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1.

The motion is said to be _____________ if the axis of the frame of reference of object
remains always parallel to the corresponding axes of observer frame of reference.
a) Rotatory
b) oscillatory
c)translatory
d)simple harmonic
2. Every point of the spinning object moves along an arc of circle in a point of spinning
object moves along an arc of a circle in a small interval of time and this straight line is
known as
a) Moment arm
b) axis of couple
c) axis of rotation
d)frame of reference
3. Which of the following is(are) are the examples of spin motion .
I)
Daily rotation of earth about own axis.
II) Rotation of fly feel about it axis.
III) Rotation of top.
IV) Motion of planets around sun.
a) IV only
b) I & II only
c)I,II,III only
d) I,II,III & IV.
4. Torque which produces a counter-clockwise rotation is considered to be _________ and
that producing a clock wise rotation is taken as __________.
a)negative, positive
b) positive, negative
c) negative, negative d)positive, positive
5. Which of the following is (are) examples of dynamic equilibrium___________.
I)
Downward motion of small steel ball through viscous liquid
II) jumping of
paratrooper from an helicopter
III) a book lying on table
IV)building and
bridges
a) I and IV
b)II &III
c)I& II
d)I,II & IV
6. The dimension of angular momentum is ______________
a)ML2T
b)ML2T-2
c)MLT-2
d) LM-1T2
7. When skater wants to increase it rotation then __________
a) he must pull his hand and feet away from his body b)He must reduces his weight
c) he must pull his hand and feet close to his body
d) a torque must be applied
8. which of following property must have the forces which form a couple
I) these have same magnitude
II) these cannot be
replaced by single force
III)their line of action is different
IV) these produce no linear
acceleration
a) I & III only
b)I & III only
c)II & III only
d)I,II,III & IV
9. a particle of mass 0.3kg moves in xy plane. At the instant its coordinates are (2,4)m its
velocity is (3i+4j) m/s. At this instant the angular moment of particle relative to the
origin is _________
a) -1.2j J.s
b) -1.2i J.s
c)-1.2k J.s
d)840 J.s
10.
a particle of mass 400 gram rotates in a circular orbit of radius
20cm at a constant rate of 1.5 revolution per second, then the angular momentum of
the particle with respect to the centre of orbit is ___________
a) 0.006 J.s
b) 0.15 J.s
c)720 J.s
d)400 kg m2/sec )
11.
A particle of mass 4 kg moves along the x-axis with a speed
v=15t m/s, where t=0, is the instant that particle is at the origin, at t=2 the angular
moment of the particle about point P located on y- axis , 6m from the origin is _______
a) 720 kg m2/sec
b)360 kg m2/sec
c)12.5 kg m2/sec
d)400 kg m2/sec
12.
A 45 kilogram girl is sitting on a see saw 0.6m from the pivoted
point, how far from the other side, should a 60kg body sit so that see saw will remains
in balance.
a)0.3m
b)0.35m
c)0.4m
d)0.45m
13.
A skater extends her arms, holding a 2kg mass in each hand. She
is rotating about a vertical axis at given rate. She bring her arms inward towards her
body in such a way that the distance of each mass from the axis changes from 1m to o.5
mm. her ate of rotation will _______
a) Be doubled
b)be halved
c) be quadrupled
d)be quarter

14.
Which of the following is(are) examples of uniform circular
motion ____________.
I) Fly wheel rotating about own axis
II) Rotation of moon around the earth
III) Rotation of earth
IV) lawn move blades
a)IV only
b)I & III only
c)I,II,III & IV
d)I,II and IV only.
15.
The object initially is at point P1 on the circumference of circle,
after a small interval of time, it moves to the position P 2, angle P1OP2 is known as
__________
a) Arc length
b)Axis of rotation
c) Angle of motion
d)Angular
displacement
16.
10= __________
o
a) /360
b)360/
c) 2/60
d)2/180
17.
one rpm=______
a) 2/60 rad s-1
b) 60/2 rad s-1
c)0.0017 rad s-1
d) 57.3 rad s-1
18.
A particle is moving in a circular path, then the product of
distance of particle from the axis of rotation and angular velocity is known as _______
a)Angular speed
b) frequency
c) angular momentum
d tangential
velocity
19.
The acceleration produce by virtue of changing direction of a
body moving in a circular path is known as ______
a)Angular speed
b) tangential acceleration
c) centripetal acceleration d) linear
acceleration
20.
The equation X=Vox t and Y=Voyt -1/2 gt2 are independent of
description of motion but both depends up on common variable t, such equation are
known as _________.
a) Equation of motion
b) parametric equation
c) parabolic equation d)equation of
projectile
21.
In projectile motion the vertical component of acceleration is
equal to _________
a) Zero
b) a=-g
c) a=-1/2g
d) a=g
22.
Small angles produces________ trajectory and the large angles
produces ___________ trajectory.
a)Flat, low
b) high , low
c) flat , low
d) high, low.
23.
. which of the following is (are) example of projectile motion .
I) object thrown from window
II)A missile shoot
from a gun
III)A bomb released from bomber Plane
IV) Jumping animals
a)I & III only
b)II & III only
c)I & IV only
d) IV only
24.
for maximum range , the factor sin2 must be equal to _________.
a)45o
b) 9oo
c)0
d)1
25.
the range of the projectile depends upon ________
I)square of velocity
II)sin of twice of the projection angle III) mass of projectile
IV)angle of projectile
a) I & II only
b)I,II and IV only
c)I,II,III & IV
d) I only
26. projectile will cover half of maximum range with less time interval when it is fired at
__________
a) 300
b)600
c)150
d)750
o
27. at of launch angle of 45 , the range of projectile is given by __________
a)Vi2/g

