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Passage

1:

Organisations are institutions in which
members compete for status and
power. They compete for resource of
the organisation, for example finance
to expand their own departments, for
career advancement and for power to
control the activities of others. In
pursuit of these aims, grouped are
formed and sectional interests
emerge. As a result, policy decisions
may serve the ends of political and
career systems rather than those of
the concern. In this way, the goals of
the organisation may be displaced in
favour of sectional interests and
individual ambition. These
preoccupations sometimes prevent
the emergence of organic systems.
Many of the electronic firms in the
study had recently created research
and development departments
employing highly qualified and well
paid scientists and technicians. Their
high pay and expert knowledge were
sometimes seen as a threat to the
established order of rank, power and
privilege. Many senior managers had
little knowledge of technicality and
possibilities of new developments and
electronics. Some felt that close
cooperation with the experts in an
organic system would reveal their
ignorance and show their experience
was now redundant.

Q1. The theme of the passage is

(a) groupism in organizations

(b) individual ambitions in


organizations
(c) frustration of senior managers
(d) emergence of sectional
interests in organizations


Answer: d

Q2. "Organic system" as related to the
organization implies its

(a) growth with the help of expert
knowledge
(b) growth with input from science
and technology
(c) steady all around development
(d) natural and unimpeded growth

Answer: b

Q3. Policy decision in organization
would involve

(a) cooperation at all levels in the
organization
(b) modernization of the
organization
(c) attracting highly qualified
personnel
(d) keeping in view the larger
objectives of the organizations

Answer: c

Q4. The author makes out a case for

(a) organic system
(b) R&D in organizations
(c) An understanding between
senior and middle level
executives
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(d) A refresher course for senior


managers

Q6. Which one of the following best


describes the passage?


Answer: a
(a) It tells us about the usefulness

of corduroy
Q5. The author tends to the senior
(b) It talks us about the virtues of
managers as
corduroy

(c) It persuades us to buy
(a) ignorant and incompetent
corduroy
(b) a little out of step with their
(d) It makes us understand the
work environment
everlasting appeal of corduroy
(c) jealous of their younger
to the young
colleagues

(d) robbed of their rank, power
Answer: b
and privilege


Q7. According to the author, the
Answer: a
special quality of corduroy is that


Passage 2
(a) it needs no ironing

(b) it combines the virtues of both
cotton and velvet
Corduroy is fast establishing itself at
(c) it contains the correct mixture
this year's fabric, While the ribbed
of cotton and velvet
cotton itself provides utilitarian
(d) both the rich and that not-so-
tenaciary, texture and warmth. it is
rich can afford to buy it
the fabric's long held associations may

provide a hint to its current revival as
Answer: d
a fabric for all seasons.

Q8. Corduroy is a fabric for all seasons
It is Corduroy's link with the good
because
breeding and country living that made

it an essential ingredient in the
(a) it can be worn not only in
gentleman's wardrobe along with
winter but also in summer
Wellington boots and decent wooly. I
(b) of its peculiar texture and
combines the comfortable nonsense
warmth
appeal of cotton with the perfectly
(c) it is made popular by catchy
correct luxury finish of velvet.
advertisements
Corduroy has the ability to appear
(d) gentleman can wear it in both
either supremely sophisticated or
formal and informal occasions
rough and ready.

Answer: a

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S : which will cover
Q9. According to the passage,

corduroy is essential in a gentleman
The proper sequence should be
wardrobe because


(a) RPSQ
(a) it goes with Wellington boots
(b) QSPR
(b) its current revival gives a taste
(c) QSRP
of the latest fashion
(d) QPSR
(c) it has its associations with

good upbringing and a
Answer: c
conservative lifestyle

(d) it can be an idea alternative to
Q12. We must read
the woolen clothes


P: if we want to absorb the fruits of
Answer: c
great literature

Q: but with concentration
Q10. When the writer refers to
R: them not as we do cricket stories
corduroys utilitarian tenacity he
S: undefined
means that


The proper sequence should be
(a) though expensive, it is

economic in the long run
(a) QPSR
(b) it is useful because it is durable
(b) PSQR
(c) it has remained fashionable
(c) PRSQ
over several years
(d) PRQS
(d) it does not need frequent

washing
Answer: a


Answer: b
Q13. With her body


In each question below, there is a
P: dragging her unwilling feet
sentence of which some parts have
Q: weak and infirm
been jumbled up. Rearrange these
R: doubled with age
parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S
S: she persisted in her mission
to produce the correct sentence.

Choose the proper sequence.
The proper sequence should be


Q11. I enclose
(a) PQRS
P: and the postage
(b) QPRS
Q : a postal order
(c) RQPS
R ; the price of books
(d) SRPQ

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(b) rough
Answer: c
(c) slovenly

(d) dirty
Q14. The master


Answer: b
P: who was very loyal to him

Q: punished the servant
Q17. COMMENSURATE
R: without giving any valid reason

S: when he left the work unfinished
(a) Measurable

(b) Proportionate
The proper sequence should be
(c) Beginning

(d) Appropriate
(a) RQPS

(b) RQSP
Answer; b
(c) QPSR

(d) QRPS
Q18. DEBACLE


Answer: c
(a) Collapse

(b) Decline
Q15. All such students
(c) Defeat

(d) Disgrace
P: get success

Q: who are honest and hard-working
Answer: a
R: and recognition

S: in every walk of life
Q19. GERMANE


The proper sequence should be
(a) Responsible

(b) Logical
(a) SPRQ
(c) Possible
(b) PRQS
(d) Relevant
(c) QPRS

(d) PSRQ
Answer: d


Answer: c
Q20. DISTINCTION


Find the SYNONYM of the words in the
(a) Diffusion
following questions.
(b) Disagreement

(c) Different
Q16. UNCOUTH
(d) Degree


(a) ungraceful
Answer: c

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Find the ANTONYMS of the words in
(a) Gentle
the following questions
(b) Sincere

(c) Amiable
Q21. STRINGENT
(d) Dependable


(a) General
Answer; b
(b) Vehement

(c) Lenient
Q26. Who is the father of Geometry?
(d) Magnanimous


(a) Aristotle
Answer; c
(b) Euclid

(c) Pythagoras
Q22. MINOR
(d) Kepler


(a) Big
Answer: b
(b) Major

(c) Tall
Q27. What is common between Kutty,
(d) Heavy
Shankar, Laxman and Sudhir Dar?


