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AM (A)

Solutions

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

Q. 1

A storm drain inlet for a 2.7 acre parking area is to be designed. The rainfall intensity is 8.6 in/hr

and the runoff coefficient is 0.96. The peak discharge, in cubic feet per second, is most nearly:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

18

19

20

22

Solution

Given:

C = 0.96

I = 8.6 in/hr

A = 2.7 acre

Qp = C*I*A = 0.96*8.6*2.7 = 22.3 ft3/sec

THE CORRECT ANSWER IS (D)

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

Q. 2

The cantilevered retaining wall shown is under design. What is most nearly the active resultant

per unit length of wall?

118.4lbf / ft 3

31o

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

280 lbf/ft

1900 lbf/ft

4260 lbf /ft

8530 lbf/ft

Hint: Calculate the coefficient of active earth pressure and use it to find the active resultant.

Solution

The Rankine method may be used to find the active earth pressure acting at the base of the wall

and granular backfill. Determine the active earth pressure acting at the base of the wall and then

determine the active resultant. The equation for active pressure at the base of the wall is

pa kav kaH

The equation for the coefficient of active earth pressure is

1 sin 1 sin 31

ka

1 sin 1 sin 31

= 0.32

Calculate the resultant of the triangular pressure distribution.

Ra 12 pa H 12 kaH 2

lbf

1

(0.32)

118.4 3

(15ft) 2

ft

2

Note that the resultant acts horizontally at the centroid of the triangular distribution at one third

the height of the wall measured upward from the base.

Why Other Options Are Wrong

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

(A) This solution fails to square the height of the wall in the resultant calculation. Note that

the units are incorrect as well.

(B) This incorrect solution assumes the active pressure acts at the centroid of the pressure

distribution diagram; actually, it is the resultant active force that acts. This answer is

obtained by multiplying by a centroid depth of 10 ft rather than 15 ft.

(D) This solution fails to divide the result by two, as required by a triangular distribution.

Q. 3

The maximum specific energy in a rectangular channel is 9 feet. The critical velocity, in ft/sec,

is most nearly:

(A) 8.7

(B) 12.3

(C) 14.1

(D) 15.4

Solution

Solve for the critical depth, which will allow you to solve for the critical velocity.

dc = 2/3 Ec = 2/3 * 9 = 6 feet

vc = (gdc)1/2 = (32.2 * 6)1/2 = 13.9 ft /sec

THE CORRECT ANSWER IS (C)

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

Q. 4

A 10ft by 10ft square, reinforced concrete footing is installed so that the footing bearing surface

is 5 ft below the soil level, at a point where the allowable soil pressure is 3500 psf. Other than

the soil above the footing, there is no surcharge. The soil unit weight is 100 lbf/ft3. The footing

is located at the corner of a building and is loaded through a concentric 14 in square column.

The column transmits a 125,000 lbf service dead load and a 175,000 lbf service live load to the

footing. The critical (plan) area contributing to two-way punching shear is assumed to be

92.44ft2.Th

ede

a

dl

oa

di

nc

l

ude

st

hec

ol

umn

swe

i

g

htbutdoe

snoti

nc

l

udet

hef

oot

i

ng

swe

i

ght.

The compressive strength for all of the concrete used is 3000 psi.

The ultimate two-way punching shear, in lbf, is most nearly?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

350,000

450,000

550,000

650,000

Solution

The footing area is

A B 2 (10 ft )(10 ft ) 100 ft 2

The ultimate load carried by the footing is

P 1.4 Pd 1.7 Pl

(1.4)(125, 000 lbf)+(1.7)(175,000 lbf)

472,500 lbf

P 472, 500 lbf

pu u

A

100 ft 2

4725 lbf/ft 2

The ultimate two-way punching shear is

lbf

Vu pu Acritical 4725 2

92.44ft 2

ft

THE CORRECT ANSWER IS (B)

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

Q. 5

A 6.0 MGD water treatment plant is being planned that will use a local river as its water source.

The raw water characteristics of the river are shown in Table 1.

