*MUDRA* Life Sciences For NET & SET Exams.

Of UGC-CSIR

Y2E
UNIT - 1
1. The first work on genetics was done by

(a) Lamarck (b) Hugo de Vries

(c) Mendel (d) Darwin

2. Term chromosome was first coined by

(a) Hoffmeister (b) Suttan

(c) Boveri (d) Waldeyer

3. Chromosomes were first seen by

(a) Hofmeister (b) Waldeyer

(c) Strasburger (d) Returning

4. Chromosomes found in the salivary glands of Drosophila are

(a) Lampbrush (b) Polytene

(c) Supernumerary (d) B-chromosomes

5. A giant chromosome with a chromonemata is

(a) Lampbrush chromosome (b) Hetero chromosome

(c) Supernumerary chromosome (d) Polytene chromosome

6. Lampbrush chromosome occurs in

(a) Salivary glands (b) Lymph glands

(c) Cancer cells (d) Oocytes

7. Chromosome ends are called

(a) Satellites (b) Telomeres

(c) Centromeres (d) Kinetochores

8. Chromatid is

(a) One half chromosome number of (b) Haploid chromosome

(c) Complete chromosome (d) Duplicate chromosome

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9. Centromere is that part of chromosome where

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(a) Nucleoli are formed (b) Crossing over takes place

(c) Chromatids are attached (d) Nicking occurs

10. A chromosome with terminal centromere is

(a) Acentric (b) Acrocentric

(c) Metacentric (d) Telocentric

11. A chromosome with centromere in the middle is called

(a) Metacentric (b) Submetacentric

(c) Acrocentric (d) Teloccntric

12. Puffs or balbiani rings in salivary gland chromosomes are sites of

(a) DNA replication (b) RNA synthesis

(c) DNA duplication (d) Protein synthesis

13. Chromosome theory of inheritance was proposed by

(a) Sutton (1902) (b) Boveri (1902)

(c) Sutton (1902) and Boveri (1902) (d) Correns (1909)

14. Chromatin fibres condense to form chromosomes during

(a) G-Phase (b) S-Phase

(c) Metaphase (d) Prophase

15. The stage for counting of chromosomes is

(a) Early prophase (b) Mid prophase

(c) Late prophase (d) Metaphase

16. More than 200 chromosomes occur in

(a) Chicken (b) Dog

(c) Amoeba (d) Gorilla

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17. Drosophila has four homologous pairs of chromosomes. What is the number of

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linkage groups in this animal?

(a) Four (b) Two

(c) Eight (d) Uncertain

18. The genes which are present in same chromosome are called

(a) Identical genes (b) Allelomorphs

(c) Linked genes (d) Dominant genes

19. Gene for colour blindness in men is located on

(a) X-chromosome only

(b) Y-chromosome only

(c) Either X or Y-chromosome

(d) Both X and Y-chromosomes

20. A colour blind daughter may be born if the

(a) Father is normal and mother is colour blind

(b) Father is colour blind and mother is normal

(c) Father is normal and mother is a carrier

(d) Father is colour blind and mother is a carrier

21. A somatic cell in human male contains

(a) No genes on sex chromosomes

(b) Only one sex linked gene for each character

(c) Two genes for every sex linked character

(d) Genes only on sex chromosomes

22. A normal woman is married to a colour blind man. Children are expected to be

(a) All normal

(b) 50% sons are colour blind

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(c) All daughters are normal but carrier, whereas all sons are normal

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phenotypically as well as genotypically.

