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ABOUT DISHA PUBLICATION


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array of Bank / Engg./ Medical & Other Competitive Exam books to help all those aspirants who
wish to crack their respective different levels of Bank / Engg./ Medical & Other Competitive
exams. At Disha Publication, we strive to bring out the best guidebooks that students would find
to be the most useful for all kind of competitive exam.

GEOGRAPHY
SOLAR SYSTEM

The Sun is at the centre of the solar system.


Hydrogen and Helium are the main gases present in the
Sun.

It has a surface temperature of about 6000C.

Light (at the speed of 300,000 km per second) takes about


8.5 minutes to reach the Earth from the Sun.

There are eight planets in the Solar system.

A ninth planet has been recently discovered by NASA


named as Carla.

The sequence of planets according to their distance from


the Sun is Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn,
Uranus, Neptune. The sequence of planets according to
their size (in discending order i.e., from big to small) is Jupiter,
Saturn, Uranus, Neptune , Earth, Venus, Mars, Mercury.
FACTS ABOUT PLANETS

Mercury is the closest planet to the Sun.

Venus is like the Earth in size and mass and hence also
known as the Earths twin.

The Earth is 23 tilted on its axis and thus makes 66


angle with the plane of its orbit

It takes 365 days and 5 hours 45 minutes to revolve around


the Sun.

Earth is known as the watery planet or the blue planet


due to presence of a huge amount of water.

The earth has a protective blanket of ozone layer high up in


its atmosphere to save life from harmful ultraviolet radiations
coming from the sun.
Facts About our Planet the Earth
Estimated age of the Earth : 4600 million years.
Mean distance from the Sun : 149,407,000 kms.
Equatorial diameter
: 12753 kms.
Polar diameter
: 12710 kms
Equatorial circumference
: 40,066 kms.
Period of rotation
: 23hrs. 56mts. 4.09sec. (24hrs.)
Period of revolution
: 365 days 5 hours 48 mts and
45.51 seconds. (365 days)
Total area
: 510,100,500 sq. kms.
The Moon :

The Moon is the only satellite of the earth.

It takes 27 days, 7 hours and 43 minutes to rotate on its axis


(this period of about 27 days is called the sideral month)

and approximately the same period of time it takes to revolve


around the earth. The moons period of revolution with
reference to the sun is about 29.53 days (29 days, 12 hours,
44 mintues and 2.8 seconds). This period is called a synodic
month.
The light from the moon takes 1.3 seconds to reach the
earth.
The size of the Moon is one-fourth (1/4 th) the size of the
Earth.
Gravitational pull of Moon is one-sixth (1/6 th) that of the
Earth.
Jupiter is the largest planet of the solar system.
Saturn has bright concentric rings which are made up of ice
and ice-covered dust particles which revolve around it.
Neptune is very similar to Uranus and can be considered
its twin. Neptune is surrounded by methane rings at sub
zero temperature.

POLITICAL DIVISIONS OF INDIA


India is divided into 28 States and 7 Union Territories.
States and Union Territories of India
State
Andhra Pradesh
Arunachal Pradesh
Assam
Bihar
Chhattisgarh
Goa
Gujarat
Haryana
Himachal Pradesh
Jammu and Kashmir
Jharkhand
Karnataka
Kerala
Madhya Pradesh
Mahrashtra
Manipur
Mehghalaya
Mizoram
Nagaland

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Capital
Hyderabad
Itanagar
Dispur
Patna
Raipur
Panaji
Gandhi Nagar
Chandigarh
Shimla
Srinagar
Ranchi
Bangalore
Tiruvanantapuram
Bhopal
Mumbai
Imphal
Shillong
Aizawl
Kohima

2
Orissa
Punjab
Rajasthan
Sikkim
Tamil Nadu
Uttaranchal
Uttar Pradesh
Tripura
West Bengal
Union Territory
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Chandigarh
Dadra & Nagar Haveli
Daman and Diu
Lakshadweep
Puducherry
National Capital
Territory of Delhi

Bhubaneshwar
Chandigarh
Jaipur
Gangtok
Chennai
Dehradun
Lucknow
Agartala
Kolkata
Capital
Prot Blair
Chandigarh
Silvassa
Daman
Kavaratti
Puducherry
Delhi

6.

THE ISLAND GROUPS


Lakshadweep is a group of 36 coral islands in the Arabian
Sea.
Andaman and Nicobar islands are a group of about 324
islands.
PASTURES (OR GRASSLANDS)
They can be divided into two types:
(i) Tropical Pastures and (ii) Temperate Pastures
Tropical Pastures: They have different names in different
countries. Savanna in Africa and Australia, Campos in Brazil,
Leanos in Venezuela and Colombia.
Temperate Pastures: They are known by the following
names-Prairies in USA and Canada, Pampas in Argentina,
Veld in South Africa, Downs in Australia and New Zealand,
Steppes in Asia (Ukraine, Russia and Manchuria region of
China).

WILDLIFE SANCTUARIES AND NATIONAL PARKS IN INDIA


Name

Important Species

1.

Bandipur National Park

Location
Mysore, Karnataka

2.

Balpakram Sanctuary

Garo Hills, Meghalaya

Tiger, elephant, bison

3.

Chandraprabha Sanctuary

Varanasi, UP

4.

Corbett National Park

Nainital, Uttarakhand

Asiatic lion, tiger, panther, Indian gazelle, sloth


bear
Elephant, tiger, sloth bear, nilgai, panther, sambhar

5.

Dachigam Sanctuary

Jammu and Kashmir

Kashmir stag (Hangul)

6.

Dudhwa National Park

Lakhimpur Kheri, UP

Tiger, panther, sambhar, nilgai

7.

Ghana Bird Sanctuary

Bharatpur, Rajasthan

Siberian crane, spoonbill, heron teal, stork

8.

Junagarh, Gujarat

9.

Gir National Park [Home of the


Asiatic Lion)
Hazaribagh National Park

Hazaribagh, Jharkhand

Asiatic lion, panther, sambhar, nilgai, crocodile,


rhinoceros
Tiger, leopard, sambhar, chital

10.

Jaldapara Sanctuary

Jalpaiguri,West Bengal

Tiger, elephant, sambhar, deer, pigs

11.

Kanha National Park

Mandla and Balaghat, MP

12.

Kaziranga National Park

Jorhat, Assam

13.

Manas (Tiger Sancutary)

Barpeta, Assam

Tiger, leopard, sambhar, chital, panther, antalope,


barking dear, nilgai
Great Indian one horned rhinoceros, wild buffalo,
sambhar, tiger
Tiger, elephant, panther, wild buffalo, one horned
rhinoceros

14.

Mudumalai Sanctuary

Nilgiri Hills, Tamil Nadu

Elephant, deer, pigs

15.

Namdapha National Park

Tiger and elephant

16.

Palamau

Tirap district, Arunachal


Pradesh
Daltonganj, Jharkhand

17.

Parkal

Warangal, AP

Tiger, panther, chital, nilgai

18.

Periyar

Idukki, Kerala

Elephant, tiger, panther, wild boar, gaur, sambhar

19.

Ranganthitu Bird Sancutary

Mandya, Karnataka

Birds

20.

Shivpuri National Park

Shivpuri, MP

Birds

21.
22.
23.

Sunderbans (Tiger Sanctuary)


Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary
Wild Ass Sanctuary

West Bengal
Tamil Nadu
Little Rann of Kutch, Gujarat

Tiger, wild bear, crocodile, deer


Birds
Wild ass, wolf, nilgai, chinkara

Elephant, tiger, bear, sambhar, panther

Tiger, elephant, panther, leopard

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TYPES OF SOIL FOUND IN INDIA

Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) divides


Indian soils into eight groups : (a) Alluvial soil ; (b) Black
soil ; (c) Red soil ; (d) Laterites and Lateritic soil ; (e) Arid
and Desert soil ; (f) Saline and Alkaline soil ; (g) Forest soil;
(h) Peaty and other organic soil.
However, Indian soils are generally divided into four broad
types : (1) Alluvial soils; (2) Regur soils; (3) Red soils and
(4) Laterite soils.
ALLUVIAL SOILS

It covers 40% of the land area. In fact the entire Northern


Plains are made up of these soils.

Crops Grown: Suitable for Kharif & Rabi crops like cereals,
cottons, oilseeds and sugarcane. The lower GangaBrahmaputra Valley is useful for jute cultivation.
REGUR OR BLACK SOILS

They are ideal for growing cotton, they are also called cotton
soils, in addition to their normal nomenclature of Regur
soils.

They cover the plateaus of Maharashtra, Saurashtra, Malwa


and southern Madhya Pradesh and extends eastwards in
the south along the Godavari and Krishna Valleys.

Crops Grown : Cotton, Jowar, Wheat, Sugarcane, Linseed,


Gram, Fruit and Vegetable.
RED SOILS

These soils are developed on old crystalline rocks under


moderate to heavy rainfall conditions.

Red soils cover the eastern part of the peninsular region


comprising Chhotanagpur plateau, Orissa, eastern Madhya
Pradesh, Telangana, the Nilgiris and Tamil Nadu plateau.

Crops Grown: Wheat, Rice, Millets, Pulses.


LATERITE SOILS

Laterite soils are red in colour with a high content of ironoxides; poor in Nitrogen and Lime.

They are found along the edge of plateau in the east


covering small parts of Tamil Nadu, Orissa and a small part
of Chhotanagpur in the north and Meghalaya in the northeast.

Crops Grown: Unsuitable for agriculture due to high content


of acidity and inability to retain moisture.
MULTIPURPOSE PROJECTS OF INDIA

Multipurpose river valley projects, once referred by


Jawaharlal Nehru as 'Temples of Modern India', present an
integrated system of controlling floods, generation of
hydroelectricity, irrigation, development of fishery and
tourists spots, boating, navigation, and draining away extra
water. These projects aim at all round development of river
valleys.