Tracer studies done on the disinfection tank of a drinking water treatment plant after construction

produced the plot shown in the figure below. To satisfy the surface water treatment rule for

disinfection of Giardia (Table 2) on a day when the peak hourly flow rate is 5 MGD, the water

temperature is 10

C and the pH is 7.0, the residual chlorine concentration (mg/L) needed is most

nearly:

NOTE: The chlorine dosage must not exceed 1/8 mg/L to minimize THM formation.

(A) 0.60

(B) 0.52

(C) 0.46

(D) 0.42

200

150

CONTACT

TIME, t10

100

(min)

50

TABLE 1

Parameter

Turbidity

pH

Alkalinity

Calcium

Temperature

Value

17 NTU

6.8-7.1 S.U.

150 mg/L as CaCO3

51 mg/L as CaCO3

10

C to 26

C

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

TABLE 2

CT values (mg/L

min) for inactivation of Giardia cysts by free chlorine at 10

C

Chlorine

Concentration

(mg/L)

0.5

1.0

pH=7.0

Log Inactivations

1.5

2.0

2.5

3.0

18

33

33

70

82

105

0.4

19

38

56

75

94

113

0.6

20

40

59

79

99

119

0.8

21

41

62

82

103

123

1.0

21

42

64

85

106

127

1.2

22

44

65

87

109

131

1.4

22

45

67

89

112

134

1.6

23

46

68

91

114

137

1.8

23

46

70

93

116

139

2.0

24

47

71

95

118

142

2.2

24

48

72

96

120

144

2.4

24

49

73

97

122

146

2.6

25

49

74

99

123

148

2.8

25

50

75

100

125

150

3.0

Source: U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Guidance Manual for Compliance with

Filtration and Disinfection Requirements for Public Water Systems Using Surface Water

Sources, Criteria and Standards Division, Office of Drinking Water (U.S.E.P.A. NTIS

Publication NO. PB 90-148016), Washington, D.C: U.S. Government Printing Office, October,

1979.

Solution

Surface Water Treatment Rule for disinfection of Giardia; 3 log inactivation required. 2.5 log

inactivation allowed for treatment prior to disinfection. Therefore, 3-2.5 = 0.5 log inactivation

required by disinfection.

From the figure, at a peak hourly flow rate of 5 MGD, t10 = 50 min contact time.

CT 23 mg / L min; CT concentration x time

Ref: Davis 7 Cornwell, Environmental Engineering, McGraw Hill, 1998, p. 244, Table 3-20.

C = CT/T (23 mg / L min) / 50 min 0.46 mg / L residual chlorine concentration needed.

THE CORRECT ANSWER IS: (C)

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

Q. 6

An eight phase intersection looses 2 seconds per phase and has an all-red duration of 3 seconds

on phases 1 and 4. If the sum of the ratios of approach flow to saturation flows for all phases is

0.

7(

i

.

e

.t

hef

l

owt

os

a

t

ur

a

t

i

onf

l

owsf

ora

l

lpha

s

e

si

s0.

7(

i

.

e

.t

he"

Y"va

l

ue

)

,t

he

nt

heopt

i

mum

cycle time, in seconds, is most nearly:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

80

95

105

125

Solution

1 5 L 5

Co o

1 y

i 1

where

Co = optimum cycle time (sec)

L = total lost time per cycle (sec)

yi = maximum value of approach flows to saturation flows for all lane groups using

phase i, qij/s;

L i R

i 1

2 8 2 3

= 22 sec

(1.5 22) 5

Co

1 0.7

= 126.7 sec

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

Q. 7

I

ft

hede

pt

hoff

l

owi

ngwa

t

e

ri

nadi

t

c

hwi

t

hMa

nni

ng

sr

oug

hne

s

sof0.

02a

nda

na

ve

r

a

g

ebe

d

slope of 0.5% is 2 feet, the velocity (fps) of the water would be most nearly:

(A) 3.5

(B) 3.8

(C) 5.6

(D) 6.8

1

3

2' - 0"

DITCH SECTION

NOT TO SCALE

Solution

Determine the water velocity for the trapezoidal ditch. For a depth = 2.0 ft.