(d) None of these

23. Which of the following diseases is sex linked?

(a) Colour blindness (b) Maligancy

(c) Hepatitis (d) Leukemia

24. The genes for the eye colour and size of the wing in Drosophila are located on the
same chromosome. They can be separated by

(a) Non-disjunction

(b) Crossing over

(c) Hybridisation

(d) Not be separated at any stage

25. A colour blind son is born to normal parents. It shows that

(a) The father was heterozygous for colour-blindness I

(b) The mother was genotypically homozygous

(c) The mother was heterozygous for colour-blindness

(d) Both parents carried a recessive gene for the disorder

26. Chromosomal constitutions in human female can best be written as

(a) 46 (b) 44 + 2

(c) 44A + XX (d) 44A 4- XY

27. The sex-linked characters are those

(a) Which are related to sexual physiology

(b) The genes of which are present on the sex chromosomes

(c) Which appear either in male or in female

(d) Which are controlled by sex hormone

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Y2E
UNIT-01
1. RNA molecules that exhibit catalytic activity are called

a) mRNAs b) Ribonucleases

c) Ribosomes d) Ribozymes

2. The conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate (structures shown above) is likely to require

which of the following coenzymes?

a) Biotin b) Vitamin B12

c) Thiamine pyrophosphate d) Pyridoxl phosphate

3. Which of the following hormones initiates biological actions by crossing the plasma
membrane and then binding to a receptor?

a) Glucagon b) Estradiol

c) Insulin d) Norepinephrine

4. Which of the following takes place during oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondia?

a) Protons are pumped from the matrix to the intermembrane space.

b) Protons are pumped from the intermembrane space to the matrix.

c) Electrons are pumped from the matrix to the intermembrane space.

d) Electrons are pumped from the intermembrane space to the matrix.

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5. An enzyme that catalyzes the reaction A  B changes the

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a) Heat of reaction

b) Equilibrium constant

c) Equilibrium concentration of A

d) Rate of both the forward and reverse reactions

6. The major mechanism of turnover of molecular components of the plasma membrane occurs
through

a) Endocytosis of patches of membrane

b) Diffusion of individual molecules into the cytoplasm

c) Recovery of specific components by selective receptors

d) Expulsion of integral molecules into the extracellular medium

7. Cells with abundant apical microvilli are characteristically found in

a) Exocrine glands b) The reticuloendothelial system

c) Adipose tissue d) Absorptive epithelia

8. Diacylglycerol activates which of the following enzymes?

a) Protein kinase A b) Protein kinase C

c) MAP kinase d) Tyrosine kinase

9. Cellular proteins destined fro secretion are sorted and packaged in the

a) Lysosomes b) ENdosomes

c) Endoplasmic reticulum d) Trans Golgi network

10. Incubation of gram-negative bacteria with lysozyme in an isotonic medium causes rod-
shaped bacteria to assume a spherical shape. The cause of this phenomenon is

a) Absorption of water b) Destruction of the cell wall

c) Destruction of the cytoskeleton d) Chang in gene expression

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11. Virus-mediated transfer of cellular genetic material from one bacterial cell to another by

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means of virus particles is called

a) Induction b) Transfection

c) Transformation d) Transduction

12. Which of the following processes leads to formation of polytene chromosomes?

a) Nondisjunction of chromatids during meiosis

b) Recombination between adjacent chromosome segments

c) Sister chromatid exchange

d) Repeated replication without separation of chromotids

13. True statements about retrotransposons include which of the following?

I. They replicate through an RNA intermediate.

II. They utilize reverse transcriptase for replication.

III. They may contain itrons.

a) I only b) III only

c) I and III only d) I,II,and III

14. Which of the following is true about a circular double-stranded DNA genome that is
determined by chemical means to be 21 percent adenosine?

a) The genome is 10.5% guanosine.

b) The genome is 21% guanosine.

c) The genome is 29% guanosine.

d) The genome is 58% guanosine.