Damodar Valley Project


Hirakud Project
Rihand Project

Kosi Project
Mayurkashi Project
Kakrapara Project
Nizamsagar Project
Nagarjuna Sagar Project
Tungabhadra Project
Shivasamudram Project

Tata Hydel Scheme


Sharavathi Hydel Project
Kundah & Periyar Project
Farakka Project

Ukai Project
Mahi Project
Salal Project
Mata Tila Multipurpose
Project
Thein Project
Pong Dam
Tehri Project
Sardar Sarovar Project

Sagar Dam and Jawahar Sagar


Dam.
On Damodar in Bihar. Based on
Tennessee Valley Project, USA
On Mahanadi in Orissa.
Worlds longest dam : 4801 m.
On Son in Mirzapur. Reservoir
is called Govind Vallabh Pant
reservoir.
On Kosi in Bihar.
On Mayurkashi in WB.
On Tapti in Gujarat.
On Manjra in AP.
On Krishna in AP.
On Tungabhadra in AP &
Karnataka
On Kavery in Karnataka. It is
the oldest river valley project
of India
On Bhima in Maharashtra
On Jog Falls in Karnataka
In Tamil Nadu
On Ganga in WB. Apart from
power and irrigation it helps to
remove silt for easy navigation.
On Tapti in Gujarat.
On Mahi in Gujarat.
On Chenab in J & K.
On Betwa in UP & MP.
On Ravi, Punjab.
On Beas, Punjab.
On Bhagirathi, Uttaranchal.
On Narmada, Gujarat/MP.

DISTRIBUTION OF MINERALS IN INDIA

Iron: India has deposits of high grade iron ore. The mineral
is found mainly in Jharkhand, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Madhya
Pradesh, Goa, Maharashtra and Karnataka.

Bauxite: Major bauxite producing areas are Jharkhand,


Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat,
Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.

Mica: Mica deposits mainly occur in Jharkhand, Bihar,


Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan. India is the largest producer
and exporter of mica in the world.

Copper: It is mainly produced in Rajasthan, Madhya


Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

Manganese: India's manganese deposits lie in Maharashtra,


Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Orissa, Karnataka and
RIVER VALLEY PROJECTS
Andhra Pradesh.
Bhakra Nangal Project
On Sutlej in Punjab, Highest in
Limestone: Major limestone producing states in India are
India. Ht 226 m. Reservoir is
Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh,
called Gobind Sagar Lake.
Rajasthan, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu.
Mandi Project
On Beas in HP.

Gold: Kolar in Karnataka has deposits of gold in India. These


Chambal Valley Project
On Chambal in M.P. &
mines are among the deepest in the world which makes
mining of this ore a very expensive process.
Rajasthan. 3 dams are there :

Salt: It is obtained from seas, lakes and rocks. India is one


Gandhi Sagar Dam, Rana Pratap
of the world's leading producers and exporters of salt.
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4
SOURCES OF ENERGY

Sources of energy are categorised as conventional and nonconventional sources.

Conventional sources are coal, petroleum, natural gas and


electricity (both thermal and hydel).

Non-conventional sources are solar, wind, tidal, geothermal,


atomic energy and bio-gas.

Hydroelectricity : This is the most widely developed and


renewable resource.
It is the cheapest form of power and a renewable source of
power. Hydroelectricity is generated by using the energy
of falling water to rotate the turbines.

Nuclear power : It is based on the release of energy during


spontaneous disintegration of radioactive elements like
uranium or thorium.
AGRICULTURE

About 65-70% of the total population of the country is


dependent on agriculture.

It provides food to the second biggest population of


humans and the biggest population of cattle in the world.

Our agro-based industries are fully dependent on raw


material provided by agriculture.
The combination of agriculture and pastoral farming is called
mixed farming.
These crops are major items of export.
Agriculture
The science and art of cultivation on the
Agri
soil, raising crops and rearing livestock.
Seri
It is also called farming.
Sericulture
Commercial
rearing of silk worms. It
Pisci
+ Culture
may supplement the income of the
farmer.
Pisciculture
Viti
Breeding of fish in specially constructed
Horti
tanks and ponds.
Viticulture
Cultivation of grapes.
Horticulture
Growing vegetables, flowers and fruits
for commercial use.

CROPPING SEASONS IN INDIA


Different cropping seasons are:
Kharif : Crops are sown at the begininning of the SouthWest Monsoon (June) and harvested at the end of the
South-West Monsoon (October). Important Kharif crops
are jowar, bajra, rice, maize, cotton, jute, groundnut, tobacco,
etc.
Rabi : Crops need relatively cool climate during the period
of growth but warm climate during the germination of their
seeds and maturation. Sowing season is October-November
and harvesting season is March-April.
Important Rabi crops are wheat, barley, gram, linseed,
mustard, peas and potatoes.
Zaid : Crops which may be raised throughout the year due
to artificial irrigation, especially in summer. Important Zaid
crops are watermelon, toris, cucumber, leafy and other
vegetables.
INDUSTRIES

The factors which come into play for the location of an


industry are - availability of raw materials, power supply,
labour, transport, capital investment, market and water
supply.
Some of the major industries of the world are the iron
industry, aircraft industry, railway equipment industry,
cotton textile industry and jute textile industry.
Due to its locational advantages, Ahmedabad today enjoys
the status of a premier industrial city in the production of
cotton textiles.
Bangalore has been evolving into a computer software
production centre since the late 1970's and has made
tremendous progress in the field of information technology.
So much so, that it has earned the reputation of being the
Silicon Valley of India.

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1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

Celestial bodies are


(a) Sun
(b) Moon
(c) Stars
(d) All the above
Full moon appears how many times in a month?
(a) Once
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Stars are
(a) those celestial bodies which have their own light.
(b) those bodies which are very big in shape and have high heat.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Which one is a star?
(a) Moon
(b) Sun
(c) Earth
(d) All the above
The heat and light of stars (except sun) does not appear to us
properly because
(a) stars are very distantly located
(b) they emit very less amount of light
(c) stars don't have light and heat
(d) All the above are incorrect
Constellations are :
(a) path traced by moon
(b) path traced by star
(c) various patterns formed by different group of stars
(d) All above are incorrect.
Small bear or Saptarishi group consists of
(a) 5 stars
(b) 3 stars
(c) 9 stars
(d) 7 stars
Pole star is situated in which direction ?
(a) South
(b) North
(c) East
(d) West
The celestial bodies which don't have their own light and are lit by
light of stars are called :
(a) stars
(b) planet
(c) satellites
(d) both (b) and (c)
The earth is a
(a) star
(b) planet
(c) satellite
(d) None of these
Nearest star to earth is
(a) Moon
(b) Pole star
(c) Sun
(d) Mars
Moon is a satellite because
(a) it revolves around sun
(b) it has its own light and heat
(c) it revolves around earth which is a planet
(d) All the above
Solar system consists of :
(a) Sun
(b) Nine planets
(c) Satellites and asteroids
(d) All the above

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

Sun is made of :
(a) some heavy mass of solid
(b) liquid of enormous heat
(c) hot gases like helium and hydrogen
(d) All the above
Which planet is nearest from the sun?
(a) Earth
(b) Venus
(c) Mercury
(d) Mars
Which planet is farthest from sun?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Uranus
(d) Neptune
Arrange the increasing order of these planets based on their distance
from the sun
1. Mars
2. Jupiter
3. Earth
4. Saturn
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 3, 2, 1, 4
(c) 3, 1, 2, 4
(d) 3, 2, 4, 1
The nearest planet to earth is
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter
Which planet is called earth's twin?
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Neptune
Which statement is correct about solar system?
(a) Sun is center of the solar system
(b) Jupiter is the biggest planet in size
(c) Mercury is the smallest planet of solar system
(d) All the above
Why is Aryabhatta famous?
(a) He was a writer
(b) Poet
(c) He was an ancient mathematician and astronomer
(d) He was a famous artist
The shape of earth is described as
(a) spherical
(b) circular
(c) geoid
(d) paraboloid
Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the columns:
(A) Earth
(i) Dwarf planet
(B) Pluto
(ii) Star
(C) Moon
(iii) Blue planet
(D) Sun
(iv) Satellite
(a) A-(iii), B-(i) C-(iv), D-(ii)
(b) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(c) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
Choose the correct statement(s)?
(a) Moon does not have life because it does not have atmosphere
(b) Asteroids are those celestial bodies which are found between
orbits of Mars and Jupiter
(c) Meteoroits are pieces of rock which move around the sun
(d) All the above are correct
Choose the correct statement?
1
Galaxy is a system of billions of stars dust and gas.
2
Solar System is part of a galaxy.
3
Our galaxy is Milky Way.
4
Milky Way is also called "Akash Ganga".

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26.

27.

28.

29.

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31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) only 3
(d) all 1, 2, 3 and 4
A meteor is :
(a) a rapidly moving star
(b) a piece of matter which has entered the earth's atmosphere
from outer space
(c) part of a constellation
(d) a comet without a tail
Among the following, which planet takes maximum time for one
revolution around the Sun?
(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mars
(d) Venus
In order of their distances from the Sun, which of the following
planets lie between Mars and Uranus?
(a) Earth and Jupiter
(b) Jupiter and Saturn
(c) Saturn and Earth
(d) Saturn and Neptune
Which one of the following planets has the largest number of
natural satellites or moons?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Saturn
(d) Venus
From full moon to new moon, less and less of the moon is
illuminated. Half of the moon faces the earth, and this position of
moon is said to be;
(a) Waning
(b) Gibbous
(c) Waxing
(d) Crescent
In the Suns family there are ;
(a) eight planets
(b) nine planets
(c) ten planet
(d) six plants
Which one of the following direction is indicated by the pole star?
(a) East
(b) North
(c) South
(d) West
Which of the following statements in regard to the galaxy is correct?
(a) Numerous tiny bodies that move around the sun are called
galaxies
(b) Galaxy is found between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter
(c) A galaxy is a huge system of billions of stars and clouds of
dust and gases
(d) A galaxy does not have a sun
Which of the following planets is known as the Earths twin?
(a) Saturn
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Mercury
Which planets are known as the big four?
(a) Saturn, Uranus, Neptune and Mercury
(b) Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune and Uranus
(c) Earth, Venus, Mars and Jupiter
(d) Venus, Mercury, Mars and Saturn
Asteroids revolve around the sun in the space between
(a) Jupiter and Saturn
(b) Uranus and Neptune
(c) Mars and Jupiter
(d) Mercury and Venus
Which of the following definitions is incorrect?
(a) The elongated path on which the planets move around the
sun are called orbits.
(b) The word planet comes from the English word Plantai
which means wanderers.
(c) The small pieces of rock that move around the sun are called
meteorites.
(d) A galaxy is a huge system of billions of stars, and clouds of
dust and gases.
What are the poles?
(a) Poles are end points of earth in north and south direction
(b) They are end points of earth in east and west direction

39.
40.

