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PART XI
1. Diamond is a:
(a) Metal (b) Non-metal (c) Glass (d) Composite
2. Number of atoms in a Body Centered Cubic (BCC) crystal are:
(a) Ten (b) Seventeen (c) Nine (d) Fourteen
3. Type of bond formed in a material by sharing of electrons in different atoms is:
(a) Ionic Bond (b) Covalent Bond
(c) Metallic Bond (d) Electrostatic bond
4. A crack in a metal due to corrosive atmosphere and static tensile stress is known as:
(a) Bauschingers effect (b) Work hardening (c) Season cracking (d) Strain aging
5. A metal part or structure fails under repetitive or fluctuating loading or stress is called:
(a) Fatigue fracture (b) Ductile fracture (c) Creep fracture (d) Brittle fracture
6. (1) An intermetallic compound is a form of alloy, where as
(2) Substitutional solid solution is a type of solid solution
(a) 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect (b) 2 is correct & one is incorrect
(c) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect (d) Both, (1) and (2) are correct
7. Property of a material to resist indentation is known as:
(a) Toughness (b) Hardness (c) Brittleness (d) Strength
8. Conductivity and Expansion are physical terms which are related to:
(a) Electricity (b) Heat (c) Cooling (d) None of these
9. Addition of carbon to the surface of steel to make it hard, is known as:
(a) Case hardening (b) Carburizing (c) Quenching (d) None of these
10. Permanent deformation of metal caused by applied load is called:
(a) Stress (b) Elastic deformation (c) Plastic deformation (d) None of these
11. The point at which marked increase in deformation occurs without increasing the load
during tensile testing of a material, is:
(a) Yield point (b) Yield strength (c) Proof strength (d) Tensile strength
12. For tensile testing, the extensometer must be calibrated to:
(a) 0.0001 inch (b) 0.0002 inch (c) 0.0003 inch (d) 0.0004 inch
13. Yield strength of a metal can be determined by:
(a) Divider method (b) Drop of beam method
(c) Set method (d) None of these
14. In Brinell Hardness Testing, hard metal will have:
(a) Large Brinell number (b) Small Brinell number
(c) No effect by hardness (d) None of these
15. In Vickers Hardness Test, angles between two opposite diagonals of diamond pyramid
is:
(a) 1260 (b) 1360 (c) 1460 (d) 1560
16. Size of specimen taken for reverse bending test is:
(a) 5 inches (b) 10 inches (c) 15 inches (d) 20 inches
17. In reverse bending test, number of bends require for small wires
(a) 50 bends (b) 7 bends (c) 10 bends (d) 90 bends
18. Torsion test is carried out on
(a) Aircraft tubes (b) Wires (c) Sheets & strips (d) Bars & rods
19. In radiography inspection, the wave length of x-rays are in order of
(a) 10-6 (b) 10-10 (c) 10-11 (d) 10-6 10-9
20. Circular magnetization detects the defect approximately:
(a) In line with flux (b) Parallel to the line of flux
(c) Parallel to the axis of the part (d) None of these
21. Type of bond formed in a material by Electrons cloud is:
(a) Ionic bond (b) Covalent bond (c) Mettalic bond (d) Electrostatic
22. For tensile testing, it is permitted to taper the gauge length of the specimen towards
center, maximum by:
(a) 0.001 inch (b) 0.002 inch (c) 0.002 inch (d) 0.004 inch
23. For elastic limit determination, the extensometer reading is taken from:
(a) 5% load of expected elastic limit (b) 10% load of expected elastic limit
(c) 15% load of expected elastic limit (d) 20% load of expected elastic limit
24. While testing a material for hardness, sufficient distance from edges should be there to
avoid:
(a) Buldging at opposite side (b) Deflection while testing
(c) Ridge scales (d) Scratches
25. (1) Diameter of ball used for Brinell Hardness Test is up to inches, where as
(2) Load applied for soft material is 500 kg.
(a) (1) is true and (2) is false (b) (2) is true and (1) is false
(c) Both are true (d) Both are false
26. Brinell Hardness Number is obtained by:
a) Size of ball divided by area of depression
b) Area of depression divided by size of ball
c) Load applied divided by area of depression
d) None of these
27. Maximum size of ball for Rockwell hardness test is:
(a) 5mm (b) 10mm (c) mm (d) 1 mm
28. In Rockwell hardness test, the working range of the B scale is:
(a) B0 B150 (b) B0 B100 (c) B0 B20 (d) None of these
29. In Rockwell hardness test, B scale is a combination of:
(a) Diamond cone, 150kg load and Red dial
(b) 1/16 inch ball, 100kg load and Black dial
(c) Diamond cone, 100kg load and Black dial
(d) 1/16 inch ball, 100kg load and Red dial
30. Minimum thickness necessary with hard steel for Rcokwell hardness test is:
(a) 0.027 inch (b) 0.27 inch (c) 0.0027 inch (d) None of these
31. Load applied in Shore Scleroscope hardness test is:
(a) 30 kg (b) 50 kg (c) 10 kg (d) None of these
32. For bending test of sheet and strips, the size of test specimen is:
(a) 1 to 1 inch wide with suitable length
(b) 1 by in cross section
(c) Full section
(d) None of these
33. In reverse bending test, the specimen is bent through an angle of:
(a) 600 (b) 900 (c) 1200 (d) 1800
34. In Izod impact test, the specimen is :
(a) Supported on two supports (b) Clamped in heavy jaws
(c) Attached with pendulum (d) None of these
35. In Hydrostatic test, welded exhaust tubing are subjected to an internal pressure
sufficient to put the welded seam under a tensile stress of:
(a) 1000 PSI (b) 10000 PSI (c) 100000 PSI (d) 1000000 PSI
36. In torsion testing of wires, speed of revolution should not be more than:
(a) 80 revolution/min (b) 70 revolution/min (c) 60 revolution/min (d) 50 revolution/min
37. In fatigue testing, the value of stress below which failure of material will not occur is
known as:
(a) Plastic limit (b) Elastic limit (c) Proof stress (d) Endurance limit
38. Gamma rays used for inspecting aircraft material for internal cracks / defects are
having wave length of:
PAPER - II PART X
1. Chain (thick line of 0.7mm) indicates
PAPER - II
PART X
17. Anti-corrosive treatment given to copper and its alloys in order to reduce electric potential
between these parts and its adjacent steel or aluminium parts is
a. Galvanizing b. Parkerizing
c. Metal spraying d. Cadmium plating
18. In order to increase elasticity and strength and reduce tackiness in rubber, the process is known
as
a. Vulcanizing b. Calendering c. Hardening d. None
19. Aircraft rivets are identified by
a. Head style
b. Alloy
c. Length & diameter
d. All
20. For accurate location of particular area on an aircraft, which of the following is necessary?
a. Water line
b. Butt line
c. As in a) and b) in conjunction with station line
d. None
21. Which type of corrosion is occurred in stainless steel after electric arc welding?
a. Pitting
b. Galvanic
c. Inter crystalline
d. Fretting
22. For spot welding, in stainless steel, which is most suitable
a. Low-voltage
b. High-amperage
c. Low-voltage and High-amperage
d. High-voltage and Low-amperage
23. Heat generated in spot welding is measured by
a. Resistance x (Current)2 x Time
b. Resistance x Time / (Current)2
c. (Current)2 / Resistance x Time
d. Resistance x Current
24. Which of the following is Non-Magnetic?
a. Inconel
b. K-Monel
c. Monel
d. All
25. SAE 13XX represents
a. Magnesium Steel
b. Manganese Steel
c. Silicon Steel
d. Chromium Steel
26. Hot piece of metal is increased in thickness and decreased in length
a. Upsetting
b. Down setting
c. Swaging
d. Rolling
27. Rivets are designed
a. Stronger in shear
b. Stronger in tension
c. Should not be subjected to excessive tension load
d. Both a) and c)
28. Zero fuel weight means
a. AUW minus weight of fuel
b. Weight of cargo, passenger and crew
c. Maximum allowable weight of loaded aircraft without fuel and statement b)
d. All of these
29. I-beam is produced by
a. Rolling b. Casting
c. Forging d. None
30. Caustic cleaning products used on Al-structure have the effect of producing
a. Passive oxidation
b. Improved corrosion resistance
c. Corrosion
d. None
31. Fayed surface cause concern in chemical cleaning because of the danger of
a. Forming passive oxide
b. Entrapping corrosive material
c. Corrosion by embedded iron oxide
d. All of the above
32. The rust or corrosion that occurs with most of the metal is the result of
a. A tendency for them to return their natural state
b. Blocking the flow of electrons in homogenous metals or between dissimilar metal