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15. In the classical model of transcriptional control described by Jacob and Monod, a repressor

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protein binds to

a) An enhancer b) An AUG sequence

c) An operator d) A ribosome-binding site

16. In an intact cell, the free energy change (∆G`) associated with an enzyme-catalyzed
reaction is frequently different from the standard free energy change (∆G0`) of the same reaction
because in the intact cell the

a) Activation energy is different

b) Reaction is always near equilibrium

c) Enzyme may be regulated allosterically

d) Reactants are not at 1 M concentrations

Half-reaction E0` (V)

Funarate + 2H+ + 2e- → succinate 0.031

Oxaloacetat + 2H+ + 2e- → malate -0.166

Pyruvate + 2H+ + 2e- → lactate -0.185

Acetaldehyde + 2H+ +2e- → ethanol -0.197

NAD+ + H+ + 2e- → NADH -0.320

Acetoacetat + 2H+ +2e- →β-hydroxybutyrate -0.346

17. Which of the following redox reaction would be expected to proceed as written? (Assume
standard conditions and the presence of appropriate enzymes; E0`values are shown above.)

a) Malate + NAD+ → oxalaceteate + NADH + H+

b) Acetoacetate + NADH + H+ → β-hydroxybutyrate + NAD+

c) Pyruvate + β-hydroxybutyrate → lactate + acetoacetate

d) Malate + pyruvate → oxaloacetate + lactate

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UNIT-1

Y2E
1. An enzyme is a
(a) Vitamin (b) Amino acid
(c) Carbohydrate (d) Protein

2. Coenzyme is often a
(a) Carbohydrate (b) Protein
(c) Vitamin (d) Fatty acid

3. Coenzyme functions in association with a

(a) Vitamin (b) Protein
(c) Apoenzyme (d) Holoenzyme

4. The suffix added to the substrate for naming the enzyme is

(a) -ose (b) -ase (c) -in (d) –sin

5. The enzymes that act on starch are

(a) Hydrolases (b) Amylases
(c) Proteases (d) Ureases

6. Nobel prize for discovering enzyme was given to

(a) Buchner (b) Altman (c) Hemming (d) Fischer

7. The enzyme formed of a protein part and a non-protein part is together called-
(a) Coenzyme (b) Endoenzyme
(c) Exoenzyme (d) Holoenzyme

8. Allosteric enzymes have modulators for

(a) Both activation and inhibition (b) Inhibition only
(c) Activation only (d) Reduction in activation energy

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9. The different molecular forms of an enzyme having the same substrate specificity are

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(a) Zymogens (b) Coenzymes
(c) Isoenzymes (d) Allosteric enzymes

10. The part of an enzyme molecule where the substrate is changed to produce is called
(a) Allosteric site (b) Active rite
(c) Cofactor (d) Proesthetic group

11. Sub-product inhibition is called

(a) Substrate regulation (b) Feedback regulation
(c) Competitive inhibition (d) Non-competitive inhibition

12. The enzymes catalyzing breakdown without addition of water are called
(a) Lyases (b) Hydrolases
(c) Ligases (d) Oxidoreductases

13. The word -ase added to the substrate name for enzyme naming is
(a) Suffixed (b) Prefixed
(c) Interpolated (d) Conjugated

14. Part of the active site of enzyme where substrate is held is known as
(a) Turnover number (b) Catalytic group
(c) Activation energy (d) Buttressing group

15. Turnover number of fastest enzyme is

(a) 18x 104 (b) 104 (c) 36 x 106 (d) 105

16. The fastest enzyme is

(a) Urease (b) Carbonic anhydrase
(c) Trypsin (d) Pepsin

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17. Substrate concentration at which an enzyme attains half its maximum velocity is called

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(a) Threshold value (b) Michaelis-Menten Constant
(c) Half life (d) Concentration coefficient

18. An allosteric enzyme has

(a) One active site
(b) One active site and one allosteric site
(c) Active site and two types of allosteric sites
(d) Two types of active sites

19. Competitive inhibition is due to a

(a) Protein poison
(b) Substrate analogue
(c) Non-availability of activation energy
(d) Short-wave radiation

20. Enzyme aldolase which helps in combining dihydroxyacetone phosphate with

glyceraldehyde phosphate belongs to the category of
(a) Ligases (b) Hydrolases
(c) Transferases (d) Lyases