b) 2Vi2/g

c)

V 2 /g

e) both a&d

d)2Vi/g

28. a projectile is launched at an angle to the horizontal with an initial velocity V. in the
absence of air resistance , which of the following statements is (are) correct _________

a)horizontal V increase
b)horizontal V remains constant
c) horizontal V decrease d)vertical
acceleration decrease
29. A rescue helicopter drops a package of emergency ration to a stranded party on the
ground. If the helicopter is travelling horizontally at 40m/s at a height of 100m above
the ground, the package strikes the ground relative to the point at which it was
released .
a)40m
b)50m
c)180m
d)90m
30. A boy throws a ball with a speed of 9.8m/s upward, if ball is fall back at the same
height where from it was released then the maximum distance between the projection
point and landing point is __________
a)9.8m
b)4.9m
c)98m
d)19.6m
31. a projectile is launched from level ground with a velocity of 100 m/s at an angle of 300
to the horizontal . if air resistance is neglected , approximately how will projectile rise .
a) 50m
b)125m
c)250m
d)98m
32. An object is launched from the ground with an initial velocity and angle such that the
maximum height achieved is equal to the total range of the projectile . the tangent of
the launch angle is equal to ________
a)1
b)2
c)3
d)4
33. A car is travelling on a flat circular track of radius 2oom if the co-efficient of friction is
o.8 then its maximum speed at which the car can circle the track is _________
a)4500m/s
b)2.9m/s
c)39.6m/s
d)15m/s
34. A 200gram ball is held to the end of a cord and whirled in a horizontal circle of radius
o.6m. if the ball makes five complete revolution in 2 sec, then tension in cord is
__________
a)9.42N
b)148N
c)29.6N
d)200N
35.
The S.I unit of momentum is __________
a)kgm.s-2
b)N.s
c)J.s
d)kg m s
36. if there is no external force applied to a system, then the total momentum of system
remains constant before and after collision . this is known as __________
I)Newtons 2nd law of motion
II) Newtons 1st law
of motion
III) law of conservation of momentum
IV)Newtons law of inertia
a)I & II
b) I & IV
c)III only
d)II only
37. when a body is on the point of sliding then the friction is said to be _______________
a) kinetic friction
b) static friction
c)sliding friction
d) limiting friction
38. the ratio of limiting friction to normal reaction acting between two surfaces in contact
is known as ________
a)contact force
b)co-efficient of friction
c)angle of friction
d)mass of surface
39. when spheres are moving in fluid , these experience a retarding force that is given by
__________
a)F=rv
b)F=6nrv
c)F=6nrv2
d)F=6nr2v
40. when a block sides down with an acceleration a from an inclined plane, which is
inclined at angle , then resultant force is given by __________
a)ma=w cos f
b) w sin= ma f
c) ma= wsin- f
d) f= wsin+ ma
41. the speed of an object at the ends of 4 successive seconds are 20,25,30 and 35 m/s
respectively . the acceleration of this object is ________
a) 5m/s2
b)10 m/s2
c)20m/s2
d)2.5m/s2
42. a bomb is dropped from an air plane moving horizontally with a speed of 20km/h. if air
resistance is negligible the bomb will reach the ground in 5 second when the altitude of
the plan is approximately _________
a)50m
b)75m
c)250m
d)125m
43. a ball is droped from a top of tower, if it takes 5 sec to hit the ground , then height of
the tower is _______

