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Unproctored Mock-1 2012

Section I
1.

In the figure given below, PQR is a triangle where PQ = 7 cm, QR = 24 cm and PR = 25 cm. The
sides PQ and QR are divided into n equal parts by taking n 1 equally spaced points on them as
shown in the figure. Pn1 is joined with Q1, Pn2 is joined with Q2, and so on. For what value of n
will the sum of the lengths of the resulting line segments be 200 cm?
P
P1
P2
P3
7 cm

2 5 cm

Pn 1
Q

Q1 Q2 Q3

Q n1

2 4 cm

(a) 15

2.

(b) 16

(c) 17

(d) 18

x3 5x 2 + 7x 3 )( x3 5x 2 + 8x 4 )
(
If
0, where x is a real number, then which of the following
(x 2 x2 )(x2 3x + 2)(x2 + 3x + 4 )

is correct?
(a) x [ , 1] 7 [2, 3] (b) x [1, 2] 7 [3, )
3.

(c) x [2, 3]

(d) None of these

Ten books are arranged in a row on a bookshelf. A student has to select three out of these ten books
in such a way that no two books selected by him must have been lying adjacently. In how many
ways can he make the selection?
(a) 56
(b) 64
(c) 72
(d) None of these

4.

If x ( y + 1) = y ( x + 1),x x = 1 and (x y) (x + y) = x y, then what is the value of 1001 1?


(a) 1000
(b) 100
(c) 10
(d) 1

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Unproctored Mock-1 2012

5.

Rohan is asked to figure out the marks scored by Sunil in three different subjects with the help of
certain clues. He is told that the product of the marks obtained by Sunil is 72 and the sum of the
marks obtained by Sunil is equal to the Rohans current age (in completed years). Rohan could not
answer the question with this information. When he was also told that Sunil got the highest marks
in Physics among the three subjects, he immediately answered the question correctly. What is the
sum of the marks scored by Sunil in the two subjects other than Physics?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) Cannot be determined

6.

Which of the following could be a possible value of x for which each of the fractions
[x] + 2 [x] + 13 [x] + 26 [x] + 41
[x] + 1913
[x] + 2002
,
,
,
,...,
and
10
11
12
13
49
50
is in its simplest form, where [x] stands for the greatest integer less than or equal to x?
(a) 45.45
(b) 49.49
(c) 51.51
(d) 53.53

7.

The sequence 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 9, 10, 12, 14, 16, 17,. has one odd number followed by the next two
even numbers, then the next three odd numbers followed by the next four even numbers and so on.
What is the 2003rd term of the sequence?
(a) 3953
(b) 3943
(c) 3940
(d) 3950

8.

Given that A > B > C and A60 = Bt = C120. If logA, logB and logC are in Arithmetic Progression, then
what is the value of t?
(a) 40
(b) 60
(c) 80
(d) 120

9.

A circle with center O circumscribes a quadrilateral PQRS, such that the side RS of the quadrilateral
is also the diameter of the circumcircle. The diagonals of the quadrilateral intersect at point M.
PO and QO are joined. Which of the following is equal to QMR ?
(a) QOR + POS

(b) QOR + POS


2

(c) QOR + POS 90

(d) None of these

10.

In a Table Tennis tournament, the number of male participants was twice the number of female
participants. Each player played a match with each of the rest of the players exactly once. Each
match involved exactly two players. No match ended in a draw. The number of matches won by the
female players was equal to the number of matches won by the male players. Which of the following
can be the total number of matches in which a male player defeated a female player?
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 39
(d) 30

11.

In how many ways can 1000 be written as a sum of n consecutive natural numbers, where n is
greater than 1?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

12.

The exterior angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 4 : 7. What is the sum of the largest and
the smallest interior angles of the quadrilateral?
(a) 72
(b) 144
(c) 168
(d) 192

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Unproctored Mock-1 2012

13.

x + y = 8 and P = 5x2 + 11y2, where x, y > 0. What is the minimum possible value of P?
(a) 110
(b) 220
(c) 300
(d) None of these

14.

A circle is drawn inside a trapezium such that it touches all the four sides of the trapezium. The line
joining the midpoints of the non-parallel sides divides the trapezium in two parts with areas in the
ratio 3 : 5. If the lengths of the non-parallel sides are 6 cm and 10 cm, then what is the length (in cm)
of the longer parallel side of the trapezium?
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) Cannot be determined

15.

A and B are the two opposite ends of a swimming pool and the distance between them is
420 metres. Ankur and Manu start swimming towards each other at the same time from A and B,
with speeds in the ratio 5 : 9 respectively. As soon as any of them reaches an end, he turns back
and starts swimming towards the other end. At what distance (in metres) from A will they meet when
Manu is in his 13th round? Note: A to B is considered one round and B to A another round.
(a) 405
(b) 330
(c) 240
(d) 280

16.

x and y are real numbers such that 2log(x 2y) = log x + log y. What is the value of
(a) 1

(b) 4

(c) Either (a) or (b)

x
?
y

(d) None of these

17.

There are 140 students in a school. The number of students who play Cricket, Football and Hockey
are 50, 80 and 70 respectively. The ratio of the number of students who play more than one of the
three sports to the number of students who play all the three sports is 3 : 2. If each student of the
school plays at least one of the three sports, then how many students play exactly two of the three
sports?
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 20

18.

There are three equal containers that are completely filled with different water-alcohol mixtures with
water and alcohol in the ratio 2 : 3, 3 : 4 and 4 : 5 respectively. They are emptied into a bigger
container. What fraction of the mixture in the bigger container should be replaced by water so that
the resulting mixture has equal quantities of water and alcohol?
(a)

43
945

(b)

143
945

43
(c) 544

(d)

143
1088

19.

In an increasing Arithmetic Progression, the product of the 5th term and the 6th term is 300. When
the 9th term of this A.P. is divided by the 5th term, the quotient is 5 and the remainder is 4. What is
the first term of the A.P.?
(a) 12
(b) 40
(c) 16
(d) 5

20.

The work done by 4 men in 12 days is equal to the work done by 6 women in 10 days and is also
equal to the work done by 8 children in 9 days. A man, a woman and a child working together take
10 days to complete a particular job. In how many days will the same job be completed by 2 women
and 5 children working together?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 7

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Unproctored Mock-1 2012

Directions for questions 21 and 22: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The table given below shows some data for fifteen companies for the year 2010.

Company
Roca Cola
Critannia
Kestle
Chepsi
Trimul
Gold Diary
Superb Diary
Fresh & First
Gopal Jee
Shudh
Evertasty
Natural & Fresh
Jusico
Trifolla
Real Fruits

Number of
branches
across the
country
12
15
6
8
24
18
22
27
16
9
10
32
25
15
8

Average Number Average Revenue


Total Expenses
of
generated/branch across the country
employees/branch
(in Rs. Crores)
(in Rs. Crores)
178
134
546
277
160
112
150
106
216
360
245
80
140
230
325

760
345
456
510
225
650
360
410
585
744
660
208
376
500
752

5,100
2,990
1,880
2,315
2,400
9,056
3,500
7,126
5,810
4,138
4,284
3,100
5,430
4,800
2,800

21.

How many of the given companies had more than 3,000 employees and generated more than
Rs. 7,500 Crores as the total Revenue in the year 2010?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

22.

For how many of the given companies are the Total Expenses less than half the total Revenue
generated in the year 2010?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

Directions for questions 23 to 25: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In Sun-Moon bakery, four different types of cakes Mango Cake, Pineapple Cake, Banana Cake and
Fresh Fruitcake are sold. Each type of cake consists of five fixed ingredients Wheat Flour, Milk, Sugar
Free, Eggs and Baking Powder and some variable ingredients. The variable ingredients used in different
types of cakes are as follows:
Mango cake Mango Cream and Mango pieces.
Pineapple cake Pineapple Cream and Pineapple pieces.
Banana cake Banana Cream and Banana pieces.
Fresh fruitcake Milk Cream and equal quantities of Mango, Pineapple and Banana pieces.
The Cost Price of Eggs is Rs. 48/dozen and the Cost Price of Milk is Rs. 30/litre. The table given below
shows the Cost Price/100 g of the rest of the ingredients.

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Unproctored Mock-1 2012

Ingre die nt
Cost (in Rs.)/100 g
W heat Flour
50
Sugar Free
200
Baking Powder
350
Mango pieces
30
Pineapple pieces
20
Banana pieces
40
Mango Cream
60
Pineapple Cream
90
Banana Cream
50
Milk Cream
70

The table given below shows the Selling Price of the different types of cakes.

Cake
Mango Cake
Pineapple Cake
Banana Cake
Fresh Fruitcake

Selling Price(in Rs.)


515
500
600
690

The statements given below are true for a cake of any of the four types made in Sun-Moon bakery.
(i)
The ratio of the quantity of Sugar Free used to the quantity of Wheat Flour used is same as the ratio
of the quantity of Cream used to the quantity of Fruit pieces used.
(ii)
The quantity of Cream used is three times the quantity of Sugar Free used.
(iii)
The total cost of the fixed ingredients is equal to the total cost of the variable ingredients.
(iv)
In each cake, 10 g Baking Powder, 3 Eggs (equivalent to 120 g) and 100 ml Milk (equivalent to 70 g)
are used.
(v)
The net weight of each cake is 1 kg.
23.

For which type of cake is the profit percentage made by the bakery the highest?
(a) Mango Cake
(b) Pineapple Cake
(c) Banana Cake
(d) Fresh Fruitcake

24.

What are the two types of cake that require the same quantity of Sugar Free in their preparation?
(a) Mango Cake and Pineapple Cake
(b) Banana Cake and Pineapple Cake
(c) Banana Cake and Fresh Fruitcake
(d) Mango Cake and Fresh Fruitcake

25.

How much Wheat Flour is used in preparing four cakes one of each type?
(a) 475 g
(b) 500 g
(c) 525 g
(d) 550 g

26.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Q. N is a natural number that has exactly 24 factors. What is the number of factors of N3?
A. When N is multiplied by 3, the resultant number has 32 factors.
B. When N is multiplied by 5, the resultant number has 30 factors.

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Unproctored Mock-1 2012

Directions for questions 27 to 29: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Investment (Rs.crores)

The bar graph given below shows the total amount (in Rs. Crores) invested by five states of India Punjab,
Haryana, Gujarat, Kerala and Assam in three fields R&D, Education and Sports in 2009 and 2010.
The pie charts given below show the percentage break-up of the total investment (which also includes the
three fields mentioned earlier) made by different states of India in 2009 and 2010.
795
800

665

700
575

548

600

555

450

400

274

295

2009

235

2010

200
0
Punjab

Haryana

Gujarat

Kerala

Assam

State

Haryana
7%

Gujarat
15%

Gujarat
16%

Haryana
12%

Punjab
5%

Punjab
3%
Kerala
5%

Kerala
13%

Assam
15%

Rest of the
states
55%

2009

Rest of the
states
45%

Assam
9%

2010

27.

In 2009, Keralas investment in R&D, Education and Sports was 56% of its total investments. In
2010, Haryanas investment in R&D, Education and Sports was 15% of its total investments. What
was the percentage change in the total investment made by the Rest of the states from 2009 to
2010?
(a) 9.09%
(b) 11.11%
(c) 18.18%
(d) 22.22%

28.

In both 2009 and 2010, one-third of the total amount invested by Gujarat and Assam together in
R&D, Education and Sports was done in R&D. The investment in R&D by Gujarat and Assam
together as a fraction of the total investment made by Gujarat and Assam together increases by
20% from 2009 to 2010. Find the ratio of the total investment made by all the states across the
country in 2009 to that in 2010?
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 4
(c) 4 : 5
(d) None of these

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Unproctored Mock-1 2012

29.

The investment made by Punjab in fields other than R&D, Education and Sports in 2010 was double
of that made in 2009. What was the percentage change in the total investment made by all the
states across the country from 2009 to 2010?
(a) 20%
(b) 33.33%
(c) 45%
(d) 66.67%

30.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Q. Five girls Komal, Dhara, Jyoti, Sarla and Neha are of different ages. Sarla is younger than
both Jyoti and Komal. Jyoti is younger than Dhara but older than Neha. Who among the five is the
oldest?
A. The average age of Komal and Dhara is less than the average age of Jyoti and Neha.
B. The average age of Dhara and Jyoti is less than the average age of Komal and Neha.

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Unproctored Mock-1 2012

Section II
Directions for questions 31 to 34: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose
the most appropriate answer to each question.
Microfinance in India started in the early 1980s with small efforts at forming informal self-help groups (SHG)
to provide access to much-needed savings and credit services. From this small beginning, the microfinance
sector has grown significantly in the past decades. National bodies like the Small Industries Development
Bank of India (SIDBI) and the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) are devoting
significant time and financial resources to microfinance.
The strength of the microfinance organizations (MFOs) in India is in the diversity of approaches and forms
that have evolved over time. In addition to the home-grown models of SHGs and mutually aided cooperative
societies (MACS), the country has learned from other microfinance experiments across the world, particularly
those in Bangladesh, Indonesia, Thailand, and Bolivia, in terms of delivery of microfinancial services. Indian
organizations could also learn from the transformation experiences of these microfinance initiatives.
Robinson (2001) defines microfinance as small-scale financial servicesprimarily credit and savings
provided to people who farm, fish or herd and adds that it refers to all types of financial services provided
to low-income households and enterprises. In India, microfinance is generally understood but not clearly
defined. For instance, if a SHG (Self-Help Group) gives a loan for an economic activity, it is seen as
microfinance. But if a commercial bank gives a similar loan, it is unlikely that it would be treated as
microfinance.
In India, microfinance is done by organizations having diverse orientations. NGOs in India perform a range
of developmental activities; microfinance usually is a sub-component. Some of these NGOs organize
groups and link them to an existing provider of financial services. In some cases NGOs have a revolving
fund that is used for lending. But in either of these cases, microfinance is not a core activity for these
NGOs. An example is the Aga Khan Rural Support Programme India (AKRSP-I). For AKRSP-I, the
microfinance component is incidental to its work in natural resource management. Examples like MYRADA
and the Self-Employed Womens Association (SEWA) fall in the same category. However, as their
microfinance portfolios grew, both organizations decided to form separate entities for microfinance. MYRADA
set up an MFO called Sanghamitra Rural Financial Services (SRFS), while SEWA
set up the SEWA Cooperative Bank.
At the next level, we find NGOs helping the poor in economic activities. Their purpose is developmental.
They see microfinance as an activity that feeds into economic activities. For instance, the South Indian
Federation of Fishermens Societies (SIFFS) started as a support organization for fishermen, providing
technical and marketing support. It then arranged for loans to its members through banks. When the
arrangement was not effective, it started providing loans itself. At the third level, we have organizations with
microfinance at the core. They have developmental roots, but are diverse in their operational details,
orientation, and form of incorporation.
31.

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The style used by the author in this passage is


(a) descriptive
(b) instructional
(c) critical

(d) analytical

Unproctored Mock-1 2012

32.

Which one of the following is the strength of the microfinance organizations in India?
(a) In India, microfinance is provided by NGOs that help the poor in economic activities.
(b) In India, microfinance is done by organizations having diverse orientations.
(c) In India, diverse approaches have been used and there is learning from other microfinance
experiments across the world.
(d) In India, microfinance is generally understood but not clearly defined.

33.

If an SHG gives a loan for an economic activity, it is seen as microfinance. But if a commercial bank
gives a similar loan, it is unlikely that it would be treated as microfinance. Which of the following
options would help understand the above statement?
(a) In India, microfinance is defined by who gives the loan and not by why it is given.
(b) In India, microfinance is defined by why the loan is given and not by who gives the loan.
(c) Microfinance is generally understood but not clearly defined.
(d) None of the above

34.

According to the passage, the South Indian Federation of Fishermens Societies (SIFFS) independent
microfinance activity provides
(a) support to farmers when loan arrangements through banks were not effective.
(b) support to fishermen when loan arrangements through banks were not effective.
(c) supplementary support to the banks that were unable to effect loan arrangements.
(d) support to organizations with microfinance at the core.

Directions for questions 35 and 36: The passage given below is followed by a set of two questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Civilization cannot exist without spoken language, but it can without written communication. The Greek
poetry of Homer was at first transmitted orally, stored in the memory, as were the Vedas, the Sanskrit
hymns of the ancient Hindus, which were unwritten for centuries. The South American Empire of the Incas
managed its administration without writing. Yet eventually, almost every complex society ancient and
modern has required a script or scripts. Writing, though not obligatory, is a defining marker of civilization.
Without writing, there can be no accumulation of knowledge, no historical record, no science (though
simple technology may exist), and of course no books, newspapers, emails, or World Wide Web.
The creation of writing in Mesopotamia (present-day Iraq) and Egypt in the late 4th millennium BC permitted
the command and seal of a ruler like the Babylonian Hammurabi, the Roman Julius Caesar, or the Mongol
Kublai Khan, to extend far beyond his sight and voice and even to survive his death. If the Rosetta Stone
had never been inscribed, for example, the world would be virtually unaware of the nondescript GrecoEgyptian king Ptolemy V Epiphanes, whose priests promulgated his decree upon the Rosetta Stone in 196
BC written in three scripts: sacred hieroglyphic, administrative demotic, and Greek alphabetic.
Writing and literacy are generally seen as forces for good. All modern parents want their children to be able
to read and write. But there is a negative side to the spread of writing that is present throughout its more
than 5,000-year history, if somewhat less obvious. In the 5th century BC, the Greek philosopher Socrates
(who famously never published a word) pinpointed our ambivalence towards visible speech in his story of
the Egyptian god Thoth, the mythical inventor of writing.
Thoth came to see the king seeking royal blessing on his enlightening invention. But instead of praising it,
the king told
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Unproctored Mock-1 2012

Thoth: You have invented an elixir not of memory, but of reminding; and you offer your pupils the appearance
of wisdom, not true wisdom, for they will read many things without instruction and will therefore seem to
know many things, when they are for the most part ignorant.
In a 21st-century world saturated with written information and surrounded by information technologies of
astonishing speed, convenience, and power, these words of Socrates recorded by his disciple Plato have
a distinctly contemporary ring.
35.

Author has used the examples of Homer and The South American Empire of the Incas to illustrate
which of the following?
1. The inevitability of resorting to written communication.
2. The importance of spoken language.
3. The possibility of civilization without the tool of written form of language.
(a) Only 1

36.

(b) Both 1 and 2

(c) Only 3

(d) Only 2

According to the passage, which of the following is true?


(a) Writing is a tool not of knowledge but of reminding.
(b) Socrates was against the written mode of communication.
(c) The teachings of Socrates are timeless and are still relevant.
(d) Writing has an important place in modern world.

Directions for questions 37 to 39: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Tom ORiordan for example, in his 1976 book, Environmentalism, distinguished four ideologically diverse
propositions for tackling the current environmental crisis by means of institutional reform. For the sake of
clarity, these four propositions can be ordered as follows. In the first place, a distinction can be made
between statist and anti-statist propositions. The anti-statist propositions can then be divided into proposals
for global or for local (communal or regional) policies. Finally, the proposals for local policies can be divided
into authoritarian and anti-authoritarian solutions.
But ORiordan considers only one position, one centred on the nation-state, centralised authoritarianism.
This is the position represented in particular by William Ophuls who, together with Paul Ehrlich and Garret
Hardin, ranks as a prominent advocate of so-called lifeboat ethics according to which rich countries
should not be too ready to help poor countries lest the world population continue to grow and put even
greater pressure on already scarce food supplies and strategic resources. In the light of ecological scarcity,
frugality is a must, says Ophuls; we should be aiming for a steady-state society in which the population
and the means of subsistence are in balance. Liberal democracy is not equipped to achieve this aim,
however; what is needed is a Hobbesian sovereign, a green Leviathan. Ophuls leaves us in no doubt as to
who shall be in charge of this future state.
The ecological complex steady-state society may require, if not a class of ecological guardians, then at
least a class of ecological mandarins who possess the esoteric knowledge needed to run it well. The
steady-state society will not only be more authoritarian and less democratic than the industrial societies of
todaybut it will also in all likelihood be much more oligarchic as well, with only those possessing the
ecological and other competences to make prudent decisions allowed full participation in the political
process.
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Unproctored Mock-1 2012

In view of the authority enjoyed by ecologists in Ophuls steady-state society, his position could also be
described as eco-cratic.
37.

What is the primary purpose of the author in this passage?


(a) To advocate ORiordans approach to address the environmental crisis through institutional reforms.
(b) Discuss at length an approach to institutional reform that addresses environmental concerns.
(c) Describe different approaches to creating an eco-cratic society.
(d) Identify the steps needed for institutional reform with an eye to the environmental crisis.

38.

Which of the following statements is true in light of the passage?


(a) According to Ophuls, judicious decisions cannot be taken in a democratic society.
(b) Ophuls ideology is described as a green Leviathan since it proposes a sovereign state with no
democratic leanings.
(c) In a steady-state society, individual accountability will be proportional to individual capability.
(d) Riordans book largely deals with a single authoritarian approach to institutional reform.

39.

Which of the following is an assumption in Ophuls formulation of a steady-state society?


(a) In a steady-state society, resources will not be limited.
(b) There wont be any resistance to the shift from a democratic to an eco-cratic society.
(c) In general, humans are not ecologically aware by nature.
(d) Ecological knowledge is all it takes to run a steady-state society.

40.

Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most appropriate one.
A. Was it evidence that science and religion are inevitably locked in ideological and institutional
combat?
B. Unsurprisingly, there was more to it than that.
C. On all sides of the case there was agreement that it was proper and rational both to seek
accurate knowledge of the world through observation of nature and also to base ones beliefs on the
Bible.
D. When Galileo recanted his Copernicanism in 1633, what did that signify?
E. Was it a victory for religious obscurantism and a defeat for free scientific inquiry?
(a) DEABC

41.

(b) CDEBA

(c) CBDAE

(d) DEACB

There are two gaps in the sentence given below. From the pairs of words given, choose the one that
fills the gaps most appropriately.
An atmosphere that ________ the value and growth of individuals as well as the organization is
important, and _________between individuals and the organization must be a team effort.
(a) exudes, discussion
(b) encompasses, agglomerate
(c) promotes, collaboration
(d) assesses, links

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42.

There are two gaps in the sentence given below. From the pairs of words given, choose the one that
fills the gaps most appropriately.
A/an _________professional can help you establish a budget for your childrens extracurricular
activities based on your _______income and savings goals.
(a) knowledgeable, current
(b) qualified, retirement
(c) experienced, desired
(d) recommended, projected

43.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
AGREE
(a) Do you agree to the conditions?
(b) The food did not agree with me.
(c) Our views on religion agree.
(d) I agree to her analysis of the situation.

44.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
BY
(a) Can I pay by credit card?
(b) Do you prefer to travel by air or by train?
(c) They traveled by the 6.45 train.
(d) Come and sit by me.

45.

Given below are a few sentences. Identify the sentence(s)/ part(s) of the sentence(s) that is/are
correct in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency).
Then choose the most appropriate option.
1. Imagine you are in a train carriage waiting at station.
2. Out of the window you see a second train standing alongside yours.
3. The whistle blows, and at last you are on your way.
4. You glide smoothly past the other train.
(a) 1 and 3

46.

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

Given below are a few sentences. Identify the sentence(s)/ part(s) of the sentence(s) that is/are
correct in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency).
Then choose the most appropriate option.
1. Hell give you a call as soon as he arrive.
2. A museum is a good place to look for ancient Greece and Rome.
3. Do you think he knows what does he want?
4. Religion in the context of philosophy is particularly significant.
(a) 1 and 4

Page

12

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 3
Unproctored Mock-1 2012

47.

Given below are a few sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized. From the
italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
I hope they dont ask me anything about politics. I havent the slightest (A) / smallest (B) idea about
it.
I knew David could always be trusted (A) / relied (B) on in times of crisis.
I would like to make a request (A) / demand (B) to the hotel management that they allow people to
choose the TV program they want to watch.
The business has lost a lot of orders recently and is going through a thin (A) / poor (B) time.
It was not the ideal (A) / idyll (B) solution to the problem.
(a) ABAAA

48.

(b) ABABB

(c) ABBAA

(d) BBAAB

Given below are a few sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized. From the
italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
In his position as (A) / of (B) managing director, he is responsible for more than 300 employees.
He planned the event so meticulously that the outcome was entirely causal (A) / casual (B).
They created a custom (A) / costume (B) design for a diwali card.
I suspect (A) / expect (B) his motives are not entirely good.
The economics (A) / economic (B) of the project are very encouraging.
(a) ABAAB

49.

(b) AAAAA

(c) BAAAB

(d) BBAAA

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
I was a man who stood in symbolic relations to the art and culture of my age. I had realised this for
myself at the very dawn of my manhood, and had forced my age to realise it afterwards. Few men
hold such a position in their own lifetime, and have it so acknowledged. It is usually discerned, if
discerned at all, by the historian, or the critic, long after both the man and his age have passed
away. With me it was different. I felt it myself, and made others feel it. Byron was a symbolic
figure, but his relations were to the passion of his age and its weariness of passion.
(a) I ceased to be lord over myself.
(b) Mine were to something more noble, more permanent, of more vital issue, of larger scope.
(c) I was no longer the captain of my soul, and did not know it.
(d) He had discerned it himself.

Page

13

Unproctored Mock-1 2012

50.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
In an age of hurry like ours the appearance of an epic poem that is more than five thousand lines in
length cannot but be regarded as remarkable. Whether such a form of art is the one most suited to
our century is a question. Edgar Allan Poe insisted that no poem should take more than an hour to
read, the essence of a work of art being its unity of impression and of effect. Still, it would be difficult
to accept absolutely a canon of art, which would place the Divine Comedy on the shelf and deprive
us of the Bothwell of Mr. Swinburne.
(a) For even on ortolans who could endure oratory?
(b) The subject of a work of art has, of course, nothing to do with its size.
(c) A work of art is to be estimated by its beauty, not by its size.
(d) We cannot help this.

Directions for questions 51 to 53: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Twelve people Aman, Bharti, Charu, Dishank, Eric, Farhan, Gaurav, Hitesh, Inder, Jatin, Kamal and Lalit
work in three different cities Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata, with exactly four of them working in each city.
Four of the twelve are Accountants, four are Managers and four are Professors. At least one Accountant,
one Manager and one Professor work in each of the three cities. It is also known that:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)

Aman is not an Accountant and does not work in Delhi.


Bharti is a Manager and Farhan is a Professor.
Either Charu or Gaurav works in the same city as Farhan.
Kamal is a Manager who works in the same city as Dishank. This city is not Kolkata.
Hitesh is an Accountant who works in Delhi.
Jatin is a Manager and Inder is an Accountant and both of them work in Kolkata.
Lalit is a Professor who works in Mumbai.
Gaurav works in Delhi and Farhan works in Mumbai.
The number of Managers working in Delhi is two.

51.

Who among the following is an Accountant working in Mumbai?


(a) Eric
(b) Aman
(c) Charu
(d) Gaurav

52.

Who are the two Managers working in Delhi?


(a) Kamal and Gaurav
(b) Kamal and Dishank
(c) Kamal and Bharti
(d) Cannot be determined

53.

What is the correct Profession, City combination for Eric?


(a) Accountant, Mumbai
(b) Professor, Delhi
(c) Professor, Kolkata
(d) Accountant, Kolkata

Page

14

Unproctored Mock-1 2012

54.

Ten cars Santro, Wagon R, Zen, Ritz, Yuva, Innova, Corolla, Matiz, Xylo and Scorpio are parked
in two parallel rows such that five cars are parked in each row. Each car parked in a row faces a car
parked in the other row head-on. It is also known that:
(i) Matiz is parked opposite Yuva.
(ii) Ritz is parked to the immediate right of Xylo and opposite Wagon R.
(iii) No car is parked to the left of both Zen and Scorpio.
(iv) The number of cars parked between Innova and Matiz is the same as the number of cars parked
between Xylo and Santro.
Which of the following statements cannot be true?
(a) Innova is parked opposite Zen.
(b) Scorpio is parked opposite Santro.
(c) The number of cars parked between Corolla and Matiz is the same as the number of cars parked
between Scorpio and Xylo.
(d) The number of cars parked to the left of Corolla is the same as the number of cars parked to the
left of Yuva.

Directions for questions 55 and 56: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Each of the five players Saurabh, Yubraj, Vajendar, Gombzi and Ambata was picked by one of the two
teams Delhi Devils and Kolkata Riders in the auction of players for Timbaktu Premier League. Two
among the five players were batsmen and the rest three were bowlers. Each of the two teams picked at
least one batsman and at least one bowler. Also, these five were the only players available for auction and
they were offered for bidding in a particular order. It is also known that:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Kolkata Riders picked exactly two players successively.


The two batsmen were picked successively. Exactly two out of the three bowlers were picked
successively.
The number of players picked between Yubraj and Vajendar is the same as the number of players
picked between Saurabh and Gombzi.
Exactly two players were picked between Ambata and Yubraj.

55.

If Vajendar was a batsman picked by Delhi Devils, then which of the following cannot be true?
(a) Yubraj was a batsman picked by Delhi Devils.
(b) Yubraj was a bowler picked by Kolkata Riders.
(c) Saurabh was a batsman picked by Kolkata Riders.
(d) Saurabh was a bowler picked by Delhi Devils.

56.

If Saurabh was a bowler, then who among the following players was definitely a batsman?
(a) Vajendar
(b) Gombzi
(c) Yubraj
(d) None of these

57.

Ashu, Banu and Charu are three students from Science stream and Diya, Ellie and Fana are three
students from Commerce stream. Diya is shorter than Ellie but taller than the Science student who
is shorter than Banu. The same Science student is taller than Fana but shorter than Charu. Who is
the shortest among the six?
(a) Fana
(b) Charu
(c) Banu
(d) Cannot be determined

Page

15

Unproctored Mock-1 2012

Directions for questions 58 to 60: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Eight players Sonu, Monu, Karan, Arjun, Ram, Lakhan, Gopi and Kishan participated in an interschool
Chess tournament. There were three rounds in the tournament.
In Round-I, two groups of four players each were made. In each group, each player played with the rest
three exactly once. In one group, two players won two matches each and the remaining two players won
one match each. In the other group, each player won a different number of matches. In this round, Lakhan
and Gopi were in the same group and Lakhan won more matches than Gopi. Similarly, Kishan and Ram
were in the same group and Kishan won more matches than Ram.
Top two players from each group in Round-I, in terms of the number of matches won by them, moved to
Round-II. Just two matched were played in Round-II and each of the four players played exactly one match.
The winners of these matches moved to Round-III. The two finalists played a match in this round and the
winner of this match was declared the winner of the tournament.
At the end of the tournament it was found that:
(i) None of the players won all the matches played by him.
(ii) Sonu was one of the players in Round-III. He lost exactly two matches in the tournament.
(iii) The two finalists were from different groups of Round-I.
(iv) The number of matches won by Kishan, Karan and Arjun in Round-I was the same.
58.

Who won the tournament?


(a) Lakhan
(b) Gopi

(c) Monu

(d) Cannot be determined

59.

For which of the following pairs of players was the difference between the numbers of matches won
by them respectively in the tournament more than one?
(a) Monu and Kishan (b) Lakhan and Gopi
(c) Gopi and Sonu
(d) Gopi and Monu

60.

What was the total number of matches won by Lakhan in the tournament?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Page

16

Unproctored Mock-1 2012

Unproctored Mock-1 2012


Answers and Explanations
1

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

Page

Unproctored Mock-1 2012

So the inequality reduces to


1. c

( x 2 )( x 3 ) 0 , where x cannot be equal to 2.

P
P1

x (2, 3]

P2
P3

3. a

7 cm

= 10C3 = 120
The number of ways of selecting two books lying
adjacently = 9
The number of ways of selecting the third book such
that exactly two books are lying adjacently
= 7 2 + 6 7 = 56
The number of ways of selecting three books lying
adjacently = 8
So the required number of ways = 120 56 8 = 56

2 5 cm

Pn 1
Q

Q1 Q2 Q3

Q n1

The number of ways of selecting three books

2 4 cm

4. d

(i) x ( y + 1) = y ( x + 1)

Pn 1QQ1 : PQR

(ii) x x = 1

P Q QQ1 Pn 1Q1 1
n 1 =
=
=
PQ
QR
PR
n
Pn 1Q1 =

(iii)(x y) (x + y) = x y
Putting x = 1000 and y = 1001 in operation (i), we get

25
n

Similarly, Pn 2Q2 =

1000 1002 = 1001 1001


From operation (ii), 1001 1001 = 1

25 2
and so on
n

1000 1002 = 1
Putting x = 1001 and y = 1 in operation (iii), we get

25 (n 1)
25 25 2 25 3
+
+
+ ... +
= 200
n
n
n
n

25

(1 + 2 + 3 + ... + n 1) = 200
n

+ 8x 4

+ 3x + 4

{(x 1) (x 3)}{(x 2) (x 1)}

The product of the marks obtained = 72


As Rohan was not able to figure out the marks obtained
by Sunil initially, there must be at least two possible
ways of getting that same sum. The two possible
cases are 2, 6, 6 and 3, 3, 8 (Sum = 14).
When Rohan got to know that Sunil got the highest in
Physics among the three subjects, he could answer
correctly as this is possible only with 3, 3 and 8.
Therefore, the sum of the marks obtained by Sunil in
the other two subjects is 3 + 3 i.e. 6.

x 2 x2

6. c

A fraction is said to be in its simplest form when the


numerator and the denominator are co-prime.
If we observe the fractions carefully, we find that in
each term a remainder of 2 is left when the integer
part of the numerator is divided by the denominator.
E.g. 2 by 10, 13 by 11, 26 by 12, 41 by 13, and so on.
The fractions can be written as:

)(x 1)( x 2)( x2 + 3x + 4 )

( x 1)3 ( x 2 )2 ( x 3 )
0
( x 2 x2 )(x 1)( x 2)( x2 + 3x + 4 )
( x 1)2 ( x 2)( x 3 )

(x

)(

+ 2 x x 2 + 3x + 4

As the Discriminant of both x2 + 2 x and x2 + 3x + 4


is negative, it can be concluded that the denominator
of the above inequality is greater than zero for all real
values of x.

Page

5. a

)0
)

1001 1 = 1

2n

(x 5x + 7x 3 )(x 5x
(x 2 x )(x 3x + 2)(x

1000 1002 = 1001 1

(n 1)(n ) = 8 n = 17.
3

2. d

Three operations have been given:

[x] + 2
[x] + 2
[x] + 2
[x] + 2
, 1+
, 2+
,3+
and so on...
10
11
12
13
Thus x needs to be such that [x] + 2 is co-prime with
10, 11, 12, 49 and 50.
Among the options, the only such value is 51.51.

Unproctored Mock-1 2012

7. b

We have the following alternate sequences of odd


and even terms:
Number of Terms
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8

Terms
1
2,4
5,7,9
10,12,14,16
17,19,21,23,25
26,28,30,32,34,36
37,39,41,43,45,47,49
50,52,54,56,58,60,62,64

Let PRS =

POS = 2
QOR + POS = 2 + 2
Also, PMS = QMR = +
(The exterior angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of
the interior opposite angles.)

10. c

If we observe the sequences carefully the last term in


any sequence is the square of the number of terms,
i.e. when n = 3, last term = 9; when n = 4, last term
= 16; when n = 8, last term = 64 and so on
Also, the total number of terms in the sequence is the
sum of the number of terms in the alternate sequences
of even and odd terms.

2x(2x 1)
2
The number of matches among female players
= 2x C2 =

x(x 1)
2
The number of matches between a male and a female
player = 2x2
Lets assume that a male player defeated a female
player n times. Therefore, a female palyer must have
defeated a male player (2x2 n) times.
= x C2 =

62 63
= 1953, we can say that the 2003rd
2
term will lie in a sequence of odd terms and will be the
50 th term in that sequence. The last term in the
sequence of even terms with n = 62 will be
622 = 3844. Hence, the next odd sequence begins at
3845. The 50th term in this sequence will be
3845 + 49 2 = 3943.
Since

8. c

B2 = A C
t

B2 = B 60 B120
t
t

+
=2
60 120
3t
t

=
=2
120 40
t = 80

9. b

2
O

Let QSR =

QOR = 2
(The angle subtended by a chord at the center is
twice the angle subtended by the same chord at the
circumference.)

Case I: The number of terms n is odd.


The middle term will be the average of all the terms.
Let the average be k.

k n = 1000
(Both k and n are natural numbers.)
Odd factors of 1000 are 1, 5, 25 and 125.
(i) When n = 5, k = 200, the consecutive numbers are
from 198 to 202.
(ii) When n = 25, k = 40, the consecutive numbers are
28 to 52.
(iii) When n = 125, k = 8, the consecutive numbers will
not be natural numbers.
Case II: The number of terms n is even.
The average of the middle two terms will be the
average of all the terms. Let the average be k.

M
R

2x(2x 1)
x(x 1)
+n=
+ 2x 2 n
2
2

x(x + 1) = 4n
Among the options, n = 39 is the only possible value.

11. d

...(i)

Also, C = B120 and A = B 60


Putting these values in equation (i), we get

Page

logA, logB and logC are in Arithmetic Progession.


2logB = log A + logC

Let the number of male players be 2x; therefore, the


number of female players will be x.
The number of matches among male players

k n = 1000
(n is a natural number and k is a positive rational number
whose decimal part is 0.5.)
(i) When n = 16, k = 62.5, the consecutive numbers
are from 55 to 70.
(ii) When n = 80, k = 12.5, the consecutive numbers
will not be natural numbers.
(iii) When n = 400, k = 2.5, the consecutive numbers
will not be natural numbers.
So the total number of possible ways is 3.

Unproctored Mock-1 2012

12. c

Let the exterior angles of the quadrilateral be x, 3x,


4x and 7x.
So x + 3x + 4x + 7x = 15x = 360 (The sum of the
exterior angles of a polygon is 360.)
So x = 24
The largest interior angle = 180 24 = 156
The smallest interior angle = 180 (7 24) = 12
The required sum = 156 + 12 = 168

2x + 2y = 16 and x + y = 8
From equation (i), x = 2 and y = 6
the length of CD = 2y = 12 cm

15. b

5
2
12 = 6 rounds. At this point in time Ankur
9
3
is moving towards B and is 280 metres away from A
whereas Manu is at B.

complete

x+y=8 x=8y

13. b

420 280
They will meet at a distance of 9
= 90
5+9
metres from B. This point will be at a distance of
420 90 = 330 metres from A.

P = 5(8 y)2 + 11y 2


P = 320 + 5y 2 80y + 11y 2
P = (4y 10)2 + 220
P will be minimum when (4y 10)2 is equal to 0.
P (min) = 220

By the time Manu completes 12 rounds, Ankur will

16. b

2log(x 2y) = log x + log y

14. c

x
2 =

y
y

Putting
E

2y ) = xy
2

2x
P

(x

x+y

x
= t in the above equation,
y

t 2 5t + 4 = 0

( t 1)( t 4 ) = 0
t = 1 or 4
But x cannot be equal to y as log is not defined for
negative numbers.

D
Q
2y

Hence,
Let the trapezium be ABCD (see the figure given above)
and the longer parallel side be CD.
Let the length of the side AB be 2x cm and the length
of the side CD be 2y cm.
Let 2h cm be the shortest distance between AB
and CD.
E and F are the midpoints of AD and BC respectively
(which may not be the points of contact of the
trapezium and the circle).

the length of EF =

AB + CD 2x + 2y
=
= x + y cm
2
2

1
The area of trapezium ABFE = h (3x + y ) cm2
2
The area of trapezium EFCD =

1
h ( x + 3y ) cm2
2

Area(ABFE) 3x + y 3
x AB 1
=
= =
=
Area(EFCD) x + 3y 5
y CD 3

Also, AB + CD = BC + AD
(Since, ABCD is a tangential quadrilateral.)
AB + CD = 16 cm

Page

...(i)

x
= 4 is the only possible solution.
y

17. a

Let the number of students who play exactly three,


exactly two and exactly one sport be x, y and z
respectively.
Hence, x + y + z = 140 and 3x + 2y + z = 200.
Solving the two equations, we get 2x + y = 60.
It is given that (x + y) : x = 3 : 2.
Solving, we get x = 24 and y = 12.
Hence, 12 students play exactly two of the three
sports.

18. d

Let the volume of each container be 315 units.