Answer: b
(a) Film direction

(b) Drawing cartoons
Q23. REVEALED
(c) Instrumental music

(d) Classical dance
(a) Denied

(b) Concealed
Answer: b
(c) Ignored

(d) Overlooked
Q28. Who was known as Iron man of

India?
Answer: b


(a) Govind Ballabh Pant
Q24. ESSENTIAL
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru

(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(a) Extra
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Noughts

(c) Minors
Answer: d
(d) Trivial


Q29. The Indian to beat the computers
Answer: a
in mathematical wizardry is


Q25. HYPOCRITICAL
(a) Ramanujam

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(b) Rina Panigrahi


(c) Raja Ramanna
(d) Shakunthala Devi

(a) deterioration of electronic


circuits
(b) damage of solar cells of
spacecraft
(c) adverse effect on living
organisms
(d) all of the above


Answer: d

Q30. Jude Felix is a famous Indian
player in which sport?

(a) Volleyball
(b) Tennis
(c) Football
(d) Hockey

Answer: d

Q31. The Homolographic projection
has the correct representation of

(a) shape
(b) area
(c) bearing
(d) distance

Answer: b

Q32. The latitudinal differences in
pressure delineate a number of major
pressure zones which correspond with

(a) zones of climate
(b) zones of oceans
(c) zones of land
(d) zones of cyclonic depressions

Answer: a

Q33. The hazards of radiation belts
include



Answer: d

Q34. The great Victoria Desert is
located in

(a) Canada
(b) West Africa
(c) Australia
(d) North America

Answer: c

Q35. The intersecting lines drawn on
maps and globes are

(a) latitudes
(b) longituds
(c) geographic grids
(d) none of the above

Answer: c

Q36. B.C. Roy Award is given in the
field of

(a) music
(b) journalism
(c) medicine
(d) environment

Answer: c

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Q37. In which year was Pultizer Prize


(c) Government Service
established?
(d) Journalism


(a) 1917
Answer: c
(b) 1918

(c) 1922
Q41. Who wrote the famous book
(d) 1928
We the people?


Answer: a
(a) T.N. Kaul

(b) J.R.D. Tata
Q38. Gandhi Peace Prize for the year
(c) Khushwant Singh
2000 was awarded to the former
(d) Nani Palkhivala
President of South Africa along with


Answer: d
(a) Sathish Dhawan

(b) C.Subramanian

(c) Grameen Bank of Bangladesh

(d) World Health Organisation
Q42. Who is the author of the book

Nineteen Eighty Four?
Answer; c


(a) Thomas Hardy
Q39. Who has been awarded the first
(b) Emile Zola
Lifetime Achievement Award for
(c) George Orwell
his/her contribution in the field of
(d) Walter Scott
Cinema?


Answer: c
(a) Ashok Kumar

(b) Hou Hsio-hsein
Q43. Which of the following is NOT
(c) Akiro Burosova
written by Munshi Premchand?
(d) Bernardo Burtolucci


(a) Gaban
Answer; a
(b) Godan

(c) Guide
Q40. The prestigious Ramon
(d) Manasarovar
Magsaysay Award was conferred upon

Ms. Kiran Bedi for her execellent
Answer: c
contribution to which of the following

fields?
Q44. Who is the author of the book

Forbidden Verses?
(a) Literature

(b) Community Welfare
(a) Salman Rushdie

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(b) Abu Nuwas


(c) Ms. Taslima Nasrin
(d) D.H. Lawrence

(b) Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madhya Pradesh



Answer: b
Answer: b


Q45. The lead character in the film
Q49. Wadia Institute of Himalayan
The Bandit Queen has been played
Geology is located at
by


(a) Delhi
(a) Rupa Ganguly
(b) Shimla
(b) Seema Biswas
(c) Dehradun
(c) Pratiba Sinha
(d) Kullu
(d) Shabana Azmi


Answer: c
Answer: b


Q50. Bijapur is known for its
Q46. The Centre for Cellular and

Molecular Biology is situated at
(a) severe drought condition

(b) Gol Gumbaz
(a) Patna
(c) Heavy rainfall
(b) Jaipur
(d) Statue of Gomateshwara
(c) Hyderabad

(d) New Delhi
Answer: b


Answer: c
Q51. Find the odd term from the

series
Q47. Where is the Railway Staff

College located?
3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21


(a) Pune
(a) 21
(b) Allahabad
(b) 17
(c) Vadodara
(c) 14
(d) Delhi
(d) 3


Answer: c
Answer: c


Q48. The Dilwara Temples are situated
Q52. Two numbers are respectively
in
20% and 50% more than a third

number. The ratio of the two numbers
(a) Uttar Pradesh
is:

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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(c) 40 litres
(d) 60 litres

2:5
3:5
4:5
6:7


Answer: d


Q56. Find the statement that must be
Answer: c
true according to the given

information.
Q53. A sum of money is to be

distributed among A, B, C, D in the
Vincent has a paper route. Each
proportion of 5 : 2 : 4 : 3. If C gets Rs.
morning, he delivers 37 newspapers to
1000 more than D, what is B's share?
customers in his neighborhood. It

takes Vincent 50 minutes to deliver all
(a) Rs. 500
the papers. If Vincent is sick or has
(b) Rs. 1500
other plans, his friend Thomas, who
(c) Rs. 2000
lives on the same street, will
(d) None of these
sometimes deliver the papers for him.