a) 49m
b)122.5m
c)198m
d)150m
44. a 100grams bullet is fired from a 10kg gun with a speed of 1000 m/s , then the speed
at which gun recoil is ______
a)5m/s
b)20m/s
c)10m/s
d)100m/s
45. A helicopter weighs 3920N, if it is ascending up at a rate of 2m/s2 then the force on it
____________
a)3920N
b)800N
c)1600N
d)4720N
46. a truck starts from at the top of a slope which is 1m high and 49m long, the speed of
truck at the bottom is _______
a)o.2m/s
b)4.4m/s
c)5.6m/s
d)8.8m/s
47. a bullet having a mass o.oo5kg is moving with a speed of 1oom/s . it penetrates into a
bag of sand and is brought to rest after moving 25cm into the bag, the average retarding
force on bullet is _________
a)1oN
b)o.1N
c)1N
d)100N
48. a car starts from rest and moves with a constant acceleration . during 5 th second of its
motion it covers a distance of 36m, the acceleration of car is __________
a)12.5m/s2
b)20m/s2
c)8m/s2
d)20m/s2
49.. a car of mass 1oookg travelling at a speed of 36km/h is brought to rest over a distance
of 20m , the average retardation force is _________
a)1oN
b)2.5N
c)25ooN
d)1oooN
50.a particle moves along x-axis subject to the following position given by X(t)= 2t2+3t-1
the average speed after 3 second is _________
a)2m/s
b)3.3m/s
c)5m/s
d)8.3m/s
51. An object has an initial velocity of 15m/s, how long must it accelerated at a constant
rate of 3m/s2 before its average velocity is equal to twice of its initial velocity.
a)5sec
b)10sec
c)15 sec
d)25 sec
52. a ball is dropped from rest at a height of 5om above the ground. The speed just before
it hits the ground is________
a)2om/s
b)31.3m/s
c)3.19m/s
d)49m/s
53. a car moving at 30m/s slows uniformly to a speed of 10m/s in a time of 5 second, if
deceleration is uniform then distance it moves in the third second is ________________
a)4m
b)40m
c)2m
d)20m
54. the speed of a train is reduced uniformly from 15m/s to 7m/s while travelling a distance
of 9om. How much farther will the train travel before coming to rest, provided the
acceleration remains constant.
a)20
b)115m
c)25m
d)75m
55. a car is accelerating uniformly as it passes two check points that are 30m apart. The
time taken between checkpoints is 4s. and the cars speed at the first check point is 5m/s
then speed at second check point is__________.
a)3m/s
b)8m/s
c)13m/s
d)10m/s
56. a 600kg car is moving on a level road at 30m/s how large retarding force is required to
stop it in a distance of 70m
a)390N
b)3900N
c)400N
d)5000N
57.
The magnitude of centripetal acceleration of moon is found to
be__________
a)2.7210-3m/s2
b) 2.72106m/s2
c) 3.84108m/s2
d) 6.38103m/s2
58. the average density of earth is ________________
a)5.981024kg/m3
b) 5.981024kg/m3
c) 5.981024kg/m3
d)
24
3
5.9810 kg/m
59. the force with which the earth attracts the other body toward its centre is given by
____________
a)F=MEm/RE2
b) F=GMEm/RE
c) F=GMEm/RE2
d) F=MEmRE2/G

60. if we go away from the surface of earth a distance equal to the radius of earth the
value of g will becomes :
a)one fourth
b)one eight
c)one ninth
d) one third
61. the sun exerts a force of attraction on the plants thus keeping them in their :
a)axis
b)radii
c)orbits
d)state of motion
62. the gravitational attraction between two college students of mass 80 and 50kg
respectively , 2m apart from each other is__________
a)3.6210-47N
b) 6.6710-8N
c) 6.6710-15N
d) 1.510-8N
63.A woman with a mass 45kg is standing on scale in an elevator , the elevator accelerator
upward with a constant acceleration of 1.2m/s2 the womans weight as measured by her
in the elevator .
a)450N
b)495N
c)355N
d)1000N
64. which of the following statement is (are) correct ________
I) when elevator is rest or moving with uniform speed the apparent weight is equal to
true weight.
II) when elevator is ascending with a constant acceleration a , then apparent weight is
greater than true weight.
III) when elevator is descending with acceleration a , then apparent weight is greater
than true weight.
IV) when elevator is free fall the apparent is zero.
a)I &II
b)I,II & III
c)II,III & IV
d)I & IV
65. Another plant has half the mass of earth and half the radius, compare to acceleration
due to gravity near the surface of earth , the acceleration due to gravity near the
surface of this other plant is _________
a)twice as much
b)one fourth as much
c)half as much
d) same
66. the gravitational force between two masses is 36N, if the distance between masses is
tripled the force of gravity will be_____________
a) same
b) 18N
c)9N
d)4N
67. the force acting on satellite in circular orbit around earth in chiefly ______________
a) the satellites inertia
b) earths gravitational pull
c)
earths mass
d) the satellites mass
68. what will be gravitational force between two objects if their product is doubled and
distance is halved .
a)decreased 2 times
b) increased 16 times
c)increased 8 times d)decrease 4 times
69. the weight of a body at the surface of earth is 500N, what will be its approximate
weight at the surface of new plants surface whose mass is twice the mass of earth and
its radius is 5 times the radius of earth.
a)200N
b)1000N
c)100N
d)250N
70.
Which of the following statement is (are) correct__________
I) Real images are always inverted with respect to object
II) virtual images
are always erect w.r.t object .
III)Real image are formed back side of mirror
IV) virtual images are formed back side
of lens.
a)III & IV only
b) I & II only
c)I,II & III only
d)I,II,III & IV
71.
A pair of lenses is in contact then their equivalent focal length is
given by _________
a) sum of the reciprocal of their individual focal length b)simply adding the individual focal
lengths.
c) reciprocal of the sum of reciprocal of their individual focal length d)multiplication of individual
of their focal lengths
72. The fact that different wavelengths of light refracted by lens focus at different points
give rise to __________

