Академический Документы
Профессиональный Документы
Культура Документы
the local Church of God International in Jamaica; which is an offshoot of the now extinct
Worldwide Church of God which was founded by HW Armstrong. Seeing that Ian Boyne, like
Armstrong (his late philosophical/doctrinal leader), fully believes in the annual feasts being
still binding on even Gentile Christians, the following responses from me to his forums and
CDs on the issue should show how their doctrine on annual feast days of ancient Israel can be
reasonably answered.
2. Also, I see you using the 4th century quotes from John
Chrysostom of Antioch to prove what the quotes are in fact
far from proving. I can only assume that the Adventist
friend whom you referred in your Holy Days forum at the
Life of Jamaica Auditorium, as the one who "wrote you and
the one making the fatal mistake of saying there was no
controversy over other feast days except Sabbath and
Passover, that had to be me (or so it appears). If it happens
to have been me you were referring to I should point out Ian
that it evidences your carelessness in quoting the
opposition, or probably a failure to properly understand the
point being made by those who oppose you. I submitted to
you the very potent point that indeed there is evidence of
the Papal Church in Church Councils having a controversy
over the timing of both the weekly Sabbath and the annual
Passover [or Lords Supper], but no such controversy over
the TIMING of the other festivals, hence indicating they
were not being universally kept by New Testament
Christians [especially Gentiles] as a mark of their obligatory
nature. Notice my emphasis Ian on the controversy over
the timing or the timetabling of the weekly Sabbath and
annual Lords Supper. Did you fail to recognize this as the
essence of what I was saying, or was it a reckless treatment
of the arguments of the opposition so as to water down its
potency?
Anyway, whatever the reason, I still contend that you have
yet to present anything in history to disprove this reality. If
Ian, as even the Chrysostom quotes proved, there was such
an strong anti-Semitic spirit within the Papal system, then
obviously there would be record of the Church Councils
denouncing the timetabling of the other festivals such as
feast of Tabernacles, Atonement, Trumpets, etc., within the
Christian liturgical calendar; apart from the weekly Sabbath
and the Passover which was transformed into the Lords
Supper in the new dispensation. So Ian, I ask you, where is
such a record to be found? There is actually none Ian!! And
for a man as well researched as you are [*Boyne is Jamaicas
I see you using Daniel 7:25 as a prophecy indicating that the Papal system
would change TIMES (plural) and laws, and hence you arbitrarily
EXTRAPOLATE this to mean they changed all the festivals in the Christian
Church. This again evidences overreaching Ian. If one is not well researched
(like that brother you told me about who canceled his SDA candidacy for
baptism, in favor of an Armstrongite baptism), then listening to you would
certainly have a greenhorn bowled over by this appeal to the word TIMES
(plural) in Daniel 7:25. But Ian, heres the thing. I remember years ago in my
online apologetics addressing this very expression TIMES (plural) in my
efforts to prove that the Roman Papacy did indeed fulfill the prophecy. And it
is true they did indeed change, notice CHANGE, Gods times (plural), or
they altered the appointed seasons, and Gods timetable surrounding them, as
entrusted to the Jews, and as inherited by Gentile Christians. Yet notice that
this prophecy did not focus on an abolishment of whatever times it
changed, but rather a changing of the times already in place. Remember
the word change simply means to become different in some particular
way, without permanently losing one's or its former characteristics or
replacement you are yet to historically prove. Nothing beats evidence, and you
know once I see evidence I will not brush it aside, if it is compelling. The same
way history clearly records the weekly Sabbath, and the Lord supper, and the
sunset to sunset principle as being changed by Rome, where is you evidence
for the change of the timing for these other feasts? I still await that revelation
from you Ian. And remember, when I say other feasts or other festivals you
know full well I am consistent in my argumentation that the weekly Sabbath,
just like the binding Lords Supper, is indeed also a feast or appointed time
for assembling of the brethren.