The total volume of the three containers is 945 units.
Hence, the volume of water in three containers is 126,
135 and 140 units respectively and that of alcohol is
189, 180 and 175 units respectively.
The ratio of water and alcohol in the bigger container
= 401 : 544
Let the volume of the mixture that needs to be replaced
by water be x units. Hence,

401 401

x
x
+ x = 544 544
945
945

Unproctored Mock-1 2012

143 945
1088
So the fraction of the mixture that needs to be replaced
x=

=
19. b

143
1088

Let the 5th term of the A.P. be a and the common


difference be d. The 6th term will be (a + d) and the
9th term will be (a + 4d).
Therefore, a(a + d) = 300
...(i)
and 5a + 4 = (a + 4d)
...(ii)
d=a+1
Solving (i) and (ii), we get a = 12 or

25
.
2

25
, then the value of d will also be
2
negative, which is not possible in an increasing A.P.
Therefore, a = 12 and d = 13.
The first term will be = (a 4d) = 12 52 = 40.

If a =

20. a

For questions 23 to 25:


From statement (iv), the total weight of Baking Powder, Eggs
and Milk used in a cake is 200 g. Therefore, the total quantity of
the remaining ingredients used is 800 g.
Let the quantity (in g) of Wheat Flour and Sugar Free used in a
cake be x and y respectively. Therefore, from statements
(i) and (ii), quantity (in g) of Fruit pieces and Cream used is
3x and 3y respectively.
x + y + 3x + 3y = 800 and x + y = 200
The total cost (in Rs.) of Baking Powder, Eggs and Milk used in
a cake is 35 + 12 + 3 i.e. 50.
Cost (in Rs.) of Wheat flour used is

200
y i.e. 2y.
100
The total cost (in Rs.) of the fixed ingredients used is
Cost (in Rs.) of Sugar Free used is

x
+ 2y.
2
As x + y = 200, the values of x and y in different types of cake
can be calculated as given below:
50 +

Let the amount of work (in units) completed by a man,


a woman and a child in a day be M, W and C
respectively.

I. Mango Cake:

The amount of work (in units) completed by 4 men in


12 days = 4 12 M = 48M.
The amount of work (in units) completed by 6 women
in 10 days = 6 10 W = 60W.
The amount of work (in units) completed by 8 children
in 9 days = 8 9 C = 72C.

II. Pineapple Cake:

So 48M = 60W = 72C


or 4M = 5W = 6C = 60K (say)
Hence, M = 15K, W = 12K and C = 10K.
The amount of work (in units) completed by a man, a
woman and a child together in 10 days
= (15 + 12 + 10)K 10 = 370K.
The amount of work (in units) completed by 2 women
and 5 children together in a day
= (2 12 + 5 10)K = 74K.
Hence, the answer =

370
= 5 days.
74

21. b

Three companies Superb Diary, Gopal Jee and Jusico.

22. b

Four companies Trimul, Superb Diary, Natural & Fresh


and Real Fruits.

30
60
x
3x +
3y = 50 + + 2y
100
100
2
On solving, x = 150 and y = 50.

20
90
x
3x +
3y = 50 + + 2y
100
100
2
On solving, x = 150 and y = 50.
II. Banana Cake:

40
50
x
3x +
3y = 50 + + 2y
100
100
2
On solving, x = 125 and y = 75.
II. Fresh Fruitcake:

30
20
40
70
x
x+
x+
x+
3y = 50 + + 2y
100
100
100
100
2
On solving, x = 100 and y = 100.
The table given below shows the cost incurred on preparing
the different types of cakes.

Cake

Cost Price(in Rs.)

Mango Cake

450

Pineapple Cake

450

Banana Cake

525

Fresh Fruitcake

600

23. d

Page

50
x
x i.e. .
100
2

Fresh Fruitcake

Unproctored Mock-1 2012

24. a

Mango Cake and Pineapple Cake

Required ratio =
25. c

525 g

26. c

As N has exactly 24 factors, N can be of the form p23,


pq11, p2q7, p3q5, pqr5, pq2r3 or pqrs2, where p, q,
r and s represent different prime numbers.
From Statement A:
As the number of factors of the resultant number is
less than twice the number of factors of N, 3 must be
a factor of N. Thus N can be of the form p2q7, pq2r3 or
pqrs2, where the prime factor raised to the power 2
represents 3. But we cannot determine the number of
factors of N3 with certainty and hence this statement
alone is not sufficient.

29. a

4
5
:
= 2 : 3.
0.3 0.25

Let the total investment (in Rs. crores) made across


the country in 2009 and 2010 be 100x and 100y
respectively.

3x 274 1
x 5
= and =
5y 548 2
y 6

Required percentage change


=
30. b

From Statement B:
As the number of factors of the resultant number is
less than twice the number of factors of N, 5 must be
a factor of N. Thus N can be of the form p3q5 or pq2r3,
where the prime factor raised to the power 3
represents 5. But we cannot determine the number of
factors of N3 with certainty and hence this statement
alone is not sufficient.

600 500
100 = 20%.
500

Let the ages of Komal, Dhara, Jyoti, Sarla and Neha be


represented by K, D, J, S and N respectively. It is given
that S < J, K and N < J < D.
From Statement A:

K +D J+N
.
<
2
2
As we already know that N < J < D, the only possible
case is that K is less than N. From this it can be concluded that S < K < N < J < D. Hence, this statement
alone is sufficient to answer the question.

We have

From Statements A and B:


The only possibility is that N is of the form pq2r3.
N 3 = p 3 q 6 r 9 and the number of factors of
N3 = 4 7 10 = 280.

From Statement B:

D+J K +N
<
.
2
2
As we already know that N < J < D, the only possible
case is that K is more than D. We can conclude that
either S < N < J < D < K or N < S < J < D < K. Hence, this
statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.
We have

27. c

Let the total investment (in Rs. Crores) across the


country in 2009 and 2010 be 100x and 100y
respectively.

56
5x = 700 x = 250
100

15
12y = 450 y = 250
100
The total investment made across the country in 2009
and 2010 is the same i.e. Rs. 25,000 crores.
Required percentage change

31. d

The author follows an analytical style by discussing


the components of microfinance in India -initiation,
strength, definition and types of organizations that
partake in this activity. The author avoids personal
opinion and stays with an analysis that comes across
as unbiased. Option (a) is incorrect as the passage
does not conjure up an image of microfinance nor
does it describe the characteristics of microfinance.
Option (b) is also incorrect because the author does
not instruct the reader on how to obtain microfinance
or on the steps required for entering into this sector.
Option (c) is incorrect because the author does not
provide facts, data, and statistics. The authors aim is
to understand microfinance in India .

32. c

In the second paragraph the author clearly states


option (c). Option (d) is incorrect as this is a criticism
and not a strength. Option (a) and (b) have been
mentioned in the passage but they have not been
given as strengths of the microfinance organizations
in India.

=
28. a

55% 45%
100 = 18.18%.
55%

Investments (in Rs. Crores) made by Gujarat and


Assam together in R&D in:

900
= 300
3
1,350
2010 =
= 450
3

2009 =

Let the total investments (in Rs. Crores) of the two


states together in 2009 and 2010 be x and y
respectively.

Page

300
450
x 4
and =
1.2 =
x
y
y 5

Unproctored Mock-1 2012

33. a

The author brings a distinction between an SHG and a


commercial bank in these statements. According to
the passage, in India the definition changes with the
change in loan giving entity. Option (b) is the exact
opposite of the correct answer. Option (c) does not
provide a reason, It only repeats a statement from the
passage.

34. b

The last paragraph helps understand the reason why


SIFFS started independent microfinance activity. Refer
to the lines For instance... it started providing loans
itself. Options (a),(c) and (d) are all factually incorrect.

35. c

Author has given the example of Homer and The South


American Empire of the Incas to explain how even
without written communication poetry survived and
everyday administrative works could be carried out.
Through these examples he wants to illustrate that
written communication, although important, is not
necessary for survival of a text or of a civilization.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

36. d

37. b

38. d

Page

Refer to the first paragraph Writing, though not


obligatory, is a defining marker of civilization. Without
writing there can be no accumulation of knowledge,
no historical record, no science (though simple
technology may exist), and of course no books,
newspapers, emails, or World Wide Web. Therefore,
option (d) is correct in the light of the information given
in the passage.
The passage deals with some approaches to
institutional reform that Tom ORiordan identifies in his
book Environmentalism. ORiordan describes one of
these strategies in detail. He does not suggest any
particular strategy. So option (a) is incorrect. The author
does not identify the steps necessary for institutional
reform, but describes Ophuls strategy in detail. Hence,
option (d) is also ruled out. The passage does not
describe various approaches to creating an eco-cratic
society but concentrates on Ophuls version of the
same. Hence option (c) is also eliminated.
Although Ophuls stresses on the need for ecological
guardians instead of a democratic setup to ensure
an eco-cratic society, it does not follow that no judicial
decisions can be taken in a democratic society. Option
(a) is incorrect. Ophuls ideology is described as a
green Leviathan because it talks about a political
state where ecology is cared for but democracy is
missing. The statement in option (b) fails to provide a
justified reason for the idealogy being called as green
leviathan (as it misses the environment friendly
aspect) and is thus incorrect. While Ophuls stresses
on the need for a class of ecological guardians, he
dos not mention whether individual accountability will
be proportional to individual capability in such a society.
Option (d) follows from the passage. ORiordan
considers only one position, one centered on the
nation-state, centralized authoritarianism.

39. c

Ophuls stresses the need for ecological guardians.


He also mentions that in the steady state society only
those possessing the ecological and other
competences to make prudent decisions will be
allowed full participation in the political process. He
also says .possess the esoteric knowledge needed
to run it well.. This means that Ophuls assumes that
ecological awareness does not come naturally to
humans. Option (a) is incorrect. In a steady-state
society, population and the means of subsistence
are in balance. This does not assume that resources
will not be limited. Option (b) cannot be inferred from
the passage. Option (d) is incorrect since ecological
and other competences to make prudent decisions is
mentioned.

40. a

DEABC
Sentence D introduces the subject of the paragraph
and is thus the apt opening sentence. As can be seen
in the options that E follows D (the it in E refers to the
significance of recantation). The it in A also refers to
the significance of recantation. Thus, DEA is a
sequence. B follows A as sentence B states that apart
from these questions (raised in E and A) there was
something else too. C answers the questions and
provides a complete picture. Thus it is best suited as
an ending sentence.

41. c

For the first blank both encompass which means to


include a large number or range of things and promote
which means to help something to happen or develop
are appropriate. But for the second blank,
collaboration which means the act of working with
another person or group of people to create or produce
something is more appropriate. Agglomerate means a
mass or collection of things is logically incorrect in the
context of individuals and organization. Moreover the
preposition between works well with collaboration
and of is fit with agglomerate. Hence, option (c) is the
correct option.

42. a

Since the sentence indicates that the budget will be


planned based on income and savings goals these
have to be of a current nature and not planned or
estimated. Logic has to be used in this context to
establish the answer as option a.

43. d

Agree with is correct in the given context. It means


something is suitable/pleasing/ appropriate. It is used
as: agree with a person, opinion or policy. e.g. The
copy agrees with the original. I dont agree with some
of the issues they have raised in the rating rationale.
Our views on religion agree means that our views
are in accord and therefore the sentence is correct.
Agree to her analysis is incorrect. The correct
sentence is I agree with her analysis of the situation.

Unproctored Mock-1 2012

44. c

By is incorrect in this sentence. The correct sentence


should be They traveled on the 6.45 train.
by can be used when we are describing the mode of
transport in general (I traveled by train .). On is used
when we are talking about a particular transport
(train etc ) like the 6.45 train. Therefore (c) is incorrect.
Sit by me means sit beside me

45. c

Station is a countable noun and should be preceded


by an article (a/the). So (1) is incorrect. Yours is
incorrect. The correct possessive form is yours.
Sentences(3) and (4) are correct.

46. c

Sentence (1) is incorrect. The correct expression is


as soon as he arrives. Sentence (3) is incorrect. The
correct expression is what he wants. Sentence (2)
and (4) are correct.

47. a

ABAAA
Slightest means very small in degree<There was not
the slightest hint of trouble.> <He is, without the
slightest doubt, the greatest living novelist.> <He never
had the slightest intention of agreeing to it>. As we are
talking about idea, small or large size does not make
sense. Slightest is a better choice for the first
sentence. Rely on somebody means to depend on
somebody; or to have faith in somebody. Relied is the
correct choice for sentence (2) because of the
preposition on. Request is used when one asks for
something politely and formally whereas demand
carries a hint of authority. I would like suggests that
request is more appropriate than demand in the given
sentence. Have a thin time or going through a thin
time means to have many problems or difficulties to
deal with; to not be successful <Hes had a thin time of
it since losing his job>. So thin time is idiomatically
correct in the given context. Ideal is an adjective and
means perfect whereas idyll is a noun and means a
happy and peaceful place, event or experience,
especially one connected with the countryside; a short
poem or other piece of writing that describes a peaceful
and happy scene. So ideal is the correct choice.

Page

48. b

AAAAA
As is used to describe the fact that somebody/
something has a particular job or function <She works
as a courier> <Treat me as a friend> <I respect him as
a doctor>. Of means belonging to something; being
part of something; relating to something <the lid of the
box> <the director of the company> < a member of the
team>. So, as is appropriate in the given context.
Causal means expressing or indicating cause <the
causal relationship between poverty and disease>.
Casual means not showing much care or thought;
seeming not to be worried; not wanting to show that
something is important to you. So causal is the apt
word for the given sentence. Custom which means
an accepted way of behaving or of doing things in a
society or a community is the apt word for the third
sentence. Suspect means to have an idea that
something is probably true or likely to happen,
especially something bad, but without having definite
proof. So suspect is correct for the fourth sentence.
Economics (noun), as used here, means the way in
which money influences, or is organized within an
area of business or society. Economic (adjective)
means profitable < Small local shops stop being
economic when a supermarket opens up nearby>.
Because we need a noun in the given sentence,
therefore economics is the apt word.

49. b

The paragraph is a first person narrative and ends


with a description of Byron and his relations. The
author has used Byron to show contrast between
him and Byron. It should be followed by the sentence
that continues the talk about relations to the art and
culture and provides the comparison by presenting
the authors relations. Hence, option b is the correct
option.

50. c

The paragraph talks about the lengthy poems losing


their charm in the current age. Author does not really
appear to endorse this idea while talking of Bothwell.
He says we would not like being deprived of the
Bothwell of Mr. Swineburne despite its large size. He
is inclined to say that size should not be a criterion for
judging a poem. A sentence that expresses the same
is required to complete the paragraph. Hence, option
(c) fits the bill. Option (b) is incorrect as it talks about
the subject of a work of art rather than the beauty of
a work of art.

Unproctored Mock-1 2012

For questions 51 to 53:


The given information can be tabulated as shown below.

Name
Aman
Bharti
Charu
Dishank
Eric
Farhan
Gaurav
Hitesh
Inder
Jatin
Kamal
Lalit

Profession
Manager
Professor
Accountant
Accountant
Manager
Manager
Professor

Accountant
Manager
Professor

Mumbai
1
1
2

Delhi
1
2
1

As three people who work in Mumbai are already known,


Kamal and Dishank must be working in Delhi. As Jatin is a
Manager working in Kolkata, Bharti must be working in Mumbai
and Aman and Eric must be working in Kolkata. As Aman is not
an Accountant, he must be a Professor and Eric must be an
Accountant. Therefore, Charu also must be an Accountant.
Hence, one of Gaurav and Dishank is a Manager and the other
is a Professor. The final table can be shown as given below.

Name
Aman
Bharti
Charu
Dishank
Eric
Farhan
Gaurav
Hitesh
Inder
Jatin
Kamal
Lalit

Eric is an Accountant working in Kolkata.

54. c

Let Santro, Wagon R, Zen, Ritz, Yuva, Innova, Corolla,


Matiz, Xylo and Scorpio be represented by S, W, Z, R,
Y, I, C, M, X and Sc respectively. The arrangement can
be started by fixing the positions of Z and Sc at the
extreme left of the two rows. X can be parked either
to the immediate right of Z/Sc or in the middle of the
row. If X is parked in the middle of the row, statement
(iv) is violated. Further analysis leads to the following
table:

City
Mumbai
Mumbai
Delhi
Delhi
Kolkata
Kolkata
Mumbai

It can be easily deduced that the number of different


professionals working in each of the three cities is as given
below.

Kolkata
2
1
1

53. d

Profession
Professor
Manager
Accountant
Manager/Professor
Accountant
Professor
Professor/Manager
Accountant
Accountant
Manager
Manager
Professor

52. d

Apart from Kamal, either Dishank or Gaurav could be


the other Manager working in Delhi.

Page

Row II

Zen/
Scorpio

Xylo

Ritz

Yuva

Scorpio/
Zen
Santro

For questions 55 and 56:


Let Saurabh, Yubraj, Vajendar, Gombzi and Ambata be
represented by S, Y, V, G and A respectively. Let Delhi Devils
and Kolkata Riders be represented by DD and KR respectively.
From statement (ii), either 2nd-3rd players or 3rd-4th players
were the two batsmen. Therefore, the player picked 3rd was
definitely a batsman and the players picked 1st and 5th were
bowlers. From statement (iv), A and Y could be either 1st and
4th players or 2nd and 5th players, in no particular order. From
statement (iii), Y could not be the player picked 1st or 5th.
55. a

Order of
Selection

Bowl

Bat

Bat

Bowl

Bowl

Player

S/G

G/S

Team

DD

KR

KR

DD

Order of
Selection

Bowl

Bowl

Bat

Bat

Bowl

Player

S/G

G/S

Team

DD

KR

KR

DD

Or

Hence, Yubraj was definitely not a batsman picked by


Delhi Devils.
56. b

Charu is an Accountant working in Mumbai.

Innova Corolla Wagon R Matiz

Therefore, the number of cars parked between Corolla


and Matiz cannot be the same as the number of cars
parked between Scorpio and Xylo.

City
Kolkata
Mumbai
Mumbai
Delhi
Kolkata
Mumbai
Delhi
Delhi
Kolkata
Kolkata
Delhi
Mumbai

51. c

Row I

If Saurabh was a bowler, then Gombzi was definitely


a batsman picked 3rd.

Unproctored Mock-1 2012

57. a

Let heights of Ashu, Banu, Charu, Diya, Ellie and Fana


be represented by A, B, C, D, E and F respectively.
The Science student mentioned should be Ashu only.
From the first statement, E > D > A and B > A.
From the second statement, C > A > F.
Therefore, Fana is the shortest among the six students.

For questions 58 to 60:


In one group the number of matches won by different players
were 3, 2, 1 and 0. In the other group the number of matches
won by different players were 2, 2, 1 and 1. For the two
players who played the final, the number of matches won by
them in Round-I could be either 3 or 2 and they must have won
their respective matches in Round-II.
As Sonu lost exactly two matches in the tournament, he must
have lost a match in Round-I and the final match. Thus it can be
concluded that the number of matches won by Kishan, Karan
and Arjun in Round-I was one each. As Ram and Kishan were
in the same group in Round-I, Ram must have lost all his matches
in Round-I and hence it can be concluded that Karan and Arjun
were in the same group in Round-I. As Lakhan won more
matches than Gopi, both of them were in the same group as
Ram and Kishan. The conclusions can be tabulated as shown
below:

Page

10

Round-I:
Group I

Lakhan (3), Gopi (2), Kishan (1), Ram (0)

Group II

Sonu (2), Monu (2), Karan (1), Arjun (1)

Round-II:

Sonu - Lakhan/Monu

Gopi - Lakhan/Monu

Round-III:

Sonu - Gopi
58. b

Gopi won the tournament.

59. d

The difference between the numbers of matches won


by Gopi and Monu respectively in the tournament was
two.

60. b

The total number of matches won by Lakhan in the


tournament was 3.

Unproctored Mock-1 2012

Unproctored Mock-2 2012


Section I
1.

2.

How many positive integer values of a are possible such that a + 220 is an integer?
a+4
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) 16
In ABC, D is the midpoint of BC. E is a point on AC such that AE : EC = 2 : 1 and F is a point on
AB such that AF : FB = 3 : 1. Line segments AD and FE intersect at point O. What is the ratio of the
area of DOF to the area of DOE?
(a) 8 : 9
(b) 9 : 8

(c) 3 : 4

(d) 4 : 3

3.

Pia and Ria start running simultaneously from the same point on a circular track of length 4200 m.
If they run in opposite directions, they meet for the first time exactly after 2 minutes from the start
and they meet at seven distinct points on the track. If they run in the same direction, they meet at
three distinct points on the track. How much time (in minutes) does Ria take to complete one round,
if she is the slower runner?
(a) 3.5
(b) 7
(c) 10.5
(d) None of these

4.

In a test consisting of 15 questions, 3 marks are awarded for a correct answer, 1 mark is deducted
for an incorrect answer and no mark is awarded for an unattempted question. If a student attempts
at least one question in the paper, what is the number of distinct scores that he can get?
(a) 57
(b) 58
(c) 59
(d) None of these

5.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Mark (d) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Q. Each student in a class opts for one of the two foreign languages French and Spanish. Six
boys opt for French and eight girls opt for Spanish. What is the maximum possible number of girls
who opt for French?
A. The total number of students in the class is 35.
B. The students who opt for Spanish are fewer than the students who opt for French.

6.

A man, starting from a point P, takes exactly six equal steps. Each step is in one of the four
directions East, West, North and South. What is the total number of ways in which the man ends
up at point P after the six steps?
(a) 200
(b) 256
(c) 400
(d) 512

Page

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

7.

What is the remainder obtained when the sum of the squares of any thirty consecutive natural
numbers is divided by 12?
(a) 0
(b) 3
(c) 11
(d) Cannot be determined

8.

What is the area (in square units) of the quadrilateral ABCD formed by the points A(0, 0), B(6, 0),
C(8, 4) and D(2, 8) in the x-y plane?
(a) 40
(b) 32
(c) 56
(d) 48

9.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Mark (d) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Q. If (347)x (467)y = N, where x and y are positive integers, then what is the unit digit of N?
A. x + y = 9
B. x = 5

10.

If a2 + b2 = 1, c2 + d2 = 1 and ac + bd = 0, where a, b, c and d are real numbers, then what is the


value of a2 + c2?
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) Cannot be determined

11.

A container is filled up to half of its total volume with liquids L1 and L2 in the ratio 3 : 7. L1 and L2
evaporate at the rate of 25 litre/hr and 20 litre/hr respectively. After an hour the container is filled
completely by adding another mixture which contains L1 and L2 in the ratio 2 : 3. The final ratio of L1
and L2 in the container becomes 1 : 2. What is the volume (in litres) of the container?
(a) 300
(b) 360
(c) 420
(d) 480

Page

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

Directions for questions 12 and 13: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Pie Chart I and Pie Chart II show the percentage break-up of the Total Expenditure of Vidyapeeth and
Christ College respectively in the year 2010. Pie Chart III shows the percentage break-up of the combined
expenditure on Charity by the two colleges in 2010.

Others
18%

Maintenance
15%

Others
5%

Maintenance
20%

Salary Paid
25%

Salary Paid
12%
Electricity
5%

Rent
10%

Rent
30%

Charity
15%

Charity
20%

Electricity
25%

II

NGO
20%
Others
25%

Children Welfare
20%
Widows
35%

III
12.

If Vidyapeeths expenditure on Charity was double the combined expenditure of the two colleges
on Children Welfare, then what was the ratio of the Total Expenditure of Vidyapeeth to that of
Christ College in 2010?
(a) 8 : 9
(b) 9 : 8
(c) 7 : 8
(d) None of these

13.

If Vidyapeeths expenditure on Electricity was one-fifth that of Christ College, then find the combined
expenditure of the two colleges on NGO as a percentage of the Total Expenditure of Vidyapeeth
in 2010.
(a) 10%
(b) 14%
(c) 12%
(d) None of these

Page

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

Directions for questions 14 and 15: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In a class of 96 students, each student opts for at least one of the three subjects Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics. It is also known that:
(i)
The number of students who opt for Physics only is equal to the number of students who opt for
Mathematics only and is also equal to twice the number of students who opt for both Mathematics
and Physics but not Chemistry.
(ii)
The number of students who opt for exactly two subjects is 25.
(iii)
The number of students who opt for Chemistry is 31.
(iv)
Among those who opt for Chemistry, 13 students opt for at least two subjects.
14.

If the number of students who opt for Mathematics is the maximum among the three subjects, then
what is the maximum possible number of students who opt for both Physics and Chemistry but not
Mathematics?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) Cannot be determined

15.

Which additional piece of information is required to find the exact number of students who opt for
both Chemistry and Mathematics but not Physics?
(a) The number of students who opt for exactly one of the three subjects is 70.
(b) Only one student opts for all the three subjects.
(c) The number of students who opt for Mathematics is 50.
(d) The number of students who opt for Mathematics only is 26.

16.

In the figure given below, C is a point inside the square PQRS. If PC = 6 m, QC = 8 m and
SC = 10 m, then find the length of RC.

P
C

S
(a) 9 2 m

(b) 8 3 m

R
(c) 8 2 m

(d) 9 3 m

17.

A company took a loan for three years at 20% p.a. C.I. with annual compounding. It repaid the entire
loan amount in three equal annual installments of Rs. 21.60 crores each. What was the amount of
the loan (in Rs.) taken by the company?
(a) 45.50 crores
(b) 45.50 lakhs
(c) 37.50 crores
(d) 37.50 lakhs

18.

The sum of the digits of a four-digit number is 31. What fraction of such numbers are divisible by 11?
(a)

Page

1
4

(b)

1
5

(c) 1
6

(d) None of these

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

19.

Aman, Baman and Chaman can finish a job working alone in 15, 20 and 25 days respectively.
However, while working with somebody the efficiency of Aman, Baman and Chaman reduces by
30%, 20% and 50% respectively. If none of them is allowed to work for three consecutive days, then
what is the maximum possible fraction of the job that they can complete in four days?
(a)

21
50

(b)

17
50

(c)

8
25

(d)

1
3

Directions for questions 20 and 21: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The bar graph given below shows the population (in lakhs) of two countries - Amberland and Marryland - in
each year from 2004 to 2009.
1800

1688

Population (in lakhs)

1600
1370

1400

1264

1200

1100 1050

1000
800

1480 1440

1184

Amberland

800 840

Marryland

682 718

600
400
200
0
2004

2005

2006

2007

2008

2009

Year

20.

For which two years was the percentage increase in the population of Marryland over the previous
year the same?
(a) 2006 and 2008
(b) 2007 and 2009
(c) 2004 and 2007
(d) None of these

21.

If the percentage increase in the population of Amberland in 2010 over 2009 was the same as that in
2006 over 2005, then what was the population (in lakhs) of Amberland in the year 2010?
(a) 2040
(b) 1980
(c) 1800
(d) None of these

22.

The function f(x) is defined for all positive values of x and y as f(xy) = f(x) + f(y). Also, f(2) = 2 and

32
f(3) = 3. What is the value of f
?
27
(a) 1
Page

(b)

5
3

(c) 10

(d) None of these


Unproctored Mock-2 2012

23.

a and b are natural numbers such that a > b > 1. If 8! is divisible by a2 b2, then how many such
sets (a, b) are possible?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8

24.

Appurv and Vikram play a game in which they roll a 6-faced die alternately starting with Appurv.
Each of them keeps on adding the numbers rolled by him and the first one to get to a sum of at least
3 wins the game. What is the probability of Vikram winning the game?
(a)

25.

2
9

(b)

293
6

(c)

299

(d) None of these

64

The figure given below shows two circles with centers C1 and C2 and radii 2 cm and 4 cm respectively such that C1C2 = 9 cm. Two common tangents, l1 and l2, are drawn to the circles and they
intersect the line passing through C1 and C2 at points A and B respectively. What is the length (in
cm) of AB?

I1
I2
A

(a) 27
26.

(b) 21

C2

(c) 18

(d) 12

The density of milk at 25C is 1000 g/litre and it varies with temperature according to the following
relation:
dt = 2500 kt, where dt = density of milk (at temperature t) in g/litre, t = temperature in C and k
is a constant.
A milkman buys milk from a place where the temperature is 25C and sells it at a place where the
temperature is 30C. If he claims to buy and sell milk at the same price (in Rs./litre), then what is the
profit made by him?
(a)

27.

C1

80
%
3

(b)

200
%
7

(c)

100
%
3

(d)

300
%
7

w, x, y and z are natural numbers such that:


(i) logy x =

3
2

5
4
(iii) y z = 9
(ii) logz w =

What is the value of x w?


(a) 81
(b) 117
Page

(c) 93

(d) 109
Unproctored Mock-2 2012

Directions for questions 28 and 29: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Fifteen countries participated in a competition organized by International Math Organization in the year
2010. There were three rounds in the competition and the countries were awarded non-negative integer
points in all the rounds. Round1 had two stages StageX and StageY and the points scored in
Round1 were the sum of the points scored in the two stages. The Final Score was the sum of the points
scored in Round1, Round2 and Round3. The country with the highest, the second highest and the third
highest Final Scores received the Gold, the Silver and the Bronze medals respectively. Also, the Final
Scores of no two countries were found to be equal.
The table given below has partial information about the points scored by different countries.
Country

StageX

StageY

Argentina
Brazil
Canada
Denmark
Egypt
France
Germany
Hungary
India
Japan
Kenya
Libya
Malaysia
Netherlands
Oman

1072
864
865
3612
2374
3918
4852
5853
6658
6081
795
919
1371
1555
2128

1337
2155
2128
3978
5294
6371
7766
9642
9747
2327
3292
3000
3362
3135

Round1
(X+Y)
2409
3019
2993
7668
11223
13619

3122
4211
4371
4917
5263

Round2

Round3

405
424
410
1083
1465
1083
1181

1019
885
890
2239
3165
3950
4916
4963
5649
5987
1096
1284
1528
1595
1719

1652
2398
439
549
672
769
806

Final
Score
3833
4328
4293
10912

17320

28.

Hungary won the Silver medal and France got the fourth highest Final Score. What is the least
number of points that Hungary must have scored in Round2?
(a) 5020
(b) 4438
(c) 5010
(d) None of these

29.

France won the Bronze medal and Hungary got the fourth highest Final Score. What is the least
number of points that France must have scored in StageY of Round1?
(a) 8361
(b) 8371
(c) 7861
(d) None of these

30.

What is value of 10.11.12.13 + 11.12.13.14 + + 96.97.98.99?


(a) 1806869592
(b) 1806869594
(c) 1806869596

Page

(d) 1806869598

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

Section II
Directions for questions 31 to 33: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
I was recently shocked to read that several city councils in the UK are getting ready to expunge everyday
Latin words from the English lexicon. Along with via and etc would be banished viz and i.e., not to
speak of inter alia and bona fide. There goes away that exotic literary advantage. It was only recently that
Amrita, my 10-year-old, fighting against a tide of domestic protestations voted against romantic French
and prevalent Spanish and chose Latin as her second language in middle school. I had cheered her and
actually promised to help out with the homework, given that three out of five words in English are of Latin
origin. Blame this vicarious decision on my formative years but growing up in Mumbai, Latin was never an
option in my school, as our national language Hindi was strictly enforced. Shiv Sainiks had decreed that
local Marathi was de rigueur for all citizens of the city. I therefore ended up needing to speak three
additional languages, not to forget Tamil, my mother tongue.
Languages rarely heard have always fascinated me. I always had this burning desire to speak them,
particularly when my travel stints exposed me to the strangest of tongues. Language CDs didnt help me
a whole lot. The thing about languages is that though you may be gifted with the art of penmanship, spoken
word skills are mostly inherited or acquired after birth. I have always packed my dog-eared phrasebook
along with my toothbrush and shaving cream for my travels. These havent helped me much either, often
eliciting that controlled giggle or even outright laughter at my stuttered attempts. Printed words wont tell
you that Thai is a tonal language with grammatical minefields or Mandarin and Cantonese have a lilt to
them flowing like Indian ink applied with a Chinese brush. These city councils argue that they needed to
create a language devoid of such linguistic minefields. However, there could be far-reaching consequences
in the professional community. Just like abstruse scientific papers and brain-twisting mathematical theorems,
legal documents are made to sound pompous with Latin words sprinkled generously all over those reams
of printed matter. With Latin slowly oozing out of our English dictionary our lawyers will be hard-pressed to
retain their mystifying status quo.
31.

Which of the following is a suitable title for the passage?


(a) My Fascination with Languages
(b) Languages Seldom Spoken
(c) Should English be pruned?
(d) Latin: The Legal Language

32.

According to the passage, why did the author choose to help his daughter?
(a) The author felt that his daughters choice of language was relevant in light of its close links with
English.
(b) The author felt that his daughters choice of language was justified given that he had never been
allowed to study Latin.
(c) The author felt that his daughters choice of language was practical and much better than
romantic French and prevalent Spanish.
(d) The author felt that his daughters choice of language was relevant since it would give her an
exotic literary advantage.

Page

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

33.

According to the passage, why have councils in the UK decided to remove Latin from the English
lexicon?
(a) They feel that the linguistic hurdles in Latin make it difficult to gain mastery over it.
(b) They want to create a language that does not have the linguistic problems associated with the
use of Latin.
(c) They find themselves unable to overcome the linguistic hurdles provided by Latin.
(d) They want to create a language that will help them remove the ambiguities associated with the
use of Latin which has now become an obsolete language.

Directions for questions 34 to 36: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Henry Tyrrell, art critic of The New York World, now replies with the question Is Chesterton Sane?
Apparently, his conclusion is that Chesterton is misled by his head, though his heart is in the right place.
Chesterton said: It was the whole point of Whistler and his school that they produced the picture without
troubling about the meaning. We may say it is the point of Picasso and the rest to paint the meaning
without troubling about the picture.
Henry Tyrrell, quoting Elie Faure, writer of the greatest history of art of recent years, says: Picasso was
undoubtedly a great criminal, in the sense that he is largely responsible for the muddle which painting has
got into latterly. It is from him chiefly that the younger artists have taken the notion of looking within
themselves to interpret the outer world, instead of, like their elders, looking at the outside world to realize
themselves. Because oftentimes they are unable to distinguish much of anything within themselves, you
know what happens (They get themselves called crazy). That is Picassos crime. But Michael Angelo
shares his guilt, and Rembrandt, and Delacroix, and Cezanne.
From this, Mr. Tyrrell concludes that Chesterton is quite wrong about Picasso and the mad modern artists.
However, though it certainly is not crazy, modern art, according to M. Faure he is in a muddle. It is lost
and groping its way in its search for new forms, and this naturally troubles such conservatives as Chesterton.
The followers of Michael Angelo (individualists, like Picasso) represented a definite decline in Italian art.
Are the imitators of Picasso also on the wrong track?
Some of them seem to think so, for they are attempting, in their latest craze for being primitive, a thing
really opposed to the earlier phase. They are trying to get back to the unspoiled vision of a child or a
savage; which is the same as looking out instead of in.
Mr. Chesterton also objects to this phase, as being an affectation. He is convinced that modern artists are
mad, whatever they choose to do.
34.

What is the central purpose of the passage?


(a) To bring forward the unending debate on the concept of modern art.
(b) To discuss the views of Henry Tyrell and Chesterton on modern art and artists.
(c) To discuss and critically analyze the views of the art critic Chesterton.
(d) To discuss and critically analyze the views of Chesterton and Henry Tyrell.

Page

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

35.

According to Elie Faure, how are the younger artists different from their elder ones?
(a) The paintings of the younger artists are a reflection of how the outer world impresses itself on the
inner being of the artist.
(b) The paintings of the younger artists reflect the outer world as they interpret it within themselves.
(c) The paintings of the younger artists are inspired by Picassos style and they followed his
interpretation of the outside world.
(d) Their paintings are an expression of their independent thinking as opposed to the elder artists.

36.

What is the role of the first paragraph in this passage?


(a) It indicates that Chesterton is misguided in his approach to art in general.
(b) It introduces the conflicting opinions of Tyrrell and Chesterton on art.
(c) It brings forward Tyrrells opinion on the subject of modern art.
(d) It indicates that Tyrrell and Chesterton are two contemporaries who are at odds with each other.

Directions for questions 37 and 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Each of the six people Panchi, Qureshi, Radha, Sonal, Tarun and Umesh studies exactly two subjects
among the four Physiology, Ecology, Cell Theory and Genetics. No two persons among the six have the
same combination of two subjects. Each person chooses one of the two subjects as Major and the other
as Minor. It is also known that:
(i)
The Minor subject of Qureshi and Radha is the same.
(ii)
The Major subject of Umesh and Radha is the same.
(iii)
The Major subject of Panchi is Physiology and the Minor subject of Sonal is Ecology.
(iv)
The Major subject of Tarun is Cell Theory, which is not true for Radha.
(v)
The Major subject of both Qureshi and Sonal is the same as the Minor subject of Umesh.
37.

Which are the two subjects studied by Radha?


(a) Physiology and Genetics
(b) Physiology and Cell Theory
(c) Ecology and Cell Theory
(d) Genetics and Ecology

38.

Who among the following doesnt study Ecology?


(a) Panchi
(b) Tarun
(c) Sonal

(d) Qureshi

Directions for questions 39 to 41: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Each of the six people Akshita, Babita, Chintan, Devina, Engela and Farooq works in a different
department among Marketing, Finance, Operations, Academics, IT and HR and belongs to a different city
among Dhaka, Kashipur, Meerut, Bikaner, Jaipur and Pune, in no particular order. It is also known that:
(i)
The person who works in Operations belongs to Kashipur.
(ii)
Neither Akshita nor Devina belongs to Bikaner.
(iii)
Akshita works in neither IT nor Marketing. The same is true for Farooq.
(iv)
Devina works in HR and belongs to neither Jaipur nor Pune.
(v)
Babita belongs to Dhaka and doesnt work in Finance.
(vi)
The person who works in Academics belongs to neither Jaipur nor Pune. The same is true for the
person who works in Finance.
39.

Page

Who works in Operations?


(a) Akshita
(b) Chintan

10

(c) Engela

(d) None of these


Unproctored Mock-2 2012

40.

41.

Who works in Finance?


(a) Akshita
(b) Chintan

(c) Engela

The person who works in Academics belongs to which city?


(a) Jaipur
(b) Dhaka
(c) Meerut

(d) Farooq

(d) None of these

Directions for questions 42 to 44: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
The data suggest Indians are scaling corporate heights. In a study of S&P 500 companies, Egon Zehnder
found more Indian CEOs than any other nationality except American. Indians lead seven companies;
Canadians, four. Among the C-suite executives in the 2009 FORTUNE 500 were two mainland Chinese,
two North American Chinese and 13 Indians, according to a study by two professors from Wharton and
China Europe International Business School.
For multinationals, it makes good sense to have leaders experienced in working with expanding Asian
markets. And India is already the location of many of their operations. If you look at companies like Pepsi
or Hewlett-Packard or IBM, a huge chunk of their global workforce is sitting out in India, says Anshuman
Das, a co-founder of CareerNet, a Bangalore executive-search company. India and China are also the
countries of future profits for the multinationals, so they may want their global leaders to come out of them.
Competitive and complex, India has evolved from a poorly run, centrally controlled economy into the perfect
Petri dish in which to grow a 21st century CEO. The Indians are the friendly and familiar faces of Asia,
says Ader. They think in English, theyre used to multinationals in their country, theyre very adaptive, and
theyre supremely confident. The subcontinent has been global for centuries, having endured, and absorbed,
waves of foreign colonizers, from the Mughals to the British. Practiced traders and migrants, Indians have
impressive transnational networks. The earth is full of Indians, wrote Salman Rushdie. We get everywhere.
Unlike, say, a Swede or a German, an Indian executive is raised in a multiethnic, multifaith, multilingual
society, one nearly as diverse as the modern global marketplace.
Unlike Americans, theyre well versed in negotiating Indias byzantine bureaucracy, a key skill to have in
emerging markets. And unlike the Chinese, they can handle the messiness of a litigious democracy. In
China, you want something done, you talk to a bureaucrat and a politician it gets done, observes Ajay.
In India, if you talk to a bureaucrat or a politician, there are going to be 600 other people with their own
points of view. Theres an old saying about Asian business cultures: The Chinese roll out the red carpet;
Indians roll out the red tape.
Maybe thats why Indian managers are good at managing it. They have cut their teeth in a country ranked
134th by the World Bank for ease of doing business. To be fair, its also the reason some of them left home.
Theyre practiced in the exasperating culture of local, state and national permits. To build a factory in
China, a CEO will have to get two or three different permissions from various departments, observes Signe
Spencer, a co-author of The Indian CEO, a 2007 study from the HayGroup consultancy. An Indian CEO
may have to get 80 different permissions from 80 different places. No wonder Indian executives spend
much of their time networking and lobbying tasks Western CEOs leave to their corporate public-affairs
departments.
42.

Page

It can be inferred that the style of the passage is


(a) Factual
(b) Didactic
(c) Analytical

11

(d) Argumentative

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

43.

Which of the following is the best analogy for the Indian executives advantage over his Chinese
counterpart?
(a) Structured: Constrained
(b) Constrained: Structured
(c) Control: Autonomy
(d) Restrictions: Autonomy

44.

