Series II-B

Model Paper

Basic Medical Science

Time: 80 mins

Clin. Pharma.

Author Email: sidharta123@yahoo.com

Total Marks: 100 | Pass Mark: 60

PHARMACOLOGY
Please use a dark pencil/pen to complete the test. Read the instructions at the
begining carefully. This is a practice test series in Clinical Pharmacology.
Please Note: There is a Negative Marking of (-1) for each incorrect response.

1. Drug whose metabolism is enhanced by phenobarbital:

A imipramine

C midazolam

B theophylline

D carbamazepine

2. Metabolism of which of the following drugs is inhibited by Chlorpramazine?

A chlordiazepoxide

C dicumarol

B phenytoin

D propranolol

3. Drug whose metabolism is enhanced by griseofulvin

A Digitoxin

C Warfarin

B Antipyrine

D Alprazolam

4. Basic drugs binds to _____________ in blood

A albumin

C 1 acid glycoprotein

B lipoproteins

D 2-macroglobulin

5. The enzyme CYP2D6 catalyzes the metabolism of which of the following drugs?
A Clomipramine

C Fentanyl

B Verapamil

D Lansoprazole

6. Protein that binds free hemoglobin released from red blood cells
A hemosiderin

C hepcidin

B ferroportin

D haptoglobin

7. A nonsedating tricyclic antihistamine which is a H1 receptors blocker:

A Betazole

C Proxyfan

B Loratidine

D Nizatidine

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Series II-B

Model Paper

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8. All of the following drugs experience significant first-pass effect or first-pass

metabolism in the liver except:
A lidocaine

C demerol

B morphine

D aspirin

9. Second generation H1 antihistamine include:

A Levocetirizine

C Ketotifen

B Fexofenadine

D Diphenhydramine

10. All of the following drugs are used in Parkinson's disease except:
A Nefopam

C Trihexiphenidyl

B Benzatropine

D Orphenadrine

11. Which of the following is an anticholinergic drug?

A Neostigmine

C Atropine

B Scopolamine

D Ephedrine

12. In patients who are allergic to penicillin, drug of choice for treatment of syphilis is:
A Ceftriaxone

C Amphotericin B

B Tetracycline

D Ampicillin

13. Which of the following drug is an example of fourth generation fluoroquinolones?

A Moxifloxacin

C Norfloxacin

B Levofloxacin

D Ofloxacin

14. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is seen with:

A Amphotericin B

C Penicillin

B Streptomycin

D Griseofulvin

15. Drug with the highest CSF concentration in normal meninges

A Cefotaxime

C Imipenem

B Cefuroxime

D Sulphamethoxazole

16. Which of the following is a treponemal test for syphilis?

A VDRL

C Flocculation test

B RPR

D FTA-Abs

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Series II-B

Model Paper

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17. Which of the following drugs have a low bioavailability but high protein binding?
A Labetolol

C Pindolol

B propranolol

D Acebutolol

18. Antihypertensive agent that does not cause vasodilatory edema as a side effect
A Hydralazine

C Carvedilol

B Nifedipine

D Minoxidil

19. Meissner plexus is found in which layer of the small intestine?

A Mucosa

C Muscularies mucosae

B Submucosa

D Muscularies externa

20. A benzothiazepine derivative:

A Guanabenz

C verapamil

B diltiazem

D nifedipine

21. Which of the following is an phenylalkylamine?

A Diltiazem

C Verapamil

B Felodipine

D Captopril

22. Antihypertensive agent that can be safely used in patients with bronchial asthma
A Verapamil

C Propranolol

B Captopril

D Butaxamine

23. Antidote for barbirurate poisoning is:

A Sodium nitrite

C Bemegride

B Hydroxocobalamin

D Obidoxime

24. Toxin which is eliminated by urine alkalinization

A Chlorpropamide

C Valproic acid

B Cyclophosphamide

D Meprobamate

25. Exchange transfusions may be helpful for which of the following toxicants?
A Phenobarbital

C Theophylline

B Hydrazine

D Thallium

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26. The mechanism of action of colloidal bismuth in peptic ulcer

