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PAPER - II

PART XI
1. Diamond is a:
(a) Metal (b) Non-metal (c) Glass (d) Composite
2. Number of atoms in a Body Centered Cubic (BCC) crystal are:
(a) Ten (b) Seventeen (c) Nine (d) Fourteen
3. Type of bond formed in a material by sharing of electrons in different atoms is:
(a) Ionic Bond (b) Covalent Bond
(c) Metallic Bond (d) Electrostatic bond
4. A crack in a metal due to corrosive atmosphere and static tensile stress is known as:
(a) Bauschingers effect (b) Work hardening (c) Season cracking (d) Strain aging
5. A metal part or structure fails under repetitive or fluctuating loading or stress is called:
(a) Fatigue fracture (b) Ductile fracture (c) Creep fracture (d) Brittle fracture
6. (1) An intermetallic compound is a form of alloy, where as
(2) Substitutional solid solution is a type of solid solution
(a) 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect (b) 2 is correct & one is incorrect
(c) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect (d) Both, (1) and (2) are correct
7. Property of a material to resist indentation is known as:
(a) Toughness (b) Hardness (c) Brittleness (d) Strength
8. Conductivity and Expansion are physical terms which are related to:
(a) Electricity (b) Heat (c) Cooling (d) None of these
9. Addition of carbon to the surface of steel to make it hard, is known as:
(a) Case hardening (b) Carburizing (c) Quenching (d) None of these
10. Permanent deformation of metal caused by applied load is called:
(a) Stress (b) Elastic deformation (c) Plastic deformation (d) None of these
11. The point at which marked increase in deformation occurs without increasing the load
during tensile testing of a material, is:
(a) Yield point (b) Yield strength (c) Proof strength (d) Tensile strength
12. For tensile testing, the extensometer must be calibrated to:
(a) 0.0001 inch (b) 0.0002 inch (c) 0.0003 inch (d) 0.0004 inch
13. Yield strength of a metal can be determined by:
(a) Divider method (b) Drop of beam method
(c) Set method (d) None of these
14. In Brinell Hardness Testing, hard metal will have:
(a) Large Brinell number (b) Small Brinell number
(c) No effect by hardness (d) None of these
15. In Vickers Hardness Test, angles between two opposite diagonals of diamond pyramid
is:
(a) 1260 (b) 1360 (c) 1460 (d) 1560
16. Size of specimen taken for reverse bending test is:
(a) 5 inches (b) 10 inches (c) 15 inches (d) 20 inches
17. In reverse bending test, number of bends require for small wires
(a) 50 bends (b) 7 bends (c) 10 bends (d) 90 bends
18. Torsion test is carried out on
(a) Aircraft tubes (b) Wires (c) Sheets & strips (d) Bars & rods
19. In radiography inspection, the wave length of x-rays are in order of
(a) 10-6 (b) 10-10 (c) 10-11 (d) 10-6 10-9
20. Circular magnetization detects the defect approximately:
(a) In line with flux (b) Parallel to the line of flux
(c) Parallel to the axis of the part (d) None of these
21. Type of bond formed in a material by Electrons cloud is:
(a) Ionic bond (b) Covalent bond (c) Mettalic bond (d) Electrostatic

22. For tensile testing, it is permitted to taper the gauge length of the specimen towards
center, maximum by:
(a) 0.001 inch (b) 0.002 inch (c) 0.002 inch (d) 0.004 inch
23. For elastic limit determination, the extensometer reading is taken from:
(a) 5% load of expected elastic limit (b) 10% load of expected elastic limit
(c) 15% load of expected elastic limit (d) 20% load of expected elastic limit
24. While testing a material for hardness, sufficient distance from edges should be there to
avoid:
(a) Buldging at opposite side (b) Deflection while testing
(c) Ridge scales (d) Scratches
25. (1) Diameter of ball used for Brinell Hardness Test is up to inches, where as
(2) Load applied for soft material is 500 kg.
(a) (1) is true and (2) is false (b) (2) is true and (1) is false
(c) Both are true (d) Both are false
26. Brinell Hardness Number is obtained by:
a) Size of ball divided by area of depression
b) Area of depression divided by size of ball
c) Load applied divided by area of depression
d) None of these
27. Maximum size of ball for Rockwell hardness test is:
(a) 5mm (b) 10mm (c) mm (d) 1 mm
28. In Rockwell hardness test, the working range of the B scale is:
(a) B0 B150 (b) B0 B100 (c) B0 B20 (d) None of these
29. In Rockwell hardness test, B scale is a combination of:
(a) Diamond cone, 150kg load and Red dial
(b) 1/16 inch ball, 100kg load and Black dial
(c) Diamond cone, 100kg load and Black dial
(d) 1/16 inch ball, 100kg load and Red dial
30. Minimum thickness necessary with hard steel for Rcokwell hardness test is:
(a) 0.027 inch (b) 0.27 inch (c) 0.0027 inch (d) None of these
31. Load applied in Shore Scleroscope hardness test is:
(a) 30 kg (b) 50 kg (c) 10 kg (d) None of these
32. For bending test of sheet and strips, the size of test specimen is:
(a) 1 to 1 inch wide with suitable length
(b) 1 by in cross section
(c) Full section
(d) None of these
33. In reverse bending test, the specimen is bent through an angle of:
(a) 600 (b) 900 (c) 1200 (d) 1800
34. In Izod impact test, the specimen is :
(a) Supported on two supports (b) Clamped in heavy jaws
(c) Attached with pendulum (d) None of these
35. In Hydrostatic test, welded exhaust tubing are subjected to an internal pressure
sufficient to put the welded seam under a tensile stress of:
(a) 1000 PSI (b) 10000 PSI (c) 100000 PSI (d) 1000000 PSI
36. In torsion testing of wires, speed of revolution should not be more than:
(a) 80 revolution/min (b) 70 revolution/min (c) 60 revolution/min (d) 50 revolution/min
37. In fatigue testing, the value of stress below which failure of material will not occur is
known as:
(a) Plastic limit (b) Elastic limit (c) Proof stress (d) Endurance limit
38. Gamma rays used for inspecting aircraft material for internal cracks / defects are
having wave length of:

(a) 10-3 (b) 10-6 (c) 10-9 (d) 10-11


39. (1) Sulfur is a harmful impurity in plain carbon steel
(2) Phosphorus is very much useful element of plain carbon steel
(a) Both are true (b) Both are false
(c) (1) is true (2) is false (d) (1) is false and (2) is true
40. High carbon steel is used for:
(a) Great hardness and low ductility (b) Great ductility and strength
(c) Great hardness and machinability (c) All of these
41. Which of the following is more useful for taking backups?
(a) Floppy disk (b) Hard Disk (c) Optical Disk (d) Cartridge
42. One Megabyte is _____________ bytes.
(a) 1048576 (b) 1000 (c) 102756 (d) 10
43. The material used as heat sink in semiconductors is
(a) Silicon (b) Germanium (c) Carbon (d) Selenium
44. When the conduction-band orbit of one atom may intersect the hole orbit of another
atom merging of a free electron and a hole takes place. This merging of electron and hole
is known as
(a) Current flow (b) Minority current flow
(c) Combination (d) Recombination
45. The barrier potential at 25C in respect of silicon and germanium is
(a) Si-0.7V and Ge-0.3V (b) Si-0.3V and Ge-0.7V
(c) Si-0.7V and Ge-0.7V (d) Si-0.3V and Ge-0.3V
46. Once the breakdown voltage is reached, the diode can conduct
(a) Heavily (b) Very flow (c) Moderately (d) None of these
47. An electronic device which converts alternating current into d.c. is called
(a) Detector (b) Rectifier (c) Oscillator (d) None of these
48. Mark the incorrect statement about a bimetallic strip
(a) It consists of two metals joined together at their interface to form a single strip.
(b) One of the metal is invar, a form of steel with a 26% nickel content and a negligible
coefficient of linear expansion.
(c) The other metal may be brass or steel both of which have high linear expansion
coefficient.
(d) None of these.
49. Many of the instruments depend for their operation on sensitive electrical circuits
which are protected against adverse effects of atmospheric temperature, pressure and
humidity by
(a) filling the cases with nitrogen (b) filling the cases with helium
(c) filling the cases with argon (d) either (a) or (b)
50. Instruments displaying information which is to be read accurately and at frequent
intervals have scale about _____________ in length fitting into standard ____________ in
cases.
(a) 6 in & 3 (b) 7 in & 3 (c) 7 in & 3 (d) none of these
51. The rolled section having dimension of 6x 6 or larger & approximately square is called
(a) bloom (b) billet (c) slab (d) none of these
52. To identify ferrous metal
(a) hardness test is used (b) spark test is used
(c) heat treatment is carried out (d) grinding stone is used
53. Solution heat treated & artificially edged is indicated by
(a) T5 (b) T7 (c) T6 (d) T8
54. The most widely used alloys in aircraft construction are hardened by
(a) cold work (b) hot rolling (c) heat treatment (d) all the above
55. The heat range for salt bath furnances are

(a) depending upon composition of bath.


(b) as in (a) & normally 650F to 1700F.
(c) as in (a) & normally 325F to 2450F.
(d) none of these.
56. In semimonocoque fuselage primary bending load is taken by
(a) frame (b) stringer (c) longerons (d) bulk hand
57. In external bracing wing the landing and aerodynamic loads is carried by
(a) spar (b) rib (c) wing joints (d) bracing struts
58. In main plane at the inboard end of the wing near the attachment point to the fuselage
heavily stressed rib is called
(a) butt rib (b) bulk head rip (c) compression rib (d) all of them
59. Aircraft requiring extra wing area to aid lift often are
(a) split flap (b) plain flap (c) fowler flap (d) all of them
60. On multiengine aircraft Nacelles or pods are located
(a) above the m/p (b) below the m/p
(c) at the leading edge of the m/p (d) all the above
61. An amplifying, comparative gage is an instrument that amplifies the variation in the
size of two similar parts by
(a) 2 times (b) 5 times (c) 10 times (d) 20 times
62. Johansson precision gage blocks, the second series of gage blocks contains
(a) 19 blocks (b) 49 blocks (c) 81 blocks (d) none of these
63. The entire cone shaped surface at the cutting end of the drill is
(a) dead centre (b) point (c) margin (d) lip
64. The angle between a lip and axis of a drill bit is known as ___________ and mostly 59.
(a) heel angle (b) lip angle (c) lip clearance (d) none of these
65. Part of the point drill that actually cuts away the material when a hole is drilled is
known as
(a) point (b) cutting lips (c) margin (d) flutes
66. A capacitor consists of two
(a) conductors separated by an insulator called the di-electric.
(b) insulators separated by a conductor.
(c) insulators separated by air medium.
(d) conductors separated by air medium.
67. In a capacitor electric charge is stored in
(a) metal plates (b) di-electric (c) both (a) & (b) (d) none of these
68. Unit of m.m.f. is
(a) weber (b) gilbert (c) maxwell (d) henry
69. Joule/coloumb is the unit of
(a) electric field potential (b) potential (c) charge (d) none of these
70. In a lead-acid battery, excessive formation of lead sulphate occurs due to
(a) idleness of battery for a long time (b) low level of electrolyte
(c) persistent under charging (d) all of them
71. Common impurity in a battery electrolyte is
(a) dust particle (b) iron (c) lead crystals (d) sodium chloride
72. Overcharging of lead-acid battery will cause
(a) excessive gassing (b) loss of active material
(c) increase in temperature resulting in buckling (d) all of them
73. Total horse power developed by piston engine is
(a) IHP (b) BHP (c) FHP (d) Actual horse power
74. Factor affecting volumetric efficiency is
(a) improper fuel injection (b) cylinder bore
(c) low engine power (d) improper valve timing

75. In the formula indicated


HP= PLANK , where N stands for
33000
(a) number of power stroke per minute (b) number of cylinder per engine
(c) number of RDM per power stroke (d) none of these
76. White arc on ASI dial indicates airspeed range
(a) normal operating range (b) maximum & minimum limits
(c) aircraft landing flaps may be extended (d) none of these
77. Mark the correct statement about
A field effect LCD
(a) It incorporates additional plates called polarizers on the front & back glass plates of the
assembly.
(b) It contains a specially prepared inside glass surface which causes liquid crystal.
(c) The molecular configuration causes the plane of polarization to be reflected by 90 as it
passes through LCD.
(d) All the above.
78. A quality of precision gage have the accuracy of
(a) 0.000008 inch (b) 0.000004 inch (c) 0.000002 inch (d) 0.000004 inch
79. The convenient gages which are designed to inspect the thickness of paper, plastic,
steel metal, leather and so on with great accuracy are
(a) indicating depth gage (b) indicating thickness gage
(c) amplifying comparative gage (d) indicating gage
80. For flight equilibrium adequate restoring moment can be achieved by fixing C of G
(Centre of Gravity)
(a) end C of P (Pressure) together (b) rear of C of P
( c) front of C of P (d) along aerodynamic C of P
PAPER - II
PART XI
ANSWERS:
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A
6. D 7. B 8. B 9.A 10. C
11. A 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. B
16. B 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. C
21. C 22. C 23. D 24. B 25. B
26. C 27. C 28. B 29. D 30.A
31. D 32. D 33. D 34. B 35. B
36. C 37. D 38. D 39. C 40. A
41. A 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. A
46. A 47. B 48. B 49. D 50. C
51. A 52. B 53. C 54. C 55. C
56. C 57. D 58. D 59. C 60. D
61. C 62. B 63. B 64. B 65. B
66. A 67. B 68. B 69. A 70. D
71. A 72. D 73. A 74. D 75. A
76. C 77. D 78. B 79. B 80. C

PAPER - II PART X
1. Chain (thick line of 0.7mm) indicates

PAPER - II
PART X

a. Visible outlines and edges


b. Hidden outlines and edges
c. Surface which have to meet special requirements.
d. Cutting planes.
2. Raised countersunk heads bolt nominal length is measured from
a. Under the head to the tip
b. Total length of the bolt
c. Threaded length
d. Distance from upper surface of the head (excluding the raised portion) to the extreme end of
shank
3. Bolt head is of
a Steel b. Corrosion resistant steel c. Al. Alloy d. Brass
4. Bolt head is of
a. Steel b. Al. Alloy
c. C.R.S. close tolerance d. Al. Alloy close tolerance
5. AN 935 is
a. Plain washer b. Lock spring washer
c. Shake proof washer d. None of above
6. AN 936 is
a. Shake proof washer b. Lock spring washer
c. Plain washer d. None of above
7. Measuring capacity of Vernier Caliper is
a. Full graduated length of main scale
b. Full graduated length of main scale minus the length of the vernier scale.
c. Full graduated length plus vernier scale
d. All above
8. Vernier caliper is checked for accuracy with the help of
a. Slip gauge b. Micrometer c. Straight edge d. both a) and b)
9. Calliper Micrometer is used for measurement of
a. Small internal diameter
b. Big internal diameter
c. External diameter
d. All above
10. For measurement of cutting a lapping dimension of Drills, Taps and Reamers instrument used in
a. External micrometer
b. Internal micrometer
c. Vee-block micrometer
d. All above
11. When metal is in contact with plastics, glass wool (non-conducting material) the corrosion form
is known as
a. Fretting b. Pitting c. Crevice corrosion d. None of above
12. Argon cylinders should not be used if the pressure is less than
a. 20 lbf/in b. 30 lbf/in c. 10 lbf/in d. None
13. Grub screws are used for
a. Locking the bolt b. Locking the nut
c. Locking two threaded components d. To stop end movement of piston
14. Taper pin are manufactured with taper of
a. 1 in 48 b. 1 in 10 c. 1 in 50 d. 1 in 60
15. Main constituents of Inconel are
a. Nickel and Iron b. Nickel and Chromium
d. Nickel and Copper d. Copper and Manganese
16. Aircraft wheels, brake pedals, control columns are made out of
a. Nickel alloy b. Magnesium alloys
c. Magnesium alloy castings d. Wrought Magnesium alloy

17. Anti-corrosive treatment given to copper and its alloys in order to reduce electric potential
between these parts and its adjacent steel or aluminium parts is
a. Galvanizing b. Parkerizing
c. Metal spraying d. Cadmium plating
18. In order to increase elasticity and strength and reduce tackiness in rubber, the process is known
as
a. Vulcanizing b. Calendering c. Hardening d. None
19. Aircraft rivets are identified by
a. Head style
b. Alloy
c. Length & diameter
d. All
20. For accurate location of particular area on an aircraft, which of the following is necessary?
a. Water line
b. Butt line
c. As in a) and b) in conjunction with station line
d. None
21. Which type of corrosion is occurred in stainless steel after electric arc welding?
a. Pitting
b. Galvanic
c. Inter crystalline
d. Fretting
22. For spot welding, in stainless steel, which is most suitable
a. Low-voltage
b. High-amperage
c. Low-voltage and High-amperage
d. High-voltage and Low-amperage
23. Heat generated in spot welding is measured by
a. Resistance x (Current)2 x Time
b. Resistance x Time / (Current)2
c. (Current)2 / Resistance x Time
d. Resistance x Current
24. Which of the following is Non-Magnetic?
a. Inconel
b. K-Monel
c. Monel
d. All
25. SAE 13XX represents
a. Magnesium Steel
b. Manganese Steel
c. Silicon Steel
d. Chromium Steel
26. Hot piece of metal is increased in thickness and decreased in length
a. Upsetting
b. Down setting
c. Swaging
d. Rolling
27. Rivets are designed
a. Stronger in shear
b. Stronger in tension
c. Should not be subjected to excessive tension load
d. Both a) and c)
28. Zero fuel weight means
a. AUW minus weight of fuel
b. Weight of cargo, passenger and crew
c. Maximum allowable weight of loaded aircraft without fuel and statement b)
d. All of these
29. I-beam is produced by
a. Rolling b. Casting
c. Forging d. None

30. Caustic cleaning products used on Al-structure have the effect of producing
a. Passive oxidation
b. Improved corrosion resistance
c. Corrosion
d. None
31. Fayed surface cause concern in chemical cleaning because of the danger of
a. Forming passive oxide
b. Entrapping corrosive material
c. Corrosion by embedded iron oxide
d. All of the above
32. The rust or corrosion that occurs with most of the metal is the result of
a. A tendency for them to return their natural state
b. Blocking the flow of electrons in homogenous metals or between dissimilar metal
c. Electron flow in or between metal for cathode to anode area
d. All of the above
33. Which of the listed condition is not one of the requirements for corrosion to occur
a. Presence of electrolyte
b. Electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic area
c. Presence of passive oxide film
d. None of these
34. Inter-granular corrosion on Al-alloy part
a. May be detected by surface pitting, white powdery deposit
b. Appears as thread like filament
c. Cannot always be detected by surface indication
d. All of the above
35. Which type of pipe wrench is designed with adjustable serrated jaws for gripping round pipes?
a. Warnok type
b. Stillson type
c. Super wrench tool
d. Williams type
36. Vise grip pliers is also known as
a. Heavy pliers
b. Lever jaw wrench
c. Monkey pliers
d. None
37. Punch holders are used to hold
a. Punches
b. Chisels
c. Both a & b are correct
d. As in a, when a hard blow is required
38. Which pliers can be used for completing the safety wire operation?
a. Safety wire pliers
b. Diagonals & duck bill pliers
c. Both a & b are correct
d. As in a & diagonals
39. Diagonals are used for
a. Cutting steel wires & rods
b. Cutting bolt heads
c. Both a & b are correct
d. None
40. The shape of long nose pliers is
a. Round
b. Half-round
c. Square
d. None
41. The jaws of vise grip pliers is released from locking by
a. A small lever at each handle
b. A compound lever at both handles
c. A small lever at one of the handles
d. None

42. Which thread is used where a great strength is required in one direction?
a. Acme
b. Square
c. Worm
d. Buttress
43. In interlocking-joint pliers,
a. There are a number of holes at the hinge point
b. There are two holes at the hinge point
c. There are several curved grooves at the hinge point
d. None
44. Which nut is used to prevent other nuts from turning on threaded bolt or rod
a. Self-locking nut
b. Jamb nut
c. Stainless steel nut with cotter pin
d. None of these
45. The content of CO2 fire extinguisher or N2 pressurized extinguisher is checked by
a. Weight and pressure gauge
b. Marking on neck
c. By operating the extinguisher
d. All of the above
46. Choose incorrect statement
a. Yellow poly propylene provide insufficient strength
b. Proper tension in rope allows 1 movement
c. Manila rope requires extra slak due to shrinks
d. The rope from tail should pull away at about 450 to each side of tail
47. Which type of jack is used for L/G retraction check
a. Single base jack
b. Bottle neck jack
c. Screw jack
d. Tripod jack
48. Which measuring tool is used for outside or inside measurement for faster work
a. Vernier micrometer
b. Vernier calliper
c. Micrometer calliper
d. None of these
49. Which is incorrect statement
a. If corrosion is present in control cable should be replaced
b. Cable used in seaplane must be coated with paral-ketone
c. For detection of corrosion, cable twist in same way of lay
d. Carbon steel cable must be used with protective coating
50. After welding aluminium parts flux should be removed by
a. Immersing them in Luke warm water for 30 minutes
b. Mechanical means, i.e. Wire brushing as the flux is not soluble in water
c. Washing the parts in boiling water containing 5% HNO3
d. Vacuum blasting
51. A gusset is
a. A bracing between longerons
b. A type of connecting bracket
c. Used for fail safe construction
d. Like a butt plate
52. In computer terminology, MICR means
a. Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
b. Magnetic Ink Computer Recognition
c. Monitor Indicating Computer Relay
d. Mass Information Computer Record
53. The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely resistive circuit is given by
a. 00
b. 900
c. 450
d. 1350

54. One micro farad is equal to


a. 0.001 milli farad
b. 100 milli farad
c. 1000 milli farad
d. 10 milli farad
55. To smoothen the DC in rectifier, we employ
a. LPF b. HPF
b. BPF d. None
56. The Voltage / Current across the short circuit
a. V = max I = 0
b. V = 0 I = max
c. V = 0 I = 0
d. V = max I = max
57. The vacuum tube has
a. Directly heated anode
b. Indirectly heated cathode
c. Directly heated cathode
d. Indirectly heated anode
58. The name Superhet is used for
a. AM receiver
b. FM receiver
c. AM transmitter
d. FM transmitter
59. Two resistances of 15, 12 ohms each are connected in parallel across a supply, giving 27
ampere, then current through 15 ohm will be
a. 27 amp
b. 12 amp
c. 15 amp
d. 1 amp
60. Most effective method of removing rust from ferrous metal is
a. Steel wire brush
b. Sand paper
c. By abrasive blasting
d. Washing with hot shop solution
61. A) Rivet smaller than 3/32 diameter are never used on stressed structure
B) Never replace 2024T rivet with 2117T rivet
a. Both are correct
b. Both are incorrect
c. Only A) is correct
d. Only B) is correct
62. Regarding permanent ballast
a. Lead bar or plate is used
b. Painted red and placarded
c. Bolted as near as possible to CG
d. Both A and B
63. Transverse pitch is
a. Twice the rivet diameter
b. 70% of rivet pitch
c. 75% of rivet pitch
d. 6-8 diameter
64. Rivet pitch is
a. Distance between center of rivet in a row
b. Distance between edge to center of rivet
c. Four times the rivet diameter
d. Both a) and c) are correct
65. Edge distance (minimum) is
a. 4D
b. 2D
c. 6-8D
d. Any of the above

66. The amount of rivet length used for shop head is


a. 11/2 x diameter of rivet
b. 4 x diameter of rivet
c. 3 x diameter of rivet
d. All of the above
67. Which plating process provide excellent base for paint
a. Cd Plating
b. Zn Plating
c. Granodizing
d. All of the above
68. Which treatment give excellent base for paint
a. CR Plating
b. Parkerizing
c. Metal spraying
d. Zn plating
69. The process use zinc as a medium for plating
a. Parkerizing
b. Sheradizing
c. Galvonizing
d. Both b) and c)
70. In Electrically driven attitude indicators, the gyro rotates approx., at
a. 20000 rpm
b. 21000 rpm
c. 21500 rpm
d. None of the above
71. During functional test of direction indicator, the drift should be checked which should not
exceed
a. 2 degree in 15 minutes
b. 3 degree in 15 minutes
c. 2 degree in 30 minutes
d. 3 degree in 30 minutes
72. Performance test of instruments should be carried out
a. Before installation
b. At times when indication and operation are suspected
c. At periods mentioned in aircraft maintenance manual
d. All of the above
73. Worm threads have a thread angle of
a. 45 degrees and is similar to ACME threads
b. 29 degrees and is similar to ACME threads
c. 29 degrees and depth of threads are deeper than ACME threads
d. 29 degrees and ACME threads are deeper than worm threads
74. The figure shown here is of
a. A simple gear train and the gear D moves at half speed of gear A
b. As in a & the gear D moves in the same direction of the gear A
c. A compound gear train & the gear D moves in the opposite direction of the gear A
d. A simple gear train and the gear D moves in the opposite direction at a double speed of gear
A
100T 30 30 50T
ABCD
75. Which of the following memories has got equal access time for all locations of the memory
limit?
a. Read Only Memory (ROM)
b. Programmable Read Only Memory (PROM)
c. Random Access Memory (RAM)
d. Erasable ROM
76. To get a basic D.C. generator from A.C. generator which of the following arrangement is made?
a. By replacing the slip rings of the A.C. generator with commutator
b. By the addition of extra slip rings
c. By connecting a rectifier
d. None of the above

77. The rotating part of a DC generator is called


a. Field coil b. Yoke c. Armature d. None of these
78. Variations of D.C. voltage generated by D.C. generator is called
a. Ripple b. R.M.S. c. Average d. Crest
79. The brushes in generator are generally made up of
a. High grade carbon
b. High grade silicon
c. High grade selenium
d. High grade zinc
80. The term 10-5 farads mean
a. 1 mili-farad b. 10 micro-farad
c. 10 nano-farad d. None
PAPER - II
PART X
1.C 2.D 3.B 4.C 5.B
6.A 7.B 8.D 9.A 10.C
11.C 12.A 13.C 14.A 15.B
16,.C 17. D 18. A 19. D 20. C
21.C 22. C 23. A 24.B 25. B
26. A 27. D 28. C 29. A 30. C
31. B 32. A 33.C 34.C 35.B
36. B 37. C 38. C 39. D 40. B
41. C 42.D 43.C 44.B 45.A
46. A 47. D 48.B 49.C 50.C
51.B 52.A 53.A 54.A 55.A
56.B 57.B 58.A 59.B 60.C
61.C 62.C 63.C 64.D 65.B
66.A 67.C 68.B 69.D 70.B
71.B 72.D 73.C 74.D 75.C
76.A 77.A 78.A 79.A 80.B

PAPER - II PART IX

PAPER - II
PART IX
1. In electromagnetic method of fast erection, the output of secondary winding of transformer is:
a. 115V AC b. 20 V AC c. 28V DC d. 185V AC
2. For compensation of pendulosity error, the amount of inclination is governed by value of:
a. 0.50 b. 1.750 c. Either a) or b) d. None
3. In turn & ship indicator, the precession of gyro is equal to
a) Angular momentum of gyro b) Rate or turn
c) Product of a) & b) d) None
4. In TSI, in practice, the gimbal ring deflection is generally not more than
a) 50 b) 120 c) 80 d) 60
5. Under banked turn in TSI means
a) Skid out of turn b) Slip into turn c) None
6. Crank case of a piston engine is made up of:
a) One piece construction b) Two piece construction
c) Multiple piece construction d) All of the above
7. Crank case provides
a) Attachment of the cylinder b) Attachment of propeller
c) Tight enclosure for lubricating oil & a) d) All of the above
8. In radial engine, impeller & blower are found in
a) Power section b) Nose section
c) Super charger section d)Accessory section
9. Crank shaft
a) Converts heat energy in propulsive force
b) Converts heat energy in mechanical work
c) Transform reciprocating motion of piston in to rotary motion
d) As in c) & to rotating propeller shaft
10. Double throw crankshaft, also known as
a) 3600 crank shaft b) 600 crank shaft
c) 800 crank shaft d) 1800 crank shaft
11. Maximum strength of fibres is in which direction of bi-directional fabric
a) Warp b) Weft c) Biased d) Fill
12. Which of the following is the unidirectional fabric style?
a) Mats b) Tapes c) Kevlar c)Fiber glass
13. Which of the following can use as leak tester
a) Ultrasound method (Water immersion method b) Dye-penetrant method
c) Magnetic particle inspection d) None of these
14. Elliptical motion of wave on the upper surface of material known as
a) Shear wave b) Compression wave
c) Surface wave d) Tension wave
15. Thin sheet metals weld defect can be inspected by
a) X-Ray b) Ultrasonic method
c) Eddy current d) None of these
16. By which method we cannot detect the inter-granular corrosion easily
a) Ultrasonic method b) Eddy current
c) Magnetic particle d) X-Ray
17. Grinding cracks on small radius bends is appeared as __________ in magnetic particle inspection
a) Irregular lines over affected area b) Short parallel lines
c) Dotted patch d) Scattered small lines
18. Permeability of material is the function of
a) Magnetising force b) Flux density
c) Both a) and b) are correct d) None of these
19. Which instrument is used for checking the surface roughness?
a) Spectrometer b) Prosfetrometer
c) Profilometer d) Hilsegmetometer
20. The content of CO2 fire extinguisher or N2 pressurized extinguisher is checked by
a) Weight and pressure gauge b) Marking on neck
c) By operating the extinguisher d) All of these
21. Which is incorrect statement?

a) If corrosion is present in control cable should be replaced


b) Cable used in seaplane must be coated with paral-ketone
c) For detection of corrosion, cable twist in same way of lay
d) Carbon steel cable must be used with protective coating
22. After welding aluminium parts flux should be removed by
a) Immersing them in Luke warm water for 30 minutes
b) Mechanical means, i.e. Wire brushing as the flux is not soluble in water
c) Washing the parts in boiling water containing 5% HNO3
d) Vacuum blasting
23. A gusset is
a) A bracing between longerons b) A type of connecting bracket
c) Used for fail safe construction d) Like a butt plate
24. Which cross point screwdriver has a taper cross & the sides are not parallel
a) Phillips screwdriver b) Reed & prince screwdriver
c) Both are correct d) None
25. The hallow magnetized shafts of interchangeable screwdrivers hold hex bits of
a) 1/2 inch size b) 3/4 inch size
c) 3/8 inch size d) 1/4 inch size
26. The shape of which screwdriver permits the use of a wrench to assist in tightening?
a) Stubby screwdriver b) Phillips screwdriver
c) Heavy duty screwdriver c) Double ended screwdriver
27. Prick punch has an included angle of
a) 150 b) 450 c)650 d) 900
28. While installing a taper pin with a pin punch, the size of the punch should be
a) Larger than the size of the pin b) Smaller than the size of pin
c) Same size of the pin d) Can be of any size
29. Which hammers are used for riveting & stretching of metals
a) Ball peen hammer b) Straight peen hammer
c) Soft faced hammer d) Both a and b are correct
30. Soft hammers are made of
1) Babbitt 2) Brass 3) Carbon steel 4) Wood 5) Tool steel
a) 1,2 & 3 are correct b) Only 1 is correct
c) 1,2 & 4 are correct d) 1,2,3 & 4 are correct
31. In N-type semiconductors, the concentration of minority carriers mainly depends upon
a) Doping technique b) Number of donor atoms
c) Temperature of material d) quality of intrinsic material
32. Peak Inverse Voltage (PIV) across the non-conducting diode (Reverse biased) in center tape full
wave rectifier is equal to
a) Vm b) 2/Vm c) Vm/2 d) 2Vm
33. Zinor Breakdown in a diode is due to
a) High electric field causes covalent bonds to break
b) Due to the increased velocities of minority carriers
c) Due to heating of junction due to heavy current
d) None of the above
34. Two switches are connected ___________ to obtain AND gate function
a) In series b) In parallel c) Either parallel or series d) None of above
35. Which gate is known as universal gate
a) OR gate b) NOR gate c) AND gate d) XOR gate
36. To identify Ferrous metal
a) hardness test is used b) Spark test is used
c) Heat treatment is carried out d) Grinding stone is used
37. Solution heat treatment & artificially eged is indicated by
a) T5 b) T7 c) T6 d)T8
38. The most widely used alloys in aircraft construction are hardened by
a) Cold work b) Hot rolling c) Heat treatment d) All the above
39. The heat range for salt bath Furnaces are
a) Depending upon composition of bath
b) As in a) & normally 6500 F to 17000F
c) As in a) & normally 3250F to 24500F
d) None of these

40. In semimonocoque fuselage primary bending load is taken by


a) Frame b) Stringer c) Longerons d) Bulk head
41. In external bracing wing the landing and aerodynamic loads is carried by
a) Spar b) Rib c) Wing joints d) Bracing struts
42. The entire cone shaped surface at the cutting end of the drill is
a) Dead centre b) Point c) Margin d) Lip
43. The angle between a lip and axis of the drill bit is known as ______ and mostly 590
a) Heel angle b) Lip angle c) Lip clearance d) None of these
44. Part of the point drill that actually cuts away the material when a hole is drilled is known as
a) Point b) cutting lips c) Margin d) Flutes
45. For flight equilibrium adequate restoring moment can be achieved by fixing C of G (Centre of
Gravity)
a) And C of P (Pressure) together b) Rear of C of P
c) Front of C of P d) Along Aerodynamic C of P
46. The point on the chord line at which the total lift of a section at an aerofoil is considered to act
is known as
a) Centre of Gravity b) Centre of Pressure
c) Lift d) None of the above
47. The difference between the angles of incidence between the main plane and tailplane is known
as
a) Diheddral b) Anhedral c) Longitudinal Dihedral d) None of above
48. The type of drag which is produced by non lifting surfaces is known as
a) Parasite drag b) Wing drag c) Skin friction d) Induced drag
49. The stability which is due to features incorporated in the design of the aircraft is called
a) Inherent stability b) Neutral stability c) Static stability d) Dynamic stability
50. The angle of attack of an aerofoil such as wing is the angle between the
a) Chord of the wing and the longitudinal axis
b) Chord of the wing and the relative airflow
c) Chord of the wing and horizontal axis
d) Angle of incidence and stall angle
51. Crazing appears on the plastic surface in forms of
a) Straight line crack b) Zigzag crack
c) A network of crack running in all direction d) Not visible
52. If plastic is stored horizontally, the height should not be more than
a) 6 b) 24 c) 12 d) 18
53. In a fail safe spar, the top section consist of
a) Cap and upper web plate riveted together b) Single extrusion
c) Splice plates and cap d) All of these
54. Hydraulic fluid leak is avoided in between the body and the piston of the break assembly by
means of
a) Gasket b) O-ring packing c) Seal d) All above
55. In cantilever wing design
a) No external support is required b) Bracing is required
c) Drag wire is fitted d) None of these
56. The principal structured member of the wing is
a) Rib b) Spar c) Stringer d) Formers
57. In multiple disk break assembly stators are
a) Key to the bearing career b) Not key to the bearing career
c) It rotates d) None above
58. Pressure identification or false brinnelling appears in which type of corrosion
a) Fatigue corrosion b) Fretting corrosion c) Inter granular corrosion d) Stress corrosion
59. Al and its alloys are covered with pure aluminium to corrosion resistance is called
a) Sherardizing b) Anodizing c) Cladding d) Chromating
60. Magnesium parts are protected for temporary storage with
a) Cladding b) Anodizing c) Plating d) Chrome pickle treatment
61. The multiple disk break assembly consist of
a) 3 stators b) 4 rotators c) 1 bearing career d) All above
62. In anodizing of Al alloys a thin layer of film on the surface is formed of
a) Al oxide b) Sodium oxide c) Potassium oxide d) Calcium oxide
63. Dichromate treatment is given to

a) Al parts b) Steel parts c) Magnesium parts d) Copper parts


64. Al. Alloy bell cranks employing pressed in taper pins are suspected to
a) Fatigue corrosion b) Fretting corrosion c) Stress corrosion d) None of these
65. Rigid fuel tanks are tested for leak with the air pressure of
a) 2.5 PSI b) 1.5 PSI c) 2 PSI d) 3 PSI
66. Flexible fuel tanks are tested for fuel leak with the air pressure of
a) 0.25 PSI b) 1.5 PSI c) 2.5 PSI d) 0.5 PSI
67. Fuel leak of the tank is checked for the seepage for the period of
a) 15 min c) 30 min c) 45 min d) 60 min
68. The bladder type of fuel cell is made to size in the cavity when it sit
a) Larger b) Smaller c) Equal d) All of these
69. During symmetry checks of Aircraft a spring scale is used with the steel tape. Generally a pull of
force is applied to obtain equal tension during reading it.
a) 8 lbs b) 15 lbs c) 5 lbs d) 10 lbs
70. To check the rudder hinge alignment the instrument used is
a) Scale b) Plum bob c) straight edge d) Steel tape
71. Taper on a shaft is indicated along the
a) Centre line b) Base line c) Dimension line
72. Set squares can be used for drawing
a) Vertical line b) Inclined line c) Parallel line d) All of the above
73. Splined shafts are used to
a) Transmit larger power than keyed shaft b) Obtain axial movement
c) Obtain rotary movement d) All of these
74. Flange couplings are
a) Flexible coupling b). Rigid coupling
c) Compression coupling d) Clamp coupling
75. The type of key used in muff coupling is
a) Wood roof key b) Gib-head key c) Round key d) Any of these
76. Gear sector gives
a) Continuous motion b) Intermittent motion
c) Reciprocating motion d) None of these
77. Helical gears are
a) More quiet than spur gear b) Having more number of teeth in contact
c) Smooth in operation d) All of these
78. Addendum + Duodenum =
a) Working depth b) Whole depth c) Tooth space d) Backlash
79. The basic difference in datum line and phantom line is
a) Thickness of lines b) Length of lines
c) No. of lines d) None of these
80. A straight line parallel to a vertical plane has
a) A line of same length in front view and point in top view
b) A line of same length in both views
c) A line of same length in top view and point in front view
d) None of these
PAPER - II
PART IX
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. A
6. D 7.C 8. C 9. D 10. D
11. A 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. A
16. D 17. B 18. C 19. C 20.A
21. C 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. D
26. C 27.B 28.A 29. A 30. C
31. C 32. D 33. A 34.A 35.B
36. B 37. C 38. C 39. C 40. C
41. D 42. B 43. B 44. B 45 C
46. B 47. C 48 A 49. B 50. B
51.C 52. D 53. A 54. B 55 A
56. B 57. A 58.B 59.C 60. D
61. D 62. A 63. C 64. C 65. B
66. A 67. C 68. A 69. C 70. B

71. A 72. D 73. A 74. B 75. D


76. B 77. D 78. B 79. A 80. A

PAPER - II PART VIII


PAPER - II
PART VIII
1. Which of these is indicator of elasticity & plasticity both?
a) Rockwell hardness test b) Brinell hardness test
c) Shore Scleroscope d) Vickers hardness test
2. Flattening test is
a) Bending test b) Only for copper wires c) For tube testing d) Both a) & c)
3. Max rate of bending per minute in reverse bend test is
a) 50 b) 60 c) 10 d) 40
4. Izod test measures
a) Toughness b) Height of upswing c) Energy in breaking d) Hardness
5. Fatigue test is for determining
a) Stress in material b) Strain in rod
c) Stress limit for material d) Elongation of wire
6. Torsion test is essential for
a) Wires b) Tube c) Rods d) Sheet
7. Bending test indicates
a) Ductility b) Brittleness c) Hardness d) Density
8. 250 HB 10 indicates
a) Strength only b) Hardness only c) Both a) & b) d) Toughness
9. Unit of tension is
a) N b) N/m c) KN/m2 d) Kg/cm2
10. First usable ferrous product obtained by smelting ores in a blast furnace is
a) Pig Iron b) Wrought Iron
c) Cast Iron d) Steel
11. Siderite is
a) Oxide ore of Iron b) Carbonate ore of Iron
c) Sulphide ore of Iron d) Flux used in furnace
12. Coke used in blast furnace is
a) Fuel b) Flux
c) Reducing agent d) Both fuel & reducing agent
13. In upper reduction zone, we get
a) Iron b) Carbon dioxide
c) Carbon monoxide d) Both Fe & CO2
14. Steel is alloyed to improve
a) Hardenability b) Toughness
c) Fatigue strength d) All of the above
15. Cast Iron sparks are
a) Red b) White
c) Straw coloured d) First Red then Straw coloured
16. Corrosion resistant steel used in Aircraft construction is
a) 18 8 steel b) Medium carbon steel
c) 18 6 steel d) Silicon steel
. Major alloying elements of stainless steel are ( in order of % composition)
a) Ni Cr b) Ni V
c) W Ni d) Cr Ni
18. Forging steel is
a) Low Carbon steel b) Medium Carbon steel
c) High Carbon steel d) Either a) or c)