c. Electron flow in or between metal for cathode to anode area
d. All of the above
33. Which of the listed condition is not one of the requirements for corrosion to occur
a. Presence of electrolyte
b. Electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic area
c. Presence of passive oxide film
d. None of these
34. Inter-granular corrosion on Al-alloy part
a. May be detected by surface pitting, white powdery deposit
b. Appears as thread like filament
c. Cannot always be detected by surface indication
d. All of the above
35. Which type of pipe wrench is designed with adjustable serrated jaws for gripping round pipes?
a. Warnok type
b. Stillson type
c. Super wrench tool
d. Williams type
36. Vise grip pliers is also known as
a. Heavy pliers
b. Lever jaw wrench
c. Monkey pliers
d. None
37. Punch holders are used to hold
a. Punches
b. Chisels
c. Both a & b are correct
d. As in a, when a hard blow is required
38. Which pliers can be used for completing the safety wire operation?
a. Safety wire pliers
b. Diagonals & duck bill pliers
c. Both a & b are correct
d. As in a & diagonals
39. Diagonals are used for
a. Cutting steel wires & rods
b. Cutting bolt heads
c. Both a & b are correct
d. None
40. The shape of long nose pliers is
a. Round
b. Half-round
c. Square
d. None
41. The jaws of vise grip pliers is released from locking by
a. A small lever at each handle
b. A compound lever at both handles
c. A small lever at one of the handles
d. None
42. Which thread is used where a great strength is required in one direction?
a. Acme
b. Square
c. Worm
d. Buttress
43. In interlocking-joint pliers,
a. There are a number of holes at the hinge point
b. There are two holes at the hinge point
c. There are several curved grooves at the hinge point
d. None
44. Which nut is used to prevent other nuts from turning on threaded bolt or rod
a. Self-locking nut
b. Jamb nut
c. Stainless steel nut with cotter pin
d. None of these
45. The content of CO2 fire extinguisher or N2 pressurized extinguisher is checked by
a. Weight and pressure gauge
b. Marking on neck
c. By operating the extinguisher
d. All of the above
46. Choose incorrect statement
a. Yellow poly propylene provide insufficient strength
b. Proper tension in rope allows 1 movement
c. Manila rope requires extra slak due to shrinks
d. The rope from tail should pull away at about 450 to each side of tail
47. Which type of jack is used for L/G retraction check
a. Single base jack
b. Bottle neck jack
c. Screw jack
d. Tripod jack
48. Which measuring tool is used for outside or inside measurement for faster work
a. Vernier micrometer
b. Vernier calliper
c. Micrometer calliper
d. None of these
49. Which is incorrect statement
a. If corrosion is present in control cable should be replaced
b. Cable used in seaplane must be coated with paral-ketone
c. For detection of corrosion, cable twist in same way of lay
d. Carbon steel cable must be used with protective coating
50. After welding aluminium parts flux should be removed by
a. Immersing them in Luke warm water for 30 minutes
b. Mechanical means, i.e. Wire brushing as the flux is not soluble in water
c. Washing the parts in boiling water containing 5% HNO3
d. Vacuum blasting
51. A gusset is
a. A bracing between longerons
b. A type of connecting bracket
c. Used for fail safe construction
d. Like a butt plate
52. In computer terminology, MICR means
a. Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
b. Magnetic Ink Computer Recognition
c. Monitor Indicating Computer Relay
d. Mass Information Computer Record
53. The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely resistive circuit is given by
a. 00
b. 900
c. 450
d. 1350
PAPER - II PART IX
PAPER - II
PART IX
1. In electromagnetic method of fast erection, the output of secondary winding of transformer is:
a. 115V AC b. 20 V AC c. 28V DC d. 185V AC
2. For compensation of pendulosity error, the amount of inclination is governed by value of:
a. 0.50 b. 1.750 c. Either a) or b) d. None
3. In turn & ship indicator, the precession of gyro is equal to
a) Angular momentum of gyro b) Rate or turn
c) Product of a) & b) d) None
4. In TSI, in practice, the gimbal ring deflection is generally not more than
a) 50 b) 120 c) 80 d) 60
5. Under banked turn in TSI means
a) Skid out of turn b) Slip into turn c) None
6. Crank case of a piston engine is made up of:
a) One piece construction b) Two piece construction
c) Multiple piece construction d) All of the above
7. Crank case provides
a) Attachment of the cylinder b) Attachment of propeller
c) Tight enclosure for lubricating oil & a) d) All of the above
8. In radial engine, impeller & blower are found in
a) Power section b) Nose section
c) Super charger section d)Accessory section
9. Crank shaft
a) Converts heat energy in propulsive force
b) Converts heat energy in mechanical work
c) Transform reciprocating motion of piston in to rotary motion
d) As in c) & to rotating propeller shaft
10. Double throw crankshaft, also known as
a) 3600 crank shaft b) 600 crank shaft
c) 800 crank shaft d) 1800 crank shaft
11. Maximum strength of fibres is in which direction of bi-directional fabric
a) Warp b) Weft c) Biased d) Fill
12. Which of the following is the unidirectional fabric style?
a) Mats b) Tapes c) Kevlar c)Fiber glass
13. Which of the following can use as leak tester
a) Ultrasound method (Water immersion method b) Dye-penetrant method
c) Magnetic particle inspection d) None of these
14. Elliptical motion of wave on the upper surface of material known as
a) Shear wave b) Compression wave
c) Surface wave d) Tension wave
15. Thin sheet metals weld defect can be inspected by
a) X-Ray b) Ultrasonic method
c) Eddy current d) None of these
16. By which method we cannot detect the inter-granular corrosion easily
a) Ultrasonic method b) Eddy current
c) Magnetic particle d) X-Ray
17. Grinding cracks on small radius bends is appeared as __________ in magnetic particle inspection
a) Irregular lines over affected area b) Short parallel lines
c) Dotted patch d) Scattered small lines
18. Permeability of material is the function of
a) Magnetising force b) Flux density
c) Both a) and b) are correct d) None of these
19. Which instrument is used for checking the surface roughness?
a) Spectrometer b) Prosfetrometer
c) Profilometer d) Hilsegmetometer
20. The content of CO2 fire extinguisher or N2 pressurized extinguisher is checked by
a) Weight and pressure gauge b) Marking on neck
c) By operating the extinguisher d) All of these
21. Which is incorrect statement?
76. In ball type erection unit, rotation of holder takes place through reduction gear from gyro rotor
shaft, the speed of holder being__________
a) 25 rpm b) 20 rpm c) 30 rpm d) 35 rpm
77. In torque motor and levelling switch type of erection system the supply fed to the centre
electrode is
a) 25V AC b) 20V AC c) 12V AC d) 15V AC
78. Fast Erection system is supplied with
a) 28V DC b) 115V AC c) 25V AC d) None
79. Erection rate of normal erection system is
a) 50/sec b) 50/min c) 30/min d) 30/sec
80. Erection rate of fast erection system is
a) 50/sec b) 50/min c) 30/min d) 30/sec
PAPER - II
PART VIII
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C
6. A 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. A
11. B 12. D 13. D 14. D 15. D
16. A 17. D 18. B 19. B 20. D
21. C 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. B
26. A 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. A
31. B 32. D 33. D 34. C 35. C
36. A 37. D 38. D 39. C 40. B
41. A 42. C 43. C 44. D 45. D
46. D 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. B
51. A 52. B 53. B 54. A 55. A
56. D 57. C 58. B 59. A 60. A
61. C 62. B 63. C 64. D 65. B
66. D 67. D 68. B 69. D 70. C
71. A 72. C 73. B 74. D 75. B
76. A 77. B 78. B 79. B 80. D
63. Transfer of electrical energy from one conductor to another without the add of electrical connections
a) is called induction b) is called air gap transfer
c) Will cause excessive arching and heat, and as a result is impractical
64. Diodes are used in electrical power circuit primarily as
a) Switches b) Rectifiers c) Relays d) Contactors
65. If three resistors of 3, 5 and 22 ohms are connected in series in a 28V circuit, how much current will flow
through the 3 ohms resistor?
a) 9.3 amps b) 1.05 amps c) 0.93 amps d) 10.05 amps
66. What is the value of a resistance if given colour codes as brown, black, brown, black and brown.
a) 1010 ohms b) 1000 ohms c) 101 ohms d) 10.1 K ohms
67. What is the value of a capacitor if given colour codes are orange, orange, blue and white.
a) 33nF b) 33F c) 33pF d) 3300F
68. The output of a astable multi-vibrator is
a) Triangular wave b) Saw tooth wave c) Sinusoidal wave d) Square wave
69. In an oscilloscope by varying intensity control, what actually varied internally?
a) Cathode voltage b) Anode voltage c) Grid voltage d) Cathode current
70. The output of NOT gate is always
a) High b) Low c) Same as input
d) Complementary of input
71. Oxy acetylene welding process is suitable for joining metal sheets and plates having thickness of
a) 1 to 30mm b) 2 to 50 mm c) 2 to 40mm d) All of these
72. In oxyacetylene welding, welding rod is required as a filter metal when welding is carried out above
a) 15mm b) 10mm c) 40mm d) 5mm
73. In oxyacetylene welding, neutral flame produces a maximum temperature of
a) 30000F b) 32000F c) 32000C d) 30000C
74. Standard colour for oxygen hose is
a) Black b) Red c) Green d) None of these
75. In magnet steel, the alloying elements are
a) Nickel, Cobalt b) Silicon, Nickel
c) Molybdenum, Copper d) Tungsten, Cobalt
76. Maximum distance between support for fluid tubing of 1/8 size of steel is
a) 12 b) 14 c) 9.5 d) 11.5
77. MS 20004 is a
a) Internal wrenching bolt b) Close tolerance bolt
c) Clevis bolt d) None of these
78. Mark the incorrect statement, regarding K monel metal
a) It is ferrous alloy b) It is used for gears and chain
c) It is non ferrous alloy d) It is corrosion resistant
79. The symbol is for
a) Wood b) Cast iron
c) Steel d) Rubber
80. Ballast is used on a/c
a) To attain the desired c.g. b) To increase the weightc) For making nose heavy d) None of these
PAPER - II
PART VII
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. D
11. B 12. D 13. D 14. B 15. D
16. C 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. C
21. C 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. C
26. B 27. C 28. C 29. B 30. C
31. C 32. A 33. D 34. A 35. B
36. C 37. A 38. B 39. B 40. B
41. B 42. C 43. A 44. C 45. D
46. A 47. A 48. A 49. B 50. C
51. B 52. A 53. D 54. D 55. B
56. D 57. C 58. C 59. A 60. A
61. B 62. C 63. A 64. B 65. C
66. C 67. B 68. D 69. C 70. D
c) Both a) & b)
d) None of these
61. Capacity of a capacitor depends upon
a) Separation between the plates b) Area of plates
c) Di-electric material d) All of these
62. The device used to measure very high insulation resistance of electric cable is
a) High resistance voltmeter b) Megger / Insulation resistance tester
c) Iron vane meter d) Ammeter of high range
63. If six cells are connected in series of each E volts, the total voltage of the battery will
be
a) 6E b) 3E c) 4E d) 12E
64. Special test equipment comprising a meter and two cables each of specific length, is
required for checking the resistance of bonding. A meter widely used , consists of an ohmmeter operating on
a) Principle of current ratio b) Principle of voltage ratio c) None of these
65. Cell phone is used to protect the Ni-Cad battery from
a) Shorting between plates b) Thermal runaway
c) Avoid leakage of electrolyte d) All of these
66. Which material you select for riveting Ni-steel sheet
a) Monel b) 2017-T c) 2024-T6 d) Mild steel
67. Which one of the following rivet is ready for use as received and need no further heat
treatment
a) 2117 b) 2017-T c) 2024 d) 1100
68. Ice-Box rivets are
a) 2017-T b) 2117-T c) 2024-T d) Both a) & c)
69. The specification for universal head rivet
a) AN-470 b) MS-20613 c) MS-20615 d) All of these
70. Part No AN 470 B 3-8, indicates
a) Shank dia is 3/16 b) Rivet length is 8/32
c) Material is 5056-Al alloy d) All of the above
71. Fluid used in the Aircraft hydraulic systems are
a) Vegetable b) Mineral c) Synthetic d) All of these
72. With pure rubber seals and hose oil used in the system is
a) Mineral b) Vegetable c) Synthetic d) All of these
73. In open centre system, the number of services can be operated at one time is
a) One only b) Two only c) Any number d) All of these
74. In closed system where fixed volume pump is fitted, the system is fitted with
a) Automatic cut out value to divert pump output to reservoir
b) To maintain the normal built up pressure
c) Both a) & b)
d) None of these
75. Pressure maintaining value fitted in the system is for
a) To maintain the normal system pressure
b) To safe guard the operation of the important services
c) To maintain the pressure in primary services at a value suitable for operation of services
d) Both b) & c)
76. Packing is made of
a) Asbestos b) Cork c) Synthetic or natural rubber d) Felt
77. Aviation gasoline is having relative density of
a) 0.70 b) 0.72 c) 0.80 d) 0.5
78. Re-fuller delivery line should have filter of
a) 5 microns b) 8 microns c) 4 microns d) 10 microns
79. Component fitted in pressurization system to limit any possible negative differentiate
pressure to a sage value is
a) Safety value b) Outflow value c) Inward relief value d) pressure controller.
80. Roots type blower pressurized and send air to cabin duct by taking
a) Ram air b) Air from exhaust c) Bleed air d)None of these
PAPER - II
PART VI
1. B 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. A
6. C 7. A 8. A 9. D 10. C
11. A 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. A
16. D 17. D 18. D 19. C 20. C
21. C 22. B 23. B 24. A 25. B
26. C 27. D 28. D 29. C 30. A
31. D 32. B 33. C 34. C 35. B
36. D 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. C
41. D 42. C 43. D 44. A 45. B
46. D 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. D
51. A 52. D 53. B 54. D 55. D
56. B 57. B 58. D 59. D 60. C
61. D 62. B 63. A 64. A 65. B
66. A 67. A 68. D 69. D 70. C
71. D 72. B 73. A 74. C 75. D
76. C 77. B 78. A 79. C 80. A
PAPER - II PART V
1. Angular momentum is
PAPER - II
PART V
a) Moment of inertia b) Angular velocity c) Product of a) & b) d) Sum of a) & b)
2. Mark the incorrect statement
a) Precession is inversely proportional to the strength & direction of applied force.
b) Precession is inversely proportional to the moment of inertia of the rotor.
c) Precession is inversely proportional to the angular velocity of the rotor.
d) None of the above
3. Control of drift, relating to horizontal gyroscopes can be achieved by:
a) Calculating corrections using earth rate formula and applying them as appropriate
b) Applying fixed torques & cause gyro to process at a rate equal & opposite to the earth rate.