21. Enzyme taking part in converting dihydro-oxyacetone phosphate to alyceraldehyde

phosphate belongs to the type of
(a) Isomerases (b) Hydrolases
(c) Ligases (d) Transferases

22. Spoilage of food material is prevented in cold storage due to

(a) Reduced respiration at low temperature
(b) reduced enzyme activity in the food articles
(c) Reduced enzyme activity in microbes as well as food articles
(d) Purified nature of air

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23. A substance which accelerates a biochemical reaction but itself does not undergo any

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change is
(a) Catalyst (b) Enzyme
(c) Modulator (d) Activator

24. A substance, unrelated to substrate reversibly changes the activity of an enzyme is

(a) Competitive inhibitor
(b) Allosteric subunit
(c) Allosteric modulator
(d) Non-competitive inhibitor

25. An enzyme accelerates a biochemical reaction by

(a) Increasing substrate movements
(b) Changing free energy
(c) Production of heat
(d) Lowering energy of activation

26. In certain metobolic pathways, a number of enzymes are required. These multi-enzyme
complexes occur enclosed in
(a) Membranes (b) ATP-rich area
(c) Microbodies (d) Endoplasmic reticulum

27. Feedback inhibition is caused by blocking of the enzymes by

(a) Accumalated end products
(b) Chemicals produced by hormones
(c) Hormones
(d) Competitive inhibition

28. Energy required for start of a chemical reaction is

(a) Activation energy (b) Entrophy
(c) Potential energy (d) Kinetic energy

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UNIT-1

Y2E
1. When determining distance and size, the smallest unit of measure is the-
a) Millimeter b) Microliter
c) Centimeter d) Nanometer

2. The compound light microscope can be used to observe-

a) Atoms, proteins, viruses and bacteria
b) Viruses, bacteria, cell organelles, and RBCs
c) Amino acids, bacteria, and RBCs
d) Bacteria, cell organelles and RBCs

3. The average wavelength of light visible to our eye is-

a) 800 nm b) 100 nm
c) 200 nm d) 420 nm

4. In a population where warfarin is no longer applied, the expectation is that the

a) Dominant gene (R) will supplant the recessive gene (r) in the population

b) Heterozygotes (Rr) will have a reproductive advantage over both homozygotes (RR

and rr)

c) Frequency of the dominant gene (R) will decline

d) Frequency of recessive individuals will gradually decline

5. Match the following

1. Reflection a) Light passing from one medium to another is bent at an angle
2. Transmission b) Light bounces back off surface of an object
3. Refraction c) Light is captured inside of object
4. Absorption d) Light passes directly through object
5. Fluorescence e) Light changes to a different wavelength

a) 1-b; 2-d; 3-a; 4-c; 5-e b) 1-d; 2-b; 3-c; 4-a; 5-e
c) 1-e; 2-c; 3-a; 4-d; 5-a d) None of these
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6. In light microscope, what function does a condenser serve?

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a) Focuses the light rays onto our eyes
b) Magnifies the light rays after their passage through the sample
c) Focus the light rays on the sample
d) Increase the light intensity

7. The amino acids in the amino acid sequences of the polypeptide chains human proteins
differ from those of chimpanzees by approximately what percentage?

a) 90% b) 1%

c) 30% d) 15%

8. The total magnification of a microscope is calculated by-

a) Addition of the objective lens and ocular lens magnification power
b) Multiplication of the objective lens and ocular lens magnification power
c) Multiplication of the objective lens and condenser lens magnification power
d) The objective lens power squared

9. If one compares the primary structure of the protein cytochrome-c in organisms that are
separated in evolutionary time, e.g., humans and yeast, one discovers that

a) Hydrophilic amino acids are usually substituted for hydrophobic amino acids.

b) The overall tertiary structure of the molecules is quite different.

c) The proteins have evolved different functions

d) Considerable sequence similarity exists between the two proteins

10. What does heat fixation of a bacterial smear accomplished?

a) More quickly dry the specimen
b) Cause the bacteria to adhere to the slide
c) Cause the bacteria to shrink and adhere to the slide
d) Cause organisms to adhere to the slide, kill microbes and make them stain more
readily