I) chromatic aberration

II) spherical aberration

III) myopic

IV) hyperopic
a)II & III
b)I & IV
c) I only
d)IV only
73. Which of following is (are) correct for a myopic eye (near sighted)_________
I) myopic eye condition can be corrected with converging lens .
II) Myopic eye is
slightly longer than normal eye
III) the myopic eye condition can be corrected with divergent
IV) image of distant
object forms in front of cornea
a)I & II
b)III
c)I & IV
d)I,II & III
74. a camera of 6cm focal length is used to photo graph a distant scene. The distance
from the lens to image is approximately _________
a)6cm
b)1m
c)80cm
d)4cm
75. in an experiment, an object was placed on the principal axis of a convex lens 25cm
away from lens, a real image 4 times the size of the object was obtained. The focal
length of the lens was____________
a)20cm.
b)25cm
c)33cm
d)50cm
76. when a person uses a convex lens as a minifying glass, the distance that the object
must be from the lens is _______
a) less than focal length b)more than f but less than 2f
c) more than 2f but
less than 4f
d) at least 4f
77. A 3cm tall candle is placed in front of a concave spherical mirror. An inverted image
half the size of original is observed on a screen , where relative to the mirror must the
candle have been placed __________
a) at 2f
b)beyond 2f.
c)b/w f and 2f
d)b/w f and the mirror
78. convex lens whose focal length is 20cm the specimen of Red Admiral butterfly is
placed if its image is to be real one, three times as large as object then the specimen is
_______________ far from the lens.
a)20cm
b)40cm
c)26.66cm
d)80cm
79. an object is placed at a distance of 60cm from a concave lens of focal length 30cm,
position and nature of image is
a) 20cm from lens, virtual and erect
b) 1/3 cm from lens, virtual and erect
c)16cm from lens, real and erect
d)20cm from lens, virtual and inverted
80. a converging lens of focal length 20cm is placed in front of a converging lens of focal
length 4cm. what is distance b/w the lenses if parallel rays entering the first lens leaves
the second lens as parallel rays.
a)28cm
b)48cm
c)8cm
d)24cm.
81. an astronomical telescope of angular magnification 1000 has an objective of 15m focal
length what is focal length of eye peace.
a)15mm
b)15cm
c)8cm
d)20mm
82. An astronomical telescope has an object lens whose power is 2 diopeters. This lens is
placed 60cm from eye piece then angular magnification is _____________
a)2
b)50
c)10
d)5
83. a lens is used to produce a sharp image on a screen . When the right half of the lens is
covered with an opaque material, how will the image be affected__________.
I) the right half image will disappear.
II) The left half of image will disappear.
III) The image size will become approximately half of original image
IV) The image brightness become approximately half of the original brightness
a)I,II & III only
b)I & III only
c)II & IV only
d) IV only
84. Which of the following is (are) phenomena explained on the basis of wave nature of
light________.
I) emission
II) photoelectric effect
III) interference
IV) diffraction
a) I & II
b)II & III
c) III & IV
d)II & III