41.
42.

43.

44.

45.
46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

(c) They are imaginary lines


(d) All the above are correct
Greenwich line passes through which country?
(a) England
(b) U.S.A
(c) India
(d) China
The direction of rotation of earth is
(a) form east to west
(b) from west to east
(c) some times from east, sometimes from west
(d) None of these
Maps which shows natural features of the earth are called
(a) political maps
(b) physical maps
(c) natural maps
(d) None of these
A map is a representation or a drawing of
(a) a small part of the earth.
(b) the earths surface or a part of it drawn on a flat surface
according to a scale.
(c) the earths surface.
(d) None of these
Which one is the correct statement ?
(1) Equator is an imaginary line running on the globe which
divides it into two equal parts
(2) Earth has two poles - north pole and south pole
(3) Northern half of the earth is known as northern hemisphere
and southern half is known as southern hemisphere
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1, 2
(c) All 1, 2, 3
(d) All are incorrect
Frigid Zones are very cold because
(a) They lie close to poles
(b) In these zones the sun does not rise much above the horizon
so its rays are always slanting and provide less heat
(c) (a) and (b) both are correct
(d) All the above are incorrect
Which of the following cities is nearest to the equator?
(a) Colombo
(b) Jakarta
(c) Manila
(d) Singapore
Which one of the following straits is nearest to the International
Date Line?
(a) Malacca Strait
(b) Bering Strait
(c) Strait of Florida
(d) Strait of Gibraltar
If the stars are seen to rise perpendicular to the horizon by an
observer, he is located on the:
(a) Equator
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) South Pole
(d) North Pole
Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The real earth has a needle that passes through earths centre
(b) Axis is an imaginary line
(c) The earth moves around its axis.
(d) The north and south end of the earths axis are called north
and south pole respectively.
Which of the following statements in regard to the motion of the
earth is correct?
(a) The day and night are caused due to the earths rotation.
(b) The earth takes about 365 days to complete one rotation
(c) The earth rotates from east to west
(d) Rotation of the earth causes seasons
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) An imaginary line
(i) Equator
that divides the earth
into two equal halves
(b) These are measured in (ii) Parallels of latitudes and
percentage
longitudes
(c) 0 longitude
(iii) Prime meridian
(d)

1
66 S
2

(iv) Antartic circle

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7
51.

Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the list.
List I
List II
(A) 0 latitude
(i) Standard meridian of India

63.

1
(B) 88 E
2

64.

(C)

1
23 S
2

(D) 66

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

(ii)

Arctic Circle

(iii) Equator

1
N
2

(iv) Tropic of Capricorn

Codes :
(a) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (ii)
(b) A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (iv), D - (i)
(c) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (iv)
(d) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iv)
The movement of earth around the sun in a fixed path is called
(a) spinning
(b) revolution
(c) rotation
(d) None of these
Which of the following is a planet with water cycle on it?
(a) Saturn
(b) Mars
(c) Venus
(d) Earth
Which of the following definitions is not correct?
(a) Rotation is the movement of the earth on its axis.
(b) The movement of the earth around the sun in a fixed path or
orbit is called revolution.
(c) The period of rotation is called the universe day.
(d) The circle that divides the day from night on the globe is
known as the circle of illumination.
The fact that only half of the earth gets light from the sun at a time
is due to the reason.
(a) Spherical shape of the earth
(b) Motion of the earth
(c) Revolution of the earth
(d) None of these
Which of the following statements in regard to the summer solstice
is false?
(a) It occurs on 21st June
(b) Northern hemisphere faces the sun at this time
(c) Days are longer than the nights
(d) Nights are longer than the days
In which of the following seasons, Christmas is celebrated in
Australia?
(a) Spring
(b) Summer
(c) Autumn
(d) Winter
On which of the following dates the days and nights are equal on
the earth?
(a) 21 June and 23 September
(b) 3 January and 4 June
(c) 21 March and 23 September
(d) 22 December and 20 March
The worlds largest chain of mountains above sea level is:
(a) The Andes.
(b) The Alps
(c) The Himalayas.
(d) The Rockies
The earth is going around the sun in an
(a) circular orbit
(b) rectangular orbit
(c) elliptical orbit
(d) None of these
How many countries share land boundaries with India?
(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Seven
(d) Nine
Which is the largest and smallest state in terms of area in India?
(a) Goa; Bhopal
(b) Rajasthan; Goa
(c) Delhi; Gujarat
(d) Kerela; Goa

65.
66.

67.
68.
69.

70.

71.

72.
73.

74.

75.

76.
77.
78.

Into how many parallel ranges is the Himalayan Mountain range


divided?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 5
What do you mean by 'alluvial deposits'?
(a) These are very fine soils, brought by rivers and deposited in
the river basin
(b) These are pebbles and stones scattered over a large piece of
land
(c) Both 'a' and 'b'
(d) None of them
Which is the world's largest delta?
(a) Sunderbans delta
(b) Ganga-Brahmaputra delta
(c) Beas-Chenab delta
(d) Godavari delta
Why is there high concentration of population in the Northern
Indian Plains?
(a) Because they are generally flat and level
(b) Because the river plains provide fertile land for cultivation
(c) Because all the rivers provide water
(d) All of them
In which part of India does the Great Indian Desert lie?
(a) Western
(b) Eastern
(c) Northern
(d) Southern
Narmada and Tapti are west flowing rivers that drain into the
(a) Arabian Sea
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) None of them
Which of the following is/are east flowing river(s) and drain into
the Bay of Bengal?
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Godavari
(c) Krishna
(d) All of them
Lakshadweep Islands are ___________ Islands located in the
Arabian Sea
(a) Coral
(b) Maldives
(c) Both 'a' and 'b'
(d) None of them
Which longitude's local time has been taken as the Indian Standard
Time?
(a) 89 degree 45' E
(b) 75 degree 30' E
(c) 82 degree 30' E
(d) None of them
Which of the following is the largest state of India?
(a) Bihar
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) None of these
The Sunderbans delta is characteristic of the
(a) Deccan plateau
(b) Himalayan mountains
(c) Western Ghat
(d) Ganga -Brahmaputra plains
Which of the following rivers does not drain into the Bay of
Bengal?
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Krishna
(c) Yamuna
(d) Ganga
Tsunami is a
(a) volcano
(b) game show
(c) huge sea wave generated due to an earthquake on the sea
floor.
(d) None of these
Which is the coldest inhabited place of the world?
(a) Kargil
(b) Srinagar
(c) Leh
(d) Drass
What do you call the hot and dry winds?
(a) Hawa
(b) Zoo
(c) Loo
(d) None of them
What do the winds that blow from the Arabian Sea and Bay of
Bengal towards the land, carry with them?
(a) Moisture
(b) Sand
(c) Stones
(d) Leaves

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79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

In which part of Africa is the Sahara desert situated?


(a) Eastern
(b) Western
(c) Northern
(d) Southern
Which of the following experience moderate climate?
(a) Drass and Kargil
(b) Jaisalmer and Bikaner
(c) Mumbai and Kolkata (d) All of them
Which of the following receives the world's highest rainfall?
(a) Mawsynram
(b) Lucknow
(c) Delhi
(d) Mumbai
What do you mean by Natural Vegetation?
(a) Small plants
(b) Plants which grow on their own without interference or help
from human beings
(c) Forests
(d) None of them
Which of the following tree(s) grow in Tropical Rain Forests?
(a) Mahogany
(b) Ebony
(c) Rosewood
(d) All of them
Which are the monsoon forests?
(a) Tropical evergreen forests
(b) Tropical deciduous forests
(c) Tropical rain forests
(d) None of them
Where are Tropical Deciduous forests found?
(a) MP and UP
(b) Bihar
(c) Orissa
(d) All of them
Which of the following grow as thorny bushes in Rajasthan, Punjab,
Haryana and Gujarat?
(a) Cactus
(b) Khair
(c) Keekar
(d) All of them
Where can the Mangrove forests survive?
(a) In soft water
(b) In saline water
(c) In mud
(d) In a desert
Sundari is a well known species of trees in ____________ forests
after which Sunderbans have been named
(a) mangrove
(b) deciduous
(c) evergreen
(d) mountain
What is our national animal?
(a) Lion
(b) Tiger
(c) Elephant
(d) Goat
What is our national bird?
(a) Toucan
(b) Bulbul
(c) Peacock
(d) Duck
From which animal is Shetoosh wool is obtained?
(a) Polar Bear
(b) Yak
(c) Tibetan Antelope
(d) None of them
In which regions do shrubs and scrubs grow?
(a) Region of heavy rain
(b) Region of moderate rain
(c) Region of less rain
(d) None of them
From which wood are the finest cricket bats made?
(a) Wood of Poplar trees (b) Wood of Willow trees
(c) Wood of Teak trees
(d) None of them
Through which pass does the National Highway 1A connect Leh
to Kashmir?
(a) Rohtang pass
(b) Baralacha pass
(c) Lungalacha pass
(d) Zojila pass
In Brazil, Tropical Grasslands are called
(a) Savannah
(b) Campos
(c) Llanos
(d) Pampas
Tafilalet Oasis is found in
(a) Morocco
(b) Libya
(c) Egypt
(d) Algeria

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

109.