Answer: c
(a) Vincent and Thomas live in the

same neighbourhood
Q54. Seats for Mathematics, Physics
(b) It takes Thomas more than 50
and Biology in a school are in the ratio
minutes to deliver the papers
5 : 7 : 8. There is a proposal to
(c) It is dark outside when Vincent
increase these seats by 40%, 50% and
begins his deliveries
75% respectively. What will be the
(d) Thomas would like to have his
ratio of increased seats?
own paper route


(a) 2:3:4
Answer: a
(b) 6:7:8

(c) 6:8:9
Q57. Find the statement that must be
(d) None of these
true according to the given

information.
Answer: a


The Pacific yew is an evergreen tree
Q55. In a mixture 60 litres, the ratio of
that grows in the Pacific Northwest.
milk and water 2 : 1. If this ratio is to
The Pacific yew has a fleshy,
be 1 : 2, then the quanity of water to
poisonous fruit. Recently, taxol, a
be further added is:
substance found in the bark of the

Pacific yew, was discovered to be a
(a) 20 litres
promising new anticancer drug.
(b) 30 litres


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(a) Taxol is poisonous when taken


by healthy people
(b) Taxol has cured people from
various diseases
(c) People should not eat the fruit
of the Pacific yew
(d) The Pacific yew was considered
worthless until Taxol was
discovered

(d) Both I and II follows



Answer: d

Q59. Statement: Severe drought is


reported to have set in several parts of
the country.
Courses of Action:


Answer: c

In questionQ58 to Q60, below is given
a statement followed by two courses
of action numbered I and II. You have
to assume everything in the statement
to be true and on the basis of the
information given in the statement,
decide which of the suggested courses
of action logically follow(s) for
pursuing.

I.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q60. Statement: Since its launching in


1981, Vayudoot has so far
accumulated losses amounting to Rs
153 crore.

The city municipal authority


should take immediate steps to
carry out extensive fumigation
in ward X.
The people in the area should
be advised to take steps to
avoid mosquito bites.

Courses of Action:
I.

Vayudoot should be directed


to reduce wasteful expenditure
and to increase passenger fare.

(a) Only I follows


(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows

Only I follows
Only II follows
Either I or II follow
Neither I nor II follow


Answer: b

Courses of Action:

II.

Government should
immediately make
arrangement for providing
financial assistance to those
affected.
Food, water and fodder should
immediately be sent to all
these areas to save the people
and cattle.

II.

Q58. Statement: A large number of


people in ward X of the city are
diagnosed to be suffering from a fatal
malaria type.

I.

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II.

An amount of about Rs 300


crore should be provided to
Vayudoot to make the airliner
economically viable.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q64. Yard is to inch as quart is to



(a) gallon
(b) ounce
(c) milk
(d) liquid

Answer: b

Q65. Cup is to coffee as bowl is to

(a) dish
(b) soup
(c) spoon
(d) food

Answer: b

Q66. Fill in the blank

SCD, TEF, UGH, __, WKL

(a) CMN
(b) UJI
(c) VIJ
(d) IJT

Answer: c

Q67. Fill in the blank

FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH, ____.

(a) JAK
(b) HAL
(c) HAK
(d) JAI

Answer: a

Only I follows
Only II follows
Either I or II follow
Neither I nor II follow


Answer: a

Q61. Odometer is to mileage as
compass it to

(a) speed
(b) hiking
(c) needle
(d) direction

Answer: d

Q62. Marathon is to race as
hibernation is to

(a) winter
(b) bear
(c) dream
(d) sleep

Answer: d

Q63. Window is to pane as book is to

(a) novel
(b) glass
(c) cover
(d) page

Answer: d


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Q68. Read each definition and all four


choices carefully, and find the answer
that provides the best example of the
given definition.

Applying for Seasonal
Employment occurs when a person
requests to be considered for a job
that is dependent on a particular
season or time of year. Which
situation below is the best example of
Applying for Seasonal Employment?

(a) The ski instructors at Top of
the Peak Ski School work from
December through March
(b) Matthew prefers jobs that
allow him to work outdoors
(c) Lucinda makes an appointment
with the beach resort
restaurant manager to
interview for the summer
waitressing positing that was
advertised in the newspaper
(d) Dougs ice cream shop stays
open until 11 PM during the
summer months

Answer: c

Q69. Read each definition and all four
choices carefully, and find the answer
that provides the best example of the
given definition.

Violating an Apartment Lease occurs
when a tenant does something
prohibited by the legally binding
document that he or she has signed
with a landlord. Which situation below

is the best example of Violating an


Apartment Lease?

(a) Tim has decided to move to
another city, so he calls his
landlord to tell him that he is
not interested in renewing his
lease when it expires next
month
(b) Valerie recently lost her job
and, for the last three months,
has neglected to pay her
landlord the monthly rent they
agreed upon in writing when
she moved into her apartment
eight months ago
(c) Mark writes a letter to his
landlord that lists numerous
complaints about the
apartment he has agreed to
rent for two years
(d) Leslie thinks that her landlord
is neglecting the building in
which she rents an apartment.
She calls her attorney to ask
for advice

Answer: b

Each question from Q70 to Q75 has an
underlined word followed by four
answer choices. You will choose the
word that is a necessary part of the
underlined word.

Q70. Harvest

(a) autumn
(b) stockpile
(c) tractor
(d) crop
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(a) cut
Answer: d
(b) burn

(c) nuisance
Q71. Desert
(d) hurt


(a) cactus
Answer: d
(b) arid

(c) oasis
Q76. Consider a set A of all
(d) flat
determinants of order 3 with entries 0

or 1 only. Let B be the subset of A
Answer: b
consisting of all determinants with

value 1. Let C be the subset of A
Q72. Book
consisting of all determinants with

value -1 then
(a) fiction

(b) pages
(a) C is empty
(c) pictures
(b) B has as many elements as C
(d) learning
(c) A = B, belongs to C

(d) B has twice as many elements
Answer: b
as C


Q73. Language
Answer: b


(a) tongue
Q77. The number of triangles that can
(b) slang
be formed with 10 points as vertices, n
(c) writing
of them being collinear, is 110. Then n
(d) words
is


Answer: d
(a) 3

(b) 4
Q74. School
(c) 5

(d) 6
(a) student

(b) report card
Answer: c
(c) test

(d) learning
Q78. In a polygon no three diagonals

are concurrent. If the total number of
Answer: a
points of intersection of diagonals

interior to the polygon by 70 more
Q75. Pain
than the number of diagonals of the

polygon is

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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(b) -200 J
(c) -69 J
(d) 200 J

20
28
8
none of these


Answer: d

Q82. An ideal spring is hung vertically
from the ceiling. When a 2.0-kg block
hangs at rest from it the spring is
extended 6.0 cm from its relaxed
length. A upward external force is
then applied to the block to move it
upward a distance of 16cm. While the
block is moving upward the work done
by the spring is:


Answer: a

Q79. In a polygon the number of
diagonals is 54. The number of sides of
the polygon is