85. Newtons rings may be observed if you place a curve place a curved glass surface on a
flat glass surface. A thin film of air is wedged b/w the glass surfaces. Looking down, you
can see several rings around point where two glass surfaces touch. Newtons rings are
produced by ______________
a)interference
b)diffraction
c)polarization
d)absorption
86. if light of wave length 510-7m shines on a pair of slits 1mm apart, how far from the
central maximum will the first bright band appear on screen 1 m away _____________
a)510-4m
b)510-10m
c)2103m
d)210-4m
87. which of the following statement is(are) correct for young double slit
experiment_________
I) if the wave length of light increased, the distance b/w frings increases.
II)if the distance b/w the two slits is decreased, the distance b/w fringes decreases.
III)if white light is used , the central maximum is white.
IV)if the distance b/w screen and slits is increased the distance b/w fringes increased.
a)IV only
b)I,II & III only
c) II & IV only
d)I,II,III & IV
88. diffraction of X-rays can be observed by using ___________
I)young double slit experiment II) thin film
III)diffraction grating
IV)use of
crystal
a)IV only
b)I,II and III only
c) III and IV only
d)III only
89. which of following shows that light is transverse wave ____________
I) reflection
II)diffraction
III)interference
IV) polarization
a) I only
b)II & III
c)I,II & IV
d)IV only
90. light cannot be polarized by _________________
I) reflection
II)double refraction
III) total internal reflection
IV) scattering
a)I only
b)III only
c) I & Iv only
d)II only
91. in double slit experiment the separation of slits is 1.9mm and fringe spacing is 0.31mm
at a distance of 1m from the slits , then wave length of light is ___________
a) 0.58910-9m
b)0.2510-9m
c)5.4610-10m
d)2.8110-10m
st
92. if a diffraction grating produce 1 order spectrum of light of wave length 610-7m at an
angle of 200 from the normal. The number of lines per mm is __________
a)1.7510-3
b) 5.7102
c) 4000
d)8000
93. how many fringes will pass a reference point if the mirror of a Michelson;s
interferometer is moved by o.o8mm, the wave length of light used is 5800oA.
a)275
b)500
c)1000
d)5000
94. interference fringes were produced by two slits o.25mm apart on a screen 15omm from
the slits. If eight fringes occupy 2.62mm. the wavelength of light is __________
a)5.46mm
b)5.4610-6m
c)5.4610-3
d)5.4610-9m
95. if the intensity of monochromatic light is increased while incident on a pair of narrow
slits in diffraction experiment the spacing b/w maxima in the pattern will _________
a) increase
b) decrease
c) increasing or decreasing d)cannot be
decided
96. Which of the following is (are) present at the red end of the visible spectrum .
I) slower wave at than at the violet
II) lower energy quanta than at the
violet end
III) Longitudinal wave
IV) longer wave length than at the
violet end
a)I,II & III
b)I & II
c)II & IV
d)IV only
97. the principle of interference is necessary to explain adequately which of following
______
I) the appearance of virtual image rather than real image in a plan mirror
II)the
product of green color of leaves
III) the appearance of color in thin film
IV) Produce of beats
a)I,II &III
b)I,II,III & IV
c)II,III & IV
d)IV only
98. color in soap bubble are caused ___________

a)solely by pigment
b) solely by reflection
c)solely by absorption d)by interference
99. which of following properties when a beam of light goes obliquely from rarer to denser
medium .
I)speed
II) frequency
III)wave length
IV)amplitude
a)I & II
b) I & III
c)I,III & IV
d)IV only
100. In Young's double-slit experiment, two slits are 0.02 mm apart. The screen is located
1.80 from the source, and the third-order bright fringe is located 12.60 cm from the
central fringe. Then distance between the first bright fringe and the third order bright
fringe is .
a) 4.3cm
b)8.3cm
c)1.3cm
d)o.8cm
101. Two sources are said to be coherent. This means they
a)are polarized.
b) have the same amplitude. c) have different wavelengths.
d) maintain constant phase with respect to each other. e) have different frequencies.
102. In double-slit interference pattern, destructive interference occurs when the path
difference between two waves is
a) even multiples of /2. b) odd multiples of /2.
c) the same.
d) even multiples of
.
103. Light of wavelength = 500 nm falls on diffraction grating whose ruling produces
spacing between the slits of 1 10-5 m. How many principal maxima can be observed?
a)5
b) 10
c)15
d)20 e)25
104. diffracting grating is used to determine the wavelength of light. In using the same
grating, illuminated by red light compared to blue light, the angle for the first-order
maxima:
a) is equal for both red and blue light.
b) is greater for red light than blue light.
c) is smaller for red light than blue light.
d) is independent of the wavelength of
light.
e) is independent of the frequency of light.
105. In order for two sound waves to produce beats, it is most important that two waves
have ..
a) Same frequency
b) same amplitude
c) same number of overtones
d) Slightly difference frequencies
e) slightly difference in amplitude
106. A student wanted to make a pendulum whose time period would be 1second. He used
a string of the length L and found that the period was second. To get desired period
he should use a string whose length equal to .
a)1/4 L
b) 1/2L
c) 2L
d) 4L
e)
L2
107. The a simple pendulum of length l and mass(bob) m is suspended vertically. The
string makes an angle with the vertical. The restoring force acting on the pendulum is
a) F=kx
b) F=mgcos
c) F=mgsin
d) F=mg
108.
Find the time period of a simple pendulum whose length is 88.2cm the value of
acceleration due to gravity is 9.8m/s2 at the place where experiment is performed.
a) 2sec
b) 1.8 sec
c) 5 sec
d) 0.5 sec
E) 4sec
109.
The time of one vibration of a simple pendulum in a laboratory does not depend
on .
a) Altitude of the laboratory
b) the acceleration due to gravity in the
laboratory
c) The length of string
d)mass of bob
110.
Which of following statements concerning simple harmonic motion described
below is (are) correct..
a) The maximum velocity and maximum acceleration occurs at the same time
b) The maximum velocity occurs when acceleration is minimum