19. Exhaust collector is made up of


a) Silicon steel b) Titanium steel
c) Chromium steel d) Ni Cr steel
20. Which element is responsible for Red hardness property?
a) Ti b) Ta c) Mo d) W
21. Which elements are responsible for Penetration hardness?
a) Mn, S b) Mn, P c) Mn, Cr d) Cr, C
22. Stainless steel is
a) Ni Cr steel b) Cr Mo steel c) Ni W steel d) Cr Va steel
23. Silicon in steel acts as
a) Oxidiser b) Deoxidiser c) Impurity d) Both b) & c)
24. Mark the correct statement
a) SAE 2330 is chromium steel
b) SAE 3250 is used in making axle shafts because of high strength
c) SAE 3115 is used for making piston pins, cam rings
25. Steel is preheated before welding to
a) Include strength b) Enhance its creep resistance
c) Enhance its creep resistance
26. Steel used for wing-hinge fittings & flying wire trunnions is
a) SAE 4140 b) SAE 6150 c) SAE 1015
27. Steel used commercially for automatic machine production is
a) SAE 4135 b) SAE 4615 c) SAE 6115
28. Steel used as an alternate for SAE 4130 steel is
a) SAE 8620 b) SAE 8630 c) SAE 9260
29. Pyrometer is used to
a) Measure the temperature b) Protect the furnace
c) Give protective atmosphere
30. The fastest rate of cooling is given by
a) Brine b) Oil c) Water
31. The tip of the rivet is upset to form a second head and that is known as
a) Round head b) Shop head c) Flat head d) Brazier head
32. O ring packings are used for preventing
a) Internal leak b) External leak c) One direction leak
d) Both a) & b)
33. Gaskets are made of
a) Asbestos b) Copper c) Cork d) All of these
34. While bending tubing, a small flattening is allowed but the small diameter of the bend should
not be less than _______ of the outside diameter
a) 90% b) 25% c) 75% d) 80%
35. Deep permanent impression in the hose produced by the pressure of hose clamp is known as
a) Hot flow b) Deep flow c) Cold flow d) None of these
36. In hex bolt, the length is measured
a) Under the head to the end of the bolt b) Plain portion of the shank
c) Total length d) Threaded length
37. Aircraft bolts are made of
a) Mild steel b) Stainless steel c) Aluminum alloy
d) Cadmium plated nickel steel corrosion resistance steel and aluminum alloy
38. Fluid used in the Aircraft hydraulic systems are
a) Vegetable b) Mineral c) Synthetic d) All of these
39. Vegetable based fluid is normally
a) Pink b) Yellow c) Almost colourless d) None of these
40. With pure rubber seals and hose oil used in the system is
a) Mineral b) Vegetable c) Synthetic d) All of these
41. In open centre system, the number of services can be operated at one time is
a) One only b) Two only c) Any number d) All of these
42. When no services are operated in open centre system, the pressure value in the system is
a) At low value b) At high value
c) Pump output passes directly to the reservoir d) Both a) & c)
43. In closed system where fixed volume pump is fitted, the system is fitted with
a) Automatic cut out value to divert pump output to reservoir

b) To maintain the normal built up pressure


c) Both a) & b) d) None of these
44. Thermal relief value fitted in the hydraulic system operates at a pressure
a) Slightly higher than normal system pressure
b) Relieve only a small quantity of fluid
c) At lower than the system pressure
d) Both a) & b)
45. Pressure maintaining value fitted in the system is for
a) To maintain the normal system pressure
b) To safe guard the operation of the important services
c) To maintain the pressure in primary services at a value suitable for operation of services
d) Both b) & c)
46. Restrictor valve fitted in the hydraulic system for
a) Allowing free flow of fluid in one direction b) Limited flow in other direction
c) To control the pressure d) Both a) & b)
47. Packing is made of
a) Asbestos b) Cork c) Synthetic or natural rubber d) Felt
48. Running seals are
a) Packing b) Gasket c) Wiper d) None of these
49. Washer (gasket) used for spark plug is
a) Asbestos b) Copper c) Cork d) All of these
50. Gasket used on uneven or varying space is made of
a) Asbestos b) Cork c) Copper d) All of these
51. Seals used for cleaning and lubricating is called
a) Wiper b) Gasket c) Packing d) None of these
52. Fuel used for turbo jet engine is
a) Gasoline b) Aviation kerosene c) Petrol d) None of these
53. Aviation gasoline is having relative density of
a) 0.70 b) 0.72 c) 0.80 d) 0.5
54. Relative density of AVTUR fuel is
a) 0.80 b) Shop head
d) Both a) & b)
d) All of these
c) 75%
c) Cold flow
a) Under the head to the end of the bolt
d) Cadmium plated nickel steel corrosion resistance steel and aluminum alloy
d) All of these
c) Almost colourless
b) Vegetable
a) One only
c) Pump output passes directly to the reservoir
c) Both a) & b)
d) Both a) & b)
d) Both b) & c)
d) Both
c) Synthetic or natural rubber
a) Packing
b) Copper
b) Cork
a) Wiper
b) Aviation kerosene
b) 0.72
b) 0.75 c) 0.70 d) 0.72
55. Re-fuller delivery line should have filter of
a) 5 microns b) 8 microns c) 4 microns d) 10 microns
56. The source of pressurised air in piston engine aircraft is
a) Compressor b) Supercharger c) Turbo charger d) Both b) & c)
57. Component fitted in pressurisation system to limit any possible negative differentiate pressure
to a sage value is

a) Safety value b) Outflow value c) Inward relief value d) pressure controller


58. To maintain a free flow of ventilation air within the aircraft when parked the component is
filled to
a) Safety value b) Ground automatic relief value c) outflow value d) Both a) & c)
59. Roots type blower pressurised and send air to cabin duct by taking
a) Ram air b) Air from exhaust c) Bleed air d) None of these
60. Engine driven cabin compressor which is used on turbo prop aircraft, its output pressure is
controlled
a) Automatically b) Manually c) Not controlled d) Both a) & b)
61. The working fluid used in reciprocating engine is
a) Solid fuel b) Oxidizer & Fuel c) Fuel / Air Mixture d) All of these
62. Mark the correct statement
a) Turbo prop engine accelerate large mass of air through small velocity change
b) As in a) & Piston Engine also accelerate large mass of air through small velocity change
c) Turbo Jet Engine accelerate large mass of air through small velocity change
d) Pulse Jet Engine accelerate large mass of air through small velocity change
63. To compress the engine working fluid, Piston Engine uses
a) Turbine driven compressor b) Pressure rise due to combustion
c) Positive displacement, piston type compressor d) Both a) & c) are correct
64. Piston engine classified according to
a) Thrust b) No. of stroke
c) Cylinder arrangement with respect to crank shaft d) Both b) & c)
65. Radial engine classified as
a) Upright, inverted b) According to no. of rows
c) Cylinder arranged on cam shaft d) Both a) & c)
66. The emitter resistor RE in a transistor amplifier is bypassed by a capacitor
a) To reduce the voltage gain b) To increase the voltage gain
c) Causes thermal runaway d) Stabilises the Q point
67. A transistor is operating in the active region. Under this condition
a) Both the junctions are forward-biased
b) Both the junctions are reverse-biased
c) Emitter-base junction is reverse-biased, and collector-base junction is forward-biased
d) Emitter-base junction is forward-biased, and collector-base junction is reverse-biased
68. The potential-divider method of biasing is used in amplifier to
a) Limit the input ac signal going to the base b) Make the operating point almost independent of
c) Reduce the dc base current d) Reduce the cost of the circuit
69. For generating 1 KHz note, the most suitable circuit is
a) Hartley Oscillator b) Colpits Oscillator
c) Tuned-collector Oscillator d) Wein-bridge Oscillator
70.To generate a 1 MHz signal the most suitable circuit is
a) Wein-bridge Oscillator b) Phase shift Oscillator
c) Colpits Oscillator d) Hartley Oscillator
71. Weather radar works on
a) Echo system b) LOS system c) VHF system d) HF system
72. Antenna size for DME is
a) 1 b) c) /4 d) /8
73. EDAS means
a) Electrical and digital Aircraft system
b) Electronics / digital Aircraft system
c) Electronics digital and avionics system
d) None of these
74. The purpose of EDAS is
a) Modernise the various Aircraft system and their display system
b) To reduce the work load of the pilot
c) To reduce the space in the Aircraft
d) All of these
75. The satellites are placed in geo-synchronous orbit for sat com system and they provide coverage
between
a) Longitude 750 b) Between latitude 750 North and South
c) Both a) & b) above d) None of these

76. In ball type erection unit, rotation of holder takes place through reduction gear from gyro rotor
shaft, the speed of holder being__________
a) 25 rpm b) 20 rpm c) 30 rpm d) 35 rpm
77. In torque motor and levelling switch type of erection system the supply fed to the centre
electrode is
a) 25V AC b) 20V AC c) 12V AC d) 15V AC
78. Fast Erection system is supplied with
a) 28V DC b) 115V AC c) 25V AC d) None
79. Erection rate of normal erection system is
a) 50/sec b) 50/min c) 30/min d) 30/sec
80. Erection rate of fast erection system is
a) 50/sec b) 50/min c) 30/min d) 30/sec
PAPER - II
PART VIII
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C
6. A 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. A
11. B 12. D 13. D 14. D 15. D
16. A 17. D 18. B 19. B 20. D
21. C 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. B
26. A 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. A
31. B 32. D 33. D 34. C 35. C
36. A 37. D 38. D 39. C 40. B
41. A 42. C 43. C 44. D 45. D
46. D 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. B
51. A 52. B 53. B 54. A 55. A
56. D 57. C 58. B 59. A 60. A
61. C 62. B 63. C 64. D 65. B
66. D 67. D 68. B 69. D 70. C
71. A 72. C 73. B 74. D 75. B
76. A 77. B 78. B 79. B 80. D

PAPER - II PART VII


PAPER - II
PART VII
1. Duckbill plier
a) Is a flat nose plier b) Is used for twisting safety wires
c) Have serrations on their jaws d) All are correct
2. Needle nose pliers are used for
a) Extracting thin/sharp components b) Extracting nails
c) Gripping small electronic components d) All are correct
3. i) A chisel can never cut the material all by itself
ii) A die is a cutting tool
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
4. Cutting edge of a chisel is generally ground to an angle of
a) 30 degrees b) 70 degrees
c) 90 degrees d) 110 degrees
5. Various types of cut of a file are
a) Single cut b) Smooth cut
c) Rasp d) Both a) & b) are correct
6. Bearing strength of a material refers to
a) Direct tensile load it can bear
b) Resistance to tear at the point of applied load

c) Resistance to fracture at the point of applied load


d) Resistance to shear
7. Characteristics of metals relating to drawing it into wire is
a) Tensile strength b) Malleability c) Ductility d) Brittleness
8. Fusibility of a metal refer to its property that permits
a) Welding b) Drawing into thin sheets
c) Drawing into wires d) Good thermal conductivity
9. Aluminium alloy 1100 implies
a) Pure aluminium b) It contains 11% copper
c) It contains 111% zinc d) Heat treated alloy
10. Clad aluminium alloys are used in aircraft. They are
a) Lighter than other aluminium alloys
b) Stronger than unclad aluminium alloys
c) Easily heat treatable
d) Less susceptible to corrosion
11. Medium carbon steels have a carbon percentage of
a) 0.1 0.3 b) 0.3 0.5
c) 0.5 1.0 d) 1.0 2.0
12. Which of the statement is correct?
a) Both heat treatable & non heat treatable aluminium alloys can be strain hardened
b) Strain hardening is same as cold working
c) Strength & hardness increases during cold working
d) All are correct
13. Find out the wrong statement regarding titanium
a) It is highly corrosion resistant b) It maintain strength at elevated temperatures
c) It has good resistance to creep d) It is magnetic
14. Pitot static system have heating elements to
a) Remove moisture from the air b) Prevent ice formation
c) To permit flying at high altitude d) All are correct
15. Pressure heads of pitot static system should not be painted, because it
a) Impairs their thermal efficiency b) May cause obstruction of orifices
c) None of the above d) Both a) and b) are correct
16. i. In cross filing, the file is moved length wise across the work
ii. In draw filing, the file is moved side wise across the work
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
17. A cross cut saw has
a) 4-6 teeth per inch b) 6-12 teeth per inch
c) 10-15 teeth per inch d) 12-18 teeth per inch
18. i) For a good cut on a hard material, a blade with more teeth should be used
ii) While cutting a tube, a blade should be so chosen that at least five teeth are there on each side of the tube as it
is cut
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
19. Spiral anger bit for drilling holes in wood are
a) Generally 7-10 inches long b) - one inch in diameter
c) Used only with a bow type hand brace d) All are correct
20. Screw driver used when there is no clearance for normal screw driver is called
a) Closed area screw driver b) Stubby screw driver
c) Off set slot screw driver d) Any one of the above
21. Air driven power screw driver should be used
a) For large diameter screw
b) For removing screw that are jammed
c) Where large number of screws are to be removed and fitted back
d) When removing screws from harder material
22. With regard to wrenches, find out the incorrect statement
a) These are made from chrome vanadium steel
b) These are generally die cast
c) Wrenches are made in various shapes & sizes
d) These are plated to improve their appearance

23. Box end wrenches are used


a) To loosen nuts that are exceptionally light
b) Where there is restricted space
c) For nuts that are bigger than one inch size
d) When open end wrench is not available
24. Crowfoot socket wrench is used where the following cannot be used
a) Open end wrench b) Box end wrench
c) Standard socket wrench d) All are correct
25. SAE 2340 is
a) Chromium steel with 3% chromium
b) Nickel chromium steel with 0.3% carbon
c) Nickel steel with 3% Nickel & 0.4% carbon
d) Carbon (0.4%) steel
26. During nitric acid test, if the material shows strongly magnetic nature, then it is
a) Monel metal b) Carbon steel
c) Nickel steel d) 18-8 steel
27. Weldability is poorest in case of
a) Plain carbon steel b) Low carbon steel
c) High carbon steel d) Wrought iron
28. Stainless steel is corrosion resistance due to presence of
a) Silicon b) Cobalt
c) Chromium d) Manganese
29. L shaped channels are produced by
a) Forging b) Extrusion
c) Machining d) Casting
30. Creep in metals is
a) Elongation due to temperature
b) Temporary elongation due to temperature and stresses
c) Permanent set due to stresses and high temperature operation
d) All are correct
31. Angular momentum is
a) Moment of inertia b) Angular velocity
c) Product of a) & b) d) Sum of a) & b)
32. Mark the incorrect statement
a) Precession is inversely proportional to the strength & direction of applied force.
b) Precession is inversely proportional to the moment of inertia of the rotor.
c) Precession is inversely proportional to the angular velocity of the rotor.
d) None of the above
33. Control of drift, relating to horizontal gyroscopes can be achieved by:
a) Calculating corrections using earth rate formula and applying them as appropriate
b) Applying fixed torques & cause gyro to process at a rate equal & opposite to the earth rate.
c) As in b) but which can be varied according to latitude
d) All of these
34. When gimbal orientation is such that the spin axis becomes coincident with one or the other of the axes of
freedom which serves as attitude displacement reference is termed as
a) Gimbal lock b) Gimbal Error c) Apparent drift
35. Grip length of the bolt is
a) Total length of the bolt b) Plain shank length of the bolt
c) Length under the head to the end of the bolt d) None of these
36. In close tolerance bolt, force applied to drive in is
a) 10 ounce hammer b) 20 ounce hammer
c) 12 to 14 ounce hammer d) Sledge hammer
37. Special washer AC 950 and AC 955 are used where
a) Bolt is installed at angle to surface b) Bolt is installed head down
c) It can be used any where d) None of these
38. Rasp file is used for
a) Hard material b) Lead, wood or leather
c) Both a) & b) d) Other materials except lead, wood & leather
39. Philips screwdrivers are tapered to an angle of
a) 730 b) 530 c) 600 d) 930

40. Snaps are used to


a) Support the markers head of rivets b) To make the shop head during riveting
c) Both a) & b) d) None of these
41. Soft solder is the combination of tin and lead in proportion of
a) 2 : 3 b) 3 : 2 c) 1 : 4 d) 4 : 1
42. Bending stress is the combination of
a) Compression and shear b) Shear and tension
c) Compression and tension d) Tension and shear
43. In true monocoque construction primary stresses is taken by
a) Skin b) Frames c) Bulkhead d) Longerons
44. The skin of semi monocoque fuselage carries
a) No load b) Full load c) Part of the load d) Half of the load
45. The longitudinal stability of aeroplane is dependent on
a) Position of C of G b) Movement of C of P on the main plane and fuselage
c) Area of the tale plane, its aspect ratio, distance from C of G d) All of these
46. Direction of rotation of external gears are
a) Opposite b) Same c) Either a) or b) d) None of the above
47. Al clad is generally of
a) 17 S & 24 S b) 24 S & 52 S c) 52 S & 53 S d) 53 S & 62 S
48. Natural rubber is a polymer of
a) Isoprene b) Neoprene c) Diprene d) None of these
49. Which is the basic colour of commercial BUNA-S
a) White b) Black c) Red d) Green
50. Which type of corrosion is occurred in stainless steel after electric arc welding?
a) Pitting b) Galvanic c) Inter crystalline d) Fretting
51. SAE 13XX represents
a) Magnesium Steel b) Manganese Steel
c) Silicon Steel d) Chromium Steel
52. Hot piece of metal is increased in thickness and decreased in length
a) Upsetting b) Down setting c) Swaging d) Rolling
53. The factors limiting the aspect ratio are
a) Structural consideration b) Drag consideration
c) Lift consideration d) Both a) & b)
54. The disadvantage of vacuum operated Gyro is
a) At high altitude, stability is reduced due to decrease in atmospheric pressure.
b) Weight due to pipelines
c) Possibility of contamination by corrosion and dirt particles.
d) All of these
55. Gyro of AC operated instruments utilize the principle of squirrel cage induction motor and because of high
frequency of power supply, greater rotor speeds are possible of approximate.
a) 23000rpm b) 24000rpm c) 24500rpm d) None
56. During routine check, the fuselage should be inspected for
a) Corrosion b) Fretting c) Spilage d) All of these
57. The truss type fuselage is covered by
a) Steel sheet b) Al alloy sheet c) Fabric d) All of these
58. Two quantities are said to be in phase with each other when
a) The phase difference between two quantities is zero degrees
b) Each of them pass through zero values at the same time and rise in the same direction
c) Both a) & b)
d) None of these
59. If six cells are connected in series of each E volts, the total voltage of the battery will be
a) 6E b) 3E c) 4E d) 12E
60. Which one of the following rivet is ready for use as received and need no further heat treatment
a) 2117 b) 2017-T c) 2024 d) 1100
61. When calculating power in a reactive or inductive ac circuit, the true power is
a) More than the apparent power b) Less than the apparent power
c) As in b) in reactive circuit and as in a) in inductive circuit d) None of these
62. The correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a circuit is
a) In series with the unit b) Between the source voltage and the load
c) In parallel with the unit

63. Transfer of electrical energy from one conductor to another without the add of electrical connections
a) is called induction b) is called air gap transfer
c) Will cause excessive arching and heat, and as a result is impractical
64. Diodes are used in electrical power circuit primarily as
a) Switches b) Rectifiers c) Relays d) Contactors
65. If three resistors of 3, 5 and 22 ohms are connected in series in a 28V circuit, how much current will flow
through the 3 ohms resistor?
a) 9.3 amps b) 1.05 amps c) 0.93 amps d) 10.05 amps
66. What is the value of a resistance if given colour codes as brown, black, brown, black and brown.
a) 1010 ohms b) 1000 ohms c) 101 ohms d) 10.1 K ohms
67. What is the value of a capacitor if given colour codes are orange, orange, blue and white.
a) 33nF b) 33F c) 33pF d) 3300F
68. The output of a astable multi-vibrator is
a) Triangular wave b) Saw tooth wave c) Sinusoidal wave d) Square wave
69. In an oscilloscope by varying intensity control, what actually varied internally?
a) Cathode voltage b) Anode voltage c) Grid voltage d) Cathode current
70. The output of NOT gate is always
a) High b) Low c) Same as input
d) Complementary of input
71. Oxy acetylene welding process is suitable for joining metal sheets and plates having thickness of
a) 1 to 30mm b) 2 to 50 mm c) 2 to 40mm d) All of these
72. In oxyacetylene welding, welding rod is required as a filter metal when welding is carried out above
a) 15mm b) 10mm c) 40mm d) 5mm
73. In oxyacetylene welding, neutral flame produces a maximum temperature of
a) 30000F b) 32000F c) 32000C d) 30000C
74. Standard colour for oxygen hose is
a) Black b) Red c) Green d) None of these
75. In magnet steel, the alloying elements are
a) Nickel, Cobalt b) Silicon, Nickel
c) Molybdenum, Copper d) Tungsten, Cobalt
76. Maximum distance between support for fluid tubing of 1/8 size of steel is
a) 12 b) 14 c) 9.5 d) 11.5
77. MS 20004 is a
a) Internal wrenching bolt b) Close tolerance bolt
c) Clevis bolt d) None of these
78. Mark the incorrect statement, regarding K monel metal
a) It is ferrous alloy b) It is used for gears and chain
c) It is non ferrous alloy d) It is corrosion resistant
79. The symbol is for
a) Wood b) Cast iron
c) Steel d) Rubber
80. Ballast is used on a/c
a) To attain the desired c.g. b) To increase the weightc) For making nose heavy d) None of these
PAPER - II
PART VII
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. D
11. B 12. D 13. D 14. B 15. D
16. C 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. C
21. C 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. C
26. B 27. C 28. C 29. B 30. C
31. C 32. A 33. D 34. A 35. B
36. C 37. A 38. B 39. B 40. B
41. B 42. C 43. A 44. C 45. D
46. A 47. A 48. A 49. B 50. C
51. B 52. A 53. D 54. D 55. B
56. D 57. C 58. C 59. A 60. A
61. B 62. C 63. A 64. B 65. C
66. C 67. B 68. D 69. C 70. D

71. B 72. A 73. C 74. C 75. D


76. D 77. A 78. A 79. B 80. A

1. Choose the correct sets of angles of set square of one piece


a) 450 x 300 b) 300 x 900 c) 450 x 600
d) 600 x 600
2. Phantom line is used for indicating the _________ position of part
a) Actual b) Hidden c) Relative d) None of these
3. Mark the correct statement
a) The arrow head length is equal to double of its width
b) The arrow head length is equal to triple of its width
c) The arrow head length is equal to its width
d) None of these
4. Top view false on the
a) Horizontal plane b) Vertical plane
c) Half in horizontal and half in Vertical plane d) All above cases may be possible
5. Direction of rotation of external gears are
a) Opposite b) Same c) Either a) or b) d) None of the above
6. S in Al-alloy designation indicates
a) Cast alloy b) Wrought alloy c) As in b) and used for a/c structure d) None
7. Which Al-alloy is more corrosion resistant?
a) 2 S b) 3 S c) 17 S d) 52 S
8. Al clad is generally of
a) 17 S & 24 S b) 24 S & 52 S c) 52 S & 53 S d) 53 S & 62 S
9. Inter-crystalline corrosion is generally occurred in
a) Al-alloy containing copper composition b) 17 S c) 24 S d) All of these
10. Which of the following material is used for spot welding?
a) Clad alloys b) 52 S Al-alloy c) Both a) & b) d) None of these
11. Natural rubber is a polymer of
a) Isoprene b) Neoprene c) Diprene d) None of these
12. Which material is used for increasing the hardness of natural rubber?
a) Sulpher b) Phosphorus c) Sodium d) Carbon
13. Which is the basic colour of commercial BUNA-S
a) White b) Black c) Red d) Green
14. GR-A is a known as BUNA-N, in which A stands for
a) Butadiene b) Acrylonitrile c) Monovinyl d) Nitrile
15. Neoprene is designated as GR-M, in which M is stands
a) Monovinyl b) Chloroprene c) Acrylonitrile d) Styrene
16. GR-I designated for which type of rubber
a) Neoprene b) BUNA-S c) BUNA-N d) Butyl
17. Which type of properties is introduced in rubber after vulcanising process?
a) Elasticity b) Strong ness c) Reduce the tackiness d) All of these
18. A/C rivets are identified by
a) Head Style b) Alloy c) Length & Diameter d) All of these
19. For accurate location of particular area on an a/c, which of the following is necessary?
a) Water line b) Butt line c) As in a) & b) in conjunction with station line d) None
20. Which type of corrosion is occurred in stainless steel after electric arc welding?
a) Pitting b) Galvanic c) Inter crystalline d) Fretting

21. Which is most suitable for spot welding, in stainless steel?


a) Low-voltage b) High-amperage
c) Low-voltage and High-amperage d) High-voltage and Low-amperage
22. Which of the following is the Non-Magnetic?
a) Inconel b) K-Monel c) Monel d) All of these
23. SAE 13XX represents
a) Magnesium Steel b) Manganese Steel c) Silicon Steel d) Chromium Steel
24. Hot piece of metal is increased in thickness and decreased in length
a) Upsetting b) Down setting c) Swaging d) Rolling
25. Which of the following have greatest tensile strength?
a) Fibreglass b) Aramid c) Carbon d) Ceramic
26. For flight equilibrium, designer tries to fix the CG
a) and C of P together b) At rear of C of P
c) In front of most forward position of CP d) Along aerodynamic C of P
27. Flight calculations are based on the magnitude and direction of
a) Lift & drag b) Weight & thrust c) Lift & thrust d) Both a) & b)
28. The factors limiting the aspect ratio are
a) Structural consideration b) Drag consideration
c) Lift consideration d) Both a) & b)
29. What is required to reduce the landing speed?
a) A low minimum drag coefficient b) A small movement of C of P
c) A high max CL d) A high value of CL3/2/CD
30. With increase in altitude pressure & temperature
a) Drops b) Will rise
c) Pressure drops, temperature increases d) Temperature drops, pressure increases
31. The disadvantage of vacuum operated Gyro is
a) At high altitude, stability is reduced due to decrease in atmospheric pressure.
b) Weight due to pipelines
c) Possibility of contamination by corrosion and dirt particles.
d) All of these
32. Gyro of AC operated instruments utilize the principle of squirrel cage induction motor
and because of high frequency of power supply, greater rotor speeds are possible of
approximate.
a) 23000rpm b) 24000rpm c) 24500rpm d) None
33. Indication of pitch & Bank attitude are presented by the relative position of
a) Aircraft symbol b) Gyro stabilised bar (Horizon symbol)
c) Both a) & b) d) None of these
34. Freedom of gimbal system movement about the roll & pitch axes in gyro horizon is
______ respectively
a) 3600 and 900 b) 3600 and 800 c) 3600 and 850 d) None
35. The reason for restricting pitch movement of gyro horizon is to prevent
a) Gimbal error b) Gimbal lock c) Transport wander d) None
36. In single disk break, break linings are known as
a) Pucks b) Three are fix c) Three are movable d) All above
37. When break pressure is released piston moves back to position with the
a) Return spring force b) Hydraulic pressure c) Adjusting pin d) None
38. To check the angle of the main structural component in relation to the longitudinal and
lateral axis is known as
a) Incidence check b) Dihedral check c) Structural alignment check d) Verticality check
39. On copper and copper alloy corrosion forms on the surface as
a) White powder b) Greenish film c) Blue d) Black
40. Corrosion on the metal is due to

a) Chemical attack b) Electro chemical attack c) Both a) & b) d) None


41. During routine check, the fuselage should be inspected for
a) Corrosion b) Fretting c) Spilage d) All of these
42. The truss type fuselage is covered by
a) Steel sheet b) Al alloy sheet c) Fabric d) All of these
43. Thermoplastic material is originally
a) Hard b) Soft and pliable when exposed to heat
c) It retains the moulded shape when cooled d) All of these
44. Remoulding and reshaping cannot be done on
a) Thermosetting plastic b) Thermoplastic c) Both a) & b) d) None of these
45. Plastic should be stored in bins which are tilted at
a) 200 b) 100 c) 150 d) 250
46. The operating frequency of ADF is
a) 90Hz b) 90KHz c) 150Hz d) 90KHz to 1800KHz
47. The ADF operates on
a) LF Band b) MF Band c) LF & MF Band d) VHF Band
48. In ADF antenna system at a point signal fades out this is called
a) Null position b) Figure of eight c) Cardiod d) None of these
49. ADF receiver essentially is
a) TRF receiver b) Superhetrodyne receiver c) Double superhetrodyne receiver
d) Suppressed carrier receiver
50. Types of antenna / antennas used for ADF receiver
a) Half wave b) Full wave c) Sense aerial
d) As in c) and loop aerial
51. If a D flip-flop is to switch from 0 to 1, then input is to be kept high for at least time T
where
a) T= t setup + t hold b) T= t setup + t hold + t propagation delay
c) T= t setup + t hold - t propagation delay d) T= clock period
52. JK Flip flop is dividing the input frequency by 2, then its condition is
a) J=0, K=0 b) J=0, K=1 c) J=1, K=0 d) J=1, K=1
53. In decimal to BCD decoder
a) 1 input, 10 output b) 10 input, 4 output
c) 4 input, 10 output d) 10 input, 1 output
54. If SUB pin is high in a Adder-subtractor circuit, then circuit is;
a) Adding Two bytes b) Subtracting input byte from output
c) Subtracting output byte from input d) Adding 2s complement byte to the other byte
55. One of the effect of negative feed back in amplifiers is to
a) Increase the noise b) Increase the harmonic distortion
c) Decrease the bandwidth d) Decrease the harmonic distortion
56. The relationship between back emf and applied voltage in case of a dc motor is given
by
a) Eb = V + Ia Ra b) Eb = V Ia Ra c) Eb = V d) None of these
57. The direction of rotation of dc motor can be determined by
a) Flemings right hand rule b) Flemings left hand rule
c) Lenzs law d) Amperes law
58. An engine driven 50 Hz alternator has a speed of 750 rpm. How many poles it has?
a) 6 poles b) 4 poles c) 2 poles d) 8 poles
59. The frequency of emf generated by a generator depends upon its
a) Speed b) No. of ploles c) Machine rating d) Both a) & b)
60. Two quantities are said to be in phase with each other when
a) The phase difference between two quantities is zero degrees
b) Each of them pass through zero values at the same time and rise in the same direction

c) Both a) & b)
d) None of these
61. Capacity of a capacitor depends upon
a) Separation between the plates b) Area of plates
c) Di-electric material d) All of these
62. The device used to measure very high insulation resistance of electric cable is
a) High resistance voltmeter b) Megger / Insulation resistance tester
c) Iron vane meter d) Ammeter of high range
63. If six cells are connected in series of each E volts, the total voltage of the battery will
be
a) 6E b) 3E c) 4E d) 12E
64. Special test equipment comprising a meter and two cables each of specific length, is
required for checking the resistance of bonding. A meter widely used , consists of an ohmmeter operating on
a) Principle of current ratio b) Principle of voltage ratio c) None of these
65. Cell phone is used to protect the Ni-Cad battery from
a) Shorting between plates b) Thermal runaway
c) Avoid leakage of electrolyte d) All of these
66. Which material you select for riveting Ni-steel sheet
a) Monel b) 2017-T c) 2024-T6 d) Mild steel
67. Which one of the following rivet is ready for use as received and need no further heat
treatment
a) 2117 b) 2017-T c) 2024 d) 1100
68. Ice-Box rivets are
a) 2017-T b) 2117-T c) 2024-T d) Both a) & c)
69. The specification for universal head rivet
a) AN-470 b) MS-20613 c) MS-20615 d) All of these
70. Part No AN 470 B 3-8, indicates
a) Shank dia is 3/16 b) Rivet length is 8/32
c) Material is 5056-Al alloy d) All of the above
71. Fluid used in the Aircraft hydraulic systems are
a) Vegetable b) Mineral c) Synthetic d) All of these
72. With pure rubber seals and hose oil used in the system is
a) Mineral b) Vegetable c) Synthetic d) All of these
73. In open centre system, the number of services can be operated at one time is
a) One only b) Two only c) Any number d) All of these
74. In closed system where fixed volume pump is fitted, the system is fitted with
a) Automatic cut out value to divert pump output to reservoir
b) To maintain the normal built up pressure
c) Both a) & b)
d) None of these
75. Pressure maintaining value fitted in the system is for
a) To maintain the normal system pressure
b) To safe guard the operation of the important services
c) To maintain the pressure in primary services at a value suitable for operation of services
d) Both b) & c)
76. Packing is made of
a) Asbestos b) Cork c) Synthetic or natural rubber d) Felt
77. Aviation gasoline is having relative density of
a) 0.70 b) 0.72 c) 0.80 d) 0.5
78. Re-fuller delivery line should have filter of
a) 5 microns b) 8 microns c) 4 microns d) 10 microns

79. Component fitted in pressurization system to limit any possible negative differentiate
pressure to a sage value is
a) Safety value b) Outflow value c) Inward relief value d) pressure controller.
80. Roots type blower pressurized and send air to cabin duct by taking
a) Ram air b) Air from exhaust c) Bleed air d)None of these
PAPER - II
PART VI
1. B 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. A
6. C 7. A 8. A 9. D 10. C
11. A 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. A
16. D 17. D 18. D 19. C 20. C
21. C 22. B 23. B 24. A 25. B
26. C 27. D 28. D 29. C 30. A
31. D 32. B 33. C 34. C 35. B
36. D 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. C
41. D 42. C 43. D 44. A 45. B
46. D 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. D
51. A 52. D 53. B 54. D 55. D
56. B 57. B 58. D 59. D 60. C
61. D 62. B 63. A 64. A 65. B
66. A 67. A 68. D 69. D 70. C
71. D 72. B 73. A 74. C 75. D
76. C 77. B 78. A 79. C 80. A

PAPER - II PART V
1. Angular momentum is

PAPER - II
PART V
a) Moment of inertia b) Angular velocity c) Product of a) & b) d) Sum of a) & b)
2. Mark the incorrect statement
a) Precession is inversely proportional to the strength & direction of applied force.
b) Precession is inversely proportional to the moment of inertia of the rotor.
c) Precession is inversely proportional to the angular velocity of the rotor.
d) None of the above
3. Control of drift, relating to horizontal gyroscopes can be achieved by:
a) Calculating corrections using earth rate formula and applying them as appropriate
b) Applying fixed torques & cause gyro to process at a rate equal & opposite to the earth rate.
c) As in b) but which can be varied according to latitude
d) All of these
4. When gimbal orientation is such that the spin axis becomes coincident with one or the other of
the axes of freedom which serves as attitude displacement reference is termed as
a) Gimbal lock b) Gimbal Error c) Apparent drift
5. When gyroscope as a whole is displaced with its gimbal rings not mutually at right angles to each
other is termed as
a) Gimbal Lock b) Gimbal Error c) Apparent Drift
6. The vacuum pump or venturi creates a vacuum for operating the Gyroscope which is regulated by
a relief value at
a) 3.5 in Hg b) 4.5 in Hg c) Between 3.5 and 4.5 in Hg d) None
7. Grip length of the bolt is
a) Total length of the bolt b) Plain shank length of the bolt
c) Length under the head to the end of the bolt d) None of these

8. In close tolerance bolt, force applied to drive in is


a) 10 ounce hammer b) 20 ounce hammer
c) 12 to 14 ounce hammer d) Sledge hammer
9. AN 4 - 7 bolt shows
a) 7/8 dia b) 1/4" length c) 4 length d) 1/4" dia
10. Bolt of class 4 fit is
a) Loose fit b) Free fit c) Close fit d) Tight fit
11. Special washer AC 950 and AC 955 are used where
a) Bolt is installed at angle to surface b) Bolt is installed head down
c) It can be used any where d) None of these
12. To prevent the crushing surface on wooden structure with nut and bolt, the washer used is
a) AN 936 b) AN 935 c) AN 970 d) AN 960
13. Where shear load is taken by the bolt, the nut used is
a) Plain nut b) Castle nut c) Castellated shear nut d) Self locking nut
14. In the patch repair of the Aircraft skin, the edge distance (distance from the center of the rivet
to the edge of the sheet) should be (d is diameter of rivet)
a) 2d to 4d b) 8d c) 6d d) 75% of the pitch
15. Rasp file is used for
a) Hard material b) Lead, wood or leather
c) Both a) & b) d) Other materials except lead, wood & leather
16. Pinning is related to
a) Chisels b) Punches c) Screw drivers d) None of these
17. Philips screwdrivers are tapered to an angle of
a) 730 b) 530 c) 600 d) 930
18. Snaps are used to
a) Support the markers head of rivets b) To make the shop head during riveting
c) Both a) & b) d) None of these
19. Punch used for making a series of light pops along scribed line, which will be machined or filed
away
a) Pin punch b) Stout punch c) Light centre punch d) Parallel pin punch
20. Hand file is related to _______ of file
a) Length of file b) Cut of file c) Grade of file d) Section of files
21. Screw drivers are classified by
a) Type and length of blade b) Type, grade, cut and section
c) Length and type d) Overall length of screw driver
22. Steel drifts should be used
a) On soft materials b) For driving ball or roller bearing
c) Hardened steel d) None of these
23. Ring spanners are used for
a) Fitting the nut all around b) Fitting the nut from opened jaws
c) Fitting the splined nut d) None of these
24. Hard hammers are made of
a) High carbon steel b) Carbon steel and forged to shape and size
c) Tool steel d) Mild steel
25. Flux used for commutator wires and electrical connections
a) Zinc chloride b) Zinc chloride by diluting with 50% alcohol
c) Alcoholic solution of rosin d) Rosin
26. Slotting hacksaw blade is usually of
a) 18 long 3/4" wide b) 8 long 1/2" wide
c) 12 long 3/4" wide d) None of these
27. Hacksaw is used by
a) Putting same pressure for forward and backward stroke
b) Putting pressure for forward stroke and release the pressure in backward stroke
c) Putting less pressure in forward stroke and more pressure in backward stroke
d) Any of these
28. Which hammers have large, smooth faces and are lightweight?
a) Ball peen hammers b) Body hammers
c) Cross peen hammers d) Sledge hammers
29. Soft solder is the combination of tin and lead in proportion of
a) 2 : 3 b) 3 : 2 c) 1 : 4 d) 4 : 1

30. The stresses to which Aircraft are subjected are


a) Tension b) Torsion c) Bending d) All of these
31. The internal force of a substance which opposes the deformation is called
a) Strain b) Stress c) Tension d) Torsion
32. The twisting load on the structure is called
a) Torsion b) Tension c) Strain d) Compression
33. Bending stress is the combination of
a) Compression and shear b) Shear and tension
c) Compression and tension d) Tension and shear
34. Permanent deformation of structure is called
a) Stress b) Strain c) Tension d) Bend
35. In monocoque fuselage construction, main members are
a) Frame, bulk head, longerons b) Bulkhead, stringers, longerons
c) Formers, frame assembly and bulkhead d) Longerons, stringers and frames
36. In true monocoque construction primary stresses is taken by
a) Skin b) Frames c) Bulkhead d) Longerons
37. A semi monocoque construction fuselage is made of
a) Bulkhead and frame b) Frame, longerons and stringer
c) Bulkhead, frame, longerons & stringers d) Bulkhead, frame & formers
38. The skin of semi monocoque fuselage carries
a) No load b) Full load c) Part of the load d) Half of the load
39. The cabin, flight compartment and baggage compartment are incorporated into a sealed unit to
hold air pressure
a) More than atmosphere pressure b) Less than atmosphere pressure
c) Equal to atmosphere pressure d) None of these
40. To check the cabin for air tightness is called
a) Cabin static pressure test b) Cabin dynamic pressure test
c) Leak check d) All of these
41. An object demonstrates positive dynamic stability if the amplitude of motion
a) Decreases with time b) Increases with time
c) Neither increases nor decreases d) None of these
42. The angle between the chord of the tail plane and the chord of the main plane is known as
a) Lateral dihedral b) Longitudinal dihedral
c) Normal dihedral d) Vertical dihedral
43. The longitudinal stability of aeroplane is dependent on
a) Position of C of G b) Movement of C of P on the main plane and fuselage
c) Area of the tale plane, its aspect ratio, distance from C of G d) All of these
44. Mark the correct statement for horizontal stabilizer
a) It always produces nose up pitching moment
b) It always produces nose down pitching moment
c) Either a) or b) depending upon the design
d) Provides no pitching moment
45. Slip or side slipping refers to any motion of the Aircraft
a) Towards upper wing b) To downward
c) Towards the lower wing d) All of these
46. Rotating the control wheel clockwise will move
a) The right aileron upward b) The right aileron downward
c) As in a) & flight spoiler on right wing up d) As in a) & flight spoiler on left wing up
47. At high speed flight, to avoid excessively large rolling moments or unacceptable structural
loading or wing twist, devices used are
a) Flaps b) Slots c) Outboard ailerons
d) Inboard ailerons
48. The principal surface contributing to the lateral stability of an Aircraft is
a) Side surfaces b) The fuselage c) Tail plane d) None of these
49. Dihedral angle on the main planes provide with
a) Longitudinal stability b) Dynamic stability
c) Lateral stability d) Horizontal stability
50. Aft moment of the control stick will cause
a) Both elevators to move up b) Both elevators to move down
c) Left elevator will move up and right will move down d) Movement of horizontal stabilizer