(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 9
(d) none of these

Answer: b

Q80. ABCD is a convex quadrilateral 3,
4, 5 and 6 points are marked on the
sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively.
The number of triangles with vertices
on different sides is

(a) 270
(b) 220
(c) 282
(d) none of these

Answer: d

Q81. An 80-N crate slides with
constant speed a distance of 5.0m
downward along a rough slope that
makes an angle of 30 with the

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

-1 J
-0.52 J
-0.26 J
0.53 J

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

1:1
2:1
4:1
9:1


Answer: a

Q83. Two trailers, X with mass 500 kg
and Y with mass 2000 kg, are being
pulled at the same speed. The ratio of
the kinetic energy of Y to that of X is:


Answer: c

Q84. An object is constrained by a
cord to move in a circular path of
horizontal. The work done by the force
radius 0.5m on a horizontal frictionless
of gravity is:
surface. The cord will break if its
tension exceeds 16N. The maximum
(a) -400 J
kinetic energy the object can have is:

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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

4J
8J
16J
32 J

(d) an elevator standing at the


fifth floor


Answer: d

Q88. A golf ball is struck by a golf club
and falls on a green three meters
above the tee. The potential energy of
the Earth-ball system is greatest:


Answer: a

Q85. The weight of an object on the
moon is one-sixth of its weight on
Earth. The ratio of the kinetic energy
of a body on Earth moving with speed
V to that of the same body moving
with speed V on the moon is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

6:1
36:1
1:1
1:6

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

40 J
90 J
160 J
400 J

(a) just before the ball is struck


(b) just after the ball is struck
(c) just after the ball lands on the
green
(d) when the ball reaches the
highest point in its flight


Answer: d

Q89. A 2-kg block is thrown upward
from a point 20 m above Earths
surface. At what height above Earths
surface will the gravitational potential
energy of the Earth-block system have
increased by 500 J?


Answer: c

Q86. A 5.0-kg cart is moving
horizontally at 6.0 m/s. In order to
change its speed to 10.0 m/s, the net
work done on the cart must be:

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)


Answer: c

Q87. No kinetic energy is possessed
by:

5 m
25 m
46 m
70 m


Answer: c

Q90. A 2.2-kg block starts from rest on
a rough inclined plane that makes an
angle of 25 with the horizontal. The

(a) a shooting star


(b) a rotating propeller on a
moving airplane
(c) a pendulum at the bottom of
its swing

coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.25. As


the block goes 2.0 m down the plane,
the mechanical energy of the Earth-
block system changes by:

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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

0
-9.8 J
9.8 J
-18 J

(a) 1.3 m/s in the same direction


as A
(b) 1.3 m/s in the same direction
as B
(c) 2.7 m/s in the same direction
as A
(d) 1.0 m/s in the same direction
as B


Answer: b

Q91. A force of 10N holds an ideal
spring with a 20-N/m spring constant
in compression. The potential energy
stored in the spring is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)


Answer: b

Q94. A light rope passes over a light
frictionless pulley attached to the
ceiling. An object with a large mass is
tied to one end and an object with a
smaller mass is tied to the other end.
Starting from rest the heavier object
moves downward and the lighter
object moves upward with the same
magnitude acceleration. Which of the
following statements is true for the
system consisting of the two masses?

0.5 J
2.5 J
5 J
10 J


Answer: b

Q92. A 5-kg projectile is fired over
level ground with a velocity of 200 m/s
at an angle of 25 above the
horizontal. Just before it hits the
ground its speed is 150m/s. Over the
entire trip the change in the internal
energy of the projectile and air is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(a) the center of mass remains at


rest
(b) the net external force is zero
(c) the velocity of the center of
mass is a constant
(d) none of the above

+19000 J
-19000 J
+44000 J
-44000 J


Answer: d

Q95. A 4.0-N puck is traveling at
3.0m/s. It strikes a 8.0-N puck, which
is stationary. The two pucks stick
together. Their common final speed is


Answer: c

Q93. Block A, with a mass of 4 kg, is
moving with a speed of 2.0 m/s while
block B, with a mass of 8 kg, is moving
in the opposite direction with a speed
of 3 m/s. The center of mass of the
two block-system is moving with a

velocity of:

(a) 1.0 m/s


(b) 1.5 m/s

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(c) 2.0 m/s


(d) 2.3 m/s

transferred from A to B during the


collision is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: a
Q96. A 2-kg cart, traveling on a
horizontal air track with a speed of 3
m/s, collides with a stationary 4-kg
cart. The carts stick together. The
impulse exerted by one cart on the
other has a magnitude of
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: a
Q99. A uniform solid cylinder made of
lead has the same mass and the same
length as a uniform solid cylinder
made of wood. The rotational inertia
of the lead cylinder compared to the
wooden one is:

0
4 N-s
6 N-s
9 N-s

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: b
Q97. Block A, with a mass of 2.0 kg,
moves along the x axis with a velocity
of 5.0 m/s in the positive x direction. It
suffers an elastic collision with block B,
initially at rest, and the blocks leave
the collision along the x axis. If B is
much more massive than A, the speed
of A after the collision is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

0
2500 J
5000 J
7500 J

greater
less
same
unknown unless the radii are
given

Answer: b
Q100. A disk is free to rotate on a
fixed axis. A force of given magnitude
F , in the plane of the disk, is to be
applied. Of the following alternatives
the greatest angular acceleration is
obtained if the force is:

0
+5 m/s
-5 m/s
+10 m/s

(a) applied tangentially halfway


between the axis and the rim
(b) applied tangentially at the rim
(c) applied radially halfway
between the axis and the rim
(d) applied radially at the rim

Answer: c

Q98. Blocks A and B are moving


toward each other along the x axis. A
has a mass of 2.0kg and a velocity of
50m/s, while B has a mass of 4.0kg
Answer: b
and a velocity of 25m/s. They suffer
an elastic collision and move off along
Q101. A thin circular hoop of mass 1.0
the x axis. The kinetic energy

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block
(b) pulls on both blocks, but exerts
a greater force on the lighter
block
(c) pulls on both blocks and exerts
the same magnitude force on
both
(d) does not pull on either block

kg and radius 2.0 m is rotating about


an axis through its center and
perpendicular to its plane. It is slowing
2
down at the rate of 7.0rad/s . The net
torque acting on it is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

7.0 Nm
14.0 Nm
28.0 Nm
44.0 Nm

Answer: a
Q104. A disk starts from rest and
rotates around a fixed axis, subject to
a constant net torque. The work done
by the torque during the second 5 s is
as the work done during the first 5
s.