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11. Which of the following stain is used frequently to identify Micobacterium and other
bacteria whose cell walls contains high amount of lipids?
a) Gram stain b) Lipidialar stain
c) Schaeffer-Fulton stain d) Spore stain
12. Which of the following stain is used to classify microorganisms based on their cell wall
content?
a) Capsular stain b) Negative stain
c) Gram stain d) Methylene blue

13. Which of the following is an advantage of confocal microscopy over conventional

fluorescence microscopy?

a) The interaction of a laser beam with the cell surface allows the imaging of individual

macromolecules.

b) The use of electrons instead of light to image the specimen results in greatly increased

resolving power.

c) Optical sections can be taken at different depths in a specimen.

d) Only scattered light enters the microscope lens, making the object appear illuminated

against a dark background.

14. Which of the following properties is common to all cytoskeletal motor proteins (such as
kinesins, dyneins, and myosis)?

a) An actin-binding domain

b) Two globular-head domains

c) The ability to bind to biological membranes

d) ATPase activity

15. Which of the following is NOT involved in the processing of mRNA precursors in
eukaryotic cells?

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a) Capping of the 5’end

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b) Addition of poly A

c) Excision of introns

d) Transport of the pre-mRNA to the cytoplasm

16. The order of reagents used in the grams stain are:

a) Crystal violet, iodine, safranine, alcohol
b) Alcohol, crystal violate, iodine, safranine
c) Iodine, crystal violet, safranine, alcohol
d) Crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranine

17. A neutron has nearly the same mass as a proton. In absolute terms, each proton or neutron
weighs---

a) 1.66043 x 10~24 g. b) a) 1.66043 x 10~12 g.

c) a) 1.66043 x 10~6 g. d) a) 1.66043 x 10~3 g.

18. Following a Gram stain you observe clear, glassy areas inside the bacterial cells. What
would you do next?
a) A simple stain
b) A flagellar stain
c) Another Gram stain
d) An endospore stain

19. The presence of a capsule around bacterial cells usually indicates their increased disease-
causing potential and resistance to disinfection. Capsules are generally viewed by:
a) Spore staining
b) Scanning electron microscopy
c) Gram staining
d) Negative staining

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UNIT-1

Y2E
1. Light reaction accomplishes:
a) Photolysis of water b) Evolution of oxygen
c) Production of energy rich compounds d) All the above events

2. Evolution of oxygen takes place in:

a) Light reaction
b) Dark reaction
c) Both light reaction and dark reaction
d) Electron transport chain between PS I and PS II.

3. Splitting of water is associated with:

a) Pigment system I (P 700)
b) Pigment system II (P 680)
c) Pigment system I (P 890)
d) All the above
4. Electrons are transported from water to PS II reaction centre through water oxidizing
complex is a theory of:
a) Kok et all b) Hill and Bendall
c) Arnon d) Mitchell

5. Ruben, Hassid and Kamen (1941) confirmed using isotopic technique that in
photosynthesis:
a) Oxygen comes from carbon – dioxide
b) Oxygen comes from water
c) Oxygen comes form carbon – dioxide and water both.
d) Oxygen comes form nitrogen peroxide

6. ‘z’ scheme of photosynthetic electron transport was discovered by:

a) Robert Hill b) Kok et al
c) Hill and Bendall d) Van – Niel
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7. Chemi – osmotic coupling theory of phosphorylation was proposed by:

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a) P. Mitchell b) Huber et al
c) R. Emerson d) Lewis

8. Chlorophyll a differs from chlorophyll b in having:

a) Methyl group at tetraphyrrole ring I
b) Aldehyde group at tetraphyrrole ring I
c) Methyl group at tetrapyrrole ring II
d) Aldehtde group at tetraphyrrole ring II