51. Minimising the expression


Y=A B C + A B C D + A B C D E + A B + A B C D E + A the output is
a) Y=A b) Y=1 c) Y=A+ AB d) Y=AB
52. Y= (5, 15, 23, 29, 37, 47, 55, 61) + X (7, 13, 21, 31, 39, 45, 53, 63)
a) Y=EF b) Y= AB c) Y=CD + EF d) Y=BD
53. In excess 3 codes, BCD 1001 will be written as
a) 9 b) 1011 c) 1100 d) 1001
54. If active low output is required for checking odd parity we will use
a) AND gate b) OR gate c) XOR gate d) XNOR gate
55. Which series of ICs is used for military purpose?
a) 7400 series b) 74H00 series c) 5400 series d) 74 L S 00 series
56. If a demultiplexer is converted into decoder, to get output high on required output lines, we
will tie date line to
a) OV b) Ground c) Either a) or b) d) +VCC
57. Which of the following relation is correct?
a) Vo=AdVd[1+(1/CMRR) Vc/Vd] b) Vo=AcVc[1+(1/CMRR) Vd/Vc]
c) Vo=AdVd[1+CMRR . Vc/Vd] a) Vo=AdVd[1+(1/CMRR) Vd/Vc]
58. Due to which action, flip flop act as memory unit
a) Feedback action b) Amplifying action
c) Oscillating action d) All of these
59. In RS flip flop R=O, S=1 then action of flip flop is
a) Reset b) Set c) No change d) Forbidden
60. In D flip flop, the input to S & R terminals will be
a) S=R b) R=S c) Both of these
d) None of above
61. Operating frequency of marker beacon is
a) 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz b) 328.6 MHz to 335.4 MHz
c) 100 MHz fixed d) 75 MHz fixed
62. The facilities provided by a localiser is
a) Give indication of correct descending angle
b) Distance from touch down point
c) Indication of lateral deviation with respect to centre line of runway
d) None of these
63. The correct descending angle is approximately
a) 1 degree b) 2 degrees c) 2.25 degrees d) 2.75 degrees
64. The flag appears at the end of ILS indicator, indicates
a) Reading is correct b) Partially correct
c) Incorrect & misleading d) None
65. The middle marker carrier is modulated on
a) 3000Hz b) 1300Hz c) 400Hz d) 4000Hz
66. Typical airborne installation of GPS is carried out by
a) ARINC 249 b) ARINC 429 c) ARINC 629 d) Both b) & c)
67. How many GPS satellites are required to locate an aircraft?
a) 1 b) 2 c) Minimum 3 d) Minimum 4
68. The control segment of GPS consists of
a) A ground station b) Various ground based monitoring stations
c) A master control station d) Both b) & c)
69. Basically, GPS consists of
a) One independent segment b) Two independent segment
c) Three independent segment d) Four independent segment
70. The purpose of weather radar is
a) To enable the pilot to look ahead to see if dangerous weather exist
b) To inform pilot of pleasant weather
c) To inform about clouds
d) None of these
71. The Tension of brushes to provide brush pressure is approx.
a) 6 Psi b) 8 Psi c) 10 Psi d) 12 Psi
72. A four pole generator will have
a) 2 interpole b) 4 interpole c) 6 interpole d) 8 interpole
73. In a 3 phase system, the phase winding is spaced symmetrically so that the voltage induced is

a) 90o apart b) 120o apart c) 60o apart d) 180o apart


74. To avoid armature reaction of small DC generator (1000 watt or less) type. The method
used is
a) Interpole Method b) Brush setting method c) both (a) & (b) d) None of these
75. Compensating winding is used in series with interpole winding to
a) Increase he life of brushes b) Distortion of field
c) Reduces radio interference d) All the above
76. Staggering slots are used in armature of a DC generator to
a) Minimise ripple voltage b) Maintain constant output
c) Minimise eddy Current loss d) None of these above
four pole alternator, running at 6000 rpm will have frequency of77. A 3
a) 100 c/s b) 200 c/s c) 300 c/s d) 400 c/s
78. While installing battery (Ni-Cad) on a/c you must inspect
a) Ventilation system of a/c b) Cable for chaffing
c) Quick disconnection mechanism d) All of these
79. What will be value of resistance of yellow, red, orange and gold
10% 5% d) 22000 5% c) 12000 10% b) 42000 a) 42000
80. AC generator works on the principle of
a) Faradays law of electro-magnetic induction b) Mutual induction
c) Self induction d) All of these
PAPER - II
PART V
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B
6. C 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. C
11. A 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. B
16. D 17. B 18. B 19. C 20. D
21. A 22. B 23. A 24. B 25. C
26. B 27. B 28. B 29. B 30. D
31. B 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. C
36. A 37. C 38. C 39. A 40. B
41. A 42. B 43. D 44. C 45. C
46. C 47. D 48. A 49. C 50. A
51. B 52. D 53. C 54. D 55. C
56. D 57. A 58. A 59. B 60. C
61. D 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. B
66. D 67. C 68. D 69. C 70. A
71. A 72. B 73. B 74. C 75. D
76. A 77. B 78. D 79. B 80. A

PAPER - II PART IV
PAPER - II
PART IV
1. While pushing a small and light aircraft, generally
a) Rudder control should not be locked
b) It should be pushed backward rather than forward
c) Flats of the hands should only be used
d) All are correct
2. While moving an aircraft from the runway after an emergency
a) It should be towed away fast
b) It should never be towed away with deflated tyres

c) Brakes should never be applied


d) All are correct
3. For picketing a light aircraft
a) Cable or any rope should be used
b) Sufficient slack should be given for all types of ropes
c) Aircraft should be parked into the wind
d) Both a) & c) are correct
4. Before jacking an aircraft
a) Empty the fuel tanks b) Fit critical stress panels
c) Level aircraft laterally d) Remove all optional equipment
5. It is generally necessary to jack an aircraft for weighing. Why?
a) To set the weighing scales to zero
b) To stabilize the weighing scales
c) For first determining its empty weight
d) For making aircraft level
6. (i) In cross filing, the file is moved length wise across the work
(ii) In draw filing, the file is moved side wise across the work
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
7. A handsaw used for cutting across the grains of wood is called a
a) Cross cut saw b) Rip saw
c) Back saw d) Wood saw
8. A cross cut saw has
a) 4-6 teeth per inch b) 6-12 teeth per inch
c) 10-15 teeth per inch d) 12-18 teeth per inch
9. Find out the incorrect statement regarding back saw
a) It is used for cutting precision parts
b) It has 18-32 teeth per inch
c) It is same as hacksaw
d) Cutting teeth has very little set
10. Hacksaw blades are
a) Made from stainless steel b) 12 inches in length
c) Held under tension in the frame d) Having 10-14 teeth per inch
11. i) Hacksaw blades are made of either carbon steel or high steel molybdenum steel
ii) While using hacksaw, cutting is done only on the forward stroke. The blade should be lifted for
the return stroke
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
12. i) For a good cut on a hard material, a blade with more teeth should be used
ii) While cutting a tube, a blade should be so chosen that at least five teeth are there on each side
of the tube as it is cut
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
13. Length of hacksaw is measured from
a) The outer edge b) toothed part of blades
c) Between the centre of fixing holes d) Both a) & b) are correct
14. Spiral anger bit for drilling holes in wood are
a) Generally 7-10 inches long b) - one inch in diameter
c) Used only with a bow type hand brace d) All are correct
15. A screw driver can be used
a) For driving screws b) As a punch
c) As a chisel d) All are correct
16. Stubby screw driver has
a) A blunt edge b) Blade length of up to 2
c) Only wooden handle d) All are correct
17. Screw driver used when there is no clearance for normal screw driver is called
a) Closed area screw driver b) Stubby screw driver
c) Off set slot screw driver d) Any one of the above
18. Air driven power screw driver should be used
a) For large diameter screw

b) For removing screw that are jammed


c) Where large number of screws are to be removed and fitted back
d) When removing screws from harder material
19. A slot screw driver should have sufficient size of the blade to cover certain width of the screw
slot. It should cover at least
a) 50% b) 60%
c) 75% d) 90%
20. i) Cross point screw driver causes less damage than straight edge screw driver
ii) Phillips screwdriver require less efforts as compared to normal screw driver
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
21. With regard to wrenches, find out the incorrect statement
a) These are made from chrome vanadium steel
b) These are generally die cast
c) Wrenches are made in various shapes & sizes
d) These are plated to improve their appearance
22. Open end wrenches
a) Ends are inclined so as to allow the wrench to turn the nut even in restricted space
b) Are available in British & Metric sizes
c) Open a nut faster than box end wrenches
d) All are correct
23. Box end wrenches are used
a) To loosen nuts that are exceptionally light
b) Where there is restricted space
c) For nuts that are bigger than one inch size
d) When open end wrench is not available
24. Combination wrenches means, its two ends have
a) Open and box end b) Open and cut box end
c) Open and flare nut end d) All are correct
25. i) Loosing or tightening of a nut takes longer time if box end wrench is used
ii) Box end wrenches can easily open a very tight nut because it grips the nut at many places
compared to an open ended wrench
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
26. i) A flare nut wrench is a special type of box end wrench
ii) Flare nut wrench is used basically for opening and fitting of pipelines
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
27. Spanners are classified by
a) Type b) Material
c) Size of the bolt/nut on which it fits d) All are correct
28. Set spanners are off set to an angle
a) So that it can be used in restricted places
b) A new grip can be got by turning the spanner over
c) For proper grip
d) Both a) & b) are correct
29. Ratchets
a) Allow removal of nut with very small amount of handle movement
b) Are available with long and short handles
c) Can easily fit into sockets
d) All are correct
30. Crowfoot socket wrench is used where the following cannot be used
a) Open end wrench b) Box end wrench
c) Standard socket wrench d) All are correct
31. Monel metal is an alloy of
a) Nickel & copper b) Nickel & chromium
c) Copper & chromium d) Copper, nickel & chromium
32. i) Gun metal is used for gears & bearings.
ii) Brass is used for cartridge cases
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct

c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct


33. SAE 2340 is
a) Chromium steel with 3% chromium
b) Nickel chromium steel with 0.3% carbon
c) Nickel steel with 3% Nickel & 0.4% carbon
d) Carbon (0.4%) steel
34. Engine mounts are made up of
a) 18-8 corrosion resistance mild carbon steel
b) Chrome molybdenum mild carbon steel
c) Chrome molybdenum high carbon steel
d) None of these
35. During nitric acid test, if the material shows strongly magnetic nature, then it is
a) Monel metal b) Carbon steel
c) Nickel steel d) 18-8 steel
36. Weldability is poorest in case of
a) Plain carbon steel b) Low carbon steel
c) High carbon steel d) Wrought iron
37. Carbon steel is
a) Refined form of cast iron
b) Extremely hard
c) Made by adding carbon to steel
d) An alloy of iron & carbon with varying quantities of sulphur & phosphorous
38. Stainless steel is corrosion resistance due to presence of
a) Silicon b) Cobalt
c) Chromium d) Manganese
39. Manganese is added to low carbon steel to
a) Make them tough & hard b) Raise their tensile strength
c) Improve machine ability d) Increase corrosion resistance
40. Cold bending of an aluminium sheet
a) Is not permitted
b) Softens the material at the bend
c) Strain hardens material at the bend
d) Results in material failure irrespective of bend radius
41. Titanium can be identified by
a) Chemical test b) Spark test
c) Moistening & scratching with pencil d) Both b) & c) are correct
42. L shaped channels are produced by
a) Forging b) Extrusion
c) Machining d) Casting
43. Muntz metal is used for
a) Nuts & bolts b) Parts in contact with salt water
c) Fuel & oil lines d) Both a) & b) are correct
44. All carbon steels have well defined critical point & range. Low carbon steel has
a) Two critical points b) Three critical points
c) Four critical points d) Six critical points
45. In steel, grain becomes coarser when
a) It is heated to a temp just below critical point
b) It is heated above critical range
c) Depends upon carbon percentage
d) It does not happen at all
46. Creep in metals is
a) Elongation due to temperature
b) Temporary elongation due to temperature and stresses
c) Permanent set due to stresses and high temperature operation
d) All are correct
47. Magnesium alloys are
a) Magnetic b) Light in weight
c) Cheap & easy to machine d) Highly prone to corrosion
48. i) Bronze is superior to brass in corrosion resistance property
ii) Duralumin can be age hardened

a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct


c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
49. i) Clad metals are two dissimilar metals joined together under high hydraulic pressure
ii) Clad metals mean forged non ferrous metals
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
50. Aluminium alloys 2017 & 2024 must be transformed from the heat treatment medium to quench
tank within 10 seconds or so. A delay results in
a) Retarded age hardening b) Reduced corrosion resistance
c) Dull/Strained surface d) Hard/brittle surface
51. Power and work are measured in
a) Watt and force b) Watt and joule
c) Ampere hour and joule d) Farad and joule
52. One micron is
a) 10-3 meter b) 10-6 meter
c) 10-9 meter d) None of these
53. The change in resistance depends upon
a) Temperature b) Material and length
c) Cross sectional area d) Both b) and c) are correct
54. Most extensively used material in aircraft electrical cables is
a) Rubber and silk b) Nylon and cotton
c) Teflon d) Both b) & c) are correct
55. In a parallel circuit
a) Total resistance is less than smallest resistor
b) Total resistance decreases when one of the resistance is removed
c) Total voltage drop is same as total resistance
d) All are correct
56. If there are n numbers of calls, each having a voltage of E and resistance R, then
voltmeter connected across the electrolyte will indicate
a) nE b) (n-1)E
c) n(n - )E d) None of these
57. A 12V bulb is connected in series and draws 3 amperes current from a 12V battery. Its resistance
and power will be
a) 36 ohms, 4 W b) 4 ohms, 36 W
c) 1 ohm, 12 W d) None of these
58. The number of shock mounts required for an original instrument panel is determined by the
a) Size of the panel b) Type of the panel
c) Weight of the complete panel unit d) Number of instruments to be installed
59. Aircraft instrument panels are shock mounted to
a) Absorb all vibrations
b) Absorb low frequency, high amplitude shocks
c) Channel most airframe vibrations to the instruments
d) Absorb high frequency, high amplitude shocks
60. The method of mounting aircraft instruments in their respective panels depends on
a) Instrument manufacturer b) Design of the instrument case
c) Design of the aircraft fuselage d) Design of the instrument panel
61. How is a flange less instrument case mounted in an instrument panel?
a) By four screws which extend through the instrument panel
b) By an expanding type clamp secured to the back of the panel and tightened by a screw from the
front of the instrument panel
c) By a metal shelf separate from and located behind the instrument panel
d) By press fit into the instrument panel and held in place by friction
62. Why are most electrical instruments mounted in iron or steel cases?
a) To avoid damage to the instrument during maintenance
b) To facilitate removal or installation
c) To prevent interference from outside magnetic fields
d) To reduce heat build up in the instrument
63. When installing instruments in an aircraft who is responsible for making sure it is properly
marked?
a) An authorised inspector b) The aircraft owner

c) The instrument installer d) The instrument manufacturer


64. i) Instrument panels absorb low frequency high amplitude shocks.
ii) Shock absorbers of instrument panel permit instruments to operate under conditions of minor
vibrations.
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
65. Assembler is
a) An individual who assembles computer b) Language
c) Programme d) None of these
66. Input unit of a computer communicates between
a) Operator & computer b) Memory with printer
c) CPU with monitor d) Output & computer
67. Primary memory of a computer are
a) RAM, ROM b) RAM, ROM, PROM
c) RAM, ROM, CPU d) RAM, ROM, Hard Disc
68. Hard disc & floppies are
a) For different purpose
b) For same purpose but hard disc stores more information
c) For same purpose but hard disc stores less information
d) None of these
69. The symbol for hexa-decimal is
a) 2 b) 8 c) 10 d) 16
70. Algorithm uses
a) One input, one output b) One input, two output
c) One input, multiple output d) None of these
71. To solve a fifteen step problem, a computer will work in
a) Sequence b) Repetition
c) Selection d) Sequence and repetition
72. Which of the following is a storage device?
a) Mouse b) Monitor
c) CPU d) Hard disk
73. RAM stands for
a) Read & access memory b) Random access memory
c) Record and maintain d) None of these
74. Radio equipment is protected from vibration damage by
a) Shock mounts b) Aluminium alloy jumpers
c) Doubler plates around the mounting points d) All are correct
75. To communicate with ground control from an aircraft, pilot uses
a) VOR receiver b) VHF trans receiver
c) HF transmitter d) ADF
76. Addition of avionics equipment forward of CG limits will affect
a) Maximum gross weight and datum b) CG limits and useful load
c) Empty weight and useful load d) Useful load only
77. i) AC current passing through a conductor creates emf around the conductor
ii) Frequency of radio wave radiated equals the frequency of the applied current
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
78. Basic components of a communication system are
a) Receiver & transmitter
b) As in a) plus receiver / transmitter antennas
c) As in b) plus microphone
d) As in c) plus loudspeaker
79. Power output of large commercial aircraft VHF transmitter is of the order of
a) 1-15 watts b) 20-30 watts
c) 50-100 watts d) 150-200 watts
80. An antenna is a special type of electrical circuit designed to transmit & receive
a) Audible signals b) Visual signal
c) Electro magnetic energy d) All are correct
PAPER - II
PART IV

1. D 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. B
6. C 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. C
11. C 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. A
16. B 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. D
21. B 22. D 23. A 24. D 25. C
26. C 27. D 28. D 29. D 30. D
31. A 32. C 33. C 34. B 35. B
36. C 37. D 38. C 39. B 40. B
41. D 42. B 43. D 44. B 45. B
46. C 47. B 48. C 49. A 50. B
51. B 52. B 53. D 54. D 55. A
56. A 57. B 58. C 59. B 60. B
61. B 62. C 63. C 64. C 65. C
66. A 67. A 68. B 69. D 70. A
71. D 72. D 73. B 74. A 75. B
76. C 77. C 78. D 79. C 80.

PAPER - II PART III


1.

PAPER - II PART III


During towing operations
a) Pilot must be in the cockpit to operate brakes
b) A qualified person should be in the cockpit to operate brakes
c) A person should be in the cockpit to look for obstructions
d) Persons should be stationed at the nose and each of the wing-tips
2. Tail-wheel type aeroplanes have the greatest tendency to move side-ways during taxing when there is
a) Cross wind b) Tail wind c) Head wind d) None of these
3. When parking a aircraft after towing, the nose wheel should be left
a) Pointed straight ahead b) As it was when towing stopped
c) Unlocked d) All are correct
4. Before towing a large aircraft
a) Ballast should be put in the cockpit
b) Tow bar should be fitted with a strong bolt
c) Tow bar should be fitted with a shear bolt
d) None of these
5. While towing a large aircraft, personnel required are
a) Two in cockpit b) As in a) plus one each on wing tips
c) As in b) plus one at the tail
d) As in c) plus one in overall control of operation
6. The most commonly used driving tool by a mechanic is
a) Ball peen hammer b) Cross peen hammer
c) Claw hammer d) Sledge hammer
7. (i) Body hammers are used for driving stakes into the ground
(ii) Sledge hammers are used for smoothing or stretching the metal
a) Only (i) is correct b) Only (ii) is correct
c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct
8. i) Mallets can be termed as soft hammers
ii) Plastic mallets are more useful than raw hide mallets
a) Only (i) is correct b) Only (ii) is correct
c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct
9. (i) Claw hammers are basically used for driving and pulling out nails
(ii) The wedge of a cross peen hammer is parallel to the handle
a) Only (i) is correct b) Only (ii) is correct
c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct d) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct
10. A punch is used to

a) Mark a location b) Remove a damaged rivet


c) Locate a drill properly d) All are correct
11. i) A pin punch is used to remove the shank of the rivet from the hole after rivet head has been
chiselled off
ii) Diameter of pin punch should be 1/64 inch smaller than the diameter of the rivet to be removed
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
12. i) Location given by a prick punch should always be punched later with a centre punch.
ii) Goggles must be used while using any type of punch.
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
13. i) A mushroom head on a punch is better than a crown head since chances of hammer slip are
reduced
ii) A centre punch can be used for a variety of punching applications
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
14. Most commonly used slip joint plier has a length of
a) 4 inches b) 6 inches c) 10 inches d) 12 inches
15. Duckbill plier
a) Is a flat nose plier b) Is used for twisting safety wires
c) Have serrations on their jaws d) All are correct
16. Needle nose pliers are used for
a) Extracting thin/sharp components b) Extracting nails
c) Gripping small electronic components d) All are correct
17. i) A chisel can never cut the material all by itself
ii) A die is a cutting tool
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
18. Cutting edge of a chisel is generally ground to an angle of
a) 30 degrees b) 70 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 110 degrees
19. Regarding a cutting chisel which statement is incorrect?
a) It is made from high grade steel
b) Its cutting edge is always wider than the shank
c) Cutting edge is flat so that force is applied uniformly on the surface
d) Chisel body is either square or octagonal
20. i) A cape chisel is the proper tool to use for knocking the head off a rivet after it has been drilled
through
ii) A cape chisel is forged from the same type of tool steel as the cold chisel
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
21. Aviation snip
a) Is same as Dutchman snip b) Has serrated cutting edges
c) Can easily cut thick sheet metals d) All are correct
22. Files are classified with regard to
a) Physical shape b) Length
c) Type of cut d) All are correct
23. Various types of cut of a file are
a) Single cut b) Smooth cut
c) Rasp d) Both a) & b) are correct
24. Vixen file have
a) Curved teeth b) No taper either in width or thickness
c) A special file holder d) All are correct
25. i) Wood rasp files have individual teeth cut on to their surfaces
ii) Wood rasps are used to remove wood from a surface where it is not practical to use a saw or a plane
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
26. i) Mill files have uniform thickness, but are tapered in width
ii) Hand files have uniform thickness and width
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct

27. i) Half round files are tapered in both thickness and width
ii) Knife files are tapered in thickness as well as in width
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
28. For filing acute angles, one should use
a) Knife files b) Round files c) Triangular files d) All are correct
29. Most files used in aviation have a length of
a) 4-10 inches b) 6-12 inches c) 6-16 inches d) 10-20 inches
30. The part of a file that fits into the handle is called
a) Heel b) Fitting end c) Tang d) Point
31. i) File is basically a chisel but with many cutting edges
ii) Triangular files are used for cutting teeth of handsaws
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
32. Double cut files have rows of teeth. These teeth are set at
a) 45 degrees and 70-80 degrees b) 45 degrees and 45 degrees
c) 70-80 degrees and 70-80 degrees d) None of these
33. There are five cuts of files ranging from coarsest to the finest. Find out the wrong one
a) Coarse b) Bastard c) Smooth d) Finest
34. File should be kept clean by
a) Tapping it against the bench b) Brushing it with a wire brush
c) Lubricating it occasionally d) Both a) & b) are correct
35. Which type of file has only three grades: regular, fine and smooth
a) Vixen b) Wood rasp c) Knife d) Triangular
36. Characteristics of steel are controlled by
a) Removal of carbon from iron b) Types of alloying elements added to it
c) Amount of alloying elements added to it d) All are correct
37. Bearing strength of a material refers to
a) Direct tensile load it can bear
b) Resistance to tear at the point of applied load
c) Resistance to fracture at the point of applied load
d) Resistance to shear
38. Characteristics of metals relating to drawing it into wire is
a) Tensile strength b) Malleability c) Ductility d) Brittleness
39. Fusibility of a metal refer to its property that permits
a) Welding b) Drawing into thin sheets
c) Drawing into wires d) Good thermal conductivity
40. Aluminium alloy 1100 implies
a) Pure aluminium b) It contains 11% copper
c) It contains 111% zinc d) Heat treated alloy
41. Aluminium alloys have a four digit index system where each digit signifies something. In 2024, the
first digit indicates
a) Copper is the major alloying element
b) Two alloying elements have been added
c) Total percentage of alloying elements
d) None of these
42. Alclad is a metal consisting of
a) Aluminium alloy core with pure Al surface
b) Pure aluminium core with Al alloy surface
c) Alternating layers of pure Al & Al alloys
d) None of these
43. Which of the following aluminium alloy is heat treated and artificially aged?
a) 3003-F b) 5052-H c) 6061-O d) 7075-T6
44. Clad aluminium alloys are used in aircraft. They are
a) Lighter than other aluminium alloys b) Stronger than unclad aluminium alloys
c) Easily heat treatable d) Less susceptible to corrosion
45. Aircraft structural members made from sheet metal can normally be
a) Repaired, except when subjected to compressible loads
b) Repaired, except when subjected to tensile loads
c) Repaired using approved method

d) Not repaired & need replacement only


46. Medium carbon steels have a carbon percentage of
a) 0.1 0.3 b) 0.3 0.5 c) 0.5 1.0 d) 1.0 2.0
47. High carbon steel is generally used for
a) Shock absorbers b) Landing gear struts
c) Engine mounting bolts d) Springs & files
48. What material is used in the construction of firewall of aircraft engines?
a) Aluminium alloy b) Stainless steel
c) Chrome-molybdenum steel d) Tungsten steel
49. Which of the statement is correct?
a) Both heat treatable & non heat treatable aluminium alloys can be strain hardened
b) Strain hardening is same as cold working
c) Strength & hardness increases during cold working
d) All are correct
50. Find out the wrong statement regarding titanium
a) It is highly corrosion resistant b) It maintain strength at elevated temperatures
c) It has good resistance to creep d) It is magnetic
51. The balls used for ball bearings are made of
a) Cast iron b) Cast steel c) Wrought iron
d) Carbon chrome steel
52. Files used in fitting shop are made from
a) Cast iron b) High carbon steel
c) Chrome steel d) Mild steel
53. Property of a material to be drawn plastically before breaking is called ductility. Most ductile
material is
a) Copper b) Gold c) Lead d) Tin
54. i) Aluminium has high electrical and thermal conductivity
ii) Ductility of aluminium improves with the addition of iron & silver
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
55. i) Muntz metal is same as yellow brass
ii) Muntz metal contains copper & zinc in the ratio of 3:2
a) Only i) is correct b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct d) Neither i) nor ii) is correct
56. Potential difference between two conductors insulated from each other is measured in
a) Ampere b) Coulomb c) Ohm d) Volt
57. Correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a circuit is
a) In series with a unit b) In parallel with a unit
c) Between source voltage and load d) Both b) & c) are correct
58. Which term means .001 ampere
a) Micro ampere b) Milli ampere
c) Kilo ampere d) Nano ampere
59. Unit used to express electrical power is
a) Ampere b) Volt c) Watt d) Coulomb
60. Transfer of electrical energy from one conductor to another without the aid of electrical connection
is
a) Induction b) Air gap transfer
c) Not possible d) Possible but will cause excessive arcing thus not practical
61. Magnetic lines of force pass most readily through
a) Aluminium b) Copper c) Iron d) Titanium
62. In a straight conductor, the resistance is not affected by
a) Length b) Temperature c) Shape of cross section d) Material
63. Pitot pressure varies with
a) Speed b) Air density c) Speed and Air density
d) None of these
64. Altimeter and rate of climb indicator utilize
a) Static pressure b) Pitot pressure c) Either a) or b)
d) Both a) and b)
65. Pitot static system have heating elements to
a) Remove moisture from the air b) Prevent ice formation

c) To permit flying at high altitude d) All are correct


66. Pressure heads of pitot static system should not be painted, because it
a) Impairs their thermal efficiency b) May cause obstruction of orifices
c) None of the above d) Both a) and b) are correct
67. Leak test of pitot static system should be carried out
a) After installation of a component / instrument
b) Whenever malfunctioning is suspected
c) At specified periods indicated in servicing schedules
d) All are correct
68. Which instruments are connected to the aircraft pitot static system?
a) Vertical speed indicator b) Altimeter
c) Airspeed indicator d) All are correct
69. The instrument that measures difference between pitot & static pressure is
a) Altimeter b) Pressure gauge c) Airspeed indicator d) Vertical speed indicator
70. The unit where calculations are processed is called
a) Central processing unit (CPU) b) Control unit
c) Arithmetic and logic unit (ALU) d) Computing unit
71. Sequence of steps for computing a program is known as
a) Flow chart b) Sequence process
c) Algorithm d) None of these
72. Basic function of a computer is
a) Addition b) Multiplication c) Division d) All are correct
73. EDP stands for
a) Electrical data processing b) Electronic data processing
c) Entry data processing d) Electronic discrete programme
74. A computer basically
a) Processes data b) Stores data as per given instructions
c) Perform mathematical calculations d) All are correct
75. Computer stores instructions in
a) English language b) Decimal number system
c) Octal number system d) Binary
76. In a straight and level flight of an aircraft
a) Lift equals aircraft weight b) Lift is more than weight
c) Lift is less than weight d) Depends upon size of aircraft and its loading
77. Whenever lift is generated, there is certain amount of drag associated with it. This is called
a) Form drag b) Skin friction drag c) Induced drag d) Shape drag
78. Lift generated by an airfoil is maximum at an angle of attack of about
a) 0 degrees b) 4 degrees c) 12 degrees d) Stalling value
79. Lift generated by an aircraft depends upon
a) Density, forward velocity & aircraft area
b) Density, square of forward velocity and aircraft area
c) Density, square of forward velocity and wing area
d) Density, forward velocity & wing area
80. Lift on a wing
a) Acts through centre of gravity b) Acts vertically upwards
c) Is perpendicular to chord line
d) Acts vertically upwards through centre of pressure
PAPER - II
PART III
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. D
6. A 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. D
11. A 12. C 13. D 14. B 15. D
16. C 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. C
21. D 22. D 23. A 24. D 25. C
26. A 27. D 28. A 29. C 30. C
31. C 32. A 33. D 34. D 35. A
36. D 37. B 38. C 39. A 40. A
41. A 42. A 43. D 44. D 45. C
46. B 47. D 48. B 49. D 50. D
51. D 52. B 53. B 54. A 55. C

56. D 57. B 58. B 59. C 60. A


61. C 62. C 63. C 64. A 65. B
66. D 67. D 68. D 69. C 70. C
71. C 72. A 73. B 74. D 75. D
76. A 77. C 78. D 79. C 80. D

PAPER - II (PART 2)
a. To increase mechanical strength and tackiness
b. To reduce mechanical strength and tackiness
c. To increase the mechanical strength and reduce tackiness
d. To reduce the mechanical strength and increase tackiness
2. Which type of Synthetic rubber will be the first choice for manufacturing of aircraft tubeless tyre
a. Butyl rubber b. Neoprene rubber c. BUNA-N d. thiokol
3. Which synthetic rubber is chiefly used in aircraft hot air duct as sealing ring and wire insulation
a. Silicon rubber b. Polymethane rubber c. BUNA-S d. BUNA-N
4. Highest resistance to deterioration but lowest physical property is the characteristic of
which kind of synthetic rubber.
a. GR I b. GR S c. GR P d. GR A
5. To valcanise thiokol rubber, which element to be added
a. Sulfur b. Sulfur oxide c. Zinc d. Zinc oxide
6. Which material is used for manufacturing of hydraulic booster piston seal
a. Styrene butadiene seal b. Nitrile rubber
c. Flexon rubber d. Fluoro carbon rubber
7. Natural rubber attains fibrous structure when
a. It under goes at low temperature b. It is frozen
c. It is heated to 1300C d. It undergoes continues stress at normal temperature
8. The grade of Kevlar fiber is used for aircraft structure
a. Kevlar 49 b. Kevlar 149 c. Kevlar 29 d. Kevlar 129
9. The composition for E glass is
a. Magnesia-alumina-silicate glass b. Lime-alumina borosilicate glass
c. Soda borosilicate glass d. None of the above
10. Truly outstanding properties of strength competes with stronger steel is kind of fiber
a. S glass b. Hollow fibre glass c. A glass d. Carbon glass
11. Which composit material is difficult to cut or drill
a. Glass fibre b. Aramid c. Carbon / Graphite d. None of above
12. Mark the wrong statement for carbon / graphite fibre
a. Is used to fabricate primary structure b. It has high strength and high rigidity
c. It takes compressive load d. It is ductile in nature
13. Corrosion control techniques are employed when corbon fibre is in contact to aluminium
a. A layer of fiber glass is used as a barrie
b. Aluminium is anodized, primed and painted prior to assembly
c. Both (a) and (b) will be applied together
d. None of the above
14. Which composite material is useful for making aircraft parts that are subject to high stress and
vibration
a. Fibergalss b. Aramid c. Carbon / Graphite d. None of these
15. Mark the correct statement
a. Carbon fiber are electrically non conductive
b. Carbon fibers have high thermal expansion
c. Carbon fibers have high fatigue resistance
16. Boron fibers are made by sintering the boron elements on a thin film of material
a. Titanium b. Tin c. Tungsten d. All above
17. Which fiber material bears all tension, compression and bending stresses
a. Ceramic fiber b. Boron fiber c. Fiber glass d. Graphite fiber
18. Mark the correct statement in Fiber Orientation

a. Warp direction is designated at 900


b. Weft is designated at 00
c. Bias is at 450 angle of fill threads
d. None of the above
19. For repairing of fabric, which weave to be used
a. Plain weave b. Basket weave c. Satin weave d. All of these
20. Find out the wrong answer: Hybrids of composite material used in Aviation field are
a. Kevlar with carbon / graphite b. Kevlar with fiber glass
c. Carbon / graphite with fiber glass d. None of these
21. In fiber science, which acts as a curing agent
a. Resin b. Matrix c. Catalyst d. All of these
22. Plexiglass is
a. Thermoplastic b. Thermoset c. Laminated d. None of these
23. Mark the correct answer:
Apart from strongest adhesive characteristics of epoxy resin, it has other advantages
a. Useful at very high temperature b. It withstand bending stress
c. Reasonable rigidity and flexibility d. All of these
24. Mark the correct answer:
The advantages of fillers to add to resins are
a. To control viscosity and weight b. To increase pot life and strength
c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of these
25. Nomex is a
a. Filler material b. Matrix c. Reinforced fiber d. Core material
26. Tapered roller bearing support
a. Radial load b. Thrust load c. Both (a) and (b)
27. Bearing used on high powered aircraft engine is
a. Ball bearing b. Roller bearing c. Plain bearing d. Both (a) and (c)
28. Plain bearings are used for
a. Connecting rods b. Crank shaft c. Cam shaft d. All of these
29. Bearings are used to take
a. Thrust load b. Radial load c. Side load d. Both (a) and (b)
30. Bearing used where high compressive pressure, is generally made of
a. Babitt b. Bronze c. Siliver bronze d. All of these
31. Bearing which offer more friction is made of
a. Bronze b. Babitt c. Silicon d. None of these
32. The amount of electricity a capacitor can store is directly proportional to
a. Distance between the plate and inversely proportional to the plate area
b. Plate area and is not affected by the distance between the plate.
c. Plate area and inversely proportional to the distance between the plate
d. None of these
33. The correct way to connect a test volt meter in a circuit is
a. In series with a unit b. Between the source voltage and the load
c. In parallel with unit d. Both (a) and (c) are correct
34. Typical application of Zener diode is as
a. Full wave rectifiers b. Half wave rectifier
c. Voltage regulator d. Amplifier
35. The method used to rapidly charge a Nickel Cadmium battery utilizes
a. Constant current and constant voltage b. constant current and varying voltage
c. Constant voltage and varying current
d. Varying voltage and varying current
36. What tasks are completed prior to weighing an aircraft to determine its empty weight
a. Remove all items except those on aircraft equipment list, drain fuel and hydraulic fluids
b. Remove all items on the aircraft equipment list, drain fuel, compute oil and hydraulic fluid
weight
c. Remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment list, drain fuel and fill hydraulic
reservoir
d. All of these
37. Useful load of an aircraft is the
a. Difference between the maximum gross weight and empty weight
b. Difference between the net weight and total weight

c. Some of the empty weight and the max. gross weight


d. Weight of the fuel
38. Certain amount of slacks must be left in flexible hose during installation because when under
pressure it
a. Expand in length and diameter
b. Expand in length and contracts in diameter
c. Contracts in length and expands in diameter
d. Contracts in length and diameter
39. Excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic metal tubing caused by expansion or contraction due to
temperature change can best be avoided by
a. Using short, straight sections of tubing between fixed parts of aircraft
b. Not projecting the aircraft to sudden change in temperature
c. Providing bends in the tubing
d. None of the above
40. Which heat treating process of metal produces a hard, wear resistance surface over strong,
tough core
a. Case hardening b. Annealing c. Tempering d. Hardening
41. Which of the following hose materials are compatible with phosphate-ester base hydraulic
fluids
a. Butyl b. Buna-N c. Neoprene d. Buna-S
42. In a metal tubing installation
a. Rigid straight line runs are preferable
b. Tension is undesirable because pressurisation will cause is to expand and shift
c. A tube may be pulled in if the nut will start on the threaded coupling
d. None of the above
43. Magnetic particles inspection is used primarily to detect
a. Distortion b. Deep surface flaw
c. Flaws on or near the surface d. Flaws in plastic material
44. Which material cannot be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effects
a. Unclad aluminium alloys in sheet forms
b. 6061- T9 Stainless steel
c. Clad aluminium alloy
d. Carbon steel
45. What is generally used in the construction of aircraft engine fire walls
a. Stainless steel b. Chromium Molybdenum alloy steel
c. Magnesium Titanium alloy steel d. Wrought iron
46. A fiber type self locking nut must never be used on an aircraft if the bolt is
a. Under shear loading b. Under tension loading
c. Subject to rotation d. All of these
47. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a
a. Class-I fit for the thread b. Class-II fit for the thread
c. Class-III fit for the thread d. Class-IV fit for the thread
48. Hose and a few projecting globules are found in a weld. What action should be taken
a. Re-weld the defective portions
b. Remove all the old weld and re-weld the joint
c. Grind the rough surface smooth, inspect and re-weld all gaps / holes
d. Can be used in the same way
49. Which condition indicate a part has cooled too quickly after being welded
a. Cracking adjacent to the weld
b. Discoloration of the base metal
c. Gas pockets and porosity
d. Slag inclusion
50. Which tool is used to measure the clearance between the surface plates and a relatively narrow
surface being checked for flatness.
a. Depth gauge b. Thickness gauge c. Dial indicator d. Vernier Caliper
51. Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft or other cylinder work
a. Combination set b. Dial indicator c. Micrometer caliper d. Set square
52. What tool is generally used to calibrate a micrometer or check its accuracy
a. Gauge block b. Dial indicator c. Machinist scale d. None of these
53. When approaching the front of an idling jet engine the hazard area extends forward of the

engine approximately
a. 10 feet b. 15 feet c. 25 feet d. 35 feet
54. Which of the following is the most satisfactory extinguishing agent for use on a carburetor or
intake fire
a. Dry chemical b. A fine water mist c. Carbon dioxide
d. Form
55. When approaching the rear of an idling turbo jet engine the hazard area extends aft of the
engine approximately
a. 200 feet b. 100 feet c. 50 feet d. 25 feet
56. When towing a large aircraft
a. A person should be in the cockpit to watch the obstruction
b. Person should be stationed at the nose
c. Person should be positioned each wing tip and the empennage
d. A person should be in the cockpit to operate brakes
57. A fuel that vaporizes too readily may cause
a. Hard starting b. Detonation c. Vapor lock d. None of these
58. The main difference between grades 100 and 100LL fuel are
a. Volatility and lead content b. Volatility, lead content and colour
c. Lead content and colour d. All of these
59. Tetra ethyl lead is added to aviation gasoline to
a. Retard the formation of corrosive
b. Improve the gasoline performance in the engine
c. Dissolve the moisture in the gasoline
d. None of these
60. If the temperature of a confined liquid is held constant and its pressure is trippled, the volume
will
a. Triple
b. Reduced to one third its original volume
c. Remains same
d. Multiply by a fixed factor

Answers:
1c2a3a4c5d
6 b 7 b 8 a 9 b 10 d
11 b 12 d 13 c 14 b 15 c
16 c 17 b 18 d 19 c 20 d
21 c 22 a 23 d 24 c 25 c
26 c 27 b 28 d 29 d 30 b
31 a 32 c 33 c 34 c 35 c
36 c 37 a 38 c 39 c 40 a
41 a 42 b 43 c 44 c 45 a
46 c 47 c 48 b 49 a 50 b
51 a 52 a 53 c 54 c 55 b
56 d 57 c 58 c 59 b 60 b

PAPER - II (PART 1)
PAPER - II
PART I
1. Which statement is correct?
a) Al-alloy bolt smaller than mm diameter are not used in primary structure
b) Al-alloy bolts and nuts are used where they will be repeatedly removed for purpose of
maintenance and inspection
c) Both are correct d) None of these

