Biopharm-Pkin

Margarita M. Gutierrez

POST TEST
1. The route of administration with 100% bioavailability
A. IM
B. SC
C. IA
D. ID
2. The rout of administration that skips the first pass effect
A. Intramuscular injection
B. Rectal injection
C. Buccal route
D. Per orem
3. The first requirement for a drug to be absorbed is
a. It has to be in a suitable formulation
b. The active ingredient/s should be in solution
c. Proper route and manner of administration
d. Proper hydration
4. Pharmacodynamics
a. Is the study of substances that interact with living systems
through chemical processes, especially by binding to regulatory
molecules and activating or inhibiting normal body processes
b. Is concerned with the actions of the chemical on the organism
c. The science of the kinetics of drug absorption, distribution and
elimination.
d. The part of pharmacology, which deals with what a drug does to
the body
e. B and D
5. Branch of pharmacology that deals with the adverse effect of the drug
and the remedy:
a. Pharmacodynamics
b. Pharmacokinetics
c. Toxicology
d. A and B
6. First order elimination means
a. The rate of elimination is constant
b. Elimination half-life varies with dose
c. The volume distribution varies with dose
d. The rate of elimination varies directly with the dose
7. Drug X is administered to the patient SQ. It has to be converted first by
the liver in order for the pharmacologic activity to occur. Its way out of
the body is through passing of stool. Given the following statements,
which of the following best describes drug X?
a. Drug X is expected to have a systemic effect
b. Absorption is 100%
c. It is a prodrug
d. Drug X is most probably used as GI antibiotic
8. Phase II biotransformation that utilizes GluCAT enzyme:
a. Methylation
b. Glutathione conjugation
c. Acetylation
d. Glucoronidation reaction
9. First order half-life is
a. The time it takes for the drug to eliminate 50% of its
amount in the plasma out of the body
b. The time required to reach 50% of therapeutic dose
c. The time required to wash out drug from the body
d. Is equal to the half of the concentration divided by the rate
elimination constant
10.
The dominant functionalization phase reactions:
a. Hydrolysis

Biopharm-Pkin
Margarita M. Gutierrez

11.

12.

b. Glucoronidation
c. Oxidation
d. Acetylation reaction
The primary conjugation reaction of infants
a. Acetylation
b. Glucuronidation
c. Glutathione conjugation
d. Sulfation reaction
Weak acids are reabsorbed best into bloodstream when:
a. Urinary pH is high
b. Urinary pH is low
c. Gastric pH is high
d. Gastric pH is low

13.
a.
b.
c.
d.
14.
a.
b.
c.
d.
15.
a.
b.
c.
d.
16.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Weak bases are absorbed best into bloodstream when:

Urinary pH is high
Urinary pH is low
Gastric pH is high
Gastric pH is low
Weak bases are reabsorbed best into bloodstream when:
Urinary pH is high
Urinary pH is low
Gastric pH is high
Gastric pH is low
Weak acids are absorbed best into bloodstream when:
Urinary pH is high
Urinary pH is low
Gastric pH is high
Gastric pH is low
The following are organs for drug elimination except:
Kidney
Lungs
Skin
Liver

17. In which kinetic reaction is the rate of reaction independent from

concentration?
A. First order
B. Zero order
C. Pseudo first order
D. Second order
18. The initial degradation of a drug by liver enzymes after oral
administration of a drug is known as
A. Enzymatic degradation
B. First pass metabolism
C. Relative bioavailability
D. Ficks degradation
19. Which of the following factors DOES NOT affect the protein binding of a
drug?
A. The availability of protein for binding
B. Binding affinity of protein to the drug
C. The presence of competing substances for protein binding
D. The concentration of a drug at its receptor site
20. Which of the following increases the excretion of lidocaine?
A. Ascorbic acid

Biopharm-Pkin
Margarita M. Gutierrez

B. Orange juice
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Ammonium chloride
21. What is the creatinine clearance for a 75-year old female weighing 185
lb and having a serum creatinine concentration of 0.97 mg/dL?
A. 78 mL/min
B. 79 mL/min
C. 66.3 mL/min
D. 68.9 mL/min
22. Which of the following indicates phase II drug metabolism that may be
the cause grey baby syndrome among infants
A. Acetylation reaction
B. Reduction
C. Glucuronidation conjugation
D. Hydrolysis
23. hormones are found to exclusively bind to
I. Albumin
II. Lipoproteins III. Acid glycoprotein IV. Globulins
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. IV only
24. Which is an indicator of the extent of drug distribution into body fluids
and tissues?
A. Protein Binding
B. Clearance
C. Half-life
D. Volume of Distribution
25. The major biotransformation site of a drug in humans is the
A. Spleen
D. Intestine
B. Liver
C. Kidney
26. The organ with the greatest surface area for absorption in humans is the
A. Stomach
D. Intestine
B. Liver
C. Lungs
27. Calculate the half life of the compound with decomposition constant in
first order kinetic of 0.002 second-1
A. 300 seconds
B. 100 seconds
C. 350 seconds
D. 50 seconds
28. in Ficks law of diffusion formula K stands for
A. surface area
B. partition coefficient
C. Diffusion Coefficient
D. Volume of distribution