A

2.0 3x2.0

2.0 16.0 ft 2

R

b 2 y 1 z 2 2.0 2x2.0 1 32

2

1

1.486 2 3 1 2 1.486

V

R s

x

1.092 3

0.005 2 5.6 ft / s

n

0.02

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

Q. 8

Analyze the truss shown.

h

2

h

2

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

600 lbf (compression)

670 lbf (compression)

670 lbf (tension)

Solution

From the sum of the moments about E, the vertical reaction at support A is

(300 lbf)(2h)+(200 lbf)(3h)

RA,v

4h

=300 lbf

Draw the free-body diagram of joint A.

By summing the forces in the horizontal direction, determine that the horizontal reaction at A is

zero.

The sum of the forces in the vertical direction is

AH v RA,v 0 lbf

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

From the geometry of the truss, the horizontal component of AH must be twice the vertical

component.

AHh = (2)(300 lbf)

= 600 lbf (compression)

The resultant force in member AH is

AH AH v2 AH h2

(300 lbf) 2

600 lbf

2

THE CORRECT ANSWER IS (C)

Why Other Options Are Wrong

(A) This incorrect solution finds only the vertical component of the force in AH.

(B) This incorrect solution finds the horizontal component of the force in AH.

(D) This incorrect solution identifies the resultant force in AH as a tensile force.

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

Q. 9

A city wants to design a sludge dewatering system for their 20-MGD secondary, activated sludge

treatment plant shown below.

The sludge volume reduction (%) achieved by the thickener is most nearly:

(A) 50

(B) 58

(C) 65

(D) 70

BOD f =5mg/L

TSS1 =200mg/L

TSSPE =80mg/L

TSSf =10mg/L

Solution

Assuming specific gravity of sludge is 1.00

Sludge quantity and volume to be dewatered.

Primary Sludge

lb / d (200 mg / L 80 mg / L)(8.34)(20 MGD ) 20, 016 lb / d

20, 016 lb / d

gpd

68.571 gpd

(8.34 lb / gal )(0.035)

Secondary Sludge (was)

10, 000 lb / d

gpd

0.1599 MGD 0.159,872 gpd

(8.34 lb / gal )(7,500 mg / L)

Before Thickening

Total quantity = 20, 016 10, 000 30, 016 lb / d

Total volume = 68,571+159,872 = 228,443 gpd

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

After Thickening

Total quantity = 30,016 lb/d

Total volume

30, 016

79,979 gpd

(8.34 lb / gal )(0.045 percentage)

228.443-79,979

65%

228.443

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

Q. 10

Groundwater monitoring wells have been installed at the site of a proposed sanitary landfill such

that Well B is located 1,500 feet north and 300 feet west of Well A.

A proposed containment cell, having bottom dimensions of 500 feet (north to south) and 100 feet

(east to west), is to be located such that the southeast corner is 100 feet west and 500 feet north

of Well A.

The bottom of the landfill cell must be a minimum of 5 feet above the groundwater elevation.

The elevations that were determined at each well location are shown in the table below.

The minimum bottom elevation for the proposed landfill cell if the bottom is to be level is most

nearly:

(A) 227

(B) 232

(C) 237

(D) 242

Well

A

B

Groundwater

Elevation(ft)

229.75

222.25

Ground Surface

Elevation (ft)

248.75

243.75

Solution

Determine minimum bottom elevation of the containment cell.

The highest groundwater elevation within cell area = groundwater elevation at point A less the

groundwater drop to closest point of the cell, Point C highest groundwater elevation within cell

area = groundwater elevation at Point A less the (distance A to C)*I

Distance Well A to cell [(500) *(500) (100)*(100)0.5 ] 510 ft

Highest groundwater elevation within cell area 229.75 510* 0.0049 227.25

Minimum bottom elevation of containment cell = highest groundwater elevation within cell area

plus 5 feet = 227.25 + 5 feet

Minimum bottom elevation of containment cell = 232 feet

CORRECT ANSWER IS: (B)

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

Q 11

A soil sample, taken from a borrow pit has a specific gravity of soil solids of 2.66. The sample

was taken to a materials laboratory and tested. The results of a standard Proctor test are

tabulated below.