It can be inferred that the author will move on to discuss


(a) further points of comparison between the Indian and the Chinese executive.
(b) further specific points on how Indian executives are able to manage bureaucratic hurdles.
(c) further points that substantiate why the Indian executive will always scale corporate heights.
(d) further points on the how the Indian executive scores over executives from countries other than
China.

45.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
Rake
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

46.

When the dotcom boom occurred in the 1990s, his company raked in more than $300 million.
She asked him to stop raking up the past at the slightest excuse.
The manager raked me around the coals for being late again.
She got a 5% rake-off from the deal.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
Scrape
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

47.

Bringing up that minor legal point proves that youre scraping the bottom of the barrel.
I might scrape out the exam if Im lucky.
After many attempts he managed to scrape into an Ivy League college.
Her parents were able to scrape up the money to send their daughter to an international business
school.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
Talk
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Page

12

You cant have a real conversation with himhe just talks at you all the time.
I didnt want to move abroad but Bill talked me over it.
Can you talk me through the various investment options?
They talked up the tourist attractions to encourage more visitors.

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

Directions for questions 48 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A company has five directors Parjit, Manjit, Charjit, Daljit and Jasjit. Two of the directors are females. All
the directors have different ages. Their annual incomes (in Rs. Lakhs) are 40, 45, 50, 60 and 75, in no
particular order. It is also known that:
(i)
The director with the least annual income is not the oldest. The director with the highest annual
income is older than one of the two female directors and younger than the other.
(ii)
The absolute difference between the annual incomes of Manjit and Daljit is Rs. 15 lakhs.
(iii)
The annual income of Charjit is not the highest among the five directors.
(iv)
The annual income of the older female director is more than that of the younger female director.
(v)
Manjit is the youngest among the male directors and Jasjit is the older of the two female directors.
Parjit was older than both Manjit and Jasjit.
(vi)
The annual income of one among Parjit, Daljit and Jasjit is the average of the annual incomes of the
other two.
48.

What is the annual income (in Rs. Lakhs) of Parjit?


(a) 40
(b) 45
(c) 50

(d) Cannot be determined

49.

What is the annual income (in Rs. Lakhs) of the oldest among the five directors?
(a) 45
(b) 50
(c) 60
(d) 75

50.

What is the absolute difference (in Rs. Lakhs) between the annual incomes of the younger female
director and the youngest male director?
(a) 10
(b) 30
(c) 15
(d) None of these

51.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Afghanistan is so dependent on foreign aid that it could face an economic crisis when the West
ends its military intervention in the country in 2014, a United States Senate report warned yesterday,
criticizing the way the US had sunk billions into unsustainable projects in the shattered country.
The US is spending $320m (195m) a month in Afghanistan on reconstruction projects alone and
has spent $18.8bn since it invaded in 2001. President Barack Obama's administration has requested
a further $3.2bn for projects in the coming fiscal year.
(a) The U.S. program of assistance to Afghanistan confers long-term stability to the Afghan geopolitical
environment and blunts popular support for extremist forces in the region.
(b) Hence, there are plans to increase direct funding, but only when ministries are able to execute
the development funds that they do receive, and do so accountably.
(c) However, a number of humanitarian situations in Afghanistan, most stemming from the years of
war that preceded the U.S. intervention, need to be addressed first.
(d) Yet the expensive nation-building efforts haven't utilized Afghanistan's resources effectively.

Page

13

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

52.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
One area of specialization that Im particularly skeptical of, is Computers. In recent years, a lot of
hoopla has surrounded the arrival of computers in the classroom. Frankly, Im not so sure that the
ability to work a computer is all that essential to the future of this world. After all, what is a computer?
Its a sort of brain that you can numbly call on with your fingers to obtain information.
(a) This information is by and large needed, thus making computers a necessity.
(b) But what are you going to do with all that information once you get it?
(c) There are several other specializations much more important for the future of this world, than
computers.
(d) What for then do we require computers? We can very well progress without these.

53.

All the students of a class are standing in a row. Some data regarding five of the students Naman,
Randhir, Karthik, Pratham and Swati is given below.
(i) Twenty four students are standing between Naman and Randhir.
(ii) Thirty six students are standing between Naman and Karthik.
(iii) Twelve students are standing between Pratham and Karthik.
(iv) Swati is standing exactly in the middle of Naman and Pratham.
(v) Randhir is standing somewhere between Swati and Karthik.
What is the strength of the class if the students standing at the two ends of the row are two of these
five students only?
(a) 38
(b) 51
(c) 63
(d) Cannot be determined

54.

Fardeen distributed 18 chocolates among five children Amit, Bimal, Chatur, Deepak and Ehsan
such that each child received at least one chocolate. The number of chocolates received by each of
them was distinct. Deepak received two chocolates more than Ehsan. Amit received more chocolates
than Chatur but fewer than Ehsan. Bimal received more chocolates than Ehsan. Bimal did not
receive the highest number of chocolates among the five. What was the absolute difference between
the number of chocolates received by Amit and Bimal?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) Cannot be determined

55.

Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most appropriate one.
A. But its not always easy to find one with genuine value that you connect with.
B. There are literally thousands of them written on the same topic every year.
C. So deciphering the good from the great can prove to be quite a challenge.
D. Thats because, these days, books and online articles are a dime a dozen.
E. Its fairly easy to find a well-written book or an online article.
(a) EADBC

56.

Page

(b) EADCB

(c) EDABC

(d) EBCDA

Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most appropriate one.
A. This felicity of forgetfulness lasted but half an hour.
B. Soon the lights went out and the show started a Tamil film with all the known gods in it.
C. He sat rapt in the vision of a heavenly world which some film director had chosen to present.
D. Soon the heroine of the story sat on a low branch of a tree in paradise and wouldnt move out of
the place.

14

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

E. He soon lost himself in the politics and struggles of gods and goddesses.
(a) DBAEC
57.

(b) EACBD

(c) BECAD

(d) CABED

Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most appropriate one.
A. When they move to another flower to feed, some of the pollen can rub off onto this new plants
stigma.
B. They are not trying to pollinate the plant.
C. Usually they are at the plant to get food, the sticky pollen or sweet nectar made at the base of
the petals.
D. When animals such as bees, butterflies, moths, flies, and hummingbirds pollinate plants, its
accidental.
E. When feeding, the animals accidentally rub against the stamens and get pollen stuck all over
themselves.
(a) EABDC

(b) DBCEA

(c) DCABE

(d) EADBC

58.

There are two gaps in the sentence/paragraph given below. From the pairs of words given, choose
the one that fills the gaps most appropriately.
After two days of__________when teams representing competitors and stakeholders role-played
against a company teamthe executives understood that a strong competitor on the sidelines
was likely to enter the market_________.
(a) reflection, tactfully
(b) simulations, aggressively
(c) fabrications, shortly
(d) discussions, energetically

59.

Given below are a few sentences. Identify the sentence(s)/ part(s) of the sentence(s) that is/are
correct in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency).
Then choose the most appropriate option.
A. Ren Descartes had a short working life and it begin late.
B. He did not get down to sustained research in philosophy and the natural sciences until 1628.
C. Had he confined himself to the natural sciences his achievement would be remarkable enough.
D. But his range was, in fact, considerably wider.
(a) B & C

60.

(c) A & D

(d) B & D

Given below are a few sentences. Identify the sentence(s) part(s) of the sentence(s) that is/are
incorrect in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency).
Then choose the most appropriate option.
A. The ancient Greeks believed that everything is made from a few basic elements.
B. The idea was basically correct; it were the details that were wrong.
C. Their earth, air, fire, and water are made of what today we know as the chemical elements.
D. Pure water is made from two elements: hydrogen and oxygen.
(a) A & C

Page

(b) A & B

15

(b) B & C

(c) Only B

(d) D & A

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

Unproctored Mock-2 2012


Answers and Explanations
1

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

Page

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

1. a

From Statement A:
There are 35 students in the class.
6 + a + b + 8 = 35
a + b = 21
In order to maximise a, we have to minimise b.
Since the question doesnt say that there has to be at
least one boy who opts for Spanish, the minimum value
of b can be 0 and hence the maximum value of a will
be 21. This statement alone is sufficient to answer the
question.

a + 220 a + 4 + 216
216
=
= 1+
a+4
a+4
a+4
Therefore, (a + 4) must be a factor of 216.
The number of factors of 216 = 16
But (a + 4) cannot be equal to 1, 2, 3 and 4 as a has
to be a positive integer.
Total possible values = 16 4 = 12
A

2. b

3 x
F

2y
O

From Statement B:
The information given in the statement is clearly
insufficient to answer the question.
E

6. c
C

Let area (in sq. units) of DBF be .


As AF : FB = 3 : 1, area (in sq. units) of
(i)
AFD will be 3 .
(The areas of triangles with the same vertex and bases
on the same straight line are in the ratio of the lengths
of their bases.)

Case I: 3 N and 3 S

6!
= 20
3!3!
Case II: 1 N, 1 S, 2 E and 2 W
Total arrangements =

Let area (in sq. units) of DCE be .


As AE : EC = 2 : 1, area (in sq. units) of

6!
= 180
2!2!
Case III: 2 N, 2 S, 1 E and 1 W
Total arrangements =

(ii)
AED will be 2
As BD = DC, using equations (i) and (ii), we get
4 = 3 i.e.

3
=
4

Total arrangements =

Let and be 3a and 4a respectively.

Case IV: 3 E and 3 W

Let area (in sq. units) of FOD be x and area (in sq.

Total arrangements =

9a x 8a y
x 9
=
and = i.e. 9 : 8
x
y
y 8

Let the ratio of the speeds (in m/s) of Pia and Ria be
x : y, where x > y.
x + y = 7 and x y = 3.
So x = 5 and y = 2.
Let their respective speeds (in m/s) be 5a and 2a.

4200
= 120 and a = 5
2a + 5a
The time taken by Ria to complete one round

4200
=
= 420 sec. or 7 minutes.
10
4. b

A student can get any integer score from 15 to 45,


except 44, 43 and 40. So the answer is 61 3 = 58.

5. b

Let the number of girls who opt for French be a and


the number of boys who opt for Spanish be b.

Page

6!
= 180
2!2!

6!
= 20
3!3!
Total possible ways = 20 + 180 + 180 + 20 = 400

units) of EOD be y.

3. b

To ensure that the man comes back at point P:


(i) the number of steps taken by the man in the North
and the South directions must be the same.
(ii) the number of steps taken by the man in the East
and the West directions must be the same.
Let N, E, W and S denote a step in the North, East,
West and South direction respectively.

7. c

Let a, a + 1, a + 2, , a + 29 be thirty consecutive


natural numbers and N be the sum of their squares.
N = a2 + (a + 1)2 + (a + 2)2 ++ (a + 29)2
N = 30a2 + 2a(1 + 2 + .+ 29) + (12 + 22 + + 292)
29 30 29 30 59
N = 30a2 + 2a
+
6
2

Remainder when

29 30 59
is divided by 12 = 11
6

29 30
2
Now 30a2 + 2a
= 30(a + 29a)
2
As (a2 + 29a) is always even, remainder obtained
when 30(a2 + 29a) is divided by 12 = 0.
So the remainder obtained when the sum of the
squares of any thirty consecutive natural numbers is
divided by 12 = 11.

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

Quantity (in litres) of L1 = 30x


Quantity (in litres) of L2 = 70x

Y
D (2 , 8 )

8. a

E (8 , 8 )

After an
Quantity
Quantity
Quantity
Quantity

12
C (8 , 4 )
8

70x 7 1
= and 10x = 21
130x + 7 2
Volume of the container = 200x = 420 litres

A (0 , 0 ) G (2 , 0 ) B (6 , 0 ) F(8 , 0)

Area (ABCD) = Area ( ADG ) + Area (BCDG)


Area ( ADG ) =

1
1
(DG AG ) = (8 2 )
2
2
= 8 sq.units

hour:
(in litres) of L1 remaining = 30x 25
(in litres) of L2 remaining = 70x 20
of L1 added = 40x + 18
of L2 added = 60x + 27

...(i)

For questions 12 and 13:


Let the Total Expenditure (in Rs.) of Vidyapeeth and Christ
College be 100x and 100y respectively.
12. a

According to the question,


15x = 2 (20% of (15x + 20y))
On solving, x : y = 8 : 9.

13. d

Vidyapeeths expenditure on Electricity = 5x


Christ Colleges expenditure on Electricity = 25y
5x : 25y = 1 : 5
On solving, x = y.

Area (BCDG) = Area(DGFE) Area( CDE)


Area( BCF)

Required percentage =

1
1
= (DG GF ) (CE DE ) (BF CF )
2
2

20
35x

100 = 7%.
100 100x

For questions 14 and 15:

= (8 6 )

1
1
( 4 6 ) (2 4 )
2
2

= 48 12 4 = 32 sq. units
Adding (i) and (ii):
Area (ABCD) = 8 + 32 = 40 square units

9. b

M athe m a tics

P h ysics

...(ii)
26
13

26

As both the numbers end in 7, the unit digit of N will be


the same as the unit digit of 7x 7y i.e. 7(x + y). Therefore,
we need to know the value of x + y in order to find the
units digit of N.

1
a

b
18

From Statement A:
We have x + y = 9. Therefore, the unit digit of N will be
the same as the unit digit of 79. This statement alone is
sufficient to answer the question.

10. b

11. c

Page

C h em istry

From Statement B:
No information regarding y is given. This statement
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

The total number of students in the class is 96 and the number


of students who opt for Chemistry is 31; so the number of
students who opt for Physics only, Mathematics only and both
Mathematics and Physics but not Chemistry will be 65.

ac + bd = 0
ac = bd
a2c2 = b2d2
a2(1 d2) = (1 a2)d2
a2 = d2
Since c2 + d2 = 1, c2 + a2 = 1.

From the given information, the number of students who opt


for: Physics only = 26, Mathematics only = 26, both Mathematics
and Physics but not Chemistry = 13.

Let the volume (in litres) of the container be 200x.


When container was filled up to half its volume:

14. a

a + b + 13 = 25
a + b = 12.
As the number of students who opt for Mathematics
is the maximum among the three subjects, b > a. As
we have to maximise a, we get a = 5 and b = 7.

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

15. c

16 . c

If the exact number of students who opt for


Mathematics is known, a and b can be calculated. The
rest three statements dont give any new information.

P
6m

18. d

= 0 or 11k, where k is a natural number.


Let us assume that a + c = x and b + d = y.
x + y = 31 and x y = 11
(For x and y to be integers, x y can neither be 0 nor
an even multiple of 11.)
Solving the above equations, we get
x = 21 and y = 10.
As x is the sum of two single digit numbers, the
maximum possible value of x is 18.
Therefore, no such number is possible.

Q
8m

C
N

19. b

10m

Let CL, CM and CN be the perpendiculars from C on


PQ, QR and PS respectively.
So, PL = NC, QL = MC and SN = RM.
In right angled triangle PLC, PC2 = PL2 + CL2

...(i)

In right angled triangle QLC, QC2 = QL2 + CL2


In right angled triangle SNC,

...(ii)

SC2 = SN2 + NC2 SC2 = SN2 + PL2


In right angled triangle RMC,

...(iii)

RC 2 = RM2 + MC 2 RC 2 = SN2 + QL2


Adding (i) and (iv), we get

...(iv)

Let the job be of L.C.M.(15, 20, 25) = 300 units.


The number of units completed by Aman, Baman and
Chaman in a day while working alone on the job are
20, 15 and 12 respectively.
The number of units completed by Aman, Baman and
Chaman in a day while working on the job with
somebody else are 14, 12 and 6 respectively.
Aman, Baman and Chaman together complete 14 + 12
+ 6 = 32 units of work in a day.
The work must be distributed in either of the following
ways to ensure the maximum output in four
consecutive days:

DAY 1

PC2 + RC2 = PL2 + CL2 + SN2 + QL2


Adding (ii) and (iii), we get

...(v)

QC2 + SC2 = QL2 + CL2 + SN2 + PL2


From (v) and (vi), we get

...(vi)

The situation is similar to the company taking three


loans of amount P1, P2 and P3 from three different
banks for 1, 2 and 3 years respectively. The company
repays Rs. 21.60 crores to each of the banks at the
end of the respective loan terms. Hence,

Hence, the answer =


20. a

Percentage increase in the population of Marryland in


2006 over 2005

1050 840
100 = 25%
840
Percentage increase in the population of Marryland in
2008 over 2007

=
21. b

1480 1184
100 = 25%
1184

Percentage increase in the population of Amberland in


2006 over 2005

1100 800
100 = 37.5%
800
The population (in lakhs) of Amberland in 2010
=

20

6
6
P2 1 +
= 216 10 P2 = 150 10
100
20

6
6
P3 1 +
= 216 10 P3 = 125 10
100

Total loan amount = P1 + P2 + P3 = Rs. 45.50 crores.

102
17
=
.
300
50

20

6
6
P1 1 +
= 216 10 P1 = 180 10
100

DAY 4

The number of units completed will be 32 + 20 + 18 +


32 = 102.

RC = 8 2 m.

Page

DAY 3

WAY 2 (A, B, C) C / (A, B) (A, B) / C (A, B, C)

6 2 + RC 2 = 8 2 + 10 2

DAY 2

WAY 1 (A, B, C) A / (B, C) (B, C) / A (A, B, C)

PC2 + RC2 = QC2 + SC2

17. a

Let the four-digit number be abcd.


For the number to be divisible by 11, (a + c) (b + d)

= 1440
22. a

137.5
= 1980
100

f(xy) = f(x) + f(y)


Putting y = 1, we get
f(x) = f(x) + f(1)
Hence, f(1) = 0.

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

Putting y =

25. d

1
, we get
x

1
f(1) = f ( x ) + f = 0
x

Construction: Join C1 with the points of contact P and


Q and C2 with the points of contact R and S (see the
figure).
I1
P

1
f ( x ) = f
x
Also,

I2
A

R
S

C1

C2

( )
f ( x ) = f ( x ) + f ( x ) = 3f ( x )
f x 2 = f ( x ) + f ( x ) = 2f ( x )
3

23. c

24. c

Triangles APC1 and ARC2 are similar as both are rightangled triangles with common angle RAC2. Hence,

Thus, f(xn) = nf(x).


Hence, f(32) = f(25) = 5f(2) = 10
and f(27) = f(33) = 3f(3) = 9.

PC1 RC2
RC2
RC2
=
=
=
AC1 AC2 AC1 + C1C2 AC1 + 9

32
1
f = f (32 ) + f = f (32 ) f (27 ) = 10 9 = 1
27
27

There are four prime numbers less than 8 i.e. 2, 3, 5


and 7.
The highest powers of 2, 3, 5 and 7 in 8! are 7, 2, 1 and
1 respectively.
The possible sets of values of (a2, b2) are:
(32, 22)
(42, 22)
(42, 32)
(62, 22)
(82, 32)
(62, 42)
(122, 22)

Similarly, triangles BQC1 and BSC2 are similar. On solving,


we get BC1 = 3 cm.

AC1 + 9 RC2 4
=
=
AC1
PC1 2

AC1 = 9 cm.

AB = AC1 + BC1 = 9 + 3 = 12 cm.


26. d

Vikram can win in one of the three ways that are


described below.

dt = 2500 kt
Hence, d25 = 1000 = 2500 k 25
So k = 60
Density of milk at 30oC
= d30 = 2500 60 30 = 700 g/litre
Lets assume that he buys x litres of milk at
Rs. y/litre.
Total cost of milk = Rs. xy
At 1000 g/litre, x litres = x kg.
He sells x kg of milk at Rs. y/litre at 30oC.
At 700g/litre, x kg =

2 4 2
Probability = =
6 6 9
Case 2:
1st Roll: Appurv gets 1 and then Vikram gets 1.
2nd Roll: Appurv gets 1 and then Vikram gets more
than 1.

Total selling price of milk = Rs.

Probability =

1 1 1 5
5
=
6 6 6 6 64

Case 3:
1st Roll: Appurv gets 1 and then Vikram gets 2.
2 nd Roll: Appurv gets 1 and then Vikram wins
irrespective of what he gets.

Hence, the profit =

27. c

1 1 1 1
=
6 6 6 63

Required probability =

10
xy
7

300
%
7

x3 w 5 = 9
2

1
2
x3 w 5 = 9

Since both x and w are natural numbers, the above is


1

Probability =

Page

10
x litre
7

Case 1:
1st Roll: Appurv gets 1 or 2 and then Vikram gets more
than 2.

true only when x 3 = 5 and w 5 = 4 .


Hence, x = 125, w = 32 and x w = 93.

2 5
1 299
+
+
= 4
9 6 4 63
6

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

For questions 28 and 29: Some of the missing entries have been filled in the table given below.

28. a

29. d

30. a

Country

Stage X

Stage Y

Round 1
(X + Y)

Round 2

Round 3

Final
Score

Argentina

1072

1337

2409

405

1019

3833
4328

Brazil

864

2155

3019

424

885

Canada

865

2128

2993

410

890

4293

Denmark

3612

3978

7590

1083

2239

10912

5294

7668

1465

3165

12298

1083

3950

1181

4916

Egypt

2374

France

3918

Germany

4852

6371

11223

Hungary

5853

7766

13619

India

6658

9642

16300

1652

5649

23601

Japan

6081

9747

15828

2398

5987

24213

Kenya

795

2327

3122

439

1096

4657

Libya

919

3292

4211

549

1284

6044

Malaysia

1371

3000

4371

672

1528

6571

Netherlands

1555

3362

4917

769

1595

7281

Oman

2128

3135

5263

806

1719

7788

To win the Silver medal, the Final Score of Hungary


must be at least 23602 points. Therefore, the least
that Hungary must have scored in Round2 is 5020
points.

Adding the terms given above, we get


10.11.12.13 + 11.12.13.14 + + 96.97.98.99

Since Hungarys Final Score was at least 18582 points


(the sum of the scores of Round1 and Round3), the
minimum Final Score of France to win the Bronze medal
must be 18583 points (assuming that Hungary scores
0
points
in
Round2). Therefore, the least that France must have
scored in StageY is 9632 points.

= 1806869592
Note:
We need not calculate the exact value; just checking
the last digit of the answer will suffice in this case.

1
{(n + 4 )
5

(n

1)}

1 {n (n + 1)(n + 2 )(n + 3 )(n + 4 )}

=
5
{(n 1) n (n + 1)(n + 2 )(n + 3 )}

Hence,

10.11.12.13 =

1
[10.11.12.13.14 9.10.11.12.13]
5

11.12.13.14 =

1
[11.12.13.14.15 10.11.12.13.14]
5

.
.

96.97.98.99 =

1
[100.99.98.97.96 99.98.97.96.95]
5

1
[100.99.98.97.96 9.10.11.12.13]
5

1
[100.99.98.97.96 9.10.11.12.13]
5
= 20.99.98.97.96 9.2.11.12.13
[ends with 0]
[ends with 8]
Hence, the unit digit of the answer must be 10 8 = 2
and there is just one option with unit digit 2.

n (n + 1)(n + 2 )(n + 3 )
= n (n + 1)(n + 2 )(n + 3 )

Page

17320

4963

31. c

The author begins by talking about the decision of city


councils in the UK to expunge everyday Latin words
from the English lexicon. He mentions his fascination
with languages, but this is not the main point being
discussed. Option (c) is the correct answer. The
author discusses the motivations behind this pruningto create a language devoid of such linguistic
minefields... and then goes on to talk about far
reaching consequences. He wonders whether
English should be pruned or not. Option (b) can be
ruled out because the authors main purpose is not to
discuss languages rarely spoken. Option (d) is beyond
the scope of the passage; the author mentions that a
few Latin words are used by lawyers. However, it
cant be inferred that Latin is the legal language.

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

32. a

33. b

34. b

35. b

36. b

Page

The sixth line of the first paragraph provides the


answer to this question. Option (a) is the answer.
Option (b) is incorrect because there is no information
in the passage to suggest that the author was not
allowed to study Latin. Option (c) is also incorrect
because the author does not say that his daughters
choice of Latin was better than the choice of French
and Spanish. In fact the phrase used, domestic
protestations indicates the opposite. Though the
author does mention that the use of Latin words
provides an exotic literary advantage, this is not the
reason for his deciding to help his daughter. So, option
(d) is incorrect.
Refer to the last half of the second paragraph. The
author says that there are linguistic minefields and
problems that are associated with languages like Thai,
Mandarin, Cantonese and Latin. The city council
wanted to create a language that did not have these
hurdles and so is getting ready to remove Latin from
the English lexicon. Option (b) is the answer. Option
(a) is incorrect as there is no suggestion that mastery
over Latin is the issue at hand here.
The author presents the views of Chesterton and
Henry Tyrell and presents his opinions on modern art.
The discussion is about modern art and artists and the
author moves the discussion by presenting different
points. Option (a) does not stand correct as it is general
in nature and does not take into account that the
passage primarily presents views of Chesterton and
Henry Tyrrell. Options (c) and (d) are incorrect because
the author does not critically analyze the views of
either Chesterton or Henry Tyrell. He presents his
opinion on modern art but not on the comments made
by the art critics.
In the third paragraph, the Elie Faure is quoted as
saying that the younger artists have taken the notion
of looking within themselves to interpret the outer world,
instead of, like their elders, looking at the outside world
to realize themselves. Option (b) is the correct answer.
Option (a) is factually incorrect as it refers to the style
adopted by the elder artists. Though the author states
that the younger artists were inspired by Picasso, but
there is no mention in the passage that the younger
artists followed Picassos interpretation of the outside
world. So, option (c) is incorrect. Option (d) cannot be
inferred as the passage mentions that the younger
artists draw most of the inspiration for their artistic
notions from Picasso.
Option (a) is not indicated in the passage. The first
paragraph only quotes Tyrrells opinion about
Chesterton and sets the stage for bringing out the
conflicting opinions of Tyrrell and Chesterton on art.
Option (c) is incorrect. In the first paragraph, the opinion
of Tyrrell on Chesterton has been mentioned but there
is no mention of Tyrrells opinion on modern art. Option
(d) is eliminated since we cannot infer from the
passage that Chesterton and Tyrrell are
contemporaries.

For questions 37 and 38:


As four subjects are given and each person studies exactly
two subjects (which are not the same as that of any other
person) the number of possible cases must be 4C2 = 6. The
possible combinations are shown below in the table.
Physiology
Physiology
Physiology
and Cell
and
and Ecology
Theory
Genetics

Genetics Genetics Ecology


and
and Cell and Cell
Ecology
Theory
Theory

This means that each subject is studied by exactly three


students. The common subject studied by Qureshi, Sonal and
Umesh can be Genetics only. Thus, Umesh and Radha must be
having Physiology as their Major subject. Subsequently, Qureshi
and Radha must be having Cell Theory as their Minor subject.
The conclusions can be tabulated as given below.

Person

Majors

Minors

Panchi

Physiology

Ecology

Qureshi

Genetics

Cell Theory

Radha

Physiology

Cell Theory

Sonal

Genetics

Ecology

Tarun

Cell Theory

Ecology

Umesh

Physiology

Genetics

37. b

Physiology and Cell Theory

38. d

Qureshi

For questions 39 to 41:


From statements (i), (iv) and (vi), either the person who works
in Marketing or the person who works in IT belongs to Jaipur,
and the other belongs to Pune. From statements (iii), (iv) and
(v), it can be concluded that either Chintan or Engela belongs
to Jaipur and the other belongs to Pune. From statements (ii)
and (v), Farooq belongs to Bikaner. Now only Akshita can be
the one who belongs to Kashipur and works in Operations. So
Devina belongs to Meerut. From statement (v), Farooq works
in Finance and so Babita works in Academics. The conclusions made thus far can be tabulated as given below.

Nam e

De par tm e nt

City

A kshita

Operations

Kashipur

Babita

A cademics

Dhaka

Chintan Marketing/ IT Jaipur/Pune


Devina

HR

Meerut

Engela

IT/Marketing

Pune/Jaipur

Farooq

Finance

Bikaner

39. a

Akshita

40. d

Farooq

41. b

Dhaka

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

42. c

The author analyses the reasons for why Indians are


scaling corporate heights. He cites several studies
and quotes several managers to understand the
factors that have led to the rise of the Indian executive
internationally. Option (c) is the answer. Option (a) is
incorrect because even though the author presents
facts, he does not refrain from giving his opinion and
analysis. Didactic means designed to teach people
something, especially a moral lesson. The author does
bring in Chinese executives as a comparative example;
however, his aim is to understand how the Indian
executive scores even over his Chinese counterpart.
His tone is not didactic. Option (d) is incorrect because
the author never makes an attempt to be
argumentative.

46. b

Sentence (b) is incorrect. The correct phrasal verb is


scrape through something. It means to succeed in
doing something with difficulty, especially in passing
an exam. The correct sentence is I might scrape
through the exam if Im lucky.
Scrape (the bottom of) the barrel means to have to
use whatever things or people you can get, because
there is not much choice available. So, sentence (a) is
correct. Scrape in/ scrape into something means to
manage to get a job, a position, a place at college, etc,
but with difficulty. So, sentence (c) is correct. Scrape
something up/together means to obtain or collect
together something, but with difficulty, for example:
We managed to scrape together eight volunteers.
Hence, sentence (d) is also correct.

43. b

The Indian executives advantage over his Chinese


counterpart has been mentioned in the context of
managing bureaucratic hurdles. Option (b) fits in best
as the Indian executive works in an environment of
constraints and emerges as a better manager than
the Chinese executive for whom things are arranged
by bureaucrats and politicians. Hence a Chinese
executive works in a more structured environment.
Option (a) is an inverted analogy so, it is incorrect.
Options (c) and (d) are incorrect as one cannot infer
that the Indian executive works in an environment that
is controlled or that has many restrictions. Also the
term autonomy or self-governance does not apply
correctly to the description of the environment that the
Chinese executive has to function in.

47. b

Sentence (b) is incorrect. The correct phrasal verb is


talk somebody into something which means to
persuade somebody to do something. The correct
sentence is I didnt want to move abroad but Bill talked
me into it.
Talk at somebody means to speak to somebody
without listening to what they say in reply. Thus,
sentence (a) is correct. Talk through something means
to discuss something thoroughly until you are sure
you understand it. So sentence (c) is correct. Talk
somebody/something up means to describe somebody/
something in a way that makes them sound better
than they really are. So, sentence (d) is also correct.

The author discusses why Indian managers are good


at managing business. He substantiates his points
using facts and statements. He mentions various
factors that contributes to the success of the Indian
executive. In the last lines, he mentions why they are
good at networking and lobbying. Keeping in with the
central idea of the passage and its last lines, the author
would go on to discuss further specific points on how
Indian executives are able to manage bureaucratic
hurdles. Options (a) and (d) can be ruled out because
the author is not primarily using a comparative style in
the passage. Option (c) can also be ruled out. There is
nothing in the passage to indicate that Indian executives
will always scale corporate heights.

Let Parjit, Manjit, Charjit, Daljit and Jasjit be represented by P, M,


C, D and J respectively. From statement (ii), the annual incomes
(in Rs. Lakhs) of (M, D) can be (75, 60) or (60, 45), not
necessarily in the same order.

44. b

45. c

Page

Sentence (c) is incorrect. Rake somebody over the


coals/ haul somebody over the coals is the correct
idiom. It means to criticize somebody severely because
they have done something wrong.
Rake in something means to earn a lot of money,
especially when it is done easily. So, sentence (a) is
correct. Rake up something means to mention
something unpleasant that happened in the past and
that other people would like to forget, for example:
Raking up the past will only make things worse. So,
sentence (b) is correct. Rake-off is a noun and it
means a share of profits, especially from dishonest or
illegal activity. Thus, sentence (d) is also correct.

For questions 48 to 50:

From statement (vi), one of the three cases is true:


Case I: The annual incomes (in Rs. Lakhs) of (P, D and J) are
(45, 60 and 75), not necessarily in the same order. This case
is not possible because it violates statement (ii).
Case II: The annual incomes (in Rs. Lakhs) of (P, D and J) are
(40, 45 and 50), not necessarily in the same order. Now the
annual income of D must be Rs. 45 lakhs and hence the annual
income of M must be Rs. 60 lakhs. Thus, annual income of C is
Rs. 75 lakhs. This case is not possible because it violates
statement (iii).
Case III: The annual incomes (in Rs. Lakhs) of (P, D and J) are
(40, 50 and 60), not necessarily in the same order. So the
annual income of D is Rs. 60 lakhs and hence the annual
income of M is Rs 75 lakhs and that of C is Rs. 45 lakhs.
From statement (v), J was the older of the two females and
hence the annual income of J was Rs. 50 lakhs and the annual
income of P was Rs. 40 lakhs. Also, C is the younger female
director. Thus it can be concluded that: Age of D > Age of P >
Age of J > Age of M > Age of C.

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

The conclusions made thus far can be shown as below.

The only possible arrangement of the students will be


as given below.

Left to Right (Decreasing order of age)


Name
Gender
Annual Income
(in Rs. Lakhs)

60

40

50

75

49. c

Rs. 60 Lakhs

50. b

Rs. 30 Lakhs

51. d

The paragraph talks about how Afghanistan has


become so dependent on foreign aid that it can face
an economic crisis in the future. So the U.S. program
of assistance definitely doesnt confer long-term
stability to Afghanistan. Hence, option (a) is eliminated.
Option (b) does not fit in with the paragraph which
provides no reason or background for increasing direct
funding. Option (c) talks about humanitarian situations
while the paragraph focuses exclusively on the
economy. Option (d) talks about the distortion that has
happened in the Afghan economy thanks to the
expensive nation-building efforts domestic
resources have not been utilized effectively.
Skeptical means having doubts. The author mentions,
in the beginning, that he is skeptical about Computers
as an area of specialization. Option (b) logically carries
the idea further by stating that once one has obtained
the information what will one do with it. Option (a) has
a positive tone and goes against the nature of the
argument. Option (c) is out of scope of the paragraph.
Option (d) is extremely definitive in nature whereas
the author is just skeptical about Computers.
Let Naman, Randhir, Karthik, Pratham and Swati be
represented by N, R, K, P and S respectively. As
nothing is mentioned about the directions of the
students, we can start the arrangement from any side
by fixing the relative positions of N and R.

11

11
RP

Hence, the strength of the class is 38.

45

Rs. 40 Lakhs

53. a

Male Male Female Male Female

48. a

52. b

11

54. b

Let the number of chocolates received by Amit, Bimal,


Chatur, Deepak and Ehsan be a, b, c, d and e respectively. Hence, a + b + c + d + e = 18.
If a, b, c, d and e are distinct then they must be (in no
particular order):
CASE I: {1, 2, 3, 4, 8} or
CASE II: {1, 2, 3, 5, 7} or
CASE III: {1, 2, 4, 5, 6}.
Also, it is given that c < a < e < d.
It is given that b is not the highest and hence the
highest must be d. Also, d > b > e and b must be equal
to e + 1. This is satisfied only by CASE III.
The number of chocolates with Amit and Bimal are 2
and 5 respectively. Hence, the answer = 3.

55. a

Sentence E introduces the topic of books and online


articles and states that finding them is easy. Sentence
A mentions the difficulty related to the search. Thus,
EA is a mandatory pair. D provides the reason for the
difficulty which is further explained in B. So, ADB is a
sequence. Statement C mentions the consequence of
the plethora of books and articles. The reason for
why it becomes difficult to differentiate a good book
from a great one is that there are literally thousands of
books written on the same topic every year. Statements
B and C form a reason-consequence pair. Thus, the
correct sequence is EADBC.

56. c

Sentence B is the introductory sentence as it mentions


about a Tamil film that had lots of gods and goddesses.
E describes the effect of the film on the protagonist. C
carries the idea forward. E and C describe the state
of enchantment into which the protagonist was
transported after the film began. The this felicity in A
refers to this state of enchantment. Thus, ECA is a
sequence. Sentence D begins a new idea should come
in the end. Hence, BECAD is the correct sequence.

Case I: K and R are on the opposite sides of N. Therefore, P will be on the same side of N as K and hence S
will be on the same side of N as P. In this case R is not
standing between S and K, which violates statement
(v).
Case II: K and R are on the same side of N. When P is
on the opposite side of K as R, the number of students
between N and P will be 49. So the middle position will
already be occupied by R and hence cannot be occupied by S. Hence, P is on the same side of K as R and
S is standing between N and P.

Page

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

57. b

58. b

Page

Sentence D introduces the subject of pollination and


mentions the names of the animals: bees, butterflies,
moths, flies and hummingbird that accidentally help in
pollination. B elaborates on why the pollination is
accidental. The they in B refers to the animals
mentioned in D. So DB is a mandatory pair. C starts
describing the events that take place when these
animals go to the plants to obtain their food. E continues
the description of the events and elaborates on what
happens when the animals are feeding. So, CE is
another mandatory pair. A explains how the pollination
takes place, by rubbing of the pollen from the previous
plant to the new one when the animals move from one
plant to another. Hence, DBCEA is the correct answer.

59. d

Sentence A is incorrect. The correct statement should


use the past tense Ren Descartes had a short
working life and it began late. Statement C is incorrect.
The correct statement should be Had he confined
himself to the natural sciences his achievement would
have been remarkable enough.

60. c

Only sentence B is incorrect. The correct statement


should be it was the details that were wrong.

The word simulation means a situation in which a


particular set of conditions is created artificially in order
to study or experience something that could exist in
reality, for example: An important part of training is
role-play and the simulation of cases. Aggressively
means acting with force and determination in order to
succeed, for example: an aggressive advertising
campaign. Simulation and aggressively are the best
words in the given context.

10

Unproctored Mock-2 2012

Unproctored Mock-3 2012


Section I
1.

There are two signals which keep changing their colours continuously according to a pattern. The
first signal S1 remains Red for 5 seconds, then turns Green for the next 7 seconds, then turns Blue
for the next 6 seconds, then Red again for 5 seconds and so on. The second signal S2 remains Red
for 7 seconds, then turns Green for the next 11 seconds, then turns Blue for the next 6 seconds,
then Red again for 7 seconds and so on. If S1 and S2 turn Red simultaneously, then after how much
time (in seconds) will they turn Blue simultaneously for the first time?
(a) 140
(b) 66
(c) 72
(d) 78

2.

The roots of x 3 ax 2 + bx c = 0 are p, q and r while the roots of x 3 + dx 2 + ex 90 = 0 are p + 3,


q + 3 and r + 3. What is the value of 9a + 3b + c?
(a) 27
(b) 90
(c) 45
(d) 63

3.

One man and six women working together can do a job in 10 days. The same job is done by two
men in p days and by eight women in p+5 days. By what percentage is the efficiency of a man
greater than that of a woman?
(a) 300%
(b) 500%
(c) 600%
(d) 700%

4.

Two cards are drawn randomly from a deck of 52 playing cards. What is the probability that both of
them are face cards but of different suits?
9
12
9
18
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
663
663
221
221

Directions for questions 5 to 7: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In the figure given below, all the routes of going from City X to City Y are shown by the help of arrows. Each
route passes through some of the seven Refugee Camps called A, B, C, D, E, F and G. The number given
in brackets along with the name of a Refugee Camp represents the number of people staying in that camp.

A (300)

C ity
X

B (250)

D (400 )

E (200)
G (30 0)

C ity
Y

F(5 00)
C (350 )
It is also known that:
(i)
A truck is loaded with food supply at City X. It takes one of the possible routes to City Y and
distributes food packets among the people staying in all the camps along its route.
(ii)
Each person staying in a camp is given a food packet weighing 1.5 kg. A truck is allowed to pass
through a camp on its route only after each person staying in the camp gets the food packet.
5.

How many different routes can a truck loaded with 2100 kg of food supply take from City X to City Y
such that it can give food packets to all the people staying in camps along that route?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 10
(d) 8

Page

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

6.

A truck loaded with 2100 kg of food supply is barely able to give food packets to all the people
staying in camps along its route and is left with no food when it reaches City Y. How many camps
fall in the route taken by the truck?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) Cannot be determined

7.

A pair of two routes on which the quantity of food that needs to be distributed by a truck is exactly
the same is called an F-pair. How many F-pairs are there among the different routes from City X to
City Y?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

8.

The ratio of the present ages of Bini and Coral is the same as the ratio of the ages of Anu and Bini
six years ago. Coral, six years from now, will be as old as Anu was six years ago. If the present
ages (in years) of exactly two of them are perfect squares, then which of the following can be the
sum of the present ages of the three?
(a) 27 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 36 years
(d) 48 years

9.

The figure given below shows a triangle ABC that circumscribes a circle of radius 3 cm. D is the
point of contact of the circle with the side AB. AD = 4 cm and BD = 6 cm. What is the ratio of AC to
BC?

O
3 cm
A

(a) 5 : 6

10.