9. Solarization is a phenomenon of:

a) Absorption of light be etiolated leaves
b) Absorption of light by green leaves
c) Oxidation of reaction centre of PS II by high intensity of light
d) Oxidation of antenna molecules of PS II by high intensity of light

10. Light dependent step of chlorophyll synthesis is conversion of:

a) Protochlorophyllide to chlorophyllide a
b) Protoprophyrigogen to protoporphyrin
c) Chlorophyllide a to chlorophyll a
d) Uroporphyrinogen to coproporphyrinogen

11. Thylakoids are not stacked in granum in:

a) Algae b) Bryophytes
c) Angiosperms d) Conifers

12. A quantasome comprises of:

a) Pigment system I only
b) Pigment system II only
c) Pigment system I and pigment II both
d) Two photosynthetic units

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13. Each photosystem comprises of:

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a) Antenna molecules
b) Antenna chlorophylls
c) Antenna molecules
d) Antenna chlorophylls and reaction centre

14. In green light maximum photosynthesis in:

a) Red algae
b) Blue green algae
c) Green algae
d) Antenna chlorophylls and reaction centre

15. “Soret band” is shown by chlorophyll molecules in:

a) Violet blue region
b) Red region
c) Yellow – orange region
d) indigo – green region

16. Which one of the following is synthesized in the dark reaction?

a) PGA b) ATP
+
c) NADPH + H d) O 2

17. RuBisCO is made up of:

a) 14 sub – units b) 15 sub – unit
c) 16 sub – units d) 18 sub – unit

18. Photosynthesis is maximum in:

a) Red light as both pigment systems lie in this region
b) Blue light as it has more energy
c) Green light as it is absorbed by red pigments
d) White light as it comprises of all colours

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19. Which of the following is called ‘assimilatory power’:

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a) NADPH + H+ b) NADH + H+
c) NADPH + H+ + ATP d) NADH + H+ +ATP

20. Dichlorophenyl dimethyl urea (DCMU) inhibits flow of electrons:

a) In non – cyclic electron transport system
b) In cyclic electron transport system
c) Both cyclic and non – cyclic electron transport system
d) In none of the electron transport system

21. Photophosphorylation takes place in:

a) Mitochondria b) Chloroplast
` c) Cytoplasm d) All the above

22. First stable product of Calvin cycle is a:

a) 3 – carbon compound b) 2 – carbon compound
c) 4 – carbon compound d) 6 – carbon compound

23. C 4 cycle occurs in:

a) Temperate plants
b) Tropical plants
c) Shade loving plants
d) Both temperate and tropical plants

24. Which of the following enzyme has dual role:

a) PEP carboxylase b) RUBISCO
c) Phosphorylase d) Aldolase

25. Photorespiration does not occur in:

a) C 4 plants b) CAM plants
c) C 3 plants d) Temperate plants

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UNIT – 1

Y2E
1. The oxygen that keeps us alive is a product of photosynthesis. It comes from
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Carbonates absorbed from soil
c) Oxides of mineral elements
d) Water

2. Milk tastes sour when kept in the open for some time due to the formation of
a) Carbonic acid b) Citric acid
c) Lactic acid d) Malic acid

3. Prokaryotes are
a) Animals without well – developed nervous system
b) Organisms lacking a definite nucleus
c) Primitive plants without vascular systems
d) Plants that do not produce flowers and fruits

4. Honey that has a high concentration of sugar does not decay because
a) It contains natural antioxidant that prevents bacteria attack
b) Bacteria cannot survive in an active state in a solution of high osmotic strength as
waters is drawn out
c) Bacteria cannot survive in an active state as it is totally deprived of oxygen
d) None of these

5. The chromosome number in a bacterium is

a) 1 b) 2
c) 4 d) varies with species

6. A plant cell is distinguished from an animal cell by the presence of

a) Chloroplasts b) Cell wall
c) Cell membrane d) Nucleus
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7. On chemical analysis, a bottle – cork is found to contain primarily

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a) Carbohydrates b) Lipids
c) Tannins d) Proteins