2. AN-73 drilled head bolt is similar to the


a) Close tolerance bolt b) Special bolt
c) Standard hex-bolt d) All of these
3. To-bolt is a trade name of
a) An internally treaded two piece rivet
b) An externally treaded three piece rivet.
c) An internally treaded three piece rivet
d) An externally treaded two piece rivet
4. During installation of To-bolt
a) The nut is turned while the bolt is held
b) The bolt is turned while the nut is held.
c) Bolt are turned at the same time d) None of these
5. The lock bolt combines the features of a
a) High strength bolt and nut b) High strength bolt and rivit
c) High strength bolt, rivet and nut d) None of these
6. Blind type lock bolts are
a) Used where only one side of the work is accessible
b) As a) & they have exceptional strength
c) As b) & sheet pull together characteristic
d) As c) & where it is difficult to drive a conventional rivet
7. How is a clevis bolt used with a fork-end cable terminal recurred?
a) With a shear nut tightened to a snug fit with no strain imposed on the fork and safetied with a
cotter pin.
b) With a castle nut tightened until slight binding occurs between the fork and the fitting to which
it is being attached.
c) With a shear nut and cotter pin or a thin self-locking nut tightened enough to prevent rotation of
the bolt in the fork
d) None of these
8. Which of the bolt head code marking shown identifies a internal hex head bolt?
a) b) c)
1) a 2) b 3) c 4) none
9. Which statement is correct?
a) Self-locking nuts are used on a/c to provide tight connections which will not shake loose under
severe vibration
b) S.L.N are used where bolt or nut subject rotation
c) Both a) & b)
d) None of these
10. Elastic stop nuts are not used
a) Where temperature is lower than 250oF b) Higher than 250oF
c) Between 250oF to 750oF d) None of these
11. Special washers are used
a) Where a bolt is installed at an angle to a surface
b) Where perfect alignment with a surface is not required
c) Both a) & b)
d) None of these
12. The marking found on the head of the stud
a) Body diameter, length & shank type
b) Body diameter, length & head type
c) Only length d) None of these
13. Airloc pasteners consists of three parts
a) Stud, grommet and receptacle b) Stud & grommet
c) Stud, cross pin and receptacle d) None
14. 7x19 cable is made up
a) Seven strands of 7 wires b) Nineteen strands of seven wires each
c) Seven strands of nineteen wires each
d) 19 strands of 19 wires each
15. The diameter range of 7x19 cables are
a) 1/8 to 3/8
b) 1/16 to 3/32
c) 1/8 to

d) 1/8 to 1/16
16. Turnbuckle assembly is a
a) Mechanical screw
b) Making minor adjustment in cable length and adjusting cable tension
c) Consisting two threaded terminals and a threaded barrel
d) All the above
17. Push-pull tubes are generally made in short lengths to
a) Prevent vibration and bending under tension load
b) Prevent vibration and bending under compression load
c) Only prevent vibration
d) None
18. Corrosion resistant steel cotter pin is used in locations where
a) Magnetic material is required b) Resistance to corrosion is desired
c) Both d) None
19. Which is correct statement
a) Pin rivet are used only in shear application
b) They should never be used where the grip length is less than the shank diameter
c) Both
d) None
20. Pin rivets
a) Hi-shear rivets
b) Used where access to both side of the material is required
c) They are approximately three times as strong as solid shank rivets
d) All
21. 10 KB 105
a) Flat head b) Flat head & countersunk
c) Countersunk d) None
22. 10 KB 107
a) Closed end and a key b) Flat head
c) As a and countersunk head d) None
23. AN 10 DH5A where H indicate
a) 5/8 diameter head drilled b) 5/8 diameter head and shank drilled
c) 5/8 diameter & shank drilled d) None
24. O-rings can be detected by
a) 4 power magnifying glass
b) Small cracks, particles of foreign material or other irregularities are checked by rolling
c) Slight stretching of the ring checked by dowel
d) All
25. Clevis bolt are used for
a) Tension load b) Tension & shear load
c) Shear load d) None
26. Internal wrenching bolts are suitable for use in
a) Shear load b) Tension & shear load
c) Tension d) None
27. A cross inside triangle indicates
a) Close tolerance bolt b) Corrosion resistant steel bolt
c) Stainless steel bolt d) Screw
28. A/C screw is generally manufactured with
a) Class-1 fit of thread b) Class-2 fit of thread
c) Class-3 fit of thread d) Class-4 fit of thread
29. Generally speaking, bolt grip length should be
a) 1 time the thicker material through which they extend
b) Equal to thickness of material + one diameter
c) Equal to thickness of material through which they extend
d) Any length
30. Stainless steel rivet head
a) Raised double dash b) Raised dash
c) Raised cross d) No marking on head
31. A hole is corroded which cannot be removed, is repaired by
a) Scrap out the part

b) Helicoil
c) Acres sleeve
d) Use special washer
32. Tw=100; Te=? Extension=5, A=20 (Torque wrench)
a) 150 in lbs b) 125 in lbs
c) 175 in lbs d) 200 in lbs
33. For shear joint
a) Clevis pin b)Taper pin c) Roll pin d) Cotter pin
34. Solid rivet of 1/8 diameter is replaced by (CAP)
a) Two rivet of 1/16 diameter
b) Three rivet of 1/16 diameter
c) Four rivet of 1/16 diameter
d) Cannot be replaced
35. Colour code for o-rings
a) Red dot for hydraulic fluid
b) Green dot for fuel
c) Yellow dot for skydrol fluid
d) d) None
36. For safetying turnbuckles, locking wire is used in
a) Single wrap b) Double wrap
c) Double wrap spiral d) All are correct
37. Dzus pastners consist of a stud, grommet and receptacle, stud length is measured in
a) Tenth of an inch b) Sixteenth of an inch
c) Hundredth of an inch d) Thousandth of an inch
38. A grub screw is a
a) Headless type set screw
b) Cap screw with fine threads
c) Machine screw with flat countersunk head
d) Cylindrical piece threaded at both ends and is plain in the middle
39. Grip length of cherry lock rivet is measured in increments
a) 1/8 b) 3/32 c) 1/16 d)1/32
40. Identifying marks on the head of Al-alloy rivet indicate
a) Shank size b) Head treatment given by manufacturer
c) Specific alloy and by manufacturer d) All are correct
41. The solid shank rivet, which is used in interior of a/c, where maximum strength is needed
a) round head b) brazier head
c) flat head d) as in c) & is AN-442
42. The standard range for counter sunk head angle is
a) 72 - 120 b) 78 - 112 c) 78 d) 100
43. To repair or replacement of protuding head rivet
a) round head b) counter sunk head is needed
c) universal head is used d) any rivet can be selected
44. For riveting Mg alloy sheet
a) 5056 rivet should be used. b) monel rivet should be used
c) mild steel should be used d) All of the above
45. Which material you select for riveting Ni-steel sheet
a) Monel b) 2017-T c) 2024-T6 d) Mild steel
46. Which one of the following rivet is ready for use as received & need no further heat treatment.
a) 2117 b) 2017-T c) 2024 d) 1100
47. Ice-Box rivets are
a)2017-T b) 2117-T c) 2024-T d) a) & c) are correct
48. The specification for universal head rivet
a) AN-470 b) MS-20613 c) MS-20615 d) all
49. The protective film of zinc chromate over rivet identified by
a) its yellow colour b) pearl gray
c) its white colour d) its silver gray colour
50. Part No. AN 470B 3 8 indicates
a) shank diameter is 3 b) rivet length is 8
16 32
c) material is 5056 Al alloy d) all of the above

51. Mark the correct statement.


a) Identification marking shall appear either on shank or head of rivet.
b) The rivet length shall be taken in fraction of 32 of an inch.
c) Group-A, Al-alloy can be used with Group-B Al-alloy keeping in view the dissimilar metal
corrosion factor.
d) Both a) & b) are correct.
52. The material code for 2024 T rivet
a) D b) AD c) DD d) B
53. The absence of latter following the AN-standard number indicate
a) material is Al-alloy b) material is steel
c) material is mild steel d) any of the above
54. The head marking Raised triangle, indicate the rivet is
a) 5056 b) 2219 c) 7075 d) Monel
55. The head marking for 2024-T is
a) raised dot b) raised double dash
c) raised three dash d) recessed double dash
56. The marking recessed single dash indicate the rivet is
a) QQW 423 b) QQS-633 c) 2117 d) QQ1-281
57. The shank length used for making blind head in a pull thru rivet is
a) 1 b) - c) 3/64
d) 3/64 1/8
58. Its proven fatigue strength make it the only blind rivet interchangeable structurally with solid
rivet is
a) wire draw cheeylock rivet b) dill lock rivet
c) bulb cherrylock rivet d) deutsch rivet
59. To joints requiring an excessive amount of sheet take-up, you may select
a) pin rivet b) wire draw cherrylock rivet
c) bulb cherry lock rivet d) all of the above
60. Riv nut is
a) hollow, blind rivet b) made of 6053-Al alloy & a)
c) counter bored & thread inside d) all of the above
61. In Part No. 10 KB 106, KB indicates
a) close end & keyless b) close end & keyed
c) open end & keyed d) open end & keyless
62. Part No. 10 - B -107 indicates
a) Riv nut having flat head b) Pin rivet having round head
c) Riv nut having counter sunk head d) Deutsch rivet
63. Pin rivet a) not a blind type
b) have the same shear strength as bolt of equal diameter.
c) as in b) & are about 40% weight of bolt
d) all of the above.
64. Pin rivets are used
a) in compression b) in tension
c) in shear d) all of the above & also carry bending load.
65. The Part No. NAS 177 14 17 indicates
a) flat head Jo-bolt b) flat head Avdelok fastener
c) flat head pin rivet d) counter sunk head, pin rivet
66. The hardware pre-lubricated & must not be degreased before assembly is/are
a) Jo-bolt b) Avdelok Fastener
c) Both a) & b) are correct d) Huck mechanical lock rivet
67. The AN-3 to AN-20 (hex head a/c bolt) is
a) General purpose bolt b) Close tolerance bolt
c) Internal wrenching bolt d) Special purpose bolt
68. Mark the correct statement.
a) Steel bolt smaller than No.- 10-32 are not use in primary structure.
b) The AN-3 & AN-73 series bolt are interchangeable for all practical purpose.
c) b) is correct from the stand point of tension & shear strength.
d) All are correct.
69. Bolt can be identified

a) by material b) by method of securing


c) a) & shape of head d) all of the above
70. The head marking on bolt indicate
a) bolt material
b) name of manufacturer
c) a), b) & whether bolt is a standard type or special purpose bolt.
d) a) & b) are correct
71. The marking for corrosion resistant steel bolt is
a) raised dash b) asterisk c) single raised dash d) two raised dash
72. For a bolt, part no. AN3DD5A indicates
a) bolt is drilled for saftying b) material of bolt is 2017 Al-alloy
c) diameter bolt is 5/16 d) length of bolt is 5/8
73. Eye bolt is used
a) where internal tension load is applied.
b) head is slotted to received common screw driver.
c) used for external tension load.
d) both b) & c) are correct.
74. Mark the correct statement.
a) where, there is not much clearance, stump type lock bolt is used.
b) alloy steel lock bolt may be used to replace steel Hi-shear rivets.
c) as in b) provided the diameter and head is similar.
d) both a) & c) are correct.
75. Bolt part no. ALSF E 88 indicates
a) brazier head, stump type lock bolt b) flat head, stump type lock bolt
c) counter sunk, stump type lock bolt d) counter sunk, pull type lock bolt
76. The specification AN 335 indicates
a) fine thread, light hex nut b) fine thread, plain hex nut
c) coarse thread, check nut d) coarse thread, plain hex nut
77. Castellated shear nut is used
a) in tension application.
b) in shear application only.
c) as in a) & with drilled clevis bolt, taper pin etc.
d) as in b) slotted for safety.
78. Stainless steel self locking nut
a) having locking shoulder & key.
b) used in application where temperature exceed 250 F.
c) a) , b) & also called high temperature self locking nut.
d) all are wrong.
79. Material used for Tinnerman instrument mounting nut is
a) Al-alloy b) Steel alloy c) Brass d) Monel
80. Mark the correct statement.
a) Elastic stop nut can be used many time.
b) As in a) & when turn with fingers, replace it.
c) Every time the parts disassembled, replace the elastic stop nut.
d) As in c) & used at place where temperature exceed 250F.
ANSWER:1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. B
6. D 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. B
11. A 12. B 13. C 14. C 15. A
16. D 17. B 18. B 19. C 20. D
21. A 22. C 23. D 24. D 25. C
26. B 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. B
31. C 32. B 33. B 34. C 35. C
36. D 37. C 38. A 39. C 40. C
41. D 42. B 43. C 44. A 45. A
46. A 47. D 48. D 49. A 50. C
51. A 52. C 53. C 54. B 55. B
56. A 57. D 58. C 59. B 60. D

61.
66.
71.
76.

B 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. D


C 67. A 68. D 69. D 70. C
C 72. D 73. C 74. D 75. B
D 77. D 78. C 79. C 80. B

DGCA PAPER II, (Feb Session 2013)


DGCA PAPER II
Aircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices
(Feb Session 2013)
1 - EICAS stands for A - engine indicating and crew alerting system
2 -kirchoffs current law is applicable to A - junctions network
3 - the RMS value of a half rectified current is 10 amps. what is da value for full wave? A - 14.14
4 - MTCS when the current flowing thru two parallel conductors is in same and upward direction A the field strength in b/w the conductors decrese and the conductors attract each oder
5 - ATA chapter 27 A - flight controls
6 - for removing damaged rivets the type of punch used is A - drive punch and tapered punch
7 - to make ferrous metals vastly superior to to iron A - carbon is addded to approximatly 1%
8 - the aluminium alloys are more susceptible to corrosion when percentage of ______ is used A copper
9 - when selecting a capacitor for a ckt which parameter has to be observed A - amount of voltage
to wich it is subjected
10 - MTCS regarding control cable A - cable linkage has some disadv as its tension has to be
adjusted frequently
11 - contents of general purpose solder are? A - tin lead antimony tin and lead tin lead silver
12 - which type of h/t is used for aluminum A - ALL ( SHT PHT ANNEALING)
13 - metal tubings are sized by A - OD measured fractionally in 1/16in
14 - In NDT pulse echo method is used for detecting A - ALL ( weld flaws, surface cracks , internal
flaws)
15 - PMMC type instrumnts hav A - not much affected by stray magnetic field
16 - wich type of frequency is used for point to point, line to point and audio broadcasting A - MF ,
HF , UHF , EHF
17 - a step up transformer has a ratio of 1:2? what wld be the value of current? A - half
18 - additives are added to fuel to? A - prevent microbiol growth , detonation , to prevent freezing ,
both 1 and 3
19 - a current transforemer is A - step up
20 - ASI Principle is ? A - pitot + static pr
21 - when an aircraft is parked in a hangar A - the fuel tank shld be completly filled
22 - type of hose that is compatible with phosphate ester base is A - butyl
23 - corrosion in magnesium is removed by chemically treating it with A - 10% chromic acid plus 0.1
h2SO4
24 - flashes of lighting due to high static discharge is known as A - corona effect
25 - MTCS regarding hardness testing A - brinel no is dia of impression rockwell testiin - lowewr the
hardness no. softer the material rockwell testin - higher the hardness no. harder the material none
of the above
26 - in gas filled tubes the effect of deionisation is known as A - extinction
27 - during wich stroke does the spark plug fire A - compression
28 - what is precipitation h/t A - (2)
29 - in an inductor the current A - lags the voltage by 90*
30 - the included angle of acme threads are A - 29*
31 servicing of oxygen systems A - never done during fueling
32 - parts of an elementary generator are A - magnetic field and conductors
33 - marshalling diagram A - left turn
34 - to xtinguish class d fires A - dry powder
35 - during tie down A - aircraft headed in direction of wind

36 - position of signal man A - slightly ahead and in line wid a/c left wing tip and nose of the
aircraft shld b on his left
37 - the modulus of elsaticity is A - stress / strain within elastic limts
38 - if triangle of diode is connected to negative wrt to bar den A - reverse biased
40 - if 10 divisions of the verneer scale coincides with 9 divisions on the main
scale and the main scale is calibrated in cm. what is the LC A - 0.001cm , 0.001mm , 0.01cm
41 - to convert a galvanometer to voltmeter A - connect a high resistance in series
42 - MTCS regarding kevlar A - its tensile strength is 4 times more as compared to aluminum
43 - spark test is done to identify which type of metal A - ferrous
44 - MTCS regarding micrometer A - barell and anvil are fixed while spindle is movable
45 - damaged rivets are removed by A - drive or tapered punches
46 - wich is extra flexible cable A - 7x19
47 - quick release fasteners are idntified by A factory trade name
48 - rivnuts are A - hollow blind rivets
49 -wich gear is used to transmit motion at parellel and non parallel direction A -helical gears
50 - wich are high lift devices A - flaps , slats , boundry layer devices , all
51 - what is used to control the aircraft around longitudinal axis a - ailerons
52 - which has aerofoil shape A - wings stabilzers and prop blades
53 - which flap increses wing camber and area A - fowler flap
54 - how to decrese stress corosion A - by applyin compressive stress by sand blasting
55 - muntz metal has A - 60% cu and 40% zinc
56 - which metal shows non-magnet and reacts rapidly with nitric acid A - nickle steel
57 - a knurl or groove on the barrel indicates A - left hand thread
58 - damged internal thread can be repaired by A - acress sleeve, helicoils, replacement bushings ,
All
59 - ESDS is dangerous above A - 100 volts
60 - piezo elec crystals are made from A - quartz and freq depends on thickness
61 - to provide a low reluctance path for magentic flux in a dc generator A - pole pieces and shoes
are used to reduce the air gap
62 - NDT methods used for composite structures A - coin tap test, laser holography , thermography ,
all
63 - bonding during fuelin A - first bond aircraft then vehicle and both aircraft and vehicle shld be
bonded together
64 - MTCS regarding nicd batt A - electrolyt doesnt take part during discharge
65 - a fully serviced nicd batt , white diposits found on top of batt casing A - due to overcharge
66 - band color on hose and piping equipment for 100ll fuel A - blue
67 - a shorted capacitor when connected to a ohm meter will read A - ???
68 - difference b/w shunt register as compared to series register in an operational amplifier A 69 - draw back of transistor when compared to vacuum tubes is A - they are heat dependant
70 - power factor is A - true power/ aparent power and cos theeta
71 - MTCS regarding themocouple A - heat is directly propotional to square of the current
72 - wich capacitor has high capacity and long storage life A - tantalum
73 - engine starter motor contains wht elements A - ??
74 - elements required for corrosion A - electrodes and electrolyte
75 - the charge on one electrode depends on A - the other electrode
76 - wich is the least toxic xtinguisher A - 1301
77 - in oxyacetelyne welding its a good practice to turn off A - acetylene first then oxygen
78 - tinnin is the process of A - the soldring bit should be tinned or coverd with solder bfore solderin
79 - wich is an 8 bit register A - MDR
80 - covert decimal 12 to excess 3 code A ??
81 - diagram of or - not gate A - all
82 - MTCS if all inputs are high then output is low A - positve or / negative and..... etc
83 - during rigging of control surface no weight shld be added A - behind the hinge line
84 - calculate the speed of gear A - 120
85 - induction type measurin instrument A - all
86 - thermocouple used in engines. what is the indication when at constant temp A ??
87 - manifold pr gauge measures in A - mercury - hg
88 - MTCS A - turbo jet is a combination of turbofan + turbo prop
89 - collet jack A ??
90 - towin of aircraft A - make sure brake is fully charged - if brake is faulty den person shld carry

chokes incase of emrgency


91 - MTCS A - little thrust , large volume of air
92 - scratches or craks durin flight can lead to A - corrosion
93 - color of o-rings used for hydrocarbons A red

DGCA PAPER II, (October Session 2012)


DGCA PAPER II
Aircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices
(October Session 2012)
Q1 Flap which increases wing area, camber & chord line
a) Split flap
b) Fowler flap*
c) Zap flap
d) Slotted flap
Q2. Kirchhoffs current law is applicable only to
a) Closed loop in a network
b) Electronic circuit
c) Electrical circuit
d) Junction in a network*
Q3. Metal tubing is sized by
a) Inside diameter measured by 1/8 inch
b) Outside diameter measured by 1/32 inch
c) Inside diameter measured by 1/32 inch
d) Outside diameter measured by 1/16 inch*
Q4. In UST the pulse echo system is used for
a) Surface crack
b) Subsurface Crack
c) Weld flaws
d) All*
Q5. The content of general purpose solder is
a) Tin, lead, antimony
b) Tin & lead*
c) Tin, lead, silver
d) None
Q6. Color of 100LL Avgas hose stripe/band is painted with
a) Red
b) Blue*
c) Yellow
d) Grey
Q7. Color of O-ring for hydrocarbon fluid is
a) Red *
b) Blue
c) Green
d) Black
Q8. Large a/c have been jacked in open
a) Headed into wind direction*
b) Headed opposite to wind direction
c) Headed at right angle to wind direction

d) It will be placed inside the hanger only


Q9. Corrosion on magnesium is cleaned by
a) Chromium 10% in distilled water
b) Sulphuric acid solution 0.1%
c) 10% by weight of chromic acid + .1% of sulphuric acid *
Q10. What is the correct procedure to extinguish the flame of oxy acetylene flame?
a) 1st close the oxygen & then the acetylene
b) Close both gas cylinders at the same time
c) 1st close acetylene & then oxygen*
d) All
Q11. EICAS is
a) Engine indicating & crew alerting system *
b) Engine indicating & crew announcing system
c) Electronic indicating & crew alerting system
d) Engine indicating & component alerting system
Q12. For removing damaged rivet which type of punch is used
a) Prick punch
b) Drive or Taper punch*
a) Hollow punch
b) Both (a) & (b)
Q13. For converting the galvanometer to the voltmeter connect
a) High resistance in series with meter resistance*
b) Low resistance in series with meter resistance
c) High resistance in parallel with meter resistance
d) Low resistance in parallel with meter resistance
Q14. To make the ferrous vastly superior
a) Carbon is added with iron by 1.25% to 1.5%
b) Carbon is added approx 1%*
c) Nickel & chromium added by 2.5 to 2.75%
d) Copper added 0.5%
Q15. In an inductor circuit the current
a) Lags voltage by /2*
b) Leads voltage by /2
c) Lags voltage /2 when current is less, but leads voltage /2 when current is more
d) Has no effect
Q16. The Al alloy is more susceptible to corrosion if small %age of______ is added
a) Mg
b) Cu*
c) Si
d) Fe
Q17. R.MS value of half wave circuit current is 10 amps, what will its value for full wave
a) 14.14 amps*
b) 20 amps
c) 20/
d) 14.14/
Q18. Electrostatic device service equipments can be destroyed by the min. voltage of
a) 50V
b) 100V*
c) 3000V
d) 1000V*

Q19. What will happen when current flowing through two parallel conductors in upward & same
direction
a) The field strength b/w two conductors increases
b) The field strength b/w two conductors decreases & conductors attract towards each other*
c) As in (a) & attracts each other
d) Will have no effect
Q20. ATA100 code 27 deals with
a) Air condition
b) Autopilot
c) Fire protection
d) Flight control*
Q21. For operating primary flight controls, the cable which i.e. extra flexible is
a) 77
b) 719*
c) 197
d) Only (a) is correct
Q22. In the turn buckle the end identified by a groove or knurl has which type of thread
a) Right hand thread
b) Left hand thread*
c) There are no thread, as it is push locked
Q23. While storing the aircraft in the hanger
a) The fuel tank should be kept empty
b) The fuel tank should be filled*
c) The fuel tank should be filled to the half of its value
d) The condition of filling oil will depend on the duration of storage
Q24. Depending on the grade it is suitable for use in temp. -65 to 300F ,with phosphate ester,
hydraulic fluid , ketones
a) Neoprene
b) Butyl*
c) Natural rubber
d) Buna S
Q25. The riv-nut is
a) Hollow blind rivet*
b) Solid blind rivet
c) Special solid rivet
Q26. The spark test is used for sorting out which type of metals
a) Non ferrous
b) Ferrous metals *
c) Both ferrous & non ferrous
d) Nickel alloys
Q27.The damaged threads are replaced by
a) The thread bushing
b) The helical insert
c) The Acres fastener sleeves
d) All are correct*
Q28. Cables are having
a) High mechanical strength &high weight
b) Cable linkage problem ,as its tension need to be adjusted frequently*
c) It has low mechanical strength
d) All are correct

Q29. Scratches caused by careless handling and abrasion from grit or water striking a/c at high
speed
a) Provide starting for corrosion *
b) Develop crack to the structure
c) Filiform corrosion
d) All are correct
Q30. Least count of vernier caliper having 10 division divided into 9 division of main scale in mm is
a) 0.01 mm
b) O.01 cm
c) 0.10 cm
d) 1.0 mm
Q31. Convert binary 12 excess-3 code
a) 0101 1100
b) 1000 1011
c) 0100 0101*
d) 0000 0011
Q32. Identify the gate
a) OR & NOT gate*
b) NOT & OR gate
c) Bubbled AND gate
d) All
Q33. Regarding servicing of oxygen MTCS
a) Oxygen should not be serviced while fuelling is in progress*
b) While servicing with oxygen, must be carried inside the hangar
c) MEDICAL OXYGEN must always be used for breathing in a/c
d) ALL
Q34. What will be the speed of 3rd gear
a) 100rpm
b) 120rpm*
c) 50rpm
d) 200rpm
Q35.identify the taxi signal (Fig. page no. 521)
a) Left turn*
b) Right turn
c) Landing
d) Start engine
Q36. Regarding thermocouple ammeter which one is true?
a) It is based on Thomsan principal
b) Pointer is attached to the hot junction of thermocouple
c) Heat generated is proportional to square of current*
d) All
Q37. For the statement Output is low when all inputs are high gates are
a) Positive OR/ Negative AND
b) Positive AND/ Negative OR
c) Positive OR/ Negative NAND
d) Positive NAND/ Negative NOR*
Q38. Engine starting motor draws high current in initial & at normal Rpm current is reduced, which
fuse is used
a) Slow Blow fuse*
b) Glass cartridge fuse

c) F
d) Fuse that melts immediately
Q39. Which of the true about induction instrument
a) Large error in reading alternating current has a different frequency from calibration frequency
b) Power consumption is fairly high
c) Variation in temperature may cause large error
d) ALL
Q40. Capacitor is used in particular circuit is determined by
a) Size of capacitor
b) Type of capacitor
c) Amount of Voltage it can withstand*
d) Current Rating
Q41. An operational amplifier shunt regulator differ from the series regulator in the sense that its
control element is connected in
a) Series with line register*
b) Parallel with line register
c) Parallel with load register
d) Parallel with input voltage
Q42. Magnetic circuit of DC gen. consists of
a) Yoke, pole core, armature core, air gap b/w pole & armature core*
b) Pole core, pole coil, brushes and air gap
c) Pole core , armature winding, commutator and air gap
Q43. Which composite material has problem of corrosion
a) Carbon /graphite*
b) Aramid
c) Boron
d) Glass fibre
Q44. Which type of heat treatment is used for aluminium alloy
a) SHT
b) PHT
c) Annealing
d) All*
Q45. The gear that transmits motion in the shaft that are parallel to each other & that are not
parallel to each other
a) Spur gear
b) Worm gear
c) Helical gear*
d) Bevel gear
Q46. Internal Defects in the composites are checked by
a) Coin tap test
b) UST
c) Laser holography
d) All*
Q47. The magnetic test of distinguish b/w annealed austenite indicating the non-magnetic & rapid
action & greenish blue indication with nitric acid is
a) Pure nickel
b) Nickel steel*
c) Monel
d) 18-8 steel
Q48. The permanent magnet type instrument will have

a) High power consumption


b) Low torque/weight ratio*
c) Not much affected by stray magnetic field
d) Large hysteresis loss
Q49. Piezoelectric effect
a) Compression quartz And produce potential difference
b) As in (a), but frequency depends on thickness*
Q50. Spark plug fires in which stroke of piston engine
a) Induction stroke
b) Compression stroke*
c) Power stroke
d) Exhaust stroke
Q51. In case of class-D fire, extinguisher used is
a) Water
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Foam
d) Dry powder*
Q52. Which extinguisher is having least toxic rating
a) Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301)*
b) Methylebromide (Halon 1001)
c) Chlorobromomethane (Halon 1011)
d) Bromochlorodifluoromethane (Halon 1211)
Q53. Which drawing locate the component with respect to each other within system
a) Schematic drawing*
b) Installation drawing
c) Diagram
d) Drawing
Q54. Quick release fasteners are usually identified by
a) AN
b) NAS
c) MS
d) Factory Trade name*
Q55. The anode to cathode potential of a gas filled tube at which gas deionises & stops conduction
is called ______ potential
a) Extinction*
b) Striking
c) Ionising
d) All
Q56. In a diode if, MTCS
a) Arrowhead is positive with respect to bar, it is in reverse biased
b) Arrowhead is negative with respect to bar, it is in reverse biased*
c) bar is negative with respect to arrowhead, it is in reverse biased
d) only (a) is correct
Q57. Capacitor which is used for high frequency application in very small capacitance value in small
size
a) Chip Capacitor
b) Tantalum Capacitor
c) Aluminium capacitor
d) Ceramic capacitor*
Q58. When Pd is increased then a point is reached when a faint luminous spark of bluish color

appears along the length of conductor, this effect is known as


a) Spark discharge
b) Corona discharge*
c) Voltage discharge
d) All
Q59. MTCS, Precipitation heat treatment is given to
a) Al alloys heating to a predetermined temperature & then soaking at specified length of time*
a) Al alloys heating to a predetermined temperature & then soaking at specified length of time at
room temperature
b) Steels heating to a predetermined temperature & then soaking at specified length of time
e) Ferrous & Iron heating to a predetermined temperature & then soaking at specified length of
time
Q60. MTCS,
a) Brinell hardness number indicates the dia. Of impression
b) Lesser the Rockwell no., softer the material
c) Greater the Rockwell no., softer the material
Q61. In Ni-Cd battery electrolyte used is
a) KOH
b) Dil. H2SO4
c) KOH, but effected
d) KOH , but unaffected *
Q62. In the battery when excessive white crystals deposited on the cell indicates
a) Due to the battery overcharged*
b) Due to battery uncharged
c) State of charge
d) Does not effected by rate of charge
Q63. Current transformer is
a) Step up transformer*
b) Step down transformer
c) It has only one secondary winding
d) Connected in parallel
Q64. They spread out the flux in the air gap & also being of larger cross section reduce the
reluctance of the magnetic path & support the exciting coils
a) Pole shoes*
b) Armature core
c) Armature core & pole coils
d) Brushes & bearings
Q65. In Step up transformer winding ratio is 1:2, and then output will be
a) Current is doubled
b) Current is half*
c) Will have no effect
d) Voltage will be half
Q66. Power factor defined as
a) Effective/apparent power
b) Cosine angle of phase difference
c) Both (a) & (b)*
d) Apparent/effective & sine angle of phase difference
Q67. Which frequency is used in medium & long distance point to point transmission?
a) MF
b) HF*
c) VHF

d) UHF
Q68. Ventral fin are used for
a) Aids in longitudinal stability
b) Aids in lateral stability
c) Aids in directional stability*
d) Any of the above
Q69. 8 bit register that stores the memory o/p when a memory read operation is performed
a) MAR
b) MDR*
a) IR
b) PC
Q70. Why additives are added in AVGAS
a) To reduce microbial growth in tank
b) To increase the freeze point of fuel
c) To reduce detonation
d) Both (a) & (b)*
Q71. Aerofoil shape found in
a) Wing, stabilizer, propeller,etc.*
b) Wing, fuselage, elevator, aileron
c) Nose of fuselage, wing tip, stabilizers etc.
d) All are correct
Q72. Muntz metal composed of
a) Brass containing 60% cu &40% zn*
b) Bronze containing 60% cu& 40% tin
c) Brass containing 60% zn & 40% cu
d) It is the cu alloy containing mg, ni, al etc.
Q73. Modulus of elasticity can be defined as
a) Stress/ strain within yield point
b) Stress/strain within elastic limit*
c) Stress/strain above elastic limit
d) Strain/stress within yield point
Q74.which of the following allows to pass the current, when the circuit is reverse biased, by
breakdown
a) Zener diode*
b) Pnp transistor
c) Triode
d) All are correct
Q75. To change a tyre of a wheel which jack is used?
a) single wheel jack*
b) tripod jack
c) quaderal jack
d) any of the above
Q76. In repair or control surfaces, weight should not be added
a) ahead of hinge line
b) surface will be painted to match with surrounding
c) behind hinge line*
d) mass should be added splice used for repair one size larger
Q77. Kevlar can be identified as
a) white colour
b) strength is 4 times of al alloy*

c) both are correct


Q78. Basic generator consists of
a) Electric field and conductor
b) magnetic field and conductor*
c) magnetic field and inductor
Q79. To reduce the stress corrosion from the sheet
a) increase tensile strength
b) relieving compressive stress by HTMT
c) increase compressive stress by shot blasting*
Q80. Angle of acme thread
a) 90
b) 60
c) 45
d) 29*
Q81. Working principle or air speed indicator
a) Differential pressure of static probes
b) Difference in pressures around the probe
c) Differential pressure of static and pitot probe*
d) Pressure difference b/w static and atmospheric Pressure
Q82.computer which receives data & do not transfer data
a) MAR & IR only*
b) ALU & PC
c) IR & ALU
Q83. Manifold pressure gage measures
a) Absolute pressure in inches of mercury*
b) Relative pressure in inches of mercury
c) Absolute pressure in lb/ft sq.
Q84. MTCS regarding meggar
a) It measures insulation in range of milliohms
b) Two coils are mounted at right angle to each other on a common axis free to rotate in magnetic
field*
c) Two coils are mounted linear to each other on a common axis free to rotate in magnetic field
d) none
Q85. MTCS
a) propeller produces small acceleration to large amount of air*
b) turbojet produces small acceleration to large amount of air
c) turbojet is the comprises b/w turbofan and turboprop
d) all are correct
Q86. Movable Parts of micrometre are
a) Anvil and barrel are fixed and thimble is moving*
b) Anvil is moving and thimble is fixed
c) Spindle and anvil are fixed
d) Barrel and thimble are moveable
Q87. Which drawing is used where exact location of part & more view are required
a) assembly drawing
b) orthographic drawing*
c) pictorial drawing
d) installation drawing
Q88. Transistor is used over vaccum tube yet having drawbacks

a) transistor have low power dissipation


b) transistor have low input impedance
c) Transistor is dependent on TEMP. variation
d) all are correct*
Q89. What is tinning?
a) The bit should be heated to a temp. sufficient to melt the solder
b) The tip of the bit should be filed to remove dirt and rough edges
c) The bit should be coated with flux and rubbed against a stick of solder until a thin film of solder
adheres to it
d) All are correct*
Q90. When fuelling is done grounding should be
a) First ground a/c then truck
b) Ground a/c & truck both together
c) As in (a) & nozzle is bonded to truck
d) Both (a) & (b)*
Q91. The standard position of the taxi signalmen is
(a) Slightly ahead of & in line with the a/c left wing tip
(b) As the signalmen faces the a/c , the nose of the a/c is on his left
(c) Slightly ahead of & in line with the a/c right wing tip
(d) Both (a) & (b)*
Q92. Operation of a/c with faulty brakes, must be towed
(a) The a/c break system should be charged before each towing operation
(b) The tow tractor must have the brakes in serviceable condition
(c) In case of emergency ,One person stands with the chokes to apply
(d) Both (a)& (b)*
Q93. Which affect the longitudinal control?
(a) Aileron
(b) Elevator*
(c) Tail plane
(d) Rudder
Q94. In case of short circuit of capacitor
(a) Ohm meter will read infinity
(b) Needle of ohm meter can lie anywhere (Needle of ohm meter can move anywhere)
(c) It will read zero then deflect
(d) Reads zero & stays there
Q95. For starting an engine Starter generator requires
(a) High resistance & short time
(b) Low resistance & short time
(c) Low resistance & more time
(d) High resistance & more time
Q96. Conditions for corrosion to occur
a) Presence of positive electrode (Anode)
b) Presence of Dissimilar metal (Cathode)
c) Presence of electrolyte
d) Contact b/w anode & cathode
(1) (a) & (b)
(2) (a), (b) & (c) only*
(3) (a), (b), (c) & (d)
(4) None
Q97. Regarding thermocouple ------ Reference value & actual value
Q98. High lifting device includes
a) Slot
b) Flap
c) Boundary layer control device
d) All are correct*
Q99. MTCS
a) Collet should be kept within two threads of the lift tube cylinder during raising

b) Collet should be kept more than two threads while raising


c) Screw down firmly to the cylinder after jacking is completed to prevent settling
d) Both( a) & (c)*
Q100. Potential difference of an electrode in a cell is measured in the strength of one electrode in
respect with
(a) Other electrode*
(b) Cu electrode
(c) NI electrode
(d) Zn electrode

DCGA. PAPER 2 [JUN SESSION 2012]


1. General purpose solder are
a.Tin, lead and copper
b.Tin, lead,copper and Bismuth
c.Tin and lead
d.Tin,lead and bismuth

PAPER 2 [JUN 2012]

2. Close 3 fit is
a.Loose fit
b.Free fit
c.medium fit
d.close fit
3. EICAS strands for
a.Engine indicating and crew altering system
b.Engine indicating and aunciating system
c.Electronic instrument and crew aunciating
d.Electronic instrument and centralize audio system
4. Illustrate part catalog use
a.detail drawing
b.exploded view drawing
c.pictorial drawing
d.isometric drawing
5. A metal which can be hammered,rolled or pressed into various shapes without cracking,breaking
or leaving some other detrimental effect
a.ductility
b.malleability
c.elasticity
d.toughne
6. Product is vastly superior to iron alone
a.when carbon added to iron in approx.12.5%
b. when carbon added to iron in approx.5%
c. when carbon added to iron in approx.1%
d. when carbon added to iron in approx.10%
7. Corrosion resistance 18-8 steel contain
a.18%nickel and 8%chromium
b.18%vandium and 8%chromium

c.18%chromium and 8%nickel


d.8%chromium and 18%molybdenum
8. Which type of aluminum used in aircraft construction for stringer,bulkheads,skin,rivets and
extruded section
a.cast aluminum
b.wrought aluminum
c.Sand cast aluminum
d.both (a) & (b)
9. Convert octal code 3574 to binary
a. 011 101 111 100
b. 100 111 101 011
c. 111 101 011 111
10. Corrosion along grain boundaries is called
a. Intergranular corrosion
b. Crevice corrosion
c. Galvanic corrosion
d. stress corrosion
11.Metal tubings are sized by
a. Inside diameter in increment of 1/16 inch
b. Inside diameter in increment of 1/32 inch
c. Outside diameter in increment of 1/16 inch
d. Outside diameter in increment of 1/32 inch
12. Yellow color on tubing indicate
a. Hydraulic
b. Lubrication
c. Coolant
13.Kirchhoffis current law applicable to
a.closed loop ckt
b.single loop ckt
c.junction ckt
14. .When selscting capacitor for ckt parameter should be consider
a.size
b.shape
c.maximum voltage can be applied
15 .In 3 star connection
a. Voltage of line is equal to voltage of phase
b. Line current = 3 phase current
c. Line current = phase current
16.Two input bubbled AND gate is
a. OR gate
b. AND gate
c. NAND gate
d. NOR gate
17.Material use for making wrench
a.chrome-nickel steel
b.molybdenum steel
c.chrome vanadium steel
d.chromium steel
18.The half wave rectifier current is 10A then what is full wave rectifier current

a.14.14A
b.20A
c.20/A
d.40/a
19.Micrometer calibration checked by
a.metal gauge
b.dial test indicator
c.surface gauge
20..Five layer semiconductor device whose forward and reverse characteristics are identical to the
forward characteristics of the SCR
a.variac
b.triac
c.SCR
d.UJT
21..Amplification of single stage CE depends on
a.A.C resistance
b.Emitter resistance
c.load resistance.
22. In four stroke engine spark plug fires in
a. 4 revolutions of crank shaft
b. 2 revolutions of crank shaft
c. revolutions of crank shaft
d. 360 degree revolution of crank shaft
23.Frequencies used in ultrasonic are in the frequency range of
a. 100 KHz to 5 MHz
b. 200 KHz to 5 MHz
c. 500 KHz to 10 MHz
d. 10MHZ to 1000 MHZ
23. Electro static is dangerous if above
a. 1000 V
b. 100 V
c. 200 V
d. 500 V
24. 240 on capacitor indicates
a. 240 microf
b. 240 picof
c. 240000 f
25. Demultiplexer is
a. Output is same as multiplexer
b. Output is opposite of multiplexer
c. As in (B) ccu is used
26. cable of medium flexibility and is used for trim tab controls, engine controls, and indicator
controls is
a. 7 X 7
b. 7 X 19
c. Cable sizes ranges from 1/16 to 3/8
27. Convert C5F2 to binary
a. 1100 0101 1111 0010
b. 0010 1111 0101 1100

c. 0010 1001 0111 1100


28. Data transfer in computer is by
a. Series bus
b. Parallel bus
c. Data bus
d. ARINC 429 bus
29. 33xx indicates in wrought aluminum indicates
a. Copper
b. Manganese
c. Magnesium
d. Silicon
30. Soft brazing temperature is
a. 200c to 400c
b. 400c to 600c
c. 600c to 850c
31. Files used for filing internal angles, clearing out corners, and filing taps and cutters
a. Triangular
b. Triangular and three square
c. Knife
d.
32. Leveling of aircraft is carried out by
a. Placing spirit level at the pilot seat
b. Placing spirit level at..
c. Placing a plumb bob..
d.
33. If rf and af is present, af is desired it can be filtered using
a. LPF
b. HPF
c. Either 1 or 2
d. filter
34. Highest tensile strength is of which composite
a. Fiberglass
b. Aramid
c. Carbon/graphite
d. Boron
35. If the peak value is 100 volts then at an angle of 30 what is the instantaneous value
a. 50 V
b. 100 V
c. 150 V
d. 200 V
36. In a DC generator the bearings are cooled by
a. By ring oilers
b. By ring oilers and a separate line from oil reservoir supplies oil
c.
37. Magnesium sheets are riveted
a. 5056
b. 2024
c. 2117
38. A dimple in rivet head marking indicates

a. 1100
b. 2117
c. 2014
d. 2024
39. Aluminium alloy of 2 thickness can be welded by
a. Oxy acetylene
b. Electric arc
c. Inert gas
d. All
40. Lift producing device which has no mechanical propulsion
a. Aerodyne
b. Glider
c. Aeroship
41. Airspeed of aircraft 100 mph from A to B .and wind velocity from A to B is 20 mph
Speed of aircraft in ground is
a. 100
b. 120
c. 20
d. 80
42. Colour of hydraulic pipelines
a. Blue-yellow
b. Red-yellow
c. Blue
d. Red
43. Temperature at stratosphere
a. -57 C
44. Piezo quartz crystal produces
a. Piezo electric effect
b. As in (A) frequency depends upon thickness
45. Bolt used in shear type load
a. Clevis bolt
b. Jo bolt
c. Eye bolt
46. Turnbuckles
a. Made of brass and has right hand thread on a one side and left hand thread on other side
47. Occurance of events in piston engine
a. Intake ,compression,ignition, power,exhaust
48. In spur gear
a. Pitch dia and diametrical pitch= no. of teeth
b. Pitch dia = diametrical pitch
c. Addendum *pitch circle =no of teeth
49. Clipper
a. Uses a diode and resistor
b. As in (A) dc supply is required to select the level
50. Radiography depends upon
a. Thickness
b. Density and size
c. Both

