Mg.
c. Al
d. B
27. Li compounds
resemble Mg
compounds in some
ways. This is known as
_____.
a. diagonal similarities
b. inert pair effect
c. transition properties
d. allotropic properties
28. Which of the
following statements

about Group I metals is

false?
a. They will react
vigorously with water.
b. They must be stored
under anhydrous
nonpolar liquids.
c. The IA metal halides
react vigorously with
water
d. They can react with
water vapor in air.
29. Which of the
following is not an
example of the
similarities of Li and Mg
compounds?
a. Li, unlike any other
IA metals, combines
with N2 to form a
nitride as does Mg.
b. Both Li and Mg
readily combine with
carbon to form
carbides; other IA
metals do not.
c. Bothe metals exhibit
the +1 oxidation state
in most of their
compounds.
d. The solubilities of Li
compounds are closer
to corresponding Mg
compounds than those
of other IA metal
compounds.
30. What is not a
contributing factor to
the fact that the
magnitude of the
standard reduction
potential of Li is
unexpectedly large
compared to other IA
metals.
a. Li has the smallest
atomic weight

b. The Li+ ion is very

small.
c. The charge density is
very high for Li+ ions.
d. Li+ ions exert a
stronger attraction for
H2O molecules than do
other IA ions.
31. If a copper plated
iron can is scratched,
the iron beneath it
corrodes more rapidly
than it would without
coating. On the other
hand, a galvanized iron
can is not oxidized if its
coating is scratched.
Which statement below
about the process is
false?
a. Copper is less active
than iron.
b. Zinc is more active
than iron.
c. The zinc is
preferentially reduced.
d. Zinc is acting as a
sacrificial anode.
32. Which statement
concerning protecting
metals against
corrosion is false?
a. a metal protected by
a thin layer of a less
easily oxidized metal
will corrode even more
rapidly if the layer is
breached because an
adverse
electrochemical cell is
created
b. a metal may be
directly connected to a
sacrificial anode
c. some metals
naturally form a
protective film on their

surface, often the

metal oxide.
d. Galvanizing is only
protective as long as
the coating layer
remains intact.
33. A zinc bar weighing
3 kg is attached to a
buried iron pipe to
protect the pipe from
corrosion. An average
current of 0.02 A flows
between the bar and
the pipe. How many
years will be required
for the zinc to be
entirely consumed?
a. 600
b. 14
c. 5.99
d. 7
34. Calculate the
reduction potential of
Cu2+/Cu electrode
when [Cu2+]=1 x 10^8M
a. 0.1 v
b. 0.33 v
c. 0.34 v
d. 0.35 v
35. Calculate the
reduction potential of
Zn2+/Zn electrode
[Zn2+]=1 x 10^-8 M
a. -1 V
b. -0.76 V
c. 0.33 V
d. -0.77 V
36. What is the cell
potential for a cell
constructed by
immersing a strip of
manganese in a 1.0 M
MnSO4 solution and a
strip of iron in a 1.0M
FeSO4 solution
completing the circuit

by a wire and salt

bridge?
a. -1.62 V
b. 1.62 V
c. -0.74 V
d. 0.74 V
37. A voltaic cell
constructed by
immersing a strip of
copper metal in 1 M
CuSO4 solution and a
strip of aluminum 0.5 M
Al2(SO4)3 solution.
a. 1.28 V
b. 2 V
c. 2.34 V
d. 2.5 V
38. What is the
numerical value for the
standard cell potential
for the following
reaction?
2 Cr3+ (aq) + 3 Cu (s)
2 Cr (s) + 3Cu2+ (aq)
a.-1.08 V
b. -0.4 V
c. 0.4 V
d. 1.08 V
39. Calculate the
standard cell potential
for the cell Cd|
Cd2+(1M)||Cu2+(1M)|
Cu
a. 0.74 V
b.-0.74 V
c. 0.06 V
d-0.06 V
40. A voltaic cell
consists of a standard
hydrogen electrode
connected by a salt
bridge and a wire to an
electrode consisting of
a strip of Cd metal
dipping into a 1M
solution of Cd(NO3)2.
When the cell produces

current , the electrons

flow through the wire
from the ___ electrode
to the __electrode. In
this cell the ___
electrode acts as a
cathode.
a. Cd, H2, Cd
b.H2, Cd,Cd
c. H2, Cd, H2
d. Cd, H2, H2
41. Which of the
following guidelines for
drawing Lewis formulas
for covalent
compounds is incorrect.
a. One Carbon atom in
a compound may form
both a double and a
triple bond.
b. Hydrogen can never
be a central atom
c. Representative
elements usually follow
octet rule.
d. In neutral species,
nitrogen forms 3 bonds
and oxygen forms 2
bonds.
42. Which molecule
exhibits resonance?
a. BeI2
b. O3
c. H2S
d. PF3
43. How many
resonance structures
does nitrate ion, NO3-,
have?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
44. Assign a formal
charge to each atom of
AsCl3
a. As-5+, Cl-1-