c) The velocity is always directly proportional to the displacement


d) The maximum velocity occurs when the displacement is maximum
e) N.O.T
111.
A simple pendulum completes one oscillation in 2second, the length of simple
pendulum is
a) 2m
b)4m
c)0.99m
d)5m
e)2.5m
112.
A body of mass 2kg attached to a spring is displaced through 0.04m from its
equilibrium position and then released; if the spring constant is 200N/m then frequency
will be
a) 0.628Hz
b)1.57Hz
c) 10Hz
d)25Hz
113.
A string 2m long and mass of 0.004kg is stretched horizontally by passing end
over pulley and attaching a 1kg mass to it then frequency of fourth harmonic is ..
a)70Hz
b)35Hz
c)140Hz
d)200Hz
114.
A spring 4m long resonates in four segments (node at both ends). The frequency
of driving system on spring is 20Hz, and then speed of wave in spring is ..
a)20m/s
b)40m/s
c)10m/s
d)5m/s
115.
Compute the wave length of wave transmitted by a radio station that board casts
on an assigned frequency of 1000kHz.
a) 150m
b)250m
c)100m
d)200m
116.
A standing wave is established in 120m long string fixed at both ends. The string
vibrates in four segments when driven at 120Hz. The wave length is ..
a)7m
b)10m
c) 0.6m
d)20m
e)
5m
117.
The power transmitted by any harmonic wave is proportional to
(I)
Square of frequency
(II) square of amplitude
(III) velocity
(IV)
distance from the source
a) I and II only
b) II and III only
c) I,II and III only
d)I,II,III and IV
118.
The frequency of transverse wave depends up on .
(I)
Inversely proportional to length
(II)Inversely proportional to the square root of
mass per unit length
(III) Directly proportional square of amplitude
(IV) directly proportional to
square root of tension
119.
____________ are longitudinal waves with frequencies below 20Hz.
a) Ultrasonic
b) infrasonic
c) audible
d)
infrared
120.
The speed of sound depends up on .
(I)
Density of medium
(II) elasticity of medium
(III)temperature
(IV)
pressure
a) I & III only
b) III only
c) I,II,III & IV only
d) I,II,III & IV
only
121.
The magnitude of auditory sensation produced by sound is known as
a) Loudness
b) pitch
c) intensity
d) quality
122.
This our common experience that sound of sparrow is shrill because of___________
Where as sound of lamb is grave due to__________.
a) High pitch & low frequency, low pitch & high frequency
b)High pitch & low frequency, high
pitch & high frequency
c) High pitch & high frequency, low pitch & high frequency
d)High pitch& high frequency, low
pitch &low frequency
123. _________is characteristic of musical sound which enables us to distinguish between
notes of same pitch and intensity
a)quality
b) loudness
c) pitch
d)noise
124.
the amplitude of sound wave is determined as its_________

a) Wave length
b) frequency
c)pitch
d) resonance
e) loudness
125.
The pitch of sound___________as the car approaches but ________as it recedes.
a) Remains same, increased
b) increased, decreased
c) remains same, decrease
d)
increased, decreased
126.
The spectra from some star are shifted toward blue end, meaning
that__________While the spectra from some stars are shifted toward red end meaning
that___________
a) Approaching earth, approaching earth
b) moving toward earth, approaching earth
c) Emit more intense light , emit less intense light d)age of star deceasing, age of star increasing
127.
Which of the following statements is(are) correct about transverse waves
a) Transverse waves can be polarized b) vibration are perpendicular to the direction of propagation
c) Microwave are transverse
b) transverse wave can be diffracted
e) A.O.T
128.
Which of following properties does NOT apply to sound .
a) reflection
b) refraction
c)diffraction
d) interference
e) polarization
129.
The lowest note that can be produced by a vibrating object is known as which of
the following..
(I) fundamental frequency
(II) first overtone
(III) first harmonic
(IV) first
basso
a) I,II & III
b)I &III only
c) II & IV only
d) IV only
e)N.O.T
130.
A sonar depth finder in a boat uses sound signals to determine the depth of water.
Four seconds after the sound leaves the boat it returns to the boat because of
reflection from the bottom assume the speed of sound in the water is 1460 m/sec, the
depth of water is .
a) 2200m
b)4400m
c)4800m
d)2920m
e)19200m
131.
a narrow cylinder with some water at bottom and an air column of length La if a
tuning fork vibrating above the air column, then the wave length of the fundamental
frequency in air column is_________
a)2La
b)less than 2La
c) 4La
d) 6La
e)3/2 La
132.
When an open pipe is vibrating then which of the following is(are) true.
(I) fundamental wavelength is equal to twice of length of pipe II) it only produce odd
multiple of fundamental frequencies
III)the frequencies of first, 2nd , 3rd overtone are (3f,5f,7f).
IV)it only produce even
multiple of fundamental frequency
a)I,II and III only
b) I & IV only
c) I,III only d) I only
e) N.O.T
133. While anchored at sea, a captain notices the wave peaks are separated by 16 m and
occur at a rate of 1 wave every 2 seconds. What is the velocity of these waves?
a) 4 m/s
b) 8 m/s
c) 16 m/s
d) 32 m/s
e) 64 m/s
134. 5kg and 10kg masses are hanged vertically downward with same type of spring then
the ratio of time period of their oscillation is _________
a) 2: 1