Weight of soil (lb) Moisture content (%)

3.20

12.8%

3.78

13.9%

4.40

15.0%

4.10

15.7%

3.70

16.6%

3.30

18.1%

The maximum dry density, in lb/ft3, is most nearly:

(A) 85

(B) 90

(C) 100

(D) 115

Solution

Step 1: Derive unit weight (of wet soil) from:

where volume of proctor mold = 1/30 ft3.

Weight Moist unit

of soil weight

lb

lb/ft3

W

3.2

96

3.8

113

4.4

132

4.1

123

3.7

111

3.3

99

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

d

d / (1+w)

Moist unitMoisture Dry

weight content density

lb/ft3

%

lb/ft3

w

d

96

11%

86

113

13% 100

132

15% 115

123

17% 105

111

18%

94

99

19%

83

Step 3: Plot Moisture content (w) vs dry density (

d)

115

110

(lb/ft3)

120

105

100

95

90

85

80

10%

12%

14%

16%

18%

20%

Moisture Content, w (% )

Step 4: Identify maximum dry density (

d) and optimum moisture content (w) from the plot:

Optimum moisture content = w = 15% and

d(max) = 115 pcf

THE CORRECT ANSWER IS (D)

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

Q. 12

A horizontal curve for a section of a highway has a design speed of 60 mph. The terrain restricts

the radius of the curve to 1200 ft, which therefore requires the super elevation at the curve, in

percent, to be most nearly:

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 10

Solution

u2

Radius ( ft )

15(e f s )

Given the radius of 1200 feet and the design speed of 60 mph, the side friction factor (fs) comes

from Exhibit 3-14onpa

ge145oft

he2001AASHTO

APol

i

c

yonGe

ome

t

r

i

cDe

s

i

g

nof

Hi

g

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e

t

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whi

c

hi

sba

s

e

dont

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s

i

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ns

pe

e

d.I

ti

ndi

c

a

t

e

st

ha

tf

ora60mphde

s

i

g

n

speed the side friction factor is 0.12

fs = 0.12

Substituting the known values into the radius equation, the only unknown is the super elevation,

e. By solving for e, the super elevation rate is found.

(60mph) 2

1200 ft

15(e 0.12)

602

3600

e 0.12

e

0.12 0.08 8%

1200(15)

1200(15)

THE CORRECT ANSWER IS ( C )

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

Q. 13

A horizontal curve is defined by its radius of 851 feet, as shown below. The length of the chord

AB, in feet, is most nearly:

12%

36o

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

505

515

525

535

Solution

AD

sin 36

2

AO

AD C / 2

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

AO R 851

C 2(851)sin(18) 525.95

Arc ACB=

2851

534.70

360

Q. 14

A concrete column and footing caries the loads shown.

The footing is 6 ft wide.

column dead load

column live load

moment due to wind

compressive strength of concrete

maximum allowable soil pressure

80 kips

100 kips

50 ft-kips

3000 lbf/in2

3000 lbf/in2

What is the minimum footing length, L, required for the entire footing to be considered effective

in carrying these loads?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

1.7 ft

1.8 ft

7.7 ft

10 ft

Hint: For the entire footing to be effective, avoid tensile stress in the soil.

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

Solution

Limit eccentricity, e, to one-sixth of the footing length to keep the soil resultant within the kern

limit and avoid tension in the soil.

M

M

e wind

P PD PL

50 ft kips

= 0.28 ft

L

e

6

L

0.28 ft

6

Solving for L,

L

0.28 ft

6 1.68 ft

1.7 ft

Why Other Options Are Wrong

(B) This incorrect solution calculates eccentricity using factored loads. Factored loads are used

in concrete design, but not for determining footing size. Footing size should be based on

unfactored soil pressure.