Answer: c
Q102. A 0.70-kg disk with a rotational
inertia given by MR2/2 is free to
rotate on a fixed horizontal axis
suspended from the ceiling. A string is
wrapped around the disk and a 2.0-kg
mass hangs from the free end. If the
string does not slip, then as the mass
falls and the cylinder rotates, the
suspension holding the cylinder pulls
up on the cylinder with a force of:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(a) the same


(b) twice as much
(c) half as much
(d) four times as much

6.9 N
9.8 N
16 N
26 N

Answer: d
Q105. A thin-walled hollow tube rolls
without sliding along the floor. The
ratio of its translational kinetic energy
to its rotational kinetic energy (about
an axis through its center of mass) is:

Answer: b
Q103. A block is attached to each end
of a rope that passes over a pulley
suspended from the ceiling. The blocks
do not have the same mass. If the
rope does not slip on the pulley, then
at any instant after the blocks start
moving, the rope

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(a) pulls on both blocks, but exerts


a greater force on the heavier

1
2
3

Answer: a

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Q106. A hoop, a uniform disk, and a


uniform sphere, all with the same
mass and outer radius, start with the
same speed and roll without sliding up
identical inclines. Rank the objects
according to how high they go, least
to greatest.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q109. A man, holding a weight in each


hand, stands at the center of a
horizontal frictionless rotating
turntable. The effect of the weights is
to double the rotational inertia of the
system. As he is rotating, the man
opens his hands and drops the two
weights. They fall outside the
turntable. Then:

hoop, disk, sphere


disk, hoop, sphere
sphere, hoop, disk
sphere, disk, hoop

(a) his angular velocity doubles


(b) his angular velocity remains
about the same
(c) his angular velocity is halved
(d) the direction of his angular
momentum vector changes

Answer: a
Q107. A single force acts on a particle
situated on the positive x axis. The
torque about the origin is in the
negative z direction. The force might
be:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: b
Q110. A uniform sphere of radius R
rotates about a diameter with an
angular momentum of magnitude L.
Under the action of internal forces the
sphere collapses to a uniform sphere
of radius R/2. The magnitude of its
new angular momentum is:

in the positive y direction


in the negative y direction
in the positive x direction
in the negative x direction

Answer: b

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q108. A 2.0-kg stone is tied to a 0.50-


m long string and swung around a
circle at a constant angular velocity of
12 rad/s. The net torque on the stone
about the center of the circle is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: c

0
6.0 Nm
12 Nm
72 Nm

Q111. A playground merry-go-round


has a radius of 3.0 m and a rotational
inertia of 600 kg m2. It is initially
spinning at 0.80 rad/s when a 20-kg
child crawls from the center to the
rim. When the child reaches the rim

Answer: a

L/4
L/2
L
2L

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the angular velocity of the merry-go-


round is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

0.62 rad/s
0.73 rad/s
0.80 rad/s
0.89 rad/s

its center of mass


its center of gravity
its geometrical center
its center of momentum

Answer: b

Answer: a

Q115. A cube balanced with one edge


in contact with a table top and with its
center of gravity directly above the
edge is in equilibrium with respect
to rotation about the edge and in
equilibrium with respect to rotation
about a horizontal axis that is
perpendicular to the edge.

Q112. A particle, held by a string


whose other end is attached to a fixed
point C, moves in a circle on a
horizontal frictionless surface. If the
string is cut, the angular momentum
of the particle about the point C:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

the object?

increases
decreases
does not change
changes direction but not
magnitude

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

stable, stable
stable, unstable
unstable, stable
unstable, unstable

Answer: c

Answer: c

Q113. To determine if a rigid body is in


equilibrium the vector sum of the
gravitational forces acting on the
particles of the body can be replaced
by a single force acting at:

Q116. A 160-N child sits on a light


swing and is pulled back and held with
a horizontal force of 100 N. The
magnitude of the tension force of
each of the two supporting ropes is:

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

the center of mass


the geometrical center
the center of gravity
a point on the boundary

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: c

60 N
94 N
120 N
190 N

Answer: b

Q114. The location of which of the


Q117. A uniform plank is 6.0 m long
following points within an object
and weighs 80 N. It is balanced on a
might depend on the orientation of
sawhorse at its center. An additional

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160 N weight is now placed on the left


end of the plank. To keep the plank
balanced, it must be moved what
distance to the left?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q120. Youngs modulus is a


proportionality constant that relates
the force per unit area applied
perpendicularly at the surface of an
object to:

6.0 m
2.0 m
1.5 m
1.0 m

(a) the shear


(b) the fractional change in
volume
(c) the fractional change in length
(d) the pressure

Answer: b
Q118. A uniform 240-g meter stick can
be balanced by a 240-g weight placed
at the 100-cm mark if the fulcrum is
placed at the point marked:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: c
Q121. A certain wire stretches 0.90 cm
when outward forces with magnitude
F are applied to each end. The same
forces are applied to a wire of the
same material but with three times
the diameter and three times the
length. The second wire stretches:

75 cm
60 cm
50 cm
40 cm

Answer: a
Q119: A window washer attempts to
lean a ladder against a frictionless
wall. He finds that the ladder slips on
the ground when it is placed at an
angle of less than 75 to the ground

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q122. A 4.0-m long steel beam with a


cross-sectional area of 1.0 102 m2

static friction between the ladder and


the ground:

0.10 cm
0.30 cm
0.90 cm
2.7 cm

Answer: b

but remains in place when the angle is


greater than 75. The coefficient of

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: a

and a Youngs modulus of 2.0 1011


2
N/m is wedged horizontally between
two vertical walls. In order to wedge
the beam, it is compressed by 0.020
mm. If the coefficient of static friction
between the beam and the walls is

is about 0.13
is about 0.27
is about 1.0
depends on the mass of the
ladder

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0.70 the maximum mass (including its


own) it can bear without slipping is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: b