b. As=5-, Cl=7+
c. As=0, Cl=0
d. As=4+, Cl=145. Assign formal
charge to each atom of
[ClO3]a. Cl-1-,O=0
b. Cl-2+,O-1c. Cl-0, O-1d. Cl-2+, O-146. What is electronic
geometry for 5 regions
of high electron density
on a central atom?
a. octahedral
b. square planar
c. tetrahedral
d. trigonal bipyramidal
47. Which of the
following do not count
as regions of high
electron density with
respect to the central
atom in a molecule?
a. single bonds
b. lone pairs on an
outer atom
c. lone pairs on the
central atom
d. double bonds
48. The electronic
geometry
a. octahedral
b. square planar
c. trigonal bipyramidal
d. tetrahedral
49. What angle(s) are
associated with a
central atom that has
octahedral electronic
geometry?
a. 90 and 180
b. 120 and 180
c. 109.5
d. 120
50. What angle(s) are
associated with a

central atom that has

tetrahedral electronic
geometry?
a. 109.5
b. 120 and 180
c. 180
d. 120
51. Which one of the
following is false?
a. All compounds in
which the central atom
is sp3d2 hybridized
violate the octet rule.
b. Sulfur hexafluoride is
an example of a
compound with a
central atom that has
sp3d2 hybridization.
c. All molecules in
which the central
element is sp3d2
hybridized have
octahedral molecular
geometry.
d. All molecules in
which the central
element is sp3d2
hybridized have
molecular geometry.
52. Which of the
following statements
about the valence bond
theory is false?
a. Atoms that do not
complete their octet
use either sp3d or
sp3d2
b. To make 4 single
bonds, an atom will
make 4 sp3 hybrid
orbitals.
c. For an atom to share
more than 8 electrons
it must hybridize d
orbitals.

d. Trigonal planar
molecules use sp2
hybrid orbitals.
53. The hybridization
associated with the
central atom of a
molecule in which all
the bond angles are
120 is___.
a. sp
b. sp2
c. sp3
d. sp3d
54. The hybridization
associated wit the
central atom of a
molecule in which all of
the bond angles are
109.5 is ___.
a. sp
b. sp2
c. sp3
d. sp3d
55. A hypothetical AB4
molecule has two lone
electron pairs on A. The
hybridization at A is
___.
a. sp3d2
b. sp2
c. sp3
d. sp3d
56. Choose the
following false
statement.
a. A sigma bond is a
bond resulting from
head on overlap of
atomic orbitals.
b. A pi bond is a bond
resulting from side on
overlap of atomic
orbitals.
c. A double bond
consists of one sigma
bond and one pi bond.

d. A triple bond may

consist of one sigma
bond and two pi bonds
or of two sigma bonds
and one pi bond.
58. The following
statements regarding
carbon atom involved
in 2 double bonds is
false?
a. The C atom can
make one more bond to
complete its octet.
b. The hybridization is
sp.
c. The geometry is
linear.
d. There are 2 sigma
and two pi bonds.
59. Which of the
following statements
about multiple bonds is
true?
a. a double bond
consists of two sigma
bonds
b. a sigma bond results
from the side on
overlap of p atomic
orbitals
c. a pi bond results
from the head on
overlap of p atomic
orbitals
d. sp2 hybridization in
carbon is associated
with one double bond
and two single bonds
60. How many sigma
bonds and how many pi
bonds does the ethane
molecule contain?
a. 4,2
b.5, 2
c. 5, 1
d. 5,0

61. Which of the

following is not a
common property of
most protonic acids?
a. They have bitter
taste
b. They exchange the
colors of many
indicators
c. Non oxidizing acids
react with metals more
active than hydrogen
to liberate H2.
d. They react with
metal hydroxides and
metal oxides to form
salts and water.
62. Which one is not a
property of acids.
a. They have a sour
taste
b. They react with
metal oxides to form
salts and water.
c. They react with other
acids to form salts and
water.
d. Their aqueous
solutions conduct an
electric current.
63. Which of the
following is not a
common property of
aqueous solutions of
most bases?
a. They have bitter
taste
b. they have slippery
feeling.
c. They change colors
of many indicators.
d. They react with
protonic acids to form
salts and stronger baes
64. Which is not acidic?
a. vinegar
b. blood