c) As in b) but which can be varied according to latitude
d) All of these
4. When gimbal orientation is such that the spin axis becomes coincident with one or the other of
the axes of freedom which serves as attitude displacement reference is termed as
a) Gimbal lock b) Gimbal Error c) Apparent drift
5. When gyroscope as a whole is displaced with its gimbal rings not mutually at right angles to each
other is termed as
a) Gimbal Lock b) Gimbal Error c) Apparent Drift
6. The vacuum pump or venturi creates a vacuum for operating the Gyroscope which is regulated by
a relief value at
a) 3.5 in Hg b) 4.5 in Hg c) Between 3.5 and 4.5 in Hg d) None
7. Grip length of the bolt is
a) Total length of the bolt b) Plain shank length of the bolt
c) Length under the head to the end of the bolt d) None of these
PAPER - II PART IV
PAPER - II
PART IV
1. While pushing a small and light aircraft, generally
a) Rudder control should not be locked
b) It should be pushed backward rather than forward
c) Flats of the hands should only be used
d) All are correct
2. While moving an aircraft from the runway after an emergency
a) It should be towed away fast
b) It should never be towed away with deflated tyres
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. B
6. C 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. C
11. C 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. A
16. B 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. D
21. B 22. D 23. A 24. D 25. C
26. C 27. D 28. D 29. D 30. D
31. A 32. C 33. C 34. B 35. B
36. C 37. D 38. C 39. B 40. B
41. D 42. B 43. D 44. B 45. B
46. C 47. B 48. C 49. A 50. B
51. B 52. B 53. D 54. D 55. A
56. A 57. B 58. C 59. B 60. B
61. B 62. C 63. C 64. C 65. C
66. A 67. A 68. B 69. D 70. A
71. D 72. D 73. B 74. A 75. B
76. C 77. C 78. D 79. C 80.
27. i) Half round files are tapered in both thickness and width
ii) Knife files are tapered in thickness as well as in width
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
28. For filing acute angles, one should use
a) Knife files b) Round files c) Triangular files d) All are correct
29. Most files used in aviation have a length of
a) 4-10 inches b) 6-12 inches c) 6-16 inches d) 10-20 inches
30. The part of a file that fits into the handle is called
a) Heel b) Fitting end c) Tang d) Point
31. i) File is basically a chisel but with many cutting edges
ii) Triangular files are used for cutting teeth of handsaws
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
32. Double cut files have rows of teeth. These teeth are set at
a) 45 degrees and 70-80 degrees b) 45 degrees and 45 degrees
c) 70-80 degrees and 70-80 degrees d) None of these
33. There are five cuts of files ranging from coarsest to the finest. Find out the wrong one
a) Coarse b) Bastard c) Smooth d) Finest
34. File should be kept clean by
a) Tapping it against the bench b) Brushing it with a wire brush
c) Lubricating it occasionally d) Both a) & b) are correct
35. Which type of file has only three grades: regular, fine and smooth
a) Vixen b) Wood rasp c) Knife d) Triangular
36. Characteristics of steel are controlled by
a) Removal of carbon from iron b) Types of alloying elements added to it
c) Amount of alloying elements added to it d) All are correct
37. Bearing strength of a material refers to
a) Direct tensile load it can bear
b) Resistance to tear at the point of applied load
c) Resistance to fracture at the point of applied load
d) Resistance to shear
38. Characteristics of metals relating to drawing it into wire is
a) Tensile strength b) Malleability c) Ductility d) Brittleness
39. Fusibility of a metal refer to its property that permits
a) Welding b) Drawing into thin sheets
c) Drawing into wires d) Good thermal conductivity
40. Aluminium alloy 1100 implies
a) Pure aluminium b) It contains 11% copper
c) It contains 111% zinc d) Heat treated alloy
41. Aluminium alloys have a four digit index system where each digit signifies something. In 2024, the
first digit indicates
a) Copper is the major alloying element
b) Two alloying elements have been added
c) Total percentage of alloying elements
d) None of these
42. Alclad is a metal consisting of
a) Aluminium alloy core with pure Al surface
b) Pure aluminium core with Al alloy surface
c) Alternating layers of pure Al & Al alloys
d) None of these
43. Which of the following aluminium alloy is heat treated and artificially aged?
a) 3003-F b) 5052-H c) 6061-O d) 7075-T6
44. Clad aluminium alloys are used in aircraft. They are
a) Lighter than other aluminium alloys b) Stronger than unclad aluminium alloys
c) Easily heat treatable d) Less susceptible to corrosion
45. Aircraft structural members made from sheet metal can normally be
a) Repaired, except when subjected to compressible loads
b) Repaired, except when subjected to tensile loads
c) Repaired using approved method
PAPER - II (PART 2)
a. To increase mechanical strength and tackiness
b. To reduce mechanical strength and tackiness
c. To increase the mechanical strength and reduce tackiness
d. To reduce the mechanical strength and increase tackiness
2. Which type of Synthetic rubber will be the first choice for manufacturing of aircraft tubeless tyre
a. Butyl rubber b. Neoprene rubber c. BUNA-N d. thiokol
3. Which synthetic rubber is chiefly used in aircraft hot air duct as sealing ring and wire insulation
a. Silicon rubber b. Polymethane rubber c. BUNA-S d. BUNA-N
4. Highest resistance to deterioration but lowest physical property is the characteristic of
which kind of synthetic rubber.
a. GR I b. GR S c. GR P d. GR A
5. To valcanise thiokol rubber, which element to be added
a. Sulfur b. Sulfur oxide c. Zinc d. Zinc oxide
6. Which material is used for manufacturing of hydraulic booster piston seal
a. Styrene butadiene seal b. Nitrile rubber
c. Flexon rubber d. Fluoro carbon rubber
7. Natural rubber attains fibrous structure when
a. It under goes at low temperature b. It is frozen
c. It is heated to 1300C d. It undergoes continues stress at normal temperature
8. The grade of Kevlar fiber is used for aircraft structure
a. Kevlar 49 b. Kevlar 149 c. Kevlar 29 d. Kevlar 129
9. The composition for E glass is
a. Magnesia-alumina-silicate glass b. Lime-alumina borosilicate glass
c. Soda borosilicate glass d. None of the above
10. Truly outstanding properties of strength competes with stronger steel is kind of fiber
a. S glass b. Hollow fibre glass c. A glass d. Carbon glass
11. Which composit material is difficult to cut or drill
a. Glass fibre b. Aramid c. Carbon / Graphite d. None of above
12. Mark the wrong statement for carbon / graphite fibre
a. Is used to fabricate primary structure b. It has high strength and high rigidity
c. It takes compressive load d. It is ductile in nature
13. Corrosion control techniques are employed when corbon fibre is in contact to aluminium
a. A layer of fiber glass is used as a barrie
b. Aluminium is anodized, primed and painted prior to assembly
c. Both (a) and (b) will be applied together
d. None of the above
14. Which composite material is useful for making aircraft parts that are subject to high stress and
vibration
a. Fibergalss b. Aramid c. Carbon / Graphite d. None of these
15. Mark the correct statement
a. Carbon fiber are electrically non conductive
b. Carbon fibers have high thermal expansion
c. Carbon fibers have high fatigue resistance
16. Boron fibers are made by sintering the boron elements on a thin film of material
a. Titanium b. Tin c. Tungsten d. All above
17. Which fiber material bears all tension, compression and bending stresses
a. Ceramic fiber b. Boron fiber c. Fiber glass d. Graphite fiber
18. Mark the correct statement in Fiber Orientation
engine approximately
a. 10 feet b. 15 feet c. 25 feet d. 35 feet
54. Which of the following is the most satisfactory extinguishing agent for use on a carburetor or
intake fire
a. Dry chemical b. A fine water mist c. Carbon dioxide
d. Form
55. When approaching the rear of an idling turbo jet engine the hazard area extends aft of the
engine approximately
a. 200 feet b. 100 feet c. 50 feet d. 25 feet
56. When towing a large aircraft
a. A person should be in the cockpit to watch the obstruction
b. Person should be stationed at the nose
c. Person should be positioned each wing tip and the empennage
d. A person should be in the cockpit to operate brakes
57. A fuel that vaporizes too readily may cause
a. Hard starting b. Detonation c. Vapor lock d. None of these
58. The main difference between grades 100 and 100LL fuel are
a. Volatility and lead content b. Volatility, lead content and colour
c. Lead content and colour d. All of these
59. Tetra ethyl lead is added to aviation gasoline to
a. Retard the formation of corrosive
b. Improve the gasoline performance in the engine
c. Dissolve the moisture in the gasoline
d. None of these
60. If the temperature of a confined liquid is held constant and its pressure is trippled, the volume
will
a. Triple
b. Reduced to one third its original volume
c. Remains same
d. Multiply by a fixed factor
Answers:
1c2a3a4c5d
6 b 7 b 8 a 9 b 10 d
11 b 12 d 13 c 14 b 15 c
16 c 17 b 18 d 19 c 20 d
21 c 22 a 23 d 24 c 25 c
26 c 27 b 28 d 29 d 30 b
31 a 32 c 33 c 34 c 35 c
36 c 37 a 38 c 39 c 40 a
41 a 42 b 43 c 44 c 45 a
46 c 47 c 48 b 49 a 50 b
51 a 52 a 53 c 54 c 55 b
56 d 57 c 58 c 59 b 60 b
PAPER - II (PART 1)
PAPER - II
PART I
1. Which statement is correct?
a) Al-alloy bolt smaller than mm diameter are not used in primary structure
b) Al-alloy bolts and nuts are used where they will be repeatedly removed for purpose of
maintenance and inspection
c) Both are correct d) None of these
d) 1/8 to 1/16
16. Turnbuckle assembly is a
a) Mechanical screw
b) Making minor adjustment in cable length and adjusting cable tension
c) Consisting two threaded terminals and a threaded barrel
d) All the above
17. Push-pull tubes are generally made in short lengths to
a) Prevent vibration and bending under tension load
b) Prevent vibration and bending under compression load
c) Only prevent vibration
d) None
18. Corrosion resistant steel cotter pin is used in locations where
a) Magnetic material is required b) Resistance to corrosion is desired
c) Both d) None
19. Which is correct statement
a) Pin rivet are used only in shear application
b) They should never be used where the grip length is less than the shank diameter
c) Both
d) None
20. Pin rivets
a) Hi-shear rivets
b) Used where access to both side of the material is required
c) They are approximately three times as strong as solid shank rivets
d) All
21. 10 KB 105
a) Flat head b) Flat head & countersunk
c) Countersunk d) None
22. 10 KB 107
a) Closed end and a key b) Flat head
c) As a and countersunk head d) None
23. AN 10 DH5A where H indicate
a) 5/8 diameter head drilled b) 5/8 diameter head and shank drilled
c) 5/8 diameter & shank drilled d) None
24. O-rings can be detected by
a) 4 power magnifying glass
b) Small cracks, particles of foreign material or other irregularities are checked by rolling
c) Slight stretching of the ring checked by dowel
d) All
25. Clevis bolt are used for
a) Tension load b) Tension & shear load
c) Shear load d) None
26. Internal wrenching bolts are suitable for use in
a) Shear load b) Tension & shear load
c) Tension d) None
27. A cross inside triangle indicates
a) Close tolerance bolt b) Corrosion resistant steel bolt
c) Stainless steel bolt d) Screw
28. A/C screw is generally manufactured with
a) Class-1 fit of thread b) Class-2 fit of thread
c) Class-3 fit of thread d) Class-4 fit of thread
29. Generally speaking, bolt grip length should be
a) 1 time the thicker material through which they extend
b) Equal to thickness of material + one diameter
c) Equal to thickness of material through which they extend
d) Any length
30. Stainless steel rivet head
a) Raised double dash b) Raised dash
c) Raised cross d) No marking on head
31. A hole is corroded which cannot be removed, is repaired by
a) Scrap out the part
b) Helicoil
c) Acres sleeve
d) Use special washer
32. Tw=100; Te=? Extension=5, A=20 (Torque wrench)
a) 150 in lbs b) 125 in lbs
c) 175 in lbs d) 200 in lbs
33. For shear joint
a) Clevis pin b)Taper pin c) Roll pin d) Cotter pin
34. Solid rivet of 1/8 diameter is replaced by (CAP)
a) Two rivet of 1/16 diameter
b) Three rivet of 1/16 diameter
c) Four rivet of 1/16 diameter
d) Cannot be replaced
35. Colour code for o-rings
a) Red dot for hydraulic fluid
b) Green dot for fuel
c) Yellow dot for skydrol fluid
d) d) None
36. For safetying turnbuckles, locking wire is used in
a) Single wrap b) Double wrap
c) Double wrap spiral d) All are correct
37. Dzus pastners consist of a stud, grommet and receptacle, stud length is measured in
a) Tenth of an inch b) Sixteenth of an inch
c) Hundredth of an inch d) Thousandth of an inch
38. A grub screw is a
a) Headless type set screw
b) Cap screw with fine threads
c) Machine screw with flat countersunk head
d) Cylindrical piece threaded at both ends and is plain in the middle
39. Grip length of cherry lock rivet is measured in increments
a) 1/8 b) 3/32 c) 1/16 d)1/32
40. Identifying marks on the head of Al-alloy rivet indicate
a) Shank size b) Head treatment given by manufacturer
c) Specific alloy and by manufacturer d) All are correct
41. The solid shank rivet, which is used in interior of a/c, where maximum strength is needed
a) round head b) brazier head
c) flat head d) as in c) & is AN-442
42. The standard range for counter sunk head angle is
a) 72 - 120 b) 78 - 112 c) 78 d) 100
43. To repair or replacement of protuding head rivet
a) round head b) counter sunk head is needed
c) universal head is used d) any rivet can be selected
44. For riveting Mg alloy sheet
a) 5056 rivet should be used. b) monel rivet should be used
c) mild steel should be used d) All of the above
45. Which material you select for riveting Ni-steel sheet
a) Monel b) 2017-T c) 2024-T6 d) Mild steel
46. Which one of the following rivet is ready for use as received & need no further heat treatment.
a) 2117 b) 2017-T c) 2024 d) 1100
47. Ice-Box rivets are
a)2017-T b) 2117-T c) 2024-T d) a) & c) are correct
48. The specification for universal head rivet
a) AN-470 b) MS-20613 c) MS-20615 d) all
49. The protective film of zinc chromate over rivet identified by
a) its yellow colour b) pearl gray
c) its white colour d) its silver gray colour
50. Part No. AN 470B 3 8 indicates
a) shank diameter is 3 b) rivet length is 8
16 32
c) material is 5056 Al alloy d) all of the above
61.