4 cm

6 cm

(b) 1

(c) 11 : 13

Find the number of positive integer solutions of the equation


(a) 0

Page

(b) 9 : 11

(c) 2

(d) 4 : 5

2 15
+
= 5.
x y
(d) 3

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

11.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using Statement A alone, but cannot be answered by
using Statement B alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using Statement B alone, but cannot be answered by
using Statement A alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered by any of the two statements.
Q. The cost of 2 Apples, 3 Bananas and 1 Mango is Rs. 24. The cost of 2 Bananas and 4 Apples is
equal to the cost of 3 Mangoes. What is the cost of one Mango?
A. The cost of 2 Bananas and 1 Mango is Rs. 12.
B. The cost of 4 Bananas and 5 Mangoes is Rs. 48.

12.

Find the value of S if S =


(a) 99

5 13 25 41
4901
+
+ +
+ ...........................
.
2 6 12 20
2450

(b)

4969
50

(c)

4949
50

(d) None of these

13.

If and are the roots of the equation 7x 2 6x + 1 = 0, then what is the value of
+ + 2 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 4 + 4 + . till infinity?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) None of these

14.

The figure given below shows a regular octagon ABCDEFGH. The measure (in degrees) of

BAC, CAD and DAE are , and respectively. What is the ratio : : ?

(a) 1 : 1 : 1

Page

(c) 2 : 1 : 3

(d) 1 : 2 : 3

(b) None of these

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

Directions for questions 15 and 16: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In a consulting firm, apart from the Fixed Annual Income, there is a Variable component which affects an
employees Total Annual Salary. The Variable component is the difference of two factors called A and B.
The Average Salary (Per Deal) of an employee is calculated by dividing the Total Annual Salary by the
number of deals made by the employee in a year. To summarise,
(i)
Total Annual Salary = Fixed Annual Income + Variable component
(ii)
Variable component = Factor A Factor B
(iii)

Average Salary (Per Deal) =

Total Annual Salary


Number of Deals

The table given below shows the Fixed Annual Income and the Average Salary (Per Deal) of an employee
for each year from 2005 to 2010. It is known that I1 < I4 < I2 < I3 < I5.

2005

Fixed Annual Income


(In Rs.)
I1

Average Salary (Per Deal)


(In Rs.)
A1

2006

I2

A2

2007

I3

A2

2008

I3

A3

2009

I4

A4

2010

I5

A5

Year

The line graph given below shows the ratio of Factor A to Factor B for the employee for each year from 2005
to 2010.

Fa ctor A
1
Fa ctor B

200 5

200 6

200 7

200 8

200 9

201 0

Year
15.

If A2 < A1 < A3 < A4 < A5, then how many years are there for which it can be conclusively determined
that the number of deals made by the employee in that year was definitely less than that in 2007?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

16.

The number of deals made by the employee increased in each year as compared to the previous
year in the period 20062010. In which of the following pairs of years can the Average Salary (Per
Deal) of the employee not be equal?
(a) 2005 and 2006
(b) 2006 and 2007
(c) 2007 and 2010
(d) 2008 and 2009

Page

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

17.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using Statement A alone, but cannot be answered by
using Statement B alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using Statement B alone, but cannot be answered by
using Statement A alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered by any of the two statements.
Q. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 64. If one of the numbers is 320, then what is the number of prime
factors of the other number?
A. The L.C.M. of the two numbers is 1120.
B. The other number is divisible by 7.

18.

Three varieties of rice with Cost Price (in Rs./kg) 28, 36 and 45 are mixed in the ratio a : b : c
respectively. It is known that a, b and c are in Geometric Progression where a < b < c. The Cost
Price (in Rs./kg) of the mixture becomes 40. What would have been the Cost Price (in Rs./kg) of the
mixture had the three varieties been mixed in the ratio c : a : b?
(a) 24
(b) 28
(c) 34
(d) 38

19.

N = 77777777, where the digit 7 repeats itself 429 times. What is the remainder left
when N is divided by 1144?
(a) 913
(b) 1129
(c) 777
(d) None of these

20.

Ajit and Baba are standing at a distance of 120 m from each other. Ajit starts running towards Baba
and at the same time Baba starts running away from Ajit. As soon as Ajit catches Baba, Ajit turns
back and start running backwards. By the time Ajit reaches the point from where Baba started,
Baba has covered a total distance of 120 m. What is the total distance (in metres) that has been
covered by Ajit at this point?
(a) 120( 2 + 1)

(b) 60( 2 + 2)

(c) 60(2 2 + 1)

(d) 60( 2 + 1)

21.

A regular pentagon is drawn on a piece of paper. In how many ways can five identical Re.1 coins be
placed on the five vertices of the pentagon if exactly one coin is to be placed on each vertex?
(a) 6
(b) 32
(c) 16
(d) 8

22.

A function f(x) is defined for all real values of x as Min(x2, x 20, x 20). What is the maximum
value of f(x)?
(a) 16
(b) 20
(c) 25
(d) None of these

23.

If a positive integer n is subtracted from the squares of three consecutive terms of an Arithmetic
Progression, the numbers obtained are 120, 232 and 376 respectively. What is the sum of the digits
of n?
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 10

Page

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

Directions for questions 24 to 26: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A company called New Ideas Pvt. Ltd. has exactly one branch in each of the six cities Arunpur, Bhilai,
Chandipur, Devnagar, Ehsangadh and Ferozabad. The company operates in these six cities only. Each
branch generates some revenue for the company and incurs some cost on its operations.
Pie chart I shows the percentage contribution of each branch in the total revenue generated by the
company in the year 2010. Pie chart II shows the percentage contribution of each branch in the total cost
incurred by the company in the year 2010. Pie chart III shows the percentage break-up of the total number
of employees working in the company in the year 2010. Every employee works in just one of the branches.
Ferozabad
12%

Ferozabad
10%

Arunpur
20%

Ehsangadh
6%

Ehsangadh
16%

Bhilai
14%

Bhilai
10%
Devnagar
30%

Chandipur
18%

Devnagar
24%

Arunpur
16%

Chandipur
24%

II
Arunpur
10%

Ferozabad
15%
Ehsangadh
5%

Bhilai
25%

Devnagar
25%
Chandipur
20%

III
Please Note:
(i)
Profit/Loss made by a branch = Revenue generated by the branch Cost incurred by the branch
Pr ofit /Loss made by the branch
(ii)
Profit/Loss per employee of a branch =
The number of employees in the branch
(iii)

Page

Profit/Loss percentage =

Revenue Generated Cost Incurred


100%
Cost Incurred
Unproctored Mock-3 2012

24.

If Ferozabad branch suffered a loss in 2010, then which of the following branches may have made a
profit in 2010?
(a) Arunpur
(b) Bhilai
(c) Chandipur
(d) Devnagar

25.

If Profit/Loss per employee for Arunpur and Bhilai were the same in 2010, then how many branches
made a profit in 2010?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1

26.

If none of the six branches suffered a loss in 2010, then the profit percentage of New Ideas Pvt. Ltd.
must have been at least
(a) 25%
(b) 33.33%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%

27.

A boy of height 100 cm starts walking along a straight line away from the base of a lamppost at a
speed of 1.4 m/s. If the lamp is 42 m above the ground, find the length (in cm) of the boys shadow
after 40 seconds.
(a) 122.6
(b) 136.6
(c) 143.8
(d) 145.6

28.

How many factors of 20! are there whose unit digit is 5?


(a) 2068
(b) 1868
(c) 1728

(d) None of these

29.

What does the equation x4 y4 2x3 + 2y3 2yx2 + 2xy2 = 0 represent?


(a) Two circles
(b) Four straight lines
(c) A pair of straight lines and a circle
(d) None of these

30.

Two right circular cones, whose heights are different, have the same slant height. The product of
their base radii is equal to the product of their heights. If the base radius and the height of one of the
cones are 5 cm and 6 cm respectively, then find the sum of the volumes (in sq. cm) of the two
cones.
(a) 100
(b) 110
(c) 120
(d) Cannot be determined

Page

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

Section II
31.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
Eat
(a) During the downturn, many restaurants saw a drop in revenues because people were eating in.
(b) Dinner-time manners included eating up everything that had been served on the plate.
(c) Falling short even after the loan, she had no choice but to eat into her fixed deposits.
(d) She was eating away at the restaurant when the earthquake struck.

32.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
Get
(a) It was difficult to get across the basic idea.
(b) His interpersonal skills were so good that he got away with many a blunder.
(c) After much nagging, he finally got after doing his homework.
(d) You have got to be sharp to get ahead.

Directions for questions 33 and 34: The passage given below is followed by a set of two questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Chinas use of water is another rising source of tension. Indias biggest rivers flow into the country from
China. China is currently at work on constructing the worlds largest hydroelectric dam on the Brahmaputra
River, which is vital for Indian agriculture. India has agreed to treaties on water usage with its other neighbors,
but China refuses to participate. This refusal to compromise underscores Chinas unreliability as a neighbor,
says Srikanth Kondapalli, head of the Centre for East Asian Studies at New Delhis Jawaharlal Nehru
University. While China argues for multilateralism in the international arena, it reverses that position when
it comes to water, he says.
To try to overcome these political stalemates, both sides are looking to use their surging economies to
rebuild relations and raise their political profiles, as they have become invaluable partners for Western
markets still mired in a global downturn. There is a desire with China to get along, and I know there is such
a desire in India, says Maharaja Krishna Rasgotra, former Indian Foreign Secretary. Commerce will help
soften political attitudes. Trade between India and China is expected to reach $60 billion this year up from
$270 million 20 years ago, making China Indias largest trading partner.
But there too, there are issues to resolve. Indias trade deficit with China is expected to top $20 billion this
year. Its an asymmetry that both countries have pledged to correct, but India remains suspicious that,
while China is happy to import its raw material while India buys Chinas refined goods, Chinese policy is
standing in the way of Indian companies exporting their own finished products. Theyve turned India into
an Africa-style raw material appendage, says Chellaney.

Page

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

33.

This refusal to compromise underscores Chinas unreliability as a neighbor. Paraphrased the


following sentence would mean
(a) Chinas refusal to compromise highlights the fact that China is not a reliable neighbor to India.
(b) Chinas refusal to compromise weakens the fact that China is not a reliable neighbor to India.
(c) Chinas refusal to compromise undermines the fact that China is not a reliable neighbor to India.
(d) Chinas refusal to compromise conforms to the fact that China is not a reliable neighbor to India.

34.

According to the author, which of the following is not a trade issue that needs to be resolved
between India and China?
(a) Indias trade deficit with China is expected to top $20 billion this year.
(b) China is content with exporting finished goods to India but not with importing them from India.
(c) China is willing to receive imports in the form of raw material from India but not in the form of
finished goods.
(d) Chinas refusal to enter a treaty on water usage with India.

35.

Anuj, Prem, Moksh and Gyan have different weights. Each of the three statements given below
contains two pieces of information of which one is true and the other is false.
(i) Anuj is lighter than Prem. Moksh is heavier than Gyan.
(ii) Anuj is heavier than Moksh. Prem is lighter than Gyan.
(iii) Anuj is heavier than Gyan. Prem is heavier than Moksh.
If Anuj is neither the lightest nor the heaviest among the four, then who are the lightest and the
heaviest, in no particular order?
(a) Prem and Moksh
(c) Prem and Gyan

(b) Moksh and Gyan


(d) Cannot be determined

Directions for questions 36 to 38: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Union Carbides in-house investigation of the accident will probably not be completed before the end of
February. But an inquiry under way in India is already reaching some initial conclusions. The investigation
has identified a combination of design flaws, operating errors and managerial mistakes that helped cause
the accident and intensified its effects. In addition, the accident has stirred serious questions about placing modern technology in less industrialized Third World nations.
The result of seven weeks work by a team of Indian government officials, the report on the Bhopal accident
will not be published until the opening of a judicial inquiry in India that is scheduled to begin in a month or
so. But sources close to the investigation have disclosed some frightening findings. The main conclusions:
Plant safety procedures were inadequate to deal with a large-scale leak of the deadly methyl isocyanate,
or MIC, despite the fact that the dangers such a leak would pose were known. Nor had any precautions
been taken to protect people living near the plant site. Although a safety survey conducted by experts from
Union Carbide headquarters in 1982 identified major hazards that could lead to serious incidents, no
procedures were developed for alerting or evacuating the population that would be affected by an accident.
Leaky valves were a constant problem at the plant. Six serious accidents occurred at the Bhopal installation
between 1978 and 1982, and three, one of which was fatal, involved gas leaks.

Page

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

Some important safety systems were not working at the time of the accident. Refrigeration units designed
to keep the highly reactive MIC cool so that it could not vaporize had been shut down before the accident.
Other equipment, including devices designed to vent and burn off excess gases, was so inadequate,
investigators hinted, that it would have been ineffective even if it had been operating at the time of the
accident.
Plant workers failed to grasp the gravity of the situation as it developed, allowing the leak to go unattended
for about an hour. Brief and frantic efforts to check the leak failed. As the situation deteriorated, the workers
panicked and fled the plant.
Union Carbide, which disclosed late last month that leaks at its Institute, W. Va., plant had resulted in a
revision of procedures there, has conceded that some of the information coming out of India is correct. The
company has acknowledged that a backup storage tank that was supposed to be empty at the time of the
accident had in fact been partly filled. But company officials declined to comment in detail on other findings
until they could study the results of the investigation.
36.

It can be inferred that the style of the passage is


(a) Incriminatory
(b) Critical
(c) Factual

(d) Investigative

37.

Which of these has not been featured in the conclusions of the investigation by the Indian government
officials?
(a) Plant safety procedures were inadequate to deal with a large-scale leak of MIC.
(b) Failure of the plant workers to check the leak as it developed.
(c) Union Carbide never fully advised the national government of the dangers involved in producing
and storing MIC.
(d) Some important safety systems were not working at the time of the accident.

38.

Which of the following can be inferred from the main conclusions of the investigation?
(a) Union Carbide was aware of the steps it should take to avoid a major accident but shrewdly did
not do so.
(b) Union Carbide knowingly took no steps to avoid a major accident.
(c) Companies take fewer precautions at their plants in the developing countries in comparison to
what they take in developed countries. .
(d) The accident mentioned in the passage was a result of various factors that can be attributed to
any plant functioning in the third world nations and not to Union Carbides neglect.

Directions for questions 39 and 40: The passage given below is followed by a set of two questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
The source of income for the elderly has changed dramatically over the past three decades. Salaries were
the most important source of money, but now they account for only 15% of retirees income. Even so, the
ranks of oldsters working at least part time are growing. About half the men 65 and over now work part time,
vs. only 35% in 1960. A deterrent to full-time work for many retirees is that Social Security is in effect taxed
at the 50% rate for earnings above $7,320. Thus many people work just enough to keep under the cutoff.
The most important source of money for the majority of elderly people today is Social Security which, says
the report, accounts for about 40% of retirees income. Just behind that is the 25% provided by their own
assets, such as savings and investments. Another major chunk comes from private pensions. Only a
quarter of the work force was covered by pensions in 1950, but now half of all workers have them. In the
future more and more employees will fall under various plans.
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10

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

The perception that retired people are especially susceptible to inflation is not supported by recent evidence,
says the council in the dry, scholarly tone of the report. In fact, the elderly have done relatively better in
keeping up with rising prices in recent years than the population as a whole. Social Security payments,
tied by a 1972 law to the rate of inflation, went up 46% in real terms since 1970, while wages and salaries
of people still working withered by 7%. Prices increased 312% between 1950 and 1983. During that same
period, wages and salaries rose 412%, but the typical monthly Social Security payment jumped 905%.
Says the report: Thus younger families have had to work more to keep up with inflation; older families have
not.
39.

What is the primary purpose of the passage?


(a) Discuss the sources of income for the elderly.
(b) Discuss the change in the source of income for the elderly.
(c) Assert that older families in the US are better off monetarily than younger families.
(d) Discuss the transition in the financial standing of the elderly.

40.

According to the author, why do many retirees work part-time?


(a) To ensure that their the total annual income falls above the taxable bracket.
(b) To ensure that their annual income does not lead to their being placed in the 50% tax bracket.
(c) To ensure that the total annual income they earn does not fall in the taxable bracket.
(d) To ensure that the total annual income they get does not go towards funding their Social Security.

41.

The passage given below is followed by a question. Choose the most appropriate answer to the
question.
I often think its comical
How nature always does contrive
That every boy and every gal
Thats born into the world alive
Is either a little liberal,
Or else a little conservative!
Which of the following can be conclusively inferred from the above prose?
(a) Everyone alive is bound to take sides about some central political issues.
(b) Liberal or conservative tendencies are inherent in human beings.
(c) Everything tends to reduce to two.
(d) Liberal and conservative tendencies can co-exist in every human being.

42.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Day break marks the completion of tunneling from two opposite faces. Conventionally, the tunneling work is conducted from both ends of the tunnel. But this being a very long tunnel, Railways
decided to engage in simultaneous working at more than two faces by constructing a shaft towards
the North end and an adit towards the South end.
(a) Opening up of more working faces in this tunnel will enable a quicker completion.
(b) Railways got a step closer to finishing work on the countrys longest tunnel.
(c) The Pir Panjal tunnel will also have a three-metre wide road for maintenance and emergencies.
(d) Railways is using PVC membranes to line the insides of the tunnel so as to make it waterproof.

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11

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

Directions for questions 43 and 44: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Each of the six people Akash, Binay, Chatur, Deepak, Ehsan and Fardeen had two coins one of
Re. 1 and the other of Rs. 2. Each person gave his two coins to two different persons among the remaining
five. It is also known that:
(i)
Each person received at least one coin.
(ii)
Akash, Deepak and Fardeen got two coins each but the total amount received by no two of the three
was the same.
(iii)
Nobody among Akash, Deepak and Fardeen gave a coin to any of the other two.
(iv)
Binay received Rs. 6. The amount received by Chatur was the same as that received by Fardeen.
(v)
Chatur gave Re.1 coin to Deepak but Deepak did not give any coin to Chatur.
(vi)
Ehsan gave one of his coins to a person from whom he received a coin.
43.

Who received the second highest amount among the six people?
(a) Akash
(b) Deepak
(c) Chatur

(d) Cannot be determined

44.

What was the absolute difference (in Rs.) between the total amounts received by Deepak and
Ehsan?
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) Cannot be determined

45.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Musharraf has said the scientists were given wide latitude to develop the nuclear program and
worked in secret even from top officials. That secrecy also has raised fears that nuclear workers
may have transferred technology or equipment to terrorists, either for money or ideological sympathy.
Experts say centrifuge technology would not be of much use to terror groups, who probably could
not set up the vast facilities required to enrich useful quantities of uranium, with hundreds of technicians
needed to run thousands of centrifuges.
(a) The government also has denied official complicity in giving away technology.
(b) Pakistan is estimated to have produced more than 1,540 pounds of highly enriched uranium.
(c) It is hard enough for countries to do.
(d) The acquisition of weapons designs would make it far easier for terrorists to make a workable
bomb.

46.

There are two gaps in the sentence given below. From the pairs of words given, choose the one that
fills the gaps most appropriately.
Unable to ........... his wholehearted distaste for media events and publicity, the miffed actor continued to make ........ comments throughout his interview.
(a) disguise; elusive
(b) control; garbled
(c) conceal; caustic
(d) express; vitriolic

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12

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

47.

There are two gaps in the sentence given below. From the pairs of words given, choose the one that
fills the gaps most appropriately.
The sudden shift from .......... to .......... in the authors novel can startle readers, especially when he
abruptly juxtaposes a scene of holy rituals with one of profane ceremonies.
(a) decorum; frivolity
(b) decorum; dilatory
(c) piety; ribaldry
(d) fidelity; adultery

Directions for questions 48 and 49: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Five persons Ashoka, Bachan, Chandra, Mallya and Tendulkar driving five different cars among
Accord, Audi, BMW, Honda City and Skoda, not necessarily in the same order, are standing in a queue
at a check post. The five cars are of the different colours among Black, Red, Silver, Violet and White, in
no particular order. It is also known that:
(i)
Accord is ahead of Honda City and is not Red in colour.
(ii)
Bachan is not driving Audi and his car is behind Mallyas car.
(iii)
Skoda, which is Violet in colour, is not being driven by Tendulkar.
(iv)
Ashokas car is behind the White car and is not Silver in colour.
(v)
Chandra is not driving Accord and his car is immediately ahead of the Black car.
(vi)
The Red car, which is ahead of three other cars, is being driven by Bachan.
(vii) The only car between BMW and Honda City is White in colour.
(viii) Mallya is not driving the Silver car. Honda City is not Black in colour.
48.

49.

50.

Who is driving Audi?


(a) Ashoka

(b) Chandra

Which car is Tendulkar driving?


(a) Honda City
(b) Audi

(c) Mallya

(d) Tendulkar

(c) Accord

(d) BMW

The paragraph given below is followed by a question. Choose the most appropriate answer to the
question.
The method by which the therapists at Vinayak Trauma Clinic bill for their time is inherently faulty.
Accounting rules allow billing for a full hour even when the therapist has not worked on a specific
client for a full 60 minutes. Inevitably, this practice will lead to therapists billing for more full hours
than they actually work, passing on false expenses to clients anytime they counsel a client or
answer the clients phone.
Which of the following, if true, constitutes the best piece of evidence for countering the claim that
therapists at Vinayak Trauma Clinic are likely to bill for more full hours than they work?
(a) Therapists at Vinayak Trauma Clinic are required to attend annual ethics seminars, during which
over-billing is strongly discouraged.
(b) Even the senior partners at Vinayak Trauma Clinic typically bill less than 40 hours per week.
(c) Accounting rules at Vinayak Trauma Clinic only allow therapists to bill for a full hour if they have
worked on more than one problem of a client in a given day.
(d) Therapists fees at Vinayak Trauma Clinic are calculated based on 15-minute segments of billing
time.

Page

13

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

51.

The paragraph given below is followed by a question. Choose the most appropriate answer to the
question.
Since children consistently imitate the behaviors they see on TV, continued exposure to aggressive
programs will cause more children to consider aggression as an acceptable way of solving problems. In order to promote a peaceful society, the government should ban the broadcast of aggressive programs.
Which of the following is most similar in logical structure to the paragraph?
(a) A mother in a family insists that a father not smoke in front of his children so that they dont pick
up the habit.
(b) A father bans his teenage girl from watching television soaps after she is involved in a series of
bickering sessions with her classmates.
(c) A mother hides the jar of candy she usually keeps on her kitchen shelf in order to prevent her
children from gorging on it and ruining their lunch.
(d) A tour guide does not reveal to his clients the location of the towns best souvenir shop because
he has been upbraided by the shops owners for sending in too large a crowd.

52.

Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most appropriate one.
A. Whatever the links between them, Greek and Egyptian mythology were very different in scope
and function.
B. The historian and philosopher Plutarch probably did visit Egypt during the first century AD.
C. Sources like these gave rise to the habit of perceiving Egypt through Greek or Roman eyes.
D. His book Concerning Isis and Osiris retells and interprets many myths about this important pair
of deities.
E. This has been particularly damaging for the study of Egyptian myth.
(a) BDCEA

53.

(b) BDEAC

(c) ABDCE

Given below are five sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized. From the
italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
He was trying to swat (A) / swot (B) a fly with a rolled-up newspaper.
She heard a floorboard creak (A) / creek (B) upstairs.
They drew their wagons into a laager (A)/ lager (B) and set up camp.
Her heels clack (A) / claque on the marble floor.
He brayed (A) / braid (B) with laughter.
(a) AAABB
(b) BABBA
(c) AABBA

Page

(d) ABDEC

14

(d) AAAAA

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

Directions for questions 54 to 56: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Twelve delegates participated in a conference, three from each of the four regions East, West, North and
South. Anu, Dev and Loni were from North; Bini, Iti and Kaya were from South; Cara, Goru and Jai were
from West; and Esha, Fiza and Hina were from East. The delegates were divided into two groups Apex
and Pinnacle having five and seven members respectively. It is also known that:
(i)
Each group had at least one delegate from each of the four regions.
(ii)
Apex had two delegates from South.
(iii)
Anu and Goru were in different groups.
(iv)
Kaya and Iti were in the same group whereas Cara and Hina were in different groups.
(v)
If Esha was in Apex, then both Jai and Goru were in Pinnacle.
(vi)
If Esha was in Pinnacle, then Loni and Dev were in different groups.
54.

Who among the following was definitely in Pinnacle?


(a) Jai
(b) Cara
(c) Esha
(d) Hina

55.

If Bini and Anu were in the same group, then which of the following statements is definitely true?
(a) Dev and Jai were in the same group.
(b) Loni and Hina were in different groups.
(c) Hina and Esha were in different groups.
(d) Both (a) and (c)

56.

Which of the following statements cannot be true?


(a) Esha was in Pinnacle.
(b) Fiza was in Apex.
(c) Goru was in Pinnacle.
(d) Cara was in Apex.

57.

Given below are five sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized. From the
italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
This is one of the biggest weeks in the racing calendar (A)/ calender (B).
He traces his line of descent (A)/ dissent (B) from the Stuart kings.
The documentary shows the life of a fashion model, warts (A) / worts (B) and all.
The reason for McCains defeat was that his makeup could not hide wrinkles, blotches, liver spots,
and scarry (A) / scary (B) tissue.
This national park provides a safe heaven (A) / haven (B) for wild life.
(a) ABAAB

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15

(b) BBBBA

(c) AAAAB

(d) BABBA

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

58.

The paragraph given below is followed by a question. Choose the most appropriate answer to the
question.
No living person has ever experienced what comes after death, and what comes after death is totally
unlike anything that comes before. No one can conceive of a thing unless it is either something that
he or she has experienced or else something that is in at least some respect like something he or
she has experienced. Therefore, no living person can have a concept of what comes after death.
Which of the following can be concluded from the passage?
(a) One can only conceive of those things which one has experienced before or are made up of
elements that have been experienced before.
(b) What comes after death is an esoteric concept and cannot be understood by all.
(c) A near death experience can help a person understand death and its consequences.
(d) It is impossible for a living person to understand what comes after death as he has not experienced
it.

59.

Given below are four sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of
the following:
- Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open
to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with an F).
- Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the
answer option indicates such a statement with an I).
- Judgments, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations
and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement
with a J).
Select the answer option that best describes the set of four statements.
1. 16th century saw the rise of the post-war innovatory artists Stockhausen, Boulez, Robbe-Grillet,
Beckett, Coover, Rauschenberg, and Beuys.
2. This is a typically postmodernist object and doesnt resemble much in the canon of modernist
sculpture.
3. His work has been classified as postmodernist art and this classification has the potential to
inspire the question Is it really art, or just a heap of bricks pretending to be art?
4. We should be prepared to see many postmodernist ideas as very interesting and influential.
(a) FJIJ

60.

Page

(b) JFJJ

(c) JJIF

(d) FJIF

Two words given below have a certain relationship with each other and they are followed by alternatives. Select the alternative that has the same relationship as depicted in the original pair of words.
Bumptious: Humble
(a) Ignominious: Opprobrious
(b) Vituperative: Contumelious
(c) Capricious: Immutable
(d) Facetious: Witty

16

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

Unproctored Mock-3 2012


Answers and Explanations
1

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

Page

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

1. b

2. d

One cycle of S1 takes 18 seconds and that of S2 takes


24 seconds.
Therefore, the two signals turn Red simultaneously
after every 72 seconds (L.C.M of 18 and 24). Also,
exactly 6 seconds before they turn Red, they would
have turned Blue simultaneously. Hence, the two
signals will turn Blue simultaneously for the first time
exactly 66 seconds after the start.
p + q + r = a, pq + qr + pr = b and pqr = c

(i)

Also, (p + 3) (q + 3) (r + 3) = 90
pqr + 3(pq + pr + qr) + 9(p + q + r) + 27 = 90 (ii)
From equations (i) and (ii), we get,
9a + 3b + c = 63
3. b

Let the work (in units) done by a man and a woman in


one day be M and W respectively.
Total work (in units) = 10(M + 6W) = 10M + 60W

10M + 60W 10M + 60W

=5
8W
2M

5M 30W 5

=
4W
M
2
On putting

M
= x, we get
W

For questions 5 to 7:
The table given below lists all the possible routes, the number
of camps covered in a route and the total number of people
staying across all the camps covered in a route.

Route

The number of
c amps
c ov ered

The total
number of
people

X-A -D-G-Y

1000

X-A -D-E-G-Y

1200

X-A -D-E-F-G-Y

1700

X-A -B-E-G-Y

1050

X-A -B-E-F-G-Y

1550

X-A -B-F-G-Y

1350

X-A -B-C-E-G-Y

1400

X-A -B-C-E-F-G-Y

1900

X-A -B-C-F-G-Y

1700

S. No.

10

X-C-E-G-Y

850

11

X-C-E-F-G-Y

1350

12

X-C-F-G-Y

1150

5. d

5x 30 5

=
4
x
2

2100
= 1400 people in a
1.5
trip. There are eight routes on which the total number
of people are either less than or equal to 1400.
can deliver food to at most

M
= 6.
W
Therefore, the efficiency of a man is greater than that
of a woman by 500%.
On solving we get x = 6 i.e.

Note: The question can also be solved by checking


the options.
4. a

The total number of ways in which 2 cards can be


selected from 52 playing cards = 52C2.
There are 4 suits and each suit has 3 face cards
(Jack, Queen and King).
Two different suits can be selected out of the four in
4
C2 ways.
From each of the two suits selected, a face card can
be selected in 3C1 = 3 ways.
Hence, the total number of ways of selecting two
face cards of different suits = 4C2 3 3.
4

Required Probability =

As the truck contains 2100 kg of food supply and


everybody is given a food packet of 1.5 kg, the truck

C2 9
52

C2

9
=
.
221

6. a

The only route along which exactly 1400 people stay


in the camps is X-A-B-C-E-G-Y. The number of camps
covered is 5.

7. c

The two F-pairs are:


(i) 1350 people X-C-E-F-G-Y and X-A-B-F-G-Y
(ii) 1700 people X-A-D-E-F-G-Y and X-A-B-C-F-G-Y

8. b

Let the present ages (in years) of Anu, Bini and Coral
be x, y and z respectively.
y x6
=
z y6

(i)

Also, z + 6 = x 6 x = z + 12
Substituting the value of x in equation (i), we get

y z+6
=
z y6
y 2 6y = z2 + 6z
y=z+6
Therefore, the present ages (in years) of Anu, Bini
and Coral are z + 12, z + 6 and z respectively. The only
possible solution is z = 4 and the required sum is
30 years.

Page

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

9. a

The lengths of the tangents drawn from the same


point to a circle are equal. Using this property the
figure can be redrawn as:

11. a

x cm

x cm

From Statement A:
2B + M = 12
Solving the above equation with (iii), we get M = 8.
Hence, Statement A alone is sufficient to answer the
question.

E
F

6 cm

From Statement B:
4B + 5M = 48
The above equation is the same as (iii) and hence is
redundant.
Hence, Statement B alone is insufficient to answer the
question.

4 cm

3 cm
D
A

4 cm

6 cm

Inradius of triangle r =

Area
.
Semiperimeter

12. c

Using Heros formula for the area of triangle ABC,


r=3=

s (s a )(s b )(s c )
s

, where

a = 6 + x, b = 4 + x, c = 10 and s =

Thus, r = 3 =

(10 + x )( 4 )(6 )( x )
10 + x

a+b+c
= 10 + x.
2

We have

2 15
+
=5
x y

2y + 15x = 5xy
5xy 2y 15x = 0
(y 3)(5x 2) = 6

Now, 6 can be written as 2 3, 2 3, 1 6


or 1 6.
The only possible case is 5x 2 = 3 and y 3 = 2.
Therefore, x = 1 and y = 5.

Page

S =2+

1
1
1
1
+2+ +2+
+ .................. + 2 +
2
6
12
2450

S = 2 49 +

1
1
1
1
+
+
+ ..................
1 2 2 3 3 4
49 50

S = 98 + 1

1 1 1 1 1
1
1
+ + ................

2 2 3 3 4
49 50

S = 98 + 1

1 4949
.
=
50
50

24x

(10 + x )

Solving the above equation, we get x = 6.


Hence, AC = 10 cm and BC = 12 cm.
Required ratio = 5 : 6

10. b

Let the cost (in Rs.) of 1 Apple, 1 Banana and 1 Mango


be A , B and M respectively.
According to the information given in the question:
2A + 3B + M = 24
(i)
2B + 4A = 3M
(ii)
From 2(i) (ii):
4B + 5M = 48
(iii)

13. b

From the equation 7x2 6x + 1 = 0, we can deduce

6
1
and = .
7
7
It is clear from the above that 0 < , < 1.
Let S = + + 2 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 4 + 4 + . till infinity
S = { + 2 + 3 + 4 + .} + { + 2 + 3 + 4 + .}

that + =

S=

+
(As 0 < , < 1)
1
1

6 2
4
( + ) 2 = 7 7 = 7 = 2

+
=

1 1 1 ( + ) + 1 6 + 1 2
7 7 7

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

14. a

Note: If two chords of a circle are of equal lengths, then the major arcs formed by them are of the same measure and
so are the minor arcs. For example, in the figure given below, MN = PQ.
Q

P
M
N

Hence, we can conclude that = .


Any regular polygon is cyclic and hence a regular octagon is a cyclic octagon. The figure given in the question can be
redrawn as:

Hence, = = and : : = 1: 1: 1.
For questions 15 and 16:
If the ratio of Factor A to Factor B is greater than 1, then Factor A Factor B is positive.
If the ratio of Factor A to Factor B is less than 1, then Factor A Factor B is negative.
If the ratio of Factor A to Factor B is equal to 1, then Factor A Factor B is 0.
15. c

The following table provides the required information.

Year

2005

2006

2007

2008

2009

2010

Number of
Deals

I1 + ( + ve)
A1

I2 + ( ve)
A2

I3 + ( + ve)
A2

I3
A3

I4 + ( ve)
A4

I5 + ( + ve)
A5

I1 < I4 < I2 < I3 < I5 and A2 < A1 < A3 < A4 < A5


Combining the data in the table and the relations given above, we can say that in each of the years 2006, 2008 and 2009
the number of deals made by the employee was definitely less than that in 2007.
16. d

Let the number of deals made by the employee in each year from 2005 to 2010 be D1, D2, D3, D4, D5 and D6 respectively.
It is given that D1 < D2 < D3 < D4 < D5 < D6.
The following table provides the required information.

Year

2005

2006

2007

2008

2009

2010

Average Salary Per


Deal (in Rs.)

I1 + ( + ve)
D1

I2 + ( ve)
D2

I3 + ( + ve)
D3

I3
D4

I4 + ( ve)
D5

I5 + ( + ve)
D6

Combining the data in the table and the given relation, we can conclude that the Average Salary (Per Deal) cannot be
equal for 2008 and 2009.

Page

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

17. d

From Statement A:
Statement A is useless as it is not consistent with the
data given in the question. The given L.C.M. 1120 is
not a multiple of the H.C.F. 320.

From equations (i), (ii) and (iii), we get

120 + x
x
=
x
120 x
2x 2 = 1202 x = 60 2
The total distance covered by Ajit

From Statement B:
Statement B alone is clearly insufficient.
Hence, the question cannot be answered by any of
the two statements.
18. c

28a + 36b + 45c = 40(a + b + c)


12a + 4b = 5c
Let the quantities (in kg) of the three varieties of rice
be x, xr and xr2 respectively, where r is the common
ratio.
12x + 4xr = 5xr2
5r2 4r 12 = 0
(5r + 6)(r 2) = 0
r=2
Therefore, a : b : c = 1 : 2 : 4.
Required C.P. (in Rs./kg) =

19. c

= 120 + 2x = 120( 2 + 1) m.
21. d

Case I: 5 H and 0 T
The number of ways = 1
Case II: 4 H and 1 T
The number of ways = 1
Case III: 3 H and 2 T
When the 2 Ts are together, the number of ways = 1
When the 2 Ts are not together, the number of
ways = 1

28 4 + 36 + 45 2
= 34.
7

Case IV: 2 H and 3 T


When the 2 Hs are together, the number of ways = 1
When the 2 Hs are not together, the number of
ways = 1

A natural number formed by using the same digit


written 6 times (eg.777777) is always divisible by
1001 i.e.7 11 13.
(Since, 1001 111 = 111111)
Also, N can be written as:
77777777 1000 + 777
4 26 tim e s
77777777 1000 is always divisible
4 26 tim e s
by 1144 i.e. 11 13 8.
Required remainder = 777
(M ee ting po in t)
x m e te rs
1 20 m ete rs
A jit

Case V: 1 H and 4 T
The number of ways = 1
Case VI: 0 H and 5 T
The number of ways = 1
The total number of ways = 8
22. b

20. a

Though the coins are identical, each of them can show


either Head (H) or Tail (T).

The lines y = x 20 and y = x 20 intersect at


(0, 20) which lies inside the downward curve
y = x2. The three curves are plotted as given below
and the highlighted part shows f(x).

y m e te rs

1 20 m ete rs
B a ba

Y
y = x 20

Let the speeds (in m/s) of Ajit and Baba be a and b


respectively.
Let the distance (in metres) covered by Ajit and Baba
till the time they meet be (120 + x) and x respectively.

a 120 + x
=
...(i)
b
x
(In the same time, ratio of the distance covered is the
same as the ratio of the speeds.)
Let the distance (in metres) covered by Baba by the
time Ajit reaches Babas starting point be y metres.

(0 , 0 )

y = x 20
X

y = x2

(0 , 20 )

a x
=
b y

Also, x + y = 120 y = 120 x

Page

...(ii)
(iii)

f(x)

From the above graph it can be observed that the


maximum value of f(x) is 20.
Note: Solving the given three equations for critical
points can also be used to do the question but that
approach may consume more time.

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

23. c

Let the three terms in A.P. be a d, a and a + d, where


d is the common difference.
120 + n = (a d)2
(i)
(ii)
232 + n = a2
(iii)
376 + n = (a + d)2

profit percentage of the company must have been at


least 40%.
27. b

The distance covered by the boy in 40 seconds


= 56 m. The situation is described in the figure given
below.

Subtracting equation (i) from (ii) and equation (ii) from


(iii), we get
2ad d2 = 112
2ad + d2 = 144

4 20 0 cm

d = 4 and a = 16
Therefore, from equation (i), we get
120 + n = 122 n = 24
Required sum = 2 + 4 = 6

1 00 cm
B

For questions 24 to 26:

4200 5600 + x
=
100
x
42x = 5600 + x

12x
x 5
<1 <
10y
y 6

x=
28. c

We need to find the minimum possible ratio of the total


revenue generated to the total cost incurred by the
company such that none of the six branches suffers
a loss.
For Bhilai branch, the ratio of revenue to cost is the
least i.e.

5x
among the six branches. For Bhilai to have
7y

a no-profit-no-loss situation,

Page

x 7
= . Therefore, the
y 5

5600
= 136.6 approximately.
41

The prime factorized form of 20!


= 218 38 54 72 111 131 171 191
When any factor of 38 72 111 131 171 191 is
1
2
3
4
multiplied by 5 , 5 , 5 or 5 , the unit digit of the resulting
number will be 5.
The number of factors of 38 72 111 131 171 191
= 9 3 2 2 2 2 = 432.

Thus, k may be greater than 1.


Similarly, the only other branch which may have made
a profit in 2010 is Ehsangadh branch.

26. c

x 5
4
5
25
.
< k < and k <
y 6
5
6
24

It is given that
20x 16y 10x 14y
=
10z
25z
80x = 52y x : y = 13 : 20
The only branch which made profit in 2010 was
Ehsangadh branch.

C x cm

AB BE
=
DC CE

If a branch makes a profit then the ratio of revenue to


cost will be more than 1 and if a branch suffers a loss
then the ratio of revenue to cost will be less than 1.
As Ferozabad branch made a loss in 2010,

Let the ratio of revenue to cost for Arunpur branch be


k.
20x
x 4

=k = k
16y
y 5

25. d

5 60 0 cm

Here AB is the lamppost, DC is the boy and CE is the


shadow of the boy.
By using the property of similar triangles,

Let the total revenue generated by the company, the total cost
Incurred by the company and the total number of employees
working in the company in the year 2010 be 100x, 100y and
100z respectively.
24. a

The number of factors of 20! whose unit digit is 5


= 432 4 = 1728.
29. c

x4 y4 2x3 + 2y3 2yx2 + 2xy2 = 0


(i)
Put y = x in the L.H.S. of (i):
x4 x4 2x3 + 2x3 2x3 + 2x3 = 0 = R.H.S.
Hence, (x y) is a factor of x4 y4 2x3 + 2y3 2yx2
+ 2xy2.
Similarly, it can be proved that (x + y) is also a factor of
x4 y4 2x3 + 2y3 2yx2 + 2xy2.
Dividing x4 y4 2x3 + 2y3 2yx2 + 2xy2 by x2 y2, we
get x2 + y2 2x 2y as the quotient.
Hence, the given equation reduces to
(x y)(x + y)(x2 + y2 2x 2y) = 0.
x y = 0 and x + y = 0 are equations of straight lines.
x2 + y2 2x 2y = 0 is the equation of a circle whose
center is at (1, 1) and radius is 2 units.