(C) This incorrect solution calculates the required size of a square footing (ignoring the footing

width given) based on the dead and live loads and allowable soil pressure. The problem

statement is asking for the minimum length required for the entire footing to be effective, not the

minimum size based on the soil pressure.

(D) This incorrect solution calculates the required length based on the dead and live loads and

allowable soil pressure. The problem statement is asking for the minimum length required for

the entire footing to be effective, not the minimum size based on the soil pressure.

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

Q. 15

The mechanical and plasticity tests of a soil under consideration as a fill material are shown

below:

A soil is under investigation. Mechanical and plasticity test results are shown below:

Mechanical Analysis

Sieve % passing by weight

10

19

40

25

200

66

Plasticity

Liquid Limit Plastic Limit

40

20

The soil may be classified, according to the Unified Soil Classification (USCS) system as:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

GP

SW

CL

CH

Solution

Refer to the Unified Soil Classification System, Technical Memorandum No. 3-357, US Army

Engineers Waterways Experiment Station, Vicksburg, Mississippi, 1960. Note, this

classification table is reproduced in most geotechnical textbooks. You will find it typically titled

a

s

TheUni

f

i

e

dSoi

lCl

a

s

s

i

f

i

c

a

t

i

onSy

s

t

e

m

.

The Unified Soil Classification system has two analytical components:

1. Particle size

2. Plasticity

Particle size

Less than half of the material is larger than No. 200 sieve: the material is a Fine-grained soil.

Plasticity

TheAt

t

e

r

be

r

g

spl

oti

sa

bovet

he

Al

i

ne

,a

ndt

hePIi

sg

r

e

a

t

e

rt

ha

n7,t

heg

r

oups

y

mboli

sCL.

The soil can be classified as CL Silty Clay.

THE CORRECT ANSWER IS (C)

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

Q. 16

A transition curve is to be used to implement a change in cross-section from a normally

crowned section to a fully superelevated section. The outer lane is to be gradually aligned

from the normally crowned section to a straight level section at the Tangent-to-Spiral (T.S.)

point. The full superelevation is rotated about the centerline.

Degree of Curve (D) = 2.5

Two 11-foot lanes

Design superelevation = 0.08 ft/ft

Grade = +1.50%

Crown = 0.015 ft/ft

T.S. Station = 100 + 00.00

T.S. CL Elevation = 2,500.00 ft.

Length of spiral = 230 ft

The station (feet) where full superelevation is reached is most nearly:

(A) 100 + 00

(B) 100 + 25

(C) 101 + 00

(D) 102 + 50

Solution

S.C. Sta. = T.S. Sta. + LS

= (100+00) + (2 + 30) = 102 + 30

THE CORRECT ANSWER IS: (D)

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

Q. 17

Using the NDS, which of the following statements must be true?

I.

temperatures.

II.

The volume factor, CV, applies only to glued laminated timber bending members.

III.

The bending design value, Fb, for a floor framed with 1 x 6 sawn lumber joists must

be multiplied by the repetitive member factor.

IV.

The load duration factor, CD, does not apply to the modulus of elasticity values.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

I and II

II and III

II and IV

III and IV

Solution

Section 2.3 and Table 2.3.1 of the NDS contain the adjustment factors and their applicability for

design values.

The volume factor, CV, is discussed in the footnotes to NDS Table 2.3.1. Footnote 3 states, "The

volume factor, CV, shall apply only to glued laminated timber bending members (see Sec.

5.3.2)." Statement II is true.

The load duration factor, CD, is discussed in NDS sec. 2.3.2 and NDS table 2.3.2. Both NDS

Sec. 2.3.2.1 and Footnote 1 to NDS Table 2.3.2 state that "Load duration factors shall not apply

t

omodul

usofe

l

a

s

t

i

c

i

t

y

,E"St

a

t

e

me

ntI

Vi

st

r

ue

.