66.
71.
76.
36 - position of signal man A - slightly ahead and in line wid a/c left wing tip and nose of the
aircraft shld b on his left
37 - the modulus of elsaticity is A - stress / strain within elastic limts
38 - if triangle of diode is connected to negative wrt to bar den A - reverse biased
40 - if 10 divisions of the verneer scale coincides with 9 divisions on the main
scale and the main scale is calibrated in cm. what is the LC A - 0.001cm , 0.001mm , 0.01cm
41 - to convert a galvanometer to voltmeter A - connect a high resistance in series
42 - MTCS regarding kevlar A - its tensile strength is 4 times more as compared to aluminum
43 - spark test is done to identify which type of metal A - ferrous
44 - MTCS regarding micrometer A - barell and anvil are fixed while spindle is movable
45 - damaged rivets are removed by A - drive or tapered punches
46 - wich is extra flexible cable A - 7x19
47 - quick release fasteners are idntified by A factory trade name
48 - rivnuts are A - hollow blind rivets
49 -wich gear is used to transmit motion at parellel and non parallel direction A -helical gears
50 - wich are high lift devices A - flaps , slats , boundry layer devices , all
51 - what is used to control the aircraft around longitudinal axis a - ailerons
52 - which has aerofoil shape A - wings stabilzers and prop blades
53 - which flap increses wing camber and area A - fowler flap
54 - how to decrese stress corosion A - by applyin compressive stress by sand blasting
55 - muntz metal has A - 60% cu and 40% zinc
56 - which metal shows non-magnet and reacts rapidly with nitric acid A - nickle steel
57 - a knurl or groove on the barrel indicates A - left hand thread
58 - damged internal thread can be repaired by A - acress sleeve, helicoils, replacement bushings ,
All
59 - ESDS is dangerous above A - 100 volts
60 - piezo elec crystals are made from A - quartz and freq depends on thickness
61 - to provide a low reluctance path for magentic flux in a dc generator A - pole pieces and shoes
are used to reduce the air gap
62 - NDT methods used for composite structures A - coin tap test, laser holography , thermography ,
all
63 - bonding during fuelin A - first bond aircraft then vehicle and both aircraft and vehicle shld be
bonded together
64 - MTCS regarding nicd batt A - electrolyt doesnt take part during discharge
65 - a fully serviced nicd batt , white diposits found on top of batt casing A - due to overcharge
66 - band color on hose and piping equipment for 100ll fuel A - blue
67 - a shorted capacitor when connected to a ohm meter will read A - ???
68 - difference b/w shunt register as compared to series register in an operational amplifier A 69 - draw back of transistor when compared to vacuum tubes is A - they are heat dependant
70 - power factor is A - true power/ aparent power and cos theeta
71 - MTCS regarding themocouple A - heat is directly propotional to square of the current
72 - wich capacitor has high capacity and long storage life A - tantalum
73 - engine starter motor contains wht elements A - ??
74 - elements required for corrosion A - electrodes and electrolyte
75 - the charge on one electrode depends on A - the other electrode
76 - wich is the least toxic xtinguisher A - 1301
77 - in oxyacetelyne welding its a good practice to turn off A - acetylene first then oxygen
78 - tinnin is the process of A - the soldring bit should be tinned or coverd with solder bfore solderin
79 - wich is an 8 bit register A - MDR
80 - covert decimal 12 to excess 3 code A ??
81 - diagram of or - not gate A - all
82 - MTCS if all inputs are high then output is low A - positve or / negative and..... etc
83 - during rigging of control surface no weight shld be added A - behind the hinge line
84 - calculate the speed of gear A - 120
85 - induction type measurin instrument A - all
86 - thermocouple used in engines. what is the indication when at constant temp A ??
87 - manifold pr gauge measures in A - mercury - hg
88 - MTCS A - turbo jet is a combination of turbofan + turbo prop
89 - collet jack A ??
90 - towin of aircraft A - make sure brake is fully charged - if brake is faulty den person shld carry
Q19. What will happen when current flowing through two parallel conductors in upward & same
direction
a) The field strength b/w two conductors increases
b) The field strength b/w two conductors decreases & conductors attract towards each other*
c) As in (a) & attracts each other
d) Will have no effect
Q20. ATA100 code 27 deals with
a) Air condition
b) Autopilot
c) Fire protection
d) Flight control*
Q21. For operating primary flight controls, the cable which i.e. extra flexible is
a) 77
b) 719*
c) 197
d) Only (a) is correct
Q22. In the turn buckle the end identified by a groove or knurl has which type of thread
a) Right hand thread
b) Left hand thread*
c) There are no thread, as it is push locked
Q23. While storing the aircraft in the hanger
a) The fuel tank should be kept empty
b) The fuel tank should be filled*
c) The fuel tank should be filled to the half of its value
d) The condition of filling oil will depend on the duration of storage
Q24. Depending on the grade it is suitable for use in temp. -65 to 300F ,with phosphate ester,
hydraulic fluid , ketones
a) Neoprene
b) Butyl*
c) Natural rubber
d) Buna S
Q25. The riv-nut is
a) Hollow blind rivet*
b) Solid blind rivet
c) Special solid rivet
Q26. The spark test is used for sorting out which type of metals
a) Non ferrous
b) Ferrous metals *
c) Both ferrous & non ferrous
d) Nickel alloys
Q27.The damaged threads are replaced by
a) The thread bushing
b) The helical insert
c) The Acres fastener sleeves
d) All are correct*
Q28. Cables are having
a) High mechanical strength &high weight
b) Cable linkage problem ,as its tension need to be adjusted frequently*
c) It has low mechanical strength
d) All are correct
Q29. Scratches caused by careless handling and abrasion from grit or water striking a/c at high
speed
a) Provide starting for corrosion *
b) Develop crack to the structure
c) Filiform corrosion
d) All are correct
Q30. Least count of vernier caliper having 10 division divided into 9 division of main scale in mm is
a) 0.01 mm
b) O.01 cm
c) 0.10 cm
d) 1.0 mm
Q31. Convert binary 12 excess-3 code
a) 0101 1100
b) 1000 1011
c) 0100 0101*
d) 0000 0011
Q32. Identify the gate
a) OR & NOT gate*
b) NOT & OR gate
c) Bubbled AND gate
d) All
Q33. Regarding servicing of oxygen MTCS
a) Oxygen should not be serviced while fuelling is in progress*
b) While servicing with oxygen, must be carried inside the hangar
c) MEDICAL OXYGEN must always be used for breathing in a/c
d) ALL
Q34. What will be the speed of 3rd gear
a) 100rpm
b) 120rpm*
c) 50rpm
d) 200rpm
Q35.identify the taxi signal (Fig. page no. 521)
a) Left turn*
b) Right turn
c) Landing
d) Start engine
Q36. Regarding thermocouple ammeter which one is true?
a) It is based on Thomsan principal
b) Pointer is attached to the hot junction of thermocouple
c) Heat generated is proportional to square of current*
d) All
Q37. For the statement Output is low when all inputs are high gates are
a) Positive OR/ Negative AND
b) Positive AND/ Negative OR
c) Positive OR/ Negative NAND
d) Positive NAND/ Negative NOR*
Q38. Engine starting motor draws high current in initial & at normal Rpm current is reduced, which
fuse is used
a) Slow Blow fuse*
b) Glass cartridge fuse
c) F
d) Fuse that melts immediately
Q39. Which of the true about induction instrument
a) Large error in reading alternating current has a different frequency from calibration frequency
b) Power consumption is fairly high
c) Variation in temperature may cause large error
d) ALL
Q40. Capacitor is used in particular circuit is determined by
a) Size of capacitor
b) Type of capacitor
c) Amount of Voltage it can withstand*
d) Current Rating
Q41. An operational amplifier shunt regulator differ from the series regulator in the sense that its
control element is connected in
a) Series with line register*
b) Parallel with line register
c) Parallel with load register
d) Parallel with input voltage
Q42. Magnetic circuit of DC gen. consists of
a) Yoke, pole core, armature core, air gap b/w pole & armature core*
b) Pole core, pole coil, brushes and air gap
c) Pole core , armature winding, commutator and air gap
Q43. Which composite material has problem of corrosion
a) Carbon /graphite*
b) Aramid
c) Boron
d) Glass fibre
Q44. Which type of heat treatment is used for aluminium alloy
a) SHT
b) PHT
c) Annealing
d) All*
Q45. The gear that transmits motion in the shaft that are parallel to each other & that are not
parallel to each other
a) Spur gear
b) Worm gear
c) Helical gear*
d) Bevel gear
Q46. Internal Defects in the composites are checked by
a) Coin tap test
b) UST
c) Laser holography
d) All*
Q47. The magnetic test of distinguish b/w annealed austenite indicating the non-magnetic & rapid
action & greenish blue indication with nitric acid is
a) Pure nickel
b) Nickel steel*
c) Monel
d) 18-8 steel
Q48. The permanent magnet type instrument will have
d) UHF
Q68. Ventral fin are used for
a) Aids in longitudinal stability
b) Aids in lateral stability
c) Aids in directional stability*
d) Any of the above
Q69. 8 bit register that stores the memory o/p when a memory read operation is performed
a) MAR
b) MDR*
a) IR
b) PC
Q70. Why additives are added in AVGAS
a) To reduce microbial growth in tank
b) To increase the freeze point of fuel
c) To reduce detonation
d) Both (a) & (b)*
Q71. Aerofoil shape found in
a) Wing, stabilizer, propeller,etc.*
b) Wing, fuselage, elevator, aileron
c) Nose of fuselage, wing tip, stabilizers etc.
d) All are correct
Q72. Muntz metal composed of
a) Brass containing 60% cu &40% zn*
b) Bronze containing 60% cu& 40% tin
c) Brass containing 60% zn & 40% cu
d) It is the cu alloy containing mg, ni, al etc.
Q73. Modulus of elasticity can be defined as
a) Stress/ strain within yield point
b) Stress/strain within elastic limit*
c) Stress/strain above elastic limit
d) Strain/stress within yield point
Q74.which of the following allows to pass the current, when the circuit is reverse biased, by
breakdown
a) Zener diode*
b) Pnp transistor
c) Triode
d) All are correct
Q75. To change a tyre of a wheel which jack is used?
a) single wheel jack*
b) tripod jack
c) quaderal jack
d) any of the above
Q76. In repair or control surfaces, weight should not be added
a) ahead of hinge line
b) surface will be painted to match with surrounding
c) behind hinge line*
d) mass should be added splice used for repair one size larger
Q77. Kevlar can be identified as
a) white colour
b) strength is 4 times of al alloy*
2. Close 3 fit is
a.Loose fit
b.Free fit
c.medium fit
d.close fit
3. EICAS strands for
a.Engine indicating and crew altering system
b.Engine indicating and aunciating system
c.Electronic instrument and crew aunciating
d.Electronic instrument and centralize audio system
4. Illustrate part catalog use
a.detail drawing
b.exploded view drawing
c.pictorial drawing
d.isometric drawing
5. A metal which can be hammered,rolled or pressed into various shapes without cracking,breaking
or leaving some other detrimental effect
a.ductility
b.malleability
c.elasticity
d.toughne
6. Product is vastly superior to iron alone
a.when carbon added to iron in approx.12.5%
b. when carbon added to iron in approx.5%
c. when carbon added to iron in approx.1%
d. when carbon added to iron in approx.10%
7. Corrosion resistance 18-8 steel contain
a.18%nickel and 8%chromium
b.18%vandium and 8%chromium
a.14.14A
b.20A
c.20/A
d.40/a
19.Micrometer calibration checked by
a.metal gauge
b.dial test indicator
c.surface gauge
20..Five layer semiconductor device whose forward and reverse characteristics are identical to the
forward characteristics of the SCR
a.variac
b.triac
c.SCR
d.UJT
21..Amplification of single stage CE depends on
a.A.C resistance
b.Emitter resistance
c.load resistance.