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

30. b

Let the base radius (in cm) and the height (in cm) of
one of the cones be r and h respectively and the base
radius (in cm) and the height (in cm) of the other cone
be R and H respectively.

P or M < G < A < P.


Case II: If A < P, then M < G and if P < G, then A < M.
Combining these two statements, we get A < M < P < G
or A < P < M < G.

We have, r R = h H
Let

r H
= =k
h R

Case III: If M > G, then A > P and if A > M, then P > G.


Combining these two statements, we get A > M > P > G
or A > P > M > G.

...(i)

Also, r 2 + h2 = R2 + H2
...(ii)
(Since the slant heights of the two cones are equal.)

Case IV: If M > G, then A > P and if P < G, then A < M.


Combining these two statements, we get M > A > G >
P or M > G > A > P.

From equations (i) and (ii), we get


Case II and III can be discarded as it is given that A is
neither the heaviest nor the lightest among the four.
Also, both A > G and P > M cannot be true
simultaneously (statement iii).
Hence, only possible cases are M < A < G < P (from
Case I) and P < G < A < M (from Case IV).
Hence, the lightest and the heaviest among the four
friends are Moksh and Prem, in no particular order.

h2k 2 + h2 = R2 + R2k 2
h2 = R2
h = R and r = H
Required sum =

1
(52 6 + 62 5) = 110 cm2
3

31. d

Eating in means to eat at home. Eat into means to use


something valuable when you dont want to. Eat up
means to eat all of something. Eating away means to
destroy slowly. The correct usage in option (d) should
have been just eating at the restaurant.

36. c

The style of the passage is factual as the author


presents facts surrounding the investigation of the
accident at Union Carbides Bhopal plant. The author
does not incriminate or give a definitive judgment that
Union Carbide was willfully responsible for the
accident.

32. c

To get across an idea means that we succeed in


making other people understand it. To get ahead means
to succeed. To get away with means not to get caught,
criticized or punished for doing something wrong. To
get after means to nag someone. The correct phrase
in option (c) should have been to get around to which
means to finally manage to do something.

37. c

33. a

'Underscore', as a verb, means to make evident;


emphasize. For example: He arrived early to
underscore the importance of the occasion. Option
(a) is the correct answer. Option (b) is incorrect as it
goes against the meaning of the sentence. Option (c)
states that China's refusal undermines the fact that
China is not reliable. 'Undermine' means to make
something, especially somebody's confidence or
authority, gradually weaker or less effective. Thus,
option (c) is opposite in meaning to the original
statement. Option (d) can also be ruled out as conform
cannot be used as a synonym of underscore.

Option (c) has not been mentioned in the passage and


is thus the correct option. Instead in the last line of
paragraph three, the author states that Union Carbide
did not do anything to alert the population that would
be affected by an accident. Option (a) has been
mentioned in the first line of paragraph three. Option
(b) has been mentioned in the first line of paragraph
six. Option (d) has been mentioned in the first line of
paragraph five.

38. b

The last line of paragraph three leads to the inference


that is given in option (b). It is clearly stated that a
safety survey pointed out major hazards but Union
Carbide took no steps to avoid the affect of this. The
passage also mentions constant problems with safety
valves and the fact that there was inadequate
equipment being used in the plant. These also point to
the inference that Union Carbide did not act on potential
hazards. Option (a) can be ruled out because there is
no clear indication in the passage that Union Carbide
deliberately and with cunning avoided taking any steps.
Option (c) is incorrect as one cannot conclude about
the behaviour and attitude of all companies on the
basis of the behaviour of a single one. Moreover, the
comparison of attitude of Union Carbide towards
developed and developing countries is beyond the
scope of the passage. Option (d) is incorrect. Although
in the last line of the first paragraph, the author does
say that this accident and the following investigation
has put serious doubt on building these plants in the
third world countries but he does not say that Union
Carbide can be excused in this matter. The author, on

34. d

Refer to the lines Its an asymmetry...own finished


products. from which (a), (b) and (c) can be inferred.
(d) is incorrect. Although the use of water is an
unresolved issue, it is not a trade issue that needs to
be resolved.

35. a

Let the weights of Anuj, Prem, Moksh and Gyan be


represented by A, P, M and G respectively.
Case I: If A < P, then M < G and if A > M, then P > G.
Combining these two statements, we get M < A < G <

Page

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

several occasions, does concede that Union Carbide


had deliberately neglected a potential hazard.
39. d

The passage starts by discussing how the sources


of income for the elderly have changed over the years.
The last paragraph also indicates that the elderly are
not as susceptible to inflation as they were and social
security payments make their financial situation much
easier to manage. Option (d) is the best answer. Option
(a) is incorrect as the author does mention the sources
of income but his primary purpose is to discuss how
the standing of the elderly with respect to financial
income has changed over the years. Option (b) is also
mentioned by the author, but it adds to the central idea.
Option (c) cannot be taken as the central idea as this
is mentioned only in the last line. The author does not
mention younger families and their financial situation
in comparison with older families in the rest of the
passage.

40. b

In the first paragraph the author discusses why many


retirees do not opt for full-time work. He mentions that
the reason is that if their income is above $7,320, then
their Social Security is taxed at 50 per cent. To avoid
this, most retirees work only to the extent that their
income remains below the cutoff of $7,320. Option (b)
is the correct answer. Option (a) is incorrect as it
opposite to the information given in the passage. Option
(c) cannot be inferred as there is not enough
information in the passage to suggest that the retirees
avoid getting taxed altogether.

41. b

As per the verse, liberal or conservative tendencies


are inherent in human beings. That every boy and
every gal...conservative. Hence, (b) is the correct
answer. (a) is incorrect as the words liberal and
conservative may not have political connotations. (c)
is also incorrect as everything being reduced to two
is a generalization which is not supported by content
of the verse. (d) is incorrect as the verse tells us that
either of the two tendencies must exist. The verse is
silent on whether these tendencies can co-exist or
not.

42. a

The paragraph discusses the speeding up of the


tunneling work. Option (a) follows the logical flow by
discussing the result of speeding up the work. Option
(b) could have introduced the paragraph but it does
not come in logically after the penultimate sentence.
Option (c) is incorrect as it specifies the name of the
tunnel and discusses a road for emergencies both
are beyond the scope of the information in the
paragraph. Option (d) deviates from the central idea
the discussion is about the speeding up of work and
not about the material used in building the tunnel.

For questions 43 and 44:


Let Akash, Binay, Chatur, Deepak, Ehsan, Fardeen be
represented by A, B, C, D, E and F respectively. From statement
(ii), it can be inferred that the two coins received by A, D and

Page

F must be (1, 1), (1, 2) and (2, 2), in no particular order. Also,
from statement (iii), it can be concluded that the six coins
received by A, D and F must be the six distributed by B, C and
E. From statement (iv), B received Rs. 6 and hence must have
got a coin of Rs. 2 from each of A, D and F. Also, C received the
same amount as F, which must be Rs. 2 (in form of two Re.1
coins) for each. Further analysis leads to the following table:

Given by

Coin
Re. 1

Rs. 2

43. a

Akash (Rs. 4)

44. a

Rs. 3 Re. 1 = Rs. 2

45. c

The paragraph states the fear that nuclear technology


could have been transferred to terrorists. However,
the paragraph then changes its tone and states that
experts feel that even if this were true, the technology
would not be useful to terrorist groups who would
need more resources. The penultimate line before the
blank indicates that it will be probably impossible for
terror groups to take advantage of any leaks in
information or even receipt of equipment. Option (c)
substantiates this by saying that it is difficult for
countries themselves to gather the resources needed.
Option (a) is incorrect as it brings attention to an
irrelevant detail. Option (b) is out of context as the
paragraph is not concerned with the amount of
uranium that has been produced by Pakistan.

46. c

The word miffed in the sentence indicates that both


blanks will take negative words. The sentence wants
to express that because the actor was unhappy with
the media he continued to make bitter comments
throughout the interview.
Option (a) to disguise means to hide which fits in well
in the first blank but elusive does not go with the
context as the sentence does not give any indication
of why the actor will try to evade questions or be
elusive in his reply . The given sentence indicates
bitterness on the part of the actor and hence caustic
is a better fit.
Option (b) control can fit in the first blank but garbled
which means jumbled or unclear does not go with the
sense of the sentence.
Option (c) to conceal means to hide which fits in the
first blank. Caustic means bitter. Hence, both the
words are logically appropriate in the given context
and option (c) is the correct answer.

47. c

Juxtapose A and B means to put people or things


together, especially in order to show a contrast or a
new relationship between them. For example: In the
exhibition, abstract paintings are juxtaposed with
shocking photographs.
Refer to the clue words abruptly juxtaposes, holy

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

rituals to profane ceremonies given in the sentence.


Clearly, the first blank should have a positive word
and the second blank a negative word. Option (c) is
the best fit as piety means holiness and ribaldry
means not refined; vulgar. The other options fail to
express the contrast.

passage proposes a solution designed to prevent, not


to punish, aggressive behavior.
Option (a) is correct. When a mother in a family insists
that a father not smoke in front of his children, she
assumes that the children will imitate an undesirable
behavior. Her insistence is designed to prevent such
behavior (and not to punish).
Option (b) is incorrect. Though this option contains a
similar theme to the passage, the fathers decision is
made after the misbehavior of his daughters and is
intended as a punishment.
Option (c) is incorrect. This situation seems similar to
the passage in logical structure, but does not cover
the aspect of imitation which results in a certain type
of behavior. The mother assumes a connection
between the observation of candy and her children
ruining their lunch by eating too much; her action is
also a preventative measure.
Option (d) is incorrect. The tour guides action is a
preventative measure, but the unpleasant outcome
would come from the shops owners, not the crowd,
and would affect only the tour guide.

For questions 48 and 49:


From statement (vi), Bachans car is the second from the front
and is Red in colour. Hence, from statement (ii), Mallyas car is
the first from the front. Now, Mallyas car is not Red in colour.
From statement (v), Mallyas car is not Black in colour as it
cannot be the first from the front. Similarly, from statement
(vii), Mallyas car is not White in colour as it cannot be the first
from the front. From statement (viii), Mallyas car is not Silver in
colour. From statement (iii), it can be concluded that Mallya is
driving the Violet Skoda.
Now, Bachan is not driving Skoda. From statement (i), Bachan
is not driving Accord as it is not Red in colour. From statement
(ii), Bachan is not driving Audi. From statement (vii), Bachan is
not driving Honda City as it must be behind at least two cars.
Therefore, it can be concluded that Bachan is driving BMW.
Further analysis leads to the following table:
52. a

BDCEA
B mentions the name of the historian Plutarch and his
visit to Egypt. His in D refers to Plutarch. Thus, BD is
a mandatory pair. The sources like this refers to the
book Concerning Isis and Osiris mentioned in D. So,
BDC is a sequence. The this in E refers to the habit of
perceiving Egypt through Greek or Roman eyes. Thus,
CE is also a mandatory pair. Hence, the correct
sequence is BDCEA.

53. d

AAAAA
Swat something means to hit something, especially
an insect, using your hand or a flat object. Swot
refers to a person who spends too much time
studying. So, swat is apt for the first sentence. Creak
means to make the sound that a door sometimes makes
when you open it or that a wooden floor sometimes
makes when you step on it. Creek refers to a member
of a Native American people, many of whom now live
in the US state of Oklahoma. So, creak is apt for the
second sentence. Laager refers to a group of
wagons that were put into a circle in order to protect
people in the middle. Lager refers to a type of light
pale beer that usually has a lot of bubbles. Thus, laager
is apt for the third sentence. If two hard objects clack,
they make a short loud sound when they hit each
other. On the other hand, claque refers to a group of
people who are paid to clap or boo a performer or
public speaker. Brayed means to talk or laugh in a
loud unpleasant voice. Braid means a long piece of
something, especially hair, that is divided into three
parts and twisted together. For example: She wears
her hair in braids. Braid also refers to a thin colored
rope that is used to decorate furniture and military
uniforms. For example: The generals uniform was
trimmed with gold braid.

Lef t to Right Cars f rom First to Last


Nam e

Mallya Bachan Tendulkar Chandra

Car

Skoda BMW

Colour V iolet

Red

A shoka

A ccord

Honda City A udi

White

Silver

Black

48. a

Ashoka

49. c

Accord

50. d

Option (d) is correct. This option provides adequate


evidence to counter the authors claim. If fees at the
clinic are determined in 15-minute segments, rather
than an hourly segments, then therapists will not be
able to bill for a full hour unless they have performed
work during four 15-minute intervals.
Option (a) is incorrect. Though over-billing may be
strongly discouraged; this option does not present
conclusive evidence that abusive billing practices will
be prevented.
Option (b) is incorrect. The number of hours billed by
therapists at the clinic provide no evidence about the
how the billing about time is done, making determination
about over-billing impossible.
Option (c) is incorrect. This option would actually
strengthen the authors claim that therapists are likely
to bill full hours for brief tasks.

51. a

The author assumes in the first sentence that children


who watch aggressive television programs will
themselves become more aggressive by imitating such
aggressive behavior. Since aggression is not desirable,
the author suggests that the government deter more
people from behaving aggressively by preventing the
publics exposure to the cause of aggression:
aggressive television programs. Also note that the

Page

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

For questions 54 to 56:


Let Anu, Bini, Cara, Dev, Esha, Fiza, Goru, Hina, Iti, Jai, Kaya
and Loni be represented by A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L
respectively.
From statement (i), two delegates from each region were in
one group and one delegate was in the other group.
From statement (ii), the number of delegates from the regions
North, East, West and South in Apex and Pinnacle were 1,
1, 1 and 2 and 2, 2, 2 and 1 respectively.
From statement (iv), K and I were in Apex whereas B was in
Pinnacle.

family origins, for example: to be of Scottish descent.


Dissent refers to the fact of having or expressing
opinions that are different from those that are officially
accepted. Thus, descent is apt for the second
sentence. Warts and all is an idiom which means
including all the bad or unpleasant features of
somebody/something. Wart refers to a small hard
lump that grows on skin and is caused by a virus.
Wort refers to a herb with yellow flowers, used in
medicines. Thus, in the context of the given sentence,
only warts is appropriate. Scarry means bearing
marks of wounds whereas scary means frightening.
So scarry is appropriate for the fourth sentence.
Heaven refers to a place or situation in which you
are very happy or the place believed to be the home of
God where good people go when they die. Haven on
the other hand refers to a place that is safe and
peaceful where people or animals are protected. Safe
haven is a noun and it refers to a place where
somebody can go to be safe from danger or attack.
So, haven is apt for the fifth sentence.

Case I: E was in Pinnacle.


As L and D were in different groups, A was in Pinnacle and
hence G was in Apex. Subsequently, C and J were in Pinnacle
and so H was in Apex. Hence, E and F were in Pinnacle. The
conclusions made thus far can be tabulated as given below.

Apex

Pinnacle

South

K and I

East

E and F

West

C and J

North

L/D

A and (D/L)

58. d

Option (d) is correct as it clearly presents that a living


person cannot comprehend death as there is no way
he can get close to experiencing death.
(a) is incorrect as the central idea of the paragraph is
to prove that a living person cannot have an
understanding of what comes after death as it is an
experience that he has not gone through. In addition,
there is nothing that comes close to the experience of
death. (b) is incorrect as the paragraph does not
highlight that the concept of death is difficult to
comprehend and can be understood by only a few
people. The purpose of the paragraph is to highlight
the impossibility of an experience that can help
comprehend death. (c) is also incorrect as the
paragraph clearly states that what comes after death
is totally unlike what comes before it. So even a neardeath experience cannot help one comprehend death.

59. a

FJIJ
Statement 1 is open to verification and hence it is a
fact. Statement 2 is an opinion presented by the author.
Hence, this is a judgment. In statement 3, the first half
of the statement has been classified as postmodernist
art can be taken as a fact where as the second half
of the sentence is the authors opinion. Thus, statement
3 can be classified as an inference. Statement 4 is the
authors opinion and hence a judgment. The correct
answer choice is option (a).

60. c

Bumptious means presumptuously self-assertive.


Humble is an antonym of bumptious. The correct
answer choice is option (c). Options (a), (b) and (d)
have words that are synonyms of each other.

Case II: E was in Apex.


F and H were in Pinnacle. As H was in Pinnacle, C was in Apex
and hence J and G were in Pinnacle. Thus, A was in Apex and
D and L were in Pinnacle. The conclusions made thus far can
be tabulated as given below.

Apex

Pinnacle

South

K and I

East

F and H

West

J and G

North

D and L

54. a

Jai was definitely in Pinnacle.

55. c

If Bini and Anu were in the same group, E was in


Pinnacle. Therefore, Hina and Esha were in different
groups.

56. b

Looking at both the cases we can say that Fiza was


definitely not in Apex.

57. c

AAAAB
Calendar means a list of important events or dates of
a particular type during the year. Calender, as a verb,
means to press (as cloth, rubber, or paper) between
rollers or plates in order to smooth and glaze or to thin
into sheets. As a noun it means a machine for
calendering something. So, calendar is the apt word
for the first sentence. Descent refers to a persons

Page

10

Unproctored Mock-3 2012

Unproctored Mock-4 2012


Section - I
1.

In triangle ABC, the internal angle bisector of A meets BC at point D. If AB = 8 cm, AD = 6 cm


and BAC = 120, then what is the length of AC?
(a) 24 cm

(b) 12 cm

(c) 6 3 cm

(d) None of these

2.

Ashish, Bimal and Chatur are three friends who come to visit an amusement park. Each of the three
is accompanied by his father and his grandfather to the park. In how many ways can these nine
people stand in the queue at the entry gate if no father wants to stand ahead of his son in the queue?
(b) 9C36P3
(c) 9P36C3
(d) None of these
(a) 9C36C3

3.

If N = 1! 2! + 3! 4! +..+ 47! 48! + 49!, then what is the unit digit of NN?
(a) 0
(b) 9
(c) 7
(d) 1

4.

P and Q are two opposite ends of a straight running track. Ria and Tia start running towards each
other simultaneously from P and Q respectively. As soon as any of them reaches an end, she turns
back and starts running towards the other end. Their first meeting happens at a point 210 m away
from P and the second meeting happens at a point 150 m away from Q. If the speeds (in m/s) of Ria
and Tia are x and y respectively, such that 2x > y > x, then what is the distance between P and Q?
(a) 420 m
(b) 480 m
(c) 540 m
(d) Cannot be determined

5.

Consider the following two curves in the x-y plane:


y = x4 + 2x3 + 4x 8
y = 2x3 + 2x2 + 4x
Which of following statements is true for 0 x 5 ?
(a) The two curves intersect once.
(b) The two curves intersect twice.
(c) The two curves do not intersect.
(d) The two curves intersect four times.

Page

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

Directions for questions 6 to 8: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Six teams, from six different states, participated in a Hockey tournament. Each match was played in the
home state of one of the two participating teams. The team which belongs to the state in which a match is
played is called the Home Team and the other team is called the Visiting Team.
The table given below shows the number of matches won by each team against each of the rest of the five
teams in its home state. E.g. 12 matches were played between Atlanta Hawks and Boston Celtics in the
home state of Atlanta Hawks, of which Atlanta Hawks won 8 matches and Boston Celtics won the rest
4 matches. No match ended in a draw in the tournament.
Visiting
Team
Home
Team
Atlanta
Hawks
Boston
Celtics
Chicago
Bulls
Denver
Nuggets
Indiana
Pacers
LA
Lakers

Atlanta
Hawks

Boston
Celtics

Chicago
Bulls

Denver
Nuggets

Indiana
Pacers

LA
Lakers

8/12

7/9

5/9

4/7

2/10

7/10

5/8

2/5

6/7

4/8

6/7

9/11

8/9

4/5

5/6

3/6

5/12

4/8

7/9

1/10

5/6

6/9

3/7

7/10

7/12

9/10

7/7

8/11

5/6

6/9

The points were awarded after a match as per the rules given below.
(i) No point was awarded to a team for losing a match in its home state.
(ii) One point was awarded to a team for losing a match in a state other than its home state.
(iii) Two points were awarded to a team for winning a match in its home state.
(iv) Three points were awarded to a team for winning a match in a state other than its home state.
6.

If the team which scored the maximum number of points among the six teams was declared the
winner of the tournament, then which team finished as first runner up in the tournament?
(a) LA Lakers
(b) Chicago Bulls
(c) Boston Celtics
(d) Indiana Pacers

7.

How many points were scored by the team which lost the maximum number of matches in its home
state among the six teams in the tournament?
(a) 109
(b) 113
(c) 103
(d) None of these

8.

The number of matches lost by Indiana Pacers in states other than its home state form what
percentage of the total matches played by Indiana Pacers?
(a) 10%
(b) 16.67%
(c) 25%
(d) 33.33%

Page

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

9.

A = k2 1 and B = (k + 1)2 1, where k is a natural number greater than 1. How many prime
numbers are there by which both A and B are divisible for at least one value of k?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) More than 2

10.

One of the roots of the equation x2 + bx + 2b = 0 (where b is a real number) is twice the other root.
Which of the following is the equation whose roots are b and b + 1?
(a) x2 + 19x 90 = 0 (b) x2 9x + 20 = 0
(c) x2 + 9x 90 = 0
(d) x2 19x + 90 = 0

11.

A 1-litre water-alcohol mixture M1 contains 40% water while another 1-litre water-alcohol mixture M2
contains 70% water. x ml is taken out from each of the two mixtures and put in two separate
containers. The quantity taken out from M1 is mixed into the remaining part of M2 and the quantity
taken out from M2 is mixed into the remaining part of M1. If the two mixtures contain equal quantities
of water after the operation, then what is the value of x?
(a) 300
(b) 400
(c) 500
(d) 600

12.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using Statement A alone, but cannot be answered
by using Statement B alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using Statement B alone, but cannot be answered
by using Statement A alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Q. ABCD is a quadrilateral inscribed in a circle. What is the measure of BAC ?

A
50

30

A. AB is parallel to CD.
B. BDC is thrice of BCA.

Page

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

13.

Given below is the sequence of all the natural numbers which dont contain the digit 0.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 11, 12, 13
What is the 200th term of this sequence?
(a) 242

14.

(b) 241

(c) 255

(d) 253

The shape of a solid plastic toy is shown in the figure given below. The structure consists of a
cylinder, frustum of a cone and a hemisphere. The height and radius of the cylinder are H/2 and r
respectively. The radius of the hemisphere is R. The height and base radius of the original cone were
H and R respectively. If H = 2R = 4r, then what is the volume of the toy?
r

(a) 12r 3

(b) 24 r 3

(c) 12R3

(d) 24 R3

Directions for questions 15 and 16: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In a society, the newspapers of only three languages Marathi, Gujarati and Hindi are distributed. Each
family residing in the society reads newspapers of at least one of the three languages.
The total number of families reading newspapers of exactly one language can be divided into three types
only Marathi, only Gujarati and only Hindi. These three numbers are in A.P., in no particular order. Similarly,
the three types of families reading newspapers of exactly two languages are also in A.P. The number of
families reading newspapers of all the three languages is one-tenth of the number of families reading only
Gujarati newspapers, which in turn is two-third of the number of families reading only Hindi newspapers.
The number of families reading both Marathi and Gujarati newspapers is 15, whereas the number of
families reading both Gujarati and Hindi newspapers is 19. The number of families reading Hindi newspapers
is 70, which is more than the number of families reading Marathi newspapers.
15.

16.

Page

What is the total number of families in the society?


(a) 111
(b) 113
(c) 128

(d) Cannot be determined

What is the number of families reading both Marathi and Hindi newspapers?
(a) 11
(b) 21
(c) 23
(d) Cannot be determined

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

17.

Four identical bags are distributed among four boys. If each boy can get any number of bags then
what is the probability that no boy gets more than two bags?
(a)

18.

18
35

(b)

2
7

(c)

19
35

(d)

16
35

p2
, where p, q, r and s are real numbers.
q
s2
What is the difference between the maximum and the minimum possible values of s?
(a) 0.0875
(b) 0.105
(c) 0.210
(d) None of these
4 p 9, 0.25 q 0.36, 0.49 r 0.01 and

19.

The work done by 2 men in a day is equal to the work done by 3 children in a day. The work done by
3 men in a day is equal to the work done by 5 women in a day. It takes 10 days for a man, a woman
and a child to complete a job working together. How many days will 2 children working together take
to complete the same job?
(a) 30
(b) 15
(c) 17
(d) 34

20.

Two circles of radii 6 cm each have their centers at O and O respectively. The circles intersect at
points M and N, and pass through the centers of each other. A point P is taken on the minor arc OM.
The points N and P are joined and the line segment NP is extended to meet the circle with center O
at point Q. If PQ = 4 cm, what fraction of the area of the circle with center O is occupied by the
triangle MPQ?
(a)

21.

3
4

(b)

3
9

(c)

3
6

(d)

3
8

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Q. Two cars, 100 km apart, start moving towards each other. After how much time will they meet?
A. The ratio of the speeds of the two cars is 3 : 7.
B. The slower car is travelling at a speed at which it will cover a distance of 600 km in 10 hours.

22.

Two different two-digit natural numbers are written beside each other such that the larger number is
written on the left. When the absolute difference of the two numbers is subtracted from the four-digit
number so formed, the number obtained is 5481. What is the sum of the two two-digit numbers?
(a) 70
(b) 71
(c) 72
(d) 73

23.

How many integer pairs (x, y) are there such that x3 + 3x2 4x = 81y3 9y2 + 6y 1?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

Page

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

Directions for questions 24 to 26: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Production
(mn tonnes)

Pekoslovakia produces just five commodities every year. If the production of a commodity in a year is more
than its requirement then it is exported whereas if the production is less than its requirement then it is
imported. The graph given below shows the volume of production (in mn tonnes) of the five commodities in
Pekoslovakia from the year 2003 to the year 2006.

70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0

Pulse
Jowar
Bajra
Rice
Wheat
2003

2004

2005

2006

Year

Requirement (% distribution)

The total requirement of the five commodities together in 2003 was 200 mn tonnes; it increased by 20% in
2004 over 2003; then remained constant in 2005; and then finally increased by 25% in 2006 over 2005. The
graph given below shows the percentage requirement of each commodity as a part of the total requirement
in each of the four years.
100%
90%
80%
70%
60%
50%
40%
30%
20%
10%
0%

Pulse
Jowar
Bajra
Rice
Wheat

2003

2004

2005

2006

Year

24.

Which was the year in which all the five commodities were imported by Pekoslovakia?
(a) 2003
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2006

25.

In which year was the difference between the total requirement and the total production of the five
commodities minimum among the four years?
(a) 2003
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2006

26.

How many commodities were exported by Pekoslovakia in 2004?


(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3

Page

(d) 4
Unproctored Mock-4 2012

27.

A = 2812, B = 188 and C = 216. How many natural numbers are there by which at least one among
A, B and C is divisible?
(a) 499
(b) 501
(c) 504
(d) 505

28.

It takes 30 hours for an inlet pipe to fill an empty tank completely. When 5 identical inlet pipes and
4 identical outlet pipes operate together, the same empty tank get filled completely in 10 hours.
How much time (in hours) will an outlet pipe take to empty the same tank when its filled upto half its
volume?
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 30

29.

The chord AB of a circle is the perpendicular bisector of the chord CD of the same circle. The two
chords intersect at point E. If CD = BE = 4 cm, then what is the circumference of the circle?
(a) 4 cm

30.

(b) 5 cm

(d) 8 cm

What is the number of ways in which a team of 3 members can be selected from 4 boys and 6 girls
such that there is at least one boy and at least one girl in the team?
4

(a) 4C16C18C1

Page

(c) 6 cm

(b)

C16 C18 C1
2

(c) 10C3

(d) None of these

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

Section - II
Directions for questions 31 and 32: The passage given below is followed by a set of two questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
The spiritual interlocutor interacts without preconceived notions. The good discussant receives without
barriers and responds in a heightened state of understanding. The shedding of constructs becomes at
once a spiritual and humanist pursuit. Most of us, by force of sub- conscious habit, introduce our experiential
and intellectual baggage into our interactions with people. This not only distorts our understanding of the
material reality, but inhibits our spiritual growth as well. We stew in our here and now boxes, unable to
elevate ourselves as a bird would.
Yet, the validity of experience should not be discounted. Experience should be assessed with a certain
heightened objectivity for one to draw the right lessons for ones actions. So detachment should be seen
as a means to arrive at that state of balanced understanding. It does not preclude pain and compassion;
but it discards obfuscation and hypocrisy.
Creativity is said to spring from the angst of experience. Often the outpourings of a tortured mind make for
great literature and painting. Ironically, existential pain can bring about work of transcendental quality. The
beauty and simplicity of Kahlil Gibrans The Prophet is testimony to the literary virtues of spiritualism. The
spiritual world is a rich, fulsome, loving nothingness that opens up the heavens, not a musty blankness.
Compassion could liberate us from the boundaries of the mind. The house- holder looks after the family out
of a sense of duty and affection, which in due course becomes second nature. The mental and emotional
universe of such an individual is able to accommodate reality in virtually all its dimensions. Psychologist
Eric Fromm points out that love must be all-encompassing by nature for an individual to be spiritually
liberated. To love some people and resent others is not real love.
31.

Which of the following will be a suitable title for the passage?


(a) Spiritual Equality
(b) Limitations of the Intellectual
(c) Creativity and Spirituality
(d) Being Spiritual

32.

It does not preclude pain and compassion; but it discards obfuscation and hypocrisy. When
paraphrased, how will the given sentence read?
(a) Experience does not prevent pain and compassion but rejects disguise and insincerity.
(b) Detachment does not prevent pain and compassion but rejects disguise and insincerity.
(c) Detachment does not prevent pain and compassion but rejects complication and pretense.
(d) Experience does not prevent pain and compassion but rejects complication and pretense.

Page

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

Directions for questions 33 to 35: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
A sensible and fair approach would be to let the high-end tax cuts expire as scheduled, but keep the other
tax cuts for another year. That would keep more cash in the hands of people most likely to spend it and
prop up consumer demand while the economy is weak. It would give Congress and the administration time
to undertake tax reform.
Most Congressional Republicans are willing to embrace reform, but only if it is revenue neutral. There is
no question that the system is overly complicated; it is also riddled with hugely costly special deals for
special interests. Any reform must streamline the code, make it fairer and most important raise more
revenue.
Each year, the government provides $1 trillion in tax breaks. Some of the largest breaks for itemized
deductions and retirement savings should be retained because they subsidize important goals, like
home ownership and old-age security. Right now, wealthier taxpayers get the greatest benefit. The process
needs to be reformed so that most of the help flows to those who most need it: low- and middle-income
taxpayers.
At the same time, super-low tax rates for investment income should be ended. Capital gains are taxed at
a top rate of 15 percent, compared with a top rate for wages and salary of 35 percent. Proponents argue
that the lower rate is an incentive to invest, but research shows that it also encourages gaming of the
system. Tax breaks that have outlived their purpose must be ended, starting with subsidies for the oil
industry, which is making billions in profits.
The revenue from such reforms could be used to pay down the deficit and allow all tax rates to be lowered,
improving incentives to work. The amount of revenue raised and the drop in tax rates will depend on how
much tax breaks are curbed.
Congress should consider raising revenues in other ways, like a value-added tax, or carbon taxes. That
way all of the needed revenue for deficit reduction, and for what government provides, does not need to be
squeezed from the income tax. A value-added tax is conducive to saving, and a carbon tax helps protect
the environment.
The public is open to new taxes, and the economic facts are clear. Until tax increases are considered in
equal measure to spending cuts, there will be no budget fix.
33.

What is the tone of the passage?


(a) Placatory
(b) Advisory

(c) Premonitory

(d) Critical

34.

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?


(a) The current tax structure does not give the greatest benefit to low- and middle-income taxpayers.
(b) The current tax structure aims to give the greatest benefit to low- and middle-income taxpayers.
(c) Tax breaks give the greatest benefit to wealthier taxpayers.
(d) The current tax structure does not give the greatest benefit to wealthier taxpayers.

Page

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

35.

Which of the following can be inferred from the last sentence of the passage?
(a) Tax increase will give Congress and the administration time to undertake tax reforms.
(b) The economy can be strengthened if more importance is given to tax increases.
(c) The economy can be strengthened if less importance is given to spending cuts.
(d) The economy can be strengthened with equal importance given to tax increases and spending
cuts.

36.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Q. A program is telecasted on a channel in five different languages Hindi, English, Tamil, Malayalam
and Telugu in five consecutive time slots, not necessarily in the same order. What is the language
in the third slot?
A. Hindi is either in the second or in the fourth slot. Tamil is not in the first slot.
B. English and Malayalam are in two consecutive slots. Telugu is neither in the first nor in the last
slot.

37.

Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate
one.
A. But instead the administration went into fright mode, ordering federal employees not to look at
the cables at work or at home.
B. Thus the attempts to block or close down the website, even going so far as to call for the
assassination of WikiLeaks founder Julian Assange.
C. These are symptoms of a weak, failing culture, unable to deal with its own history.
D. The administration doesnt want government workers and troops and ordinary citizens to see
how their political sausage is made.
E. Censorship is always a bad move.
(a) ABECD

38.

(c) ADBCE

(d) ACDBE

Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate
one.
A. We surely need a much smarter long-term fiscal plan.
B. We need to cut spending in areas and on a time schedule that will hurt the least.
C. We need to raise taxes in ways that will hurt the least.
D. We need to use some of these revenues to invest in the pillars of our growth.
E. We need to offer every possible incentive to get our countrymen to start new businesses to grow
out of this hole.
(a) ABCDE

Page

(b) AEDBC

10

(b) ACEDB

(c) ACEBD

(d) ADCBE
Unproctored Mock-4 2012

39.

Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate
one.
A. Ostensibly a member of the Congolese Army, he is in fact a freelance killer with his own ethnic
Tutsi militia.
B. All this might be a price worth paying if the law were having its intended effect.
C. Meanwhile, the law is benefiting some of the very people it was meant to single out.
D. The chief beneficiary is Gen. Bosco Ntaganda, who is nicknamed The Terminator.
E. They provide security to traders smuggling minerals across the border to neighboring Rwanda.
(a) ACDEB

(b) DAEBC

(c) CDAEB

(d) BEACD

Directions for questions 40 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A bus left Terminal A for Terminal B and passed through seven bus stops on its way P, Q, R, S, T, U and
V not necessarily in the same order. The distance between any two consecutive bus stops was the
same. The bus always moved with a constant speed, which was either v m/s or 2v m/s, between two
consecutive bus stops. It was also noticed during the journey that:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

The time taken by the bus to reach S from P was the same as the time taken to reach Q from T.
There was exactly one bus stop between S and V.
The distance between P and Q was the same as that between Q and T.
U was not the first bus stop and R came after U.

40.

Which among the seven was the first bus stop?


(a) T
(b) P
(c) V

(d) Cannot be determined

Which among the seven was the last bus stop?


(a) S
(b) R
(c) V

(d) Cannot be determined

41.

42.

If the average speed of the bus between P and S was different from the average speed of the bus
between T and Q, then which bus stop was immediately before R?
(a) P
(b) S
(c) V
(d) Q

43.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
A key tipping point for this decades-long class warfare of the rich vs. the working class can be found
in President Reagans decision to break the air traffic controllers union when it initiated a strike in
1981. Reagans manoeuvre was an audacious gamble to head backwards in terms of economic and
social justice, and it paid off. The weak, disorganized Left at the time was unable to mount a
concerted, effective campaign against Reagans union-busting move, and the public didnt seem to
care.
(a) The lesson was learned: going backwards works.
(b) Compare those sounds of silence in America then with now how citizens in other countries are
reacting to the draconian austerity policies in Europe.
(c) These class-war realizations have led to millions of protesters in the streets.
(d) But in America, those in the shrinking middle class remain in a kind of social narcolepsy.

Page

11

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

44.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
We mistakenly treated the end of the cold war as a victory that allowed us to put our feet up when
it was actually the onset of one of the greatest challenges weve ever faced. We helped to unleash
two billion people just like us in China, India and Eastern Europe. For us to effectively compete
and collaborate with them to maintain the American dream required studying harder, investing
wiser, innovating faster, upgrading our infrastructure quicker and working smarter.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

45.

Our European friends went on a similar binge.


But the real problem is that the global economy is badly over leveraged.
Instead of doing that, we injected ourselves with massive amounts of credit.
This enabled millions of people to buy homes they could not afford.

Seven persons Aadi, Bukka, Chitta, Devan, Emaan, Farrar and Ganesh are standing in a queue,
not necessarily in the same order. Chitta is either the first or the last person in the queue. Ganesh
is immediately in front of neither Aadi nor Farrar. Bukka is immediately in front of Ganesh. Aadi is
immediately in front of neither Bukka nor Farrar. Chitta is immediately behind Farrar. Bukka is not
the first person in the queue. Who is the third person from the front in the queue?
(a) Devan
(b) Bukka
(c) Aadi
(d) Ganesh

Directions for questions 46 to 48: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Having researched the historiography of Berlin, I tried to ascertain where the gaps in knowledge were as
historians; we need those gaps to work in. It struck me that a peoples history of Berlin during the war was
rather lacking. Added to that realization was the feeling that there is an awful lot of first-hand material from
that time that is available: published and unpublished memoirs, diaries and so on. So I became convinced
that it was a rewarding avenue to pursue. It ties in also with the trend over the last couple of decades
towards a democratization of history; the shift from a top-down view that of politicians and commanders
to a more popular one reflecting the experience of the man and woman in the street. Above all, I think, I
wanted to challenge the lazy convention by which we see ordinary Germans at that time as a homogenized
mass of Nazis, like robots, all marching in goosestep. Despite its popularity, that was never a terribly
realistic assumption for any historian to make. I wanted to bring out the multiplicity of opinions and voices
that were available in wartime Berlin.
The book has a great deal of original research behind it and much of the material you employ is largely
unknown, at least to English language readers. It may seem remarkable to many people that there is
anything left to say about Nazi Germany, but plainly there is. How did I go about finding that material?
There are always new avenues opening up. There were a couple of places where I started my research for
the book. One was the German Diary Archive in Emmendingen in southwestern Germany. In addition,
there is a wonderful organization in Berlin that puts eyewitnesses in touch with historians, documentary
filmmakers and the like. I approached them and they came back with a list of names and phone numbers.
I ended up with about 40 Berliners of the wartime generation whom I then interviewed. I ended up with far
more first-hand material than I could sensibly use.

Page

12

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

I was looking first of all for patterns. The difficult thing with oral history is looking at what people remember
and judging the accuracy of their recollections, the validity of it all. Historians must have their antennae
tuned towards those issues. But it is the patterns, the symmetry of experience and subsequent corroboration
that is important, as well as anything that stands out from those patterns. Exceptions had to be plausible;
a few of my interviewees were plainly suffering from the ravages of age. But it was a fascinating experience
to sit down with these people in elegant rooms in Berlin suburbs over coffee and cake and listen to their
often hair-raising stories.
46.

What does the author mean by democratization of history?


(a) Rewriting history on the basis of established facts and verifiable data.
(b) Including the opinions of the common man.
(c) Changing the focus from the opinion and experience of politicians to that of common people.
(d) Considering multiplicity of opinions and voices available.

47.

Which of the following has not been mentioned by the author as a factor he took into account to
write the book?
(a) The availability of first hand material related to the book.
(b) The opportunity to challenge the common understanding about the Germans.
(c) The trend towards democratization of history.
(d) None of the above

48.

Which of the following statements best describes the way in which the passage proceeds?
(a) The author challenges a position popular with historians and justifies his assertions.
(b) The author provides a historical backdrop to Nazi Germany and explains the forces that had
been at work at that time.
(c) The author discusses the motivations behind his book, the research that has gone into it, and
elaborates on its procedures and challenges.
(d) The author comments on the originality of his research and explains its relevance to his book.

49.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
Pull
(a) By cheating his master and slow poisoning him, the servant thought that he has been able to
pull the fast one.
(b) She saw the ambulance coming up behind her and pulled over.
(c) They waved as the bus pulled away.
(d) The clever leader pulled strings to mitigate the chances of a deserved defeat.

50.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
Close

Page

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

We closed on with the invaders shortly before sundown.


Our candidate successfully closed the distance to the lead race.
There is no flower close to a rose.
When the newspaper story broke suggesting possible corruption in the government, the politicians
all closed ranks.

13

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

Directions for questions 51 and 52: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Four friends Arjun, Bheem, Nakul and Sahadev have different heights and different weights. Bheem is
not the heaviest and is shorter than Nakul. The only person shorter than Arjun is Sahadev. The tallest
among them is the second heaviest. Arjun is neither the lightest nor the heaviest.
51.