51. Why MOSFET has high input resistance


a. Very less leakage current
b. Negative source and gate
c. Because of depletion layer
d. No channel
52. 8085 microprocessor the operand
a. Direct addressing
53. Gear rack meshed with gear
a. Rotatary motion to reciprocating motion
54. Lead acid batt compartment neutralizing agent
a. Bicarbonate soda
b. Boric acid
c. Vinegar
d. All
55. Wattmeter error occurs
a. Connection different
b. Capacitance in voltage coil
c. Both a and b
d. Both are in correct
56. AN470-H-4-4 rivet . drill used is
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
57. Galvanometer to voltmeter
a. Low resistance in series
b. High resistance in parallel
58. In pure inductive circuit
a. Current lags behind the voltage by pi/2
59. Which flap when extended both area and camber
a. Plain flap
b. Split flap
c. Fowler flap
d. Leading edge flap
60. While drilling MTCS
a. Drill should be shrap and grounded
b. point should be marked with center punch
c. Drill jig prevent error
d. all
61. Heat treatment for Mg
a. Solution heat treated
b. Precipitation heat treatment
c. Case hardening
62. Hybrid in composite means
a. Two or more different layer of reinforcing material
63. Identical insulated wire coils are hung from air so that they face each other and AC current is
supplied

a. Attract
b. Repel
c. Rotate in clockwise
d. Rotate in anticlockwise
64. While removing a control surface
a. Ensure no weight should be added ahead of hinge
b. Ensure no weight should be added behind the hinge
65. Diagram extension bar
66. Diagram- NAS close tolerance bolt
67. Diagram flute in drill
68. Diagram one lug anchor nut
69. Diagram circuit breaker
70. Diagram bearing
a.
71. If a rudder pedal is pushed to right
a. Aircraft moves right
b. Rudder mover left
c. Aircraft rolls
72. The V-I characteristics
a. Diode
b. Transistor
c. Varistor
73. Aluminium dope is used in aircraft
a. Used to protect against UV rays from sunlight
b. Good finish
74. Lead acid batt the temp increase
a. Resistance increase
b. Capacitance increase
75. Ammeter used for
a. Connect across batt
b. Connect across the generator
c. Show the charge and discharge batt
76. In SAE numbering system the 1st two digits indicates
a. Type of steel
b. Major alloying element
c. Percentage of carbon
77. In transformer the magnetic flux is retained in primary core at no load for
a. Copper loss
b. Iron loss
c. Retentivity
78. Which part is non movable in micrometer
a. Barrel and anvil are non moveable and thimble is movable
79. Two wire are parallel to each other and current given in same direction
a. Field strength reduces and attract each other

80. The magnetic ckt in DC generator consist of


a. Magnetic filed and conductor
b. Magnetic field and inductor
c. Electrostatic field and conductor
81. Permanent magnet type used in instruments
a. Less offered by stray current
b. Low torque/weight ratio
82. DC generator consist of
a. Yoke,pole core,air gap
b. Pole core,armature winding,airgap,commutator
83. In identifying metals .metal shows non magnetic and shows rapid action,greenish blue
a. Carbon
b. Pure nickel
c. Monel
d. Nickel
84. Which of the following parts in basic computer ,receives data and do not do transfer
a. MAR and IR
b. ALU and IR
c. Programming counter and ALU
85. SCR
a. Two junction
b. Three junction
c. Two junction are forward biased and two junction reverse biased
86. A well riveted joint should oppose
a. Shear
b. Torsion
c. Compression
87. Air spray gun sprayed a banana shape because of
a. High atomized
b. Low atomized
c. Full pressure and tip clogged
88. Mark correct statement regarding control cable
a. Cable linkage has the disadvantage that tension must be adjusted frequently due to stretching
and temperature changes.
b. Low mechanical efficiency
c. High strength and weight
89. Operational amplifier
90. Find resistance and current in the ckt(could not show diagram)
a. 12ohm and 5 ampere
91. In the circuit shown in the figure, calculate the value of value of unknown resistor R when the
current in branch OC is zero.
(DIAGRAM)
a. 6 V
92. If the input of half wave rectifier is 240 V and transformer has a step down ratio of 8:1, what is
the output peak value?
a. 42.2 V
b. 30 V

93. Find resistance


a. 0.667 ohm
b. 0.0667 ohm
c. 0.00667 ohm
d. 0.000667 ohm

DGCA PAPER II (Feb Session 2012)


DGCA PAPER II
Aircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices
(Feb Session 2012)
1. fires in flammable petroleum products or other flammable or combustible liquids, greases, solvents, paints,
etc is classified as
a. class A fire
b. class B fire
c. class C fire
2. Heat treatment of aluminum consists of
a. Solution heat treatment
b. Precipitation Heat Treatment
c. Annealing
d. All of the above
3. If distance of cg from datum is 160 and of leading edge of MAC is 140 and length of MAC is 100. Find
MAC %
a. 20%
b. 50%
c. 75%
4. If the input of half wave rectifier is 240 V and transformer has a step down ratio of 8:1, what is the output rms
value?
a. 42.2 V
b. 30V
5. Demultiplexer is
a. Output is same as multiplexer
b. Output is opposite of multiplexer
c. As in b CCU regulates in input and output
6. Which of them is a 5 layer device
a. Diac
b. Triac
7. Convert octal code 3574 to binary
a. 011 101 111 100
b. 100 111 101 011
c. 111 101 011 111
8. A metal which can be hammered, rolled, or pressed into various shapes without cracking, breaking, or leaving
some other detrimental effect, is said to be
a. Malleable
b. Ductility

9. MTCS regarding Austenite is


a. The name given to steel when it is heated above the critical range, consists of a solid solution of cementite in
gamma iron.
10. Data transfer in a/C is by
a. Series bus
b. Parallel bus
c. Data bus
d. ARINC 429 bus
11. Speed of induction motor is increased when
a. Number of poles is increased
b. Number of poles is reduced
c.
d. All of the above
12. MTCS
a. turboprop engine requires lengthy runway than piston engine of same power
b. turbojet has more weight than piston engine of same power
c. turbofan required short runway as compare to turbojet
d. all of the above
13. Yellow color stands for
a. Hydraulic
b. Lubrication
c. Coolant
14. Illustrated parts catalog shows which drawing
a. Orthographic
b. Exploded view diagram
c.
15. Pulse echo method can detect which defects
a. Welds flaw
b. Surface crack
c. Subsurface defect
d. All of the above
16. Corrosion along grain boundaries is called
a. Intergranular corrosion
b. Crevice corrosion
c. Galvanic corrosion
17. Aluminum is more susceptible to corrosion when substantial percentage of __________ is present
a. Magnesium
b. Copper
c. Manganese
d. Chromium
18. We can get vastly superior product than iron If carbon is added to iron, in percentages ranging up to
a. Approximately 0.5 percent.
b. Approximately 1 percent.
c. If Nickel 3.50%, chromium 1.55% is present
19. Which resistor has the smallest possible size
a. Wire wound resistor
b. Carbon composition resistor
c. Surface mount resister
20. While selecting a capacitor check for
a. Voltage
b. Size
c. type
d. How much voltage it can withstand
21. Metal tubings are sized by

a. Inside diameter in increment of 1/16 inch


b. Inside diameter in increment of 1/32 inch
c. Outside diameter in increment of 1/16 inch
d. Outside diameter in increment of 1/32 inch
22. Stringers, bulkhead, skin, rivet and extruded section are made from
a. Cast aluminum alloy
b. Wrought aluminum alloy
c. Pure aluminum
23. Two input bubbled AND gate is
a. OR gate
b. AND gate
c. NAND gate
d. NOR gate
24. Slots provided on the armature are not parallel but are staggered at an angle to provide
a. Safety
b. Reduce the humming noise
c. Stability.
d. ..
25. In 18-8 steel 18% is composed of
a. Nickel
b. chromium
c. ..
d. ..
26. Parco- lubrizing is a chemical treatment applicable to
a. Aluminum and magnesium parts
b. Iron and steel parts
c. ..
27. Damaged rivets can be removed by
a. Drive punch
b. Prick punch
c. Hollow punch
d. Both a and b
28. Value of induced emf depends upon
a. Number of wires moving through magnetic field
b. Strength of magnetic field
c. Speed of rotation
d. All of the above
29. If the peak value is 100 volts then at an angle of 30 what is the instantaneous value
a. 50 V
b. 100 V
c. 150 V
d. 200 V
30 Wrenches are made of
a) Carbon steel b) Tungsten c) Chrome vanadium steel
31 The type of torque wrench which has the ability to preset the torque
a) Deflecting beam b) rigid frame c) micrometer setting type
32 Fire extinguisher periodic checklist include
a) remove all external dirt and dust
b) check for proper weight
c) no nozzle obstruction
d) all of the above
33 The drag which is contributed by the lift
a) induced drag
b) parasite drag
c) profile drag
34 In straight and level flight
a) lift equals drag and drag is the resistance of the air to objects moving through it
b) thrust equals weight and thrust is derived from jet propulsion or from a propeller and engine combination
c) lift equals weight but thrust equals drag
d) all are correct

35 Variable delivery pump in hydraulic system


36 devices which make it possible to obtain more than one voltage from a single power source
a) Current divider
b) Potential divider
c) Resistance divider
d) All are correct
37 The property of a coil to oppose any change in the current flowing through it called
a) Inductance
b) Capacitance
c) Resistance
d) All of the above
38 Maximum allowable weight without fuel
1. Pay load
2. Zero fuel weight
39 medium threads is
a) Class 1 b) class 2 c) class 3
40 Tied down of large a/c
a) Cable b) rope c) chain d) any of the above
41 aluminum alloy head marking
a) 2 raised dash b ) single raised dash c) astric mark
42 which bolt is used only in tension never in tension
a) Clevis b) eye bolt
43 A thread running length of the fabric
a) Warp b)weft
44 Cable MTCS
a) Frequent adjustment of the cable tension
b) Low mechanical efficiency
c) High strong and high weight
d) all
45 what is an alternator
a) Ac current generator b) dc generator c)ac motor
46 In large a/c dc supply comes from
a) battery only
b) b) battery &TRU
c) c) battery and generator
47 CRT COLOUR
1. Red, green, blue
2. Yellow, red ,green
48 EICAS
1. Engine indicating and crew alerting system
49 RMS value in half wave is 10 amp, what will be the rms value if it is full wave rectified
1. 14.14 amp
2. 20/p amp
3. 40/p amp
50 Zone numbers on aircraft blue prints are used to
1. Locate parts, sections and views on large drawing
2. Indicate different section of aircraft
3. Locate parts in aircraft
51 Which type crack can be detected by MpI using either circular or longitudinal method?
1. 450
2. Longitudinal
3. Transever
52 What Al-alloy designation indicate that the metal has received no hardening or tempering treatment
1. 3003-F
2. 5052-H36
3. 6061-0
53 What tasks are completed prior to weighing an a/c to determine its empty wt?
1. Remove all items except those on a/c equipment list, drain fuel and hydraulic fluid
2. Remove all items on a/c equipment list, drain fuel, compute oil and hydraulic fluid lot
3. Remove all items except those on a/c equipment list, drain fuel and fill hydraulic reservoir

54 Zero fuel wt. is


a) Dry wt. plus the wt. of full crew, passengers and cargo basic operating wt. without crew, fuel and cargo
b) Maximum permissible wt. of a loaded a/c ( passengers, crew and cargo) without fuel
55 The core material of alclad 2024 T4 is
a) Heat treated Al. alloy internally and the surface material is commercially pure Al.
b) Commercially pure Al. and the surface material is head treated Al. alloy
Stain hardened Al. alloy and the surface is pure Al
56 Which number represents the vernier scale uraduation of a m/m
1. .00001
2. .001
3. .0001
57 Which too is generally used to calibrate a m.m or check its accuracy
1. Gauge block
2. DTI
3. Machinist scale
58 Kirchof current law applicable only for
1. Closed loop 2.Junction network 3. Open ckt
59 Fretting corrosion is mostly likely to occur
1. When two surfaces fit tightly together but can move relative to one another
2. When two distance metals are in contact
3. When two surfaces fit loosely together but can move relative to one another
60 Spilled mercury on aluminium
1. Urgently increases susceptibility to hydrogen imbrutement
2. May cause impaired corrosion resistance if left in proposed contact
3. Causes rapid end severe corrosion that is very difficult to control d) all
61 Direction of single phase motor can be reversed by
1. Using reversible switch
2. Changing the connection of both winding
3. Changing the connection of stating winding
62 Flux is used for
1. Reduce oxidation
2. Remove the oxides
4. All
63 O ring color code indicates
1. Size
2. Shape
3. Vapour and fluid compatibility
Q64. Which cable has high resistance to fatigue?
1. Galvanized
2. Stainless steel
3. Carbon steel
65 Which brazing method is used for precious by localized parts
1. Induction
2. Torch brazing
3) Resistance brazing
4. Furnace brazing
66 When all others parameters are remains unchanged
1. Less the aspect ratio, more the induce drag
2. More the aspect ratio less the induce drag
3. Higher the angle of attack, higher the induce drag
4. Higher the angle of attack, less the induce drag
67 In orthographic projection
1. Eight veiws are common
2. Two vines are common
3. One view, two view and three views are common
68 the main purpose of using core in transformers to
1. Reduce reactance
2. Reduce copper loss
3. decrease the reluctance of common magmetic circuit
4. Reduce iron loss

69 Tempering is used for


1. Reduce hardness and ductility
2. 2. Increases hardness and ductility 3.
3. Reduces hardness and brittleness
70 Point in atmosphere at which temp remain content
1. Stratosphere
2. Tropopause
3. Troposphere
4. Ionosphere
71 Convert 127 octal to binary form
a) (1111111)2
72 8085 microprocessor
a) Direct register
73 8085 microprocessor
74 materials such as magnesium and eureka when temperature increases its resistence
a) Its resistance increases linearly with temperature
b) Its resistance decreases with temperature
c) Increases
d) Fairly constant over considerable range of temperature
75) In star connection
IL= 3IP b) VL =VP c) IL=IP D)
.
76) General purpose solders
a)Tin, lead and antimony b) Tine ,lead and silver
77 During refueling a/c
a) Place chokes
b) Keep the chock little forward
c) Keep the chocke on main landing gear
d) Never keep chocke and parking break should be on
78 standard atmospheric conditions
a)
b) 29.92 mm of inches of HG at 15degree cel
c) 52.8 mm of inches of HG at 15 degree cel
d) 14.7 psi at zero degree at O degree cel
79 Regarding resonance of series ac ckt
a) Xl is less than XC
b) Xc is greater than XL
c) Xl=XC
D)all of the above
80) Semiconductor is used as
1 Rectifier
2 Clipper circuit
3 Clamper
4 All of the above
81) Aluminum alloy is used vastly in a/c due to
a) High strength to weight ratio
b) Ease of fabrication
c) Non magnetic and an excellent conductor
d) AOTA
82bolt with asterisk sign on its head
a)standard steel bolt
83)ATA chapter -51
a)structure
85 arinc 429 sends data in
A) BCD
b) Binary
c) Any one of the language above
86 which is not associated with discharge of LA battery
A) S.g increases
b) Voltage decreases

c) Both
87) What happen when LA battery temp increases?
88) Mark the wrong statement regarding parallel resistor ckt
A) Different resistor has their individual voltage drop
B) Different resistor has their individual current drop
c) Power is additive
89 when current flown b/w two conductor in same direction
a) Field strength decreases and it attract each other
90when one wheel is jacked nose of a/c
a) Should face into wind
b) Opposite to wind
c) Any direction
91) MCTS regarding computer memory
92) Slip speed
93) When the a/c towed in uneven surface where should the tow bar be connected

DGCA PAPER - II IMPORTANT QUESTIONS FOR JUNE 2013


DGCA PAPER - II IMPORTANT QUESTIONS FOR JUNE 2013
1. All submerged parts & hull of seaplane is sprayed with liquid lanoline upto height of
_____________ above water line
(a) 1 Feet (b) 2 Feet
(c) 1 meter (d) 2 meter
2. Mark the correct statements
a)Steel wool is used on Al-alloy for corrosion removal
b)Clad-Al can be cleaned by mechanical method
c)Trichloroethylene is used for removal of grease
d)All of the above
3. Evidence of surface corrosion and extent of pitting should be tested by
(a) Hardness testing (b) Impact testing
(c) Probing with a fine needle (d) None of these
4. Exhaust of Aero-engine made of stainless formed ________________ due to high
temperature
(a) Crevice corrosion (b) Electrolytic corrosion
(c) Inter-granular corrosion (d) Stress corrosion
5. Which type of corrosion is occurred in mounting bolts of engine and wings ?
(a) Inter-granular corrosion (b) Stress corrosion
(c) Concentrating cell corrosion (d) Fettling corrosion
6. Heated section checked with magnet for corrosion detection, basically that indicate
their relative
(a) Conductivity of part (b) Permeability of part
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
7. Which is most suitable condition for storage of Aircraft part?
(a) Less than 60% humidity (b) Equal to 60% humidity
(c) More than 60% humidity (d) None of these
8. Paint stripper is removed with

(a) Steel wool (b) Emery cloth


(c) Aluminium wool (d) Non-metallic material
9. Which type of stripper is used on plastic or windows parts?
(a) Water-miscible paint remover (b) Solvent-miscible paint remover
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
10. Anodic film can be removed by a solution of
a) 10% Sulphuric acid + 4% Potassium fluoride
b) 20% Sulphuric acid + 10% Potassium fluoride
c) 20% Sulphuric acid + 20% Potassium fluoride
d) All of the above
11. Chromate film treatment is carried on __________ material
(a) Al-alloy (b) Mg-alloy
(c) Steel-Alloy (d) Titanium
12. Cadmium plating can be removed by
(a) Mechanical cleaning (b) Chemical cleaning
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
13. Mark the correct statement regarding chemical cleaning of steel
a) Corrosion on steel can be removed by pickling solution
b) Phosphoric acid can also be used
c) As in (b), it dissolved oxide film and partly inhibit the steel surface
d) All of the above
14. Mark the correct statement regarding chemical cleaning of Al-alloys
a) Light corrosion can be removed by solvent
b) Heavy deposits on clad Al-alloy can be removed chemically
c) Heavy deposits on non-clad Al-alloy can be removed mechanically
d) All of the above
15. Which of the following corrosion remover required a followed-up action of chromate
bearing conversion coating treatment?
(a) Chromic-acid corrosion remover
(b) Phosphoric-acid corrosion remover
(c) Butyl alcohol + Isopropyl alcohol + water
(d) Nitric acid + water
Which acid is used for cleaning of Mg-alloy?
(a) Chromic acid (b) Phosphoric acid
(c) Nitric acid (d) Sulphuric acid
16. Steel and Non-clad Al-alloy can be cleaned by
(a) Wet glass paper (b) Dry emery paper
(c) Dry sand paper (d) As in (a) & water acts as lubricants
17. Which type of scraper is used for corrosion removal on casting or forging parts?
(a) Steel carbide tipped (b) Plastic copped tip scraper
(c) Abrasive tipped cap scraper (d) None of these
18. Mark the correct statement regarding battery component
a)Lead-acid battery compartment neutralized by bi-carbonate of soda
b) Ni-Cd battery compartment neutralized by acetic acid
c) The sump vent jar containing moist absorbent pad with neutralizing agent
d) All of these
19. Human wastes corrode the lavatory area, because it is ________ in nature

(a) Acidic (b) Caustic


(c) Neutralizing agent (d) None of these
20. Grip length of the bolt is
(a) Total length of the bolt
(b) Plain sank portion of the bolt
(c) Length under the head of the bolt to the end of the bolt
(d) None of these
21. In close tolerance bolt, force applied to drive in is
(a) 10 ounce hammer (b) 20 ounce hammer
(c) 12 to 14 ounce hammer (d) Sledge hammer
22. AN 4-7 bolt shows
(a) 7/8 dia (b) length (c) 4length (d) dia
23. Bolt of class 4 fit is
(a) Loose fit (b) Free fit
(c) Close fit (d) Tight fit
24. Special washer AC 950 and AC 955 are used where
(a) Bolt is installed at angle to surface (b) Bolt is installed head down
(c) It can be used any where (d) None of these
25. To prevent the crushing surface on wooden structure with nut and bolt, the washer
used is
(a) AN 936 (b) AN 935 (c) AN 970 (d) AN 960
26. Where shear load is taken by the bolt, the nut used is
(a) Plain nut (b) Castle nut
(c) Castellated shear nut (d) Self locking nut
27. In the patch repair of the Aircraft skin, the edge distance (distance from the centre of
the rivet to the edge of the sheet) should be (d is diameter of rivet)
(a) 2d to 4d (b) 8d (c) 6d (d) 75% of the pitch
28. Pitch of the rivet should be
(a) 1 d (b) 6d to 8d
(c) 1 x d (d) All of these
29. The amount of the length required to form the head of the rivet is
(a) 2 d (b) 4 d (c) 1 x d (d) 8 d
30. Chamfering of the patch plate is done at the angle of
(a) 25 (b) 45 (c) 60 (d) 15
31. In patch repair, clearance between the rivet and hole should be
(a) 0.008 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.002 to 0.004 (d) 0.4
32. A rivet with part no. AN 470 AD 3-5 is having a diameter of
(a) 3/32 (b) 5/32 (c) 3/16 (d) 5/16
33. Seam welding is
(a) Pressure welding (b) Non-pressure welding
(c) Electric resistance (d) Both (a) & (c)
34. In which type of welding, the electrode is non-consumable
(a) TIG (b) MIG
(c) Electric resistance (d) Oxyacetylene

35. Spot welding electrodes should be


(a) Good conductor of Electricity (b) Good conductor of heat
(c) High strength & Hardness (d) Both (a) & (c)
36. In leftward welding
(a) Filler rod precedes torch (b) Torch precedes filler rod
(c) A 60 V is prepared at the end of plate (d) Both (a) & (c)
37. The color of acetylene cylinder and oxygen cylinder is
(a) Maroon & Black (b) Black & Maroon
(c) Yellow & Black (d) Black & Yellow
38. Bi-Planer block in Chain assembly is used for changing the plane of articulation
through
(a) 120 (b) 90 (c) 180 (d) None
39. For Non-reversible chains, mark the correct statement
(e) Every third inner plate is extended in one direction
(f) Every second outer plate is extended in one direction
(g) Every fourth outer plate is extended in both direction
(h) All are wrong
40. If supply voltage = 30V, then working voltage of capacitor could be
a) 90V
b) 45V
c) 50V
d) 55V
41. The useful load of an aircraft is
a) Difference between maximum gross weight and empty weight
b) Difference between maximum net weight and total weight
c) Sum of empty weight and gross weight
d) Weight of fuel
42. MTCS
a) CD-plated rivet should not be used in areas where temperature of 250o or more are
likely to be encountered
b) If the thickness of the sheet is less, then half the diameter of the rivet is used
c) Failure of joint will depend on the bearing stress rather than shear stress in the rivet.
d) All of the above
43. Rivets are designed
a) Stronger in shear
b) Stronger in tension
c) Should not be subjected to excessive tension load
d) Both a) and c)
44. Zero fuel weight means
a) AUW menus weight of fuel
b) Weight of cargo, passenger and crew
c) Maximum allowable weight of loaded aircraft without fuel and statement b)
d) All of the above
45. I-beam is produced by
a) Rolling
b) Casting
c) Forging
d) None

46. Caustic cleaning products used on Al-structure have the effect of producing
a) Passive oxidation
b) Improved corrosion resistance
c) Corrosion
d) None
47. Fayed surface cause concern in chemical cleaning because of the danger of
a) Forming passive oxide
b) Entrapping corrosive material
c) Corrosion by embedded iron oxide
d) All of the above
48. The rust or corrosion that occurs with most of the metal is the result of
a) A tendency for them to return their natural state
b) Blocking the flow of electrons in homogenous metals or between dissimilar metal
c) Electron flow in or between metal for cathode to anode area
d) All of the above
49. Which of the listed condition is not one of the requirements for corrosion to occur
a) Presence of electrolyte
b) Electrical contact between an anodic area and a cathodic area
c) Presence of passive oxide film
d) None of these
50. Inter-granular corrosion on Al-alloy part
a) May be detected by surface pitting, white powdery deposit
b) Appears as thread like filament
c) Cannot always be detected by surface indication
d) All of the above
51. When QNH is set on milibar scale, the altimeter reads
a) Altitude above mean sea level
b) Height above the airport elevation
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
52. When QFE is set on milibar scale, altimeter reads
a) Altitude above mean sea level
b) Height above the airport elevation
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
53. Pitot head is mounted parallel to the
a) Latitudinal axis of aircraft
b) Longitudinal axis of aircraft
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
54. All the altimeter
a) Are constructed on the principle of Aneroid barometer
b) They have pressure responsive elements
c) Aneroid mechanism
d) All of the above
55. Hysterisis error in altimeter
a) Is induced by aircraft maintaining a given altitude for certain period of time and
suddenly making a large altitude change
b) This error will eliminate itself with slow climbs and descends
c) After maintaining a new altitude for a reasonable period of time
d) All of the above

56 Installation errors in altimeter mechanism is


a) Caused by change of alignment of static pressure port with the relation wind
b) Speed of aircraft and angle of attack of aircraft
c) By location of the static port in a disturbed pressure field
d) All of the above
57 An ROCI is connected to
a) Static pressure only
b) Pitot pressure only
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
58 In ROCI during dive of aircraft, the diaphragm
a) Contracts
b) Expands
c) Both a & b
d) No effect
59 Any sudden or abrupt change in the aircraft altitude may cause erroneous indications
of ROCI
a) Due to a sudden change of airflow over static port
b) Sudden change of air flow over pitot head
c) On both A and B
d) None of the above
60 An instantaneous ROCI is
a) Recent development
b) Incorporates acceleration pumps
c) Eliminates limitations associated with calibrated leak assembly
d) All of the above
61. Which type of pipe wrench is designed with adjustable serrated jaws for gripping
round pipes?
a) Warnok type
b) Stillson type
c) Super wrench tool
d) Williams type
62. Vise grip pliers is also known as
a) Heavy pliers
b) Lever jaw wrench
c) Monkey pliers
d) None
63. Punch holders are used to hold
a) Punches
b) Chisels
c) Both a & b are correct
d) As in a, when a hard blow is required
64. Which pliers can be used for completing the safety wire operation?
a) Safety wire pliers
b) Diagonals & duck bill pliers
c) Both a & b are correct
d) As in a & diagonals
65. Diagonals are used for

a) Cutting steel wires & rods


b) Cutting bolt heads
c) Both a & b are correct
d) None
66. The shape of long nose pliers is
a) Round
b) Half- round
c) Square
d) None
67. The jaws of vise grip pliers is released from locking by
a) A small lever at each handle
b) A compound lever at both handles
c) A small lever at one of the handles
d) None
68. What action locks the jaws of a vise grip pliers?
a) Compound leverage action
b) Lever action
c) Toggle action
d) None
69. Which thread is used where a great strength is required in one direction?
a) Acme
b) Square
c) Worm
d) Buttress
70. In interlocking- joint pliers,
a) There are a number of holes at the hinge point
b) There are two holes at the hinge point
c) There are several curved grooves at the hinge point
d) None
ANSWERS ................
1B 2C 3C 4C
5D 6B 7A 8D
9C 10A 11B 12C
13D 14D 15B 16A
17D 18A 19D 20A
21C 22A 23D 24C
25B 26C 27A 28A
29C 30C 31C 32A
33D 34D 35A 36D
37A 38A 39
40. b
41. a

42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.

d
d
c
a
c
b
a
c
c
a
b
b
d
d
d
a
b
a
d
b
b
c
c
d
b
c
c
d
c

ELECTRICAL SYSTEM- Paper 2, part-1


A/C ELECTRICAL SYSTEM
1. Suppose you suddenly come across a colleague who is stuck to live bus-bars in a sub-station. Your
first action
would be to: (Ref. BL Theraja)
*a. switch off the supply b. put him away from the bus-bars

c. immediately call for medical assistance d. start artificial breathing straightaway


2. The centripetal force necessary to keep electrons rotating the elliptical orbits round the nucleus
is supplied by the
force of attraction between their charges are given by (Ref. BL Theraja)
*a. coulombs laws b. faradays laws
c. Flemings law d. none of the above
3. The purpose of carbon contact in attracted-core, heavy duty relay: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 108)
a. to limit the current in relay coil
*b. to absorb initial heavy current and thereby reduce arcing to a minimum before positive
connection with
main contacts is made
c. to compensate for loss of spring
d. all the above are correct
4. The RMS value of alternating current is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 33)
a. sum of square of individual component of currents
b. sum of square of individual components of currents divided by no. of individual components
*c. during a half cycle, squaring the value and taking their mean value and then taking the square
root
d. none of the above
5. A tumbler switch is also called: (Ref. AC 65 9A)
a. micro switch* b. toggle switch
c. push switch d. none of the above
6. The performance of rectifier depend on: (Ref. Grob., 812)
a. maximum temperature of plate *b. maximum reverse voltage
c. minimum voltage d. both a & c are correct
7. Which switch is not having moving parts: (Ref. TK Eismin, 259)
a. mercury b. thermal

c.

* proximity d. rotary
8. Which is not thermally affected by temperature: (Ref. AC 65 9A)
a. fuse b. CB *c. limiting resistor d. thermistor
9. The effect of change in frequency will change: (Ref. BL Theraja Ed 1991, 578)
a. hysteresis loss b. eddy current loss
*c. both a & b d. n
10. A series LCR is connected to 20V AC supply. The value of resistance is 8 ohms, inductive
reactance of coil is
18ohms and capacitive reactance of capacitor is 12 ohms. How much is current flow in the circuit:
(Ref. EHJ Pallet, 202)
*a. 2 amps b. 10 amps c. 5 amps d. 1 amp.
11. A LCR circuit is connected across 200V, 50 Hz AC supply, value of R is 6 ohms, inductive
reactance is 8 ohms
and capacitive reactance is 16 ohms. Calculate the voltage drop across the resistance: (Ref. EHJ
Pallet, 202)
a. 200/30 volts b. 200/2 volts
*c. 120 volts d. none of the above
12. Which of the relay have very high sensitively: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 108)

a. slugged relay *b. polarized relay


c. heavy duty relay d. none of the above
13.What is the resistance of wire having same cross sectional area and material when the length is
increased by 6
times: (Ref. AC 65 9A)
a. two times *b. 6 times c. 8 times
14. Temperature compensation capacitor is made of: (Ref. Grob., 420)
a. mica b. chip
c. paper *d. ceramic
15. Mark the correct statement for a single loop coil lying parallel to the magnetic field:
(Ref. BL Theraja-Ed 1991, 244)
*a. flux linked with the coil is minimum b. rate of change of flux linkages is maximum
c. emf induced in the coil is maximum d. all the above
16. When adding a rheostat to a light circuit to control the light intensity, it should be connected
in:
(Ref. EHJ Pallet, 153)
a. parallel with the light *b. series with the light
c. series parallel with the light d. none of the above
17. Paper capacitors are suitable for: (Ref. BL Theraja-Ed 1991, 157)
a. short wave work in radio b. smoothing circuits in radio receivers
*c. audio frequency stages of radio receivers d. use at radio frequency
18. The delay in establishment of steady current through a coil depends on the value of:
(Ref. BL Theraja Ed 1991, 242)
a. applied voltage b. self inductance
c. resistance *d. both b & c are correct
19. Kirchhoffs current law is applicable to: (Ref. BL Theraja, Ed. 1991, 56)
a. closed loop b. electronic circuit
*c. junction in network d. all the above
20. If the power factor is unity reactive power is: (Ref. BL Theraja, Ed. 1991, 457)
a. maximum *b. zero c. minimum d. negative
21. Match the correct statement for proximity sensors:
a. proximity sensors are simply induction coil that operate in conjunction with steel targets
b. the inductance of a proximity sensor is measured by a electronic control unit
c. no moving contacts to fail, thereby high reliability
*d. all are correct (Ref. TK Eismin 259)
22. to get full wave rectification with the help of only two diodes: (Ref. BL Thareja, Ed. 1991
691)
a. a bridge configuration is used *b. center tapped transformer is required
c. diode connector is required d. none of the above
23. The basic unit of capacitance is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet -195)
a. coloumb b. tesla c. gauss *d. farad
24. The sensitivity of a voltmeter can be increased by: FAA-9A, P-329
a. increasing the strength of the permanent magnet
b. using lighter weight materials for the moving element
c. by using sapphire jewel bearings to support the moving coil
*d. all of the above
25. The frequency of an eight pole alternator rotating at 1800 rpm is: FAA-9A, P-417
a. 60 Hz b. 90 Hz *c. 120 Hz d. 30 Hz
26. Circuit breakers are located: Pallet, P-115
a. generally far from the power source *b. close to the power source
c. at any location compatible to the particular unit d. so as not to be exposed to heat of any kind
27. All resistible circuit breakers: Pallet, P-113
a. should open the circuit irrespective of the position of operation control when overload exists
b. should open the circuit irrespective of the position of operating control when a circuit fault
exists
c. are referred to as trip free circuit
*d. all of the above
28. The total opposition to alternating current in an AC circuit is known as: Eismin, P-87
a. total resistance b. resistance c. reluctance *d. impedance

29.Theopposition offered by a coil to the flow of ac is called:


a. reluctance b. impedance c. inductance *d. inductive reactance
30. Soft soldering: CAIP-281
a. is a method of joining metals with fusion of the basis metal
b. is a method of joining metals without intentional fusion of the basic metal
*c. as in (b) and is done by the solders having a lower melting point than the metals being joined
d. as in (a) and is done by the solders having a higher melting point than the metals being joined
31. In an series RLC circuit: BLT/1991/473
a. current lags behind the voltage if XL>XC
b. current lags behind the voltage if XC>XL
c. current is in phase with voltage if XL=XC
*d. all are correct
32. An ac circuit has 4 ohms resistance and 3 ohms reactance: FAA-9A, P-358
*a. power factor is 0.8 b. power factor is 1.33
d. impedance is 8c. impedance is 6
33. In an AC circuit the 5% of max. value of voltage occurs at: BLT/1999/ED/42
d. 90 *c. 30 b. 60a. 45
34. Pallet-100
(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)
(a) single-pole, double throw
(b) double-pole, single-throw
(c) single-pole,single-throw
(d) double-pole,double-throw
a. (i) (a) (ii) (b) (iii) (c) (iv) (d)
b. (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv) (a)
c. (i) (c) (ii) (b) (iii) (a) (iv) (d)
d. (i) (d) (ii) (a) (iii) (c) (iv) (b)
35. MTCS:
a. current limiters limit the starting current in the starter motor

*b. limiting resistor limits the


starting current in the
starter motor
c. HRC fuses limit the starting current in the starter motor
d. circuit breakers limit the starting current in the starter motor
36. A white band on the button of a circuit breaker when exposed indicates: Pallet-114
a. circuit breaker is on and functioning properly
b. circuit breaker is drawing less current than the rated value

*c. circuit breaker is tripped


d. circuit breaker is overheated and must be now switched off
37. Electric charge is measured in: Pallet-195
a. Farad (F) *b. coulomb (C) c. joule (J) d. Mercy (H)
38. Magnetic flux is measured in: Pallet-195
a. ampere turn b. tesla *c. weber d. ampere per meter
39. Gilbert is the unit of: Pallet-196
a. magnetic field b. flux density *c. magneto motive force d. reluctance
40. Ampere-turn is the unit of:
*a. magneto motive force b. flux density c. reluctance d. magnetic field
41. The opposition to the flux established by the magnetizing force is known as: Pallet-196
a. magneto motive force *b. reluctance c. resistance d. impedance
42. The rate of doing work is known as: Pallet-194
a. energy b. potential c. current *d. power
43. That part of the impedance which is due to inductance, or both, and which stores energy rather
than dissipates
it, is known as: Pallet-195
a. capacitance b. inductance c. both (a) & (b) *d. reactance
44. The amount of magnetic flux per square centimeter, over a small area at a point in a magnetic
field is known as:
Pallet-195
a. magnetic field strength *b. magnetic flux density
c. magneto motive force d. permeability
45. A circuit breaker is a device for: Pallet-223
*a. protecting an electrical circuit from current overload
b. collapsing the primary circuit of a magneto
c. completing a circuit without being affected by current flow
d. all of the above
46. The current in a purely capacitive circuit will: Pallet-221
*a. lead the applied voltage b. lag the applied voltage
c. be in line with the applied voltage d. either (b) or (c)
47. Factors that must be considered in selecting the size of wire are: FAA-15A, P-436
a. I2R b. IR drop c. current carrying ability *d. all of the above
48. The voltage drop in the main power cable from aircraft generation source or the battery to bus
should not
exceed: FAA-15A, P-436
*a. 2% of regulated voltage b. 3% of regulated voltage
c. 4% of regulated voltage d. 1% of regulated voltage
49. The max. resistance between ground point of generator/ battery and ground terminal of any
electrical device
should not exceed: FAA-15A, P-436
4. 0.0005 3. 0.5 b. 0.05*a. 0.005
50. Push switches are primarily used for those circuits which are required to be operated for:
Pallet-101
a. short duration
b. long duration
c. when circuit is to be completed or interrupted momentarily
*d. both (a) & (c) are correct
51. The impedance of an AC circuit is measured in: Pallet-221
a. kilovolt amperes b. amperes *c. ohms d. none of the above
52. The number of circuits which can be completed through the poles of a switch is indicated by
the term:
Pallet-223
a. pole b. position *c. throw d. none
53. In a thermal switch employing steel and invar element actuation of the contacts under
increasing temperature
condition is caused by: Pallet-223
*a. expansion of the steel element only
b. contraction of the invar element only
c. expansion of the steel element causing displacement of the in rear element

d. none of the above


54. A soft iron core is placed within the coil of a moving coil instrument because: Pallet-223
a. it provides a solid spindle about which the coil can rotate
*b. this ensures an even, radial and intensified magnetic field for the coil to move in
c. the inertia of the core will damp out oscillations of the coil
d. none of the above
55. Relays which are slow to operate are known as: Pallet-108
*a. slugged relays b. polarized relays
c. light duty relays d. extremely light relays
56. Switches which confine the action of toggle and push-button switches are called: Pallet-102
a. rotary switches b. micro switches c. tumbler switches *d. rocker-button switches
57. Toggle switches are also known as: Pallet-100
a. rotary switches b. time switches *c. tumbler switches d. push switches
58. Mercury switches are used in/for: Pallet-104
a. monitoring pressures *b. measuring angle c. delaying the operation d. hastening the
operation
59. The principal advantage of proximity switches over micro switches is that: Pallet-106
a. proximity switches are located very near to the circuit component and hence do not require
lengthy wires for
operation
b. use of relays is eliminated when proximity switches are used hence total components used will
be much less
*c. proximity switches have no moving parts as compared to micro switches
d. proximity switches work on the same principle as solid state devices hence they consume very
small amount of
power
60. When using an ohmmeter to check the continuity of a generator field coil, the coil should:
Pallet-207
a. be removed from the generator housing
b. show high resistance when the meter probes are connected to the terminal of the coil
*c. show very low resistance if it is a series coil
d. none of the above
61. Megger is used for testing : FAA-9A-331
a. ground, continuity tests
b. measuring insulation resistance
c. measuring resistance with a high potential
*d. all are correct
62. The precaution for using ohm meter are: Pallet-166
a. circuit components to be tested should be isolated b. power source to be removed from circuit
*c. both (a) & (b) d. none is correct
63. An ohm meter when connected across a circuit component indicates infinity, it means: FAA-9A330
a. the circuit has continuity *b. the circuit is open
c. the circuit has short circuit d. all of the above are correct
64. Meggar needle normally rests at: FAA-9A-330
a. extreme right b. extreme left
c. middle *d. at any place
65. While measuring the value of resistance, connected in a circuit at least one end of resistance is
disconnected in
order to avoid:
a. reading the resistance of series path b. damage of resistance in parallel path
c. damage the resistance in series path *d. reading the resistance of parallel path
66. The most efficient form of damping employed in electrical instrument is: FAA-9A-324
a. air friction b. fluid friction *c. eddy current d. none of the above
67. The meter that is suitable for only direct current measurement is: BLT/1991/366
a. moving iron type *b. permanent magnet type
c. electrodynamometer type d. hot wire type
68. The hot wire ammeter: Eismin-244
a. is used only for DC circuits b. is a higher precision instrument

c. is used only for AC circuits *d. reads equally well DC and or AC


69. The moving system of an indicating type of electrical instrument is subjected to: BLT/1991/353
a. a deflection torque b. a controlling torque
c. a damping torque *d. all of the above
70. Which is not essential for the working of an indicating instrument: BLT/1991/417
a. deflecting torque *b. braking torque c. damping torque d. controlling torque
71. If an ammeter is used as a voltmeter, in all probability it will: BLT/1991/418
a. indicate much higher reading b. give extremely low reading
c. indicate no reading at all *d. burn out
72. If a moving coil ammeter is used to measure the value of a alternating sinusoidal current having
a peak value of
100 A, it will read
a. 50 A b. 63.7A c. 141.1A *d. 70.7 A
73. In a capacitive circuit:
a. a decrease in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
b. a steady value of applied voltage causes discharge
c. an increase in applied voltage makes a capacitor discharge
*d. an increase in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
74. In a sine-wave ac circuit with XC
and R in series, the:
with high series resistance a. phase angle of the circuit is 180
out of phase with its charge and discharge current *b. voltage across the capacitance must be 90
c. voltage across the capacitance has the same phase angle as its charge and discharge current
out of phase with the applied voltage d. charge and discharge current of the capacitor must be 90
75. In a sine-wave ac circuit with R and C in parallel:
a. the voltage across C lags the voltage across R by 90
*b. resistive IR
out of phase with IC is 90
c. IR
and IC
are in phase
d. IR
and IC
out of phase are 180
XC R in series with a 9076. In a sine-wave ac circuit with a 90
, the phase angle equals:
d. 90 c. 60 *b. 45a. 30
XC R in parallel with a 100077. The combined impedance of a 1000
equals:
d. 2000 c. 1000 *b. 707a. 500
F each, the voltage across each capacitor will be: 78. With 100 V applied across two series
capacitors of 5
a. 5 V b. 33 1/3 V *c. 50 V d. 66 2/3 V
79. In a sine-wave ac circuit with XC
and R in series, the
a. voltages across R and XC
are in phase
b. voltage across R and XC
out of phase are 180
*c. voltage across R leads the voltage across XC
by 90
d. voltage across R lags the voltage across XC
by 90
80. Flight compartment lights include: Eismin, P-256
a. incandescent flood light b. fluorescent flood lights
c. dome light and panel lights *d. all of the above
81. With higher frequencies, the amount of capacitive reactance:
a. increases b. stays the same *c. decreases d. increases only when the voltage increase