0
3.6 kg
36 kg
710 kg

Q125. A particle might be placed


1. inside a uniform spherical shell
of mass M, but not at the
center
2. inside a uniform spherical shell
of mass M, at the center
3. outside a uniform spherical
shell of mass M, a distance r
from the center
4. outside a uniform solid sphere
of mass M, a distance 2r from
the center

Answer: d
Q123. Two supports, made of the
same material and initially of equal
length, are 2.0 m apart. A stiff board
with a length of 4.0 m and a mass of
10 kg is placed on the supports, with
one support at the left end and the
other at the midpoint. A block is
placed on the board a distance of 0.50
m from the left end. As a result the
board is horizontal. The mass of the
block is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Rank these situations according to the


magnitude of the gravitational force
on the particle, least to greatest.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

zero
2.3 kg
6.6 kg
20 kg

Q126. To measure the mass of a


planet with the same radius as Earth,
an astronaut drops an object from rest
(relative to the planet) from an
altitude of one radius above the
surface. When the object hits its speed
is 4 times what it would be if the same
experiment were carried out for Earth.
In units of Earth masses, the mass of
the planet is:

Q124. To shear a cube-shaped object,


forces of equal magnitude and
opposite directions might be applied:
(a) to opposite faces,
perpendicular to the faces
(b) to opposite faces, parallel to
the faces
(c) to adjacent faces,
perpendicular to the faces
(d) to adjacent faces, neither
parallel or perpendicular to

all tie
1,2,3,4
1 and 2 tie, then 3 and 4 tie
1 and 2 tie, then 3, then 4

Answer: d

Answer: d

the faces

(a) 2
(b) 4

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(c) 8
(d) 16

right
(d) at first it is higher at the point
on the left but as bucket
speeds up it is lower there

Answer: d
Q127. An object at the surface of
Earth (at a distance R from the center
of Earth) weighs 90N. Its weight at a
distance 3R from the center of Earth
is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: b
Q130. A block of ice at 0 C is floating
on the surface of ice water in a
beaker. The surface of the water just
comes to the top of the beaker. When
the ice melts the water level will:

10 N
30 N
90 N
270 N

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: a
Q128. A spring scale, calibrated in
newtons, is used to weigh sugar. If it
were possible to weigh sugar at the
following locations, where will the
buyer get the most sugar to a newton?

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: b
Q131. (I) 1,2 dihydroxy benzene (II)
1,3- dihydroxy benzene
(III) 1,4-dihydroxy benzene (IV)
Hydroxy benzene

at the north pole


at the equator
at the centre of the Earth
on the Moon

The increasing order of boiling points


of the above mentioned alcohols is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: d
Q129. A bucket of water is pushed
from left to right with increasing
speed across a horizontal surface.
Consider the pressure at two points at
the same level in the water.

I<II<III<IV
I<II<IV<III
IV<I<II<III
IV<II<I<III

Answer: c
Q132. The IUPAC name of C6H5 COCl is

(a) it is the same


(b) it is higher at the point on the
left
(c) it is higher at the point on the

rise and overflow will occur


remain the same
fall
depend on the initial ratio of
water to ice

(a) Benzoyl chloride


(b) Benzene chloro ketone
(c) Benzene carbonyl chloride

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Q135. Which of the following
reactants on reaction with conc. NaOH
followed by acidification gives the
following lactone as the only product?

(d) Chloro phenyl ketone


Answer: c
Q133. The direct conversion of A to B
is difficult, hence it is carried out by
the following shown path:


Answer: c


where e.u. is entropy unit, then

Q136. The given graph represents the


variation of Z(compressibility factor
PV/nRT
=
) versus P, for three real
gases A, B and C. Identify the only
incorrect statement.

is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

+100 e.u.
+60 e.u.
-100 e.u.
-60 e.u.

Answer: b
Q134. If the bond length of CO bond in
carbon monoxide is 1.128 Ao , then
what is the value of CO bond length in
Fe(CO)5?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

1.15 Ao
1.128 Ao
1.72 Ao
1.118 Ao

(a) for the gas A, a=0 and


its dependence on P is
linear at all pressure
(b) for the gas B, b=0 and
its dependence on P is
linear at all pressure

Answer: a

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(c) for the gas C, which is


typical real gas for
which neither a nor
b=0. By knowing the
minima and the of
intersection with Z=1, a
and b can be calculated
(d) at high pressure, the
slope is positive for all
real gases

Q139. The coordination number of


Ni2+ is 4.
NiCl2 + KCN (excess) A (cyano
complex)
NiCl2 + Conc. HCl (excess) B (chloro
complex)
The IUPAC name of A and B are

Answer: b

(a) Potassium tetracyanoickelate


(II), potassium
tetracholoonickelate (II)
(b) Tetracyanopotassiumnickelate
(II),
teterachlorpotassiumnickelate
(II)
(c) Tetracyanornickel (II),
tetrachloronickel (II)
(d) Potassium tetracyanonickel (II),
potassium tetrachloronickel (II)

Q137. The smallest ketone and its next


homologue are reacted with NH2OH
to form oxime.
(a) Two different oximes are
formed
(b) Three different oximes are
formed
(c) Two oximes are optically active
(d) All oxime are optically active
Answer: b

Answer: a

Q138. MgSO4 on reaction with NH4OH


and Na2HPO4 forms a white
crystalline precipitate. What is its
formula?

Q140. B(OH)3 + NaOH NaBO2 +


Na[B(OH)4 ] + H2O
How can this reaction is made to
proceed in forward direction?

(a) Mg(NH4)PO4

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(b) Mg3(PO4)2
(c) MgCl2.MgSO4

addition of cis 1,2, diol


addition of borax
addition of trans 1,2 diol
addition of Na2HPO4

(d) MgSO4

Answer: a

Answer: a

Q141. A solution when diluted with


H2O and boiled, it gives a white

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precipitate. On addition of excess


NH4Cl/NH4OH. the volume of
precipitate decreases leaving behind a
white gelatinous precipitate. Identify
the precipitate which dissolves in
NH4OH/NH4Cl.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

made p-type by adding _______


impurity.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Zn (OH)2
Al (OH)3
Mg (OH)2
Ca(OH)2

Answer: b
Q145. To get a n-type semiconductor,
the impurity to be added to silicon
should have which of the following
number of valence electrons?