Who among the four is the lightest?


(a) Bheem
(b) Nakul

(c) Sahadev

(d) Cannot be determined

52.

If the four friends are made to stand first in the increasing order of their heights and then in the
decreasing order of their weights, then who among them would be at the same position in both the
cases?
(a) Bheem
(b) Nakul
(c) Sahadev
(d) Arjun

53.

There are two gaps in the sentence given below. From the pairs of words given, choose the one that
fills the gaps most appropriately.
For essential to morality is that its norms apply with equal .. to everyone; moral relativism,
it has always seemed to me, is an ..
(a) effect; semiotic
(c) legitimacy; oxymoron

54.

(b) lawfulness; illusion


(d) proportion; understatement

There are two gaps in the sentence given below. From the pairs of words given, choose the one that
fills the gaps most appropriately.
Asked if they are worried about Mr. Hazare becoming a cult figure, perhaps even the
image and methods of Gandhi, his supporters roared back that their leader was pure, set on a good
cause to .. India of dreadful corruption.
(a) supplanting; warp
(c) emulating; ennoble

55.

(b) embezzling; clean


(d) usurping; purge

Given below are five sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized. From the
italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
Despite his misgivings, the mayor did deign (A) / doyen (B) to speak to the crowd at the tavern.
Not paying his traffic fines served to disbar (A) /debar (B) the lawyer so he could no longer practice
law.
Salary will be commensurate (A)/ commiserate (B) with experience.
The captains on the old whaling fleets used a sextant (A) / sexton (B) to set the courses for their
ships.
A consequence of living on the streets was the depravation (A) / deprivation (B) of character of the
youth.
(a) AAAAA

Page

14

(b) ABABA

(c) BABAB

(d) BBBBA
Unproctored Mock-4 2012

56.

Given below are five sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized. From the
italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
She found an antique tea caddie (A) / caddy (B) which was used to keep tea in.
In the past, some teachers would cane (A) / cain (B) students who misbehaved.
Some of the witnesses had to run the gauntlet (A)/ gauntest (B) of television cameras and reporters.
We admired the painting of the serif (A) / seraph (B) on the ceiling of the chapel.
On the transcontinental train, the saloon (A)/ salon (B) car was the best place for us sit so we could
see the scenery.
(a) BBABA

57.

(b) ABBAB

(c) BAABA

(d) AABAA

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
In recent years, researchers have begun talking about mental health care in the same way addiction
specialists speak of recovery the lifelong journey of self-treatment and discipline that guides
substance abuse programs. The idea remains controversial: managing a severe mental illness is
more complicated than simply avoiding certain behaviors.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Yet people like Joe Holt are traveling it and succeeding.


The journey has more mazes, fewer road signs.
Now more people are risking exposure to tell their stories publicly.
And traditional medicine has not worked very well for most.

Directions for questions 58 to 60: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Eight friends wearing shirts of eight different colours Red, Blue, Green, Yellow, Pink, Black, White and
Purple are sitting at a circular table in clockwise order respectively. Their names are Ashish, Bhola,
Coral, Deva, Emran, Fardeen, Gopi and Hemant, in no particular order. Each of them is either facing the
center of the table or facing exactly the opposite direction away from the center. It is also known that:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)

Ashish is sitting two places to the right of Emran and Emran is sitting two places to the right of
Ashish. Coral and Gopi are not sitting at diametrically opposite positions.
Emran is sitting three places to the right of Gopi and two places to the right of Hemant.
Bhola is sitting immediately to the right of Fardeen and Hemant is sitting immediately to the left of
Bhola.
The person sitting two places to the right of Bhola is facing away from the center of the table.
Among the four pairs of friends sitting at diametrically opposite positions, there is just one pair in
which the two friends are facing different directions.

58.

If Coral is wearing the Yellow shirt and is facing East, then which direction is the person wearing the
Red shirt facing?
(a) North-West
(b) South-East
(c) North
(d) South

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15

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

59.

If Bhola is wearing the Green shirt and is facing South-West, then which direction is the person
wearing the Black shirt facing?
(a) North-East
(b) South-East
(c) North
(d) West

60.

What is the angle (in degrees) between the direction which Bhola is facing and the direction which
Deva is facing?
(a) 45
(b) 90
(c) 135
(d) 180

Page

16

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

Unproctored Mock-4 2012


Answers and Explanations
1

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

Page

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

1. a

Let M and N be their first and second meeting points


respectively. Let the total distance between points
P and Q be d.

C
P

6 cm

Area of triangle ABC =

8 cm

1
AB AC sin BAC
2

5. a
(i)

Area of triangle ABD =

1
BAC = 60 and
2

(i) = (ii) + (iii)


Hence,

For questions 6 to 8:
The table given below shows:
(i) The number of matches lost and the number of matches
won by each team in its home state.
(ii) The number of matches lost and the number of matches
won by each team in states other than its home state.
(iii) The total points scored by each team.

AC = 24 cm

3. d

4. b

Page

We can say that there are 9 positions in the queue.


Let us first select 3 positions for Ashish, his father
and his grandfather. This can be done in 9C3 ways.
There is only one way in which these 3 people can
occupy the 3 positions.
Now let us select 3 positions out of the remaining
6 for Bimal, his father and his grandfather. This can
be done in 6C3 ways.
Now we are left with just 3 positions which are to be
occupied by Chatur, his father and his grandfather
and again there is just one way of doing it.
Hence, the answer = 9C36C3
The unit digit of every term from 5! to 49! is 0.
Also, 1! 2! + 3! 4! = 1 2 + 6 24 = 19.
Hence, the unit digit of N will be 10 9 = 1.
The unit digit of NN will also be 1.
As their speeds are x and y such that 2x > y > x, we
can conclude that at the time of the first two meetings
Ria and Tia must be running in opposite directions.

Let the two curves intersect at (h, k). Hence,


k = h4 + 2h3 + 4h 8 = 2h3 + 2h2 + 4h

1
3 1
3 1
3
8 AC
= 86
+ AC 6
2
2
2
2
2
2

2. a

d3

0 x 5.

1
AC AD sin CAD
2
(iii)

Also, BAD = CAD =

h4 2h2 8 = 0
h2 = 4 or 2
As h2 > 0, we get h = 2 or 2.
Hence, the two curves intersect only once for

1
AB AD sin BAD
2
(ii)

Area of triangle ACD =

d2

I: When Ria and Tia meet for the first time, the distance
covered by Ria = d1.
II: When Ria and Tia meet for the second time, the
distance covered by Ria after the first meeting
= (d2 + d3 + d3).
Since the time gap between the first two meetings
should be double of the time taken for the first meeting,
2d1 = d2 + d3 + d3.
420 = d2 + 300 or d2 = 120 m.
d = d1 + d2 + d3 = 480 m.

d1

Team

Atlanta
Hawks
Boston
Celtics
Chicago
Bulls
Denver
Nuggets
Indiana
Pacers
LA Lakers
6. b

The number of
The number of
matches
matches
played in
Total
played in its
states other
Points
home state
than its home
state
Lost

Won

Lost

Won

21

26

30

109

14

24

35

16

131

32

27

16

139

25

20

27

12

103

16

28

27

10

113

35

19

27

170

Chicago Bulls finished as first runner up in the


tournament.

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

7. c

Denver Nuggets lost the maximum number of matches


in its home state among the six teams and finished
with a total of 103 points in the tournament.

8. d

The total number of matches played by Indiana Pacers


= 81
The number of matches lost by Indiana Pacers away
from its home state
= 27

Thus this statement alone is sufficient to answer the


question.
From Statement B:

Required percentage =

50

27
100 = 33.33%
81

30

D
Fig. II

9. b

A = (k 1)(k + 1)
B = k(k + 2)
For all values of k greater than or equal to 2, the
natural numbers k 1 and k + 1 are coprime with
both k and k + 2 except when k 1 and k + 2 are
both multiples of 3.
Note that (k + 2) (k 1) = 3.
Here, the common factor of A and B, which is also a
prime number, is 3.
E.g. when k 1 = 3 or k = 4, A = 15 and B = 24.
The only common factor of A and B in this case is 3.

10. d

Let the roots be and 2.


Sum of the roots = + 2 = 3 = b
(i)
Product of the roots = 2 = 22 = 2b (ii)
Dividing equation (ii) by equation (i), we get
= 3 and b = 9.
The equation whose roots are 9 and 10 is
x2 19x + 90 = 0.

11. c

Amount of water initially in 1000 ml of M1 = 400 ml


Amount of water initially in 1000 ml of M2 = 700 ml
Amount of water left in M1 when x ml is taken out
= (400 0.4x) ml
Amount of water left in M2 when x ml is taken out
= (700 0.7x) ml
Amount of water in M1 when x ml from M2 is added
= 400 0.4x + 0.7x = 400 + 0.3x.
Amount of water in M2 when x ml from M1 is added
= 700 0.7x + 0.4x = 700 0.3x.
According to the information given in the question,
400 + 0.3x = 700 0.3x or x = 500.

12. d

From Statement A:

In BCD, we have
BCD + CDB + DBC = 180

Let BCA be , therefore, BDC = 3


4 + 80 = 180
= 25

Now, BAC = CDB = 3 = 75


(Angles subtended by the same arc)
Thus this statement alone is sufficient to answer the
question.

13. a

In the first 200 natural numbers there are 20 numbers


whose unit digit is 0, there are 11 numbers whose
tens digit is 0 and there are 2 natural numbers which
have both the unit and the tens digit as 0. So in all
there are 200 (20 + 11 2) = 171 such numbers
which do not have 0 as any digit.
The 172nd, 181st, 190th and 199th term of the given
sequence will be 211, 221, 231 and 241 respectively.
So the 200th term will be 242.

14. a

H
Volume of the cylinder = r 2 = 2r 3
2
Volume of the frustum
=

1 2
1
H 16 3 2 3 14 3
R H r 2 =
r r =
r
3
3
3
3
2 3

Volume of the hemisphere =

2 3 16 3
R =
r
3
3

14 16 3

Volume of the toy = 2 +


+
r = 12r 3
3
3

30
50

30
C

F ig. I

As AB || CD and AC is the transversal,

BAC = ACD = 30
(Alternate angles)

Page

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

(iii) Two boys do not get any bag and two boys get
two bags each:
The two boys who do not get any bag can be selected
in 4C2 ways.
The number of ways = 4C2 = 6

For questions 15 and 16:


The situation given in the question can be shown with the help
of a Venn diagram.
M ara th i
N e w spa pe rs

The total number of ways = 1 + 12 + 6 = 19


x
p
a
1 0a

Hence, the answer =


q

18. d

r
s

1 5a

19
.
35

p2
q

qr = p2s2

But as 0.49 r 0.01,


G ujara ti
N e w spa pe rs

we must have q 0 or 0.25 q 0.

H in di
N e w spa pe rs

Let p, q, and r be equal to k d, k and k + d, not necessarily in


the same order.
We have,
a + 15a + q + r = 70
(i)
a + p = 15
(ii)
a + r = 19
(iii)
Adding (i) and (ii), we get
17a + p + q + r = 85
17a + 3k = 85
The only possible values of a and k are 2 and 17.
Therefore, p = 13, q = 21 and r = 17.
As the number of families reading Hindi newspapers is more
than those reading Marathi newspapers, the number of families
reading only Marathi newspapers is either 10 or 25.
15. d

The total number of families in the society is either 113


or 128.

16. c

The number of families reading both Marathi and Hindi


newspapers is 23.

17. c

The total number of ways of distributing the bags,


using the formula for distribution
= 4 + 4 1C4 1 = 7C3 = 35.

s2 =

Maximum possible value of s2 =

(ii) One boy does not get any bag, one boy gets two
bags and two boys get one bag each:
The boy who does not get any bag can be selected in
4C ways while the one who gets two bags can be
1
selected in 3C1 ways.
The number of ways = 4C13C1 = 12

(0.25 )(0.49 )

42
Maximum and minimum possible values of s are 0.0875
and 0.0875 respectively.

Hence, the answer = 2 0.0875 = 0.175.


19. c

Let the number of units of work completed by a man,


a woman and a child in one day be M, W and C
respectively.
Hence, 2M = 3C and 3M = 5W.
Let M = 15U. Hence, C = 10U and W = 9U.
The amount of work completed by a man, a woman
and a child together in 10 days = 10(15U + 10U + 9U)
= 340U.
The amount of work completed by 2 children in a day
= 20U.
Hence, the answer =

20. b
Let us find the number of ways of distribution in which
no boy gets more than 2 bags.
(i) Each boy gets one bag:
The number of ways = 1

qr
p2

340
= 17 days.
20

P
O

MOO' NOO'
(Since all the sides are equal.)
MON = MO'N = 120

Page

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

Minor arc MN subtends MON at the center

23. a

and MQN at circumference.


(i)
MQN = 60
(The angle subtended by an arc at the centre is twice
the angle subtended by the arc at circumference.)
Now, in circle with center O, major arc MN subtends

MON and MPN at circumference.


MON = MPN = 120

MPQ = 60

R.H.S.
= 81y3 9y2 + 6y 1
The R.H.S. of the equation is not divisible by 3.

(ii)

From equations (i) and (ii), MPQ is an equilateral


triangle.

3
42
3
.
Hence, the required fraction = 4 2 =
9
6

L.H.S.
= x3 + 3x2 4x
= x(x2 + 3x 4)
= x(x 1)(x + 4)
= x(x 1)(x + 1 + 3)
= (x 1)x(x + 1) + 3x(x 1)
As the product of three consecutive integers is divisible
by 3, the L.H.S. of the equation is always divisible by
3.

Hence, no solution is possible.


For questions 24 to 26: The table given below shows the
value (in mn tonnes) of the Production (P) and the Requirement
(R) of various commodities in Pekoslovakia from 2003 to 2006.

2003
21. c

22. d

From Statement A:
The ratio of the speeds is given. With the help of this
we can determine the respective distance covered
by them till the moment they meet but cannot determine
the time taken by them to meet.
Thus this statement alone is not sufficient to answer
the question.

2005

2006

Puls e

45

30

42

24

50

24

60

75

Jow ar

50

70

54

60

36

48

40

45

Bajr a

15

20

20

36

22

36

30

60

Rice

32

30

40

48

48

60

35

60

Whe at

40

50

48

72

60

72

50

60

Total

182 200 204 240 216 240 215 300

From Statement B:
No information regarding the speed of the faster car is
given.
Thus this statement alone is not sufficient to answer
the question.

24. d

2006

25. a

2003

From Statements A and B:


Let the speed (in km/hr) of the two cars be 3x and 7x.

26. a

3x 10 = 600 x = 20
We can determine the speeds of the two cars and
hence the time taken by them to meet.

27. d

A = 2812 = 224 712


B = 188 = 28 316
C = 216 = 36 76
The total number of factors of A will be
(24 + 1)(12 + 1) = 325.
Similarly, the total number of factors of B and C will be
153 and 49 respectively.

As the larger number is written on the left, the larger


number is either 54 or 55.
Let the smaller number be x.
Case I: The larger number is 54.
5400 + x = 5481 + 54 x
2x = 5535 5400 = 135
(In this case x will not be a natural number.)
Case II: The larger number is 55.
5500 + x = 5481 + 55 x
2x = 5536 5500 = 36
x = 18
Hence, the required sum = 73.

Page

2004

Case I: Factors common to A, B and C.


HCF of (A, B and C) = 1.
The only factor common to A, B and C is 1.
Case II: Factors common to exactly two among A, B
and C.
Factors common to A and B = 20, 21,, 27, 28
Factors common to B and C = 30, 31,, 35, 36
Factors common to A and C = 70, 71,, 75, 76
Hence, the answer
= (325 + 153 + 49) (9 + 7 + 7) + 1 = 505.

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

28. d

Let the volume filled (in units) by an inlet pipe in an


hour = V.
The total volume (in units) of the tank = 30V.
Let the volume emptied (in units) by an outlet pipe in an
hour = U.
Hence,10(5V 4U) = 30V or V = 2U.
The time taken by an outlet pipe to empty 15V volume

=
29. b

can be ruled out as this is not the main idea but only an
example given to substantiate the main idea.
32. c

15V
= 30 hours.
U

The answer can be found in the second paragraph.


The selected line refers to detachment that has been
spoken of in the previous sentence. Experience is not
the reference point for the selected line. Options (a)
and (d) can thus be ruled out. The use of the
conjunction but indicates dissimilarities between the
first and second halves of the sentence. Pain is linked
with obfuscation and compassion with hypocrisy.
While paraphrasing, obfuscation would not convey
the meaning of disguise. Option (b) is incorrect as it
brings in disguise (which does not help prevent pain).
Option (c) correctly paraphrases to say that
detachment does not prevent pain but rejects
complication (which can give rise to pain) and it does
not prevent compassion but rejects pretense (which
can prevent compassion).

AEBE = CEDE.
Hence, AE = 1 cm.
The perpendicular bisector of any chord of a circle
must pass through its centre.
A
1 cm
C

2 cm

2 cm

4 cm

33. b

Every paragraph in the passage has a line that provides


advice on what the government should do with
reference to tax reforms. The tone of the author is
advisory. Option (a) is ruled out, as the author is not
trying to calm or appease the audience. Option (c) is
incorrect as the author does not predict about the
issue dealt in the passage. Option (d) can be ruled out
because the author is not trying to criticize the
government; instead he is providing possible solutions
and advice.

34. a

The last lines of the third paragraph state that, Right


now, wealthier taxpayers get the greatest benefit.
The process needs to be reformed so that most of the
help flows to those who most need it: low- and middleincome taxpayers. This implies option (a). Option (b)
goes against the information in the passage. Option
(c) is incorrect as the author states that the current
tax break gives the greatest benefit to wealthier
taxpayers. This cannot be generalized for all tax
breaks. Option (d) is incorrect as it goes against the
information in the passage.

35. d

The fifth paragraph of the passage states that more


revenues are needed and these can be obtained from
other forms of taxation or through tax increases.
However, the last line of the passage also states that,
Until tax increases are considered in equal measure
to spending cuts, there will be no budget fix. This line
implies that equal importance must be given to both tax
increases and spending cuts and not only to either
one. This rules out options (b) and (c). Option (a) can
be ruled out, as there is no implication in the passage
towards this assertion. Option (d) best sums up the
inference from the last sentence of the passage.

Hence, AB also passes through the centre of the


circle and is the diameter of the circle.
AB = AE + BE = 1 + 4 = 5 cm.
Circumference of the circle = 5 cm.
30. b

Case I:
2 boys and 1 girl is selected in the team.
The number of ways = 4C2 6C1
Case II:
1 boy and 2 girls are selected in the team.
The number of ways = 6C2 4C1
The total number of ways = 4C2 6C1 + 6C2 4C1 = 96
4

31. d

Page

C16C18C1
2

The passage highlights the various aspects to


following a spiritual path. The author also provides
characteristics of different kinds of spiritualists the
spiritual interlocutor, the creative and the one with
compassion. It can thus also be inferred that the author
is speaking about different spiritual types. Option (d)
is the answer and implies a plural context too. Option
(a) is incorrect as this forms only a part of the passage.
The author does not discuss the limitations of the
intellectual, though he does refer to the boundaries of
the mind. This renders option (b) incorrect. Option (c)

One should not try to solve this question merely on the


basis of the meanings of the words given in the
passage as the answer is expected to convey the
correct semantics intended by original text.

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

36. c

From Statement A:
The statement alone is clearly not sufficient to answer the question.
From Statement B:
The statement alone is clearly not sufficient to answer the question.
From Statements A and B:

Left to Right Language in the first to the last slot

Case II: There was exactly one bus stop between T and Q.
(a) T _ Q _ P _ _
Only one arrangement is possible:
TUQVPSR
(b) _ T _ Q _ P _
This violates statements (i) and (iv) combined.
(c) _ _ T _ Q _ P
This violates statement (i) which states that the bus reached
S from P.

English/ Malayalam Malayalam/ English Telugu Hindi Tamil


37. b

38. a

39. c

AEDBC
BC forms a logical link as C comments on certain actions
that have been taken and calls them symptoms of a
weak and failing culture. Statement A states an action.
However, AC is not a logical flow, as C is a comment
on the entire situation and works well as an ending
sentence. DB is also a link as D gives the reason and
B the result/action taken. The link thus is DBC. Statement
E can be confused for an ending sentence, however,
it will provide a disjoint ending. It fits in best after A as
it comments on the action of censorship mentioned in
A. Also ED is linked as D starts the explanation on why
censorship is bad.
ABCDE
The question can be solved by options. Sentence A
starts the discussion. Sentence D mentions the word
these revenues and only C presents a logical source
of revenue making CD a mandatory pair. This leads to
option (a).
CDAEB
There is a link between DA the noun-pronoun link.
Options (a) and (d) can be ruled out based on this.
Also there is a link between C and D as the latter
specifies the chief beneficiary. This helps us to
establish the CDA link. Militia means a group of people
who are not professional soldiers but who have had
military training and can act as an army. The pronoun
they in E refers to Gen. Bosco Ntaganda and his Tutsi
militia. Thus, AE is a mandatory pair. Sentence B is
best suited as a closing sentence. Hence, option (c)
is the correct option.

Case III: There was no bus stop between T and Q.


(a) T Q P _ _ _ _
Two arrangements are possible:
T Q P S U V R and
TQPUSRV
(b) _ T Q P _ _ _ and (c) _ _ T Q P _ _
These violate statement (iv) and statement (ii) respectively.
(d) _ _ _ T Q P _ and (e) _ _ _ _ T Q P
These violate statements (i) and (ii) combined.
The only possible arrangements are:
I: T U Q V P S R
II: T Q P S U V R
III: T Q P U S R V
40. a

T was definitely the first bus stop among the seven.

41. d

The last bus stop among the seven was either R or V.

42. b

The time taken by the bus to travel from P to S and


from T to Q was the same. But the average speed of
the bus was different in the two cases. Hence, the
distance between P and S was not the same as that
between T and Q. This is followed by arrangements I
and III. For both the arrangements the bus stop
immediately before R was S.

43. a

The paragraph is about Reagans decision to move


backwards in terms of economic and social welfare.
It is about the class warfare between the rich and the
working class. The author states that Reagans gamble
paid off the last line makes a reference to the factors
that supported this gamble. The best answer would
be one that concludes the passage with a reference
to the gamble that was made. Option (a) does this.
Option (b) is incorrect, as the scope of discussion on
the country is not defined. Moreover, it begins the
discussion on a new topic and should start with a
new paragraph.

44. c

The paragraph is in the first person and so the last


sentence should not be in the second or third person.
This rules out options (b) and (d). Both the options do
not deal with the theme of the passage. The last
sentence also states what was required to maintain
the American dream and the word that in option (c)

For questions 40 to 42:


Let us try to write the possible arrangements of the bus stops
by writing them in a row (left to right means first to last).
From statements (i) and (iii) we can say that Q was exactly in
the middle of P and T and the order of the three was T Q P.
Case I: There were two bus stops between T and Q.
T__Q__P
This violates statement (i) which states that the bus reached S
from P.

Page

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

refers to it. Moreover, the paragraph has a negative


tone and starts by pointing to a mistake. Thus it is
logical for the last sentence too to end on a negative
note. Option (c) is the correct answer. Option (a) can
be ruled out because it violates the scope of the
passage.
45. b

As Chitta is immediately behind Farrar, Chitta must be


the last person in the queue. As Bukka is immediately
in front of Ganesh and Ganesh is not immediately in
front of Farrar, we get two possible cases.

some gaps in knowledge that he could work in. He


goes on to discuss his intention of bringing out the
multiplicity of opinions and voices that were present in
wartime Berlin. The author then discusses the original
research that has gone into the book and talks about
his research procedures and challenges. Hence,
option (c) is the most appropriate choice.
49. a

Pull a fast one is the correct idiom and it means to trick


somebody. Thus sentence (a) is incorrect.
Pull over (of a vehicle or its driver) means to move to
the side of the road in order to stop or let something
pass. Thus, sentence (b) is correct.
Pull away in context of a vehicle means to start moving.
Thus, sentence (c) is correct.
Pull strings means to exert hidden influence or control.
Thus, sentence (d) is correct.

50. a

The sentence (a) should be We closed with and not


We closed on with. Closed with means to engage in
a struggle at close quarters; grapple <close with the
enemy>. Thus sentence (a) is incorrect.
Closed the distance means to finish or end the distance.
Thus, sentence (b) is correct.
Close to means comparable or near in space or time.
Thus, sentence (c) is correct.
If a group of people close ranks, they work closely
together to defend themselves, especially when they
are being criticized. Similarly, if soldiers close ranks,
they move closer together in order to defend
themselves. Thus, sentence (d) is correct.

Case I:

Lef t to Right Persons f rom f irst to last in the queue


Bukka Ganesh

Farrar Chitta

Since Aadi is immediately in front of neither Bukka nor


Farrar and Ganesh is not immediately in front of Aadi,
this case is not possible.
Case II:

Left to Right Persons from first to last in the queue


Aadi

Devan/
Emaan/
Bukka Ganesh
Farrar Chitta
Emaan
Devan

Hence, Bukka is the third person from the front in the


queue.
46. c

47. b

48. c

Page

The passage talks about shifting of the view from top


(politicians and officials) to down (man and woman in
the streets). Option (c) reflects this. Option (a) is
irrelevant as it fails to address the issue. Option (b) is
incorrect as its incomplete in providing the idea by
talking about a mere inclusion of opinions of the
common man. Option (d) talks about multiplicity
whereas democratization focuses mainly on common
man.
Options (a) and (c) have been mentioned in the first
paragraph and are negated. Refer to the lines Above
all, I think, I wanted to challenge the lazy convention
by which we see ordinary Germans at that time as a
homogenized mass of Nazis, like robots, all marching
in goosestep. Despite its popularity, that was never a
terribly realistic assumption for any historian to make.
I wanted to bring out the multiplicity of opinions and
voices that were available in wartime Berlin. The
author does not try to challenge the understanding
about Germans in general. He only talks about the
perception about Germans during the wartime. He tries
to challenge the opinion about Germans in wartime
Berlin (and has specifically mentioned that period)
and has considered it as a factor. But option (b)
presents a generalization which is beyond the scope
of the passage and cannot be inferred as a factor the
author took into account to write the book.
The author starts by talking about how, after having
researched the historiography of Berlin, he identified

For questions 51 and 52:


The given information can be tabulated as shown below.

Left to Right (Increasing order of height/weight)


Height

Sahadev

Arjun

Bheem

Nakul

Weight

Bheem

Arjun

Nakul

Sahadev

51. a

Bheem

52. c

Sahadev

53. c

In the given sentence, the author tries to put forward


his/her opinion about morality. According to the author,
it is mandatory that the norms of morality apply equally
to everyone. So, the only word that can describe the
authors opinion on moral relativism is oxymoron. An
oxymoron means a phrase that combines two words
that seem to be the opposite of each other, for example
a deafening silence. In context of the given sentence,
legitimacy and oxymoron are apt words for the first
and the second blank respectively.

54. d

The clue words are the supporters roared back. It


means that something was said against Mr. Hazare
which made his supporters angry and they roared
back with a positive statement. Both supplanting

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

which means to take the place of somebody/something


(especially somebody/something older or less modern)
and usurping which means to take somebodys
position and/or power without having the right to do
this are appropriate for the first blank. Embezzling
which means to steal money that you are responsible
for or that belongs to your employer is out of context
of the given sentence and emulating is rejected as it
has a positive connotation. Thus, options (b) and (c)
are negated. Warp which means to cause to judge,
choose, or act wrongly or abnormally; to influence
somebody so that they begin to behave in an
unacceptable or shocking way goes against the theme
and context. Purge means to make somebody/
something pure, healthy or clean by getting rid of bad
thoughts or feelings and matches well with the context
of purging India of corruption. Hence, usurping is apt
for the first blank and purge is apt for the second.
55. a

56. c

Page

AAAAA
Deign means to do something in a way that shows
you think you are too important to do it. Doyen means
the most respected or most experienced member of a
group or profession. So, deign is correct for the first
sentence. Disbar means to stop a lawyer from
working in the legal profession, especially because
he or she has done something illegal whereas debar
means to officially prevent somebody from doing
something, joining something, etc. So the word disbar
is more appropriate in the context of a lawyer.
Commensurate means matching something in size,
importance, quality, whereas commiserate means to
show somebody sympathy when they are upset or
disappointed about something. So commensurate is
the apt word for the given sentence. Sextant refers
to an instrument for measuring angles and distances,
used to calculate the exact position of a ship or an
aircraft whereas sexton refers to a person whose
job is to take care of a church and its surroundings,
ring the church bell, etc. Depravation means moral
corruption whereas deprivation refers to the state of
not having something that you need, like enough food,
money or a home. Thus, in the context of character,
depravation is more suitable than deprivation.
BAABA
Caddie refers to a person who helps a player by
carrying his or her clubs and equipment during a game
(golf). A tea caddy refers to small box with a lid that
you keep tea in (tea pot). Cane somebody means to
hit a child with a cane as a punishment. Cain refers to
the brother of Abel (in the Bible); a murderer. Gauntlet
refers to a strong glove with a wide covering for the
wrist, used for example when driving. Run the gauntlet
means to be criticized or attacked by a lot of people,
especially a group of people that you have to walk
through. Gauntest is the superlative form of gaunt
and means very thin, usually because of illness, not
having enough food, or worry. Serif refers to a short
line at the top or bottom of some styles of printed

letters. Seraph refers to an angel of the highest rank.


So, seraph is apt for the fourth sentence. Saloon
refers to a car with four doors and a boot/trunk (space
at the back for carrying things) which is separated
from the part where the driver and passengers sit. It
also refers to a large comfortable room on a ship,
used by the passengers to sit and relax in. Salon on
the other hand refers to a shop/store that gives
customers hair or beauty treatment or that sells
expensive clothes.
57. b

The paragraph discusses mental healthcare as a


lifelong journey and ends by speaking about the fact
that it is complicated. Option (b) puts the complicated
nature of mental healthcare into perspective. Option
(a) is incorrect as it brings about the success of a
particular person, whereas the author refrains from
giving his opinion about the idea and merely states
that the idea is disputable. So option (a) does not fall in
line with the opinion of the author and appears to be
too abrupt. Option (c) is incorrect as it deviates from
the central idea there is no mention of the risk involved
in revealing ones stories. Option (d) is also incorrect
as it brings in the limits of traditional medicine, which is
not within the scope of the paragraph.

For questions 58 to 60:


Let Ashish, Bhola, Coral, Deva, Emran, Fardeen, Gopi and
Hemant be represented by A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H respectively.
We can start arranging by fixing the position of F using
statement (iii). This gives us two possible cases.
Case I: F is facing the center.
From statement (iii), as H is sitting immediately to the left of B,
B must be facing away from the center. From statement (ii), as
E is sitting two places to the right of H, H must be facing the
center and hence G, who is sitting three places to the left of E,
must be facing away from the center. The conclusions made
thus far can be shown in the figure given below.
E m ra n

Hemant

B ho la

Gopi
F a rd e en
I

(Arrows indicate the direction in which the person is facing.)


From here we can conclude that G, who is sitting two places
to the right of Bhola, is facing away from the center.

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

Case II: F is facing away from the center.


From statement (iii), as H is sitting immediately to the left of B,
B must be facing the center. From statement (ii), as E is sitting
two places to the right of H, H must be facing away from the
center and hence G, who is sitting three places to the left of E,
must be facing the center. In this case statement (iv) is violated.
The conclusions made thus far can be shown in the figure
given below:
E m ran

H em ant

G opi

B hola
Fardeen
II

(Arrows indicate the direction in which the person is facing.)


Further analysis (following Case I) leads to the final
arrangement given below.
E m ran
D eva

C oral

A shish

H em ant

B hola

G opi
Fardeen
III

58. a

North-West

59. c

North

60. b

90

Page

10

Unproctored Mock-4 2012

Unproctored Mock-5 2012


Section - I
1.

The figure given below shows a circle with center O and radius 8 cm. BD is a chord of the circle and
A is a point on the minor arc BD. C is a point on BD such that AC is perpendicular to BD. The length
of AC is 4 cm and BC is 12 cm. What is the length (in cm) of CD?

D
A
4 cm

C
O

12 cm

8 cm
B
(a) 2
2.

(b) 4

12
(c) 2 5

(d)

12
5

What is the number of common terms in the two sequences given below?
S1 4, 10, 16, 22, ., 562.
S2 3, 8, 13, 18, ., 573.
(a) 20

(b) 40

(c) 36

(d) 18

3.

A merchant marks up the cost of cloth by 30% and then gives a discount of 20% on the Marked
Price to all his customers. What is his profit/loss percentage in winter when the meter-scale shrinks
by 10% due to cold?
(a) Profit, 15.56%
(b) Profit, 16.67%
(c) Loss, 16.67%
(d) Loss, 15.56%

4.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using Statement A alone, but cannot be answered by
using Statement B alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using Statement B alone, but cannot be answered by
using Statement A alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered by any of the two statements.
Q. In x-y plane, a circle passes through the points (2, 5) and (4, 13). What is the equation of the
circle?
A. The circle passes through the point (10, 21).
B. The radius of the circle is of length 6 units.

Page

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

5.

In how many ways can six letters A, B, C, D, E and F be written in a circular arrangement such
that D is adjacent to B and is diametrically opposite E?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12

6.

For how many positive integer values of x is ||||x 1| 2| 3| 4| < 5?


(a) 10
(b) 14
(c) 4
(d) 15

Directions for questions 7 to 9: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Scientists have recently discovered a new planet and have named it Zeltrion. The inhabitants of Zeltrion are
called Vulcans. The total land area of Zeltrion is 100,000 km2. There are many islands on Zeltrion but the
Vulcans are found only on twelve of them. The table given below shows some data regarding these twelve
islands.

S. No.

Name of
Island

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12

Andorian
Bajoran
Chronian
Delvian
Elerian
Furon
Gran
Halosian
Irken
Jaridian
Klingon
Luxan

Population Density of an Island =

Land area of the Island


as a percentage of the
total land area of Zeltrion
2.5
1.0
0.5
0.5
4.0
2.0
3.0
5.0
8.0
1.0
1.5
1.0

The number of
Vulcans living on
the Island
1,200,000,000
300,000,000
150,000,000
80,000,000
10,000,000
8,000,000
200,000,000
350,000,000
250,000,000
50,000,000
30,000,000
20,000,000

The number of Vulcans living on the Island


The total land area of the Island (in km2 )

Each of the twelve islands is given a Density Rating based on the criteria given below.
(i)
The islands with Population Density of more than or equal to 105 Vulcans/km2 are given a Density
Rating of 1.
(ii)
The islands with Population Density of more than or equal to 104 Vulcans/km2 but less than
105 Vulcans/km2 are given a Density Rating of 2.
(iii)
The islands with Population Density of less than 104 Vulcans/km2 are given a Density Rating of 3.
7.

In how many islands is the Population Density more than 70,000 Vulcans/km2?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 4

8.

How many islands are given the Density Rating of 3?


(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3

Page

(d) 4

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

9.

The Population Density of how many islands is more than that of Gran?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 3

10.

For how many real values of x is logx log4 log3 log9 27 x


(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 0

11.

2 2x + 6

= 0?

(d) 2

The graph of 3 x against y + 5 is as shown below. (All the graphs in this question are drawn to
scale and the same scale has been used on each axis.)
3x

y+5

Which of the following shows the graph of y against x?


y

(a)
12.

(b)

(c)

(d)

The roots of x2 + 3x + c = 0 are and while the roots of x2 + 21x + d = 0 are and . If , and
are in Arithmetic Progression, then what is the value of
(a) 3
2

Page

(b) 1
4

(c) 1
5

c
?
d

(d) 4

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

13.

Arjun and Bheem are standing at point A on a circular track with circumference 300 m. Cherry is
standing at point B which is diametrically opposite point A on the track. All three of them start
running simultaneously on the track; Arjun and Cherry run in clockwise direction at 3 m/s and
4 m/s respectively while Bheem runs in anticlockwise direction at 5 m/s. After how much time from
the start will Cherry be equidistant from Arjun and Bheem for the first time?
(a) 25 s
(b) 30 s
(c) 50 s
(d) 60 s

14.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Q. At the time of Shyams birth, the difference between the ages of his mother and his only sister
Leela was equal to the difference between the ages of his father and his mother. The present age of
Shyam is the same as the age of his mother at the time of his birth. If Shyams father is older than
Shyams mother, then what is the present age of Shyams father?
A. Shyams father is 40 years older than Leela.
B. Shyams mother was 20 years old when Leela was born.

15.

How many numbers are there between 0 and 500 which when divided by 3, 4, 6 and 8 leave remainders
1, 2, 4 and 6 respectively?
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 21
(d) None of these

16.

In triangle ABC, AB = 4 cm, BC = 3 cm and AC = 5 cm. Points D and E are chosen on AB and AC
respectively such that BDC = ACB and BEC = ABC. What is
(a) 9
16

Page

(b) 35
64

(c) 9
25

AD
?
AE
(d)

3
4

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

Directions for questions 17 to 19: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Bell Electronics sells only five products Laptops, Desktops, Printers, Netbooks and Tablets.
The pie chart given below shows the percentage contribution of each product in the total revenue of
Rs. 500 crores generated by Bell Electronics in the fiscal year 2010-11.
Laptops
15%
Tablets
32%

Desktops
9%

Printers
20%
Netbooks
24%

For analysing the data, the fiscal year 2010-11 was divided into four quarters (Qtr) of three months each.
The line graph given below shows the quarter-wise percentage break-up of the total revenue generated by
each product in the fiscal year 2010-11.
60
55
50
45
40
35
30
25
20
15
10
5
0

1st Qtr
2nd Qtr
3rd Qtr
4th Qtr

Laptops

Desktops

Printers

Netbooks

Tablets

Product

17.

Which product generated the maximum revenue in the 3rd quarter of the fiscal year?
(a) Laptops
(b) Printers
(c) Desktops
(d) Tablets

18.

In which quarter was the revenue generated by Laptops equal to the revenue generated by Desktops?
(b) 2nd
(c) 3rd
(d) 4th
(a) 1st

Page

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

19.

What was the ratio of the revenue generated by Printers in the 2nd quarter to the revenue generated
by Laptops in the 4th quarter?
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 2
(d) None of these

20.

How many four-digit even numbers are there which have 0 and 1 as two of the digits and the
remaining two are distinct digits among 2, 4 and 6?
(a) 42
(b) 36
(c) 38
(d) 30

21.

An equilateral triangle is formed by joining three vertices of a regular hexagon. What is the ratio of
the area of this equilateral triangle to the area of the hexagon?
(a) 3 : 8
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 3
(d) 4 : 3

22.

In how many different ways can a cube be painted if each face has to be painted either red or blue?
(a) 20
(b) 16
(c) 12
(d) 10

23.

Amit wrote down the squares of first n natural numbers in his notebook. He then erased one of the
numbers written by him and found that the sum of the numbers remaining on the notebook was
1432. The square of which of the following numbers was erased by Amit?
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

24.

The H.C.F. of a, b and c is 8. If a b = b c = 8 and the L.C.M. of a, b and c is a four-digit number,


then what is the maximum possible value of c?
(a) 80
(b) 88
(c) 96
(d) 100

Directions for questions 25 and 26: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following paragraph gives some data about the population and the literacy rate of a country called
Noland. The country has been divided into two parts Rural Noland and Urban Noland for doing some
demographic studies.
Half of the total population of Noland lives in Rural Noland and the remaining half lives in Urban Noland. The
number of males in Noland is 20% more than the number of females in Noland. Four out of every five
females in Noland are literate. Two-third of the total illiterates of Noland live in Rural Noland. The number of
literate males in Noland is four times the number of illiterate females in Noland. The number of illiterate
males in Urban Noland is equal to the number of illiterate females in Urban Noland. The ratio of the number
of literate females in Rural Noland to the number of illiterate females in Rural Noland is 2 : 1.
25.

What is the ratio of the number of literate males in Rural Noland to the total number of females in
Urban Noland?
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 3 : 4
(c) 5 : 7
(d) 5 : 6

26.

The number of literate females in Rural Noland is 1000 less than the number of literate females in
Urban Noland. What is the population of Noland?
(a) 5,000
(b) 4,800
(c) 5,500
(d) 3,600

Page

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

27.

Ashish, Binay and Joseph can do a job in 20, 30 and 40 days respectively. The three started the job
together; Ashish left the job 4 days before it was completed and Binay left the job 3 days before it
was completed. In how many days was the job completed?
(a) 14
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 15

28.

A bookseller sells only three books A, B and C on Sundays and their Selling Price are in the ratio
2 : 3 : 4 respectively. The bookseller makes 40%, 30% and 20% profit on selling A, B and C
respectively. If the bookseller made an overall profit of 30% on a Sunday when he sold at least one
copy of each of the three books, then which of the following statements is definitely true regarding
that day?
(a) The number of copies of A sold was the same as the number of copies of C sold.
(b) The number of copies of A sold was more than the number of copies of C sold.
(c) The number of copies of A sold was less than the number of copies of C sold.
(d) None of these

29.