82. At the same frequency, larger capacitance results in:


a. more reactance b. the same reactance
*c. less reactance d. less reactance if the voltage amplitude decreases
XC83. Two 1000
values in series have a total reactance of:
*d. 2000 c. 1414 b. 1000a. 500
XC84. With 50V rms applied across a 100, the rms current in the circuit equals: Grob, P-542
*a. 0.5A b. 0.637A c. 0.707A d. 1.414A
85. A capacitor consists of two:
*a. conductors separated by an insulator b. insulators separated by a conductor
c. conductors alone d. insulators alone
F equals: 86. A capacitance of 0.02
a. 0.02x10-12
*b. 0.02x10-6 F
c. 0.02x106
d. 2002x1012
87. Capacitance increases with:
a. larger plate area and greater distance between plates:
b. smaller plate area and less distance between plates
*c. larger plate area and less distance between plates
d. higher values of applied voltage
88. Which of the following statement is correct: Grob, P-522
a. air capacitor have a black band to indicate the outside foil
F b. mica capacitors are available in capacitance values of 1 to 10
*c. electrolytic capacitors must be connected with the correct polarity
d. ceramic capacitors must be connected in the correct polarity
89. Which of the following statement is true:
a. alnico is commonly used for electromagnets
*b. paper cannot affect magnetic flux because it is not a magnetic material
c. iron is generally used for permanent magnets
d. ferrites have lower permeability than air or vacuum
90. Hysteresis losses:
*a. are caused by high high-frequency alternating current in a coil with an iron core
b. generally increase with direct current in a coil
c. are especially important with permanent magnets that have a steady magnetic field
d. cannot be produced in an iron core, because it is a conductor
91. The ac power line voltage of 120 V rms has a peak value of:
a. 100 V *b. 170 V c. 240 V d. 338 V
92. If two similar wire conductors are connected in parallel, their total resistance is:
a. double the resistance of one wire *b. one half the resistance of one wire
c. the same as the resistance of one wire d. two-thirds the resistance of one wire
93. Which colour is not used in 1st
band of a colour coded resistor:
a. brown b. white c. red *d. black
94. Silver band represent the tolerance of:
*a. 10% b. 5% c. 0% d. 20%
95. Phase angle : Esmin, P-88
a. it is an angular distance between current and voltage in an a.c. circuit
b. it is always measured between the horizontal line and the resultant vector
c. none of the above *d. both (a) & (b)
96. Unit of inductance: Esmin, P-107
*a. henry b. ohm c. mho d. none of the above
97. Diamagnetic materials have permeability: Grob, P-390
a. more than 1 b. from 50 to 500 *c. less than 1 d. exactly 50
98. Vacuum has: Grob, P-408

a. high permeability b. high reluctance


*c. low permeability and high reluctance d. high permeability and low reluctance
99. The resistance of a short circuit is: Grob, P-37
d. more a. infinity *b. zero c. always 100
100. What is characteristics of parallel circuit:
a. branch current are additive b. voltage are additive
c. powers are additive *d. (a) & (c) are correct
101. Magnetic field lines are considered to be:
*a. coming out of north pole and enter south pole
b. coming out of south pole and enter north pole
c. coming out of north pole but doesnt enter south pole
d. depends on shape of magnet
102. The ability of magnet to hold its magnetism varies greatly with the type of metal and is known
as:
FAA-9A, P-302
a. reluctance *b. retentivity c. permeability d. diamagnetic
103. The polarity of the statically induced voltage is determined by: Grob, P-431
a. Flemings right hand rule for conventional current
b. Flemings left hand rule for electronic current
c. Thumb rule
*d. Lenz law
104. Unit of mmf is: Grob, P-401
a. oersted in cgs b. gauss *c. gilbert d. tesla
105. The direction of field around a positive charge is: FAA-9A, P-270
a. toward the charge *b. away from the charge c. either (a) or (b) d. none of the above
106. If the third band is silver in color, the ___ digit must be multiplied by ___%: FAA-9A, P-280
a. third digit, 10% b. first two digit, 10%
c. third digit, 1% *d. first two digit, 1%
107. If third band is gold in colour the first two digits must be multiplied by: B. L. Thareja, P-280
a. 5% *b. 10% c. 1% d. none
108. Tolerance is: FAA-9A, P-279, 280
a. The percentage variation between the marked value and the actual value of a resistor
b. fourth color band on the resistor
*c. both (a) & (b)
d. none
109. The example of intermittent duty relay switch is FAA-9A, P-320
a. battery relay switch *b. starter relay switch
c. both (a) & (b) d. neither (a) nor (b)
110. In a circuit with three parallel branches, if one branch opens, the main line current will be:
a. more *b. less c. the same d. infinite
R1111. A 1R2 and a 20
are in series with a 30-V source, if R1
opens, the voltage drop across R2
will be:
*a. zero b. 20 V c. 30 V d. infinite
112. If a fixed value of voltage is connected across a variable resistance: Grob, P-194
a. I will vary in direct proportion to R *b. I will be inversely proportional to R
c. I will remain constant as R is varied d. none of the above
113. Number of coulombs passing through any given point in a conductor per second is:
a. charge b. potential *c. current(Ampere) d. both (a) & (c)
114. Unit of magnetic flux is: Grob, P-382
a. tesla *b. Weber c. Gilbert d. none of the above
115. Unit of flux density is: Grob, P-383
*a. tesla b. Weber c. Gilbert d. none of the above
116. The reasons of using horse shoe magnet instead of bar magnet in instruments is/are: Grob, P387
a. it occupies less space *b. has less air gap

c. it increases the flux density in the air gap d. all of the above
117. The ability of magnetic materials to concentrate magnetic flux is known as: Grob, P-386
a. permittivity *b. permeability c. flux density d. field intensity
118. A resistor with a power rating of 25w is most likely a: Grob, P-51
a. carbon composition resistor b. metal film resistor
c. surface mount resistor *d. wire wound resistor
119. A potentiometer is a: Esmin, P-101
*a. three terminal device used to vary the voltage in a circuit;
b. two-terminal device used to vary the current in a circuit
c. fixed resistor
d. two-terminal device used to vary the voltage in a circuit
120. Mark the correct statement about electricity and magnetism: Grob, P-409
a. current is analogous to flux and potential is analogous to flux density
b. current is analogous to magneto motive force and reluctance is analogous to resistance
c. current is analogous to flux and resistance is analogous to magneto motive force
*d. current is analogous to flux and potential is analogous to magneto motive force
www.rjworld.com
121. Mark the correct statement: FAA-9A, P-302
*a. ferromagnetic materials have high permeability whereas diamagnetic materials have
permeabilities
slightly less than one
b. a. ferromagnetic materials have high permeability whereas diamagnetic materials have
permeability slightly more
than one
c. paramagnetic materials have permeabilities slightly less than one and diamagnetic materials
have permeabilities
slightly more than one
d. paramagnetic materials have permeabilities slightly more than one and diamagnetic materials
have very high
permeabilitities
122. The d.c. series motor should never be switched on at no load because: B. L. Thareja, P-1030
a. the field current is zero b. the machine does not pick up
*c. the speed becomes dangerously high d. it will take too long to accelerate
123. The most efficient form of damping employed in electrical instrument is:
a. air friction b. fluid friction *c. eddy currents d. none of the above
124. A simple potentiometer is correctly called a :- B.L. Thareja, . Page 55
a. current devider b. voltage stabilizer
c. variable resistor *d. voltage divider
125. The unit of capacitance is :- B.L. Thareja, . Page 55
*a. farad b. coulomb c. volt d. metre
126. The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as the time during which capacitor charging
current becomes
percent of its value:- B.L. Thareja, Page-157
a. 37, final b. 63, final *c. 63, initial d. 37, initial
127. The magnetizing force produced by a solenoid depends on :a. the number of its turns b. the current carried by it c. its length *d. all the above
B.L. Thareja, Page-193
128. Aluminium can be classified as a .. material :*a. Para magnetic b. Force magnetic c. Dia magnetic d. Soft magnetic
B.L. Thareja, Page-193
129. Whenever a magnet is quickly brought towards an open circuited stationary coil :a. A current is induced in it b. Work has to be done
*c. e.m.f. is induced it d. Power is spent
B.L. Thareja, Page -219
130. The direction of induced e.m.f. in a coil may be found with the help of :a. faradays law *b. Lenzs law
c. flemings left hand rule d. steinamety law
B.L. Thareja, . Page 219
131. An e.m.f. is induced in the coil whenever flux through it :- (B.L. Thareja, P -220)
a. Is decreased b. Is increased c. Is abruptly reduced to zero *d. All the above

132. Capacitance does NOT depend upon which factor :- ( T.K. Eismin,Page-103)
a. plate area b. plate thickness
c. distance between plates d. nature of di-electric
133. Which of the following material has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance ?
(B.L Thareja, Page 8)
a. Brass b. Copper c. Aluminium *d. Carbon
134. Carbon composition resistors are most popular because they :- (AC 65-9A, Page-278)
*a. cost the least b. are smaller in size
c. can withstand over loads d. do not produce electric noise
135. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a parallel dc circuit ?
( T.K. Eismin, Page 107)
*a. powers are additive b. voltages are additive
c. currents are additive d. elements have individual currents
136. For a given voltage, four heating coils will produce maximum heat when connected :*a. All in parallel b. All in series
c. With two parallel point in series d. One pair in parallel with the other two in series
T.K. Eismin, Page 8
137. A cylindrical wire, 1 m in length, has a resistance of 100 ohm. What would be the resistance of
a wire made
from the same material if both the length and cross sectional area are doubled ? B.L Thareja, Page7
a. 200 ohms b. 400 ohms *c. 100 ohms d. 50 ohms
138. The working voltage of a capacitor in an A.C circuit should be :- AC 65-9A, Page-351
a. equal to the highest applied voltage
b. at least 20% greater than the highest applied voltage
*c. at least 50% greater than the highest applied voltage
d. none of these
139. Higher the self-inductance of a coil :- (T.K. Eismin, Page 107)
a. lower the e.m.f. induced in it
a. The number of their turns *b. Permeability of the core
c. Cross sectional area of their common core d. All the above
141. Permanent magnets are normally made of :- (T.K. Eismin, Page-8)
a. Aluminium b. Wrought iron
c. Cast iron *d. Alnico alloys
142.those magnetic materials are best suited for making armature and transformer cores which
have :a. low permeability and high hysterisis loss
*b. high permeability and low hysteresis loss
c. low permeability and low hysteresis loss
d. high permeability and high hysteresis loss
(AC 65-9A, Page-302)
143. Those materials are well suited for making permanent magnets while have :- (9A/303)
*a. high retentivity and high coercivity
b. high retentivity and low coercivity
c. low retentivity and low coercivity
d. low retentivity and high coercivity
144. In a magnetic material, hysteresis loss takes place primarily due to :- (AC 65-9A, Page-450)
a. flux density lagging behind magnetizing force b. molecular friction
c. its high retentivity *d. rapid reversals of its magnetization
145. Circuit breakers are located :- ( E.H.J. Pallet, Page-115)
a. generally far from the power source
*b. close to the power source
c. at any location compatible to the particular unit
d. so as not to be exposed to heat of any kind
146. All resetable circuit breakers :- ( E.H.J. Pallet, Page-113)
a. Should open the circuit irrespective of the position of operation control when overload exits
b. Should open the circuit irrespective of the position of operating control when a circuit fault
exists

c. Are referred to as trip free circuit


*d. All of the above
147. Which particle of an atom actually moves in the production of an electric current : (BL
Thereja-Pg 1)
a. the proton *b. the electron
c. the neutron d. all three
148. The term that describes the combined resistive force in an AC circuit is : (Thomas K EisminPg-87)
a. resistance b. capacitance
c. total resistance *d. impedance
149. If a series R-L-C circuit contains 10 ohm of resistance, 20 ohm of inductive reactance, and 30
ohm of
capacitive reactance it is said to be (Numerical)
a. inductive b. in resonance
c. resistive *d. capacitive
150. The opposition offered by a coil to the flow of ac is called: (Thomas K Eismin- Pg-87)
a. conductivity b. impedance
c. reluctance *d. inductive reactance
151. An increase in which of the following factors will cause an increase in the inductive reactance
of a circuit
(Thomas K Eismin- Pg-87)
a. capacitance & voltage *b. inductance & frequency
c. voltage and resistance d. resistance & capacitive reactance
152. Which statement is correct in reference to electrical resistance (Numerical)
a. two electrical devices will have the same combined resistance if they are connected in series as
they will have if
connected in parallel
*b. if one of 3 bulbs in a parallel lighting circuit is removed, the total resistance of the circuit will
become
greater
c. an electrical device that has a high resistance will use more power than one with a low
resistance with the same
applied voltage
d. a 5 ohm resistor in a 12 V circuit will use less current than a 10 ohm resistor in a 24 V circuit
153. Through which material will magnetic lines of force pass most readily (BL Thereja Pg-245)
a. copper *b. iron c. aluminium d. titanium
154. Unit of capacitive and inductive reactance is (BL Thereja Pg-201)
a. farad & henry b.ohm & henry
c. farad & ohm *d. ohm & ohm
155. The maximum value of charge in a capacitor reached at: Thomas K Eismin Pg-105
a. 2 Time constant b. 3 Time constant
c. 4 Time constant d. *6 Time constant
156. Dielectric strength is maximum in: FAA-9A Pg-351
a. Paper b. Glass *c. Mica d. Air
157. In one time constant, capacitor takes the charge upto ___ % of its full charge
Thomas K Eismin Pg-105
*a. 63.2 b. 36.7 c. 20.6 d. 80.2
158. What is the power factor of a parallel resonance circuit? BL Thereja Pg-555
*a. Unity b. Zero c. 0.5 d. 0.866
159. A circuit breaker that can not be reset when the circuit fault exist is called: EHJ Pallett Pg113
a. Electric CB b. Non-resettable CB *c. Trip free CB d. Polarized CB
160. For sensing angular position the ________ switch is used
a. Proximity b. Thermal switch EHJ Pallett Pg-104
c. Micro switch *d. Mercury switch
161. Thermal switch in the fire warning system is operated above:
C EHJ Pallett Pg-106 C d. 500 C c. 500 C b. 400*a. 300
162. Closing of freight door is normally indicated with the help of:
a. Relays *b. Proximity switch EHJ Pallett Pg-106
c. Mercury switch d. None

163. HRC terms used with : EHJ Pallett Pg-112


a. CBs b. Switches c. Relays *d. Fuses
164. The unit of resistivity is: BL Thereja Pg-4
*a. Ohm-meter b. Ohm/Meter c. Ohm-centimeter d. Ohm/Sq cm.
165. A three phase synchronous motor is well suited for driving :- B.L Thareja, Page 651
a. fluctuating loads b. printing presses
*c. motor generator set d. vacuum cleaners
166. Current changing at the rate of 0.5 Amp. / Sec. induces on e.m.f. of 2V in a coil. The self
inductance of the
coil in Henry is :- B.L Thareja, Page 219
*a. 4 Henry b. 2 Henry c. 1 Henry d. 3 Henry
167. The starting winding of a single phase motor is placed in the :- E.H.J. Pallet, Page-143
a. Rotor *b. Stator c. Armature d. Field www.rjworld.com
168. In synchronous motor, damper winding is provided in order to :- (T.K. Eismin, page-186)
a. stabilize rotor motion
b. suppress rotor oscillations
c. develop necessary starting torque
*d. both (2) & (3)
169. While running , a synchronous motor is compelled to run at synchronous speed because of :(AC 65-9A, Page-457)
a. damper winding in its pole faces
*b. magnetic locking between stator and rotor poles
c. induced e.m.f. in rotor field winding by stator flux
d. compulsion due to Lenzs law
170. The Hysterisis motor works on the principle of : (EHJ Pallette , P-144)
a. Flemings right hand rule
b. Hysteresis principle
*c. As in 2 and the rotor rotates at Synchronous speed
171. Synchronous motor runs at :- AC 65-9A, Page-457
a. Synchronous speed at no load
b. Less than synchronous speed at all loads
*c. It runs at synchronous speed from no load to full load
d. Both (1) & (3) are correct
172. In 3 Phase induction motor :- AC 65-9A, Page-453
a. at no load, rotor speed is slightly less than synchronous speed
b. with increase of load, rotor speed decreases
c. with decrease of load rotor speed increases
*d. all are correct
173. In 3 Phase inductions motor % slip depends upon :- (AC 65-9A, Page-453)
*a. load b. line voltage of three phase A3. Supply
c. number of conductors on rotor d. all are correct
174. If a single phase induction motor runs with noise, the more likely defect is :- ( B.L Thareja,
Page-62 )
a. Improper fuses b. Shorted running winding
c. Open starting winding *d. Worn bearing
175. The principle of statically inducted e.m.f. is utilized in :- ( B.L Thareja, Page-553)
*a. Transformer b. Motor
c. Generator d. Battery
176. . In End to Center band system, if the tolerance band shows blue color, the tolerance value
will be:
*a. 6% b. 2% BL Thereja Pg-280
d. 4% d. None of the above
177. . Carbon composition resistors have the demerits of:
a. More cost b. Larger in size
*c. Produce electric noise d. None of the above BL Thereja Pg-25
178. The speed of a D.C. motor can be controlled by varying :- B.L Thareja, Page 321
a. Its flux
b. Armature circuit resistance
c. Applied voltage
*d. All the above

179. When load is removed, which motor will run at the highest speed :- B.L Thareja, Page 311
a. Shunt *b. Series
c. Cumulative d. Differential compound
180. The armature torque of a D.C motor is a function of its
a. Pole flux b. Armature current
c. Speed *d. Both (a) & (b)
181. A universal motor has variable speed characteristics because it is :- B.L Thareja, Page 627
*a. series wound b. compound would
c. operated on both D.C and A.C supplied d. wholly laminated
182. Polarized relay is normally used in: FAA-9A Pg-401
*a. Generator-Battery circuit b. Generator-Load circuit
c. Generator-Lighting circuit d. None
SERVOMECHANISMS & AMPLIFIERS
183. All the synchros are working on: (Ref. A/c Inst. Pallet, 23)
*a. transformer principle b. resistance principle
c. inductor principle d. capacitance principle
184. Which component is not used in torque synchro: (Ref. A/c Inst. Pallet, 232)
a. motor b. amplifier
*c. motor and amplifier d. none of the above
185. Generally torque synchro are used for transmitting: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 135)
*a. power plant datas and position indication b. navigational datas
c. manometric datas d. inertial datas
186. Control synchro is used for: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 136)
a. power plant data transmission *b. close loop servo system
c. position indication flap position indication
187. Differential synchro is used for: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 136)
a. power plant data. manometric data c. position indication
*d. output depends upon two input data
188. Resolver synchro is used where we require Cartesian coordinate of a point to:
(Ref. Pallet Integrated, 143)
b. R Sina. R Cos
d. R Tan and R Sin*c. R Cos
189. Polar coordinate is used to find out resultant of: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 149)
b. R Sina. R Cos
d. R Tan and R Sin*c. R Cos
190.In torque synchro if the rotor connection is reversed then: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 139)
a. no effect on output b. output is advanced by 900
c. output is advanced by 270
*d. output is advanced by 180
191. If there is cycle shift of stator connection torque synchro then output datum is advanced by:
*a. 240
b. 270
0
c. 180
d. 900
(Ref. Pallet Integrated, 139)
192. In torque synchro if stator coil connection of two lead are interchanged then:
(Ref. Pallet Integrated, 139)
a. output is advanced by 900
b. output is advanced by 1800
c. output is advanced by 2700
*d. reverse rotation of output rotor
193. In resolver synchro where polar is connected to Cartesian R3 & R4 rotor coils are shorted to:
(Ref. Pallet Integrated, 147)
a. prevent burning b. prevent hunting
c. improve accuracy *d. as in c & limit spurious response
194.In control synchro supply is given to: (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 14)
a. transmitter stator *b. transmitter rotor
c. receiver stator d. receiver rotor

195.Resolver syschro consists of:


a. four rotor coil b. four stator coil (Ref. Pallet Integrated, 146)
c. two rotor and stator coil *d. four rotor and stator coil
196. When pilot is flying the a/c manually the pilot and his control surface together may be termed
as:
(Ref. AFC Pallet, 72)
a. auto flight b. manual flight
*c. man / machine close loop servo system d. all are correct
197. The role of AFCS is to: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 73)
a. over come a stability and control deficiency
b. improve handling and ride quality
c. carry out series of maneuver which pilot is unable to perform
*d. all are correct
198. Servo system must be able to perform: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 83)
a. detect difference between input and output
b. amply the error signal
c. control the closing of servo loop by providing feedback
*d. all are correct
199. Servo mechanism are coming under two classes may function as: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 83)
a. position control b. speed control
*c. position and speed control d. differentiator and integrator
200. In position control servo system the amplifier output is equivalent to: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 84)
A) 0 - 0) d. K (1 - 0 *c. K (( 1 b. a.
201. In speed control servo system output from the amplifier is:
*a. K (V1-V0) b. K (V0-Va)
c. V1 d. Vo (Ref. AFC Pallet, 84)
202. What are the type of input in servo system: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 84)
a. step input b. ramp input
*c. step and ramp input d. step and ramp output
203.Impositon feed back system if there is step input: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 85)
*a. continuous oscillation b. load comes to rest at null point
c. load lags behind d. all are correct
204. Inherent friction cause: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 86)
*a. light damping b. heavy damping
c. critical damping d. all are correct
205. The degree of damping which prevent any over shoot is known as: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 86)
a. light damping *b. critical damping
c. optimum damping d. heavy damping
206. Damping which allows small over shoot and smallest settling time is known as: (Ref. AFC
Pallet, 86)
*a. optimum damping b. critical damping
c. light damping d. heavy damping
207. Small force of constant magnitude opposing servo motor is known as: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 86)
*a. coulomb friction b. viscous friction
c. eddy current d. lubricant
208. In velocity feed back damping if there is ramp input: (Ref. AFC Pallet, 88)
a. no velocity lag b. over shoot
*c. velocity lag increase d. none of the above
209. In error rate damping when input and output shafts are at equal velocity then: Ref. AFC Pallet,
88
*a. no error signal b. there is an error signal
c. error signal is more d. all are correct
210. In ECAM system which mode is the automatic mode? EHJ Pallette, P-133
a. Flight Phase b. Cautionary
c. Advisory *d. Both (a) and (c)
211. In EICAS system, which is a level A warning? TK Eismin, P-359
a. Cabin Depressurization b. Engine Fire
c. Both (a) and (b) in display form *d. Both (a) and (b) in display as well as in aural form
212. In ECAM system: EHJ Pallette, P-134

a. The graphical display is given by the R.H unit


b. The graphical display is given by the L.H unit
*c. As in a. and advisory message color change to white after corrective action taken
d. As in b. and advisory message color change to white after corrective action taken
www.rjworld.com
213. CRT used in A/C instrument displays are: TK Eismin, P-123
a. Electromagnetic deflection type *b. Electrostatic deflection type
c. Both 1 & 2
BONDING & SCREENING
214. In aircraft having non metallic structure: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 88)
a. four or more copper strip type conductors are used extending whole length of fuselage
b. they are not more than six feet apart as measured around the periphery of fuselage
c. the fuselage earthing strips are connected to further strips which follow the leading and trailing
edges from root
to tip of each wing and horizontal stabilizer
*d. all the above
215. Corona discharge in a/c is prevented by: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 74)
*a. static discharger b. screening
c. potting d. none of the above
216. What is true about bonding tester: (Ref. CAP-II, Ch-EEL/06)
a. 60 lead is connected to a/c main earth point
b. 6 lead two prongs are connected where there is joint
c. it has got one 1.2v cell and calibration is done by standard resistances provided
*d. all the above
217. Bonding and grounding are made to provide: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 92)
a. current return path
b. protection of person from shock hazard
c. stability of radio reception and transmission
*d. all the above
218. The tags or lugs on bonding jumpers are generally fitted by: CAIP-II/943
a. soldering method *b. crimping method
c. sintering method d. nuts & bolts
219. The maximum primary bonding resistance between the extremities of the fixed portion of all
metallic aircraft
is: CAIP-II/496
a. 0.1 ohm b. 0.01 ohm *c. 0.05 ohm d. 0.001 ohm
220. Mark the correct statement: E.H.J. Pallet, P-92
a. precipitation charges are those which are induced into an aircraft when flying into electric fields
created by certain
types of cloud formation
b. electrostatic charges are built up on the outer surface of an aircraft due to friction contact with
rain particles,
snow and ice crystals, dust, smoke and other air contamination
*c. precipitation static charges are built up on the outer surfaces of an aircraft due to frictional
contact with
rain particles, snow and ice crystals, dust, smoke and other air contamination whereas charges of
electrostatic are those induced into an aircraft when flying into electric fields created by certain
types of
cloud formation.
d. none of the above
221. Mark the correct statement: E.H.J. Pallet, P-94
a. classification of primary bonding is determined by the magnitude of current to be expected from
precipitation
static charges
b. classification of secondary bonding is determined by the magnitude of current to the expected
from electro
statically induced charges
*c. bonding is classified as primary and secondary, such classification being determined by the
magnitude
of current to be expected from electro statically induced charges and precipitation static charges

respectively.
d. bonding is classified as primary and secondary, such classification being determined by the
magnitude of current
to be expected from precipitation static charges and electro statically induced charges
respectively.
ELECTRONICS
222. The doping materials are called impurities because they: (Ref. BL Theraja)
a. decrease the number of charge carriers
b. change the chemical properties of semi conductors
c. make semi conductors less than 100 percent pure
*d. alter the crystal structure of pure semi conductors
223. Feedback in an amplifier always helps to: (Ref. BL Theraja)
*a. control its output
b. increases its gain
c. decreases its input impendence
d. stabilize its gain
224.In normal operation of p-n-p transistor, its junctions are biased: (Ref. BL Theraja)
a. both forward
b. both reverse
c. emitter base reverse, collector base forward
*d. emitter base forward, collector base reverse
225. An SCR can be turned off by: (Ref. BL Theraja-1991, 817)
a. anode current interruption
b. reversing polarity of anode cathode voltage
c. reducing current through SCR below the holding
*d. any of above method can be used independently
226. The logic symbol represents: Pallet-225
a. an AND gate *b. a NOR gate c. an OR gate d. an XOR gate
227. In order to energize the relay in the circuit shown below here the logic state at the inputs
must be
Pallet-226
a. log 0 at points A & B b. 0 at point A and 1 at point B
*c. 1 at both points d. 0 at both points
ABC
111
101
011
000
228. The truth table shown here corresponds to: Pallet-226
a. an OR gate
b. an AND gate
c. a NOR gate
d. an XOR gate
229. The circuit shown here performs a logic: Pallet-226
a. AND function
*b. OR function
c. NAND function
230. DTL family Logic employs: (BL Thereja, P-2376)
*a. Diode, Resistor, Transistor
b. Diode and resistor
c. Resistor & Transistor
231. In a normally working PNP transistor, both base and collector are at _____potential w.r.t the
emitter
(BL Thereja Pg-1975)
a. +ve *b. ve c. either (1) or (2) d. neither (1) or (2)
232. A transistor does not conduct unless its __________ base junction is forward biased (BL Thereja
Pg-1975)
*a. emitter b.collector
c. both (1) and (2) d. either (1) or (2)

233. FETs have similar properties to (VK Mehta Pg-488)


a. PNP transistors b. NPN transistors
*c. Thermionic valve d. UJT
234. The smallest negative grid voltage, for a given plate voltage, at which plate current becomes
zero is known as
(VK Mehta Pg-44)
*a. grid cutoff bias b. grid cut in bias www.rjworld.com
c. break over voltage d. break down voltage
235. The band width of the band pass filter depends upon (Thomas K Eismin Pg-289)
a. resistance of inductor b. No. of elements used
*c. both (1) and (2) d. either (1) or (2)
236. Which transistor has the highest voltage and power gain ? (BL Thereja Pg-2059)
a. CB *b. CE c. CC d. Both (1) and (2)
237. The --- configuration on of transistor is suitable for high input to Low output impedance
matching
(BL Thereja Pg.- 2032)
a. CB b. CE *c. CC d. All of the above
238. The common base configuration of transistor is used for: (VK Mehta Pg-227)
*a. Impedance matching (high frequency signal)
b. audio frequency signal
c. impedance matching (Low frequency signal)
d. none of the above
239. Germanium has how many electrons in the outermost orbit- (VK Mehta Pg-119)
a. 1 b. 2
c. 3 *d. 4
240. Silicon & Germanium are the examples of- (VK Mehta Pg-120)
a. conductor *b. semiconductor
c. super conductor d. dielectric
241. A Zener diode has how many terminals? (BL Thereja Pg-1908)
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
242. A silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) has how many terminals? (BL Thereja Pg-2160)
a. 1 *b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
243. Aquadag coating done in CRT is to- (BL Thereja Pg-2394)
a. avoid dust formation on the screen
b. avoid mixing of colours
*c. capture secondary electrons
d. accelerate thermions
244. Sweep generator generates : (BL Thereja Pg-2392)
a. Triangular wave form *b. Sawtooth waveform
c. Sinusoidal Waveform d. all of these
245. A Bipolar transistor has how many terminals? (BL Thereja Pg-1974)
a. 1 b. 2
c. 3 *d. 4
246. In semiconductor diodes, the current is made of- (BL Thereja Pg-1855)
a. electrons b. holes
*c. both (1) and (2) d. it depends on impurity concentration
POWER DISTRIBUTION
247. Merz-price protection system is also known as: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 122)
a. over current protection b. under voltage protection
*c. differential protection d. over voltage protection
248. Differential fault means: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 12)
*a. difference between the current leaving the generator and the current arriving at the bus bar
b. voltage difference between generator and bus bar
c. frequency difference between generator and bus bar
d. none of the above
249. Essential loads are connected to: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 77)
a. battery bus bar b. generator bus bar
*c. both a & b d. vital bus bar
250. When external AC power is connected to TRU, its output: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 63)
a. energies d.c. control relay circuits

b. is connected to d.c. bus bar to operate d.c. consumers


*c. both a & b are correct
d. is used sparingly on ground
251. If all the generators fail during flight, the essential services will be maintained by: (Ref. TK
Eismin, 243)
a. A.C. bus *b. hot bus
c. d.c. bus d. none of the above
252. In constant frequency load system which is correct statement: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 49 & 50)
a. reactive load sharing is done by field excitation
b. active load sharing is done by governor setting
c. load sharing depends on the size of the generator
*d. both a & b are correct
253. In twin engine a/c in flight, power is normally supplied by: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 77)

*a. two main generators b. one generator and APU


generator
c. two main generators and batteries d. batteries and APU generator
254. Which is true about power distribution system: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 76)
a. power consuming equipment must not deprived of power in the event of power source failure
unless the total
power demand exceeds the available supply
b. fault on the distribution system, e.g. fault current, grounding or earthing at bus bar should have
the minimum
effect on system functioning and should constitute minimum fire risk
c. power consuming equipment faults must not endanger the supply of power to other equipment
*d. all are correct
255. A/c which operate only on a.c. generators as a primary source of electrical power normally
provide current
suitable for battery charging through the use of: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 78)
*a. a step down transformer and rectifier unit
b. on invertors and voltage dropping resistor
c. APU generator
d. all are correct
256. Bus bars are located at/on: AES, P-76-77 www.rjworld.com
a. consumer equipment b. cockpit
c. tails *d. junction boxes or distribution panels
257. Bus bars are made of: AES, P-76-77
a. silver b. aluminium
c. copper *d. either (b) or (c)
258. When braided copper wire is used as bus bar then it will be a: AES, P-76-77
a. main bus bar *b. subsidiary bus bar
c. essential bus bar d. none of the above
259. Vital services are connected: AES, P-76-77
*a. directly to batteries b. directly to generators
c. either (a) or (b) d. none of the above
260. Non-essential services are connected to: AES, P-76-77
a. battery bus bar *b. generator bus bar
c. both (a) & (b) d. none of the above
261. The main source of power supply is provided by: AES, P-76-77

*a. generators b. batteries


c. invertors d. APU
262. The stand by source of power is provided by: AES, P-76-77
*a. batteries b. generators
c. invertors d. APU
263. In all AC aircraft the DC supplies are provided from/by: AES, P-76-77
a. batteries *b. transformer rectifier units (TRUs)
c. separate DC generator d. none of the above
264. The configuration of the transformers of the TRU are: AES, P-65
a. star delta star b. star delta delta
*c. star star delta d. delta star delta
265. The millivolt drop of the shunt installed in the TRU is: AES, P-63
a. 100 mV at 100 A b. 100 mV at 50 A
c. 50 mV at 50A *d. 50 mV at 100 A
266. TRUs are designed to operate at: AES, P-63
a. single phase input of 115 volts AC, 400 c/s
*b. three phase input of 200 volts at 400 c/s
c. DC input of 26 volts
d. none of the above values are correct
267. TRUs are cooled by: AES, P-63
a. blast air b. ram air c. cooling fans *d. natural convection
268. The number of terminals on the shunt of TRUs are: AES, P-65
a. two *b. four c. six d. eight
269. The thermal switches inside the TRUs operate at: AES, P-63
C www.rjworld.com C and 250 C b. 200 C and 200*a. 150
C C and 100 C d. 50 C and 150c. 100
270. Mark the correct option about reverse current circuit breaker: AES, P-115
*a. series coil assists the shunt coil when generator is charging the batteries
b. series coil opposes the shunt coil when generator is charging the batteries
c. series coil assists the shunt coil when reverse current flows from battery to the generator
d. none of the above is correct
271. Mark the correct statement about reverse current circuit breaker: AES, P-115
a. series coil assist the shunt coil when reverse current flows from battery to generator
b. series coil opposes the shunt coil when reverse current flows battery to generator
c. series coil assists the shunt coil when generator is charging the battery
*d. both (b) & (c) are correct
272. In the parallel operation of generator in aircraft when any generator fails: AES, P-77
a. the loads of the failed generator are supplied by batteries
*b. the loads of the failed generator are supplied by the available generator/generators
c. only essential loads are supplied by the running generator/generators
d. none of the above is correct
273. In the A.C. split bus bar system of operation when any generator fails: AES, P-78
*a. its loads are supplied by the other operating generator
b. only essential a.c. loads are supplied by the operating available generator
c. TRUs become in operative
d. all the above are correct
274. In the 3-pin external power receptacle: AES, P-70
a. the smaller pin is positive
b. the smaller pin is negative
*c. as in (a) and it controls the supply to external power relay
d. none of the above is correct
275. The purpose of the battery in the aircraft is: AES, P-69
a. to provide main source of electrical power
*b. to provide emergency source of power when main generator/generators fail
c. to provide internal start
d. none of the above is correct
276. Mark the correct answer about the external D.C. supply receptacle on the aircraft: AES, P-70
a. it has two mater pins and one bigger pin
b. it has two bigger pins and one smaller pin

c. as in (a) and one of the smaller pin is negative


*d. as in (b) and one of the bigger pins is positive
277. Mark the correct answer: AES, P-70
a. external power relay is located inside the ground power unit (GPU)
*b. external power relay is located inside the aircraft and is controlled by the smallest pin of the
external
supply receptacle
c. as in (a) and is controlled by one of the two bigger pins of external supply receptacle
d. none of the above
278. The main contacts of the external supply contactor in the multiple d.c. bus bar system
connect the external
supply to: AES, P-71
a. no. 1 D.C. bus bar b. no. 2 D.C. bus bar
c. no. 3 D.C. bus bar *d. as in (b) and vital bus bar
279. Magnetic indicators of in the multiple D.C. bus bar system indicate: AES, P-71
a. satisfactory connection of generators to the bus bar
b. satisfactory connection of batteries to the bus bar
*c. satisfactory connection of external power to the bus bars
d. none of the above is correct
280. Mark the correct statement about the multiple d.c. bus bars system being energized by the
external power:
AES, P-71
a. the main contacts of the external supply contactor provide the supply to the coils of No. 1 & No.
3 bus-tie
connectors
b. the auxiliary contacts of the external supply contactor connect the external supply to the bus
bar
*c. the main contacts of the external supply contactor connect the external supply to the bus bars
while the
auxiliary contacts provide the supply to the coils of No. 1 and No. 3 bus the contactors.
d. none of the above
281. Mark the correct answer about the magnetic indicators of the multiple d.c. bus bar system
being energized by
external power: AES, P-71
a. supply to the magnetic indicators are provided through the main contracts of the external supply
contactor and
bus tie contactors
*b. supply to the magnetic indicators are provided through the auxiliary contacts of the external
supply
contactor and the bus-tie contactors
c. supply to the magnetic indicators are provided by the bus bars directly
d. none of the above is correct
282. External supply receptacle is generally located at: AES, P-69
a. wings bottom side b. wheel bays
c. tail plane *d. the sides of the fuselage
283. When external A.C. supply is connected to the aircraft it is indicated by: AES, P-72
*a. amber light b. red bight c. green bight d. none of the above
284. The external a.c. power receptacle has: AES, P-73
a. at least 2 bigger pins b. at least 3 bigger pins
*c. at least 4 bigger pins d. at least 5 bigger pins
285. The external power receptacle for APU starting has: AES, P-72
a. two bigger +ve pins and one smaller ve pin
b. two bigger ve pins and one smaller +ve pin
c. one +ve & one ve bigger pin and one smaller +ve pin
*d. one +ve & one ve bigger pin and one smaller ve pin
286. One of the function of auxiliary power unit is: AES, P-73
a. to supplement the delivery of air to the cabin during landing
b. to supplement the delivery of air to the cabin during low altitude flying
*c. to supplement the delivery of air to the cabin during takeoff and climb
d. none of the above

