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Each question is followed by three or four options.

Choose the best option for each question then blacken

the correct space on the answer sheet.

1 Which of the following measurement is the longest?

A 7.25 x 10 3 dm B 7.25 x 10 2 cm
C 7.25 x 10 6 mm D 7.25 x 10 7 µ m

2 Figure 1 shows the relationship between physical quantity p and q. Intersection on the p-axis is c.

Figure 1

Which of the following equation shows the correct relationship?

A p = mq – c B p = - mc + q
C p = mc + q D p = mq + c

3 Which of the following is the vector quantity?

A Age of earth. B Mass of a tennis ball.

C Force produce to pull a load. D Quantity of people attends a concert.

4 Mass of a bead is one milligram. Which of the following explain the statement?

A Mass of the bead is 1 x 10 6 g B Mass of the bead is 1 x 10 −1 g

C Mass of the bead is 1 x 10 −3 g D Mass of the bead is 1 x 10 −6 g

5 Momentum of a bullet is large because

A mass of the bullet is small. B the bullet have a large volume.

C the bullet moves with a high velocity. D size of the bullet is small.

6 Which of the following statements is not true?

A A consistent instrument can measure a quantity repeatedly with no deviation on all the
B Accuracy of the measurements is how close the measurements made are to the actual value.
C A sensitive instrument is able to measure a small change in the quantity to be measured.

D An error is the difference between the measured value and the actual value.

7 Which of the following ticker tapes shows a trolley that moves with zero acceleration?


8 Stunt men act a jumping action. He bends his legs when landing. This is because

A to make landing become faster. B to constant the jumping force.

C to delay the jumping period. D to avoid from obstacle.

9 Figure 2 shows four forces 2 N, 6 N, 10 N, and 13 N act from a fixed point P.

Figure 2

The resultant force act on point P is

A 4N B 5N
C 6N D 7N

10 Figure 3 shows an enclosed syringe with trap air inside.

Figure 3

When the piston is push, which quantity inside the syringe will reduce?

A Air pressure. B Average speed of air molecules.

C Molecules quantities per unit of volume. D Average distance between air molecules.
11 P, Q, and R are three forces act on an object. Which of the following shows the resultant force is zero?


12 All object shows below has an equal mass. Which one of the object, exert the maximum pressure to the



13 Figure shows three objects P, Q, and R with an equal volume immersed in water.

Which of the following, regarding the buoyant force U 1 , U 2 , and U 3 exert on P, Q, and R
respectively is true?

A U1 > U2 > U 3 B U1 < U2 < U 3

C U1 = U2 = U 3 D U1 < U2 > U 3

14 Specific heat capacity of a substance is a heat that required to

A increased a temperature for 1 kg of a substance.
B melt 1 kg of a substance on the melting point.
C evaporate 1 kg of a substance on the boiling point.
D increased a temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1°C.

15 Figure 4 shows the movement of a foot ball after being kick by a player form a corner. The ball spins
during the movement.

Figure 4

The movement of the ball that bends can be explain by the principle of
A Bernoulli. B Archimedes.
C conservation of energy. D conservation of momentum.

16 Density of lead is 1.36 x 10 4 kg m −3 . What is the mass of a lead sample with volume 4.00 x 10 −4 m

A 0.00294 kg B 0.0544 kg
C 2.94 kg D 5.44 kg

17 A hot air balloon with a mass 400 kg carried three passengers with a total mass 200 kg float in the air
on a fixed height. Calculate the up thrust force exert on the hot air balloon.
A 0N B 4 000 N
C 6 000 N D 8 000 N

18 The atmospheric pressure can be measure by

A Fortin barometer. B Bourdon gauge.
C hydrometer. D manometer.

19 The presence of air bubbles in the hydraulic brake system causes the system to function inefficiently.
Which statement explains this observation?

A The air bubbles reduce the viscosity of the brake fluid.

B The air bubbles escape when the brake pedal is pressed.
C The air bubbles expand when the brake system becomes hot due to friction.
D The air bubbles are compressed when the brake is pressed.

20 Table 1 shows the specific heat capacity and boiling point of a liquid P, Q, R and S respectively. Those
liquid have an equal mass and same initial temperature.

Liquid Specific heat capacity/kJ kg −1 °C Boiling point/°C


P 1.50 80

Q 2.50 78

R 4.25 100

S 0.15 356

Table 1

If heat is supplied at the same rate to each of the liquid, which liquid will boil first?

21 Figure 5 shows two objects P and Q being connected with a heat conductor.

Figure 5

The thermal equilibrium of P and Q will occur when

A mass of P and Q is equal. B type of material of P and Q is equal.
C specific heat capacity of P and Q is equal. D rate of heat transfer between P and Q is equal.

22 The refractive index of a glass is 1.7. What is the critical angle of the glass?
A 36° B 39°
C 42° D 43°

23 An object is placed 15 cm from a convex lens with a focus length of 10 cm. The image forms on the
screen are
A upright and magnified. B upright and same size.
C inverted and magnified. D invert and same size.

24 Which of the following optical instrument apply the principle of total internal reflection?

A Astronomy telescope. B Compound microscope.

C Parabolic mirror. D Periscope.
25 Figure 6 shows a ray of light is incident to a glass prism with a critical angle of 42°.

Figure 6

Which path of ray is correct?