22. In four stroke engine spark plug fires in
a. 4 revolutions of crank shaft
b. 2 revolutions of crank shaft
c. revolutions of crank shaft
d. 360 degree revolution of crank shaft
23.Frequencies used in ultrasonic are in the frequency range of
a. 100 KHz to 5 MHz
b. 200 KHz to 5 MHz
c. 500 KHz to 10 MHz
d. 10MHZ to 1000 MHZ
23. Electro static is dangerous if above
a. 1000 V
b. 100 V
c. 200 V
d. 500 V
24. 240 on capacitor indicates
a. 240 microf
b. 240 picof
c. 240000 f
25. Demultiplexer is
a. Output is same as multiplexer
b. Output is opposite of multiplexer
c. As in (B) ccu is used
26. cable of medium flexibility and is used for trim tab controls, engine controls, and indicator
controls is
a. 7 X 7
b. 7 X 19
c. Cable sizes ranges from 1/16 to 3/8
27. Convert C5F2 to binary
a. 1100 0101 1111 0010
b. 0010 1111 0101 1100
a. 1100
b. 2117
c. 2014
d. 2024
39. Aluminium alloy of 2 thickness can be welded by
a. Oxy acetylene
b. Electric arc
c. Inert gas
d. All
40. Lift producing device which has no mechanical propulsion
a. Aerodyne
b. Glider
c. Aeroship
41. Airspeed of aircraft 100 mph from A to B .and wind velocity from A to B is 20 mph
Speed of aircraft in ground is
a. 100
b. 120
c. 20
d. 80
42. Colour of hydraulic pipelines
a. Blue-yellow
b. Red-yellow
c. Blue
d. Red
43. Temperature at stratosphere
a. -57 C
44. Piezo quartz crystal produces
a. Piezo electric effect
b. As in (A) frequency depends upon thickness
45. Bolt used in shear type load
a. Clevis bolt
b. Jo bolt
c. Eye bolt
46. Turnbuckles
a. Made of brass and has right hand thread on a one side and left hand thread on other side
47. Occurance of events in piston engine
a. Intake ,compression,ignition, power,exhaust
48. In spur gear
a. Pitch dia and diametrical pitch= no. of teeth
b. Pitch dia = diametrical pitch
c. Addendum *pitch circle =no of teeth
49. Clipper
a. Uses a diode and resistor
b. As in (A) dc supply is required to select the level
50. Radiography depends upon
a. Thickness
b. Density and size
c. Both
a. Attract
b. Repel
c. Rotate in clockwise
d. Rotate in anticlockwise
64. While removing a control surface
a. Ensure no weight should be added ahead of hinge
b. Ensure no weight should be added behind the hinge
65. Diagram extension bar
66. Diagram- NAS close tolerance bolt
67. Diagram flute in drill
68. Diagram one lug anchor nut
69. Diagram circuit breaker
70. Diagram bearing
a.
71. If a rudder pedal is pushed to right
a. Aircraft moves right
b. Rudder mover left
c. Aircraft rolls
72. The V-I characteristics
a. Diode
b. Transistor
c. Varistor
73. Aluminium dope is used in aircraft
a. Used to protect against UV rays from sunlight
b. Good finish
74. Lead acid batt the temp increase
a. Resistance increase
b. Capacitance increase
75. Ammeter used for
a. Connect across batt
b. Connect across the generator
c. Show the charge and discharge batt
76. In SAE numbering system the 1st two digits indicates
a. Type of steel
b. Major alloying element
c. Percentage of carbon
77. In transformer the magnetic flux is retained in primary core at no load for
a. Copper loss
b. Iron loss
c. Retentivity
78. Which part is non movable in micrometer
a. Barrel and anvil are non moveable and thimble is movable
79. Two wire are parallel to each other and current given in same direction
a. Field strength reduces and attract each other
c) Both
87) What happen when LA battery temp increases?
88) Mark the wrong statement regarding parallel resistor ckt
A) Different resistor has their individual voltage drop
B) Different resistor has their individual current drop
c) Power is additive
89 when current flown b/w two conductor in same direction
a) Field strength decreases and it attract each other
90when one wheel is jacked nose of a/c
a) Should face into wind
b) Opposite to wind
c) Any direction
91) MCTS regarding computer memory
92) Slip speed
93) When the a/c towed in uneven surface where should the tow bar be connected
46. Caustic cleaning products used on Al-structure have the effect of producing
a) Passive oxidation
b) Improved corrosion resistance
c) Corrosion
d) None
47. Fayed surface cause concern in chemical cleaning because of the danger of
a) Forming passive oxide
b) Entrapping corrosive material
c) Corrosion by embedded iron oxide
d) All of the above
48. The rust or corrosion that occurs with most of the metal is the result of
a) A tendency for them to return their natural state
b) Blocking the flow of electrons in homogenous metals or between dissimilar metal
c) Electron flow in or between metal for cathode to anode area
d) All of the above
49. Which of the listed condition is not one of the requirements for corrosion to occur
a) Presence of electrolyte
b) Electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic area
c) Presence of passive oxide film
d) None of these
50. Inter-granular corrosion on Al-alloy part
a) May be detected by surface pitting, white powdery deposit
b) Appears as thread like filament
c) Cannot always be detected by surface indication
d) All of the above
51. When QNH is set on milibar scale, the altimeter reads
a) Altitude above mean sea level
b) Height above the airport elevation
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
52. When QFE is set on milibar scale, altimeter reads
a) Altitude above mean sea level
b) Height above the airport elevation
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
53. Pitot head is mounted parallel to the
a) Latitudinal axis of aircraft
b) Longitudinal axis of aircraft
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
54. All the altimeter
a) Are constructed on the principle of Aneroid barometer
b) They have pressure responsive elements
c) Aneroid mechanism
d) All of the above
55. Hysterisis error in altimeter
a) Is induced by aircraft maintaining a given altitude for certain period of time and
suddenly making a large altitude change
b) This error will eliminate itself with slow climbs and descends
c) After maintaining a new altitude for a reasonable period of time
d) All of the above
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
d
d
c
a
c
b
a
c
c
a
b
b
d
d
d
a
b
a
d
b
b
c
c
d
b
c
c
d
c
c.
* proximity d. rotary
8. Which is not thermally affected by temperature: (Ref. AC 65 9A)
a. fuse b. CB *c. limiting resistor d. thermistor
9. The effect of change in frequency will change: (Ref. BL Theraja Ed 1991, 578)
a. hysteresis loss b. eddy current loss
*c. both a & b d. n
10. A series LCR is connected to 20V AC supply. The value of resistance is 8 ohms, inductive
reactance of coil is
18ohms and capacitive reactance of capacitor is 12 ohms. How much is current flow in the circuit:
(Ref. EHJ Pallet, 202)
*a. 2 amps b. 10 amps c. 5 amps d. 1 amp.
11. A LCR circuit is connected across 200V, 50 Hz AC supply, value of R is 6 ohms, inductive
reactance is 8 ohms
and capacitive reactance is 16 ohms. Calculate the voltage drop across the resistance: (Ref. EHJ
Pallet, 202)
a. 200/30 volts b. 200/2 volts
*c. 120 volts d. none of the above
12. Which of the relay have very high sensitively: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 108)
c. it increases the flux density in the air gap d. all of the above
117. The ability of magnetic materials to concentrate magnetic flux is known as: Grob, P-386
a. permittivity *b. permeability c. flux density d. field intensity
118. A resistor with a power rating of 25w is most likely a: Grob, P-51
a. carbon composition resistor b. metal film resistor
c. surface mount resistor *d. wire wound resistor
119. A potentiometer is a: Esmin, P-101
*a. three terminal device used to vary the voltage in a circuit;
b. two-terminal device used to vary the current in a circuit
c. fixed resistor
d. two-terminal device used to vary the voltage in a circuit
120. Mark the correct statement about electricity and magnetism: Grob, P-409
a. current is analogous to flux and potential is analogous to flux density
b. current is analogous to magneto motive force and reluctance is analogous to resistance
c. current is analogous to flux and resistance is analogous to magneto motive force
*d. current is analogous to flux and potential is analogous to magneto motive force
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121. Mark the correct statement: FAA-9A, P-302
*a. ferromagnetic materials have high permeability whereas diamagnetic materials have
permeabilities
slightly less than one
b. a. ferromagnetic materials have high permeability whereas diamagnetic materials have
permeability slightly more
than one
c. paramagnetic materials have permeabilities slightly less than one and diamagnetic materials
have permeabilities
slightly more than one
d. paramagnetic materials have permeabilities slightly more than one and diamagnetic materials
have very high
permeabilitities
122. The d.c. series motor should never be switched on at no load because: B. L. Thareja, P-1030
a. the field current is zero b. the machine does not pick up
*c. the speed becomes dangerously high d. it will take too long to accelerate
123. The most efficient form of damping employed in electrical instrument is:
a. air friction b. fluid friction *c. eddy currents d. none of the above
124. A simple potentiometer is correctly called a :- B.L. Thareja, . Page 55
a. current devider b. voltage stabilizer
c. variable resistor *d. voltage divider
125. The unit of capacitance is :- B.L. Thareja, . Page 55
*a. farad b. coulomb c. volt d. metre
126. The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as the time during which capacitor charging
current becomes
percent of its value:- B.L. Thareja, Page-157
a. 37, final b. 63, final *c. 63, initial d. 37, initial
127. The magnetizing force produced by a solenoid depends on :a. the number of its turns b. the current carried by it c. its length *d. all the above
B.L. Thareja, Page-193
128. Aluminium can be classified as a .. material :*a. Para magnetic b. Force magnetic c. Dia magnetic d. Soft magnetic
B.L. Thareja, Page-193
129. Whenever a magnet is quickly brought towards an open circuited stationary coil :a. A current is induced in it b. Work has to be done
*c. e.m.f. is induced it d. Power is spent
B.L. Thareja, Page -219
130. The direction of induced e.m.f. in a coil may be found with the help of :a. faradays law *b. Lenzs law
c. flemings left hand rule d. steinamety law
B.L. Thareja, . Page 219
131. An e.m.f. is induced in the coil whenever flux through it :- (B.L. Thareja, P -220)
a. Is decreased b. Is increased c. Is abruptly reduced to zero *d. All the above
132. Capacitance does NOT depend upon which factor :- ( T.K. Eismin,Page-103)
a. plate area b. plate thickness
c. distance between plates d. nature of di-electric
133. Which of the following material has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance ?
(B.L Thareja, Page 8)
a. Brass b. Copper c. Aluminium *d. Carbon
134. Carbon composition resistors are most popular because they :- (AC 65-9A, Page-278)
*a. cost the least b. are smaller in size
c. can withstand over loads d. do not produce electric noise
135. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a parallel dc circuit ?
( T.K. Eismin, Page 107)
*a. powers are additive b. voltages are additive
c. currents are additive d. elements have individual currents
136. For a given voltage, four heating coils will produce maximum heat when connected :*a. All in parallel b. All in series
c. With two parallel point in series d. One pair in parallel with the other two in series
T.K. Eismin, Page 8
137. A cylindrical wire, 1 m in length, has a resistance of 100 ohm. What would be the resistance of
a wire made
from the same material if both the length and cross sectional area are doubled ? B.L Thareja, Page7
a. 200 ohms b. 400 ohms *c. 100 ohms d. 50 ohms
138. The working voltage of a capacitor in an A.C circuit should be :- AC 65-9A, Page-351
a. equal to the highest applied voltage
b. at least 20% greater than the highest applied voltage
*c. at least 50% greater than the highest applied voltage
d. none of these
139. Higher the self-inductance of a coil :- (T.K. Eismin, Page 107)
a. lower the e.m.f. induced in it
a. The number of their turns *b. Permeability of the core
c. Cross sectional area of their common core d. All the above
141. Permanent magnets are normally made of :- (T.K. Eismin, Page-8)
a. Aluminium b. Wrought iron
c. Cast iron *d. Alnico alloys
142.those magnetic materials are best suited for making armature and transformer cores which
have :a. low permeability and high hysterisis loss
*b. high permeability and low hysteresis loss
c. low permeability and low hysteresis loss
d. high permeability and high hysteresis loss
(AC 65-9A, Page-302)
143. Those materials are well suited for making permanent magnets while have :- (9A/303)
*a. high retentivity and high coercivity
b. high retentivity and low coercivity
c. low retentivity and low coercivity
d. low retentivity and high coercivity
144. In a magnetic material, hysteresis loss takes place primarily due to :- (AC 65-9A, Page-450)
a. flux density lagging behind magnetizing force b. molecular friction
c. its high retentivity *d. rapid reversals of its magnetization
145. Circuit breakers are located :- ( E.H.J. Pallet, Page-115)
a. generally far from the power source
*b. close to the power source
c. at any location compatible to the particular unit
d. so as not to be exposed to heat of any kind
146. All resetable circuit breakers :- ( E.H.J. Pallet, Page-113)
a. Should open the circuit irrespective of the position of operation control when overload exits
b. Should open the circuit irrespective of the position of operating control when a circuit fault
exists
179. When load is removed, which motor will run at the highest speed :- B.L Thareja, Page 311
a. Shunt *b. Series
c. Cumulative d. Differential compound
180. The armature torque of a D.C motor is a function of its
a. Pole flux b. Armature current
c. Speed *d. Both (a) & (b)
181. A universal motor has variable speed characteristics because it is :- B.L Thareja, Page 627
*a. series wound b. compound would
c. operated on both D.C and A.C supplied d. wholly laminated
182. Polarized relay is normally used in: FAA-9A Pg-401
*a. Generator-Battery circuit b. Generator-Load circuit
c. Generator-Lighting circuit d. None
SERVOMECHANISMS & AMPLIFIERS
183. All the synchros are working on: (Ref. A/c Inst. Pallet, 23)
*a. transformer principle b. resistance principle
c. inductor principle d. capacitance principle
184. Which component is not used in torque synchro: (Ref. A/c Inst. Pallet, 232)
a. motor b. amplifier
*c. motor and amplifier d. none of the above
185. Generally torque synchro are used for transmitting: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 135)
*a. power plant datas and position indication b. navigational datas
c. manometric datas d. inertial datas
186. Control synchro is used for: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 136)
a. power plant data transmission *b. close loop servo system
c. position indication flap position indication
187. Differential synchro is used for: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 136)
a. power plant data. manometric data c. position indication
*d. output depends upon two input data
188. Resolver synchro is used where we require Cartesian coordinate of a point to:
(Ref. Pallet Integrated, 143)
b. R Sina. R Cos
d. R Tan and R Sin*c. R Cos
189. Polar coordinate is used to find out resultant of: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 149)
b. R Sina. R Cos
d. R Tan and R Sin*c. R Cos
190.In torque synchro if the rotor connection is reversed then: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 139)
a. no effect on output b. output is advanced by 900
c. output is advanced by 270
*d. output is advanced by 180
191. If there is cycle shift of stator connection torque synchro then output datum is advanced by:
*a. 240
b. 270
0
c. 180
d. 900
(Ref. Pallet Integrated, 139)
192. In torque synchro if stator coil connection of two lead are interchanged then:
(Ref. Pallet Integrated, 139)
a. output is advanced by 900
b. output is advanced by 1800
c. output is advanced by 2700
*d. reverse rotation of output rotor
193. In resolver synchro where polar is connected to Cartesian R3 & R4 rotor coils are shorted to:
(Ref. Pallet Integrated, 147)
a. prevent burning b. prevent hunting
c. improve accuracy *d. as in c & limit spurious response
194.In control synchro supply is given to: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 14)
a. transmitter stator *b. transmitter rotor
c. receiver stator d. receiver rotor
respectively.