287. APU is normally started by: AES, P-73


*a. batteries
b. generators www.rjworld.com
b. invertors
d. APUs are started by separate generators provided at the tail section of aircraft
288. Silver-coated copper wire is used for temperatures upto: Eismin, P-56
C) F (220 C) *b. 392 F (105a. 221
C) d. none of the above F (260c. 500
289. The capacity of a battery is measured in: Pallet-220
a. volts b. cubic centimeters *c. ampere-hours d. by the number of plates
290. The phase voltage of a three-phase star-connected a.c. generator is: Pallet-221
a. equal to line voltage b. greater than line voltage
2 times max voltage *c. less than line voltage d. equal to
291. The ratio of true power to apparent power of an AC circuit is known as: Pallet-221
a. reactive power *b. power factor
c. real power d. total power
292. Power factor is the ratio of: Pallet-221
*a. true power to apparent power b. apparent power to true power
c. apparent power to real power d. apparent power to impedance
293. If a source maintains a constant voltage at the input to the line then any variation in the load
on line will cause:
FAA-15A, P-435
a. variation in line current
*b. as in (a) and also variation in IR drop in line
c. no effect on line current and IR drop
d. variation in line current but no variation in IR drop
294. In a CSD unit, the control cylinder is mechanically coupled to the: Pallet-221
*a. variable displacement unit b. fixed displacement unit
c. governor d. none of the above
295. The governor of a CSD unit is driven by the:
a. input gear b. input ring gear *c. output gear shaft d. none of the above
296. A CSD unit which has been disconnected during flight:
*a. may only be reconnected on the ground
b. may be recommended in flight by re-set shutdown
c. automatically resets of engine shutdown
d. none of the above
297. Rectification is the process of converting:
a. a high value of AC into a lower value b. AC into DC
*c. AC into DC d. none of the above
298. An N-type semiconductor is one having: Pallet-222
a. an excess of holes b. a deficiency of holes
*c. an excess of electrons d. none of the above
299. The three groups which usually categories the importance of consumer services are: Pallet-76
a. battery, generator, alternator *b. vital, essential, non-essential
c. TRU, engine, APU d. none of the above
300. The services which can be isolated in an in flight emergency for load shedding purposes, and
are connected to
DC and AC busbars, as appropriate and which are supplied from a generator are called: Pallet-77
a. vital services b. essential services
*c. non essential services d. none of the above
301. The services which are required to ensure safe flight in an in-flight emergency situation and
are connected to
DC and AC busbars, as appropriate and in such a way that they can always be supplied from a
generator or from
batteries are known as: Pallet-77
a. vital services *b. essential services
c. non essential services d. none of the above
302. Those services which would be required after an emergency wheel up landing and are
connected directly to

battery are known as Pallet-77


*a. vital services b. essential services
c. non essential services d. none of the above
303. The output from the aircraft generating sources is coupled to one or more low impedance
conductors which
are known as: Pallet-77
a. jumpers b. boding wires *c. bus bars d. shorting clips
304. The system shown is a: Pallet-81
a. parallel bus bar system b. split bus bar system
*c. split parallel bus bar system d. none of the above
305. Circuits in which currents and voltages are only a few milli amperes and milli volts and which
are extremely
essential utilize: Pallet-108
a. slugged relays *b. polarized relays
c. heavy duty relays d. light duly relay
306. Current transformer are: Pallet-175
a. step-up transformers *b. step-down transformers
c. have unity power factor d. as in (b) and are known as instrument transformers
307. Thermal Runaway is associated with: Pallet-23
a. lead acid battery *b. nickel cadmium battery
c. primary battery d. generator
308. When an area is contaminated with alkali electrolyte the most suitable neutralizing agents
used are/is:
CAIP/II/1000
a. saturated solution of bicarbonate of soda b. ammonic powder
c. borax powder *d. boric acid solution
309. When an area is contaminated with sulphuric acid electrolyte, the most neutralizing agent
used in:
CAIP/II/1000
a. boric acid solution b. boric acid crystals or powder
*c. saturated solution of bicarbonate of soda d. saw dust
310. Acid has spilled on the floor. The correct action taken in sequence should be: CAIP/II/1000
a. wash the area with copious amounts of water, treat the affected area with borax powder and the
whole area
should be sealed with saw dust which should then be removed & buried
b. the affected area should be treated with ammonia powder, followed by washing down with
copious amounts be
soaked up with saw dust which should then be removed and buried
*c. the acid should be socked up with saw dust which should then be removed and buried. The
affected
area should be treated with saturated solution of bicarbonate of soda, followed by washing down
with
copious amount of fresh water
d. the acid should be soaked up with saw dust which should then be removed and buried. The area
should then be
washed down with copious amounts of fresh water followed by treating the affected area with
ammonia powder.
311. The method/methods of securing a generator to an accessories gear box are: Pallet-9
a. pulleys & belts method b. quill shaft method
*c. flange or manacle ring method d. either (a) or (b)
312. Integrated drive generators means: Pallet-43
a. generator and starter in the same unit & side by side
b. starter and CSD in the same unit & side by side
*c. CSD and generator are mounted side by side to form a single compact unit
d. generator and voltage regulator are mounted side by side to form a single compact unit
313. The advantage/advantages of integrated drive generators are/is: Pallet-43 www.rjworld.com
a. reduces weight b. requires less space
b. reduces vibration *d. all of the above
314. Following a mal function, disconnection of a CSD transmission system is accomplished by:

a. mechanically by levers located in the flight crew compartment


b. electro-pneumatically
c. electro-mechanically
*d. any one of the above
315. Which transformer is preferred when different type of voltage is required from one
transformer:
Pallet-61
a. current transformer b. step-up transformer
c. auto transformer d. step down transformer
316. The device used to sense load current in an AC: Eismin-244
a. current transformer b. high range ammeter
c. potential transformer d. either (a) or (b)
317. Transformer cores are laminated in order to: BLT-1120
a. simplify its construction b. minimize the eddy current loss
c. reduce cost d. reduce hysteresis loss
318. The efficiency of a transformer is maximum when: BLT-1121
a. copper loss = iron loss b. copper loss > from loss
c. copper loss < iron loss d. none of the above
319. High frequency transformers normally use: BLT-506
a. laminated iron core b. one solid piece iron core
c. air core d. ferrite core
320. Iron losses in the transformer can be found out by: BLT-1058
a. open circuit test b. short circuit test
c. fuel load test d. 50% load test
321. The power loss due to ohmic heating in a transformer is called: JB Gupta-588
a. magnetic loss b. hysteresis loss
c. copper loss d. eddy current loss
322. In a three phase circuit: FAA-9A-414
a. IL
= IP
in star connected circuit b. IL
= IP
in delta connected circuit
c. VL
= VP
in delta connected circuit d. both (a) & (c) are correct
323. Frequency of alternator depends upon: Pallet-191
a. number of conductors b. number of poles
c. speed in rpm d. both (b) & (c) are correct
324. In brushless alternator frequency is kept constant by: FAA-9A-423
a. engine gear drive assembly b. CSD
c. varying field excitation as per frequency change d. voltage regulator
325. No-break power transfer (NBPT) means: Eismin-244 www.rjworld.com
a. when electrical power is to transferred from generator to loads the wires & cables used should
not have any
connectors, plugs & sockets or terminal blocks any where in between from busbar to the loads. This
ensures
uninterrupted supply
b. that it is a automated system in which power source is transferred without a momentary
interruption of
electric power
c. both (a) & (b)
d. none of the above
326. Cells are connected in series to: Grob, P-370
a. increase the voltage output b. decrease the voltage output
c. decrease the internal resistance d. increase the current capacity
327. A generator has an output of 10 V n open circuit, which drops to 5 V with a load current of 5
mA and RL
of
. The internal resistance ri1000

equal:
d. 1000 c. 100 b.50a. 25
328. One extra negative plate in Pb acid cell than positive plates is used in order to: FAA-9A, P-309
a. prevent positive plate from warping or buckling b. increase the cell potential
c. increase the cell capacity d. decrease the cells internal resistance
329. Ni/Cad. Cell is advantageous over Pb acid from ___ view point: FAA-9A, P-313
a. low maintenance cost and long service life b. short recharge time and good reliability
c. excellent reliability and good starting ability d. all of the above
330. During removal of battery from the a/c___ terminal is disconnect at least in order to avoid __
short:
Esmin, P-153
a. negative, accidental b. positive, accidental
c. either negative or positive, accidental d. none of the above is done
331. Which method is used to charge the battery in a/c and why? Esmin, P-153
a. constant voltage method because a/c electrical system voltage remains constant
b. constant current method order to reduce the charging time
c. constant current method to avoid much supervision
d. constant current method to need relatively less time
332. __ is one of the factor of thermal run away of Nickel/Cadmium cell: Esmin, P-47
a. damaged layer of cellophane material b. exothermic reactions at electrodes plates
c. 30% of dilute KOH by volume d. both (a) & (b)
333. A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series no-load voltage=2.1 volts per cell
furnishes 10 amperes to
a load of 2 ohms resistance. The internal resistance of the battery in this instance is: Esmin, P-33
a. 0.52 ohms b. 2.52 ohms c. 5 ohms d. 0.25 ohms
334.Active elements in a lead acid battery: Esmin, P-30
a. nickel hydrate and iron oxide b. lead peroxide and spongy lead
c. manganese dioxide and carbon d. none of these
335. When the temperature is increased, specific gravity of electrolyte: Esmin, P-41
a. increases b. decreases c. remains same d. none
336. The neutralizing agent for H2SO4
electrolyte is: Esmin, P-40
a. KOH b. HCL c. 5% bicarbonate of soda solution d. vinegar
www.rjworld.com
337. More resistance branches reduce the combine resistance (equivalent resistance) of a parallel
circuit because:
Grob, P-140
a. of more voltage drop across the resistors
b. more current is required from the same voltage
c. either (a) or (b) depending upon the value of resistance
d. none
338. The thermal protector: FAA-9A, P-307
a. is protective device b. acts as automatic CB
c. is based on different expansion of two metals d. all of the above
339. Mark the correct statement: FAA-9A, P-311
a. in a new, fully charged lead acid aircraft battery the electrolyte is approximately 30 percent
acid and 70 percent
water (by weight) and is 1.300 times as heavy as pure water.
b. in a new, fully charged lead acid aircraft battery the electrolyte is approximately 30 percent
acid and 70 percent
water (by weight) and is 1.100 times as heavy as pure water.
c. in a new, fully charged lead acid aircraft battery, the electrolyte is approximately 30 percent
acid and 70
percent water (by volume) and is 1.300 times as heavy as pure water.
d. in a new, fully charged lead acid aircraft battery, the electrolyte is approximately 30 percent
acid and 70 percent
water (by volume) and is 1.100 times as heavy as pure water
340. Mark the correct statement: FAA-9A, P-311
a. the electrolyte used in the nickel cadmium battery is a 30 percent solution (by volume) of
potassium hydroxide

(KOH) is distilled water and the specific gravity remain between 1.240 and 1.300 at room
temperature
b. the electrolyte used in the nickel cadmium battery is a 30 percent solution (by weight) of
potassium
hydroxide (KOH) in distilled water and the specific gravity of the electrolyte remains between
1.240 and
1.300 at room temperature
c. the electrolyte used in the nickel cadmium battery is a 30 percent solution (by volume) of
potassium hydroxide
(KOH) in distilled water and the specific gravity of the electrolyte remains between 1.100 and
1.220 at room
temperature
d. the electrolyte used in the nickel cadmium battery is a 30 percent solution (by weight) of
potassium hydroxide
(KOH) in distilled water and the specific gravity of the electrolyte remains between 1.100 and
1.220 at room
temperature
341. Mark the correct answer while determining the state of charge of lead acid battery: FAA-9A, P311
a. a specific gravity reading between 1.300-1.275 indicates a high state of charge whereas between
1.240
and 1.200, a low state of charge
b. a specific gravity reading between 1.275 and 1.240 indicates a high state of charge where as
between 1.240 and
1.200, a low rate state of charge
c. a specific gravity reading between 1.275 and 1.240 indicates a low state of charge
d. a specific gravity reading between 12.240 and 1.200 indicates a high state of charge
342. In a lead acid battery the specific gravity reading should be adjusted for temperature
correction:
F F and above 90 F b. below 70 F and below 90a. above 70
c. at room temperatures d. none of the above
343. If residual magnetism of a shunt generator is destroyed accidentally, it may be restored by
connected its shunt
field: B. L. Thareja, P-991
a. to earth b. to an a.c source c. in reverse d. to a d.c. source
344. The main function of interpoles is to minimize ____ between the brushes and the commutator
when the d.c.
machine is loaded:
a. friction b. sparking c. current d. wear and tear www.rjworld.com
345. shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation because of their voltage
characteristics:
B. L. Thareja, P-965/966
a. identical b. drooping c. linear d. rising
346. The voltage applied across an R-L circuit is equal to __ of VR and VL
:
a. arithmetic sum b. algebraic sum c. phasor sum d. sum of the squares
347. The rms value of sinusoidal a.c. current is equal to its value at an angle of __ degree:
a. 60 b. 45 c. 30 d. 90
. If frequency is increased 348. The reactance offered by a capacitor to alternating current of
frequency 50Hz is 10
to 100Hz reactance becomes __ ohm: B. L. Thareja, P-496
a. 20 b. 5 c. 2.5 d. 40
349. Mark the correct statement (EHJ Pallette,P-79)
a. Split Bus bar system mostly used on 4 engine A/C
b. Bus-Tie breakers are responsible for connecting different bus bars to a single Alternator
c. Split-Parallel bus bar system used on 2 engine A/C
d. Both (1) & (2)
350. In a parallel circuit, all component must :a. have the same p.d. across them b. have some value

c. carry equal currents d. carry same current


351. Parallel grouping of cells yields maximum current when external resistance :- (B.L. Thareja, .
Page 55)
a. equals internal resistance per cell
b. is greater than internal of the battery
c. equals internal resistance of the battery
d. is less than the internal resistance of the battery
352. A good electric conductor is one that :- ( B.L Thareja, Page 7)
a. Has low conductance b. Is always made of copper wire
c. Produces a minimum voltage drop d. Has few free electrons
353. The input to an A.C circuit having power factor of 0.8 lagging is 20 kV1. The power drawn by
the circuit is :a. 12kW b. 20kW c. 16kW d. 8kW
354. Three equal impedances are first connected in star across a balanced 3 phase supply, if
connected in delta
across the same supply :- (B.L Thareja, Page-532)
a. Phase current will be tripled b. Phase current will be doubled
c. Line current will become one third d. Power consumed will increase three fold
355. The chief disadvantage of a low power factor is that :- (B.L Thareja, Page-536)
a. more power is consumed by the load
b. current required for a given load power is higher
c. active power developed by a generator exceeds its rated output capacity
d. heat generated is more than he desired amount
356. Unless otherwise specified, any value given for current or voltage in an ac circuit are assumed
to be :(T.K. Eismin, Page 84)
a. Instantaneous value b. Effective values
c. Maximum values d. Average values www.rjworld.com
357. Which requires the most electrical power during operation :- ( B.L Thareja, 1991Edition, Page20)
a. a 24 volt motor requiring 8 amperes
b. four 30 watt lamps in a 12 volt parallel circuit
c. two lights required : 3 amperes each in a 24 volt parallel system
d. all the above require : same amount of power
358. When relatively high capacitance is required in a small capacitor, we use :( B.L Thareja, 1991Edition, Page-128)
a. ceramic capacitor b. paper capacitor
c. electrolytic capacitor d. mica capacitor
359. In an A.C circuit the 50% of maximum value of voltage occurs at :- ( B.L Thareja, 1991Edition,
Page-42)
a. 45 b. 60 c. 30 d. 90
360. An A.C circuit has 4 Ohm resistance and 3 Ohm reactance :- ( AC 65-9A, Page 358)
a. P.f. is 0.8 b. P.f. is 0.6 c. Impedance is 6 Ohm d. Impedance is 8 Ohm
361. The potential difference between two conductor, which are insulated from each other is
measured in:a. volts b. amperes c. coulombs d. ohms
362. The state of charge of a Ni-Cd battery can be found out by: (CAIP-II Pg-11.7)
a. Open circuit voltage b. Specific Gravity reading
c. Measured discharge test d. Amount of gassing
363. Why is the value of efficiency affected when load on transformer is varied :- ( B.L Thareja,
Page-598)
a. iron losses vary, copper loss constant b. iron losses constant, copper loss vary
c. Iron losses and copper loss vary d. efficiency is not affected
364. In modern alternator why is armature kept stationary and the field windings rotating type:(AC 65-9A, Page-412)
a. armature reactance is reduced b. improved, insulation
c. less no. of slip rings d. all are correct
365. Why is the field windings is supplied with varying D.C excitation field current as per speed and
electrical load
in A/C :- (T.K. Eismin, Page-199)

a. to have pulsating magnetic field b. to have constant voltage


c. to have pulsating magnetic field at start and constant at run d. none is correct
366. Under what conditions is the KVA rating equivalent to KW rating of transformer :- ( B.L
Thareja, Page-536)
a. Load is resistive b. Load is resistive and inductive
c. Load is resistive and capacitive d. None is correct
367. Frequency of alternator depends upon :- ( E.H.J. Pallet, Page-193)
a. number of conductors on armature b. number of poles
c. speed in r.p.m. d. Both (2) & (3) are correct
368. For symetrical wave the R.M.S value is calculated over: (EHJ Pallette, P-33)
a. Half Cycle b. One-fourth Cycle
c. Full Cycle d. all are correct
369. In Brush less A.C generator frequency is kept constant by :a. engine gear box b. CSD www.rjworld.com
c. Varying D.C excitation d. none is correct
(AC 65-9A, Page-423)
370. Permanent magnets in Brushless A.C generator are :a. Located on rotor shaft of alternator b. Located in inter polar gaps of A.C exciter
c. Used for providing initial magnetism d. Both (1) & (3) are correct
371. In modern aircraft electrical system :a. A.C generator are used for normal power
b. Battery and static inverter with 3 Phase A.C output for emergency power
c. Battery and static inverter with Single Phase A.C output for emergency power
d. Both (1) & (3) are correct
(E.H.J. Pallet, Page-78)
372. In modern aircraft electrical system :a. TRUs are used to giving 28 D.C output
b. Auto transformers are used for giving Single Phase 28 AC output
c. Static invertor is used for providing Single Phase 28V A.C output
d. All are correct
(E.H.J. Pallet, Page-78)
373. Transfer of electrical energy from one conductor to another without the aid of electrical
connections
(AC 65-9A, Page-359)
a. is called mutual induction b. is called air gap transfer
c. will cause excessive arcing and heat d. is impractical
374. The main propose of using core in a transformer is to :- (AC 65-9A, Page-358)
a. decrease iron losses b. prevent eddy current loss
c. eliminate magnetic hysteresis d. decrease reluctance of the common magnetic
circuit
375. Many of the larger transport a/c have been quipped with AC electrical system. The reason is :a. Easier to install b. Less maintenance required
c. More efficient d. All of the above
376. Sulphation in a lead-acid battery occurs due to :- (B.L Thareja,Page-351)
a. Trickle charging b. Incomplete charging
c. Heavy discharging d. Fast charging
377. Mark the NOT correct statement about the battery :- (E.H.J.Pallet, Page -49)
a. capacity of a battery is a function of total plate area
b. the capacitance is partially a function of its internal resistance
c. capacity depends upon type of separators
d. battery of higher capacity has lower internal resistance than low capacity batteries
378. Overheat of battery is indicated by :- (E.H.J. Pallet, Page-23)
a. Thermocouples
b. External temperature gauge
c. Temperature sensing devices are located with in battery
d. Hotwire instrument
379. A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series (no-load voltage = 2.1 volts per cell)
furnishes 10
Amperes to a load of 2 ohms resistance. The internal resistance of the battery in this instance is :(Numerical)

a. 0.52 ohms b. 2.52 ohms c. 5 ohms d. 0.25 ohms


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380. If electrolyte from a lead acid battery is spilled in the battery compartment, which procedure
should be
followed ? (T.K. Eismin, Page-40)
a. Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse
b. Rinse the affected area thoroughly with lean water
c. Apply sodium bicarbonate soda to the affected are followed by a water rinse
d. None of these
381. What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery when it is being
charged by a
constant voltage source :- (T.K. Eismin, Page-42)
a. the total plate area of the battery b. the state of charge of the battery
c. the ampere hour capacity of the battery d. none of these
382. Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a low liquid
level because :(T.K. Eismin, Page-52)
a. electrolyte evaporates through the vents b. of current package form individual cells
c. Electrolyte becomes absorbed into the plates d. None of these
383. When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery, the cells gas only :- (E.H.J.
Pallet, Page-23)
a. towards the end of the charging cycle b. when the electrolyte level is low
c. if they are detective d. none of these
384. In a constant current charging system, a battery requires attention at the end of charge to
avoid :(T.K. Eismin,Page-52)
a. sulphation of battery b. spilling of electrolyte
c. evaporation of electrolyte d. danger of overheating
385. A fully charged lead acid battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached
because :( T.K. Eismin, Page-39)
a. the acid is in the plates, thereby increasing the specific gravity of the solution
a. most of the acid is in the solution
b. increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to prevent freezing
c. none of these
386. The method used to rapidly charge a nickel cadmium battery utilizes :- (T.K. Eismin, Page-52)
a. constant current and constant voltage b. constant current and varying voltage
c. constant voltage and varying current d. none of these
387. The purpose of providing a space underneath, the plates in a lead acid battery container is to
a :(T.K. Eismin, Page-37)
a. prevent sediment built up from touching the plates and causing a short circuit
b. allow for convection of the electrolyte in order to provide for cooing of the plates
c. ensure that the electrolyte quantity radio to the number of the plates area is adequate
d. none of these
388. The servicing & charging of nickel cadmium and lead acid batteries together in the same
service room are likely
to result in is :- (T.K. Eismin, Page-43)
a. normal battery service life b. increased explosion and / or fire hazard
c. contamination of both types of batteries d. none of these
389. What may result it water is added to nickel cadmium battery when it is not fully charged ?
(T.K. Eismin,Page-50)
a. Excessive electrolyte deletion www.rjworld.com
b. Excessive spewing is like to occur during the charging cycle
c. No adverse effects since water may be added any time
d. None of the above
390. In nickel cadmium battery, a rise in cell temperature (T.K. Eismin, Page-45,46)
a. causes an increase in internal resistance b. causes a decrease in internal resistance
c. increases cell voltage d. has no effect
391. The electrolyte solution in Ni Cd battery is :- ( T.K. Eismin, Page-47)

a. 70% KOH and 30% distilled water, by weight


b. 30% KOH and 70% distilled water, by weight
c. 70% KOH and 30% distilled volume, by weight
d. 30% KOH and 70% distilled volume, by weight
392. Which D.C. generator has the poorest voltage regulation :- (B.L Thareja, Page 288)
a. over compound
b. flat compound
c. shunt
d. series
393. Brushes of electrical machines wear out very rapidly, at high attitude, due to absence of
moisture in air, the
cause is :- (E.H.J. Pallet, Page-10)
a. friction between brushes and attitude because the lubrication film can not form
b. contact resistance becomes negligible giving rise to heavy reactive sparking and accelerated
brush erosion
c. static electrical charges due to friction, producing molecular breakdown of the brushes
d. all the above
394. Interlopes are connected :a. in series with armature winding only
b. in series with armature winding and compensating winding
c. in series with auxiliary internal
d. each statement is true
395. The primary reason for providing compensating winding in a D.C generator is to :(T.K. Eismin, Page-195)
a. compensate for decrease in main flux b. neutralize armature mmf
c. neutralize cross magnetizing flux d. maintain uniform flux distribution
396. Generator inter poles :- ( T.K. Eismin, Page-195)
a. improve generator output b. prolong the life of the brushes and commutator
c. reduces radio interference d. all of the above
397. The commutation process in DC Generator basically involves :- (B.L Thareja, Page-611)
a. Passage of current from moving armature to a stationary
b. Reversal of current in an armature coil as it crosses MNA
c. Conversion of A.C to D.C
d. Suppression of reactance voltage
398. The main function of an equalizer bar is to made the parallel operation of two over
compounded D.C
Generator :- (B.L Thareja, Page-620)
a. stable b. possible c. regular d. smooth
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399. For the voltage built up of a self excited D.C. generator which of the following is NOT an
essential condition
(TK Eismin, P-198)
a. There must be some residual flux b. Field winding mmf must aid the residual flux
c. Total field circuit resistance must be less than the critical value
d. Aarmature speed must be very high
400. If residual magnetism of a shunt generator is destroyed accidentally, it may be restored by
connecting the shunt
field :- (T.K. Eismin, Page-193)
a. to earth b. to an A.C. source
c. in reverse d. to a D.C source
401. In a D.C generator the conversion of induced A.C to D.C is accomplished by :- (T.K. Eismin,
Page-191)
a. the generator commutator b. a battery connected inverter
c. two groups of generator interposers d. a battery connected rectifier transformer combination
.
402. During flight, when more power is needed, the generator voltage will :- (T.K. Eismin, Page199)
a. remain at a constant value, however the current flow will increase
b. automatically decrease because of the greater current flow
c. remains at a constant value, the current will also remain at a constant value

d. increase at a steady value in order to restrict the current flow


403. In a long shunt compound wound generator, the shunt field is connected in parallel with :(B.L Thareja, Page 270)
a. Armature b. Series field
c. Parallel combination of armature and series field d. Series combination of armature and series
field
A/C WIRING SYSTEM
404. Cable used where temperature is high and also severe flexibility is required under low
temperature conditions:
(Ref. EHJ Pallet, 83)
a. unifier F b. FEPSIL
c. EFGLAS d. TERSIL
405. Certain terminal box/junction boxes are having one side open while fitting these the open side
should be:
(Ref. AC 43 MRO Manual)
a. open outward b. open downward
c. open horizontally d. open backward
406. The insulation on electrical conductor to be used in fire area: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 83)
a. TERSIL b. FEPSIL
c. NYVIN d. None
407. The system of wiring used in modern a/c is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 87)
a. in d.c. power supply single wire earth return system is used
b. all negative connections are connected to aircraft structure at various earth stations
c. for a.c. power supply circuits the airframe also serves as a connection for the neutral point.
d. all the above are true.
408. The earth conductor on a/c should be checked for: (Ref. EHJ Pallet)
a. corrosion b. mechanical strength
c. IR drop d. all the above
409. Co-axial cables are used for: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 87) www.rjworld.com
a. ignition harness b. generator cables
c. fuel quantity indicating system d. none of the above
410. The composition of cable loom is governed by factors such as: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 85)
a. overall diameter/ electrical resistance of wire b. temperature conditions
c. types of circuit with which cables are associated
d. all are correct
411. Electric wire terminals for most aircraft application must be what type? (Ref. TK Eismin, 66)
a. soldered type b. hook type
c. slotted type d. ring type or fork type
412. Which of the following factors must be taken into consideration when determining the wire
size to use for a/c
installation: (Ref. TK Eismin, 60)
a. allowable power loss/permissible voltage drop
b. current carrying capacity of wire
c. type of load (continuous or intermittent)
d. all the above
413. How should the splices be arranged if several are to be located in an electrical wire bundle:
(Ref. TK Eismin, 70)
a. staggered along the length of the bundle b. grouped together to facilitate inspection
c. enclosed in a conduit d. any one of the above
414. When electric cables must pass through holes in the bulk head, formers, ribs, firewalls etc,
the wire must be
protected for chaffing by: (Ref. TK Eismin, 65)
a. wrapping with electrical tapes b. using a rubber grommet
c. wrapping with plastic d. any one of the above
415. In ducted loom wiring system, the duct may be made of: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 85)
a. aluminum b. resin impregnated asbestos
c. molded fibre glass re-inforced plastic d. all are correct
416. The insulation used on the electrical wire should confirm to the following rigid requirement:
(Ref. EHJ Pallet, 85)
a. toughness and flexibility over a fairly wide range of temperature

b. resistance to fuels, lubricants and hydrolic fluids


c. ease of stripping for terminating, non-flammability and minimum weight
d. all the above
417.During installation of electrical connections on terminals strips of an aircraft electrical system,
it should be
determined that: (Ref. TK Eismin, 70)
a. only locknuts have been used for terminal attachment to the studs.
b. the terminal should be anchor against rotation
c. only plain nuts and lockwashers have been used for terminal attachment to the studs
d. any one of the methods can be used
418. While routing electrical cable the precautions to be used are:
a. protection to the wires against heat, liquids, abrasion and wear
b. clamps should be installed in such a manner that the wires do not come in contact with other
parts of the aircraft
when subjected to vibration www.rjworld.com
c. sufficient slack should be left between the last clamp and electrical equipment to prevent strain
at wire terminal
d. all the above (Ref. TK Eismin, 64)
419. The open wiring system what precaution should be used:
a. the number of wires grouped in a bundle should be limited in order to reduce the problems of
maintenance and
to limit damage in case a short circuit should occur and burn of the wire in bundle
b. shielded cable, ignition cable and wires that is not protected by circuit breaker or fuse should be
routed separately
c. the bending radius of a wire bundle should not be less than 10 times the outer diameter of the
bundle
d. all the above (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 62)
420. What is true about aluminum wires used in aircraft:
a. an aluminum conductor having same resistance as copper conductor, has only two thirds of the
weight but twice
the cross sectional area of copper conductor
b. aluminum wire smaller than AWG size 6 is not acceptable
c. aluminum wires can not be soldered. In many cases aluminum wire requires a special wirestripping tool to ensure
that the strands are not nicked or broken
d. all the above (Ref. TK Eismin, 70)
421. The crimped terminations are considered superior to soldering termination:
a. crimpling is faster, easier and uniform action can be assured
b. good electrical conductivity and lower voltage drop
c. strong electrical connection, no chance of shorting as solder is not used and no heating required,
dry joints are
eliminated
d. all the above (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 88)
422. The composition of cable loom is dictated by such factors as:
a. overall diameter and temperature conditions
b. type of current, ac or dc, intermittent duty or continuous duty
c. interference resulting from inductive or magnetic effect
d. all the above (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 84)
423. For connecting aluminum termination, the hardware to be used is made of:
a. aluminum or aluminum alloy
b. should be plated with cadmium or some other compatible material
c. both a & b are correct
d. brass to used (Ref. TK Eismin, 70)
424. Which of the following statements is correct for connectors:
a. AN connectors are of five basic classes
b. connectors of classes A, B, C & D are made of copper
c. class K is made of steel
d. both a & c are correct (Ref. AC65 -12A, 258)
425.Where physical separation of wire bundle is not possible with a metal line carrying a flammable
fluid:

(Ref. TK Eismin, 65)


a. wires should be placed above the flammable fluid line and securely clamped to the structure
b. wires must be placed in conduits
c. wire should be wrapped with PVC tube or tape
d. any one of the above method can be used
426. While pulling the cables wire bundle through conduits the recommended lubrication to be used
is:
(Ref. TK Eismin -66) www.rjworld.com
a. light weight vegetable based grease b. powered graphite
c. talc powder d. easily available hydrolic oil om-15
427. Nickel-coated copper wire must be used at temperatures: Eismin, P-56
C) F (260 C) and 500 F (220 C) b. 392 F (220 C) and 392 F (105a. 221
C) d. none of the above C and 100c. 50
428. For rectangular conductors the size of the wire is measured in: Eismin, P-57
a. circular mil b. rectangular mil c. square mil d. none of the above is correct
429. Intermittent circuits carry current for intervals of: Eismin, P-58
a. 15 min. or less b. 10 min. or less
c. 5 min. or less d. 2 min. or less
430. A continuous flow is considered to be any circuit that carries current for a period longer than:
Eismin, P-58
a. min. b. 1 min. c. 2 min. d. 4 min.
431. The maximum allowable voltage drop for continuous operation in a 28 volt system is:
Eismin, P-58
a. 8 volts b. 4 volts c. 2 volts d. 1 volt
432. The maximum allowable voltage drop for continuous operation in a 14 volts system is: Eismin,
P-58
a. 4 volts b. 2 volts c. 1 volts d. 0.5 volt
433. The maximum allowable voltage drop for continuous operation in a 115 volts system is: Eismin,
P-58
a. 7.0 volts b. 4.0 volts c. 1.0 volts d. 0.5 volts
434. The maximum allowable voltage drop for continuous operation in a 200 volts system is: Eismin,
P-58
a. 7.00 volts b. 4.00 volts c. 1.00 volts d. 0.5 volts
435. The maximum allowable voltage drop for intermittent operation in a 14 volts system is:
Eismin, P-58
a. 14.00 volts b. 8.00 volts c. 2.00 volts d. 1.00 volts
436. The maximum allowable voltage drop for intermittent operation in 28 volts system is: Eismin,
P-58
a. 1.00 b. 2.00 c. 8.0 d. 14.00
437. The maximum allowable voltage drop for intermittent operation in 115 volts system is: Eismin,
P-58
a. 14.0 system b. 8.0 volts c. 2.00 volts d. 1.00 volts
438. The maximum allowable voltage drop for intermittent operation in 200 volts system is:
a. 14.0 volts b. 8.0 volts c. 2.0 volts d. 1.00 volts
439. The maximum size of aluminium wire used for aircraft is: Eismin, P-59,70
a. AL-8 b. AL-6 c. AL-4 d. AL-2
440. Mark the correct statement while replacing copper wire with aluminium wire: Eismin, P-59
a. In general, an aluminium wire two sizes larger than the copper wire be acceptable
b. In general, an aluminium wire one sizes larger than the copper wire be acceptable
c. In general, an aluminium wire two sizes smaller than the copper wire be acceptable
d. none of the above
441. MTCS about aircraft cables & wires: Eismin, P-63 www.rjworld.com
a. when the continuous lacing is applied, the first loop is a clove hitch locked with a double
overhand knot
in single cord lacing.
b. when the continuous lacing is applied the first loop is a bowline-on-a-bight knot with a single
overhand knot in
single cord lacing

c. when the continuous lacing is applied, the first loop is a clove hitch locked with a single
overhand knot in single
cord lacing
d. when the continuous lacing is applied the first loop is a bowline-on-a-bight knot in a single cord
lacing
442. MTCS about aircraft cables & wires: Eismin, P-63
a. when the continuous lacing is applied the first loop is a clove-hitch locked with a double
overhand knot in double
cord lacing
b. when the continuous lacing is applied, the first loop is a clove hitch locked with a single
overhand knot
in single cord lacing
c. when the continuous lacing is applied the clove hitch locked with a single overhand knot in
double cord lacing
d. none of the above
443. The terminating ends of the cord, while trying or lacing wire bundles, are trimmed to provide
a minimum
length of: Eismin, P-63
a. 3/8 inch b. 3/16 inch c. 3/32 inch d. 3/64 inch
444. In open areas, the cable bundles should be laced or tied if supports for the cable are more
than:
Eismin, P-62
a. 4 inches apart b. 6 inches apart
c. 8 inches apart d. 12 inches apart
445. Mark the correct statement about the cable installation: Eismin, P-64
a. when a cable clamp is mounted on a vertical member, the loop of the clamp should always be at
the
bottom
b. when a cable clamp is mounted on a vertical member, the loop of the clamp should always be at
the top
c. when a cable clamp is mounted on a vertical member, the loop of the clamp should always be at
the right angle
d. when a cable clamp is mounted on a vertical member, the loop of the clamp should always be at
the side with a
angle of 60
446. MTCS about cables wire installation: Eismin, P-65
a. a grommet is not required if a wire bundle is held by a clamp in the centre of a hole through a
bulkhead, and the
clearance between the edge of hole and the bundle is more than inch
b. a grommet is required if a wire bundle is held by a clamp in the centre of a hole through a
bulkhead, and the
clearance between the edge of the hole and the bundle is less than inch
c. both (a) & (b) are correct
d. both (a) & (b) are incorrect
447. The type of cable used for general services wiring is: Eismin, P-83
a. NYVIN b. PREN c. TERSIL d. either (a) or (b)
448. The type of cable used for areas where screening is required is: Pallet, P-83
a. NYVIN MET Sheath b. NYVIN c. PREN d. EF glass
449. The type of cable most appropriate to be used in landing gear shock strut switch circuit is:
Pallet, P-83
a. unifire F b. nyvin met sheath
c. FEPSIL d. EF glass
450. The type of conductor used in UNIFIRE-f cable is: Pallet, P-83 www.rjworld.com
a. tinned copper conductor b. aluminium
c. nickel-plated copper d. silver plated copper
451. The type of cable used in high temperature areas where resistance of aircraft fluids is
necessary is:
Pallet, P-83
a. UNIFIRE-f b. NYVIN MET SHEATH c. EF GLASS d. TERSIL
452. The type of cable used in circuits required to function during or after a fire is: Pallet, P-83

a. NYVIN b. UNIFIRE-f c. NYVIN FIRE-f d. EF GLASS


453. Potting means/related to:
a. bonding jumpers b. plugs & sockets
c. nickel cadmium battery d. lead acid battery
Pallet, P-92
454. The magnetic indicators in which an electromagnet rotates a ball through 150 degrees give:
Pallet, P-130
a. one-position indications b. two-positions indications
c. three-positions indications d. four-positions indications
455. The total no. of allowable nicked and broken strands in aluminium cables is: Eismin, P-70
a. 2 nicked, none broken b. 4 nicked, none broken
c. none nicked, none broken d. data in sufficient
456. For a wire length of 6 inches the indication marking is done on/at: AGE Lalit Gupta, P-281
a. 3 inches interval b. near each ends
c. exactly in the centre d. it need not be marked
457. Identification code on a cables is printed: AGE Lalit Gupta, P-281
a. near each end and at 12 to 15 inch intervals
b. near each end and at 15 to 18 inch intervals
c. at 24 inch intervals
d. none of the above
458. The unit of magneto motive force (m.m.f.) is: Pallet, P-196
a. ampere-turns b. tesla
c. ampere per meter d. weber
459. A wire is marked as 1P1A22N. The number 22 here indicates: Pallet, P-185
a. cable number b. cable size
c. cable segment d. current carrying capacity of cable is 22 amps
460 .The lighting used for the general illumination of cockpit areas is: Pallet, P-152
a. electroluminescent lighting b. pillar lights
c. eye brow lights d. flood lights
461. The studs of electric terminal strips can accommodate: Eismin, P-69
a. 2 terminals b. 4 terminals c. 6 terminals d. 8 terminals
462. MTCS about the electrical connectors: Eismin, P-71
a. a connector assembly consists of plug and sockets
b. a connector assembly consists of plug and receptacle
c. as in (a) and plug contains pins & socket contain inserts
d. as in (b) and plug contains sockets and receptacle contains pins www.rjworld.com
463. Which of the following is a fire proof connector: 15A, P-455
a. class A b. class D c. class K d. class M
464. Mark the correct answer about identification markings on cables: 15A, P-440
a. wire are usually marked at intervals of not more than 15 inch lengthwise and within 6 inch of
each junction on
terminating point
b. wires are usually marked at intervals of not more than 18 inch length wise and within 3 inch of
each junction or
termination point
c. wires are usually marked at intervals of not more than 15 inch length wise and within 3 inch of
each
junction or termination point
d. wires are usually marked at intervals of not more than 15 inch length wise and within 6 inch of
each junction or
termination point
465.. Identify the given knot on a wire bundle: 15A, P-443
a. clove hitch only b. clove hitch with square knot
c. bowline-on-a-bight d. none of the above
466. Mark the correct statement about the routing of wires in areas containing combustible fluids
on oxygen lines:
15A, P-446
a. wires should be on a level with plumbing lines b. wires should be above the plumbing lines
c. wires should be below the plumbing lines d. either (a) or (b)
467. Conduits are used to: 15A, P-457

a. protect the wires & cables mechanically b. protect the wires & cables from hydraulic fluids or
oils
c. either (a) or (b) d. both (a) & (b)
468. Wire bundles can generally have: 15A, P-441
a. 50-75 wires b. 75-100 wires c. 100-125 wires d. 125-150 wires
469. Identify the following knot on a wire bundle: 15A, P-448
a. clove hitch b. bowline on a bight c. double knot d. none of the above
www.rjworld.com
470. Identify the given knot on a wire bundle: 15A, P-447
a. clove hitch only b. clove hitch with square knot
c. bowline-on-a-bight d. none of the above
471. The maximum gap between two successive aircraft cable makings can be: FAA-15A, P-440
a. 12 inches b. 15 inches c. 18 inches d. 24 inches
472. A wire bundle has a dia. of 3 inches. The most suitable lacing to be done on it is: AGE/286
a. single load lacing with bowline-on-a-bight knot
b. double cord lacing with clove-hitch knot
c. single cord lacing with clove-hitch knot
d. double cord lacing with bowline-on-a-bight knot
473. Recommend knot for starting the single cord lacing method:
a. clove-hitch
b. bowline-on-a-bight
c. as in (a) and double looped over head knot
d. as in (a) and single looped overhand knot
474. Corona discharge occurs more readily at: Pallet-94
a. curves and sections of wing which have minimum radii b. wing tips
c. trailing edges, pitot tubes d. all of the above
475. In the six position cable identification code under ATA-100, the 5th
position indicates: Pallet-186
a. cable number b. cable size c. cable segment d. either (a) or (b)
476. In the ATA-100 cable identification code if he cable is a coaxial one, the following position
code is omitted:
Pallet-186
a. 1st
& 3rd
positions b. 4th
& 5th
positions
c. only 5th
position is omitted d. only last position is omitted
477. A cable is marked as 2-3A-AL. It indicates: Pallet-186
a. aluminium cable b. thermocouple cable
c. as in (a) and size as AL3 d. as in (b) and its conductor is alumel
478. A connection in which a cable conductor is secured by compression to a termination so that
the metals of both
are held together in close contact is called: CAIP/II/1008
a. soldered connection b. flawless connection
c. crimped connection d. looped connection
www.rjworld.com
479. Terminals used to connect aluminium wires are/is:
CAIP/II/1010
a. aluminium only b. bimetal (Al. Cu) c. either (a) or (b) can be used d. copper
480. Potting: Pallet-92
a. is a technique usually applied to plugs & sockets
b. is a method of cooling the generator
c. is a method of bonding major components to structures of aircraft
d. is a method of bonding secondary components to structure of aircraft
481. The frequency of a 2 pole alternator running at 3600 RPM: BLT/1991/636
a. 50 b. 60 c. 120 d. 720
7. AIRCRAFT SYSTEM
482. Sparking caused by discharge of static electricity is prevented by: (Ref. RollsRoyce-153)

a. bonding all a/c and engine components


b. bonding is not required
c. unnecessary weight is increased
d. none of the above
483. In thermocouple system of fire detector: (Ref. RollsRoyce-154)
a. two dissimilar metals are joined together to form two junctions
b. rise in temperature produces an e.m.f. that triggers the detector
c. both a & b is correct
d. none of the above
484. Failure to obtain an alarm signal when the test switch is actuated may be caused by: Ref. FAA12A 405
a. defective test switch or control unit
b. lack of electric power
c. both a & b
d. as in c & an opening in the sensing element
485. The firewire system for fire detection is considered superior because Ref. EHJ Pallet, 163
a. it provides maximum coverage of an engine fire zone
b. it can eliminate the use of a considerable number of fire detector
c. coverage area can be easily increased by extending the fire wire length by special coupling
unit
d. all the above
486. The fire wire fire detecting system working on the principle of change of capacitance with
the temperature,
the
principle advantage of the system is that: (Ref. EHJ Pallet)
a. a short circuit grounding the element or system wire does not result in a false fire warning
b. it does not result in a false fire warning
c. both a & b are correct
487. In Lindberg Donner system, the principle utilized to give indication for overheat or fire
warning is:
(Ref. EHJ Pallet, 164)
a. change in capacitance with change in temperature
b. change in resistance valve due to change in temperature
c. change in gas pressure with change in temperature to actuate diaphragm operated contacts
d. none of the above www.rjworld.com
488. For starting engine the type of fire extinguisher required to be positioned is: (Ref. FAA 120T)
a. foam type b. CO2
c. Water type d. no need to have a fire extinguisher positioned
489. The purpose of normally closed diaphragm operated low pressure switch in Lindberg Donner
system is:
a. to indicate presence of gas in the detector
b. to make the detector inoperative in case gas pressure is reduced or completely leaked (Ref.
EHJ Pallet, 164)
c. both a & b are correct
490. The fixed fire extinguishers used in aircraft are operated: (Ref. General)
a. mechanically b. electrically
c. both a & b d. pneumatically
491. To blow out jet pipe fire: (Ref. General)
a. use appropriate fire extinguisher b. cold crank the engine
c. start the engine and blow out the fire d. any of the above
492. Thermistor consists of semi-conductor material whose resistance changes as: (Ref. RollsRoyce
-155)
a. increase of pressure b. increase of temperature
c. increase of velocity d. any of the above
493. The charge of fire extinguisher: (Ref. AC65-12A/400)
a. is sprayed through perforated pipes on nozzle into the cold zone of engine
b. is sprayed into the hot zone, around combustion chamber
c. sprayed around the exhaust pipe
d. all are correct
494. Type of fire detectors most commonly used for fast detection of fires are: (Ref. FAA-12A 399)