26 The final image of the compound microscope are

A real, upright, magnified. B virtual, inverted, same size.
C real, inverted, magnified. D virtual, upright, magnified.

27 Young’s double-slit experiment is conducted to determine the wavelength of light. The fringes that
forms on the screen is the result of light
A diffraction and reflection. B interference and reflection.
C refraction and interference. D diffraction and interference.

28 Which of the following graph represent a simple pendulum under damping process?


29 Figure 7 shows the ripple pattern of water waves propagate from region P to region Q.

Figure 7

If the water waves velocity in a region P is 10 cm s −1 , calculate the velocity of water waves in a
region Q
A 4.5 cm s −1 B 5.0 cm s −1
C 7.5 cm s −1 D 10.0 cm s −1

30 Figure 8 shows a plane waves is incident towards a concave surface

Figure 8

Which statement is not true regarding the reflected waves?

A Frequency of the reflected waves unchanged.
B The reflected waves is a circular waves.
C Velocity of the reflected waves is higher compare to the incident waves.
D Wavelength of incident waves is equal to the wavelength of reflected waves.

31 Which of the following is true about the factor influence the pitch and loudness of sound waves?

Pitch Loudness
A Waves amplitude Wavelength
B Waves amplitude Wave frequency
C Wave frequency Wave velocity
D Wave frequency Waves amplitude

32 A pendulum oscillate with a natural frequency, f Hz. Resonance occur if the external force applied have
a frequency of

A f Hz. B 2f Hz.
C 3f Hz. D 4f Hz.
33 The wavefront in the sea follow the shape of coastline when approach the coast. This is because
A water waves spread. B the loss of water energy.
C water deepness decreased. D water waves transfer.

34 Inside a television, an electron gun emitted an electron ray that accelerates by a 300 V potential
difference before hit a florescent screen. Calculate the maximum kinetic energy gain by an electron.
[Electron charge = 1.6 x 10 −19 C, electron mass = 9.0 x 10 −31 kg]

A 4.05 x 10 −26 J B 6.71 x 10 −21 J

C 4.80 x 10 −17 J D 1.07 x 10 −14 J

35 Figure 9 shows three resistors of 5 Ω, 6 Ω, and 10 Ω being connected in a circuit.

Figure 9

What is the potential difference across the resistor 10 Ω if I2 is 2 A?

A 10 V B 12 V
C 20 V D 22 V

36 Which of the following figure shows the correct pole and correct magnetic filed lines?



37 A bulb 120 W, 6 V is connected to a transformer. Which of the following circuit will shows a normal
bright of a bulb?



38 Figure 10 shows an electric circuit being connected to a C.R.O.

Figure 10

Which trace can be seen on the C.R.O. screen?



39 Bulb in which circuit will light?



40 A dry cell have an e.m.f of 1.5 V and an internal resistance of 1.2 Ω . A short piece of copper wire of
negligible resistance is connected across the terminal of the cell. What is current in the wire?
A 0.00 A B 0.80 A
C 1.25 A D 1.50 A

41 Resistors of resistance 4 Ω , 3 Ω , and 6 Ω are connected to a battery of e.m.f 9 V and internal

resistance 3 Ω as shown in Figure 11.

Figure 11

What is the value of current, I, flowing in the circuit?

A 0.5 A B 1.0 A
C 3.0 A D 4.0 A

42 A toaster labelled 240 V, 40 W has the efficiency of 80 %. The useful output energy in 30 s is
A 740 J B 960 J
C 1 270 J D 2 450 J
43 The purpose of rectification is to
A gain AC power. B smooth the output voltage.
C convert AC voltage to DC voltage. D increase equipment efficiency.

44 Figure 12 shows a vacuum diode tube used to study a thermion emission.

Figure 12

The emission rate can be increased by

A increase the E.H.T. B invert the battery terminals.
C increase the pressure inside the tube. D increase the potential difference of heater circuit.

45 Figure 13 shows two circuit consist of diode, bulb and dry cell.

Figure 13(a) Circuit P Figure 13(b) Circuit Q

Which of the following is true for a bulb in circuit P and circuit Q?

Circuit P Circuit Q
A Light Light
B Light Not light
C Not light Not light
D Not light Light

46 Table 2 below shows a truth table of a logic gate.

Table 2

What is the suitable logic gate to fulfil the Table 2?



47 The initial radioactivity of a radioactive substance is 4 800 counts per second. After 2 minutes, its
radioactivity becomes 150 counts per second. The half-life of the radioactive substance is…

A 40 seconds. B 30 seconds.
C 24 seconds. D 20 seconds.

48 Figure 14 shows a tracks produce when a radioactive source is exposing to a cloud chamber.

Figure 14

What is the type of the radioactive emission?

A alpha particle B beta particle
C gamma rays

49 Which of the following shows an effect of an atom after beta particle is emitted?
A Positive ion is produce. B Nucleon number change.
C Electron quantity in the atom decreased by D One neutron will change to become one proton.

50 Below equation shows a radioactive decays of tarium-232 through several level to become radium-224.
90 Th → 228
88 Ra → 228
89 Ac → 228
90 Th → 224
88 Ra

In this process, the radioactive emissions in sequence is

A alpha particle, gamma rays, gamma rays, B alpha particle, gamma rays, gamma rays, alpha
beta particle particle
C alpha particle, beta particle, beta particle, D alpha particle, beta particle, alpha particle, beta
alpha particle particle