What kind of vegetation is found in Tundra region?


(a) Mosses
(b) Lichens
(c) Very small shrubs
(d) All of them
Where is the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin situated?
(a) It lies in the sub-tropical region
(b) It lies in the north-temperate region
(c) It lies beside the Nile river
(d) None of them
What are the main areas of the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin?
(a) Plains of Ganga and the Brahmaputra
(b) The mountains and the foothills of the Himalayas
(c) Sunderbans delta
(d) All of them
Name one of the important rivers which flows through Ladakh?
(a) Ganga
(b) Yamuna
(c) Brahmaputra
(d) Indus
The main crop grown in the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin is ____
(a) wheat
(b) barley
(c) paddy
(d) jute
On which river is Kolkata port situated?
(a) Betul
(b) Tapti
(c) Hooghly
(d) Ganga
Johannesburg is known for being the _______ capital of the world.
Whereas, Kimberly is famous for its ________ mines
(a) gold; diamond
(b) iron; gold
(c) diamond; iron
(d) None of them
What do you mean by desert?
(a) An area covered with grasslands
(b) A region full of green plants
(c) A region having extremely low and high temperature and
scarce rainfall
(d) A region full or flowers
In which continent is the world's largest desert situated?
(a) Asia
(b) Africa
(c) Australia
(d) South America
How many countries does the Sahara desert touch?
(a) 10
(b) 8
(c) 11
(d) 5
Which mineral has transformed the Sahara desert?
(a) Coal
(b) Iron Ore
(c) Oil
(d) None of them
Match column I with column II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the columns:
Column I
Column II
A. Tropical Evergreen
(i) Birds like pheasants and
Forest
monals are found here
B. Tropical Deciduous
(ii) They comprise both hard
Forest
and soft wood trees
C. Temperate Evergreen (iii) They are also called
Forest
tropical rainforest
D. Temperate Deciduous (iv) They are the monsoon
Forest
forests found in a large
part of India, Northern
Australia and in Central
America
(a) A-(i); B-(ii);C-(iii); D-(iv)
(b) A-(iii); B-(iv); C-(ii); D-(i)
(c) A-(ii); B-(i); C-(iv); D-(iii)
(d) A-(iv); B-(iii); C-(i); D-(ii)
Which of the following is celebrated as the wildlife week?
(a) First week of June
(b) First week of December
(c) First week of November
(d) First week of October

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110. Match the two columns and
Column I
Types of Forest
(A) Tropical Rain
Forest
(B) Tropical Deciduous
Forest
(C) Mountain Forest

select the correct alternative


Column II
Important Trees
(i) Pine, Deodar and
Spruce
(ii) Bamboo, Cinchona and
Mahogany
(iii) Kikar, Babul, Date and
Palm
(D) Thorn Forest
(iv) Neem, Teak, Shisham and
Sal
(a) A (iv), B (iii), C (ii), D - (i)
(b) A (ii), B (iii), C (i), D - (iv)
(c) A (ii), B (iv), C (i), D - (iii)
(d) A (i), B (ii), C (iii), D - (iv)
111. Match the type of Forest with the type of Climate and their
Location. Accordingly select the correct alternative:

Type of Fores t
(A ) Tropical Evergreen

Climate

Country /
Location
I. Rainy W inter / (i) Italy
Dry summer

(B) Temperate Evergreen II. Severe winter / (ii) Southern


short summer
Canada
(C) M editerranean

(D) Coniferous

112.
113.
114.

115.

116.

117.
118.

119.

III. M oderate
(iii) Zaire
temperature /
rain in winter
and s pring
IV. Heavy
(iv) South
Rainfall and
Eas tern
abundant
A us tralia
Sunshine

(a) A IV - iii, B III - iv, C I - i, D II ii


(b) A IV - i, B II - iv, C III - ii, D I - iii
(c) A I - iii, B II - ii, C IV - iv, D III - i
(d) A III - iv, B IV - i, C I - iii, D II - ii
Which of the following is used to save surface runoff ?
(a) Forest cover
(b) Water harvesting
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Which of the following types of irrigation is used in dry regions?
(a) Canal irrigation
(b) Trickle irrigation
(b) Well irrigation
(d) Tank irrigation
Which of the following are the awareness programmes to save the
wild animals and forest wealth?
(a) Green Delhi, Clean Delhi (b) Vana Mohatasav
(c) Social forestry
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Which of the following is the largest river basin in the world?
(a) Nile basin
(b) Yamuna basin
(c) Amazon basin
(d) Hwang-Ho basin
What is latitudinal extent of the Ganga- Brahmaputra basin?
(a) 10S to 10 N
(b) 10 N to 30 N
(c) 20 S to 30 S
(d) 5 N to 5S
Which of the following is known as the gold capital of the world?
(a) Egypt
(b) South Africa
(c) Kimberley
(d) Johannesburg
Merino is a species of
(a) sheep
(b) elephant
(c) fish
(d) cow
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Coniferous forests Taiga
(b) Tropical Deciduous forests Indian forests
(c) Tropical Evergreen forests Tropical rainforests
(d) Tropical grasslands Savannah

120. How many layers does the earth have?


(a) 5 layers
(b) 3 layers
(c) 2 layers
(d) 1 layer
121. The uppermost layer of earth is called
(a) crust
(b) mantle
(c) core
(d) None of these
122. On the continental mass, to what extent is the crust expanded:
(a) 20 km
(b) 25 km
(c) 35 km
(d) None of these
123. The continental masses are mainly composed of
(a) silica
(b) alumina
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these
124. The oceanic crust is mainly composed of :
(a) silica
(b) magnesium
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these
125. Mantle extends up to a depth of :
(a) 1900 km
(b) 2900 km
(c) 3900 km
(d) 4900 km
126. What are fossils?
(a) The remains of the dead plants and animals
(b) Molten magma
(c) Igneous rocks
(d) All the above
127. Which one is an example of Sedimentary Rock?
(a) Sandstone
(b) Granite
(c) Marble
(d) None of these
128. Petroleum and fuel oil is found in which type of Rock?
(a) Igneous
(b) Sedimentary
(c) Metamorphic
(d) None of these
129. Taj Mahal is made from which type of rock?
(a) Sedimentary
(b) Igneous
(c) Metamorphic
(d) None of these
130. Petroleum and coal are made by
(a) fossils
(b) crust
(c) core
(d) None of these
131. The movement of earth plates occurs due to :
(a) molten magma
(b) crust
(c) mantle
(d) None of these
132. Which one does not fall under category of endogenic forces?
(a) Earthquake
(b) Volcano
(c) Landslide
(d) Glaciers
133. Earthquake occurs because
(a) When magma inside earth comes out
(b) High pressure wind blows
(c) Lithosphere plates move, causing the earths surface to
vibrate.
(d) None of these
134. The scale which is used to measure earthquake is
(a) Richter scale
(b) Pitcher scale
(c) Fitzer scale
(d) None of these
135. When a river tumbles at steep angles over hard rocks, it forms:
(a) waterfalls
(b) meanders
(c) flood plain
(d) None of these
136. When a river enters in a plain, it twists and forms large bends
known as :
(a) waterfall
(b) meanders
(c) flood plains
(d) None of these
137. The radius of the earth is ________km.
(a) 6000
(b) 6371
(c) 6800
(d) 7000
138. Igneous rocks are characterised by
(a) full of fossils and fauna
(b) stratification
(c) deposition of sediments
(d) None of these

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139. Sedimentary rocks consists of :
(a) lime
(b) clay
(c) volcanic
(d) plants and animals
140. Which of the following is helpful in obtaining knowledge of the
earths interior ?
(a) Occurence of earthquakes
(b) Study of ocean floor
(c) Study of deep bores
(d) Study of seismic waves
141. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Clay
Slate
(b) Limestone
Marble
(c) Sandstone
Gneiss
(d) Shale
Schist
142. Which of the following metamorphic rocks is used in the formation
of Taj Mahal?
(a) Slate
(b) Gneiss
(c) Sandstone
(d) White marble
143. A volcano is a
(a) vent in the earths crust through which molten material erupts
suddenly.
(b) opening in the earths surface through which water comes
out.
(c) force that works on the surface of the earth.
(d) None of these
144. Which of the following instruments is used to measure an
earthquake ?
(a) Barometer
(b) Rain gauge
(c) Seismograph
(d) None of these
145. Which of the following is a cold desert ?
(a) Thar
(b) Sahara
(c) Ladakh
(d) None of these
146. What does Khapa-Chan mean ?
(a) Sand land
(b) Snow land
(c) Water area
(d) All of these
147. What do you mean by natural resources?
(a) All things are resources
(b) Any material that constitutes part of the Earth and is used
and valued by human beings is called a resource.
(c) All man made materials are resources
(d) All of the above
148. What is 'Sedentary Agriculture'?
(a) Farming of land at different sites
(b) Farming of land at a fixed location instead of moving from
one site to another
(c) Farming of cereals and pulses
(d) None of them
149. How would you define 'Renewable Resources'?
(a) Resources which are always available and do get exhausted
after some time
(b) Resources which are always available and do not get
exhausted
(c) Resources which are not always available
(d) All of them
150. Give one example of Non-Renewable resource.
(a) Fossil fuels
(b) Wood
(c) Solar energy
(d) Wind energy
151. What do you mean by a 'reserve'?
(a) It is that portion of the actual resource, which can be
developed profitably with the available technology
(b) This is a resource that cannot be developed further
(c) It requires a lot of time and energy of human beings
(d) None of them