a. rate of temperature rise b. radiation sensing


c. over heat detectors d. all the above are correct
495. Automatic heat sensing fire detection circuit consists of: (Ref. FAA-12A 399)
a. heat sensing unit b. controlling unit
c. a relay and warning devices d. all the above
496. Fire protection installation continuous loop is supported by attachment or clamps every:
(Ref. FAA-12A 400)
a. 6 8 inches b. 8 10 inches
c. 10 12 inches d. 4 6 inches
497. Too great distance between support of continuous loop system may: (Ref. FAA-12A 400)
a. permit vibration b. as in a & chafing
c. as in b & false alarms d. none
498. A fire warning light for each engine is located in a: (Ref. FAA-12A 405)
a. special fire switch handle on the instrument panel b. light shield
c. fire control panel d. all the above are correct
499. In fire extinguishing system if cartridge is removed from a discharge valve for any reason:
www.rjworld.com
(Ref. AC65-12A/407)
a. can be fitted back to original assembly only b. all the cartridges can be interchanged
c. removed cartridge can not be replaced d. none of the above
500. On periodic check of fire extinguisher container, the pressure was not between minimum and
maximum limits,
under ambient temperature condition, the procedure should be followed: (Ref. AC65 12A/406)
a. replace the container if pressure is above the maximum limit
b. replace the container if pressure is below the minimum limit
c. replace the container
d. release the a/c with MEL
501. Mark the correct statement for Kidde sensing element: (Ref. AC65 12A/393)
a. two wires are embedded in a special ceramic core within Inconel tube
b. one of the two wires is welded to the case at each end & act as an internal ground
c. the second wire provides a current signal when ceramic core material changes its resistance with
a change in
temperature
d. all are correct
502. The contents of fixed types fire bottles in the a/c is generally: (Ref. AC65 12A/395)
a. CO2
b. methyle bromide
c. halogenated hydrocarbon (commonly called freon), Halon 1211 of Halon 1301
d. none of the above
503. Mark the correct statement for strobe lighting: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 147)
a. capacitor discharge type
b. flashing frequency is 70 per minute
c. uses xenon filled tube
d. all the above are correct
504. The instrument lighting system used in a/c is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 151)
a. pillar lights b. bridge lights
c. wedge light
d. all the above
505. Dome light in the cockpit is dimmed by: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 153)
a. resistance in series
b. choke in series
c. capacitor in series
d. none of the above
506. Emergency lights in cockpit and passenger cabin illuminate: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 154)
a. in the event of power failure in a/c
b. primary control of the lights is by means of a s/w on a cockpit overhead panel
c. illumination is normally at a lower lever
d. all are correct
507. What is colour and orientation of the position lights for navigation light on civil air planes:
(Ref. EHJ Pallet, 145)

a. port green, st. bd. red, rear white b. port red, st. bd. green, rear white
c. port white, st. bd. green, rear red d. none of the above
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508. Runway turn off lights are used to provide illumination area to: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 146)
a. the immediate right and left of aircraft b. rear of the a/c
c. both a & b are correct
d. none of the above
509. Mark the correct statement of strobe lighting: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 147)
a. its input supply is 28v DC or 115v, 400 Hz a.c
b. output is capacitor discharge, 450v and light is white in colour
c. typical flashing frequency is 70 per minute
d. all are correct
510. The landing gear warning usually provide which of the following indications: (Ref. EHJ Pallet,
176)
a. red light for unsafe gear, no light for gear down, green light for gear up
b. green light for gear up and down, red light for unsafe gear
c. red light for unsafe gear, green lights for gear down, no light for gear up
d. none of the above
511. Anti-skid sensor is sensing: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 178)
a. speed of the a/c
b. pressure of brake unit
c. temperature difference between hydrolic oil and atmosphere temperature
d. all the above are correct
512. The anti-skid system works on the principle: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 178)
a. it monitors the rate of wheel deceleration
b. if the rate of deceleration is very high, correction signed is applied to control valve
c. the control valve diverts the fluid reaching to brake system, hence wheel spin up and causes to
brakes to be
reapplied
d. all are correct
513. In anti-skid system the reference speed signal is given by: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 178)
a. transducers in the main wheels
b. transducer in the nose wheels
c. internal reference velocity signal is inbuilt to skid control unit
d. none of the above
514. The purpose of thermal switch incorporated in wind shield motor unit: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 179)
a. to open the motor circuit if field winding temperature attains approximately 1500
c temperature
b. if current in field winding exceed pre-determine valve i.e. 8 to 10 amps.
c. to limit the operating speed of motor
d. both a & b are correct
515. Wind shield motor works on: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 179)
a. electric supply b. pneumatic supply
c. hydrolic supply d. all the above
516. Anti-icing system used for pitot/static head is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 215)
a. natural air b. electrical heating
c. chemical heating d. all the above are correct
517. In de-icing system, where pneumatic boots are used, the ice is removed: (Ref. EHJ Pallet,
169)
a. by directing the hot air on the ice through the holes of boots
b. by heating thin conducting coating provided over the surfaces of boot www.rjworld.com
c. by inflation and deflation, causing ice to break up and with aid of air stream, crack off
d. both a & b care correct
518. The method of de-icing used for helicopter blades is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 168)
a. pneumatic
b. electrical
c. spray of chemical on the blade
d. de-icing is not required. Ice is automatically thrown away due to centrifugal forces acting on the
blades
519. The purposes of time delay in rain repellent system is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 179)

a. to allow measured fluid to flow under pressure through the spray nozzle and onto the windshield
once
with single operation of push switch
b. to allow fluid to flow after delay of 0.25 seconds
c. to allow fluid to flow regularly after interval of 0.25 seconds
d. all the above are correct
520. The braking effect in windshield wiper motor in parking position is effected by: (Ref. EHJ
Pallet, 178)
a. brake solenoid
b. eddy current effect
c. the motor operates a cam to change over the brake switch contacts which then short out the
armature to
stop the motor
d. eddy current
521. Mark the correct statement for windshield rain repellent system: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 179)
a. rain is repelled by electrical heating
b. compressed air is directed on to the windshield to remove rain particles
c. fluid is prayed through nozzles which causes the surface tension in water to change to that the
water is
formed into globule which are blown off the windshield by air stream
d. all are correct
522. As per the requirement the windshield wiper motor operated on various speeds. The speed
regulation is
effected by: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 178)
a. controlling the shunt filed strength of the motor
b. using tapped transformer
c. controlling the series filed strength
d. connecting resistance in series with the d.c. power supply
523. Mark the correct statement for ice detection in the air: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 174)
a. the ice accretion causes a drop in pressure sensed by the probe and a diaphragm the deflection
of which make
the circuit to warning light
b. knife edge cutter method
c. ultrasonic probe system
d. all the above
524.Where the temperature sensing element is located in electrical heated windshields: (Ref. EHL
Pallet, 172)
a. within the cockpit and operated by pilot b. above the windshield
c. embedded within the panel d. just outside the windshield but touching it firmly
525. Mark the correct statement for windshield heating on large aircraft: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 170)
a. transparent stannic oxide or gold film is used
b. metal is deposited on the inside of the outer glass layer
c. power necessary to deal with severe icing conditions in the order of 5 6 watts/in2
of windshield area www.rjworld.com
d. all are correct
526. Generally in turbo propeller engine installation: (Ref. RollsRoyce, 150)
a. electrical system of ice protection is used
b. electrical heating is used on air intakes cowling of the engine, propeller blade an spinner
c. none of the above
d. both a & b are correct
527. Rain protection is provided in aircraft: (Ref. EHL Pallet, 178)
a. by use of windshield wipers on pilots and co-pilots windscreen
b. by spraying rain repellant on pilots and co-pilots windscreen
c. no need for any such arrangement
d. both a & b systems are used
528. Safety relief valve in pressurization system operates: (Ref. General)
a. pneumatically b. mechanically
c. electrically d. automatically
529. Temperature sensors used in ducting in air conditioning system provide signal in unbalance
condition to

operate:
(Ref. EHJ Pallet, 181)
a. pack valve b. temperature control valve / mix valve
c. mixing valve d. air cycle machine
530. The ram air flows from: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 181)
a. primary heat exchanger b. secondary heat exchanger
c. air cycle machine d. both a & b are correct
531. The purpose of limit sensor and anticipator sensor is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 181)
a. to regulate air conditioning temperature
b. to modulate any rapid changes demanded by an unbalanced control bridge so that when the
actuator
control moves the mix valve it will produce cabin temperature changes without sudden blast of hot
air and
cold air, and without raising duct temperature above limits
c. to switch off the air conditioning when the temperature exceeded the anticipated limit
d. all the above
532. The safety valve in air conditioning and pressurization system works: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 181)
a. with electric supply
b. with hydrolic supply
c. works automatically with air pressure from cabin (pneumatically)
d. none of the above
533. The purpose of dump valve is: (Ref. General)
a. to release cabin pressure to atmosphere on landing
b. to ensure that differential cabin pressure is maintained through out the flight
c. to maintain cabin temperature as per the setting
d. none of the above
534. In large aircraft the air conditioning and pressurization is done with help of: (Ref. EHJ Pallet,
180)
a. freon refrigent b. liquid ammonia cycle
c. compressed air taken from engine compressor d. all of the above
535. Down stream temperature of air cycle machine is controlled by: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 181)
www.rjworld.com
a. pack valve
b. temperature control valve (also known as mix valve)
c. zone controller d. temperature
536. The principle of smoke detector in aircraft is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 164)
a. infrared beam of light passes through the air sample
b. air is sampled and any smoke present, causes a change of electric current in photo diode
c. change in the density of air sample due to presence of smoke is measured by density motor
537. The horn in landing gear warning circuit is activated by: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 176)
a. up lock micro s/w
b. down lock micro s/w
c. engine throttle retard micro s/w
d. all the above
538. When the resistance type continuous wire fire warning element gets broken: Pallet, P-163
a. fire warning system will not work satisfactorily
b. fire warning system will still work satisfactorily
c. as in (a) and a horn comes on when the continuous wire breaks down
d. none of the above statements are correct regarding fire warning system
539. The aft (tail) navigation light: Eismin, P-250
on each side of the centre line of the aircraft and to the rear a. must show light through an angle
of 70
on each side of the centre line of the aircraft and to the rear b. must show light through an angle
of 50
on each side of the centre line of the aircraft and to the rear c. must show light through an angle
of 140
d. none of the above
540. An increase in which of the following factors will cause an increase in the inductive reactance
of a circuit:

Eismin, P-87
a. capacitance and voltage b. inductance and frequency
c. voltage and resistance d. resistance and capacitive reactance
541. Through which material will magnetic lines of force pass most readily: BLT, P-745
a. copper b. iron c. aluminium d. titanium
542. The power factor of a parallel resonance circuit is: BLT, P-555
a. one b. zero c. 0.5 d. 0.707
543. Current transformers are/have: Pallet, P-126
a. step-down transformer b. step-up transformer
c. transformation ratio as one d. none of the above
544. The purpose of the current transformer is: Pallet, P-126
a. to step-up the voltage
b. to step-down the voltage
c. to measure large AC load currents of main lines
d. none of the above is correct
545. Mark the correct statement about shunts: Pallet, P-126
a. shunts used in DC circuits have two terminals while those in AC have for terminals
b. shunts used in DC circuits have four terminals while those used in AC have two terminals
c. shunts used in both AC & DC circuits always have four terminals www.rjworld.com
d. shunts used in both AC & DC circuits always have two terminals
546. Mark the correct statement about instrument transforms: BLT/2005/444-446
a. current transformers are used with high range ammeters whereas potential transformer are used
with low range
voltmeter
b. current transformers are used with low range ammeters whereas potential transformers are used
with high range
voltmeters
c. both current and potential transformers are used with low range meters
d. none of the above
547. Mark the most appropriate choice with regard to meter sensitivity: FAA-9A, P-325,329
a. the sensitivity of a meter movement is expressed as the amount of current required to give fullscale deflection
b. the sensitivity of a meter movement is expressed as the number of millivolts across the meter
when full scale
current flows through it
/E) and is determined by dividing the resistance of the c. the sensitivity of a voltmeter is given in
ohms per volt (
meter plus the series resistance by the full-scale reading in volts.
d. all of the above
548. The range of an ammeter can be extended by:
a. connecting a high value resistance in parallel with the meter movement
b. connecting a low value resistance in parallel with the meter movement
c. connecting a high value resistance in series with the meter movement
d. connecting a low value resistance in series with the meter movement
549. A typical frequency of anti-collision light beam rotation is: Pallet-224
a. 40-45 cycles per minute b. 80-90 cycles per second
c. 80-90 cycles per minute d. 100-120 cycles per minute
550. Retractable type landing lights utilize: Pallet-149
a. split field series motors b. hydraulic power c. either (a) or (b) d. both (a) & (b)
551. Strobe light utilize: Pallet-147
a. DC driven motor b. capacitor discharge flash tube
c. split field series motor d. hydraulic power
552. Pillar lights are located on/at/in: Pallet-151
a. on the pillars in the passenger compartments b. on the pillars in the cabin
c. on the pillars in the nose strut d. on the main instrument panel
553. Integral lights are fitted at/on/in: Pallet-151
a. inside the landing lights b. inside the taxying lights
c. inside the ice inspection light d. inside the instruments
554. Bridge lighting is located at/on/in: Pallet-151
a. passenger cabin

b. bridge lighting is recessed into the sides of the fuselage and are preset to direct beams of light
at the required
angles
c. on the instruments outside
d. on the instruments inside
555. When a resistance type continuous wire fire detector is broken, it: Pallet-163
a. gives a false warning
b. the system becomes inoperative www.rjworld.com
c. the warning function is no way affected
d. none of the above is correct
556. The principal advantage of capacitive type of fire warning system is that: Pallet-164
a. it can work on DC as well as AC
b. a short circuit grounding the element or system wiring does not result in a false fire warning
c. it utilizes very small amount of power
d. it does not need fire extinguishers
557. Smoke detectors use: Pallet-166
a. capacitor discharge tubes b. spot fire detectors
c. continuous fire wire elements d. photo diodes
558. The safety switches in landing gear control circuit are located at/on/inside: Pallet-175
a. up lock assembly b. down lock assembly
c. landing gear shock struts d. inside the relay
559. When all the lights in the under carriage position indicator are extinguished, it indicates:
Pallet-176
a. all gears down and locked b. all gears up and locked
c. all gears in the travelling mode d. all gears are unlocked
560. The purpose of safety switch in landing gear control circuit is: Pallet-175
a. to bring all gears safely down
b. to make the touch down as smooth as possible
c. to prevent accidental retraction of the gear while the aircraft is a ground
d. as in (b) and works in conjunction with braking system
561. Electroluminescent lighting contain: CAIP/II/990
a. sodium b. phosphor c. mercury d. filaments
562. Passenger compartment is lighted with the help of: CAIP/II/991
a. in candescent lamp b. fluorescent tube
c. either (a) or (b) or both d. pillar lamps
563. Wings scan lamps: CAIP/II/985
a. allow visual inspection of wings leading edges for the formation of ice
b. as in (a) and also visual inspection of turbine engines
c. allow visual inspection of wings leading edges for the assessment of damage due to bird hits
d. to measure using drop on each wing
564. Which of the following loads can be supplied from the frequency wild generator:
a. VHF radio set b. artificial horizon
c. electrical de-icing system d. all of the above
565. The advantages of proximity sensors are/in: Eismin-259
a. it gives very bright & clean indication because current consumption is low
b. uses less number of wires, hence it is easier to install, service repair
c. there are no moving contacts which makes it more reliable
d. it is cheap
566. In overheat and fire detection system: (EHJ Pallette, P-164)
a. Sensor are filled with helium gas www.rjworld.com
b. Sensor are filled with hydrogen gas
c. As in (a) and gives aural & visual warning in case of fire
d. As in (b) and gives aural & visual warning in case of fire
567. In capacitive type fire warning system: (EHJ Pallette, P-164)
a. Capacitance of the element will increase with increment of temperature
b. Capacitance of the element will decrease with increment of temperature
c. As in (a) and doesnt give false warning in case of short circuit/grounding
d. As in (b) and doesnt give false warning in case of short circuit/grounding
568. Mark the correct statement: (EHJ Pallette,P-173)
a. Pneumatic Boot is a anti-icing system and applied in wing/stabilizer

b. Electrical heating method of anti-icing is applied to windshield


c. Fluid method of de-icing is applied to air-intake
d. Combustion heating is applied to Wind shield
569.In propeller de-icing system: (EHJ Pallette,P-172)
a. Power supply is fed through brush and commutator
b. Only one timer unit gives supply to both propeller
c. Both (a) and (b) are correct and timer energizes the heating element for 34 seconds
d. As in (b) and timer energizes the heating element for 34 seconds
570. In Ice detection system: (EHJ Pallette,P-175)
a. The system is activated when the band pass filter passes a 150 Khz frequency
b. The system is activated when the band pass filter passes a 140 Khz frequency
c. The system is activated when the band pass filter passes a 150 Hz frequency
d. Any of the above.
571. In Engine air intake heating system: (EHJ Pallette,P-171)
a. Fast mode is selected when temperature is between +10 degree to -6 degree centigrade
b. Fast mode is selected when temperature is below -6 degree centigrade
c. As in (a) and the duration of heat on and off is short
d. As in (b) and the duration of heat on and off is long
572. The Red light will illuminate in LG system when : (EHJ Pallette,P-176)
a. All LG is UP b. One LG is UP
c. All LG is in intermittent position d. None
573. The horn in the LG system is connected with: (EHJ Pallette,P-176 )
a. Throttle and DOWN lock m/s
b. Throttle and UP lock m/s
c. Throttle Only
d. None
574. The condition for LG system horn to come on is: (EHJ Pallette,P-177)
a. Any one LG is not DOWN & locked
b. Any one LG is not UP & locked
c. As in (a) and throttle at landing configuration
d. As in (b) and throttle at take off configuration
575. When the aircraft is on ground, LG UP position in the LG selector switch is prevented by the
operation of:
(TK Eismin,P-255)
a. Proximity switch www.rjworld.com
b. Squat switch
c. As in (b) and the switch is inside the LG selector
d. As in (b) and the switch is on the LG shock strut
576. Squat switches are connected in: (TK Eismien,P-253)
a. Series
b. Parallel
c. As in (a) and are closed when the aircraft is on ground
d. As in (a) and are closed when the aircraft is in air
577. Horn silencer circuit will not function if: (EHJ Pallette,P-176)
a. LG is not UP and locked
b. Throttle is not at landing configuration
c. As in (b) and LG is not DOWN and locked
d. As in (a) and LG is not DOWN and locked
578. In case of fire the APU: (CAIP-II)
a. Manually shut down by APU master switch in flight deck
b. Automatically shut down APU with the help of Auto Ignition cutoff system
c. Automatically Shut down with the help of fire detection system
d. Both (2) and (3)
579. Contacts of thermal switch used in the fire detection system is made up of: (EHJ Pallett Pg106)
a. Copper-rhodium b. Silver-rhodium
c. Nickel-rhodium 4) None
580. Runway turn off lights is used: (TK Eismin, P- 256)
a. To turn off runway light in front of aircraft
b. Provide light to the left & right of the aircraft

c. During taxying operation


d. Both 2 & 3
581. Ballast transformer used in the Fluorescent light system: (TK Eismin,P-256)
a. To increase the system voltage
b. To Stabilize the voltage
c. To decrease the voltage
582. If an electrical actuator overloaded due to mechanical load, it can be protected by means
of :(E.H.J. Pallet, Page-142)
a. Lead screw b. Electrical brake
c. Torque switch d. clutch
AIR CRAFT IGNITION SYSTEM
583. Mark the correct statement: (Ref. RollsRoyce-122)
a. electric starter is usually a d.c. motor
b. electric starter supply may be high or low
c. the electrical supply is automatically disconnected when starter load is reduced after the engine
started
d. all are correct
583. Pneumatic starters: (Ref. RollsRoyce-124)
a. are used on most commercial airlines b. it is comparatively light, simple and economical to
operate www.rjworld.com
c. both are correct
d. none of the above
584. As soon as the engine starts: (Ref. RollsRoyce-122)
a. starter gets disengaged by clutch system b. it remains running through out the engine seen
c. it does not matter at all d. none of the above
585.The commercial a/c requires its starting system to be: (Ref. RollsRoyce-122)
a. highly reliable b. minimum disturbance to the passengers
c. most economical d. all are correct
586. Starting power requirements for gas turbine engine differ from those of reciprocating engines,
in gas turbine
engine peak load to the starter is applied: (Ref. Treager -374)
a. during starter engagement b. during starter cutting off
c. initially during starting d. during initial engine acceleration prior to light off
587. Electric motor starters designed to provide high starting torque are: (Ref. Treager 374)
a. series wound b. shunt wound
c. series & shunt wound d. shunt & series wound
588. Type of starter mostly used on small engines: (Ref. Treager-374)
a. fuel air combustion starter b. hydraulic motor starter
c. starter generator
d. ATA (all the above)
589. The principle of electric starter is to convert: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 155)
a. mechanical energy into electric b. electrical energy into mechanical energy
c. magnetic energy into electrical energy d. magnetic energy into mechanical energy
590. Some of the turbo engine requires 24v/48v supply for engine starting. This supply is obtained:
(Ref. General)
a. only through external power source
b. a/c electrical supply system is having batteries for 24 volt as well as 48 volt system separately
c. battery supply and APU supply are connected in series to make 48v
d. batteries are connected in parallel during normal operation and are connected in series during
internal
engine starting cycle.
591. Engagemnet of air turbine starter is accomplished through: (Ref. Treager-380)
a. a jaw or friction coupling b. a jaw or fly wheel coupling
c. a jaw or pawl and ratchet clutch d. none of the above
592. The electric field of primary coil is made to collapse to generate high voltage in secondary coil
by the help of:
(Ref. EHJ Pallet, 158)
a. choke b. contact breaker
c. rectifier d. sealed discharge gap

593. The distinct features of LT ignition system are: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 160)
a. no. of transformer coils are equal to number of cylinders
b. the distributor supplies low voltage to primary winding of transformer
c. no possibility of flares in distributor
d. all are correct
594. D.C. operated ignition system receive their power from: (Ref. Otis 11-8)
a. the battery bus b. from the AC bus www.rjworld.com
c. from PMA (Permanent Magnet Alternator) d. both a & c
595. Advantage of LT magneto ignition system over HT system is: (Ref. EHJ Pallet, 160)
a. HT lead is short
b. the distributor is receiving low voltage from primary winding
c. high voltage is induced in transformer coil
d. all the above
596. What will be the Joule rating of an ignition system operates on 10,000 watt for .00040 sec:
(Ref. Otis 11 3)
a. 0.4 joule b. 4 joule
c. 40 joule d. 400 joule
597. How much energy is required to ensure that the engine will obtain satisfactory relight at high
altitudes:
(Ref. RollsRoyce-127)
a. 15 joules b. 12 joules
c. 18 joules
598. When is it necessary to have the ignition system continuously operating to give an automatic
relight should
flame extinction occur: (Ref. RollsRoyce-128)
a. icing condition b. take off in heavy rain or snow
c. both a & b
599. An ignition unit may be supplied with alternative current (a.c) and operated by: (Ref.
RollsRoyce-129)
a. trembler mechanism
b. a transistor chopper circuit
c. transformer
600. A choke is fitted in a d.c. trembler operated ignition unit is: (Ref. RollsRoyce-129)
a. to extend the duration of discharge
b. to retard the duration of discharge
c. either (a) or (b)
601. What is fitted in a d.c. trembler operated ignition unit to operate safely, even when the high
tension lead is
disconnected and isolated: (Ref. RollsRoyce-129)
a. safety resistor b. discharge resistor
c. choke
602. Transistorized ignition unit is having advantage over the d.c. trembler operated unit because it
has:
(Ref. RollsRoyce-129)
a. reduced size b. less weight
c. both (a) & (b)
603. The discharge of shunted surface discharge type igniter plug takes the form of: (Ref.
RollsRoyce -131)
a. a. high intensity flashover from the electrode to the body
b. a low intensity flashover from the electrode to the body
c. either (a) or (b)
604. How many ignitor plugs being situated in different positions in the combustion system:
(Ref. RollsRoyce -114)
a. one b. two
c. three d. it depends upon type of JE
www.rjworld.com
605. In HT magneto system the rotor of the distributor is electrically connected to: (Ref. EHJ
Pallet, 158)
a. primary winding of magneto b. secondary winding of magneto
c. a.c. supply from a/c d. all are incorrect

606. Ignition units are rated in: (Ref. RollsRoyce-127)


a. joules b. coulomb
c. amperes d. faraday
607. Mark the correct statement: (Ref. RollsRoyce-128)
a. H.T. connection of d.c. supply is given as input to trembler operated ignition unit and output is
H.T. connection
to igniter plug as output
b. low tension (LT) is input and HT is output of ignition unit
c. H.T. connection is input and output is LT is output in ignition unit
d. none
608. What will happen, when the voltage in the capacitor is equal to the breakdown value of a
sealed discharge gap
in trembler ignition unit: (Ref. RollsRoyce-129)
a. the energy is discharged across the face of the igniter plug
b. the energy is discharged inside the face of the igniter plug
c. the energy is destroy across the face of spark plug
d. all the above
609. The surface discharge igniter plug has the end of the insulator formed by a semi-conducting
pellet which
permits an electrical leakage from: (Ref. RollsRoyce-131)
a. central high tension electrode to the body
b. body high tension electrode to the central rod
c. both (a) & (b)
d. none
610. Which device is fitted to ensure that any residual stored energy in the capacitor is dissipated
within one minute
of the system being switched off: (Ref. RollsRoyce-129)
a. choke b. discharge resistor
c. safety resistor d. none
611. The advantage of transistorized ignition unit over trembler operated unit is: (Ref. RollsRoyce129)
a. it has no moving parts and has longer operating life
b. its size is reduced and weight is less than that of the trembles operated unit
c. its construction and working function is easier
d. both (a) & (b)
612. In a.c. ignition unit receives an alternating current which is passed through ..and
rectified to charge a
capacitor: (Ref. RollsRoyce-129)
a. motor b. generator
c. invertor d. transformer
613. A rotating armature magneto to be fitted to a 6-cylinder engine must be driven at:
a. the same speed as the engine b. half the speed of the engine
c. one and a half times the engine speed d. twice the engine speed
614. When the rpm of a shunt wind motion increases the current drawn by it: Pallet-225
a. decreases b. remain the same
c. increases d. none of the above www.rjworld.com
615. In an AC motor, the difference between synchronous speed and the speed of the rotor is
termed:
Pallet-224
a. the motor loss speed b. the brake speed
c. the slip speed d. none of the above
616. The self-sustaining speed is the: Pallet-225
a. maximum speed at which the starter motor runs to maintain rotation of an engine
b. speed at which the engine is capable of maintaining rotation
c. speed at which current to the motor is interrupted
d. none of the above
617. The purpose of a blow-out cycle is to: Pallet-225
a. remove excess air from an engine during starting
b. blow cooling air through the starting m0tor after stating
c. remove the unburnt fuel from an engine in the event of an unsuccessful start

d. none of the above


618. The contact breaker of a magneto is connected in the: Pallet-225
a. primary winding circuit b. secondary winding circuit
c. circuit between distribution and spark plug d. none of the above
619. A rotating armature magneto to be fitted to a 6-cylinder engine must be driven at: Pallet-225
a. the same speed as the engine b. half the speed of the engine
c. one and a half times the engine speed d. twice the engine speed
620. Starter generators are: Pallet-157
a. compound wound machines b. series motors
c. shunt generators d. starter generators have series generator and shunt motor
621. The number of sparks given by the rotating armature type of magnetos, per revolution of
engine is:
Pallet-159
a. one b. two c. four d. eight
622. The number of sparks given by the rating magnet magnetos, per revolution of engine is: Pallet159
a. one b. two c. four d. eight
623. Impulse coupling: Pallet-159
a. provide advance spark
b. heavy spark
c. its a coupling through which generator is coupled to the engine drive shaft
d. is used with turbine starters
624. Ignition switches: Pallet-159
a. are two switches into one switch
b. it is used in magneto circuit
c. as in (b) and it completes a circuit by closing its contacts in the OFF position
d. as in (a) and is a rotary switch
625. Magnetos: Pallet-159
a. are a combination of generator and motor
b. are a combination of an alternator and transformer www.rjworld.com
c. are a combination of impulse coupling and step-up transformer
d. are a combination of paramagnet generation and impulse coupling
626. The purpose of the choke inside the light energy ignition unit is: Pallet-161
a. hastens the duration of discharge
b. extends the duration of discharge
c. absorbs the extra energy during the discharge
d. provides a safe discharge current
627. Polar inductor magneto is a: Pallet-159
a. rotating armature magneto
b. rotating magnet magneto
c. as in (a) and gives four two per revolution
d. as in (b) and gives four sparks per revolution
628. A polar inductor motor to be fitted on a 12 cylinder engine must be driven at: BLT/1991/159
a. same speed as engine speed
b. half the engine speed
c. double the engine speed
d. one & half times the engine speed
629. Distributor of a polar inductor magneto fitted on 6-cylinder engine must be driven at: Pallet159
a. half the engine speed b. the engine speed
c. one and a half times the engine speed d. double the engine speed
630. Mark the correct statement about magneto distributors: Pallet-159
a. the distribution rotor of a polar inductor magneto fitted on a cylinder engine must be driven at
one and a half
times the engine speed
b. the distribution rotor of a rotating armature magneto fitted on a 6 cylinder engine must be
driven at the engine
speed
c. the distributor rotors are always driven at half the engine speeds
d. distribution rotors are always driven at double the engine speed

631. Proximity sensors work on the principle of: Eismin-259


a. capacitance effect of a capacitor b. inductance of a coil
c. heating effect of current d. kirchoffs laws
632. When load is removed ___ motor will run at the highest speed:
a,. shunt b. cumulative-compound c. differential compound d. series
633. If the pole flux of a d.c. motor approaches zero its speed will:
a. approach zero b. approach infinity
c. no change due to corresponding change in back emf
d. approach a stable value somewhere between zero and infinity
and back emf 110 V is ___ ampere: 634. The current drawn by a 120-v d.c. motor of armature
resistance 0.5
a. 20 b. 240 c. 220 d.5

DGCA PAPER II, (October Session 2011)

DGCA PAPER II
Aircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices
(October Session 2011)
1. In four stroke engine spark plug fires in
a. 4 revolutions of crank shaft
b. 2 revolutions of crank shaft
c. revolutions of crank shaft
d. 360 degree revolution of crank shaft
2. Before storing aircraft in hanger
a. Fuel tank should be fully filled
b. Fuel tank should be half filled
c. Fuel tank should be empty
d. Fuel tank should have residual fuel
3. Jacking procedure of aircraft
a. Minimum 4 jacking points are provided
b. The legs of the jacks should be checked to see that they will not interfere with the operations to
be performed after the aircraft is jacked.
c.
d. All of the above
4. fires in flammable petroleum products or other flammable or combustible liquids, greases,
solvents, paints, etc. is classified as
a. class A fire
b. class B fire
c. class C fire
5. towing speed should not be more than
a. 10km/hr
b. 20 km/hr
c. 50 km/hr
d. Not to exceed wing walkers speed
6. Sparking testing is most common means of identifying
a. Ferrous alloys only
b. Nonferrous alloys only
c. ..
7. In spark testing which steel gives off long, straight shafts having a few white sprigs
a. Wrought iron
b. Cast iron
c. Low carbon steel
8. T6 in heat treatment indicates
a.
b. T indicates heat treatment and 6 indicates hardness state
c.

9. Heat treatment of aluminum consists of


a. Solution heat treatment
b. Precipitation Heat Treatment
c. Annealing
d. All of the above
10. If distance of cg from datum is 160 and of leading edge of MAC is 140 and length of MAC is
100. Find MAC %
a. 20%
b. 50%
c. 75%
11. If the input of half wave rectifier is 240 V and transformer has a step down ratio of 8:1, what is
the output rms value?
a. 42.2 V
b. 30V
c.
12. 2Mb in computer is equivalent to
a. 2 X 220
b. 2 X 210
c. 2 X 25
d. 2 X 21
13. Frequencies used in ultrasonic are in the frequency range of
a. 100 KHz to 5 MHz
b. 200 KHz to 5 MHz
c. 500 KHz to 10 MHz
DGCA PAPER II
Aircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices
(October Session 2011)
2|Pagewww.rjworld.comeditedby-Raju
14. Electro static is dangerous if above
a. 1000 V
b. 100 V
c. 200 V
d. 500 V
15. Static discharge is by
a. High voltage level
b. High current level
c. Low current level
16. In the circuit shown in the figure, calculate the value of value of unknown resistor R when the
current in branch OC is zero.
a. 4.5 V
b. 6 V
c. 9 V
d. 12 V
17. Find the Ceq of the circuit shown in the fig. all capacitances are in microfarad
a. 4.4 microf
b. 4.5 microf
c. 6 microf
18. 240 on capacitor indicates
a. 240 microf
b. 240 picof
c. 240000 f
19. Rivnut is
a. Hollow blind rivet
b. A nut
c.
20. DE multiplexer is
a. Output is same as multiplexer
b. Output is opposite of multiplexer
c.
21. Airfoil design is of

a. Wing, turbine blades


b. Nose section of fuselage
c. Elevator, ailerons
d. All of the above
22. cable of medium flexibility and is used for trim tab controls, engine controls, and indicator
controls is
a. 7 X 7
b. 7 X 19
c. 1 X 7
23. Which of them is a 5 layer device
a. Diac
b. Triac
c. Variac
24. SCR consists of
a. 3 terminals
b. As in a and middle one is forward biased
c. As in a and middle one is reverse biased
d.
25. Convert C5F2 to binary
a. 1100 0101 1111 0010
b. 0010 1111 0101 1100
c. 0010 1001 0111 1100
26. Convert octal code 3574 to binary
a. 011 101 111 100
b. 100 111 101 011
c. 111 101 011 111
DGCA PAPER II
Aircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices
(October Session 2011)
3|Pagewww.rjworld.comeditedby-Raju
27. Current in inductor
a. Lags voltage by /2
b. Inductance is directly proportional to frequency
c.
d. All of the above
28. A metal which can be hammered, rolled, or pressed into various shapes without cracking,
breaking, or leaving some other detrimental effect, is said to be
a. Malleable
b. Ductility
c. Elasticity
29. Austenite is
a. The name given to steel when it is heated above the critical range, consists of a solid solution of
cementite in gamma iron.
b.
c.
30. Mark the correct statement regarding precipitation heat treatment
a. To obtain the maximum strength in aluminum , they must be either naturally aged or
precipitation hardened
b.
31. Data transfer in computer is by
a. Series bus
b. Parallel bus
c. Data bus
d. ARINC 429 bus
32. Speed of induction motor is increased when
a. Number of poles is increased
b. Number of poles is reduced
c.
d. All of the above
33. In capacitor if t is the thickness of the dielectric slab, capacitance increases with

a. t increases
b. t reduces
c.
34. MTCS
a. turboprop engine requires lengthy runway than piston engine of same power
b. turbojet has more weight than piston engine of same power
c. turbofan required short runway as compare to turbojet
d. all of the above
35. clipper circuit is used
a. to get a desired wave form
b. as in a and requires a battery source to select a dc voltage level
c. as in a and requires a transistor
d.
36. Thermal runaway
a. Should be avoided
b. Occurs in transistors..
c. Causes permanent damage
d. All of the above
37. Thyractron is
a. SCR
b. Transistor
c.
d.
38. In oxygen system
a. Gaseous oxygen is chemically stable and is nonflammable.
b. Combustible materials ignite more rapidly and burn with greater intensity in an oxygen rich
atmosphere
c. Liquid oxygen causes severe frostbite if it comes in contact with the skin.
d. All of the above
DGCA PAPER II
Aircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices
(October Session 2011)
4|Pagewww.rjworld.comeditedby-Raju
39. Which is an excellent material to use with phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid.
a. Butyl
b. Neoprene
c. Buna n
d. Buna s
40. Yellow color stands for
a. Hydraulic
b. Lubrication
c. Coolant
41. Illustrated parts catalog shows which drawing
a. Orthographic
b. Exploded view diagram
c.
42. Pulse echo method can detect which defects
a. Welds flaw
b. Surface crack
c. Subsurface defect
d. All of the above
43. Internal flaws in composite are detected by
a. Coin tap test
b. Laser holography
c. Ultrasonic
d. All of the above
44. Corrosion along grain boundaries is called
a. Intergranular corrosion
b. Crevice corrosion
c. Galvanic corrosion

45. Turnbuckle has groove or knurl on


a. Right hand side
b. Left side
c. No such hard and fast rule
46. Aluminum is more susceptible to corrosion when substantial
percentage of __________ is present
a. Magnesium
b. Copper
c. Manganese
d. Chromium
47. 33xx indicates in wrought aluminum indicates
a. Copper
b. Manganese
c. Magnesium
d. Silicon
48. The resistance of Manganin
a. increases with increase in temperature
b. change very little as the temperature changes
c. decreases with increase in temperature
49. brazing flux is
a. tin and lead
b. tin, lead and silver
c.
d.
50. Soft brazing temperature is
a. 200c to 400c
b. 400c to 600c
c. 600c to 850c
51. PCB can be repaired by
a. Soldering only
b. With a bare wire that can be shorted across the damage
c. No repair can be done on PCB
52. We can get vastly superior product than iron
a. If carbon is added to iron, in percentages ranging up to approximately 0.5 percent.
b. If carbon is added to iron, in percentages ranging up to approximately 1 percent.
DGCA PAPER II
Aircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices
(October Session 2011)
5|Pagewww.rjworld.comeditedby-Raju
c. If Nickel 3.50%, chromium 1.55% is present
d.
53. Test for demagnetization of parts
a. It consists of placing a suitable magnetic compass in a position away from all stray magnetic
influence and slowly rotating at a position along the east/west axis of the compass.
b. It consists of placing a suitable magnetic compass in a position away from all stray magnetic
influence and slowly rotating at a position along the north/south axis of the compass.
c. As in b and
d. As in a and if deflection of compass needle more than 1 will require the component to be
demagnetized again and test repeated.
54. Which resistor has the smallest possible size
a. Wire wound resistor
b. Carbon composition resistor
c.
d.
55. While selecting a capacitor check for
a. Voltage
b. Size
c.
d.
56. Screws are manufactured under

a. Class 1 fit
b. Class 2 fit
c. Class 3 fit
d. Class 4 fir
57. Metal tubings are sized by
a. Inside diameter in increment of 1/16 inch
b. Inside diameter in increment of 1/32 inch
c. Outside diameter in increment of 1/16 inch
d. Outside diameter in increment of 1/32 inch
58. Flexible hoses are used where
a. connect moving parts with stationary parts
b. locations subject to vibration and where a great amount of flexibility is needed.
c. It can also serve as a connector in metal tubing systems.
d. All of the above
59. Stringers, bulkhead, skin, rivet and extruded section are made from
a. Cast aluminum alloy
b. Wrought aluminum alloy
c. Pure aluminum
60. Files used for filing internal angles, clearing out corners, and filing taps and cutters
a. Triangular
b. Triangular and three square
c. Knife
d.
61. Hydraulic Ground Power Units can be used for Drain the aircraft hydraulic systems. Filter the
aircraft system hydraulic fluid. Refill the aircraft system with clean fluid and check the aircraft
hydraulic systems for operation and leaks. All of the above
62. Leveling of aircraft is carried out by
a. Placing spirit level at the pilot seat
b. Placing spirit level at..
c. Placing a plumb bob..
d.
63. If rf and af is present, it can be filtered using
a. LPF
DGCA PAPER II
Aircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices
(October Session 2011)
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b. HPF
c.
d. filter
64. In 3 star connection
a. Voltage of line is equal to voltage of phase
b. Line current = 3 phase current
c. Line current = phase current
d. Line voltage= 3 phase voltage
65. Two input bubbled AND gate is
a. OR gate
b. AND gate
c. NAND gate
d. NOR gate
66. Slots provided on the armature are not parallel but are staggered at an angle to provide
a. Safety
b. Reduce the humming noise
c. Stability..
d. ..
67. In transformers a low current is provided to the primary in starting
a. To overcome iron losses
b. To overcome copper losses.
c. .
d. .

68. Compensating winding are


a. Connected in series with the armature winding
b. Connected in parallel with the armature winding
c. Connected in series with the armature winding and aids the flux of armature
d. Connected in parallel with the armature winding and opposes the flux of armature
69. In generator frequency depends upon the
a. Revolutions per minute
b. Number of poles
c. Both
70. Highest tensile strength is of which composite
a. Fiberglass
b. Aramid
c. Carbon/graphite
d. Boron
71. 18-8 is composed of
a. 18% nickel and 8% chromium
b. 18% chromium and 8% nickel
c. ..
d. ..
72. Parco-lubrizing is a chemical treatment applicable to
a. Aluminum and magnesium parts
b. Iron and steel parts
c. ..
d. ..
73. In oil and chalk process pupose of French chalk is
a. Penetrant
b. Absorbtion by chalk of fluid
c. Developer
d. All of the above
74. Voltage is defined as the
a. Force required to change an electrical power
b. Force required to move a current
c. Force required to move an electric charge
d. .
75. Damaged internal threads can be repaired by
a. Replacement bushing method
b. helicoil
c. Acres sleeve
d. All of the above
76. Which battery is not affected by high discharge rate
a. Lead acid battery
DGCA PAPER II
Aircraft General Engineering And Maintenance Practices
(October Session 2011)
7|Pagewww.rjworld.comeditedby-Raju
b. Nickel cadmium battery
c. Secondary battery
d.
77. Damaged rivets can be removed by
a. Drive or drift punch
b. Prick punch
c. Hollow punch
d. Both a and b
78. Value of induced emf depends upon
a. Number of wires moving through magnetic field
b. Strength of magnetic field
c. Speed of rotation
d. All of the above
79. In transistor when both junctions are reversed biased it is in a state of
a. Cut off

b. Saturation
c. .
d.
80. In a circuit a power of 300watt is present and has a voltage of 120 volts, what is the current
flowing in the circuit
a. 2.5 A
b. 3.5 A
c. 4.5 A
d. .
81. If the peak value is 100 volts then at an angle of 30 what is the instantaneous value
a. 50 V
b. 100 V
c. 150 V
d. 200 V
82. ICs can be checked by
a. ON/OFF state
b. Logic 0 and logic 1
c. As in (a) and.
d. Both a and b
83. The is amplified in transistor because of
a. High AC input resistance
b. Increasing Rc
c. High AC output resistance
d.

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