d. bonding is classified as primary and secondary, such classification being determined by the
magnitude of current
to be expected from precipitation static charges and electro statically induced charges
respectively.
ELECTRONICS
222. The doping materials are called impurities because they: (Ref. BL Theraja)
a. decrease the number of charge carriers
b. change the chemical properties of semi conductors
c. make semi conductors less than 100 percent pure
*d. alter the crystal structure of pure semi conductors
223. Feedback in an amplifier always helps to: (Ref. BL Theraja)
*a. control its output
b. increases its gain
c. decreases its input impendence
d. stabilize its gain
224.In normal operation of p-n-p transistor, its junctions are biased: (Ref. BL Theraja)
a. both forward
b. both reverse
c. emitter base reverse, collector base forward
*d. emitter base forward, collector base reverse
225. An SCR can be turned off by: (Ref. BL Theraja-1991, 817)
a. anode current interruption
b. reversing polarity of anode cathode voltage
c. reducing current through SCR below the holding
*d. any of above method can be used independently
226. The logic symbol represents: Pallet-225
a. an AND gate *b. a NOR gate c. an OR gate d. an XOR gate
227. In order to energize the relay in the circuit shown below here the logic state at the inputs
must be
Pallet-226
a. log 0 at points A & B b. 0 at point A and 1 at point B
*c. 1 at both points d. 0 at both points
ABC
111
101
011
000
228. The truth table shown here corresponds to: Pallet-226
a. an OR gate
b. an AND gate
c. a NOR gate
d. an XOR gate
229. The circuit shown here performs a logic: Pallet-226
a. AND function
*b. OR function
c. NAND function
230. DTL family Logic employs: (BL Thereja, P-2376)
*a. Diode, Resistor, Transistor
b. Diode and resistor
c. Resistor & Transistor
231. In a normally working PNP transistor, both base and collector are at _____potential w.r.t the
emitter
(BL Thereja Pg-1975)
a. +ve *b. ve c. either (1) or (2) d. neither (1) or (2)
232. A transistor does not conduct unless its __________ base junction is forward biased (BL Thereja
Pg-1975)
*a. emitter b.collector
c. both (1) and (2) d. either (1) or (2)
equal:
d. 1000 c. 100 b.50a. 25
328. One extra negative plate in Pb acid cell than positive plates is used in order to: FAA-9A, P-309
a. prevent positive plate from warping or buckling b. increase the cell potential
c. increase the cell capacity d. decrease the cells internal resistance
329. Ni/Cad. Cell is advantageous over Pb acid from ___ view point: FAA-9A, P-313
a. low maintenance cost and long service life b. short recharge time and good reliability
c. excellent reliability and good starting ability d. all of the above
330. During removal of battery from the a/c___ terminal is disconnect at least in order to avoid __
short:
Esmin, P-153
a. negative, accidental b. positive, accidental
c. either negative or positive, accidental d. none of the above is done
331. Which method is used to charge the battery in a/c and why? Esmin, P-153
a. constant voltage method because a/c electrical system voltage remains constant
b. constant current method order to reduce the charging time
c. constant current method to avoid much supervision
d. constant current method to need relatively less time
332. __ is one of the factor of thermal run away of Nickel/Cadmium cell: Esmin, P-47
a. damaged layer of cellophane material b. exothermic reactions at electrodes plates
c. 30% of dilute KOH by volume d. both (a) & (b)
333. A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series no-load voltage=2.1 volts per cell
furnishes 10 amperes to
a load of 2 ohms resistance. The internal resistance of the battery in this instance is: Esmin, P-33
a. 0.52 ohms b. 2.52 ohms c. 5 ohms d. 0.25 ohms
334.Active elements in a lead acid battery: Esmin, P-30
a. nickel hydrate and iron oxide b. lead peroxide and spongy lead
c. manganese dioxide and carbon d. none of these
335. When the temperature is increased, specific gravity of electrolyte: Esmin, P-41
a. increases b. decreases c. remains same d. none
336. The neutralizing agent for H2SO4
electrolyte is: Esmin, P-40
a. KOH b. HCL c. 5% bicarbonate of soda solution d. vinegar
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337. More resistance branches reduce the combine resistance (equivalent resistance) of a parallel
circuit because:
Grob, P-140
a. of more voltage drop across the resistors
b. more current is required from the same voltage
c. either (a) or (b) depending upon the value of resistance
d. none
338. The thermal protector: FAA-9A, P-307
a. is protective device b. acts as automatic CB
c. is based on different expansion of two metals d. all of the above
339. Mark the correct statement: FAA-9A, P-311
a. in a new, fully charged lead acid aircraft battery the electrolyte is approximately 30 percent
acid and 70 percent
water (by weight) and is 1.300 times as heavy as pure water.
b. in a new, fully charged lead acid aircraft battery the electrolyte is approximately 30 percent
acid and 70 percent
water (by weight) and is 1.100 times as heavy as pure water.
c. in a new, fully charged lead acid aircraft battery, the electrolyte is approximately 30 percent
acid and 70
percent water (by volume) and is 1.300 times as heavy as pure water.
d. in a new, fully charged lead acid aircraft battery, the electrolyte is approximately 30 percent
acid and 70 percent
water (by volume) and is 1.100 times as heavy as pure water
340. Mark the correct statement: FAA-9A, P-311
a. the electrolyte used in the nickel cadmium battery is a 30 percent solution (by volume) of
potassium hydroxide
(KOH) is distilled water and the specific gravity remain between 1.240 and 1.300 at room
temperature
b. the electrolyte used in the nickel cadmium battery is a 30 percent solution (by weight) of
potassium
hydroxide (KOH) in distilled water and the specific gravity of the electrolyte remains between
1.240 and
1.300 at room temperature
c. the electrolyte used in the nickel cadmium battery is a 30 percent solution (by volume) of
potassium hydroxide
(KOH) in distilled water and the specific gravity of the electrolyte remains between 1.100 and
1.220 at room
temperature
d. the electrolyte used in the nickel cadmium battery is a 30 percent solution (by weight) of
potassium hydroxide
(KOH) in distilled water and the specific gravity of the electrolyte remains between 1.100 and
1.220 at room
temperature
341. Mark the correct answer while determining the state of charge of lead acid battery: FAA-9A, P311
a. a specific gravity reading between 1.300-1.275 indicates a high state of charge whereas between
1.240
and 1.200, a low state of charge
b. a specific gravity reading between 1.275 and 1.240 indicates a high state of charge where as
between 1.240 and
1.200, a low rate state of charge
c. a specific gravity reading between 1.275 and 1.240 indicates a low state of charge
d. a specific gravity reading between 12.240 and 1.200 indicates a high state of charge
342. In a lead acid battery the specific gravity reading should be adjusted for temperature
correction:
F F and above 90 F b. below 70 F and below 90a. above 70
c. at room temperatures d. none of the above
343. If residual magnetism of a shunt generator is destroyed accidentally, it may be restored by
connected its shunt
field: B. L. Thareja, P-991
a. to earth b. to an a.c source c. in reverse d. to a d.c. source
344. The main function of interpoles is to minimize ____ between the brushes and the commutator
when the d.c.