b) 1:2

c) 4:1

d) 4:1

e)

2 :1

135. 4.0-kg mass hangs on spring and stretches it 0.05 m. The spring is then cut exactly in
half. The same 4.0-kg mass, when hung on this new spring, will cause the spring to be
stretched how far?
a) 0.400
b) 0.020
c) 0.100
d) 0.025
136. the maximum speed of a particle in SHM is o.16m/s maximum acceleration is
o.64m/s2.the amplitude is _____
a)o.o4m
b)o.4m
c)4om
d)4m
137. A particle executes S.H.M of amplitude A. at what distance from mean position its K.E
is equal to its P.E
a)o.51A
b)o.61A
c)o.71A
d)o.81A
138.
Which of following is(are) the correct statement of sources of energy.

(I)

The source of solar energy is nuclear fission.


II)The source of
hydroelectric is the retain of river water
III) source of fossil fuel is remnants of plants and animal IV)source of geothermal energy
is nuclear fusion and fission.
a) I,II &III only
b) IV only
c) II & III only
d) III &IV
only
139. Which of following is(are) examples of conservation of energy
(I) In electric bulb: electrical energy=heat energy+light energy . II)fossil fuel: chemical
energy= heat energy + losses.
III)steam boiler : heat energy= mechanical energy + losses. IV)rubbing hands:
mechanical energy =heat energy+ losses.
a) I & III only
b) II only
c) I & II only
d) I,II,III & IV
140. Which of the following is (are) the example of potential energy.
(I) Work done in compressing the spring against the elastic force. II) electric charge is
moved against electrostatic field
(III) When a body is lifted to height against the gravitational force. IV)Work done by
moving car against friction.
) I &II only
b) IV only
c) I & IV only
d) I,II,III and IV
141. Which of the following is(are) the examples of kinetic energy .
(I) Moving ball can break a glass window.
II)A string hammer can drive a
nail.
(III)
A stone thrown upward can lift itself.
IV)A bullet can penetrate the
bag of sand .
a) I,II &IV
b) I &II
c) I,II,III & IV
d) II &III
142. horse power =
a) 746 watt
b) 373 watt
c) 1055 watt
d) 3.6*10-19 watt
143. Which of the following is not correct.
a) I BTU=1055J
b) 1ev= 1.6*10-19J
c) 1KWh=3.6*106J
d) 1Mev=1.6*10-13J e)
N.O.T
144. Which of the following is (are) the example of negative work.
(I) Stretching force , stretched the spring
(II) lifting force lifts the
object.
(III) Work done by friction force
(IV) work done by normal
force.
a) I,II & III
b)III only
c) I & II only
d) I,II,III & IV
145. A 70 kg man runs up a hill through a height a height of 3m in 2second, the average
power output is.
a) 2060 watt
b) 2.1*106 watt
c) 1030 watt
d) 1000 watt
146. A 2000 kg car travelling at 20m/s comes to rest on a level ground at a distance of
100m. then average frictional force tending to stop it.
a)8000N
b) 4000N
c)2000N
d)1000N
147. The work done in holding a weight of 40N at a height of 3m above the floor for 2
second is ..
a) 0
b)40
c)80
d)120
e)240
148. A 40N object is lifted 10m above the ground and then released after the object has
fallen 4m it kinetic energy will be ..
a) 5J
b)160J
c)240J
d)400J
E)5120J
149. An inclined plane 5m long has one end on the ground and other end on 3m high. A
man weighing 650N wished to push a 900N object up this plane, the force of friction is
100N, the work done by man to move a box on the top of plane is..
a)3200J
b)2700J
c)500J
d)2000J
150. which of the following is(are) true of an object starting from rest and accelerating
uniformly.