c. Drano
d. Car battery solution
65. Which of these is
not basic?
a. Drano
b. vinegar
c. Clorox
d. Lemon juice
66. Which statement is
not consistent with
Arrhenius Theory?
a. acid is a substance
that contains hydrogen
and produces H+
b. base is a substance
that contains the OH
group and produces
OH- in aqueous solution
c. Ammonia is
classified as a base.
d. Neutralization is
combination of H+ ions
with OH- ions to form
H2O.
67. According to
Arrhenius theory which
of the following is a
base?
a. CsOH
b. HOOH
c. CH3OH
d. HCOOH
68. Which statement
concerning the
hydrated hydrogen ion
is incorrect?
a. Hydrogen ion is often
represented in
equations as H+ or
H3O+.
b. It is known that
hydrogen ions exist as
H+(H2O)n where n is a
small integer.
c. The value of n for H+
(H2O)n can be

calculated for almost

all solutions.
d. Although we
represent hydrogen
ions as bare protons,
we know they are
hydrated in aqueous
solutions.
69. According to
bronsted-lowry, a base
is ___.
a. an electron pair
acceptor
b. a proton acceptor
c. electron pair donor
d. proton donor
70. Which one cannot
be a bronsted-lowry
acid?
a. BF3
b.H2O
c. HN3
d. NH4+
71. Which is not an
important postulate if
the kinetic-molecular
theory?
a. Gases consist of
large numbers of
particles in rapid
random motion.
b. The volume of the
molecules of a gas is
very small compared to
the total volume in
which the gas is
contained.
c. The average kinetic
energy of the
molecules is inversely
proportional to the
absolute temperature.
d. There are no
attractive or repulsive
forces between the
individual atoms?

72. Which of the

following statements is
not consistent with the
kinetic molecular
theory?
a. The volume occupied
by the molecules of gas
becomes significant
only at very low
pressures.
b. A given sample of
gas is mostly empty
space except near the
liquefaction point.
c. Collisions between
the molecules of a gas
are elastic.
d. The attractive forces
between the molecules
of a gas become
significant only at very
low temperatures
73. Which statement is
false?
a. The molecules of an
ideal gas are relatively
very far apart on the
average.
b. The molecules of gas
move in unchanging
curve paths until they
collide with other
molecules.
c. The average kinetic
energies of molecules
of samples of different
ideal gases at the same
temperature are the
same.
d. The average kinetic
energies of molecules
of samples of different
ideal gases at the same
temperature are the
same.
74. Which of the
following statement is

false? An increase in
temp. will
a. increase the
molecular weight of
gas
b. increase the velocity
of the gas molecules
c. increase number of
collision
d. increase the average
kinetic energy of the
molecules
75. Which one of the
following statements
does not describe ideal
gases?
a. Gases are less
ideal near their
liquefaction point.
b. Under ordinary
conditions of
temperature and
pressure, gas
molecules are widely
separated.
c. Gas molecules move
in rapid, random,
straight-line paths until
collision occurs with
other molecules,
d. The volume occupied
by the gas molecules
themselves under
ordinary conditions is
large in comparison to
the total volume
occupied by the gas.
76. Which of the
following statements
best describes
effusion?
a. expansion of a gas
when heated
b. movement of a gas
through a very small
opening

c. spontaneous mixing
of gases
d. increasing vapor
pressure due to
increased temp.
77. A mixture of 0.75
mol H2 (g) and 0.75
mol N2 (g) is
introduced into a 15 L
container having a
pinhole leak at 30 C.
After a period of time
which of the following
is true?
a. The partial pressure
of H2 exceeds that of
N2
b. The partial pressure
of N2 exceeds that of
H2
c. The partial pressure
of both gases remain
equal.
d. The partial pressures
of both gases increase
above initial amounts.
78. What is the order of
increasing rate if
effusion for the
following gases? Ar,
CO2, He, N2
a. CO2<Ar<N2<He
b. N2<Ar<CO<He
c. Ar<CO2<He<N2
d. Ar<He<CO2<N2
79. At a given
temperature and
pressure the velocity of
a He molecule would
be __ times the velocity
of CH4 molecule.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
80. What is the
molecular weight of a

gas that diffuses 1.414

times faster than
nitrogen gas?
a. 14 g/mol
b. 4.85 g/mol
c. 46.6 g/mol
d. 23.5 g /mol
81. Which one of the
following statements is
not applicable to
covalent solids?
a. The units that
occupy the lattice
points are atoms.
b. The binding forces in
covalent solids are
shared electrons.
c. Covalent solids have
low melting points
d. Covalent solids are
very hard
82. Which one of the
following is not
applicable to metallic
solids?
a. The units that
occupy the lattice
points are positive ions.
b. The binding forces in
metallic solids are
shared electron pairs.
c. The melting points of
metallic solids vary
over a large range.
d. The hardness of
metallic solids varies
from quite soft to quite
hard.
83. Which one of the
following statements is
not applicable to
molecular solids?
a. The units that
occupy the lattice
points are molecules.