Biopharm-Pkin
Margarita M. Gutierrez

29. given the value of Ka for a weakly acidic drug which of the following has
the fastest rate of Diffusion
A. drug A = Ka = 5x 10-9
B. drug B = Ka = 10x 10-6
C. drug C = Ka = 11x 10-3
D. drug D = Ka = 1
30. given the value of partition coefficient, which of the following has the
fastest rate of Diffusion
A. drug A = 0.1
B. drug B =100
C. drug C = 50
D. drug D = 2.5
31. a solution of a drug was prepared at a concentration of 300mg/mL. After
30 days at 25c, the drug concentration in the solution was 75mg/mL.
Assuming first order kinetics, compute for the rate constant
A. 0.05
B. 1
C 0.001
D. 0.34
32. determine the half life of n antihypertensive drug if it appears to be
eliminated from the body at a rate constant 20% per hour. Assume first order
kinetics
A. 1.5 hours
B. 3.465 hours
C. 0.0345hours
D. 10 hours
33. if the half life for the degradation of a drug is 8 hours, compute for the
first order rate constant
A. 0.0655
B. 0.087
C. 0.01
D. 0.86625
34. the half life of a given drug is 3 hours. How much remains in the body
after one day?
A.6.25%
B. 12.5%
C.0.195%
D.19.5%
35. A suspension (125mg/ml) decays by zero order kinetics with a reaction
rate constant of 0.5mg/mL/hr. What is teh concentration of drug remaining
after 3 days?
A. 89 mg/ml
B. 70mg/ml
C. 87mg/ml
D. 69mg/ml
36. An opthalmic solution of a mydriatic drug at 5mg/mL exhibits 1st order
degredation with a K=0.0005/day. How much will remain after 120 days?
A. 4.77
B. 5.77
C. 4.5

Biopharm-Pkin
Margarita M. Gutierrez

D. 8.99
37. which of the following has no absorption
A. IC
B. IM
C.SQ
D. PO
38-40 One compartment extravascular
with Kel= 0.2402/hr
Dat
a
no.
1

Time
(hour
s)
0

Plasma
conc
(ng/mL)
0

0.25

19

0.5

96.1

130

163

165

145

95

56.5

10

12

22.3

38. what is AUC 0 t

a. 1019.7
B. 1087.9
C.92.84
D. 1180.74
39. what is AUC 0 infinity
a. 1019.7
B. 1087.9
C.92.84
D. 1180.74
40. what AUC t infinity
a. 1019.7
B. 1087.9
C.92.84
D. 1180.74
Drug Product
Dose (mg)
AUC (ug hr/mL)
Oral Tablet
(generic)
200
89.5

Biopharm-Pkin
Margarita M. Gutierrez

Oral tablet
50
(innovator)
IV Bolus Injection
200

86.1
90.8

41. Compute for relative bioavalability

A. 1.05
B. 0.2598
C. 1.55
D. 0.3
42. Absolute bioavalability.
A. 1.02
B. 1.05
C. 0.9856
D. 0.8823
43. Drug products that contain the same therapeutic moiety but as different
salts, esters or complexes
A. Pharmaceutic Alternative
B. Bioequivalent
C. Therapeutic Alternative
D. Pharmaceutic equivalent
44. Drug products containing different active ingredients that are indicated
for the same therapeutic or clinical objectives
A. Pharmaceutic Alternative
B. Bioequivalent
C. Therapeutic Alternative
D. Pharmaceutic equivalent
45. Different dosage forms and strengths within a product line by a single
manufacturer
A. Pharmaceutic Alternative
B. Bioequivalent
C. Therapeutic Alternative
D. Pharmaceutic equivalent

46. Process of dispensing a therapeutic alternative in place of the prescribed

drug product
A. generic dispensing
B. generic substitution
C. Pharmaceutic substitution
D. Therapeutic substitution
47. Process of dispensing a different brand or unbranded drug product in
place of the prescribed drug product
A. generic dispensing
B. generic substitution
C. Pharmaceutic substitution
D. Therapeutic substitution
48. Process of dispensing a pharmaceutic alternative for the prescribed drug
product