152. Respiratory diseases such as bronchitis and pneumonia increase


due to
(a) water pollution
(b) air pollution
(c) sound pollution
(d) None of these
153. What is soil erosion?
(a) The removal of the fertile top soil is called soil erosion
(b) The addition of humus to the soil is called soil erosion
(c) The weathering of rocks is called soil erosion
(d) None of the above
154. Physical factors responsible for soil erosion is /are
(a) slope of the land
(b) intensity of rainfall
(c) velocity of wind blowing in that area
(d) All of them
155. What are human factor(s) responsible for soil erosion?
(a) Overgrazing of green pastures
(b) Deforestation
(c) Over irrigation of lands
(d) All of the above
156. Why is earth called a 'Blue planet'?
(a) Colour of earth is blue
(b) Earth is covered with the layer of blue air
(c) 71% of earth is covered with oceans, which appear blue
from above
(d) None of them
157. Why are dams made?
(a) To let water flow into the villages so that they are flooded
(b) To store water so that at the time of shortage it can be used
(c) To purify water
(d) None of them
158. What is a mine?
(a) A mine is a pit in the rock
(b) A mine is an excavation in the ground for digging out minerals
(c) A mine is a dense forest
(d) None of the above
159. Gold and silver are found as ores in __________ rocks.
(a) sedimentary
(b) clay
(c) igneous
(d) None of the above
160. Bauxite is an ore of _________
(a) aluminum
(b) iron
(c) gold
(d) copper
161. What is meant by recycling of metals?
(a) Taking the metals cycle form one place to another
(b) Using the discarded metals once again
(c) Mixing the discarded metals with paper
(d) Washing the metals and polishing them
162. Peat, lignite, bituminous and anthracite are examples of which
product?
(a) Mineral Oil
(b) Coal
(c) Metallic Ores
(d) Non- Metallic Ores
163. What is Geothermal Energy?
(a) It is muscular energy
(b) It is energy produced by human beings
(c) It is the natural heat found in the interiors of the earth
(d) None of them
164. What is meant by 'biomes'?
(a) Group of animals living in similar climatic conditions
(b) Human beings having similar physical characteristics living
together
(c) Areas having same kind of soil
(d) Distinct groups of communities of plants, animals and soil
organisms in areas having similar climatic conditions
165. Atmospheric pressure depends on
1. Altitude
2. Temperature

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11

166.

167.

168.

169.

170.

171.
172.
173.
174.

175.

176.

177.

3. Earth rotation
4. Moons pull
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which types of energy are stored in fossil fuels?
(a) Solar energy
(b) Electrical energy
(c) Chemical energy
(d) Heat energy
Recycling can help conserve ................. resources.
(a) water
(b) air
(c) soil
(d) None of these
Match the two columns and select the correct alternative
Mineral
Information related
to that mineral
(A) Bauxite
(i) Non-Metallic mineral
(B) Haematite
(ii) Aluminium
(C) Mica
(iii) Found in Malaysia
(D) Tin
(iv) Best quality Iron Ore
(a) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
(b) A - ii, B - iii, C- i, D - iv
(c) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii
(d) A - i, B- ii, C - iii, D - iv
An animal being wiped out from the earth's face by poaching and
other harmful activities is called
(a) extinct
(b) endangered
(c) carnivore
(d) marsupial
Match the Crops with the Soil required by them and accordingly
select the correct alternative:
Crop
Soil Required
(A) Tea
(i) Alluvial soil with clayey subsoil
(B) Millets
(ii) Well drained loamy soil
(C) Rice
(iii) Less fertile and sandy Soil
(D) Coffee
(iv) Hill slopes with alluvial soil
(a) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
(b) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
(c) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii
(d) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
In India, major wind farms to generate wind energy are set up at:
(a) Hissar (Haryana)
(b) Lucknow (Uttar Pradesh)
(c) Patna (Bihar)
(d) Nagercoil (Tamil Nadu)
This is not a soil forming process.
(a) Gleying
(b) Hydration
(c) Weathering
(d) Translocation
Which of the following is a man-made resource?
(a) Drinking water
(b) Trees
(c) Air to breathe
(d) Delhi Metro
Which of the following statements regarding railways is not
correct?
(a) Diesel and electric engines have largely replaced the steam
engines.
(b) The railway network is well developed in the plain areas.
(c) Indian railways is the largest in the world.
(d) Indian railways network is well developed.
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Ganga-Brahmaputra

India
Inland waterway
(b) Amazon Inland

Europe
waterway
(c) River/Nile waterway
Africa
(d) The Great lakes

North America
Which of the following is a non-metallic mineral?
(a) Silver
(b) Copper
(c) Gold
(d) Petroleum
Which of the following are the worlds largest producers of tin?
(a) India
(b) Bolivia
(c) Brazil
(d) Both (b) and (c)

178. India is the largest producer and exporter of ______ in the world.
(a) Bauxite
(b) Mica
(c) Limestone
(d) Salt
179. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
List I
List II
(A) Gold
(i) Buried sunshine
(B) Coal
(ii) Black gold
(C) Petroleum
(iii) Organic fuel
(D) Biogas
(iv) Kolar mines
Codes:
(a) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
(b) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(c) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii
(d) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
180. Our earth is surrounded by a huge blanket of air. All living beings
on this earth depend on the atmosphere for the survival. It provides
us the air we breathe and protects us from the harmful effects of
the suns rays.
Which of the following is discussed in the above given passage?
(a) Lithosphere
(b) Atmosphere
(c) Hydrosphere
(d) Biosphere
181. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Argon
(d) Carbon dioxide
182. In which of the following processes can green plants produce
oxygen?
(a) Sowing
(b) Growing
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) None of these
183. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Thermometer

Measures the temperature


(b) Raingauge

Measures amount of rainfall


(c) Wind vane

Shows wind direction


(d) All of these
184. Air presses us with a great force on our bodies. However, we
dont even feel it. This is because the air presses us from all
directions and our body exerts a counter pressure. Which of the
following is discussed in this passage?
(a) Wind
(b) Cyclone
(c) Air pressure
(d) Climate
185. Which of the following is used to measure the magnitude of the
earthquake?
(a) Barometer
(b) Richter scale or Mement magnitude scale.
(c) Barograph
(d) Windvane
186. Population composition refers to the
(a) distribution of population
(b) structure of the population
(c) density of population
(d) sex-ratio of population
187. In which of the following countries is/are Commercial Farming
done?
(a) Canada
(b) Russia
(c) Argentina
(d) All of them
188. In India commercial farming of which important crop is practiced?
(a) Maize
(b) Rice
(c) Wheat
(d) Pulse
189. Jute is obtained from _____
(a) the leaves of jute plant
(b) the roots of jute plant
(c) the bark of jute plant
(d) None of them

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190. What is Green Revolution?
(a) It is the increase in production by using high yielding varieties
of seeds, fertilizers and better methods of irrigation
(b) It means increase in growth of flowers
(c) Both 'a' and 'b'
(d) None of them
191. Which country/region is the major buyer of wheat?
(a) U.S.A
(b) Australia
(c) India
(d) Europe
192. Which crop is used both as foodgrain and as fodder?
(a) Pulses
(b) Wheat
(c) Maize
(d) Rice
193. What is the main variety of coffee produced in the world?
(a) Arabica
(b) Robusta
(c) Persian
(d) Hindutva
194. Which of these crops is a fibre crop?
(a) Jute
(b) Wheat
(c) Rice
(d) Millet
195. What is glass made from?
(a) Copper
(b) Iron
(c) Silica Sand
(d) Sulphur
196. Who were the earliest tea drinkers?
(a) Japanese
(b) Chinese
(c) Indian
(d) None of them
197. Which of the following is known as the Golden fibre?
(a) Cotton
(b) Coffee
(c) Silk
(d) Jute
198. Industries, whose finished products are used as raw material for
other industries are called
(a) Material based industries
(b) Basic industries
(c) Consumer industries
(d) None of these
199. Industry, whose goods are directly used by consumers are called
(a) Basic industry
(b) Consumer based industry
(c) Mineral based industry
(d) None of these
200. Which of the following are factors influencing location of industries?
(a) Capital and marketing facilities
(b) Transportation
(c) Workers
(d) All of the above
201. Which of these methods would be generally used for mining
limestone and iron ore?
(a) Alluvial
(b) Underground
(c) Opencast
(d) One of these
202. Where is silicon valley located?
(a) West Central California
(b) Eastern Europe
(c) Eastern Asia
(d) Western and Central Europe
203. In which year and where was the first digital electronic computer
developed?
(a) Japan in 1946
(b) USA in 1946
(c) USA in 1948
(d) USA in 1949
204. It is the process in which metals are extracted from their ores by
heating beyond the melting point. Which of the following processes is discussed above?
(a) Smelting
(b) Drilling
(c) Quarrying
(d) Mining
205. Pittsburgh is situated in _______.
(a) Canada
(b) Brazil
(c) London
(d) USA

206. Which of the following is the Manchester of India?


(a) Mumbai
(b) Kanpur
(c) Delhi
(d) Ahmedabad
207. Which of the following is the Silicon Valley of India?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Bangalore
(c) Patna
(d) Chandigarh
208. One of the states through which the Tropic of Cancer passes is
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Jharkhand
209. One of the states not bisected by the Tropic of Cancer is
(a) Orissa
(b) Gujarat
(c) West Bengal
(d) Rajasthan
210. Which of the following has the oldest rocks in the country?
(a) The Himalayas
(b) The Aravallis
(c) The Indo-Gangetic plain
(d) The shiwaliks
211. The rocks in the Himalayan system are mainly
(a) sedimentary
(b) igneous
(c) plutonic
(d) dyke
212.. The Shiwaliks stretch between
(a) Indus and Sutlej
(b) Potwar Basin and Teesta
(c) Sutlej and Kali
(d) Sutlej and Teesta
213. The highest peak in Indian territory is K2. In which range is it
located ?
(a) Central Himalayas
(b) Trans-Himalayas
(c) Karakoram Range
(d) Kumaun Himalayas
214. The territorial waters of India extend up to
(a) 12 nautical miles
(b) 6 nautical miles
(c) 15 nautical miles
(d) 10 nautical miles
215. Where is the Maikal Range situated ?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Tamil nadu
216. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
(a) Ganga
(b) Narmada
(c) Brahmaputra
(d) Krishna
217. What is the most important characteristic of the islands (Indian)
located in the Arabian Sea?
(a) They are all very small in size
(b) They are all of coral origin
(c) They have a very dry climate
(d) They are extended parts of the mainland.
218. Which area in India has an internal type of drainage ?
(a) Central Himalayas
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Chhota Nagpur plateau
(d) Western Rajasthan
219. Which part of the islands in the Arabian Sea is known as Minicoy
islands?
(a) Northern
(b) Eastern
(c) Southern
(d) Western
220. Which of the following are believed to be older than the Himalayas ?
(i) Indus
(ii) Ganga
(iii) Brahmaputra
(iv) Sutlej
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) ii, iii and iv
(c) i, ii and iv
(d) i, iii and iv
221. Which one is not an important characteristic of the Himalayan
rivers ?