In how many ways can the letters of the word MELANCHOLY be arranged such that E appears
before A and A appears before O?
(a) 10!
3!2!

30.

Page

(b) 7!3!
2!2!

(c) 7!3!
3!2!

The sum of the coefficients of the polynomial


(x 1)6(x 2)4 + (x 2)5(x + 1)6 + (x + 1)2(x + 2)3 is
(a) 8
(b) 0
(c) 32

(d)

10!
2!2!

(d) None of these

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

Section - II
Directions for questions 31 and 32: The passage given below is followed by a set of two questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
In the story "Indian artists to boycott major show in Israel", my views have been presented in a way that
completely belies my life-long career in art based on the conviction that art and politics (and most certainly
culture and politics) are interlocked in complex ways. And that artists can make a significant contribution
to ongoing history through protests, boycotts, refusals, and direct address within and beyond their art
practice.
Some bare facts: I signed the Palestine Campaign for the Academic and Cultural Boycott of Israel in 2010,
which makes my stand against the state of Israel/in support of the Palestinian cause, self-evident. Added
to that, I am not invited to show in the forthcoming exhibition of Indian art in Tel Aviv, so there cannot be even
a remote reason for me to renege or prevaricate on the issue of a boycott.
Even if artists who were invited by the curators did not refuse this invitation right away, a subsequent
campaign could make them reflect on their decision. Pushpamala N.'s initiative could, and should, provoke
artists to explore and extend and revise their political position and related action.
Each one of us will respond to a greater or lesser degree to a historical moment, a place, a movement, to
express our solidarity. But one does not need to recount at every point all the ills that beset the world's
nation-states and thus cancel every political call on that basis.
I further believe that a political position of any complexity allows artists to use imaginative and intellectual
resources in their mode of political intervention: protests and boycotts, open letters in the press, to the
state, to the institution concerned, an artist's statement through the work and as a textual support to be
displayed or published in the catalogue.
31.

A suitable title to the passage would be


(a) The emergence of Art and Politics
(b) Art and Politics: A Symbiosis
(c) Art and Politics: Merged
(d) Art's Contribution to Politics

32.

Which one of these has not been mentioned as a means by which art can contribute to politics?
(a) An artist's ideology brought forth through his work.
(b) An artist's boycott of an event that reflects an opposing political belief.
(c) An artist's narration of all political problems that keep him away from political events.
(d) An artist's written contribution to a cause.

Page

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

33.

Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate
one.
A. The guy who is throwing out the garbage offers customers a cup of water.
B. It's not all those quirky British sandwiches, thin and understated with ingredients like free-range
egg mayonnaise and avocado-and-pine-nut filling.
C. The manager swings by to commiserate about the sweltering weather.
D. No, it's the employees.
E. The cashier is asking New Yorkers how they are doing - and genuinely seems to want an answer.
(a) AECBD

34.

(b) BEACD

(c) ECABD

(d) BDEAC

Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate
one.
A. If that is not enough to energize the White House, here are a few more facts.
B. For all of the talk of "big government," there is no way to cut that much in discretionary programs
without crippling basic functions.
C. To avoid across-the-board cuts, Congress must enact at least another $1.2 trillion in deficit
reduction measures over the 10 years.
D. Lawmakers could eliminate the Federal Bureau of Investigation, the Centers for Disease Control
and Prevention, the National Institutes of Health and Head Start and still not cut $110 billion annually.
E. According to the latest CBS News Poll, 63 percent support raising taxes on households that earn
more than $250,000 a year to help address the deficit.
(a) EABDC

35.

(b) EACBD

(c) ACBDE

(d) AECBD

There are two gaps in the sentence given below. From the pairs of words given, choose the one that
fills the gaps most appropriately
Sure, at times we Indians get frustrated with the functioning of our state and its .
institutions, but it would be nave to believe that we cherish our freedoms any less than someone
living in a Western democracy.
(a) amoral; paroxysmal
(c) apathetic; vacillating

Page

(b) callous; wobbly


(d) ribald; quavering

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

Directions for questions 36 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Four security officers Andrew, Joseph, Parry and Lucas were responsible for guarding the Kohinoor
diamond during a 1-day exhibition held recently. The exhibition started at 10 a.m. and finished at 5 p.m.
The officers operated in 1-hour shifts and at least one officer guarded the diamond in each of the seven
shifts. None of the officers operated in two consecutive shifts and none of them joined or left a shift midway.
It is also known that:
(i)
Andrew operated in exactly four shifts.
(ii)
Two officers were operating at 12:40 p.m. One of the two was Joseph.
(iii)
Parry operated in exactly three shifts. He was operating at 01:20 p.m.
(iv)
Lucas operated in exactly two shifts and he operated alone in both of them.
(v)
Each of the four officers operated in at least two shifts. Joseph and Parry never operated together in
any of the shifts.
36.

In how many shifts did Joseph operate?


(a) 4
(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 5

37.

How many shifts were there in which just one of the four officers operated?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) Cannot be determined

38.

At what time did Joseph leave for his home if it is known that he left immediately after his last shift
ended on the day of the exhibition?
(a) 3 p.m.
(b) 5 p.m.
(c) 4 p.m.
(d) 2 p.m.

39.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
Hack
(a) He has been hacking around all day and not studying for his exam.
(b) The US was alerted of a major terror strike after it hacked into the email account of a suspected
terror group.
(c) His reputation was hacked for bits.
(d) The best way would be to hack up that piece of wood so it can fit in the truck.

40.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
Hang
(a) He hangs about with people much older than him.
(b) She has managed to hang it up and pull through despite all the challenges faced.
(c) He hung a left at the wrong corner.
(d) I need a career to hang my hat on.

Page

10

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

41.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
Opt
(a) Once you opt in for interiors in this design institute it will be difficult for you to change track later
in your profession.
(b) MPs hoped to reverse Britain's opt-out from the treaty.
(c) After a few moments of indecision, he opted for the black car.
(d) When he realized the risks involved he decided to opt out of the chit fund.

42.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using Statement A alone, but cannot be answered by
using Statement B alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using Statement B alone, but cannot be answered by
using Statement A alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered by any of the two statements.
Q. Four friends Ram, Raheem, Shyam and Shameem are standing in a row in the descending
order of their heights, not necessarily in the given order. Raheem is standing adjacent to Shameem
and Shyam is standing at one of the ends of the row. Who is the shortest among the four?
A. Shameem is shorter than Shyam and Ram is standing at one of the ends of the row.
B. Exactly one person is standing between Shyam and Shameem.

Directions for questions 43 to 45: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Nevertheless, Dumont's magnum opus remains his Homo hierarchicus published in French in 1967 (1970
and 1972 for the English translations). It is an impressive synthetic work with a strong theoretical background,
in which the author presented his understanding of the Indian caste society as a whole. According to
Dumont, people were ascribed an unequal status from birth and ranked from the Untouchables (who did not
then call themselves Dalits) at the bottom to the Brahmins at the top according to the degree of purity
attached to each caste collectively as well as to each individual.
After this publication, Dumont distanced himself from the sociology of India, feeling that he had achieved
what he wanted to say on the caste system. He started a new field of research that dealt with the genesis
of the modern individualism grounded on an egalitarian basis, which he contrasted with the inegalitarian
caste system. It was the subject of his Homo aequalis (1977), followed by Essays on individualism (1983),
and German Ideology: From France to Germany and Back (1991). However, these works belonged to the
traditional history of political and philosophical ideas and have no empirical grounding.
Dumont's oeuvre has been discussed and debated by anthropologists in Europe as well as in India. His
sociological interpretation of the caste system is both widely acclaimed and highly criticised. The most
radical criticism emphasised that Dumont's brilliant analysis of the caste system is taken from a dominant
internal viewpoint, whether from its priests (Brahmins) or its princes (Kshatriya), which is well expressed in
and legitimised by the classical Sanskrit texts that Dumont widely used. From a sociological point of view,
Page

11

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

however, scholars need to question, first, the social conditions of the production of these representations
that cannot be taken for granted, and, second, their social usages. The relations of power and domination
that structure the Hindu caste system, which are partly denied from a textual viewpoint (and this, of
course, cannot be ignored), have to be clearly recognised and analysed. Furthermore, the comparative
sociology that Dumont developed was quite often reduced to a binary opposition between individualism and
holism, or to a radical confrontation between the equalitarian West and the hierarchical traditional premodern societies, like India, towards which the anthropologist publicly confessed to having a nostalgic
inclination.
Nevertheless, the Indian part of his oeuvre stands for a rare coherent sociological enterprise that cannot be
ignored or brushed away if one wants to understand the social making of contemporary India.
43.

The style of the passage is


(a) discursive
(b) narrative

(c) analytical

(d) theoretical

44.

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?


(a) Dumont strongly disagreed with the caste system in India.
(b) Dumont strongly agreed with the caste system in India.
(c) Dumont had an inclination towards hierarchical traditional pre-modern societies.
(d) None of the above

45.

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?


(a) Dumont's magnum opus on the caste system in India was well-received.
(b) Dumont's magnum opus on the caste system in India was the subject of much deliberation.
(c) Dumont was not satisfied with his magnum opus on the caste system in India and avoided all
future reference to the subject.
(d) Dumont's magnum opus was the most brilliant analysis on the caste system in India.

46.

Given below are five sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized. From the
italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
Secrecy enshrouded (A) / ensconced (B) the Party's central committee.
As the tumour started spreading, his pain got excruciated (A) / exacerbated (B).
She titivated (A) / titillated (B) her hair in the mirror.
The workforce has been pared (A) / paired (B) to the bone.
I want Robert to evaluate the efficacy (A) / effeminacy (B) and safety of the treatment.
(a) AAABB

Page

12

(b) ABAAA

(c) BBAAB

(d) BBBBA

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

47.

Given below are five sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized. From the
italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
The Queen laid a wreathe (A) / wreath (B) at the war memorial.
After that lengthy exegesis (A) / exigency (B), it's unclear whether the skeptics are gilding the lily or
just protesting too much.
We went sailing on the secluded lake in a little two-person dingy (A) /dinghy (B).
How can we best understand and explicate (A) / expiate (B) 'King Lear'?
He enunciated (A) / emanated (B) his vision of the future.
(a) ABAAB

(b) AAABA

(c) BABAA

(d) BABBB

Directions for questions 48 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Each of the five students Ashish, Bimal, Coral, Disha and Eshan gave a presentation on each of the five
topics Corruption, Terrorism, Globalisation, Human Cloning and Business & Ethics in a week starting
on Monday and ending on Friday. Exactly five presentations were given on each of the five days, no two of
which were on the same topic. No student gave more than one presentation on any of the five days. It is
also known that:
(i)
Coral gave a presentation on Globalisation on Tuesday.
(ii)
Eshan gave a presentation on Human Cloning on Monday.
(iii)
Ashish gave a presentation on the same topic on Monday on which Disha gave a presentation on
Friday. The topic was not Globalisation.
(iv)
Bimal gave a presentation on Corruption, Terrorism and Human Cloning on Monday, Wednesday
and Friday respectively.
(v)
Disha gave a presentation on Business & Ethics on Wednesday. She didnt give a presentation on
Corruption on Thursday.
(vi)
Coral gave a presentation on the same topic on Monday on which Ashish gave a presentation on
Friday.
48.

On which day of the week did Ashish give a presentation on Corruption?


(a) Tuesday
(b) Wednesday
(c) Thursday
(d) None of these

49.

On which topic did Eshan give a presentation on Thursday?


(a) Business & Ethics
(b) Globalisation
(c) Corruption
(d) Terrorism

50.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?


I. Coral and Disha gave a presentation on Corruption on Friday and Tuesday respectively.
II. Ashish and Eshan gave a presentation on Human Cloning and Terrorism respectively on Tuesday.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Page

13

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

51.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Take it from Jeff Gardner, who received an $11,000 bill from Verizon after spending four days in
Jamaica. Before the trip, Mr. Gardner, who runs a fly-fishing business in Grayling, said he called
Verizon to find out what it would cost to use his cell phone for calls and his wireless air card to
check e-mail on his laptop while in the Caribbean. He said he was told that calls would be about $2
a minute and that there would be no extra charges for data as he was on an unlimited plan.
(a) It's hard not to feel ripped off when you get hit with unexpected roaming charges.
(b) One in six mobile users have experienced "bill shock" from unanticipated roaming charges or
other confusing fees.
(c) The Verizon bill said more than 5 GB of data was transferred while he was in Jamaica.
(d) The latter part turned out to be wrong.

52.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
The life of Man, viewed outwardly, is but a small thing in comparison with the forces of Nature. The
slave is doomed to worship Time and Fate and Death, because they are greater than anything he
finds in himself, and because all his thoughts are of things which they devour. But, great as they are,
to think of them greatly, to feel their passionless splendor, is greater still. And such thought makes
us free men; we no longer bow before the inevitable in Oriental subjection, but we absorb it, and
make it a part of ourselves.
(a) Abandon the struggle for private happiness and expel all eagerness of temporary desire.
(b) This liberation is brought into effect by a contemplation of fate.
(c) Wherever a spark of the divine fire kindled in their hearts, we were ready with encouragement.
(d) Brief and powerless is Man's life and sure falls on him a doom pitiless and dark.

53.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
The moviemakers are getting top-level access to the most classified mission in history from an
administration that has tried to throw more people in jail for leaking classified information than the
Bush administration. It was clear that the White House had outsourced the job of manning up the
president's image to Hollywood when Boal got welcomed to the upper echelons of the White House.
(a) The Sony film will no doubt reflect the president's cool, gutsy decision against shaky odds.
(b) The White House is counting on the big-screen version of the killing of Bin Laden to counter
Obama's deteriorating image.
(c) The movie is perfectly timed to give a home-stretch boost to the campaign that has grown
tougher.
(d) Obama is going for that "Mission Accomplished" glow.

Page

14

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

Directions for questions 54 to 57: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
One word is missing in the American debate over the debt crisis: austerity. It's a revealing absence. In spite
of the vast deficit, and despite the U.S. being the home of individualism, no way is being offered for
individuals to make a difference by changing their lifestyles.
In the U.K., we've become familiar with talk of the "new age of austerity." Politicians of both left and right
use the expression to frame the narrative about the cuts we're now facing. While both sides "warn" about
this coming era, austerity is not negative in the British psyche. Here, associations with wartime soften it.
Austerity is associated with personal changes which benefited society and made sense to people who
learned to tackle wastefulness, to "make do and mend." Long before the current cuts, austerity was
making a comeback here, associated with the environmental issues of recycling, cutting consumption and
reducing our carbon footprint. Indeed, the New Economics Foundation recently launched the New Home
Front, arguing that wartime lifestyles are positive models for reducing our environmental impact. When we
think growing our own vegetables, staycations rather than vacations, cycling rather than driving, it has a
fashionable appeal.
Not so in the U.S. In the five months I spent there earlier this year, I never heard the word austerity in
political discussion. The Republican discourse is all about how the government is spending too much. The
government must tighten its belt. There was nothing about individuals living beyond their means.
Yet the U.S. deficit is founded on overconsumption, made possible by too much consumer credit and, less
well recognised, too much environmental credit. In the current war of words in Congress, there are no
references to the immoral lending that encouraged people who could not afford it to invest in the American
dream. That's what led to the property crash and the financial crisis. That has disappeared totally from
political argument. From individuals I heard nothing about the need for prosperous people to change their
ways. There are, of course, many worthy "green shoots," such as the "locavore" movement or the "greening
the campus" initiative at the university I was visiting, where a newly appointed sustainability officer tries to
cut energy use. But people like him have their work cut out. The whole of the east coast and the rust belt
are vast, shocking landscapes to which many Americans seem oblivious.
This is a society which has lived not just beyond its economic means but beyond its environmental ones
too as the hundreds of miles of abandoned buildings, abandoned cars, and endless highways bear witness
to.
Yet the American dream survives. You're either in it, or out of it. Being out means destitution. Individual
lifestyles are boom or bust. In the U.K. I know many people who reject consumerism, getting involved in
poorly paid environmental or political work. We regard them as rather honourable. In the U.S., if you don't
have money you don't count.
54.

What is the central idea of the passage?


(a) To discuss the American and the British way of life and to emphasize the need for austerity
measures in the former.
(b) To discuss the American way of life and to emphasize on the importance of individual austerity
measures.
(c) To discuss the real costs of the American way of life and the need for individuals to bring in
austerity measures.
(d) To discuss the real costs of the American way of life and the need for individualistic austerity
measures.

Page

15

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

55.

It can be inferred that the author approaches the lack of American austerity with
(a) disdain
(b) condescension
(c) criticism
(d) despair

56.

According to the passage, all of these are associated with the British sense of austerity except for
(a) the British take up work that is considered honorable.
(b) the British are not disapproving of austerity measures.
(c) the British associate austerity with environmental issues.
(d) the British tackle wastefulness with the idea of "make do and mend".

57.

Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?


(a) The American society is living beyond its means.
(b) The author is concerned about the Americans misusing their environmental resources.
(c) Availability of credit has encouraged Americans to spend beyond their means.
(d) None of the above

58.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using Statement A alone, but cannot be answered by
using Statement B alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using Statement B alone, but cannot be answered by
using Statement A alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Q. Ankit, Binay and Chintu have different ages and they play different sports among Cricket, Tennis
and Football. The youngest among the three does not play Tennis. Chintu is not the oldest among
the three. Who among the three plays Football?
A. Ankit plays Cricket.
B. Ankit is not the oldest among the three.

Directions for questions 59 and 60: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
There are four friends Akansh, Nakul, Phalguni and Sharad. Two of them were born in Delhi, one was born
in Mumbai and one was born in Kolkata. It is also known that:
(i)
Nakul was not born in Mumbai.
(ii)
Sharad was not born in Kolkata.
(iii)
Phalguni and Akansh were born in different cities.
(iv)
If Sharad was born in Mumbai then Akansh was not born in Kolkata.
(v)
If Phalguni was born in Kolkata then Sharad was not born in Mumbai.
(vi)
If Nakul was born in Kolkata then Akansh was not born in Delhi.
(vii) If Akansh was born in Kolkata then Sharad was not born in Delhi.
(viii) If Phalguni was born in Delhi then Akansh was not born in Mumbai.
59.

60.

Page

In which city was Phalguni born?


(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai

(c) Kolkata

(d) Cannot be determined

In which city was Akansh born?


(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai

(c) Kolkata

(d) Cannot be determined

16

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

Unproctored Mock-5 2012


Answers and Explanations
1

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

Page

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

1. c

Selling Price of 1 m of cloth (as measured by the


scale) after 20% discount

Note: All dimensions are in cm.


Construction: Extend AC to meet the circle at E.
Draw perpendicular bisectors OG and OF on chords
AE and BD respectively.

20

= Rs. 130 1
x = Rs. 104x.
100

D
C

2x

10
The merchant is actually giving just 1 1
= 0.9 m
100

of cloth due to shrinkage of the meter-scale and claiming


money for 1 m of cloth.
Cost of 1 m of cloth (as measured by the scale in
winter) = Cost of 0.9 m of cloth
= Rs. 0.9100x = Rs. 90x.
Profit percentage earned by the merchant

Given, AC = 4 and BC = 12.


Let DC = 2x.
Now, AC CE = BC CD or 4 CE = 12 2x.
Hence, CE = 6x.
AE = AC + CE = 4 + 6x
EG =

4. d

AE
= 2 + 3x.
2

EG2 + OG2 = EO2


(2 + 3x ) + (6 x ) = 82

) (

From Statement A: The statement cannot be true


as the midpoint of (2, 5) and (10, 21) is (4, 13). The
three points are collinear and a circle cannot pass
through three collinear points. So the statement is false
and hence cannot help in finding the equation of the
circle.
From Statement B: The distance between (2, 5)
and (4, 13) is 10 units which is less than the length of
the diameter i.e. 12 units. Hence, two such circles are
possible. So we cannot find a unique equation of the
circle using this statement.
Note: The number of possible circles with a fixed
radius and passing through two fixed points is 2 unless
the distance between the two points is equal to the
diameter of the circle. The following figure illustrates
this:
A

BD
BD = BC + CD = 12 + 2x and CF = OG =
CD
2
= 6 x.
As OG is perpendicular to AE, in right triangle EGO:

104x 90x
= 15.56%.
90x

4 + 9x 2 + 12x + 36 + x 2 12x = 64

10x2 + 40 = 64

A B < D ia m e te r

12
x=
5
B
Hence, the question cannot be answered by any of
the two statements.

12
cm.
Hence, CD = 2x = 2
5

2. d

3. a

Page

5. d

If we place D at some position then the position of


E will be automatically fixed. B can be placed on either
side of D. So we need to select one position out of
these two for B. The remaining three positions can be
filled by A, C and F in 3! ways.
The total number of ways = 2 3! = 12.

6. b

Let the Cost of 1 m of the cloth be Rs. 100x.


Marked Price of 1 m of cloth

For the highest possible value of integer x which


satisfies the given inequality, say xmax, all the modulus
brackets will open with a positive sign i.e. |x 1| > 0,
||x 1| 2| > 0, |||x 1| 2| 3| > 0 etc.

30

= Rs. 100 1 +
x = Rs. 130x.
100

When all the brackets open with a positive sign,


x 1 2 3 4 < 5 or x < 15 or xmax = 14.

The first common term of the two sequences is 28. As


the common difference of the two sequences are 6
and 5 respectively, we can say that any number of
the form 30n 2, where n is a natural number, will be
common to both the sequences. The maximum possible
value of such common term will be 30 18 2
= 540 2 = 538. Hence, the number of common terms
in S1 and S2 is 18.

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

For questions 7 to 9:
The table given below shows the Population Density and the Density Rating of the twelve islands.

Total land
2
area (km )

Number of
Vulcans

Andorian

2,500

1,200,000,000

Population
Density
2
(Vulcans/km )
480,000

Bajoran

1,000

300,000,000

300,000

Chronian

500

150,000,000

300,000

Delvian

500

80,000,000

160,000

Elerian

4,000

10,000,000

2,500

Furon

2,000

8,000,000

4,000

Gran

3,000

200,000,000

66,666.67

Halosian

5,000

350,000,000

70,000

2
2

S. No.

Island
Name

1
2

Irken

8,000

250,000,000

31,250

Jaridian

1,000

50,000,000

50,000

11

Klingon

1,500

30,000,000

20,000

12

Luxan

1,000

20,000,000

20,000

Four islands Andorian, Bajoran, Chronian and Delvian.

8. b

Two islands Elerian and Furon.

9. a

Five islands Andorian, Bajoran, Chronian, Delvian and Halosian.

10. a

logx log4 log3 log9 27 x


log4 log3 log9 27 x
log3 log9 27 x

27 x

3 x2 2x + 6

2 2x + 6

2 2x + 6

2 2x + 6

2 2x + 6

2 2x + 6

10

7. d

log9 27 x

Density
Rating

=0

=1

=4

= 34 = 81

= 981

) = 3162

x2 2x + 6 = 54
x2 2x 48 = 0
( x 8 )( x + 6 ) = 0
x = 6 or 8.

But x cannot be equal to 6 as x > 0. Hence, x = 8 is the only real solution of the equation.

Page

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

11. c

M L = F M or 2M = L + F
Also, M = 2S.
Hence, 4S = L + F.

The given graph must be of an equation of type


3x
1
= where k > 1.
y+5
k

From Statement A:
F L = 40.
Combining the above equation with (ii) we get,
4S = 2F 40.
But as S is not known, we cannot find F.
Statement A alone is not sufficient to answer.

3x
1
=
y+5
k
y + 5 = kx 3k
y = kx (3k + 5)
This is the equation of a line in the x-y plane, whose
slope (k) is greater than zero and it has a negative
intercept (of length 3k + 5) on the y-axis.
Only one graph satisfies the condition.

12. c

13. b

From Statement B:
M L = 20.
Hence F M = F (L + 20) = 20 or F L = 40.
Statement B is identical to Statement A and is not
sufficient to answer.

+ = 3 and + = 21.
Adding the above two equations we get:
+ 2 + = 24.
Also, + = 2.
(Q , & are in A.P.)
Solving the above two equations we get = 6.
Substituting = 6 in the given quadratic equations,
we get c = 18 and d = 90.

(i)
(ii)

As the two statements give the same information, the


question cannot be answered even by using both the
statements together.
15. b

c
1
= .
d
5

We can say that the midpoint of Arjun and Bheem is


moving in anticlockwise direction at 5 3 = 1 m/s.
2
4 m /s
C h erry

L.C.M. of 3, 4, 6 and 8 is 24.


Each remainder left on division is 2 less than the divisor.
So if k is a divisor then the dividend must be of the type
nk 2 where n is a natural number. To satisfy the
condition for all the four divisors we have to consider
L.C.M. of 3, 4, 6 and 8 in place of nk. So the smallest
such number = 24 2 = 22. The next number will be
22 + L.C.M. (2, 4, 6 and 8) = 22 + 24 = 46.
A general expression for any number N satisfying the
given condition is N = 24k 2.
If 0 < N < 500, then N can be:
22, 46, 70,... 478.
As 478 = 24 20 2, the answer is 20.

16. b

A rjun B h ee m
3 m /s

5 m /s
B

The first occasion when Cherry is equidistant from


Arjun and Bheem will be when Cherry reaches this
midpoint (as Arjun and Bheem are equidistant from the
midpoint, they would automatically be equidistant form
Cherry as well).
The time taken by Cherry to reach the midpoint

circumference

150
2

=
=
= 30 s.
speed of Cherry + speed at which
4 +1
midpoint is moving
14. a

Page

Let the present ages (in years) of Shyam, his father,


his sister Leela and his mother be S, F, L and M
respectively.

In triangle ABC and triangle CBD,

ACB = CDB and ABC = CBD.


Hence, ABC : CBD.
AB BC
BC2 9
or BD =
=
= = 2.25 cm.
BC BD
AB
4

Similarly, ABC : BEC.


BC CE
BC2 9
or CE =
=
= = 1.8 cm.
AC BC
AC 5

Hence, AD = AB BD = 4 2.25 = 1.75 = 35 .


AE AC CE
5 1.8
3.2 64

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

For questions 17 to 19:


The data given in the pie chart and the line graph can be used
to tabulate the revenue generated by each product in each of
the four quarters of the fiscal year 2010-11 as shown below.

21. b

Revenue generated (in Rs. crores)


Product

Laptops

1st
Quarter
11.25

2nd
Quarter
7.5

3rd
Quarter
18.75

4th
Quarter
37.5

Desktops

11.25

6.75

11.25

15.75

45

Printers

25

25

20

30

100

Netbooks

24

36

12

48

120

Let the regular hexagon be ABCDEF and the equilateral


triangle be ACE. From the figure given below, it can be
easily observed that the hexagon can be divided into
6 congruent triangles.
We have, AB = BC = OC = OA and AC is common in the
triangle ABC and the triangle AOC. Hence the triangle
ABC is congruent to the triangle AOC.
A

Total
75

Tablets

56

40

32

32

160

Total

127.5

115.25

94

163.25

500

a
O
a

17. d

Tablets

18. a

1st quarter

19. b

2:3

20. a

Suppose we do not select digit 6 and the four digits


are 2, 4, 0 and 1.

C
a

CASE I. When digit 1 is at the thousands place:


The digit 0 can be placed at any position.
Total such numbers = 1 3 2 1 = 6.

Let the area of triangle ABC be a unit2.


Required ratio = 3a : 6a = 1 : 2.
22. d

Let x R, y B denote x Red and y Blue faces such that


x + y = 6.
I. 6 R, 0 B and 0 R, 6 B:
Only 1 such case is possible for each.
Hence, total 2 possibilities.
II. 5 R, 1 B and 1 R, 5 B:
Only 1 such case is possible for each.
Hence, total 2 possibilities.
III. 4 R, 2 B and 2 R, 4 B:
In 4 R, 2 B, the two blue faces are either adjacent or
not. So 2 such cases are possible for each. Hence,
total 4 possibilities.
IV. 3 R, 3 B:
One case is when the three blue faces are adjacent
to one another. The other case is when one blue face
is adjacent to the other two but the other two are not
adjacent to each other. Hence, total 2 possibilities.
Total possibilities = 2 + 2 + 4 + 2 = 10.

23. d

Sum of the squares of first n natural numbers

CASE II. When digit 1 is not at the thousands place:


Possible positions for the digit 1 = 2.
Possible positions for the digit 0, once the digit 1 has
been fixed = 2.
Now digits 2 and 4 can be placed at the remaining two
positions in 2 ways.
Total such numbers = 2 2 2 = 8.
Adding the above two cases, there are 14 such
numbers.
Similarly, we will get 28 more such numbers when
instead of 2 and 4 the digits selected are either 2 and
6 or 4 and 6.
Hence, the answer = 14 3 = 42.

n (n + 1)(2n + 1)
.
6
By substitution we can see that
1 + 22 + 32 + 42 + + 162 = 1496.
As 1496 64 = 1432, the number whose square was
erased must be 8.

Page

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

24. c

Let c = 8k. Hence, b = 8(k + 1) and a = 8(k + 2), where


k is a natural number.
As the H.C.F. of k, k + 1 and k + 2 is always 1, we
can say that the L.C.M. of k, k + 1 and k + 2 will be

27. b

Lets assume that the job consists of 120 (L.C.M. of


20, 30 and 40) units of work.
Therefore, Ashish, Binay and Joseph can do 6, 4 and
3 units of work respectively in a day.
If the job took x days to complete, Ashish, Binay and
Joseph worked for x 4, x 3, and x days respectively.
Hence, 6(x 4) + 4(x 3) + 3x = 120.
x = 12.

28. b

Let the Selling Price of a copy of A, B and C be 2x, 3x


and 4x respectively.
Let the Cost Price of a copy of A, B and C be CA, CB
and CC respectively.
Let the number of copies of A, B and C sold on that
Sunday be a, b and c respectively.

k (k + 1)(k + 2), when k is odd, and


k (k + 1)(k + 2 )
, when k is even.
2

The L.C.M. of a, b and c is either 8k (k + 1)(k + 2) or

4k (k + 1)(k + 2).
L.C.M < 10000 (given)
For highest value of k well take 4k(k+1)(k+2) < 10000,
where k is even.
Hence, k(k + 1)(k + 2) < 2500.
The maximum possible value of k = 12.
The maximum possible value of c = 96.
For questions 25 and 26:
Let the total number of females in Noland be 100Y.
Therefore, the total number of males in Noland = 120Y.
Total Urban population of Noland = Total Rural population of
Noland = 110Y.
The number of literate females in Noland = 80% of 100Y = 80Y
The number of illiterate females in Noland = 100Y 80Y = 20Y
The number of literate males in Noland = 4 20Y = 80Y
The number of illiterate males in Noland = 120Y 80Y = 40Y
The number of illiterate people in Rural Noland

Hence,

aC A = cCC
4x
a CC 1.2
=
=
>1
2x
c CA
1.4

29. a

2
(20Y + 40Y) = 40Y
3
The number of illiterate people in Urban Noland
= 60Y 40Y = 20Y
Further analysis leads to the table given below.
=

Total Population of Noland = 220Y


Rural Population
Urban Population
(110Y)
(110Y)
Males

Females

Males
I

50Y

30Y

20Y

10Y

30Y

10Y

Hence, the answer = 10C3 7! = 10! .


3!2!
2!
30. d

To find the sum of all the coefficients we can put x = 1


in the given polynomial.
Sum of the coefficients = (1 1)6(1 2)4 + (1 2)5
(1 + 1)6 + (1 + 1)2(1 + 2)3
= 0 64 + 108 = 44.

31. d

The last line of the first paragraph indicates the central


idea of the passage and points towards arts
contribution to politics. Option (d) is the answer. Option
(a) is incorrect as the emergence of art and politics
has not been discussed in the passage. Option (b) is
also incorrect as the passage only states that art and
politics are interlocked in complex ways. But, this
cannot be inferred as a mutually beneficial relationship
a symbiosis. Option (c) is incorrect as art and politics
are not merged or do not become one entity.

32. c

Options (a) and (d) have been mentioned in the last


line of the passage. Option (b) can be inferred from
the second paragraph. However, option (c) cannot be
inferred. It also goes against the information in the
passage against the discussion of arts contribution
to politics. The author has mentioned boycott of those

60Y 10Y

L = Literate, I = Illiterate.
25. c

The number of literate males in Rural Noland = 50Y.


The total number of females in Urban Noland
= 60Y + 10Y = 70Y.
Hence, the answer = 50Y : 70Y = 5 : 7.

26. c

Given: 60Y 20Y = 1000.


Hence, Y = 25 and 220Y = 5,500.

Page

There are 10 places in all from which 3 places are to


be selected for E, A and O and their order is already
fixed. So this can be done in 10C3 ways. The remaining
seven letters M, L, N, C, H, L and Y can be arranged in
the remaining 7 places in 7! ways.
2!

Females
L

1.4aC A + 1.3bCB + 1.2cCC


= 1.3
aC A + bCB + cCC

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

political events where the ideology does not match


that of the artists. However, option (c) has incorrectly
generalized the authors statement.
33. d

34. b

35. b

There is a strong link between B and D. This link helps


rule out option (b). A, C and E are all specific statements
with examples related to the employees. The choice
between a specific to general or a general to specific
leads one to the correct answer. Options (a) and (c)
allow a choice that is specific to general, albeit one
that is disjointed with the appearance of BD at the end
of the sequence. The correct answer is option (d) as
it starts with BD and EAC are a substantiation of the
assertion in D.
There is a CBD link. C sets the standard in deficit
reduction. B asserts that there is no way to cut out
discretionary programs and still not cripple basic
functions. D goes on to substantiate B by discussing
that even by cutting down a few programs, Congress
would not cut even $110 billion annually. It is also clear
that before A there must be another statement to
establish the need for Congress to act. Hence, E comes
before A. The answer is option (b).
The tone of the author while describing the state and
its institutions is negative. Both the words need to
complement each other and deliver a logical meaning.
Callous means insensitive, indifferent or unconcerned
and wobbly means weak and unstable. The state
has become callous towards the needs and problems
of the Indians and its institutions have become weak
and infirm which causes frustration among Indians
but they cherish their freedom. Option (b) clearly brings
out the meaning of the sentence. Amoral and
apathetic appear to be suitable for the first blank. But
both options (a) and (c) are incorrect due to the second
words paroxysmal and vacillating respectively.
Paroxysmal means characterized by a sudden strong
feeling or expression that is difficult to control.
Vacillating means to keep changing your opinion or
thoughts about something. Hence, options (a) and (c)
are negated. Option (d) is irrelevant as the word ribald
means characterized by coarse indecent humour.

For questions 36 to 38:


Let Andrew, Joseph, Parry and Lucas be represented by A, J,
P and L respectively. Let the shifts be called 1st to 7th (in the
order of their occurrence).
From statement (i), it can be concluded that A operated in the
1st, 3rd, 5th and 7th shifts.
From statement (ii), it can be concluded that J operated along
with A in the 3rd shift.
From statement (iii), it can be concluded that P operated in the
4th shift.
From statement (iv), it can be concluded that the two shifts in
which L operated were 2nd and 6th. Hence, P operated in the 1st
and 7th shifts.

Page

From statement (v), it can be concluded that J operated in the


5th shift along with A.
The conclusions made thus far can be shown as given below.
SHIFT

1st

2nd

3rd

4th

5th

6th

7th

GUARD(S)

A, P

A, J

A, J

A, P

36. b

37. b

38. a

3 p.m.

39. c

Hacked to bits is the correct phrase and means


severely damaged. Hence, option (c) is incorrect.
To hack around means to waste time. Hence, option
(a) is correct. To hack into means to break into a
computer system. Hence, option (b) is correct. Hack
up means to chop or cut into small pieces. So option
(d) is correct.

40. b

To hang about/around is to spend time somewhere


not doing much. Hence, (a) is correct. To hang it up
means to resign or quit. So (b) is incorrect. The correct
idiom is to hang in there which means to persevere
and not give up. Hang a left or right means to take a
left or right turn. Hence, (c) is correct. Hang ones hat
means 1: to situate oneself in (as a residence or place
of employment) or 2: to have or use as a source of
support <need a career to hang my hat on>. Hence,
(d) is correct.

41. a

Opt in for is not grammatically correct. The correct


phrase is opt for which means to choose. To opt in is
to choose to be part or a member of something. Optout is a noun. It means the act of choosing not to be
involved in an agreement. Opt for or against means to
choose to take or not to take a particular course of
action. To opt out means to choose not to be part of
something. The answer is option (a).

42. a

Shyam is standing at one of the ends of the row.


Hence, it can be concluded that Shyam is either the
shortest or the tallest among the four.
From Statement A:
Since Shameem is shorter than Shyam, it means that
Shyam is not the shortest and so he is the tallest
among the four. Ram being at the other end of the row,
must be the shortest among the four.
From Statement B:
The statement alone is not sufficient to answer.

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

43. c

The author starts with a discussion on Dumonts


magnum opus, analyses this publication and then
moves on to the analyses of his other publication. In
the third paragraph, the author presents other opinions
and then also presents his opinion. He takes facts and
uses them to arrive at an understanding. These are all
elements of the analytical style. Option (c) is the
answer. Option (a) is incorrect as discursive style
would indicate that the author is attempting to explain
something to the reader this is clearly not the case in
the passage. Option (b) is incorrect because there is
no narration of events in a sequential manner there
is a reference to dates but these are only part of the
process of analysis that the author goes through. A
theoretical style would have used academic
references. It would have also used hypothetical
frameworks and would have fitted in if the author
were trying to explain an ongoing research procedure
or study. However, the passage is concerned more
with Dumont and his treatment and ideology as
opposed to a particular research.

44. c

The passage never reveals Dumonts personal opinion


of the caste system in India. The last line of the
penultimate paragraph does state that Dumont
confessed to a nostalgic inclination towards
hierarchical traditional pre-modern societies.
However this cannot be read as support for the caste
system in India. The line has been written in context of
the style that Dumont developed in comparative
sociology. And there is ambiguity as to whether the
nostalgic inclination he felt was an inclination to write/
research on the subject matter itself or his individual
support for the subject matter. Option (c) can be
inferred because it is mentioned in the passage.

45. b

Page

Deliberation refers to the process of carefully


considering or discussing something; a discussion
and consideration by a group of persons (as a jury or
legislature) of the reasons for and against a measure.
Option (b) brings out the information that the author
presents in the passage. Refer to the first line of the
third paragraph Dumonts oeuvre has been discussed
and debated by anthropologists in Europe as well as
in India. His sociological interpretation of the caste
system is both widely acclaimed and highly criticized.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
Option (a) can be ruled out as it does not correctly
describe the reception to Dumonts work. Option (c)
cannot be inferred as it goes against the information in
the first line of the second paragraph. The tone of
option (d) is too positive to match the tone of the author.

46. b

ABAAA
Enshroud means to cover or surround something
completely so that it cannot be seen or understood. If
you are ensconced or ensconce yourself somewhere,
you are made or make yourself comfortable and safe
in that place or position. So enshrouded is the apt
word for the first sentence. Excruciate means to
inflict intense pain on; torture, to subject to intense
mental distress. For example: She has long been
excruciated by a persistent pain in her knee. Pain
cannot excruciate, this construction is grammatically
incorrect. On the other hand, exacerbated which
means worsened is appropriate in the given context.
Titivate means improve the appearance of somebody/
something by making small changes whereas titillate
means to interest or excite somebody. Hence, titivate
is appropriate for the third sentence. Pared to the
bone means to be reduced to the lowest possible
level. Pair means to put people or things into groups
of two. Efficacy means the ability of something,
especially a drug or a medical treatment, to produce
the results that are wanted; effectiveness.
Effeminacy refers to the quality or trait of looking,
behaving or sounding like a female.

47. c

BABAA
Wreathe is a verb and it means to surround or cover
something. Wreath is a noun and it refers to an
arrangement of flowers and leaves, especially in the
shape of a circle, placed on graves, etc. as a sign of
respect for somebody who has died. So, wreath (B)
is apt for the first sentence. Exegesis is a noun and
refers to the detailed explanation of a piece of writing,
especially religious writing. Exigency is also a noun
and it means an urgent need or demand that you must
deal with. The modifier lengthy suggests exegesis
to be the apt word. Dingy is an adjective and means
dark and dirty. On the other hand dinghy is a noun
and refers to a small open boat that one sails or rows.
So, dinghy is the apt word for the third sentence.
Explicate means to explain an idea or a work of
literature in a lot of detail. Expiate means to accept
punishment for something that you have done wrong
in order to show that you are sorry. So explicate is
the apt word for the fourth sentence. Enunciate
means to express an idea clearly and exactly whereas
emanate means to produce or show something; to
come out from a source <a sweet scent emanating
from the blossoms>, <He emanates power and
confidence>, <The sound of loud music emanated from
the building>. Hence, in the given context, enunciated
is the apt word for the fifth sentence.