Biopharm-Pkin
Margarita M. Gutierrez

A. generic dispensing
B. generic substitution
C. Pharmaceutic substitution
D. Therapeutic substitution
49. the following are Factors that increase GET except
A. high CHON/fat meal
B. Drugs that impair GI motility
C. Stress / heavy exercise
D. none of the above
50. the following are Factors that decrease GET, except
A. Cold drinks
B. Mild exercise
C. Gastrectomy
D. Drugs that increase GI motility
E. none of the above
51. The of the drug is 0.90, equating to 0.55 ng/mL. What is the Cp total
of the drug?
A. 0.61
B. 0.69
C. 0.062
D. 0.23
52. If at equilibrium 1/3 of the amount of drug substance in the blood is
bound to protein, what is ?
A. 0.3333
B.0.9999
C.01555
D. 0.12
53. What is the Cp free for a uremic patient with a reported phenytoin
concentration of 8mcg/mL and an = 0.25?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 1.5
D. 3
54. At what DL should a drug be given if the Vd is 5 L/kBW and desired drug
plasma conc is 5 mg/L. Px weighs 75kg.
A. 18.75
B. 25
C. 1875
D. 1800
55. Compute the Vd of a drug that has a plasma concentration of 10 mg/L
when the DL is 800mg.
A. 70
B. 80
C. 90
D. 85
A target plasma theophylline concentration of 10 mg/L is desired to relieve
acute bronchial asthma in a patient. If the patient is a nonsmoker &

Biopharm-Pkin
Margarita M. Gutierrez

otherwise normal except for the asthma, mean clearance is 2.8L/hr. The
drug is to be given as an IV infusion; dosing interval is 8 hrs.
56. Determine the rate of infusion (or dose rate)
A. 28mg/hr
B.280 mg/hr
C. 18 mg/hr
D. 180 mg/hr
57. `maintenance dose.
A. 225
B. 224
C. 22.4
D. 22.5
58. What is the Cl of a drug that is infused at a rate of 4mg/min and
produces a Cpss of 6mg/L in the plasma?
A. 1.67
B. 0.67
C. 0.065
D. 0.78
59. the form of the drug that is absorbed by the body
A. polar
B. ionized
C. water soluble
D. protein bound
60. condition of patient that may result to a decrease of potency of the drug
A. obesity
B. paediatrics
C. edematous state
D. cancer
61. The following are Phase I biotransformation reaction, except:
A. Methylation
B. Reduction
C. Hydrolysis
D. Oxidation
62. The driving force for passive absorption of a drug is the:
a. specific carrier proteins and shows saturation kinetics
b. concentration gradient across a membrane separating body
compartment
c. both
d. none
63. Physical factors influencing absorption:
a. total surface area available for absorption
b. contact time at the absorption surface
c. blood flow to the absorption site
d. all
e. none
64. Clinical effectiveness often depends on:

Biopharm-Pkin
Margarita M. Gutierrez

a. minimum serum drug concentration

b. minimum serum concentration
c. time after concentration required to reach onset of concentration
d. all
e. none
65. Process by which drugs find their way into the urine, EXCEPT:
a. active glomerular filtration d. passive glomerular filtration
b. active tubular secretion e. none
c. passive tubular secretion
66. Parameters used to evaluate time-response relationship, EXCEPT:
a. duration of action d. onset of action
b. latency e. none
c. peak time
67. When the dose of the drug is gradually increased and the first noticeable
effect is observed, the dose that
produces this effect is called:
a. quantal dose d. a and b
b. threshold dose e. b and c
c. lethal dose
68.Inhaled anesthetics are relatively insoluble in blood and brain are
eliminated at faster rate than the more
soluble anesthetics:
a. True b. False
69. The branch of pharmacology that deals with the study of the action of
drug on functions of the body:
a. Toxicology b. Pharmacodynamics c. Pharmaokinetics d. none
70. The branch of pharmacology that deals with disposition and fate of drug
is:
a. Pharmacodynamics b. Pharmacokinetics c. both d. None
71. It refers to the fate of the drug during its sojourn through the body:
a. Pharmacokinetics b. Pharmacodynamics c. Pharmacogenetics d.
Pharmacotherapeutics
72. Drugs administered by inhalation are absorbed in the:
a. small intestine b. nasal mucosa c. lungs d. stomach
73. Weak acids are reabsorbed into the bloodstream when:
a. the urinary pH is high c. the urinary pH is low
b. the urine is made alkaline d. all situations apply