A inhibits HCl acid secretion

C inhibits H2 receptors

B detaches and directly kills H.

pylori

D stimulates mucosal PGF2

secretion

27. Absorption of Vitamin B12 is reduced by:

A metformin

C grape fruit juice

B phenytoin

D methionine deficiency

28. Vitamins required for intracellular nucleoside synthesis:

A Ascorbic acid

C Folic acid

B Pantothenic acid

D Pyridoxine

29. Bone marrow toxicity occurs with Flucytosine when its level is more than:
A 600 mol/L

C 700 mol/L

B 800 mol/L

D 300 mol/L

30. Drug-induced Lupus syndrome is frequently seen with:

A Ethosuximide

C Procainamide

B Methrotrexate

D Cyclosporin

31. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia is diagnosed when its value is less than:
A 200 pg/mL

C 150 pg/mL

B 100 pg/mL

D 125 pg/mL

32. Corrin ring is a constituent of which Vitamin?

A Vitamin B6

C Niacin

B Vitamin B1

D Vitamin B12

33. Drug that produces pyridoxine deficiency:

A Tetracycline

C Methotrexate

B Isoniazid (INH)

D Primidone

34. Drugs that displace methotrexate from protein binding cites includes all of the
following except:
A Mesna

C cyclophosphamide

B Dicumarol

D Aspirin

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35. A metabolite which is highly nephrotoxic

A 6-mercaptopurine

C acrolein

B canrenone

D mycophenolic acid

36. Match the following: Classify the side effects of predinisone according to their
major and minor side effects:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Osteoporosis
Acne
Diarrhea
Weight gain
Depression

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

minor side effect

major side effect
major side effect
minor side effect
major side effect

37. An aminoglycoside antibiotic

A Azithromycin

C Vancomycin

B Paromomycin

D Clindamycin

38. Drugs contraindicated in acute intermittent porphyria

A phenothiazines

C benzodiazepines

B phenobarbital

D sulfonamides

39. Function of cytochrome CYP2E1

A metabolizes propranolol

C catalyzes oxidation of alcohol

B metabolizes paracetamol

D activation of procarcinogens

40. One which is a Beta-lactamase inhibitor:

A Sulbactam

C Ticarcillin

B Sulfamethoxazole

D Cefoperazone

41. Mechanism of action of tetracyclines:

A inhibits bacterial DNA gyrase
preventing DNA replication

C inhibits aminoacyl-tRNA binding

to mRNA-ribosome

B inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis

D protein synthesis inhibitor

42. An inhibitor of hepatic enzyme CYP2C19

A Omeprazole

C Phenytoin

B Carbamazepine

D Rifampicin

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43. Not true about acute intermittent prophyria

A metabolic disorder of heme
synthesis

C autosomal recessive disorder

D characterized by deficiency of
uroporphyrinogen III synthase

B characterized by deficiency of
uroporphyrinogen I synthase

44. Profound CNS depression with bradycardia is seen in acute overdose/poisoning

with
A nortryptiline

C phenobarbital

B atropine

D dosulepin

45. A cholinesterase inhibitor

A Tubocurarine

C Atropine

B Pregabalin

D Neostigmine

46. Which of the following drugs do not a depressant effect on the CNS?
A Atropine

C Methadone

B Zolpidem

D scopolamine

47. Which of the following drugs is associated with reversible cholestatic jaundice?
A Gentamicin

C Erythromycin estolate

B Methotrexate

D Trabectedin

48. One of the following drugs is a muscle relaxant:

A Doxylamine

C Baclofen

B Pregabalin

D Lamotrigine

49. Which of the following is/are anti-cholinergic drugs?

A Biperidine

C Atropine

B Neostigmine

D Cisapride

50. Which of the following is an anti-cholinesterase?

A Ipratropium

C physostigmine

B Edrophonium

D atropine

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51. The following drugs were pulled up from the market owing to ADRs. Which
among these was responsible for causing idiosyncratic Type B hepatotoxicity?
A Trovafloxacin