2. I also see you using the Biblical data from the New Testament
(especially the book of Acts) to extrapolate about the other festivals being
as binding on Gentile Christians as the Lords Supper and the weekly Sabbath
indeed are (which are already clearly evidenced by both the widespread
example of the apostolic Church in secular history, and by clear Biblical
injunction, that they binding on all). Using what you call powerfully
suggestive references, and circumstantial evidence, in terms of the
narrative by Paul in his travels, or by Luke (writing to a Gentile Christian
audience) in the book of Acts, and he simply describing events in the context
of the adopted Jewish calendar, in order to decide what is required for Gentile
Christians also really lacks teeth!! I see you blatantly using eisogesis as the
main ground of your argument, without regard for the fact the data can indeed
be LEGITIMATELY interpreted in more than one way!! This renders your
interpretation as not necessarily coercive in terms of indicating a specific
Biblical injunctive for New Testament Gentile Christians to observe all the
other festivals as a matter of conscience and law (as the Ten
Commandments irrefutable requires about the weekly Sabbath, and the words
of Jesus and Paul requires about the Lords Supper). I already pointed out Ian
that the historical quotes you presented did indeed confirm my view that the
Gentile Christians did adopt the Jewish calendar, and thus with many of
the events in the book of Acts happening when even the temple was not
yet destroyed in Jerusalem, and with circumcision still being practiced
widely, with washings and purifications, literal animal sacrifices, and
indeed all the rituals of Judaism still being practiced by the Jews, then it
is understandable the Luke would describe events in the context of the
Jewish calendar with all of its well-known liturgical events still in place,
without him necessarily saying ALL festivals are FOREVER binding on
Gentile Christian converts as matter of conscience.
The transition from the old system to the new system for the apostolic
Christian church was GRADUAL, and not all things were clear in the early
years (Acts 15 proves that). It took years, decades in fact, with much debate at
times, for even the first clear Christian understanding to emerge, of what
must be abandoned, as opposed to what should be kept (in terms of the old
Jewish system of things) . Thus during the early years it was only natural that
many old traditions would still be observed without it necessarily indicating
their perpetual binding nature as a matter of conscience for Gentile Christians.
Circumcision, for instance, was deemed as a perpetual statute, and yet it was
abandoned eventually (not initially). Circumcision was initially considered in
Israel as an "everlasting" ritual-Gen. 17:13-- yet it came to an end for Gentile
Christians (much to the chagrin of the Jews). Another example is the formerly
prophesied 'gospel age' presenting Gentile converts as 'bonafide' priests and
Levites (Is.66:19-24) despite the literal Levitical priesthood came to an end
since Jesus became our High Priest of the order of Melchizdek). Yet their
importance as rituals still has an important didactic role in the New
Testament. Explanation?
Today Christians MUST be spiritually circumcised in heart and as spiritual
priests (but not so literally).
And heres another example. Literal purification rituals were practiced by
early Christians, even Paul the apostle, and yet it was later abandoned, in
favor of the principle spiritual that now we MUST spiritually wash our robes
in the blood of the Lamb, or Jesus now MUST spiritually purify to himself a
bride or Church without spot or wrinkle (a matter not yet fully
accomplished, and will be realized only in the future). Keep that in mind
for what I will show you later
Ian.
The Jews continued to practice animal sacrifice long after the Christian era
began, and yet despite the literal practice is no longer required of the
Christian (or of anyone for that matter), yet we must still offer ourselves as
living sacrifices, even as we must forever consider Christ our Passover as
once sacrificed for us each time we observe the Lords Supper. Thus it can be
seen that the didactic importance and Christocentric nature of all the rituals
of Judaism do indeed continue on into the New Testament era. But it cannot
be argued that a ritual must be urged upon a Gentile Christian as still binding
(i.e. as a matter of conscience, or for obligatory observance in the literal way)
SIMPLY because its significance extend beyond the cross, or because it may
have a future fulfillment. Much more is required for a matter to be seen as an
injunction for the Gentile Christian Ian (since not all things are clear-cut about
the practices of Judaism as it concerns what is to be observed by the Christian,
as opposed to what is not specifically required). Certain principles must be
applied before one can begin to see something as still binding. Such principles
must extend to, for instance:
(a)Is it clearly a universal moral principle evidenced before even the nation of
Israel was established, such as the prohibition against unclean foods, or the
stewardship requirement of tithing ones income? Is it a moral principle
showing an expansion on the principles in the Ten Commandments after they
were given by God? Obviously if the matter is already among the Ten
Commandments then the law should be observed without dispute, but it is a
fact that other moral principles and laws are not in the Ten Commandments,
and hence other considerations (such as the above described, and the one
described below) must be borne in mind too about additional principles of
obedience.