machine is loaded:
a. friction b. sparking c. current d. wear and tear www.rjworld.com
345. shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation because of their voltage
characteristics:
B. L. Thareja, P-965/966
a. identical b. drooping c. linear d. rising
346. The voltage applied across an R-L circuit is equal to __ of VR and VL
:
a. arithmetic sum b. algebraic sum c. phasor sum d. sum of the squares
347. The rms value of sinusoidal a.c. current is equal to its value at an angle of __ degree:
a. 60 b. 45 c. 30 d. 90
. If frequency is increased 348. The reactance offered by a capacitor to alternating current of
frequency 50Hz is 10
to 100Hz reactance becomes __ ohm: B. L. Thareja, P-496
a. 20 b. 5 c. 2.5 d. 40
349. Mark the correct statement (EHJ Pallette,P-79)
a. Split Bus bar system mostly used on 4 engine A/C
b. Bus-Tie breakers are responsible for connecting different bus bars to a single Alternator
c. Split-Parallel bus bar system used on 2 engine A/C
d. Both (1) & (2)
350. In a parallel circuit, all component must :a. have the same p.d. across them b. have some value
c. when the continuous lacing is applied, the first loop is a clove hitch locked with a single
overhand knot in single
cord lacing
d. when the continuous lacing is applied the first loop is a bowline-on-a-bight knot in a single cord
lacing
442. MTCS about aircraft cables & wires: Eismin, P-63
a. when the continuous lacing is applied the first loop is a clove-hitch locked with a double
overhand knot in double
cord lacing
b. when the continuous lacing is applied, the first loop is a clove hitch locked with a single
overhand knot
in single cord lacing
c. when the continuous lacing is applied the clove hitch locked with a single overhand knot in
double cord lacing
d. none of the above
443. The terminating ends of the cord, while trying or lacing wire bundles, are trimmed to provide
a minimum
length of: Eismin, P-63
a. 3/8 inch b. 3/16 inch c. 3/32 inch d. 3/64 inch
444. In open areas, the cable bundles should be laced or tied if supports for the cable are more
than:
Eismin, P-62
a. 4 inches apart b. 6 inches apart
c. 8 inches apart d. 12 inches apart
445. Mark the correct statement about the cable installation: Eismin, P-64
a. when a cable clamp is mounted on a vertical member, the loop of the clamp should always be at
the
bottom
b. when a cable clamp is mounted on a vertical member, the loop of the clamp should always be at
the top
c. when a cable clamp is mounted on a vertical member, the loop of the clamp should always be at
the right angle
d. when a cable clamp is mounted on a vertical member, the loop of the clamp should always be at
the side with a
angle of 60
446. MTCS about cables wire installation: Eismin, P-65
a. a grommet is not required if a wire bundle is held by a clamp in the centre of a hole through a
bulkhead, and the
clearance between the edge of hole and the bundle is more than inch
b. a grommet is required if a wire bundle is held by a clamp in the centre of a hole through a
bulkhead, and the
clearance between the edge of the hole and the bundle is less than inch
c. both (a) & (b) are correct
d. both (a) & (b) are incorrect
447. The type of cable used for general services wiring is: Eismin, P-83
a. NYVIN b. PREN c. TERSIL d. either (a) or (b)
448. The type of cable used for areas where screening is required is: Pallet, P-83
a. NYVIN MET Sheath b. NYVIN c. PREN d. EF glass
449. The type of cable most appropriate to be used in landing gear shock strut switch circuit is:
Pallet, P-83
a. unifire F b. nyvin met sheath
c. FEPSIL d. EF glass
450. The type of conductor used in UNIFIRE-f cable is: Pallet, P-83 www.rjworld.com
a. tinned copper conductor b. aluminium
c. nickel-plated copper d. silver plated copper
451. The type of cable used in high temperature areas where resistance of aircraft fluids is
necessary is:
Pallet, P-83
a. UNIFIRE-f b. NYVIN MET SHEATH c. EF GLASS d. TERSIL
452. The type of cable used in circuits required to function during or after a fire is: Pallet, P-83
a. protect the wires & cables mechanically b. protect the wires & cables from hydraulic fluids or
oils
c. either (a) or (b) d. both (a) & (b)
468. Wire bundles can generally have: 15A, P-441
a. 50-75 wires b. 75-100 wires c. 100-125 wires d. 125-150 wires
469. Identify the following knot on a wire bundle: 15A, P-448
a. clove hitch b. bowline on a bight c. double knot d. none of the above
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470. Identify the given knot on a wire bundle: 15A, P-447
a. clove hitch only b. clove hitch with square knot
c. bowline-on-a-bight d. none of the above
471. The maximum gap between two successive aircraft cable makings can be: FAA-15A, P-440
a. 12 inches b. 15 inches c. 18 inches d. 24 inches
472. A wire bundle has a dia. of 3 inches. The most suitable lacing to be done on it is: AGE/286
a. single load lacing with bowline-on-a-bight knot
b. double cord lacing with clove-hitch knot
c. single cord lacing with clove-hitch knot
d. double cord lacing with bowline-on-a-bight knot
473. Recommend knot for starting the single cord lacing method:
a. clove-hitch
b. bowline-on-a-bight
c. as in (a) and double looped over head knot
d. as in (a) and single looped overhand knot
474. Corona discharge occurs more readily at: Pallet-94
a. curves and sections of wing which have minimum radii b. wing tips
c. trailing edges, pitot tubes d. all of the above
475. In the six position cable identification code under ATA-100, the 5th
position indicates: Pallet-186
a. cable number b. cable size c. cable segment d. either (a) or (b)
476. In the ATA-100 cable identification code if he cable is a coaxial one, the following position
code is omitted:
Pallet-186
a. 1st
& 3rd
positions b. 4th
& 5th
positions
c. only 5th
position is omitted d. only last position is omitted
477. A cable is marked as 2-3A-AL. It indicates: Pallet-186
a. aluminium cable b. thermocouple cable
c. as in (a) and size as AL3 d. as in (b) and its conductor is alumel
478. A connection in which a cable conductor is secured by compression to a termination so that
the metals of both
are held together in close contact is called: CAIP/II/1008
a. soldered connection b. flawless connection
c. crimped connection d. looped connection
www.rjworld.com
479. Terminals used to connect aluminium wires are/is:
CAIP/II/1010
a. aluminium only b. bimetal (Al. Cu) c. either (a) or (b) can be used d. copper
480. Potting: Pallet-92
a. is a technique usually applied to plugs & sockets
b. is a method of cooling the generator
c. is a method of bonding major components to structures of aircraft
d. is a method of bonding secondary components to structure of aircraft
481. The frequency of a 2 pole alternator running at 3600 RPM: BLT/1991/636
a. 50 b. 60 c. 120 d. 720
7. AIRCRAFT SYSTEM
482. Sparking caused by discharge of static electricity is prevented by: (Ref. RollsRoyce-153)
a. port green, st. bd. red, rear white b. port red, st. bd. green, rear white
c. port white, st. bd. green, rear red d. none of the above
www.rjworld.com
508. Runway turn off lights are used to provide illumination area to: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 146)
a. the immediate right and left of aircraft b. rear of the a/c
c. both a & b are correct
d. none of the above
509. Mark the correct statement of strobe lighting: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 147)
a. its input supply is 28v DC or 115v, 400 Hz a.c
b. output is capacitor discharge, 450v and light is white in colour
c. typical flashing frequency is 70 per minute
d. all are correct
510. The landing gear warning usually provide which of the following indications: (Ref. EHJ Pallet,
176)
a. red light for unsafe gear, no light for gear down, green light for gear up
b. green light for gear up and down, red light for unsafe gear
c. red light for unsafe gear, green lights for gear down, no light for gear up
d. none of the above
511. Anti-skid sensor is sensing: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 178)
a. speed of the a/c
b. pressure of brake unit
c. temperature difference between hydrolic oil and atmosphere temperature
d. all the above are correct
512. The anti-skid system works on the principle: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 178)
a. it monitors the rate of wheel deceleration
b. if the rate of deceleration is very high, correction signed is applied to control valve
c. the control valve diverts the fluid reaching to brake system, hence wheel spin up and causes to
brakes to be
reapplied
d. all are correct
513. In anti-skid system the reference speed signal is given by: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 178)
a. transducers in the main wheels
b. transducer in the nose wheels
c. internal reference velocity signal is inbuilt to skid control unit
d. none of the above
514. The purpose of thermal switch incorporated in wind shield motor unit: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 179)
a. to open the motor circuit if field winding temperature attains approximately 1500
c temperature
b. if current in field winding exceed pre-determine valve i.e. 8 to 10 amps.
c. to limit the operating speed of motor
d. both a & b are correct
515. Wind shield motor works on: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 179)
a. electric supply b. pneumatic supply
c. hydrolic supply d. all the above
516. Anti-icing system used for pitot/static head is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 215)
a. natural air b. electrical heating
c. chemical heating d. all the above are correct
517. In de-icing system, where pneumatic boots are used, the ice is removed: (Ref. EHJ Pallet,
169)
a. by directing the hot air on the ice through the holes of boots
b. by heating thin conducting coating provided over the surfaces of boot www.rjworld.com
c. by inflation and deflation, causing ice to break up and with aid of air stream, crack off
d. both a & b care correct
518. The method of de-icing used for helicopter blades is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 168)
a. pneumatic
b. electrical
c. spray of chemical on the blade
d. de-icing is not required. Ice is automatically thrown away due to centrifugal forces acting on the
blades
519. The purposes of time delay in rain repellent system is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 179)
a. to allow measured fluid to flow under pressure through the spray nozzle and onto the windshield
once
with single operation of push switch
b. to allow fluid to flow after delay of 0.25 seconds
c. to allow fluid to flow regularly after interval of 0.25 seconds
d. all the above are correct
520. The braking effect in windshield wiper motor in parking position is effected by: (Ref. EHJ
Pallet, 178)
a. brake solenoid
b. eddy current effect
c. the motor operates a cam to change over the brake switch contacts which then short out the
armature to
stop the motor
d. eddy current
521. Mark the correct statement for windshield rain repellent system: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 179)
a. rain is repelled by electrical heating
b. compressed air is directed on to the windshield to remove rain particles
c. fluid is prayed through nozzles which causes the surface tension in water to change to that the
water is
formed into globule which are blown off the windshield by air stream
d. all are correct
522. As per the requirement the windshield wiper motor operated on various speeds. The speed
regulation is
effected by: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 178)
a. controlling the shunt filed strength of the motor
b. using tapped transformer
c. controlling the series filed strength
d. connecting resistance in series with the d.c. power supply
523. Mark the correct statement for ice detection in the air: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 174)
a. the ice accretion causes a drop in pressure sensed by the probe and a diaphragm the deflection
of which make
the circuit to warning light
b. knife edge cutter method
c. ultrasonic probe system
d. all the above
524.Where the temperature sensing element is located in electrical heated windshields: (Ref. EHL
Pallet, 172)
a. within the cockpit and operated by pilot b. above the windshield
c. embedded within the panel d. just outside the windshield but touching it firmly
525. Mark the correct statement for windshield heating on large aircraft: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 170)
a. transparent stannic oxide or gold film is used
b. metal is deposited on the inside of the outer glass layer
c. power necessary to deal with severe icing conditions in the order of 5 6 watts/in2
of windshield area www.rjworld.com
d. all are correct
526. Generally in turbo propeller engine installation: (Ref. RollsRoyce, 150)
a. electrical system of ice protection is used
b. electrical heating is used on air intakes cowling of the engine, propeller blade an spinner
c. none of the above
d. both a & b are correct
527. Rain protection is provided in aircraft: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 178)
a. by use of windshield wipers on pilots and co-pilots windscreen
b. by spraying rain repellant on pilots and co-pilots windscreen
c. no need for any such arrangement
d. both a & b systems are used
528. Safety relief valve in pressurization system operates: (Ref. General)
a. pneumatically b. mechanically
c. electrically d. automatically
529. Temperature sensors used in ducting in air conditioning system provide signal in unbalance
condition to
operate:
(Ref. EHJ Pallet, 181)
a. pack valve b. temperature control valve / mix valve
c. mixing valve d. air cycle machine
530. The ram air flows from: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 181)
a. primary heat exchanger b. secondary heat exchanger
c. air cycle machine d. both a & b are correct
531. The purpose of limit sensor and anticipator sensor is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 181)
a. to regulate air conditioning temperature
b. to modulate any rapid changes demanded by an unbalanced control bridge so that when the
actuator
control moves the mix valve it will produce cabin temperature changes without sudden blast of hot
air and
cold air, and without raising duct temperature above limits
c. to switch off the air conditioning when the temperature exceeded the anticipated limit
d. all the above
532. The safety valve in air conditioning and pressurization system works: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 181)
a. with electric supply
b. with hydrolic supply
c. works automatically with air pressure from cabin (pneumatically)
d. none of the above
533. The purpose of dump valve is: (Ref. General)
a. to release cabin pressure to atmosphere on landing
b. to ensure that differential cabin pressure is maintained through out the flight
c. to maintain cabin temperature as per the setting
d. none of the above
534. In large aircraft the air conditioning and pressurization is done with help of: (Ref. EHJ Pallet,
180)
a. freon refrigent b. liquid ammonia cycle
c. compressed air taken from engine compressor d. all of the above
535. Down stream temperature of air cycle machine is controlled by: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 181)
www.rjworld.com
a. pack valve
b. temperature control valve (also known as mix valve)
c. zone controller d. temperature
536. The principle of smoke detector in aircraft is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 164)
a. infrared beam of light passes through the air sample
b. air is sampled and any smoke present, causes a change of electric current in photo diode
c. change in the density of air sample due to presence of smoke is measured by density motor
537. The horn in landing gear warning circuit is activated by: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 176)
a. up lock micro s/w
b. down lock micro s/w
c. engine throttle retard micro s/w
d. all the above
538. When the resistance type continuous wire fire warning element gets broken: Pallet, P-163
a. fire warning system will not work satisfactorily
b. fire warning system will still work satisfactorily
c. as in (a) and a horn comes on when the continuous wire breaks down
d. none of the above statements are correct regarding fire warning system
539. The aft (tail) navigation light: Eismin, P-250
on each side of the centre line of the aircraft and to the rear a. must show light through an angle
of 70
on each side of the centre line of the aircraft and to the rear b. must show light through an angle
of 50
on each side of the centre line of the aircraft and to the rear c. must show light through an angle
of 140
d. none of the above
540. An increase in which of the following factors will cause an increase in the inductive reactance
of a circuit:
Eismin, P-87
a. capacitance and voltage b. inductance and frequency
c. voltage and resistance d. resistance and capacitive reactance
541. Through which material will magnetic lines of force pass most readily: BLT, P-745
a. copper b. iron c. aluminium d. titanium
542. The power factor of a parallel resonance circuit is: BLT, P-555
a. one b. zero c. 0.5 d. 0.707
543. Current transformers are/have: Pallet, P-126
a. step-down transformer b. step-up transformer
c. transformation ratio as one d. none of the above
544. The purpose of the current transformer is: Pallet, P-126
a. to step-up the voltage
b. to step-down the voltage
c. to measure large AC load currents of main lines
d. none of the above is correct
545. Mark the correct statement about shunts: Pallet, P-126
a. shunts used in DC circuits have two terminals while those in AC have for terminals
b. shunts used in DC circuits have four terminals while those used in AC have two terminals
c. shunts used in both AC & DC circuits always have four terminals www.rjworld.com
d. shunts used in both AC & DC circuits always have two terminals
546. Mark the correct statement about instrument transforms: BLT/2005/444-446
a. current transformers are used with high range ammeters whereas potential transformer are used
with low range
voltmeter
b. current transformers are used with low range ammeters whereas potential transformers are used
with high range
voltmeters
c. both current and potential transformers are used with low range meters
d. none of the above
547. Mark the most appropriate choice with regard to meter sensitivity: FAA-9A, P-325,329
a. the sensitivity of a meter movement is expressed as the amount of current required to give fullscale deflection
b. the sensitivity of a meter movement is expressed as the number of millivolts across the meter
when full scale
current flows through it
/E) and is determined by dividing the resistance of the c. the sensitivity of a voltmeter is given in
ohms per volt (
meter plus the series resistance by the full-scale reading in volts.