Answer: a

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q142. In a crystal, the atoms are


located at the position of _______.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

trivalent
tetravalent
pentavalent
divalent

maximum potential energy


minimum potential energy
zero potential energy
infinite potential energy

1
2
4
5

Answer: b
Q146. In the Braggs equation for
diffraction of X-rays, n represents
_______.

Answer: b
Q143. Which of the following
statement is NOT CORRECT?

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(a) the number of carbon atoms in


a unit cell of diamond is 4
(b) the number of Bravais lattices
in which a crystal can be
catgeorised is 14
(c) the fraction of the total volume
occupied by the atoms in a
primitive cell is 0.48
(d) molecular solids are generally
volatile

quantum number
an integer
Avogadros number
Moles

Answer: b
Q147. If a non-metal is added to the
interstitial sites of a metal then the
metal becomes _______.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: b

softer
less tensile
less malleable
more ductile

Q144. A semiconductor of Ge can be



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Answer: c
Q148. Which of the following shows
electrical

Answer: a

conduction?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q152. If a vertex of a triangle is ( 1, 1 )


and the midpoint of two sides through
this vertex are (-1, 2) and (3, -2), then
the centroid of the triangle is

Sodium
Potassium
Diamond
Graphite

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: d
Q149. The ratio of close-packed atoms
to tetrahedral holes in cubic close
packing is _______.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q153. The line parallel to the X-axis


and passing through the intersection
of the lines ax+2by+3b=0 and bx-
2ay-3a=0, where (a,b) is not equal to
(0,0) is

1:1
1:2
1:3
2:1

(a) below the X-axis at a distance


3/2 from it
(b) below the X-axis at a distance
2/3 from it
(c) above the X-axis at a distance
3/2 from it
(d) above the X-axis at a distance
2/3 from it

Q150. In the crystals, which of the


following ionic compounds would you
expect maximum distance between
centres of cations and anions?
LiF
CsF
CsI
LiI

Answer: a
Q154. A circle touches the X-axis and
also touches the circle with centre at
(0,3) and radius 2. The locus of the
center of the circle is

Answer: c
Q151. Area of the greatest rectangle
that can be inscribed in an ellipse
(x2/a2)+(y2 /b2)=1 is

(a) an ellipse
(b) a circle
(c) a hyperbola

(a) 2ba
(b) ab

(-1, 7/3)
(-1/3, 7/3)
(1, 7/3)
(1/3, 7/3)

Answer: c

Answer: b

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(c) ab
(d) a/b

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(d) a parabola

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: d
Q155. An ellipse has OB as semi minor
axis, F and F its foci and the angle FBF
is a right angle. Then the eccentricity
of the ellipse is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: c
Q159. The equation of the straight line
joining the origin to the point of
intersection of y-x+7=0 and y+2x-2=0

1/2


1/3

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: a
Q156. Let A(2, -3) and B(-2, 1) be the
vertices of a triangle ABC. If the
centroid of this triangle moves on the
line 2x+3y=1, then the locus of the
vertex C is the line
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

3x+4y=0
3x-4y=0
4x-3y=0
4x+3y=0

Answer: d
Q160. The equation of straight line
passing through the intersection of the
lines x-2y=1 and x+3y=2 and parallel to
3x+4y=0 is

2x+3y=9
2x-3y=7
3x+2y=5
3x-2y=3

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: a

3x+4y+5=0
3x+4y-10=0
3x+4y-5=0
3x+4y+6=0

Answer: c

Q157. If the system of linear equations


x+2ay+az=0, x+3by+bz=0 and
x+4cy+cz=0 has a non-zero solution,
then a,b,c
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2 sq. units
3 sq. units
4 sq. units
6 sq. units

Q161. If a,b,c and u,v,w are complex


numbers representing the vertices of
two triangles such that c=(1-r)a+b and
w=(1-r)u+rv, where r is a complex
number, then the two triangles

are in AP
are in GP
are in HP
satisfy a+2b+3c=0

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: c

have the same area


are similar
are congruent
none of these

Q158. The area of the region bounded


Answer: b
by the curves y=|x-1| and y=3-|x| is

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Q162. Let a , b , c be distinct non-zero


real numbers such that a2 , b2 , c2 are
in harmonic progression and a , b , c
are in arithmetic progression , then :

(a) 2b2 + ac = 0
(b) 4b2 + ac = 0
(c) 2b2 ac = 0
(d) 4b2 ac = 0

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: a
Q166. If the binomial coefficient so
three consecutive terms in the
expansion of (1+x)n

areintheratio1:7:42, then value of 'n' is


:

Answer: a
+
Q163. Let a R and equation 3x2
+ax+3=0 is having one of the root as
square of the another root, then 'a' is
equal to :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q167. Let Tr denotes the rth term in

the expansion of (1 + x)n and Tn is the


only term which is numerically
greatest exactly for three natural
values of 'x' , then 'n' can be:

Q164. Let A={y:4 y<150,y N}andaA,


then total number of values of 'a ' for
which the equation x2 -3x-a=0 is

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

having integral roots is equal to:


8
12
9
10

Q168. The letters of the word


'GHAJINI' are permuted and all the
permutations are arranged in a
alphabetical order as in an English
dictionary, then total number of words
that appear after the word 'GHAJINI' is
given by :

Q165. Let 10 A.M.'s and 10 H.M.'s be


inserted in between 2 and 3. If 'A' be
any A.M. and 'H' be the corresponding
H.M. , then H(5 A) is equal to :

5
10
7
8

Answer: c

Answer: d

32
65
55
50

Answer: c

2/3
-3
3
1/3

Answer: c

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

6
10
11
8

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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2093
2009
2092
2091

, S} is non-repeating set of letters ,


answer the following question based
on given information.
Total numbers of words , taking all
letters at a time , such that at least
one repeating letter is at odd position
in each word is given by

Answer: c
Q169. If Mr. and Mrs. Rustamji
arrange a dinner party of 10 guests
and they are having fixed seats
opposite one another on the circular
dinning table , then total number of
arrangements on the table , if Mr. and
Mrs. Batliwala among the guests don't
wish to sit together , are given by :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q172. If three identical dice are rolled,


then probability that the same
number appears on each of them is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q170. Total number of ways in which


a group of 10 boys and 2 girls can be
arranged in a row such that exactly 3
boys sit in between 2 girls , is equal to
:

Q173. Three numbers are chosen at


random without replacement from {1 ,
2 , 3 , ... , 10}. Probability that the
minimum of the chosen number is 3 or
their maximum is 7 , is given by :

1440(8!)
720(8!)
10(9!)
180(8!)