(b) If it is a ritual matter, is it clearly required (as a matter of
conscience) in a specific injunction in the New Testament, or is it clearly
shown by widespread example in the practice of the early Christians as
obviously still binding on Gentile Christians (and can be proven both from the
biblical record and in secular history); just as shown by the widespread
example of the observance of the Sabbath of the perpetual Ten
Commandments, and the Lords Supper specifically required of Christians by
Jesus himself (and re-iterated by Paul)?
I put it to you Ian I am not convinced that the other festivals you espouse, as
being matters of conscience or obligation in their literal observance by Gentile
Christians can be irrefutably proven to be such; or at least for me you are yet
to prove them to be so. They do not fulfill the principles I outlined above when
considering matters that are controversial as to what God requires of New
Testament Christians. If as you claim, the true remnant restorers of the
true faith must be feast keepers as the apostolic Church was, then Ian
where is the recorded history of your pet festival of the feast of
Tabernacles [for instance] being widely kept by early Christians, both in
the Bible and recorded in the pages of secular history? If you interpret
Zechariah 14 to mean what you say it means about the feast of
Tabernacles in the New Earth, then the early Christians would evidence a
widespread observation of this most important feast, and would also
show evidence in their writings that they understood it to be still
binding, especially in light of Zech 14. It would also be inescapable that
the Papacy would have to contend with the timetabling of this feast too,
just like the Lords Supper (since it was so much a part of early Church
history, as you would argue), and hence there MUST be some evidence
that the Papacy changed its time of observance by Church law. Where is
the clear evidence Ian? Remember, the true remnant is not going to be
bringing any new interpretation on Zech. 14 as evidence that the feast of
Tabernacles must be kept by New Testament Christians. That remnant will
be able to point to the apostolic example, and the pages of Church history to
establish, beyond the shadow of any doubt, proof of its claims about the feast
of Tabernacles being always seen by Christians as such after Jesus left us. I am
yet to see you presenting such evidence Ian. So let me repeat what I earlier
said to you bro Boyne about Zech. 14 [with additional statements in brackets]:
IS ZECHARIAH 14 TO BE TAKEN LITERALLY IN EVERY SENSE?
I have seen this prophecy being triumphantly paraded by the 'feasts advocates'
as an indication that if the feast of Tabernacles will be required of even the
Gentiles in the New Earth, then it must be a clear signal (or so they argue) that it
must be observed by God's true Church today, in preparation for that reality!!
But hold on now!! Did the 'feasts advocates' stop to really think this one
through? Read Zech. 14:16-21 and think about the following potent questions:
1. Why is it * ONLY the feast of Tabernacles was brought into focus in the
prophecy of Zechariah? "Gentiles" will not be "punished" for failing to observe in
the New Earth *all the other holy days, new moon festivals, or all the other
annual feasts of Judaism (the 'feasts advocates' insist all still continue today for
all)?
3. Do the 'feasts advocates really believe that the New Earth will be populated by
people who present the possibility of being disobedient to God once more after
Judgment Day over a feast observed at Jerusalem?
4. Do they really believe that there will be a distinction of Jews and Gentiles in
the New Earth? Even after God distinctly declares as of *now "there is neither
Jew nor Gentile" (or literal "families of Egypt"), and thus we should expect this
principle will carry over to the New Earth, since the distinctions are no longer
literal in God's eyes, but rather spiritual?