b. Molecular solids
have relatively low
melting points.
c. Molecular solids are
soft compared to
covalent solids
d. Molecular solids are
usually excellent
conductors of
electricity.
84. Which one of the
following is not
applicable to ionic
solids?
a. The units that
occupy the lattice
points are ions.
b. The binding forces in
ionic solids are
electrostatic
attractions.
c. Most ionic solids are
hard and brittle
d. Ionic solids are
usually excellent
conductors of
electricity.
85. Which one is not a
general property of
ionic solids?
a. hard and brittle
b. good electrical
conductors in solid
state
c. relatively high
melting point
d. strongest
interparticle attractions
are electrostatic
86. A 4.305 g sampe of
nonelectrolyte is
dissolved in 105 g of
water. The solution
freezes at -1.23 C.
Calculate the molecular
weight of the solute.
a. 39.7

b. 58.4
c. 46.2
d. 62
87. When 20 g of
unknown compound
are dissolved in 500 g
of benzene, the
freezing point of the
resulting solution is
3.77 C. The freezing
point of pure benzene
is 5.48 C. What is the
molecular weight of the
unknown compound?
a. 120
b. 140
c. 80
d. 160
88. When 35 g of
unknown
nonelectrolyte is
dissolved in 220 g of
benzene, the solution
boils at 83.2 C.
Calculate the weight of
the unknown
electrolyte. Original
boiling point of
benzene is 80.1 C.
a. 130
b.156
c.20.3
d. 194
89. A 0.1 m aqueous
solution of a weak acid,
HA, is 1.5% ionized. At
what temp does it
freeze?
a. -0.0764 C
b. -0.189 C
c. -0.721 C
d. -0.372 C
90. If the Vant Hoff
factor for NaCl is 1.88,
what us the freezing
point of 0.50 molal
NaCl solution.

a. -0.93 C
b. 1.86 C
c. -1.75 C
d. 1.75 C
91. Estimate the
molecular weight of a
biological
macromolecule if a 0.1
g sample dissolved in
50 mL of benzene has
osmotic pressure of
9.76 torr at 25 C.
a. 3.8 x 10^3
b 4.2 x 10^4
c. 5.6 x 10^4
d. 6.7 x 10^4
92. Which one is an
example of emulsion?
a. shaving cream
b. fog
c. mayonnaise
d. fog
93. The tyndall effect
describes ____.
a. reverse osmosis
involving saline
solution
b. precipitation of
colloidal particles using
electrically charged
plates
c. hydrophobic
interactions between
polar and non-polar
molecules
d. the scattering of
light by colloidal
particles
94. Which of the
following statements
about soaps and the
detergents is false?
a. The polar end is
attracted to grease and
oil
b. They have a polar
and non-polar end.

c. they are emulsifiers

for grease and oil
d. they can be
described as
surfactants
95. Which one of the
following statements
about soap and soap
molecules is false?
a. They have a polar
end.
b. They have a
hydrophobic end
c. They are often
sodium salts of long
chain fatty acids
d. The hydrophilic end
of a soap molecule is
attracted by grease.
96. Which of the
following statements is
incorrect?
a. For a pure gas, the
standard state is the
gas at a pressure of
one atmosphere.
b. A superscript 0, such
as deltaH0 indicates a
specified temp of 0 C.
c. For a substance in
solution, the standard
state refers to one
molar conc.
d. All correct.
97. How much heat is
liberated when 11 g of
Mn is converted to
Mn2O3 at std. state
conditions?
a. 96.2 kJ
b. 192 kJ
c. 289 kJ
d 460 kJ
98. Which of the
following statements is
false?

a. The change in E, for

a process is equal to
the amount of heat
absorbed at constant
volume.
b. The change in H, is
equal to the amount of
heat absorbed at
constant pressure.
c. A bomb calorimeter
measure change in H
directly.

d. The work done in a

process occurring at
constant pressure is
zero if delta n gases is
zero.
Calculate the series
limits for the following:
99. Balmer series
a. 4389 /cm
b.27434/cm
c. 12193/cm
d. 6859/cm

100. Brackett series

a. 4389 /cm
b. 27434/cm
c. 12193/cm
d. 6859/cm