C Bucetin

B Valdecoxib

D Temafloxacin

52. An indirect acting cholinomimetic agent:

A Neostigmine

C Scopolamine

B Tubocurarine

D Edrophonium

53. Which among the following drugs do not cause pseudomembranous colitis?
A Amoxicillin

C Clindamycin

B Bleomycin

D Levofloxacin

54. Succinylcholine sensitivity is due to:

A absence of choline
acetyltransferase

C absence of acetylcholinesterase

B absence of butyrylcholinesterase

D absence of cholinesterase II

55. Which of the following drugs has a broad spectrum anticonvulsant activity?
A Carbamazepine

C Phenytoin

B Valproic acid

D all of the above

56. Which among the following causes phototoxic photosensitivity reaction?

A Amiodarone

C diphenhydramine

B Tetracycline

D all of the above

57. Pulmonary toxicity is caused by which of the following drugs?

A Busulfan

C Cisplatin

B Vinblastin

D 5-Fluorouracil

58. Drugs having MAOI property that inhibits the metabolism of primidone:
A Clobazam

C valproic acid

B Isoniazid

D all of the above

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Series II-B

Model Paper

Clin. Pharma.

59. Mechanism of action of Capsofungin:

A inhibits enzyme squalene
epoxide

C inhibits enzyme 1,3-Beta-glucan

synthase

B inhibits enzyme Lanosterol 14

alpha-demethylase

D inhibits enzyme
Beta-galactosidase

60. Primary indication of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRI)

A anxiety

C depression

B neuropathic pain

D epilepsy

61. A competitive inhibitor of serotonin N-acetyltransferase

A tryptamine

C melatonin

B serotonin

D dopamine

62. Organisms not susceptible to Chloramphenicol:

A Streptococcus pneumoniae

C Neisseria meningitidis

B Staphylococcus aureus

D Psuedomonas aeruginosa

63. An example of acetylcholinesterase inhibitor:

A Tubocurarine

C Galantamine

B Donepezil

D Atropine

64. All of the following are serious side effects of neomycin except:
A hearing loss

C optic neuritis

B respiratory paralysis

D renal damage

65. D-tubocurarine is:

A Cholinergic

C Anticholinesterase

B Anticholinergic

D Muscarinic agonist

66. Which is the most serious side effect of erythromycin?

A Diarrhea

C Pseudomembranous colitis

B Ulcerative colitis

D Prolonged QT

67. Which one of the following drugs is an example of centrally acting nicotinic
antagonist?
A Pancuronium

C Trimethaphan

B Dextromethorphan

D Suxamethonium

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68. Hemolysin is produced specifically by which of the following bacteria?

A Staphylococcus aureus

C Escherichia coli

B Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D Streptococcus pyogenes

69. An example of acetylcholine receptor (ACHr) agonist which is used as a muscle

relaxant:
A Pancuronium

C Tubocurarine

B Succinylcholine

D Scopolamine

70. Proximal myopathy is caused by all of the following drugs except:

A Colchicine

C Clofibrate

B Zidovudine

D Physostigmine

71. Drugs that inhibits cholinesterase:

A Atropine

C Dicyclomine

B Neostigmine

D Hexamethonium

72. Pyocyanin is secreted by which one of the following organisms?

A Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C Vibrio cholerae

B Pasteurella haemolytica

D Bordetella pertussis

73. Drugs that may be given in organophosphorus poisoning:

A Neostigmine

C Atropine

B Edrophonium

D Dyflos

74. The first line drug of choice for streptococcal pharyngeal infections:
A Erythromycin

C Cepalosporins

B Penicillins

D Tetracyclines

75. A depolarizing muscle relaxant having shortest duration of action and fastest
onset:
A Pancuronium

C Suxamethonium

B Tubocurarine

D Dantrolene

76. A drug that may be given orally to prevent hepatic encephalopathy:

A Bleomycin

C Clindamycin

B Neomycin

D Kanamycin

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Model Paper

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77. An antidote that may be given in anticholinergic poisoning:

A Atropine

C Physostigmine

B Doxacurium

D Tubocurarine

78. Which one of the following antimycotic agents interferes with fungal active
membrane transport?
A Ciclopirox

C Capsofungin

B Tolnaftate

D Miconazole

79. Most serious side effect of chloroquine is:

A retinopathy

C aplastic anemia

B hypotension

D diarrhea

80. Antidote that can be given in cholinergic poisoning (cholinergic crisis):

A Atropine

C Neostigmine

B Pilocarpine

D Droperidol

81. A most common serious adverse effect of chlorpropamide therapy:

A hyponatremia

C photoallergy

B obesity

D Stevens-Johnson syndrome

82. Not a muscarinic symptom or effect of organophosphate poisoning:

A Tachycardia

C Miosis

B Bronchospasm

D Bradycardia

83. Ampicillin demonstrates activity against both Gram-positive and Gram-negative

organisms. Which of the following is a Gram-negative organism?
A Staphylococcus aureus

C Streptococcos pneumoniae

B Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D H. influenzae

84. Amphotericin B is effective against all of the following organisms except:

A Cryptococcus neoformans

C Sporothrix schenckii

B Rickettsiae rickettsii

D Aspergillus fumigatus

85. Which of the following is a benzoic acid derivative?

A Glutamic acid

C Whitfield's ointment

B Miconazole

D Acetylsalisylic acid

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Series II-B

Model Paper

Clin. Pharma.

86. An example of flavonoid glycoside:

A Rutin

C Amygdalin

B Arbutin

D Stevioside

87. Most common viral agents that causes pneumonia includes all of the following
except:
A Herpes simplex virus

C Adenovirus

B Rhinovirus

D Coronavirus

88. Antibiotics obtained from bacteria include all of the following except:
A Chloramphenicol

C Colistin

B Polymyxin B

D Aztreonam

89. Which of the following is not a mitotic inhibitor?

A Vincristine

C Etoposide

B Vinblastin

D Colchicine

90. One which is not an antimycotic (antifungal) agent:

A clotrimazole

C nystatin

B amphotericin B

D foscarnet

91. Protein binding of 5-Fluorouracil is about:

A 8-12%

C 2.9-4%

B 5-12%

D 14-17%

92. Drugs that bind to 1- acid glycoprotein includes all of the following except:
A lorazepam

C Chlorpromazine

B Lidocaine

D Propranolol

93. Which of the following is not a side effect of Paracetamol?

A gastric irritation

C intravascular thrombosis

B hepatotoxicity

D Stevens-Johnson syndrome

94. Hypoalbuminemia occurs in all of the following conditions except:

A dehydration

C hemodilution

B burns

D retinol deficiency

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Series II-B

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95. A protease inhibitor used in Hepatitis C

A Amprenavir

C Simprevir

B Nelfinavir

D Tipranavir

96. Leukoencephalopathy is a side effect of treatment with

A Vincristine

C Methotrexate

B Cisplatin

D Cyclophosphamide

97. Theophylline level of more than ______ results in toxicity.

A 5 mg/L

C 15 mg/L

B 10 mg/L

D 20 mg/L

98. Drug which do not interact with theophylline:

A Erythromycin

C Ciprofloxacin

B Ranitidine

D Methotrexate

99. Function of acute phase protein serum amyloid A

A immune function

C steroid carrier

B prevents degradation of blood

clots

D inhibits microbial iron uptake

100. Treatment of choice for mild acne vulgaris:

A Retinoids

C topical salicylic acid

B oral erythromycin

D Oral contraceptives

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Model Paper

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Disclaimer: Every attempt has been made to validate each and every
question/answers. Any remaining error is regretted. Author will not be held responsible
for any errors. Please consult standard textbooks given in the reference section for any
discrepancy. Questions with wrong answers may better be left unattempted/
unanswered. This is a practice series available free to download designed for the
benefit of prospective PG candidates and UG medical students.
Reference Textbooks:
1. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th Edition, KD Tripathi
2. Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 13th Edition, Katzung & Trevor
3. A Textbook of Clinical Pharmacology and Therapeutics, 5th Edition, Ritter, Lewis,
Mant & Ferro

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