5. Do they really expect that the New Earth will literally have new converts to
Israel who will then offer "sacrifice", despite sacrifices have long been
abolished?
I would expect that the feasts advocates will have to admit that several elements
of this prophecy must be considered as having a spiritual application, then the
question is, what gives them such license to "cherry pick" what aspect of the
prophecy will be literal (such as the feast of Tabernacles), and what will not be?
That is what I call *BIGOTRY of the highest order! It is axiomatic that prophecies
laden with types and symbols, which the Bible is silent on regarding the exact
nature of their literal fulfilment we should allow for them to unfold in the way
God intends them to unfold! And since we cannot see the future we should tread
softly in terms of inventing doctrines about such prophecies.
I am of the firm belief that since the feast of Tabernacles [apart from it not
being a moral principle in nature, as pre-Israelic dietery laws or preIsraelic stewardship in tithing] was not among the Ten Commandments, [or
a clear injunction given in the New Testament about it] and it was not
emphasized by the apostolic church, so that we could relate to it like the "Lord's
Supper" then the 'feast advocates' are attaching an importance to the *literal
observation of this feast today that is unwarranted; forgetting that Jesus being
the "first fruits" of the harvest of souls have already been fulfilling the purpose of
the feast of Tabernacles. In all possibility, since so many aspects of Zech. 14, just
like aspects of many other prophecies in the Old Testament, will be fulfilled in a
spiritual way (and not in every exact detail as originally described literally with
Jewish typology) then I am believing that the "feast of Tabernacles" in Zech.
14:16-18 also does have a spiritual application, which the New Earth will reveal
how Jesus Himself was its perfect fulfillment!!
I personally would take no issue with any Christian preferring to
'borrow' the six other annual feasts and tailoring them to be great periods
of rejoicing and reflection in the Church calendar, instead of the paganinspired Christmas, Easter, Halloween, etc, since that is a more biblically
prudent option. But I am firmly set against any doctrine 'forcing' *all of
them upon Gentile Christians as a matter of
conscience!!".
I had to smile Ian when I heard you at the LOJ forum making the same point
you raised on TVJs Religious Hardtalk that if it was not for Lev. 23:32
(describing when to observe the day of Atonement) then Sabbatarians would
not know when to celebrate the weekly Sabbath. Can I be frank here Ian? In
your own words (said rather animatedly at your forum) this is a FOOL FOOL
ARGUMENT (to use the rather potent Jamaican vernacular. Smile). In fact, it
is simply pointless (in terms of it doing anything for your case about the
other feast days I am yet to be convinced about, i.e. proving their binding
nature on Gentile Christians), and its pretty laughable that you would venture
to make such a claim. All we need to ask, in terms of determining when does
one day change to another in the daily cycle (according to Gods system Ian) is
simply this: When really does a yom or biblical 24 hour day begin? The
rest is logical (in terms of when that same day ends). This principle was well
known from creation. Each of the seven days were clearly shown to begin at,
and numerically counted from evening. Its like saying a year is 360 lunar
days and begins from the month of Nisan. Thus it is logical that the next year
would begin when Nisan starts again. As a Geography lecturer I say to you
Ian, its only logical. So let me repeat what I said earlier in response to you
saying the same thing (as described above) on Religious Hardtalk:
You surprisingly denied that the principle of when a day ends
is effectively signaled by when a day begins; at evening!! [Pastor] Evans
was right that the days of creation (established by God himself) set the
pattern for all days beginning at sundown (which happens only once in 24
hours)!! And thus, Ian, it was self-evident that the next day begins at
sundown 24 hours later. Are you saying then that until Moses wrote
thousands of years after the week was already in existence no one knew
when the days ended until Moses wrote about the Day of Atonement being
celebrated from "even to even"? Come on Ian, I expected better from you!!
That was a rather simplistic argument on your part. I think you toyed a
little with sophistry there!!
This is unbeatable logic Ian, and I am sure you do realize that by now!!
2.