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q171. Consider the letters of the word


'MATHEMATICS' , some of them are
identical and some are distinct. Letters
are classified as repeating and non-
repeating , such as {M , A , T} is
repeating set of letters and {H , E , I , C

1/6
1/36
3/28
1/18

Answer: c

Answer: a

9!/8
11!/8
9!/4
11!/8 9!/4

Answer: b

148(8!)
888(8!)
74(8!)
164(8!)

Answer: c

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

3/10
11/40
11/50
27/40

Answer: b

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Q174. Consider a bag containing six


different balls of three different
colours. If it is known that the colour
of the balls can be white , green or red
, then answer the following question.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Answer: b

The probability that the bag contains 2


balls of each colour is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q177. Let 'S' be the set of all 3X3


symmetric matrices all of whose
entries are either 0 or 1. If five of
these entries are 1 and four of them
are 0 , then answer the following
question.

1/10
1/7
1/9
1/8

Answer: a

The number of matrices in 'S' is :

Q175. For a biased coin , let the


probability of getting head be 2/3 and
that of tail be 1/3. If An denotes the

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

33 event of tossing the coin till the


difference of the number of heads and
tails become 'n , then answer the
following question.

Q178. In the value od 100! the


number of zeroes at the end are

(a) 11
(b) 22
(c) 23
(d) 24

Answer: d

Q179. The sum of all the proper
divisors of 9900 is

(a) 33851
(b) 23952
(c) 23951
(d) none of these

Answer: c

3/5
4/5
5/9
4/9

Answer: b
Q176. Let 'S' be the set of all 33
symmetric matrices for which all the
entries are either 1 or 2 , if five of
these entries are 2 and four of them
are 1 , then n(S) is equal to : ( n(S)
represents the cardinal number of S )

12
6
9
3

Answer: a

If n = 2 , then the probability that the


experiment ends with more number of
heads than tails , is equal to :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

10
12
20
18

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(d) none of these
Q180. The sum of all odd proper

divisors of 360 is
Answer: a


(a) 77
Q184. If three numbers are in GP then
(b) 78
the numbers obtained by adding the
(c) 81
middle number to each of the three
(d) none of these
numbers are in


Answer: a
(a) AP

(b) GP
Q181. In the sequence 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3,
(c) HP
4, 4, 4, 4, where n consecutive terms
(d) None of these
th
have the value n, the 150 term is


Answer: c
(a) 17

(b) 16
Q185. If a, b, c, d are four numbers
(c) 18
such that the first three are in AP
(d) none of these
while the last three are in HP then


Answer: a
(a) bc=ad

(b) ac=bd
Q182. The number of terms common
(c) ab=cd
between the series 1+2+4+8+ to 100
(d) none of these
terms and 1+4+7+10+ to 100 terms

is
Answer: a


(a) 6
Q186. If the first two terms of an HP
(b) 4
be 2/5 and 12/23 then the largest
(c) 5
positive term of the progression is the
(d) none of these


(a) 6th term
Answer: d
(b) 7th term

(c) 5th term
th
Q183. The 10 common term
(d) 8th term
between the series 3+7+11+ and

1+6+11+.. is
Answer: c


(a) 191
Q187. If x, 2y, 3z are in AP, where the
(b) 193
distinct number x, y, z are in GP, then
(c) 211
the common ratio of the GP is

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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(c) 210
(d) none of these

3
1/3
2


Answer: d


Q191. A 5-digit number divisible by 3
Answer: b
is to be formed using the digits 0, 1, 2,

3, 4 and 5 without repetition. The total
Q188. From a group of persons the
number of ways in which this can be
number of ways of selecting 5 persons
done is
is equal to that of 8 persons. The

number of persons in the group is
(a) 216

(b) 600
(a) 13
(c) 240
(b) 40
(d) 3125
(c) 18

(d) 21
Answer: a


Answer: a
Q192. Let A={x|x is a prime number

and x<30}. The number of different
Q189. The total number of 9-digit
rational numbers whose numerator
numbers of different digits is
and denominator belong to A is


(a) 10(9!)
(a) 90
(b) 8(9!)
(b) 180
(c) 9(9!)
(c) 91
(d) none of these
(d) none of these


Answer: c
Answer: c

Q193. The total number of words that
Q190. Seven different lecturers are to
can be made by writing the letters of
deliver lectures in seven periods of a
the word PARAMETER so that no
class on a particular day. A, B and C
vowel is between two consonants is
are three of the lecturers. The number

of ways in which a routine for the day
(a) 1440
can be made such that A delivers his
(b) 1800
lecture before B, and B before C, is
(c) 2160

(d) none of these
(a) 420

(b) 120
Answer: b

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(a) 18
Q194. The number of numbers of four
(b) 35
different digits that can be formed
(c) 36
from the digits of the number 12356
(d) none of these
such that the numbers are divisible by

4, is
Answer: c


(a) 36
Q198. In the decimal system of
(b) 48
numeration the number of 6-digit
(c) 12
numbers in which the digit in any
(d) 24
place is greater than the digit to the

left of it is
Answer: a


(a) 210
Q195. The number of numbers
(b) 84
divisible by 3 that can be formed by
(c) 126
four different digits is
(d) none of these


(a) 18
Answer: b
(b) 36

(c) 0
Q199. In the decimal system of
(d) none of these
numeration the number of 6-digit

numbers in which the sum of the digits
Answer: b
is divisible by 5 is


Q196. The number of 5-digit even
(a) 180000
numbers that can be made with the
(b) 540000
digits 0, 1, 2 and 3 is
(c) 500000

(d) none of these
(a) 384

(b) 192
Answer: a
(c) 768

(d) none of these
Q200. The sum of all the numbers of

four different digits that can be made
Answer: a
by using the digits 0, 1, 2 and 3 is


Q197. The number of words that can
(a) 26664
be made by rearranging the letters of
(b) 39996
the word APRUBA so that the vowels
(c) 38664
and consonants alternate is
(d) none of these



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Answer: c






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