d. all of the above
548. The range of an ammeter can be extended by:
a. connecting a high value resistance in parallel with the meter movement
b. connecting a low value resistance in parallel with the meter movement
c. connecting a high value resistance in series with the meter movement
d. connecting a low value resistance in series with the meter movement
549. A typical frequency of anti-collision light beam rotation is: Pallet-224
a. 40-45 cycles per minute b. 80-90 cycles per second
c. 80-90 cycles per minute d. 100-120 cycles per minute
550. Retractable type landing lights utilize: Pallet-149
a. split field series motors b. hydraulic power c. either (a) or (b) d. both (a) & (b)
551. Strobe light utilize: Pallet-147
a. DC driven motor b. capacitor discharge flash tube
c. split field series motor d. hydraulic power
552. Pillar lights are located on/at/in: Pallet-151
a. on the pillars in the passenger compartments b. on the pillars in the cabin
c. on the pillars in the nose strut d. on the main instrument panel
553. Integral lights are fitted at/on/in: Pallet-151
a. inside the landing lights b. inside the taxying lights
c. inside the ice inspection light d. inside the instruments
554. Bridge lighting is located at/on/in: Pallet-151
a. passenger cabin
b. bridge lighting is recessed into the sides of the fuselage and are preset to direct beams of light
at the required
angles
c. on the instruments outside
d. on the instruments inside
555. When a resistance type continuous wire fire detector is broken, it: Pallet-163
a. gives a false warning
b. the system becomes inoperative www.rjworld.com
c. the warning function is no way affected
d. none of the above is correct
556. The principal advantage of capacitive type of fire warning system is that: Pallet-164
a. it can work on DC as well as AC
b. a short circuit grounding the element or system wiring does not result in a false fire warning
c. it utilizes very small amount of power
d. it does not need fire extinguishers
557. Smoke detectors use: Pallet-166
a. capacitor discharge tubes b. spot fire detectors
c. continuous fire wire elements d. photo diodes
558. The safety switches in landing gear control circuit are located at/on/inside: Pallet-175
a. up lock assembly b. down lock assembly
c. landing gear shock struts d. inside the relay
559. When all the lights in the under carriage position indicator are extinguished, it indicates:
Pallet-176
a. all gears down and locked b. all gears up and locked
c. all gears in the travelling mode d. all gears are unlocked
560. The purpose of safety switch in landing gear control circuit is: Pallet-175
a. to bring all gears safely down
b. to make the touch down as smooth as possible
c. to prevent accidental retraction of the gear while the aircraft is a ground
d. as in (b) and works in conjunction with braking system
561. Electroluminescent lighting contain: CAIP/II/990
a. sodium b. phosphor c. mercury d. filaments
562. Passenger compartment is lighted with the help of: CAIP/II/991
a. in candescent lamp b. fluorescent tube
c. either (a) or (b) or both d. pillar lamps
563. Wings scan lamps: CAIP/II/985
a. allow visual inspection of wings leading edges for the formation of ice
b. as in (a) and also visual inspection of turbine engines
c. allow visual inspection of wings leading edges for the assessment of damage due to bird hits
d. to measure using drop on each wing
564. Which of the following loads can be supplied from the frequency wild generator:
a. VHF radio set b. artificial horizon
c. electrical de-icing system d. all of the above
565. The advantages of proximity sensors are/in: Eismin-259
a. it gives very bright & clean indication because current consumption is low
b. uses less number of wires, hence it is easier to install, service repair
c. there are no moving contacts which makes it more reliable
d. it is cheap
566. In overheat and fire detection system: (EHJ Pallette, P-164)
a. Sensor are filled with helium gas www.rjworld.com
b. Sensor are filled with hydrogen gas
c. As in (a) and gives aural & visual warning in case of fire
d. As in (b) and gives aural & visual warning in case of fire
567. In capacitive type fire warning system: (EHJ Pallette, P-164)
a. Capacitance of the element will increase with increment of temperature
b. Capacitance of the element will decrease with increment of temperature
c. As in (a) and doesnt give false warning in case of short circuit/grounding
d. As in (b) and doesnt give false warning in case of short circuit/grounding
568. Mark the correct statement: (EHJ Pallette,P-173)
a. Pneumatic Boot is a anti-icing system and applied in wing/stabilizer
593. The distinct features of LT ignition system are: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 160)
a. no. of transformer coils are equal to number of cylinders
b. the distributor supplies low voltage to primary winding of transformer
c. no possibility of flares in distributor
d. all are correct
594. D.C. operated ignition system receive their power from: (Ref. Otis 11-8)
a. the battery bus b. from the AC bus www.rjworld.com
c. from PMA (Permanent Magnet Alternator) d. both a & c
595. Advantage of LT magneto ignition system over HT system is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 160)
a. HT lead is short
b. the distributor is receiving low voltage from primary winding
c. high voltage is induced in transformer coil
d. all the above
596. What will be the Joule rating of an ignition system operates on 10,000 watt for .00040 sec:
(Ref. Otis 11 3)
a. 0.4 joule b. 4 joule
c. 40 joule d. 400 joule
597. How much energy is required to ensure that the engine will obtain satisfactory relight at high
altitudes:
(Ref. RollsRoyce-127)
a. 15 joules b. 12 joules
c. 18 joules
598. When is it necessary to have the ignition system continuously operating to give an automatic
relight should
flame extinction occur: (Ref. RollsRoyce-128)
a. icing condition b. take off in heavy rain or snow
c. both a & b
599. An ignition unit may be supplied with alternative current (a.c) and operated by: (Ref.
RollsRoyce-129)
a. trembler mechanism
b. a transistor chopper circuit
c. transformer
600. A choke is fitted in a d.c. trembler operated ignition unit is: (Ref. RollsRoyce-129)
a. to extend the duration of discharge
b. to retard the duration of discharge
c. either (a) or (b)
601. What is fitted in a d.c. trembler operated ignition unit to operate safely, even when the high
tension lead is
disconnected and isolated: (Ref. RollsRoyce-129)
a. safety resistor b. discharge resistor
c. choke
602. Transistorized ignition unit is having advantage over the d.c. trembler operated unit because it
has:
(Ref. RollsRoyce-129)
a. reduced size b. less weight
c. both (a) & (b)
603. The discharge of shunted surface discharge type igniter plug takes the form of: (Ref.
RollsRoyce -131)
a. a. high intensity flashover from the electrode to the body
b. a low intensity flashover from the electrode to the body
c. either (a) or (b)
604. How many ignitor plugs being situated in different positions in the combustion system:
(Ref. RollsRoyce -114)
a. one b. two
c. three d. it depends upon type of JE
www.rjworld.com
605. In HT magneto system the rotor of the distributor is electrically connected to: (Ref. EHJ
Pallet, 158)
a. primary winding of magneto b. secondary winding of magneto
c. a.c. supply from a/c d. all are incorrect
DGCA PAPER II
Aircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices
(October Session 2011)
1. In four stroke engine spark plug fires in
a. 4 revolutions of crank shaft
b. 2 revolutions of crank shaft
c. revolutions of crank shaft
d. 360 degree revolution of crank shaft
2. Before storing aircraft in hanger
a. Fuel tank should be fully filled
b. Fuel tank should be half filled
c. Fuel tank should be empty
d. Fuel tank should have residual fuel
3. Jacking procedure of aircraft
a. Minimum 4 jacking points are provided
b. The legs of the jacks should be checked to see that they will not interfere with the operations to
be performed after the aircraft is jacked.
c.
d. All of the above
4. fires in flammable petroleum products or other flammable or combustible liquids, greases,
solvents, paints, etc. is classified as
a. class A fire
b. class B fire
c. class C fire
5. towing speed should not be more than
a. 10km/hr
b. 20 km/hr
c. 50 km/hr
d. Not to exceed wing walkers speed
6. Sparking testing is most common means of identifying
a. Ferrous alloys only
b. Nonferrous alloys only
c. ..
7. In spark testing which steel gives off long, straight shafts having a few white sprigs
a. Wrought iron
b. Cast iron
c. Low carbon steel
8. T6 in heat treatment indicates
a.
b. T indicates heat treatment and 6 indicates hardness state
c.
a. t increases
b. t reduces
c.
34. MTCS
a. turboprop engine requires lengthy runway than piston engine of same power
b. turbojet has more weight than piston engine of same power
c. turbofan required short runway as compare to turbojet
d. all of the above
35. clipper circuit is used
a. to get a desired wave form
b. as in a and requires a battery source to select a dc voltage level
c. as in a and requires a transistor
d.
36. Thermal runaway
a. Should be avoided
b. Occurs in transistors..
c. Causes permanent damage
d. All of the above
37. Thyractron is
a. SCR
b. Transistor
c.
d.
38. In oxygen system
a. Gaseous oxygen is chemically stable and is nonflammable.
b. Combustible materials ignite more rapidly and burn with greater intensity in an oxygen rich
atmosphere
c. Liquid oxygen causes severe frostbite if it comes in contact with the skin.
d. All of the above
DGCA PAPER II
Aircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices
(October Session 2011)
4|Pagewww.rjworld.comeditedby-Raju
39. Which is an excellent material to use with phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid.
a. Butyl
b. Neoprene
c. Buna n
d. Buna s
40. Yellow color stands for
a. Hydraulic
b. Lubrication
c. Coolant
41. Illustrated parts catalog shows which drawing
a. Orthographic
b. Exploded view diagram
c.
42. Pulse echo method can detect which defects
a. Welds flaw
b. Surface crack
c. Subsurface defect
d. All of the above
43. Internal flaws in composite are detected by
a. Coin tap test
b. Laser holography
c. Ultrasonic
d. All of the above
44. Corrosion along grain boundaries is called
a. Intergranular corrosion
b. Crevice corrosion
c. Galvanic corrosion
a. Class 1 fit
b. Class 2 fit
c. Class 3 fit
d. Class 4 fir
57. Metal tubings are sized by
a. Inside diameter in increment of 1/16 inch
b. Inside diameter in increment of 1/32 inch
c. Outside diameter in increment of 1/16 inch
d. Outside diameter in increment of 1/32 inch
58. Flexible hoses are used where
a. connect moving parts with stationary parts
b. locations subject to vibration and where a great amount of flexibility is needed.
c. It can also serve as a connector in metal tubing systems.
d. All of the above
59. Stringers, bulkhead, skin, rivet and extruded section are made from
a. Cast aluminum alloy
b. Wrought aluminum alloy
c. Pure aluminum
60. Files used for filing internal angles, clearing out corners, and filing taps and cutters
a. Triangular
b. Triangular and three square
c. Knife
d.
61. Hydraulic Ground Power Units can be used for Drain the aircraft hydraulic systems. Filter the
aircraft system hydraulic fluid. Refill the aircraft system with clean fluid and check the aircraft
hydraulic systems for operation and leaks. All of the above
62. Leveling of aircraft is carried out by
a. Placing spirit level at the pilot seat
b. Placing spirit level at..
c. Placing a plumb bob..
d.
63. If rf and af is present, it can be filtered using
a. LPF
DGCA PAPER II
Aircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices
(October Session 2011)
6|Pagewww.rjworld.comeditedby-Raju
b. HPF
c.
d. filter
64. In 3 star connection
a. Voltage of line is equal to voltage of phase
b. Line current = 3 phase current
c. Line current = phase current
d. Line voltage= 3 phase voltage
65. Two input bubbled AND gate is
a. OR gate
b. AND gate
c. NAND gate
d. NOR gate
66. Slots provided on the armature are not parallel but are staggered at an angle to provide
a. Safety
b. Reduce the humming noise
c. Stability..
d. ..
67. In transformers a low current is provided to the primary in starting
a. To overcome iron losses
b. To overcome copper losses.
c. .
d. .
b. Saturation
c. .
d.
80. In a circuit a power of 300watt is present and has a voltage of 120 volts, what is the current
flowing in the circuit
a. 2.5 A
b. 3.5 A
c. 4.5 A
d. .
81. If the peak value is 100 volts then at an angle of 30 what is the instantaneous value
a. 50 V
b. 100 V
c. 150 V
d. 200 V
82. ICs can be checked by
a. ON/OFF state
b. Logic 0 and logic 1
c. As in (a) and.
d. Both a and b
83. The is amplified in transistor because of
a. High AC input resistance
b. Increasing Rc
c. High AC output resistance
d.