I also wondered whats the real reason why you started your forum on Holy
Days by saying you will leave no stone unturned, but hastily skirted around
Gal. 4:1-11 (which must be seriously considered in light of Gal. 5:1-3 and Acts
15:5,6). This is a major text used by the opposition against holy days, so why
did you fail to delve into it? I distinctly recall you saying: For an
hermeneutical principle to be successful it must be able to deal effectively
with the objections that are lodged against the particular doctrine in
question, as well as provide a comprehensive cover Gal. 4 is a
bothersome text used by the opposition (both by Sunday and Sabbath
keepers alike) against the additional feast days you espouse. So why skirt
around it, with you only saying I will not get into it at this time, or even look
at the Greek root meaning of ye observe as an astrological watching of days,
months, times and years? This is an important text Ian and must be
confronted. It is not good enough to say that you cant see how Sabbatarians
can use this text against the other feast days, and not realize that it would just
as equally apply to the weekly Sabbath, since they stand or fall together, and
think that is all you need to say about this text. Was your forum just aimed at
presenting a polemic against SDAs and other Sabbatarians, or was it equally
aimed at reaching those who keep no Sabbath at all? What is the real meaning
of Gal. 4:10 which would effectively answer both groups? I do believe that in
failing to delve into it you did leave stones unturned, and I am feeling that
your polemics showed weaknesses here too. Am yet to see you properly
address this potent text Ian. I have already showed you my take on the issue of
Gal. 4:10 (in light of Col. 2:14-17), no matter if you brushed it aside. Whats
your take on Gal. 4:1-11 (to effectively answer both Sabbatarians and nonSabbatarians who use it against your insistence on keeping all holy days)?
I acknowledge the strength of the argument that the annual festivals were
not just Jewish national holidays, and that God can take what was
quintessentially a Jewish institution and make it have global application, as
well as later having a didactic significance beyond the cross (like the Passover
instituted at the exodus from Egypt, but later applied to an institution
reaching beyond the Jewish economy and beyond the cross). Yet, it is also true
that they cannot be denied as being festivals that have national and cultural
significance in an agrarian Jewish economy (and thus would apply to the
Jewish nation and literal Jews in the national context too as long as that nation
exist, as seen for instance Paul endeavoring to honor his Jewish roots in
observing all annual festivals). And while it is true that the other festivals
you espouse do have lessons and significance for even future fulfillment (in
some cases), yet your polemic that this means automatically that they must all
be kept by Gentile Christians (almost to the letter of the law as written
under the old covenant) is proven, in the end, to not be a strong argument for
their literal observance in all instances. You are yet to prove irrefutably that
the apostolic Gentile Christians did not legitimately see the other festivals as
needing to simply gradually fade out in literal observance by Gentile
Christians in favor of them still having a spiritual application under the new
dispensation, as tied to Christ who fulfils all shadows and types. Go back to my
points made earlier in Parts 1 and 2 of my e-mailed responses on holy days
(especially under the subheading THE DIDACTIC NATURE OF JEWISH
RITUALS IN THE NEW TESTAMENT, and see again why I say so. But I still
admit that this above described argument is among the best of your
2.
Finally you did say that the true church will be a feast keeping church.
True, but let me qualify that for you. The true remnant will be a church
keeping the TRUE biblical feasts of God [which are applicable to Christians
in the new covenant], since all churches do keep some kind of feast or
festival (in their liturgical calendar). And of course the purpose of all of this
critique from me was to show you that while I believe that God clearly binds
Gentile Christians to a continued observance of the weekly seventh-day
Sabbath festival or feast, just like the Lords Supper, yet I am not convinced
your polemic is solid enough to prove the same for all the other festivals. So
indeed, the remnant church of God should be keeping the true feast of the
weekly Sabbath (not Sunday), as well as the Lords Supper (not Easter
Sunday) You say by your keeping all the other feasts then you are the true
remnant, but I rather doubt that Ian, since the Armstrong faith is well known
for gross errors in certain doctrines (which even you are now admitting to),
which therefore leaves a big question sign over your church door bro Boyne
I leave you to think on these things.