(I) It K.E is proportional to its displacement. (II) its displacement proportional to


square root of velocity.
(III)
It K.E is proportional to the square of speed (IV) it velocity is proportional to the
square of displacement.
a) I,II & III
b)I & II
c) II & IV
d)IV
e)N.O.T
151. An advertisement claims that a certain 12ookg car can accelerate from rest to a
speed of 25m/s in a time of 8s then average power must the motor produce to cause
this acceleration is ___________
a)7895w
b)46875w
c)5000
d)2345w
152. Which of the following objects would require the greatest amount of work to stop it?
a) an object of mass 3M and speed
b) an object of mass 2M and speed
c) an object of
mass 3M and speed
d) an object of mass and speed
e) an object of mass 4M and speed
153. block of mass moving with initial velocity is subjected to horizontal frictional force on
rough surface. The coefficient of
friction between the block and the surface is U , What distance does the block travel
before completely coming to rest?
a) v/2ug
b) v2/2umg
c)v2/ug
d)v/2umg
154.
which of the following is(are) correct__________
I)ii=jj=kk=o
II)ij=jk=ki=1
III)i.i=j.j=k.k=1
IV)i.j=j.k=k.i=o
a)I & IV
b)II & III
c)I & III
d)III & IV
155. the projection of vector A=2i-3j|+6k onto the direction of vector B=i+2j+2k ___________
a)8/3
b)3/8
c)4/5
d)5/4
156. the scalar product of (2i-j+3k).(3i+2j-k) is ___________
a)o
b)-6
c)1
d)3
e)-3k
157. a unit vector perpendicular to the plane containing vector A=2i-3j-k and B=i+4j-2k
_________________
a)10i/ 230 +3j/ 230 +15k/ 230

230 +3j/ 230 +11k/ 230

b) 2i/ 5 +3j/ 5 +11k/ 5

c)10i/

d) 2i/ 3 +j/ 3 +2k/

3
158. two vectors A and B are such that

| A| =3, |B| =4 and A.B=6 then angle between A

and B is__________
a)300
b)900
c)1200
d)600
159. the position vectors P and Q are given by r 1=2i+3j-k, r2=4i-3j+2k then the magnitude
of PQ vector is _____________
a)4
b)2
c)-6
d)7
160. the law that governs that the sum of vectors remains same irrespective of any order
is known as __________
a)Associative law of vector addition
b)commutative law of vector addition
c)distributive law of vector addition
d) closure law of vector addition
161. the unit vector parallel to vector A=3i+6j-2k is _____________
a)3i/7+6j/7-2k/7
b) i/7+3j/7-5k/7
c) i/3+j/3-k/3
d) 2i/3+5j/3+7k/3
162. position of a given point P is specified w.r.t to the point O by mean of a vector having
magnitude and direction is known as
a)free vector
b)Null vector
c)position vector
d) unit vector
163. a vector which can be displaced parallel to itself is known as ___________
a)free vector
b)unit vector
c)parallel vector
d)position vector

164. If A.B=

| A||B| , then _____________

a)A is perpendicular to B b)magnitude of A is equal to B


c) magnitude of A is
one
d)A is parallel to B
165. A=2i+3j-5k and B=2i+aj-k , the value of a=__________ so that vector A and B are
perpendicular to each.
a)3
b)2
c)-3
d)4
e)N.O.T
165. the dot product of vector A & B is 20. If A=2i+3j-k and B=2i+3j-bk the value of b is
____________
a)20
b)13
c)7
d)12
166. the angle between vector A=2i+4j+2k and B=5i+j-7k is _____________
a)00
b)120
c)600
d)300
167. the magnitude of resultant of two unit vector A and B is 1, then angle between A and
B is ________
a)900
b)00
c)600
d)1200
168. two vectors one is trice the magnitude of other and their resultant is 4 times the
smaller vector the angle between these forces is ____________
a)cos-1(0)
b) cos-1(1)
c) cos-1(1/4)
d) cos-1(-2/3)
169. if Fx=4N and Fy=-4N then F makes ____________ angle with +x-axis .
a)1800-tan-1(4/4)
b) 2700-tan-1(4/4)
c) 3600-tan-1(4/4)
d) 1800-tan-1(4/4)
170. two equal magnitude vector having magnitude of 10 units one makes 300 with +x-axis
and other makes 1500 with +x-axis then the magnitude of their resultant is ___________
a)20

b)10 2

c)0

d)10

171. An airplane X starting from point A reaches point B which is at 400km then it turns
left and reaches to point C which is at 3ookm from point B, the average speed of
airplane is 10km/h at the same time another airplane moves and reach to point C in
shortest distance from point A, the average speed of this airplane is _________ if both
reaches a same time.
a)10km/h
b)7km/h
c)20km/h
d)5.55km/h

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