74. It refers to the relative concentration required to produce a given

magnitude of effect:
a. affinity b. efficacy c. potency d. none of these
75. The period from the drug administration to the first visible effect is:
a. onset of action c. ceiling effect
b. duration of action d. peak time
76. It refers to a change of one or more of the pharmacokinetic processes
with increasing dose size:

Biopharm-Pkin
Margarita M. Gutierrez

a. disposition b. clinical pharmacokinetics c. dose dependency d. depot

phase
77. The process with the slowest rate constant in a system of simultaneous
kinetic processes:
a. lag time b. rate limiting step c. bioequivalence d. accumulation
78. The measured preparation devised to make possible the administration
of medications in prescribed or
measured amounts:
a. dose size b. dosage form c. dosage regimen d. drug
79. The sum of all body regions in which the drug concentration is an
instantaneous equilibrium with that in
blood or plasma:
a. clearance b. accumulation c. depot phase d. central compartment
80. Loss of drug from the central compartment due to transfer to another
compartment:
a. apparent partition coefficient c. disposition
b. biliary recycling d. creatinine clearance
81. The extent of protein binding is determined in vitro by the ff.
mechanisms, EXCEPT:
a. ultracentrifugation c. endocytosis
b. dialysis d. eletrphoresis
82. A phase I biotransformation reaction, EXCEPT:
a. methylation b. sulfoxidation c. deamination d. hydrolysis
83. A phase II biotransformation, EXCEPT:
a. methylation b. reduction c. acetylation d. conjugation
84. Classified as an amide-type local anesthetic, EXCEPT:
a. prilocaine b. bupivacaine c. lidocaine d. procaine
85. If a drug stimulates its own metabolism, the phenomenon is called:
a. auto-induction b. cross-induction c. foreign induction d. enzyme
induction
86. The protein binding of a drug is defined by:
a. the absorption constant c. the distribution equilibrium
b. the affinity constant d. all of the choices
87. Cmax is the peak drug concentration in the:
a. plasma c. muscle b. urine
d. bile
88. Characteristic of aerosol particles to be absorbed is: a. impact in the
alveolar sac c. dissolves in the stomach fluid b. dissolves in the lung fluids
d. a&b
89. In general, the form of a drug that can be absorbed faster is: a. ionized
form c. bound form b. unionized form d. a & c
90. When can absorption of a drug be slower than its elimination?
a. when drugs are rapidly metabolized or excreted b. when drugs are poorly
soluble in water c. when drugs are soluble in fats and oils d. a & b
91. Absorption is not involve when a drug is administered by which of the
following routes:

Biopharm-Pkin
Margarita M. Gutierrez

a. intravenous c. intraspinal b. inta-arterial d. all of the above

92. In organs and tissues that are well perfused:
a. distribution lower c. distribution rate is negligible
b. distribution is faster
93. Which of the following is the first process to occur before a drug can
become available for absorption from tablet dosage form
a. dissolution of the drug in the GI fluids b. ionization of the drug c.
dissolution of the drug in the blood d. disintegration of the tablet
94. Drug products can also be evaluated by comparing curves of serum
concentration vs. time (blood level curve). The most important parameters
that can be obtained from such curves are:
a. peak concn., biologic concn. Half-life, elimination rate constant
b. biologic halftime, peak concn, total AUC
c. peak concn, peak time, total AUC
d. average serum concn, AUC, absorption rate constant
95. A disadvantage of inert diluents for powders as a dosage form is:
a. adsorbs onto the active drug substance b. high cost c. drugs may not be
released immediately d. a & c
96. A test to evaluate dosage forms is:
a. chemical content c. sensitivity test b. content uniformity d. a & b
97. Two different oral formulation of the same drug having equal areas
under their respective serum concentration time curve:
a. deliver the same total amount of drug to the body and are therefore
bioequivalent b. deliver the same total amount of drug to the body
but are not necessarily bioequivalent c. are bioequivalent by definition
d. are bioequivalent if they meet USP standards
98. The area under the serum concentration time curve represents: a.
biologic half-life of the drug b. amount of drug that is clear by the kidney
c. amount of drug in the original dosage form d. amount of drug absorbed
99. The intensity of the pharmacologic action of a drug is most dependent
upon the:
a. concentration of the drug at the receptor area
b. onset time of the drug at the receptor area c. minimum toxic drug
concentration (MTC) in the plasma
100. Drug concentration in systemic circulation rises to a peak followed by
a steep fall:
a. open one compartment intravenous
b. open one compartment extravascular
c. open two compartment IV
d. open two compartment EV