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222.

223.

224.

225.

226.

227.

228.

229.

230.

231.

232.

233.

234.

(a) They have a great capacity for erosion


(b) They have a perennial flow
(c) They do not form gorges
(d) Many of them have their sources in the inner Himalayas.
Most rivers flowing west from the Western Ghats do not form
deltas because of
(a) lack of eroded material
(b) the high gradient
(c) lack of vegetation-free area
(d) low velocity
Where does the Sabarmati originate ?
(a) The Satpuras
(b) The Vindhyas
(c) The Aravallis
(d) The Western Ghats
The Thar Desert is believed to be expanding. The most suitable
way to check it would be by
(a) afforestation
(b) artificial rain
(c) canal irrigation
(d) using the area for cattle-rearing
Which area in India gets the summer monsoon first?
(a) The Himalayas
(b) The Eastern Ghats
(c) The Western Ghats
(d) The Indo-Gangetic plains
In which of the following areas is maximum precipitation received
from the summer monsoon?
(a) The coromandel coast
(b) The north-eastern hilly region
(c) The central Indian hills
(d) The western Himalayas
Winter rains in north-western India are caused by
(a) westerly depressions
(b) retreating monsoon
(c) trade winds
(d) south-westerly monsoons
During the period of the south-west monsoon, Tamil Nadu remains
dry because
(a) the winds do not reach this area
(b) there are no mountains in this area
(c) it lies in the rain-shadow area
(d) the temperature is too high to let the winds cool down
Rajasthan receives very little rain because
(a) it is too hot
(b) there is no water available and thus the winds remain dry
(c) the monsoons fail to reach this area
(d) the winds do not come across any barrier to cause the
necessary uplift to cool the air
The Aravallis fail to cause orographic precipitation in Rajasthan
because
(a) they are not sufficiently high
(b) the monsoons do not reach them
(c) they lie parallel to the direction of the winds
(d) they do not support any vegetation
The monsoon starts retreating from India in
(a) mid-September
(b) mid-March
(c) mid-December
(d) late-October
When are temperatures the highest in southern India?
(a) June
(b) April
(c) August
(d) July
Most of the precipitation in India is _______ in nature.
(a) cyclonic
(b) convectional
(c) orographic
(d) frontal
Which of the following favours the onset of south-west monsoon?
(a) El Nino
(b) Subtropical westerly jet
(c) Polar front jet
(d) Tropical easterly jet

235. What are the major causes of droughts in India?


(i) Most of the rainfall occurs within a few months.
(ii) The absence of forests results in rapid run-off and thus
droughts
(iii) Rainfall is highly variable
(iv) The amount of rainfall is inadequate
(a) i, iii and iv
(b) ii, iii and iv
(c) i, ii and iii
(d) i, ii and iv
236. Which place receives the maximum solar energy in December?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Delhi
(c) Amritsar
(d) Chennai
237. The westerly disturbances causing winter rains in northern India
originate in
(a) the Himalayas
(b) Pakistan
(c) the Arabian Sea
(d) the Mediterranean region
238. The amount and intensity of monsoon rains in India are affected
by
(i) tropical depressions
(ii) westerly disturbances
(iii) wave cyclones
(iv) relief conditions
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) iii and iv
(d) i and iv
239. The maximum daily range of temperature is likely be observed at
(a) Chennai
(b) Thiruvanantapuram
(c) Delhi
(d) Mumbai
240. What is the major cause of October heat?
(a) High temperature associated with high humidity
(b) Hot, dry weather
(c) Very low velocity of winds
(d) Low pressure systems over the Indo-Gangetic plains
241. Which soil swells when wet and develops cracks when dry?
(a) Alluvial
(b) Red
(c) Black
(d) Laterite
242. Which soil requires the least tilling ?
(a) Red
(b) Black
(c) Laterite
(d) Alluvial
243. Alluvial soils are usually
(i) rich in nitrogen
(ii) poor in humus
(iii) highly fertile
(iv) easy to plough
(a) i, ii and iv
(b) ii, iii and iv
(c) i, iii and iv
(d) i, ii and iii
244. What kind of soil predominates in the Sunderbans area ?
(a) Red
(b) Laterite
(c) Black
(d) Alluvial
245. Mountain soil contains a lot of
(a) humus
(b) clay
(c) coarse material
(d) iron and aluminium salts
246. Wind erosion of soil can be controlled by
(i) terrace cultivation
(ii) the creation of wind breaks
(iii) the removal of vegetation
(iv) irrigation
(a) i, ii and iv
(b) ii, iii and iv
(c) i and ii
(d) ii and iv
247. Soil erosion in India occurs in almost all the littoral states, but it is
most serious along the coast of
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Orissa
(d) Karnataka
248. One area in which peaty soil is found is
(a) the Kashmir valley
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttaranchal
(d) Rajasthan

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249. Soil erosion due to running water can be checked by
(i) afforestation
(ii) mulching
(iii) check on grazing
(iv) terraced cultivation
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) ii, iii and iv
(c) i, iii and iv
(d) All of these
250. Which of the following are the major characteristics of intensive
farming?
(i) Low capital
(ii) High density of population
(iii) Small size of holiday
(iv) Emphasis on machinery
(a) i and iii
(b) i, ii and iv
(c) ii, iii and iv
(d) i, ii and iii
251. Name the macro plant nutrients
(i) Phosphorous
(ii) Iron
(iii) Carbon
(iv) Nitrogen
(a) i and iv
(b) i, ii and iii
(c) i, iii and iv
(d) All of these
252. To which disease is sugarcane especially prone ?
(a) Rust
(b) Red rot
(c) Bunchy top
(d) Smut
253. The disease called black arm affects
(a) bajra
(b) suggarcane
(c) cotton
(d) rice
254. The disease, green ear, affects
(a) coffee
(b) bajra
(c) wheat
(d) rice
255. Which crop is affected by the disease called blast?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Bajra
256. Khaira is a plant disease caused due to deficiency of zinc. Which
crop is affected most seriously by it?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Cotton
257. Which crop is especially prone to the disease called smut?
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Bajra
(d) Sugarcane
258. What percentage of the total number of Indian cattle belong to
good breeds?
(a) About 15
(b) About 25
(c) About 50
(d) About 35
259. Cattle belonging to the famous Gir breed are found mainly in
(a) Haryana, Punjab and Rajasthan
(b) Gujarat, West Bengal and Tamil Nadu
(c) Maharashtra, Punjab and Uttar Pradesh
(d) Gujarat, Rajasthan and Maharashtra
260. Areas marked as C and D on Map 6 show the distribution of
(a) mangroves and thron forest
(b) sal forest and sandalwood forest
(c) mangroves and southern temperate forest
(d) monsoon forest and savanna
261. Which state is the leading producer of red chillies?
(a) Punjab
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Karnataka
262. Which of the following are wrongly matched?
(i). Planet nearest to the earth - Mercury.
(ii). Planet farthest from the earth - Pluto
(iii). Planet with the most elliptical orbit - Uranus
(iv). Planet with the slowest rotation - Neptune
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) i, iii and iv
(c) ii, iii and iv
(d) i, ii and iv

263. Assuming the directions similar to those on the earth, which planet/
planets will experience a sunrise in the west?
(i) Mercury
(ii) Uranus
(iii) Saturn
(iv) Venus
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iv
(c) i and iv
(d) iii and iv
264. The minimum distance between the sun and the earth occurs on
(a) December 22
(b) June 21
(c) September 22
(d) January 3
265. On the day the sun is nearest to the earth, the earth is said to be in
(a) aphelion
(b) perihelion
(c) apogee
(d) perigee
266. The earth is at its maximum distance from the sun on
(a) July 4
(b) January 30
(c) September 22
(d) December 22
267. The rate of rotation of the earth on its axis is highest on
(a) January 3
(b) December 22
(c) July 4
(d) It never changes
268. Which of the statements does not prove the spherical shape of the
earth?
(a) If the earth were flat one would come across some sharp
edges
(b) The sunrise is not visible from all places at the same time
(c) The shadow of the earth at the time of the solar eclipse is
circular
(d) The altitude of the stars from various points on the earths
surface varies.
269. What is the International Date Line?
(a) It is the equator.
(b) It is the 0 longitude.
(c) It is the 90 east longitude.
(d) It is the 180 longitude.
270. What is the relationship between solar day and sidereal day?
(a) Both are equal
(b) Solar day is longer than sidereal day
(c) Solar day is shorter than sidereal day
(d) There is no relationship between the two
271. One Astronomical Unit is the average distance be-tween
(a) Earth and the Sun
(b) Earth and the Moon
(c) Jupiter and the Sun
(d) Pluto and the Sun
272. How much of the surface of the moon is visible from the earth?
(a) more than 75%
(b) only about 40%
(c) about 59%
(d) about 65%
273. What is the unit of measurement of the distances of stars from the
earth?
(a) light year
(b) fathoms
(c) nautical miles
(d) kilometres
274. On the surface of the moon, the
(a) mass and weight become lesser
(b) mass remains constant and only the weight is lesser
(c) only the mass is lesser
(d) mass and weight both remain unchanged.
275. Light from the nearest star reaches the earth in
(a) 4.3 seconds
(b) 4.3 minutes
(c) 43 minutes
(d) 4.3 years
276. Which comet appears every 76 years?
(a) Haileys
(b) Holmes
(c) Donatis
(d) Alpha Centauri
277. The moons period of revolution with reference to the sun is
(a) equal to one solar month
(b) equal to one sidereal month
(c) equal to one synodic month
(d) none of these