THE CORRECT ANSWER IS (C)

Why Other Options Are Wrong

(A) Although statement II is true, statement I is false. The temperature factor, Ct, is discussed in

NDS Sec. 2.3.4. The temperature factor applies to members subjected to sustained exposure to

elevated (over 100 F) temperatures. Because the statement applies to members subjected to

extreme cold, not heat, statement I is false.

(B) Although statement II is true, statement III is false. The repetitive member factor, Cr, is

discussed in Footnote 5 of NDS Table 2.3.1 Footnote 5 states, "The repetitive member factor,

Cr, shall apply only to dimension lumber bending members 2 in to 4 in thick (see Sec. 4.3.4)."

Because the joists in this case are 1 in thick, statement III is false.

(D) Although statement IV is true, statement III is false because the repetitive member factor,

Cr, applies only to dimension lumber bending members 2 in to 4 in thick. The joists in this case

are 1 in thick.

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

Q.-18

A soil sample weighing 66.8 lb with a moisture content of 19 percent, volume of 0.55 cubic feet,

has a specific gravity of 2.72. The degree of saturation is most nearly:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

0.5

0.6

0.7

0.8

Solution

W / V

= 66.83 / 0.55

= 121.5 pcf

d / (1 + w)

d = 121.5 / (1 + 0.19)

d = 102.1 pcf

d = (Gs * w ) / (1 + e)

e = ((Gs * w ) / d ) 1

e = ((2.72 * 62.4) / 102.1) 1

e = 0.66

S = (w * Gs) / e

S = ((0.19)*(2.72)) / 0.66

S = 0.78

THE CORRECT ANSWER IS: (D)

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

Q. 19

What is the average hydraulic detention time for a rectangular tank with dimensions of 2.5 m by

15 m by 3.0 m deep receiving a flow of 900 m3/d? The hydraulic efficiency of the tank is 83%.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

2.3 h

2.5 h

3.0 h

3.6 h

Hint: The average detention time will be less than the theoretical detention time.

Solution

E

Q

t

ta

V

fractional efficiency

flow rate

theoretical hydraulic detention time

actual hydraulic detention time

volume

m3/d

d

d

m3

h

(2.5m)(15m)(3.0m) 24

V

d

t

3

m

Q

900

d

3.0 h

ta tE

83%

3.0 h

100%

=2.5 h

Why Other Options Are Wrong

(A)

This incorrect solution divides the flow rate by the volume to get the theoretical detention

time. The theoretical detention time is then divided by the percent efficiency instead of being

multiplied by the fractional efficiency. Other definitions and equations are unchanged from the

correct solution.

m3

h

900

24

d

Q

d

t

V

2.5m)(15m)(3.0m

192 h/d 2

h

192 2

ta d

83%

2.3 h

Units do not make sense.

Practice Exam 1

AM (A)

Solutions

(C) This incorrect solution calculates the theoretical detention time. The hydraulic efficiency

is ignored. Other definitions and equations are unchanged from the correct solution.

h

2.5m)(15m)(3.0m

24

d

t

3

m

900

d

3.0 h

(D)

In this incorrect solution, the theoretical detention time is divided by the hydraulic

efficiency instead of being multiplied by it. Other definitions and equations are unchanged from

the correct solution.

h

2.5m)(15m)(3.0m

24

d

t

3

m

900

d

3.0 h

100%

ta

3.0 h

83%

=3.6 h

Q. 20

Assume all soils in a drainage basin are in the Soil Conservation Service (SCS) hydrologic soil

Group B. Also assume that the vegetative covers are in good condition. The land use is parks

and open space. The SCS Runoff Curve Number (CN) for the entire area is most closely

approximated by:

(A) 43

(B) 54

(C) 61

(D) 81

Solution

Determine the SCS Runnoff Curve Number for the entire area. For soil Group B, with good

vegetative cover in urban, fully developed open space (parks, lawns), the appropriate SCS curve

number (Gupta, Hydrology and Hydraulic Systems, Prentice Hall, 1989, p. 101)

CN = 61

THE CORRECT ANSWER IS (C)

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