8. Which of the following plant disease is caused by mineral deficiency?

a) Heart rot of beets b) Ring rot of potato
c) Red rot of sugarcane d) Wilt of cotton

9. Which of the following organelles is termed the powerhouse of a cell?

a) Chloroplasts b) Golgi apparatus
c) Mitochondrion d) Nucleus

10. Granum is a component of

a) Chloroplasts b) Golgi apparatus
c) Ribosomes d) Starch grains

11. In plant cell, DNA is found in

a) Chloroplasts b) Mitochondria
c) Nucleus d) All these
12. Cell sap is
a) A dilute solution of minerals and some organic substances in the vacuole
b) A dilute solution of minerals in water absorbed by the plant from the cell
c) Exudate from the cell
d) A solution of different organic substances dissolved in the cytoplasm

13. The edible is a fruit in which one of the following crops?

a) Coconut b) Groundnut
c) Pea d) Wheat
14. The virus that infects a bacterium is
a) arbovirus b) Viraemia
c) Bacteriophage d) Baclofen

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15. Binomial nomenclature refers to

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a) Naming a plant/animal twice
b) Scientific naming of an organism consisting of two words
c) Two names of a living organism – scientific name and a local name
d) Two phases in the life of an organism

16. To which group of plants does the banyan tree belong?

a) Angiosperms b) Gymnosperms
c) Pteridophytes d) Pheophyta

17. A liverwort is
a) An animal parasite infecting the liver
b) A land plant without differentiation into root, stem and leaves
c) A kind of bacterium infecting the liver
d) A plant with its flowers shaped like the human liver

18. “Flame of the forest” refers to

a) A lady with flame in her hands found in the forest
b) A forest full of trees which burst with red flowers during autumn
c) A fire always found in some jungles
d) The little of a book
19. A herbarium is
a) A collection of herbs in dried form
b) A garden with a varied collection of herbs
c) A garden with a collection of medicinal herbs
d) A centre for the preservation of dried specimen of plant
20. Taxonomy is a science dealing with the
a) Classification of all living organisms
b) Classification of plants
c) Identification, nomenclature, and classification of all living organisms
d) Structure and function of living organisms

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21. The widely used antibiotic, penicillin, is produced by

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a) An alga b) A bacterium
c) A fungus d) Synthetic means

22. Lichen is considered to be a symbiotic association of two living organisms. Which

organisms are involved in it?
a) Algae and bacteria b) Algae and fungi
c) Algae and bryophytes d) Fungi and bryophytes

23. Agar, commonly used as a synthetic growth medium and in bakery, is obtained from
a) Algae b) Mosses
c) Cycas d) Pine

24. Which of the following human disease/s is/are caused by a mutant gene?
a) Hemophilia b) Sickle cell anaemia
c) Thalassemia d) All the above

25. Which of the following shows a taxonomically closely – related group?

a) Earthworm, ringworm, tape – worm
b) Silverfish, cuttlefish, starfish
c) Housefly, dragonfly, butterfly
d) Sea horse, sea anemone, sea urchin

26. Which scientist was responsible for binomial nomenclature?

a) Darwin b) Hooker
c) Theophrastus d) Linnaeus

27. Which of the following is not a parasite?

a) Louse b) Mosquito
c) Tick d) Housefly

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UNIT – 1

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1. Which of the following cereal was among the first to be used by man?
a) Barley b) Oat
c) Rye d) Wheat

2. Lysine is an essential amino acid for man and, therefore, has to be an essential component
of human diet. The highest content of this amino acid is found in:
a) Wheat b) Rye
c) Oat d) Barley

3. Consider the following crop plants cultivated in our country:

1. Maize 2. Spinach
3. Tobacco 4. Barley

Which of these are long – day plants?

a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 4
c) 3 and 4 d) 2 and 3

4. Which of the following plants belong to the same plant family?

1. Apple 2. Apricot
3. Al nond 3. Peach
Select the correct answer from the codes give below:
a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