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278. We always see the same face of the moon because
(a) it is smaller than the earth.
(b) it revolves on its axis in a direction opposite to that of the
earth.
(c) it takes equal time for both revolution around the earth and
rotation on its own axis.
(d) it rotates at the same speed as the earth around the sun.
279. On which days do the spring tides occur?
(i) new moon
(ii) first quarter of the moon
(iii) third quarter of the moon
(iv) full moon
(a) i, ii and iv
(b) ii, iii and iv
(c) i and iv
(d) ii and iii
280. What is a tidal bore?
(a) a tidal wave resulting from seismic activity
(b) a deposit of sand in coastal areas
(c) a formation of polyps just above high tide level
(d) a high tidal wave moving upstream in the mouth of a river
281. Which of the following are wrongly matched?
(i) Tropic of Cancer23 N latitude.
(ii) Tropic of Capricorn66 N latitude.
(iii) International Date Line0 longitude
(iv) Antarctic Circle66 S latitude
(a) i
(b) ii and iii
(c) i, ii and iv
(d) none of these
282. Which of the following will never get the vertical rays of the sun?
(a) Srinagar
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) Thiruvananthapuram
283. The longest day in Australia will be on
(a) June 21
(b) September 22
(c) December 22
(d) March 23
284. The difference in the duration of day and night increases as one moves from the
to the
(a) Equator, poles
(b) Poles, equator
(c) Tropic of Cancer, equator
(d) Tropic of Cancer, Tropic of Capricorn
285. Which of the following is wrong?
(a) the sun never shines vertically beyond the tropics.
(b) at the poles there is light for half the year.
(c) the sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Cancer at the
time of the winter solstice.
(d) when the sun shines vertically over the equator, it is called
an equinox.
286. Which of the following are wrongly matched?
(i) Summer solstice-March 21
(ii) Winter solstice-December 22
(iii) Autumnal equinox-June 21
(iv) Vernal equinox-September 23
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) ii, iii and iv
(c) i, iii and iv
(d) i, ii and iv
287. Which place will experience sunlight for the longest period in
summer?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Srinagar
(c) Chennai
(d) Kolkata
288. The South Pole experiences continuous light at the time of
(a) winter solstice
(b) summer solstice
(c) vernal equinox
(d) autumnal equinox
289. A person planning to travel by the shortest route should follow
(a) the winds
(b) the rivers
(c) the latitudes
(d) the longitudes
290. A day is added when one crosses
(a) The equator from north to south
(b) 1800 longitude from west to east
(c) 1800 longitude from east to west
(d) the equator from south to north.

291. The order of the layers in the atmosphere, upwards from below, is
(a) stratosphere, troposphere, ionosphere and exosphere.
(b) exosphere, ionosphere, troposphere and stratosphere.
(c) troposphere, stratosphere, ionosphere and exosphere.
(d) troposphere, magnetosphere, stratosphere and
exosphere.
292. The most prominent gases in the atmosphere, in terms of volume,
are
(a) nitrogen and methane
(b) nitrogen and oxygen
(c) oxygen and carbon dioxide
(d) hydrogen and nitrogen.
293. Most of the weather phenomena take place in the
(a) stratosphere
(b) troposphere
(c) tropopause
(d) ionosphere
294. Which layer of the atmosphere maintains an almost uniform horizontal temperature?
(a) Troposphere
(b) Tropopause
(c) Stratosphere
(d) All of these
295. The thickness of the troposphere increases in
(a) summer
(b) winter
(c) spring
(d) autumn
296. Which gas in the atmosphere absorbs ultraviolet rays
(a) Methane
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Ozone
(d) Helium
297. Fall in air temperature with increasing elevation is known as
(a) thermal anomaly
(b) thermal reduction
(c) temperature fall
(d) lapse rate
298. Where is the doldrums belt located?
(a) Near the equator
(b) Near the polar areas
(c) On the Tropic of Cancer
(d) On the Tropic of Capricorn
299. What is the name given to winds blowing from subtropical high
pressure regions, to the equator?
(a) Westerlies
(b) Tropical easterlies
(c) High latitude easterlies (d) Doldrums
300. Horse latitudes is the term applied to the
(a) 0 5 Nand S latitudes
(b) polar circles
(c) 30 40 Nand S latitudes
(d) 40 60 Nand S latitudes
301. The stratosphere is said to be ideal for flying jet aircraft. This is
because
(a) this layer is rich in ozone which reduces fuel consumption
(b) the temperature is constant and ideal for aircraft engine efficiency
(c) this layer is out of the firing range of anti-aircraft guns
(d) of the absence of clouds and other weather phenomena
302. Which factors do not affect the amount of insolation?
(i) Solar constant
(ii) Surface temperature
(iii) Length of day
(iv) Rotation of the earth
(a) i and iii
(b) ii and iv
(c) iii and iv
(d) ii, iii and iv
303. The velocity of winds is governed by
(a) pressure gradient
(b) Farrels Law
(c) rotation of the earth
(d) temperature
304. Over which region is the temperature the highest near the tropopause?
(a) Around the equator
(b) Over the Arctic region
(c) Near the Tropic of Capricorn
(d) Near the Tropic of Cancer

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305. Identify the factors responsible for change in seasons on the earths
surface.
(i) Rotation of the earth
(ii) Revolution of the earth
(ii) Inclination of the axis of the earth
(iv) Rotation of the sun
(a) i and iii
(b) ii and iii
(c) i and ii
(d) i, ii and iv
306. Arrange the planets correctly in descending order in terms of
number of their satellites.
(i) Uranus
(ii) Jupiter
(iii) Saturn
(iv) Mars
(a) ii, iii, i, iv
(b) iv, ii, iii, i
(c) ii, iii, iv, i
(d) iii, ii, i, iv
307. Identify the sedimentary rocks.
(i) Basalt
(ii) Limestone
(iii) Shale
(iv) Granite
(v) quartzite
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) ii and v
(d) iii and iv
308. Name the instrument used for measuring humidity.
(a) barometer
(b) thermometer
(c) hygrometer
(d) hydrometer
309. Which of the following are not a planetary wind?
(a) Easterlies
(b) Westerlies
(c) Drainage winds
(d) Trade winds
310. How much pressure is exerted by the atmosphere at sea level?
(a) one kg per sq. cm
(b) one pound per sq. cm
(c) five kg per sq. cm
(d) two kg per sq. cm
311. The water content in the atmosphere
(a) is not dependent on temperature
(b) increases as temperature increase
(c) remains unchanged with change in temperature
(d) cannot be measured
312. What will happen if the temperature of water is lowered from 8
C to 3C?
(a) Water will freeze
(b) Water will not change in volume
(c) The volume will first increase, then decrease
(d) The volume will first decrease, then increase
313. Which is the shortest route from Moscow to San Francisco?
(a) Via Canada
(b) Over land
(c) Over the South Pole
(d) Over the North Pole
314. Which one of the following is a great circle?
(a) Tropic of Cancer
(b) Tropic of Capricorn
(c) Equator
(d) Arctic circle
315. In which region can the phenomenon of midnight sun be observed?
(a) In the tropical zone
(b) In warm temperate regions
(c) In the Arctic and Antarctic regions
(d) Anywhere at the time of solar eclipse
316. Farrels Law is concerned with the
(a) direction of winds
(b) velocity of winds
(c) intensity of waves
(d) none of these.
317. Blizzards are characteristic of __ region.
(a) equatorial
(b) tropical
(c) antarctic
(d) temperate
318. What is the importance of ozone in the atmosphere?
(a) It provides protection against ultraviolet radiation.
(b) It provides condensation nuclei.
(c) It creates the greenhouse effect on earth.
(d) It helps scatter blue light.

319. Wha t is a cyclone?


(a) A low pressure system with clockwise winds in the northern hemisphere
(b) A high pressure system with anticlock-wise winds in the
northern hemisphere
(c) A low pressure system with anticlock-wise winds in the
northern hemisphere
(d) A high pressure system with clockwise winds in the northern hemisphere.
320. Which one is an anticyclone?
(a) Low pressure system with clockwise winds in the northern
hemisphere
(b) High pressure system with clockwise winds in the northern
hemisphere
(c) Low pressure system with clockwise winds in southern
hemisphere
(d) High pressure system with clockwise winds in southern
hemisphere
321. An upper air wind system with very high velocities in certain
parts of the atmosphere is called
(a) a cyclone
(b) an anticyclone
(c) monsoon
(d) jet stream
322. Which ones are wrongly matched?
(i) Typhoons-China Sea
(ii) Hurricanes-Indian Ocean
(iii) Cyclone-West Indies
(iv) Tornadoes-Australia
(a) i, ii, and iii
(c) i, iii and iv
(b) i, ii and iv
(d) ii, iii and iv
323. What is a tornado?
(a) A very high pressure centre
(b) A very low pressure centre
(c) A very high ocean wave
(d) A planetary wind
324. Snowfall occurs when
(a) water droplets freeze as they fall to the ground
(b) raindrops are carried up by updraughts in air
(c) dew point of air is below freezing point
(d) air is highly moist and rises due to convection
325. The process of change of state of water from solid directly into
vapour is called
(a) condensation
(b) snow fall
(c) sublimation
(d) precipitation
326. When humidity is expressed as a percentage, it is called
(a) relative humidity
(b) absolute humidity
(c) specific humidity
(d) percentage humidity
327. What is the vapour pressure?
(a) The presence of vapour in air
(b) Barometric pressure
(c) Pressure only due to vapour in the air
(d) Pressure in the clouds
328. What is measured by the sling psychrometer?
(a) Temperature
(b) Humidity
(c) Pressure
(d) Wind velocity
329. What is stated in terms of grams of water vapour per kilogram of
moist air?
(a) Specific humidity
(b) Relative humidity
(c) Vapour pressure
(d) Absolute humidity
330. Amount of water vapour (grams) in a given volume of air (cubic
metre) is known as
(a) specific humidity
(b) relative humidity
(c) mixing ratio
(d) absolute humidity
331. The temperature at which an air parcel will become saturated with
the present amount of water vapour is called
(a) critical temperature
(b) saturation point