5. A plant known only in cultivation, having arisen under domestication is referred to as:
a) Cultigen b) Cultivar
c) Clone d) Scion
6. The pores in leaves through which liquid water oozes out at times are called:
a) Hydathodes b) Lenticels
c) Phyllopores d) Stomata
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7. The tissue that is involved in the transport of food material in plants is called:

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a) Parenchyma b) Phloem
c) Sclerenchyma d) Xylem

8. Match the crop plants in List I with their botanical names in List II and select the correct
answer by using the codes given below the list:
List I List II
(Crop Plants) (Botanical Name)
a) Cotton 1. Mangifera indica
b) Grapes 2. Oryza Sativa
c) Rice 3. Gossypium hirsutum
d) Mango 4. Vitis vinifera

a) a-2; b-3; c-1; d-4 b) a-3; b-4; c-2; d-1

c) a-3; b-1; c-2; d-4 d) a-4; b-1; c-2; d-3

9. The international Board for Plant Genetic Resources (IBPGR) was established in 1974 at:
a) New Delhi b) Philippines
c) Boston d) Rome

10. Dr. E.H. Wilson, one of the greatest among the plant hunters, is well – known for his
collection an introduction of the ‘regal lily’ to the United States of America. The plant was
collected from:
a) China b) Japan
c) India d) Scandinavia

11. Plants that are unable to synthesize their own food and are, therefore, dependent on other
sources of food are called:
a) Parasites b) Auxotrophs
c) Chemotrophs d) Heterotrophs

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12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists.

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List I List II
a) Fruit repening 1. Gibberellins
b) Cell division 2. Auxins
c) Apical dominance 3. Cytokinins
d) Stem elongation 4. Ethylene

a) a-3; b-1; c-2; d-4 b) a-4; b-3; c-2; d-1

c) a-1; b-2; c-3; d-4 d) a-2; b-1; c-4; d-3

13. The ripening of fruits can be accelerated by:

a) Decreasing oxygen concentration of the surroundings
b) Increasing ethylene concentration of the surroundings
c) Reducing water supply to the plants
d) Spraying urea during maturation of fruits

14. Nearly 90% of the global food supply comes from

a) Only five plant species
b) One dozen plant species
c) Nearly two dozen plant species
d) More than three dozen plant species

15. The primary role of vegetables and fruits in our diet is to supply us necessary minerals and
vitamins. Which of the following vegetables and fruit crop/s is/are a rich source of Vitamin A (or
its presucsor)
a) Carrot b) Tomato
c) Mango d) All the above

16. The genetic material in viruses is:

a) Double – stranded DNA b) Single – stranded DNA
c) RNA d) All the above

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17. A gram of fertile agricultural soil may contain bacteria up to:

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a) Fifty thousand b) Five hundred thousand
c) Five million d) One billion and above

18. A fungus, Trichoderma viride, one of the worst pests of World War II, is now being
cultured by the United States Army because of its capacity to:
a) Convert newspaper wastes and other municipal debris into glucose
b) Convert newspaper wastes, straw, and peanut shells into useful sugars
c) Synthesize cellulose
d) Synthesize various compounds for chemical warfare

19. A disease that occurs periodically in a widespread area causing devastating damage to crop
plants is referred to as:
a) Endemic b) Epiphytotic
c) Extensive d) Sporatic

20. Match the plant disease in List I with the causative agent in List II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
(Plant disease) (Causative agent)
a) Karnal bunt 1. Fungus
b) Citrus dieback 2. Bacterium
c) Sesamum 3. Virus
d) Tunda disease 4. Mycoplasma
5. Nematode
a) a-2; b-3; c-4; d-1 b) a-1; b-5; c-4; d-2
c) a-5; b-2; c-3; d-4 d) a-4; b-5; c-3; d-1

21. Which of the following plant/animal disease are not caused by viruses?
1. Bunchy top 2. Kuru
3. Leaf Curl 4. Potato spindle – tuber
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