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17
(c) dew point
(d) condensation point
332. What is meant by the term cirrus?
(a) A low cloud
(b) A rain-bearing cloud
(c) A high cloud
(d) A hail-bearing cloud
333. What is fog?
(a) A cumulonimbus cloud (b) A low stratus cloud
(c) A cirro stratus cloud
(d) An altocumulus cloud
334. Hail consists of
(a) granular ice
(b) crystals of ice
(c) water droplets
(d) masses of ice with concentric layers
335. Rainfall caused due to the presence of mountains in the way of
winds is called
(a) orographic rain
(b) cyclonic rain
(c) convectional rain
(d) advectional rain
336. The leeward side of a mountain which does not receive rain is
known as the
(a) dry zone
(b) desert area
(c) rain-shadow area
(d) adiabatically dry area
337. Dew is caused when
(a) humid air condenses on cool surface
(b) the air is colder than the earths surface
(c) the sky is overcast at night
(d) the wind is too dry to cause rainfall
338. Arrange parts of ocean floor according to increasing distance from
the coast.
(a) continental slope, continental shelf, continental rise, deep
sea plain
(b) continental shelf, continental rise, deep sea plain, continental slope
(c) continental shelf, continental slope, continental rise, deep
sea plain
(d) continental rise, continental shelf, continental slope, deep
sea plain
339. Where is the famous Tuscarora Deep located?
(a) Near USA
(b) Off Japan
(c) Off Lakshadweep
(d) Near the Australian coast
340. Which compound is the most abundant in sea water?
(a) Calcium carbonate
(b) Potassium chloride
(c) Sodium chloride
(d) Magnesium sulphate
341. In which of the following areas is salinity likely to be the highest
(a) Indian Ocean
(b) Red Sea
(c) North Pacific
(d) North Atlantic
342. What is Gulf Stream?
(a) A cold current in the Atlantic Ocean
(b) A cold current in the Pacific Ocean
(c) A warm current in the Atlantic Ocean
(d) A warm current in the Pacific Ocean
343. One of the warm currents in the Indian Ocean is the
(a) Labrador Current
(b) Agulhas Current
(c) Curoshio Current
(d) Humboldt Current
344. What does the term lithosphere refer to?
(a) Plants and animals
(b) Interior of the earth
(c) Crust of the earth
(d) None of these
345. The term nife refers to
(a) earthquakes
(b) core of the earth
(c) crust of the earth
(d) ocean beds
346. The crustal layer of the earth is also called
(a) sial
(b) sima
(c) moho
(d) nife
347. Match the following:
A. Anemometer
1. Earthquakes
B. Seismograph
2. Pressure
C. Psychrometer
3. Wind velocity
D. Barograph
4. Humidity

348.

349.

350.

351.

352.

353.

354.

355.

356.

357.

358.

359.

360.

361.

362.

A
B
C
D
(a) I
3
2
4
(b) 3
I
2
4
(c) 3
I
4
2
(d) 1
4
3
2
The theory suggesting that the continents of South America and
Africa were once joined together was the
(a) continental drift theory
(b) tetrahedral theory
(c) Kants theory
(d) Ritters theory
Plains formed due to the filling up of lakes are called
(a) delta plains
(b) flood plains
(c) till plains
(d) lacustrine plains
Plains formed in limestone regions are called
(a) karst plains
(b) floods plains
(c) peneplains
(d) alluvial plains
Plateaus situated in between plains and mountains are called
(a) intermontane plateaus (b) continental plateaus
(c) piedmont plateaus
(d) peninsular plateaus
The Red Sea is an example of a
(a) folded structure
(b) faulted structure
(c) lava structure
(d) residual structure
Metamorphic rocks originate from
(a) igneous rocks .
(b) sedimentary rocks
(c) both igneous and sedimentary rocks
(d) none of these
Rocks formed deep inside the earth as a result of solidification of
lavaare called
(a) plutonic rocks
(b) volcanic rocks
(c) metainorphic rocks
(d) sedimentary rocks
Which is an organic rock?
(a) marble
(b) coal
(c) granite
(d) slate
The layers in soil are referred to as
(a) horizons
(b) profile
(c) hard pans
(d) pedocals
Which of the pedogenic regimes is associated with hot, dry climates?
(a) podzolisation
(b) gleisation
(c) laterisation
(d) calcification
With what type of climate is the pedogenic regime of podzolisation
associated?
(a) hot and dry
(b) humid temperate
(c) equatorial
(d) cool and dry
What is peninsula?
(a) A narrow bit of land
(b) A mountainous island
(c) A piece of land surrounded by water
(d) A range of hills
In which direction is the Tropic of Capricorn in relation to the
Equator?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Which is the largest ocean ?
(a) Indian
(b) Pacific
(c) Atlantic
(d) Arctic
What does a barometer indicate ?
(a) Changes in atmospheric (air) pressure
(b) Changes in temperature
(c) The amount of rainfall
(d) The direction of the winds

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18
363. What is the difference between a gulf and a bay ?
(a) A gulf is big and a bay i small
(b) A gulf is at a rivermouth and a bay is not
(c) A bay is surrounded by cliffs, a gulf by lowland
(d) Both are part of the sea that extend considerably into the
land, but a bay usually has a wider entrance than a gulf.
364. What do you call a narrow neck of land that connects two larger
landmasses ?
(a) Peninsula
(b) Isthmus
(c) Cape
(d) Strait
365. Approximately when does the South-West Monsoon begin in
India ?
(a) Late April
(b) October
(c) Early June
(d) January
366. What is the name given to the widened rivermouth found at the
point a river enters the sea?
(a) Estuary
(b) Bay
(c) Gulf
(d) Delta
367. What is significant about the town of Greenwich ?
(a) The International Date Line passes through it
(b) The 0(Zero) meridian passes through it and therefore the
world sets its time by it
(c) It is at 180 longitude
(d) It is a major horological research in Britain
368. What is the triangular landmass that forms at its mouth when a
river splits into several branches just before entering the sea ?
(a) Cape
(b) Island
(c) Estuary
(d) Delta
369. From west to east, what are the three main island groups in the
Pacific called ?
(a) Melanesia, Micronesia and Polynesia
(b) Polynesia, Micronesia and Melanesia
(c) Melanesia Polynesia and Micronesia
(d) Micronesia, Polynesia and Melanesia

370. What is a typhoon called in the Atlanesia ?


(a) A typhoon
(b) A cyclone
(c) A hurricane
(d) A tornado
371. What meridian is the International Date Line ?
(a) The 180 meridian
(b) The 0 meridian
(c) The 90 meridian
(d) The 135 meridian
372. What is a narrow waterway separating two bits of land called ?
(a) A bay
(b) A gulf
(c) A strait
(d) An isthmus
373. Which three continents have the largest areas of coniferous forest ?
(a) Australia, Europe and South America
(b) Asia, North America and Europe
(c) North America, South America and Europe
(d) Asia, Australia and South America
374. Outside the Mediterranean region, where else is a Mediterranean
climate found ?
(a) The Japanese and Chinese coasts
(b) The southern coast of Australia and parts of the western
coast of North and South America
(c) The east coast of North America
(d) The North Atlantic coast of Africa
375. What is a more precise geographical name for a tableland ?
(a) A hill
(b) A headland
(c) A plateau
(d) A mountain
376. In which part of the world would you find the Veld ?
(a) Argentina
(b) Australia
(c) Central Europe
(d) South Africa
377. What do Mauna Loa, Krakatoa and Stromboli have in common ?
(a) All are volcanoes
(b) All are mountains
(c) All are in Italy
(d) All are islands
378. What is the difference between a lake and a tank?
(a) A lake is small and a tank is big
(b) A lake has flowing water, a tank has still water
(c) A lake is a geographical feature, a tank is not
(d) Both are land-enclosed water bodies, but the latter is
manmade.

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19

ANSWER KEY
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
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25
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28
29
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31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
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40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50

(d)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)

51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
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81
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86
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89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100

(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(a)
(d)
(d)

101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
110
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120
121
122
123
124
125
126
127
128
129
130
131
132
133
134
135
136
137
138
139
140
141
142
143
144
145
146
147
148
149
150

(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)

151
152
153
154
155
156
157
158
159
160
161
162
163
164
165
166
167
168
169
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171
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180
181
182
183
184
185
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187
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189
190
191
192
193
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195
196
197
198
199
200

(a)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(b)
(d)

201
202
203
204
205
206
207
208
209
210
211
212
213
214
215
216
217
218
219
220
221
222
223
224
225
226
227
228
229
230
231
232
233
234
235
236
237
238
239
240
241
242
243
244
245
246
247
248
249
250

(c)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(d)
(d)

251
252
253
254
255
256
257
258
259
260
261
262
263
264
265
266
267
268
269
270
271
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282
283
284
285
286
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288
289
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291
292
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294
295
296
297
298
299
300

(c)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(c)

301
302
303
304
305
306
307
308
309
310
311
312
313
314
315
316
317
318
319
320
321
322
323
324
325
326
327
328
329
330
331
332
333
334
335
336
337
338
339
340
341
342
343
344
345
346
347
348
349
350

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(d)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(d)
(a)

351
352
353
354
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361
362
363
364
365
366
367
368
369
370
371
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378

(c)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(c)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(d)

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