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

For questions 48 to 50:


Let Ashish, Bimal, Coral, Disha and Eshan be represented by A, B, C, D and E respectively.
After filling up the initial data, it can be concluded that B gave a presentation on Business & Ethics and Globalisation on Tuesday
and Thursday respectively.
The topic on which A and D gave a presentation on Monday and Friday respectively was not among Corruption, Human Cloning,
Business & Ethics and Globalisation. Therefore, from statement (iii), A and D gave a presentation on Terrorism on Monday and
Friday respectively. Similarly, from statement (vi), C and A gave a presentation on Business & Ethics on Monday and Friday
respectively.
Therefore, D gave a presentation on Globalisation on Monday and from statement (v), D gave a presentation on Corruption and
Human Cloning on Tuesday and Thursday respectively.
Further analysis leads to the final table as given below.

Ashish

Bimal

Coral

Disha

Eshan

Monday

Terrorism

Corruption

Business &
Ethics

Globalisation

Human Cloning

Tuesday

Human Cloning

Business &
Ethics

Globalisation

Corruption

Terrorism

Wednesday

Globalisation

Terrorism

Human Cloning

Business &
Ethics

Corruption

Thursday

Corruption

Globalisation

Terrorism

Human Cloning

Business &
Ethics

Friday

Business &
Ethics

Human Cloning

Corruption

Terrorism

Globalisation

48. c

Thursday

49. a

Business & Ethics

50. c

Both I and II

51. d

There is a clear logical ending to the paragraph, as it starts with the fact that Mr. Gardner received a bill of $11,000 from
Verizon. Option (d) concludes the information in the paragraph. Option (a) is incorrect as it in the second person while
the paragraph is in the third person. Option (b) ends with general information while the paragraph is about Mr. Gardner.
Option (c) brings in inconsequential data and it cannot be determined if this is negative or positive in context.

52. b

The paragraph discusses mans life and the thoughts through which he can be freed. Option (b) completes the flow of
the passage by referring to liberation and thought. Option (a) can be ruled out as it an imperative sentence and does not
match with the tone of the paragraph. (An imperative sentence is a sentence which gives command, makes a request
or expresses a wish).
Examples:
Go to your room. (an order)
Please lend me your book. (a request)
Have a good time at the picnic. (a wish)
Option (c) is incorrect as it refers to a divine fire there is no mention of a spiritual context in the paragraph. The
paragraph ends in the first person, whereas option (c) refers to the spark being kindled in the hearts of others. This
does not go with the logical flow of the paragraph. Option (d) is incorrect as it has a negative tone, whereas the
paragraph moves towards a positive tone.

53. b

The paragraph discusses the boost that is being planned for the Presidents image the use of the movie medium.
Option (a) is incorrect as it refers to Sony and the presidents gutsy decision and both of these are not referred to in the
paragraph. Option (b) is the answer as it supports the information in the passage and clarifies how a movie will help
boost the presidents image. Option (c) is incorrect as it refers to the campaign and there is no basis for this inference.
Option (d) is abstract and does not help to conclude the information in the paragraph.

Page

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

54. a

55. c

56. a

57. d

58. d

From Statement B:
The statement only indicates that Binay is the oldest
among the three, which is not sufficient to answer.

The last line of the first paragraph emphasizes on the


need for American individuals to change their lifestyle.
The next paragraph discusses the need for austerity
measures and also compares the American attitude to
the British attitude. The author again returns to a
comparison with the British in the last two sentences.
Option (a) is correct. Option (d) can be ruled out
because the author never mentions individualistic/
unique austerity measures.
It is clear from the beginning of the passage that the
author speaks of the lack of austerity measures among
the Americans with a negative tone. However, there
is no dislike or scorn in the way he writes. Hence,
option (a) is ruled out. Option (b) indicates an arrogant
or patronizing attitude. Again, this cant be inferred
from the passage. It is true that the author lauds Britains
austerity measures but he does not look down on the
Americans lack of measures. He instead criticizes it
because he feels it has been costly for the Americans.
Option (c) is the answer. Option (d) is very negative
and indicates that the author has lost hope of the
Americans ever implementing austerity measures.
However, this has also not been indicated in the
passage.
Options (b), (c) and (d) are mentioned in the second
paragraph. However, option (a) cannot be inferred. In
the last paragraph, the author mentions that he knows
many people who reject consumerism, getting
involved in poorly paid environmental or political work.
However, this cant be inferred as option (a) it
generalizes the authors opinion.
The fourth and fifth paragraphs have the answer to
this question. The second half of the fourth paragraph
reflects the authors concern for the way the
Americans have misused their environmental
resources. Options (a) has been mentioned in the fifth
paragraph. Option (c) has been mentioned in the fourth
paragraph. There is no direct mention of option (b) but
it can be inferred from the second half of the fourth
paragraph. Thus, option (a), (b) and (c) can be inferred
from the passage. Hence, option (d) is the correct
option.

From Statements A and B:


Either Binay or Chintu plays Football. Three cases are
possible as shown below.

Increasing order of age (left to right)


CASE 1

Ankit - Cricket

CASE 2 Chintu - Football


CASE 3

Ankit - Cricket

Chintu - Tennis

Binay - Football

Ankit - Cricket

Binay - Tennis

Chintu - Football

Binay - Tennis

Hence, the question cannot be answered even by


using both the statements together.
For questions 59 and 60:
Let Akansh, Nakul, Phalguni and Sharad be represented by A,
N, P and S respectively.
On the basis of statements (i), (ii) and (iii) the following six
cases (I to VI) are possible.
I

II

III

IV

VI

Delhi

N, S

N, S

A, N

P, N

A, S

P, S

Mumbai

Kolkata

Statements (iv), (v), (vi), (vii) and (viii) contradict cases IV, III,
V, II and VI respectively.
Only case I is feasible and so it is the correct arrangement.
59. c

Kolkata

60. b

Mumbai

From Statement A:
Either Binay or Chintu plays Football. Several cases
are possible, two of which are given below:

Increasing order of age (left to right)


CASE 1

Binay - Football

CASE 2 Chintu - Football

Chintu - Tennis

Ankit - Cricket

Ankit - Cricket

Binay - Tennis

Hence, Statement A alone is not sufficient to answer.

Page

10

Unproctored Mock-5 2012

Unproctored Mock-6 2012


Section - I
1.

There are four lines in a plane and exactly two of them are parallel. If P is the number of points of
intersection of these lines, then how many different values of P are possible?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6

2.

Which of the following number(s) is/are not prime?


(i) 25001 + 1

(ii) 25002 + 1

(iii) 25003 + 1

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (i) and (iii)

(c) (ii) and (iii)

(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

3.

Pawan and Qureshi working together can do a piece of work in 10 days whereas Qureshi and Rohit
working together can do the same work in 12 days. All three work together to do a job for which they
are paid Rs. 300. If Qureshis share is Rs. 140, then what is Pawans share?
(a) Rs. 100
(b) Rs. 60
(c) Rs. 80
(d) Cannot be determined

4.

How many positive integer pairs (x, y) satisfy x + y = 2003 ?


(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2

(d) 3

Directions for questions 5 and 6: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Travelabad is famous for its vast railway network. It has three types of trains Super Fast, Express and
Passenger and each type of train has two classes of travel Sleeper and Air Conditioned. The train fare
in Travelabad has two components fixed fare and variable fare. The fixed fare is based on the class of
travel Rs. 60 for Sleeper and Rs. 100 for Air Conditioned. The variable fare depends on the distance of the
journey, the type of train and the class of travel. The table given below shows the variable fare (in Rs.) for
different distance ranges from the source station to the destination station.
Dista nce
Ra nge
Cla ss
Super Fast
Express
Passenger

150 km
SL
80
60
45

AC
200
160
120

151 500 km
SL
155
110
80

AC
500
300
225

501 1000 km 1001 1800 km


SL
250
175
125

AC
650
450
325

SL
340
240
160

AC
950
650
425

1801km
SL
480
330
225

AC
1250
900
550

AC = Air Conditioned Class


SL = Sleeper Class
5.

Ghumakkad Das travels only in the Sleeper class of Super Fast trains. He travelled from Delni to
Bhokal and then took another train from Bhokal to Mumtai. Next day he returned to Delni directly
from Mumtai. The total train fare while going to Mumtai from Delni via Bhokal exceeded the train fare
while coming back to Delni from Mumtai by Rs.125. If Bhokal lies on the only rail route connecting
Delni and Mumtai, in which range does Delni-Mumtai rail distance fall?
(a) 151 500 km

Page

(b) 501 1000 km

(c) 1001 1800 km

(d) 1801 km
Unproctored Mock-6 2012

6.

One day Yatri Kumar travelled in the Sleeper Class of a train. Next day he travelled in the Air
Conditioned Class of the same type of train for a different journey. If the train fare on the two days
was exactly the same, in which type of train did he travel?
(a) Super Fast
(b) Express
(c) Passenger
(d) Cannot be determined

7.

From a vessel containing 160 litres of milk, x litres is drained out and replaced with water. Then x
litres of milk-water solution is drained out and replaced with water. If the quantity of milk left in the
vessel is 90 litres, then what is the value of x?
(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 36
(d) 35

8.

In the figure given below ABCD is a square of side 4 cm. P is the midpoint of AD and is joined with
vertex B. A perpendicular is drawn from vertex C on BP, which intersects BP at point E. What is the
area of BEC ?

B
(a) 6.4

cm2

(b) 4

cm2

C
(c) 3.2

cm2

(d) None of these

9.

The sum of thirty-two consecutive natural numbers is a perfect square. What is the least possible
sum of the smallest and the largest of the thirty-two numbers?
(a) 81
(b) 36
(c) 49
(d) 64

10.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Mark (d) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Q. What is the sum of a, b and c?
A. The numbers a, b and c are in Arithmetic Progression.
B. a2 + b2 + c2 = 83, where a, b and c are natural numbers.

11.

Page

A function f(x) is defined for all real values of x as f(x) = ax2 + bx + c. If f(1) = f(1), f(0) = 10 and
f(2) = 14, then what is the value of f(10)?
(a) 100
(b) 110
(c) 64
(d) None of these

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

12.

In a three-digit number, the unit digit is twice the tens digit and the tens digit is twice the hundreds
digit. The same number is written as 1XY and 1YX in base 8 and base 9 respectively. Find the sum
of X and Y in the decimal system.
(a) 15
(b) 7
(c) 11
(d) Cannot be determined

Directions for questions 13 to 15: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Bar Graph - I shows the month-wise total sales (in 00 units) of cars by Naruti Kuzuki Ltd. from April 2010
to July 2010. Bar Graph - II shows the sales (in 000 units) of four of the car models Ken, Sezire, Palto
and Dwift of Naruti Kuzuki Ltd. in the four months.

Sales (in '00)

6000
5500

5490

5580

May

June

5670

5250

5000
4500
4000
April

July

Month

Graph - I

75

80

72

72

Sales (in '000)

70
60

49

50
40
30

45

50

51 52

36

48
35

69

63

60

Ken
42
33

Sezire
Palto
Dwift

20
10
0
April

May

June

July

Month

Graph - II
Page

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

13.

For which of the four car models is the absolute percentage change in the sales from April 2010 to
July 2010 equal to the absolute percentage change in the total sales of cars by Naruti Kuzuki Ltd.
during the same period?
(a) Dwift
(b) Ken
(c) Sezire
(d) Palto

14.

What is the percentage increase in the sales of the rest of the car models (other than the given four)
by Naruti Kuzuki Ltd. from May 2010 to July 2010?
(a) 7.5%
(b) 8%
(c) 9.09%
(d) None of these

15.

For which month is the ratio of the sales of Sezire to the total sales of cars by Naruti Kuzuki Ltd.
the highest?
(a) April
(b) May
(c) June
(d) July

16.

If 12P + 3R + 4Q = 16, where P, Q and R are positive real numbers, then what is the maximum
possible value of P3R3Q2?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 8

17.

The route taken by a bus from Delhi to Jaipur has n stops, including the source and the destination.
When m new stops are added on the route of the bus (where m > 1) the number of different tickets
that can be issued between two stops on the route increases by 11. What is the value of n?
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 5

18.

Yamini and Zora are standing 25 km apart. Zora starts moving towards Yamini. After 40 minutes
Yamini also starts moving towards Zora. By the time Yamini covers 5 km, Zora has covered 15 km.
They meet at a point 7 km from the starting point of Yamini. What is the speed of Yamini?
(a) 7.5 km/h
(b) 10.5 km/h
(c) 17.5 km/h
(d) 6 km/h

19.

A cube of edge 12 cm is cut into 64 equal cubes. All the cubes are now arranged on a table such
that one face of each cube touches the table. The resulting figure is a solid cuboid whose length and
breadth are in the ratio 4 : 1 respectively. What is the total surface area of the table occupied by the
cuboid?
(b) 288 cm2
(c) 576 cm2
(d) None of these
(a) 144 cm2

20.

If log165 = m and log53 = n, then what is the value of log36 in terms of m and n?
(a) 1 + 4mn
4mn

Page

(b)

4mn
1 + 4mn

(c)

1
1 + 4mn

(d) Cannot be determined

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

Directions for questions 21 to 23: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The table given below shows the various costs (in Rs. lakhs) incurred on the production of one ton of five
different crops and the Selling Price (in Rs. lakhs) per ton of each crop.
Crop
Raw material cost
Insecticides/ Pesticides cost
Fertilizers cost
Fuel Consumption Cost
Irrigation cost
Storage cost
Transportation cost
Selling Price

Maize

Rice

10.5
11.5
13.5
20
8
14
12.5
120

12
8
10
15
11.5
8.5
10
90

Sugar
Cane
7.5
9.5
17.5
12.5
22
21
15
125

Cotton
27
42.5
20
10
33
20
7.5
175

Mustard
Seeds
19
32.5
21
22.5
16.5
11
17.5
180

Note: Profit = Selling Price Total Cost


21.

For which crop is the profit percentage per ton the highest?
(a) Cotton
(b) Maize
(c) Mustard Seeds

(d) None of these

22.

For how many of the given crops is the Irrigation cost more than 20% of the total cost?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

23.

If 1 kg of raw material of Cotton costs Rs. 54 and 200 grams of raw material is sown in 10 m2 of land,
then what is the area of land required for producing 1 ton of Cotton?
(b) 500 m2
(c) 2.5 km2
(d) 5 km2
(a) 2500 m2

24.

What are the last two digits of 948367483?


(a) 21
(b) 87

25.

(c) 27

(d) None of these

In the figure given below ABCD is a rectangle. The ratio of the length of EB to the length of BF is

2 : 3. What is the ratio of the length of BF to the length of FC?

3 0
3 0

B
(a) 9 : 5 3
Page

(b) 2 3 : 2

3 0

C
(c) 2 : 3

(d) None of these


Unproctored Mock-6 2012

26.

Two sets A and B are given below.


A = {20, 21, 22, 23, 24}
B = {30, 31, 32, 33, 34}
How many different proper fractions can be made by picking the numerator from one of the sets and
the denominator from the other set?
(a) 24
(b) 20
(c) 12
(d) None of these

27.

Two six-faced unbiased dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the sum of the
numbers that appear on the two dice is a prime number?
(a) 7
12

28.

(b)

5
12

(c) 1
3

(d)

1
2

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Mark (d) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Q. If p and q are natural numbers, then what is the remainder when (p + q) is divided by 7?
A. 6q p = 5
B. 8q + p = 45

29.

Two operations, for real numbers x and y, are defined as given below.

(i) x 9 y = (x + y)2
(ii) x y = (x y)2
If x 2 9 y 2 = 169 and x 2 y 2 = 25, then what is the value of x2y2?
(a) 81
(b) 36
(c) 64
30.

Page

(d) None of these

Two lines P and Q intersect at point (3, 2) in the x-y plane. The slope of line P is 45 and line Q is
parallel to the x-axis. What is the area (in sq. units) of the triangle formed by P, Q and a line
perpendicular to P and passing through point (5, 4)?
(a) 12
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 4

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

Section - II
Directions for questions 31 to 34: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose
the most appropriate answer to each question.
Three judgments by the Supreme Court in the month of July mark a sharp departure from pedantic legalism
and point to the possibilities of a transformative constitutionalism that sustains and elaborates the idea of
constitutional morality developed in the Naz Foundation judgment of the Delhi High Court in 2009. The
three cases are also very different pieces that speak to different realities in similar fashion: Ram Jethmalani
v Union of India (SIT); Nandini Sundar and Others v State of Chhattisgarh (SJ); and Delhi Jal Board v
National Campaign for Dignity and Rights of Sewerage and Allied Workers (DJB). It might be argued, and
rightly too, that radical jurisprudence by the Supreme Court is not a recent phenomenon it has an older
history rooted in struggles for civil and political rights. While that is the genealogy of this jurisprudence, we
need yet to celebrate each signpost in the development of deliberative jurisprudence that responds not
merely to the manifestations of a case, narrowly construed, but sees the larger socio-political context as
an inextricable part of the bare facts, so to speak.
The guarantee of public goods security, infrastructure for governance, law making and enforcement,
provision of material and cultural goods especially for classes that lack the power, privilege and status to
secure these for themselves is state obligation. Neither markets (which cater to self-centered activities
of individuals and groups) nor purely private social action can be expected to stand in for the state and
provide public goods. Central to the delineation of the problem in these cases is the opening out of the idea
of constitutionalism to include a broader idea of justice that enables the mapping of injustice in all its
complexity. Tracing the link between the existence of perennial channels for unaccounted monies abroad
and the erosion of developmental goals of the state, the Supreme Court contextualizes the need to reign in
cash flows and ensure total accountability with reference to the structure of a neo-liberal economy. Gunnar
Myrdals caution about the dangers of a soft state that spawns the unholy nexus between the law maker,
the law keeper, and the law breaker is immediately relevant.
Carried away by the ideology of neo-liberalism, it is entirely possible that the agents of the State entrusted
with the task of supervising the economic and social activities may err more on the side of extreme
caution, whereby signals of wrongdoing may be ignored even when they are strong. Instances of the
powers that be ignoring publicly visible stock market scams, or turning a blind eye to large-scale illegal
mining have become all too familiar, and may be readily cited.
The framework of justice by this token stretches illimitably beyond the narrow confines of constitutional law
and decided cases to the letter and spirit of the constitution.
Modern constitutionalism posits that no wielder of power should be allowed to claim the right to perpetrate
states violence against anyone, much less its own citizens, unchecked by law, and notions of innate
human dignity of every individual.
31.

Which of the following options correctly sums up the areas that the author seeks to cover through
the passage?
(a) Jurisprudence, Justice and the Constitution
(b) Jurisprudence, Neo-liberalism and Politics
(c) Society, Politics and Jurisprudence
(d) The Constitution, Jurisprudence and Enforcement of justice

Page

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

32.

Central to the delineation of the problem in these cases is the opening out of the idea of
constitutionalism to include a broader idea of justice that enables the mapping of injustice in all its
complexity. Which of the following statements would correctly paraphrase the above line?
(a) The main way to define the problem is to merge the understanding of constitutionalism and
justice so that all aspects of injustice are covered.
(b) The essential way to define the problem is to include the understanding of constitutionalism and
justice with all aspects of injustice.
(c) The crucial aspect of defining the problem is to broaden the understanding of constitutionalism
and hence justice to include aspects of injustice.
(d) The crucial aspect of defining the problem is to widen the understanding of constitutionalism and
hence justice so that all complexities of injustice are covered.

33.

How does the author develop the central idea?


(a) By making a reference to three cases which form the core of the discussion.
(b) By making a reference to the Naz foundation judgment which forms the base for the core of the
discussion.
(c) By making a reference to recent judicial developments and referring to the lineage of jurisprudence
that includes the socio-political context.
(d) By making a reference to recent judicial developments and referring to the lineage of jurisprudence
in the context of neo-liberalism.

34.

It can be inferred that the tone of the author in the third paragraph is
(a) critical
(b) forgiving
(c) objective

35.

(d) disparaging

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using Statement A alone, but cannot be answered by
using Statement B alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using Statement B alone, but cannot be answered by
using Statement A alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered by any of the two statements.
Q. Four friends Ajay, Bikas, Chetan and Deepak have different surnames among Rathore,
Agarwal, Yadav and Sharma, not necessarily in the same order. They are standing in a queue one
after the other. Either Rathore or Agarwal is standing immediately in front of Ajay and the other is
standing immediately behind Ajay. Bikas and Chetan are standing at the two ends of the queue.
What is the surname of Ajay?
A. The surname of Chetan is Agarwal.
B. The surname of Bikas is Yadav.

Page

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

36.

There are two gaps in the sentence given below. From the pairs of words given, choose the one that
fills the gaps most appropriately.
To call their fervor a .. of the media was a/an of an out-of-touch intellectual
elite, and an insult to basic human integrity and intelligence.
(a) gimmick; cachet
(b) torridity; delusion
(c) contrivance; illusion
(d) pun; opinion

37.

There are two gaps in the sentence given below. From the pairs of words given, choose the one that
fills the gaps most appropriately.
What distinguishes the book from many other collective volumes with similar .. coverage is
its unifying theme of regional disparities, and a common methodological ...
(a) distinct; behaviour
(b) diverse; turnpike
(c) sundry; formula
(d) disparate; heuristic

Directions for questions 38 and 39: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Four teams Alveston, Blackpool, Chelsea and Dunstable reached the semifinal stage in a football
tournament. Two of the four teams played against each other in the first semifinal and the rest two played
against each other in the second semifinal. The winners of these two matches played the final and the
winner of the final match was declared the Champion of the tournament. The following observations were
made during the semifinals and the final match:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

38.

Ten goals were scored in the three matches. At least one goal was scored by each of the four
teams. Each team scored a distinct number of goals.
The team that scored the maximum number of goals in the three matches was not the Champion of
the tournament.
Alveston did not play against Blackpool but Chelsea played against Dunstable.
Neither Blackpool nor Dunstable was the Champion of the tournament. The absolute difference
between the total goals scored by these two teams in the three matches was 2.
How many goals were scored in the final match of the tournament?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3

(d) 4

39.

How many goals did the Champion of the tournament score in its semifinal match?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Page

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

Directions for questions 40 and 41: The passage given below is followed by a set of two questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Meditation is the natural process of withdrawing attention from environmental, physical, and mental processes
and consciously directing it inward to a chosen focus of attention. But not many people know how to
practice meditation for personal benefit and spiritual growth.
The beneficial side-effects of regular meditation practice include stress reduction, strengthening of the
bodys immune system, more orderly thinking, improvement in power of concentration, and a slowing of
the biological ageing process. For these reasons, meditation practice is recommended by an increasing
number of doctors as a harmless way for patient-clients to be more responsible for their own total wellbeing. The primary purpose of meditation practice, however, is to bring forth clear states of awareness that
will make authentic spiritual growth easier to experience.
Cultivation of inner contentment prevents us from getting swept away by circumstances. Engaging in selfexamination and self-discipline is important in order to clear away any of the psychological conflicts that
might pose a problem. Study of lower or secular knowledge helps us function effectively in the world.
Many get educated so that they can live more effectively. But also important is the acquisition of higher
knowledge or metaphysics to inquire about God, cosmic mind, manifestation of universes, our relationship
with God why are we here, and for what purpose?
When engaged in daily activities and relationships, endeavour to maintain a state of mental calmness and
Self-awareness. Cultivate cheerfulness and optimism. Maintain your emotional balance. Adhere to
wholesome routines of activity and rest. Maintain a healthy lifestyle: choose a nutritious diet and exercise
regularly. Let all of your thoughts, feelings, and actions be wholesome and constructive. You will then be
empowered to live enjoyably, effectively, and successfully.
40.

Which of the following sums up the central idea of the passage most effectively?
(a) Meditation and its side-effects
(b) Meditation is essential for enjoying life
(c) Meditation- personal benefits and spiritual growth
(d) A spiritual journey for growth and self awareness

41.

According to the passage, what is the most important purpose of meditation?


(a) To improve the workings of the mind and hence lead to an improvement in the biological processes.
(b) To help a follower reach states of calm and peace and allow her to live in optimism and happiness.
(c) To help a follower reach heightened states of awareness through which she can grow spiritually.
(d) To guide followers through states of lower knowledge and subsequently higher knowledge so that
they can achieve their ultimate goal.

42.

Given below are five sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized. From the
italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
A man came floundering (A) / foundering (B) through the snow towards us.
For some persevere (A) / perverse (B) reason he is refusing to see a doctor.

Page

10

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

His mordent (A) / mordant (B) wit appealed to students.


She set off at a cantor (A) / canter (B).
The fire chard (A) / charred (B) the paper.
(a) ABAAB
43.

(b) BABAA

(c) ABBBB

(d) BAABB

Given below are five sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized. From the
italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
The white marble sculpture of the saint in the throes of divine ecstasy is strikingly offset by a gilt
aureole (A) / oriole (B).
Conflicts among the various groups do not auger (A) / augur (B) well for the future of the peace talks.
Sometimes shipbuilders sheath (A) / sheathe (B) a ships bottom with copper for extra protection
from barnacles and other threats.
She was so tired, her eyelids were beginning to drupe (A) / droop (B).
She developed complications (A) / complexities (B) after the surgery.
(a) AAAAA

(b) BBBAA

(c) BAABB

(d) ABBBA

Directions for questions 44 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The figure given below shows the plan of a housing complex, which has eight houses P1, P2, P3, P4, P5,
P6, P7 and P8. Each house is owned by a different person among Aadi, Bina, Cara, Diya, Ema, Fiza,
Gauri and Hari, not necessarily in the same order. The houses are of two types Bungalows and Quarters.
All the Bungalows are identical; similarly, all the Quarters are also identical. P3, P6 and P8 are the
Bungalows and each of them is owned by a different officer. Each Quarter is owned by a different servant.
Two persons are called neighbours if their houses share a common wall. E.g. the one who lives in P1 is a
neighbour of those who live in P2 and P6.

P1 P2

P3

P6

P7

P4 P5
P8

It is also known that:


(i)
The number of neighbours of Aadi is equal to the number of neighbours of Cara.
(ii)
Diya is a neighbour of both Aadi and Fiza.
(iii)
Ema is an officer and is a neighbour of Gauri who does not live in P7.
(iv)
Bina and Hari are not neighbours.
(v)
Fiza lives in P8 and Aadi is not her neighbour.
44.

Page

Who lives in P7?


(a) Cara

11

(b) Hari

(c) Bina

(d) Cannot be determined


Unproctored Mock-6 2012

45.

46.

47.

How many neighbours does Aadi have?


(a) 2
(b) 3

(c) 4

Who among the following is definitely not a neighbour of Diya?


(a) Gauri
(b) Bina
(c) Ema

(d) 5

(d) Cara

The paragraph given below is followed by a question. Choose the most appropriate answer to the
question.
People repeatedly complain that they see advertisements everywhere, but advertisers should not be
blamed for this. No one is forced to advertize his property - for many companies it is an important
part of their income. Football teams would have much less money if they were not sponsored. And
no one is forced to look at advertising - you can turn the TV off between shows, or just flick past
adverts in newspapers. If you dont want to see the adverts, then just ignore them.
Which of the following statements would weaken the above argument?
(a) Advertisers use many devious methods to get their message across.
(b) Some adverts today are even being hidden in what seem like pieces of art or public information
so people dont realize they are being marketed to.
(c) By targeting peoples unconscious thoughts adverts are a form of brainwashing that take away
peoples freedoms to make choices.
(d) Ignoring something that surrounds you all the time is not easy.

48.

The paragraph given below is followed by a question. Choose the most appropriate answer to the
question.
Anorexia Nervosa is an eating disorder defined as severe, self- inflicted starvation and loss in body
weight to at least 15% below that expected for the individuals sex and height. Anorexia is typically
associated with women and body image and is classified as a mental illness. Mortality varies
between 5% and 18%. Patients who are dangerously thin are sometimes force-fed through a nasogastric (through the nose) tube. This force-feeding is undignified. The patients right to refuse treatment
should be respected even if they are mentally ill.
Which of the following statements would weaken the above argument?
(a) In the case of mentally ill patients, their distorted perceptions of reality may render them unable
to make a choice.
(b) Many medical treatments are unpleasant or painful but they are necessary to preserve life.
(c) Medical ethics say that a doctor has a responsibility to keep the patient alive to administer
treatment.
(d) Anorexics are characterized by self-denial and often do not come forward voluntarily.

49.

Page

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using Statement A alone, but cannot be answered by
using Statement B alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using Statement B alone, but cannot be answered by
using Statement A alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

12

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered by any of the two statements.
Q. Five people having different ages are standing in a row. They are Engineer, Professor, Manager,
Doctor and Lawyer respectively by profession. The oldest among them is standing in the middle of
the row and he is not a Lawyer. The youngest among them is an Engineer and he is not standing at
any of the two ends of the row. The Professor is younger than exactly three people and he is
standing at one of the ends of the row. The Doctor is standing beside the Engineer. The Lawyer is
standing beside the Doctor. The Manager is standing beside the Lawyer. How many people are
younger than the Manager?
A. The Lawyer is younger than the Doctor.
B. The Manager is younger than the Lawyer.
Directions for questions 50 to 52: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
The lions had escaped, but the tiger was there. He was starving; one soldier tried to feed it and the other
soldier shot and killed it after it bit the soldiers hand off. In brief, that is the plays first scene.
From there, the action bursts into a plethora of issues, each more disturbing than the next. On one level,
its a political drama about the war in Iraq, on another, an existential tract with the tiger as a contemporary
Godot, and on still another, its a ghost story. When I ask Joseph about the ghosts, he is finally at home
and easily forthcoming as he delves into the story line. The Tiger explains in his first monologue as a ghost
that suddenly the knowledge and the stuff of the universe is floating into him.
This is a basic reality of dying in this world that Ive created, that once youre dead and youre a ghost, you
learn at an accelerated pace. Suddenly, the ghost knows about Dante and suddenly Kev (the Marineturned-ghost) knows about the bones in his hand, about the Arabic roots of the word algebra, and all of a
sudden hes praying in Arabic.
In Bengal Tiger emotional reality is clouded by the problems of translation. By using Arabic dialogue
(without subtitles), Joseph underlines the failure of communication. As he points out, US soldiers, by and
large, dont speak Arabic. When youre in a very stressful and violent situation, the act of translation takes
on huge importance. And yet, because those situations are so stressful, what is lost in translation in those
moments can be grave.
Indeed, the language barrier leads to a harrowing scene when Kev (Brad Fleischer), the Marine, who shot
the tiger, enters an Iraqi home in pursuit, he imagines, of the enemy. Upon entering, Kev draws his gun and
starts shouting at the women in English while they respond by screaming at him wildly in Arabic. The
miscommunication and the mass confusion it fuels make for a situation much more frightening than any
ghost story.
Much as I try to probe for the psychological roots to Josephs often disturbing work, the playwright diverts
me from his personal experience to his aesthetic. Story-telling, he imparts, can get boring if youre not
dealing with the issues of life or death, or on the edge of something. Now that doesnt mean that every story
has to have violence in it, but Im attracted to it for a number of reasons, and part of it is the movies that I
was raised on, most of which employed violence in some way.

Page

13

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

50.

It can be inferred that the purpose of the first paragraph is


(a) to describe the real-life incident on which the play is based.
(b) to inform the reader about the first scene of the play.
(c) to arouse interest about the article.
(d) to set the tone for the rest of the article.

51.

Which of the following describes a technique that the author frequently uses in the passage?
(a) She frequently moves from the general to the specific.
(b) She frequently moves from the specific to the general and back again.
(c) She frequently starts with an analysis and then uses a quote to elaborate on a point.
(d) None of the above

52.

According to the passage, why does Joseph refer to disturbing issues in his work?
(a) These issues resonate with contemporary political realities.
(b) It allows him to reflect on and critique harsh social realities.
(c) His audience have come to expect explorations of such issues in his work.
(d) He feels that they are important to the story-telling in his plays.

53.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
The answers to these questions about reality were many, but in Germany they tended to posit the
idea of an evolving harmony, a movement towards equilibrium between the two poles of an objective
reality and subjective human consciousness. The work of Mommsen, Eucken and Heyse was
characterized by this spirit of willingness to see reality in an explicable, idealized light, whereas
Hauptmann, the consummate naturalist, rejected all attempts to embellish reality. Like other
naturalists he adopted a critical position, under the banner of truth, towards hypocrisy and convention
and under the banner of modernity, towards the fashion for historical themes and subjects within
literature.
(a) It is this dichotomy that should be considered in evaluating these German prize winners works.
(b) And thus there existed a dichotomy between the idealized and the naturalistic view of beauty.
(c) Equally important is that the industrial revolution introduced Germany to pragmatic thinking.
(d) This gave rise to a crisis within the educated bourgeoisie, nurtured by Goethean ideals of good.

54.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Policy failures come in many shapes and sizes. But they are almost invariably accentuated by the
choices that have to be made in periods of financial shortage. Yesterday the coalition government
found itself confronted by two of them, one in policing policy and the other in higher education. The
failures are radically different in many details. But they have this in common: they are both serious
failures, and they were both foreseeable. They could both have been mitigated by clearer policymaking
at an earlier stage.
(a) On the policing cuts, it is the opinion that Britain has more police officers than it needs.
(b) Instead each has been allowed to fester and become more difficult to solve politically.
(c) Downing Street must be thanking Prince Andrew for providing some distraction.
(d) Police numbers have increased without proper regard to social need.

Page

14

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

Directions for questions 55 to 57: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Four people Alfred, Buckley, Cherry and Dirk went to a museum on a Sunday. No two of them reached
the museum at the same time. They were wearing shirts of different colours among Purple, Red, White and
Yellow, in no particular order. It is also known that:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
55.

56.

Cherry was not the first one to reach the museum and he was wearing the Red shirt.
The person wearing the Yellow shirt reached the museum earlier than Buckley.
The person wearing the White shirt was not the last one to reach the museum.
Alfred was not wearing the Yellow shirt.
The person wearing the Purple shirt reached the museum earlier than the person wearing the
White shirt.
Alfred reached the museum before Dirk.
Who among the four was wearing the White shirt?
(a) Alfred
(b) Buckley
(c) Cherry

(d) Dirk

Who among the four was the last to reach the museum?
(a) Alfred
(b) Buckley
(c) Cherry

(d) Dirk

57.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?


I. Dirk was wearing the Yellow shirt and he reached the museum before Cherry.
II. Alfred was wearing the White shirt and he reached the museum before Cherry.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Neither I nor II
(d) Both I and II

58.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
Wash
(a) He decided to wash down the meal with a glass of red wine.
(b) The first day of the play was washed out after only 90 minutes.
(c) The body was found washed over on a beach.
(d) She always helps to wash up after dinner even if she is the guest.

59.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
Whip
(a) She had the whip hand and it was useless to resist.
(b) However difficult the task she will always whip through it.
(c) Shivi whipped up a delicious dinner for us in 10 minutes.
(d) The police officer whipped at her radio and called for back-up.

Page

15

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

60.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
Zip
(a) The sleeping bags can zip together.
(b) This jacket zips up right to the neck.
(c) I put out my hand to ask the auto rickshaw driver to stop but he just zipped past me.
(d) She zipped into class as if nothing had happened and she was not 45-minutes late!

Page

16

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

Unproctored Mock-6 2012


Answers and Explanations
1

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

Page

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

1. a

Only two cases are possible:

4. a

Case I:

x = 2003 y

Squaring both the sides, we get


x = 2003 + y 2 2003 y

For x to be an integer, y must be of the form 2003a2 , where


a is a natural number.
Similarly, we can say that x must be of the form
2003b2 , where b is a natural number.
2003a2 + 2003b2 = 2003

a+b =1
Hence, no solution is possible.
Points of intersection = 3

5. c

We can say that the total fare of:


Delni-Bhokal + Bhokal-Mumtai = Mumtai-Delni + Rs.125.
Hence, the variable fare of:
Delni-Bhokal + Bhokal-Mumtai = Mumtai-Delni + Rs.65.
This is possible only if Mumtai-Delni falls in the distance
range 1001 1800 km (Rs. 340). One of Delni-Bhokal
and Bhokal-Mumtai falls in the range
151 500 km (Rs. 155) and the other falls in the range
501 1000 km (Rs. 250).

6. c

Yatri Kumar must have travelled in a Passenger train.


First day: Fare in the Sleeper Class for the distance
range 1001 1800 km = Rs. 160 + Rs. 60 = Rs. 220.
Second day: Fare in the Air Conditioned Class for the

Case II:

distance range 150 km = Rs. 120 + Rs. 100


= Rs. 220.
7. b
Points of intersection = 5
Hence, possible values of P are 3 and 5.
2. d

an + bn
Remainder = 0, if n is odd.
a+b
5001

5003

+ 1 and 2

160 x
x = 90
160
x2 320x + 70 160 = 0
(x 40)(x 280) = 0
= (160 x)

+ 1 are divisible by 3.

Now, 25002 + 1 can be written as 42501 + 1 .

Therefore, x = 40.
(Since x cannot be equal to 280.)

42501 + 1 is divisible by 5.
Hence, none of the given numbers is a prime number.

3. a

Let the work (in units) done in a day by Pawan,


Qureshi and Rohit be P, Q and R respectively. Let the
total work done be (L.C.M. of 10 and 12) 60 units.
P + Q = 6 units and Q + R = 5 units.
Let Pawans share be Rs. x. So Rohits share will
be
Rs. (160 x).
Ratio of the amount received by Pawan and Qureshi
together to the amount received by Qureshi and Rohit
together

Page

x + 140
6
or x = 100
=
140 + 160 x 5

After the first operation:


The amount of milk (in litres) left
= 160 x
After the second operation:
The amount of milk (in litres) left

8. c

2 cm

2 cm

2 5 cm
4 cm

4 cm

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

In right triangle PDC, using Pythagoras theorem,


PD2 + DC2 = PC2

PC = 2 5 cm
Area PBC =
=

12. c

Let the hundreds digit be n.


The tens digit will be 2n.
The unit digit will be 4n.
The possible values of n are 1 and 2 and hence the
possible numbers are 124 and 248 respectively.
On converting 248 in base 8 and base 9, the given
condition gets violated.
On converting 124 in base 8 and base 9, we get
(174)8 = (147)9.
Required sum = 4 + 7 = 11.

13. a

Absolute percentage change in the total sales of Naruti


Kuzuki Ltd. from April to July

(i)

1
area sq. ABCD
2

44
= 8cm2
2

...(ii)

Also, area PBC =

1
CE PB
2

From equations (i) and (ii), we get

5670 5250
100 = 8%
5250
Absolute percentage change in sales of Dwift from
April to July
=

1
8
CE 2 5 = 8 or CE =
2
5
In right triangle CEB, by Pythagoras theorem,
BE2 + CE2 = BC2
BE =

4
cm
5

Required area =
9. c

=
14. d

1
CE BE = 3.2 cm2
2

Let the numbers be a, a + 1, a + 2, , a + 31.

31 32
= 16(2a + 31)
2
As 16 is a perfect square, the least possible value
of 2a + 31 = 49.
Therefore, a = 9 and a + 31 = 40.
The least possible sum = 49.
From Statement A:
Statement A alone is clearly insufficient to answer the
question.
From Statement B:
a2 + b2 + c2 = 83
Case I:
(a, b, c) = (1, 1, 9)
Case II:
(a, b, c) = (3, 5, 7)
Statement B alone is also not sufficient to answer the
question.
From Statements A and B:
The values of (a, b, c) are (3, 5, 7) and the sum of a,
b and c is 15.
11. b

Sales of the other car models of Naruti Kuzuki Ltd. in


May 2010 = 549000 (50 + 72 + 51 + 52)1000
= 324 103
Sales of the other car models of Naruti Kuzuki Ltd. in
July 2010 = 567000 (42 + 63 + 33 + 69) 1000
= 360 103

Sum of these numbers = 32a +

10. d

75 69
100 = 8%
75

Percentage increase

360 324
100 = 11.11%
324
The ratio of the sales of Sezire to the total sales of
cars by Naruti Kuzuki Ltd. in:

=
15. b

April =

49 1000
7
=
5250 100 75

May =

72 1000
8
=
5490 100 61

June =

72 1000
8
=
5580 100 62

63 1000
1
=
5670 100 9
So the ratio is the highest for May.
July =

f(0) = 10 = c
(i)
f(1) = a + b + c and f(1) = a b + c
b = b = 0
(ii)
f(2) = 4a + 2b + c = 14
a = 1
(iii)
From equations (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
f(10) = 100a + 10b + c = 110.

Page

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

16. a

Note: A.M. G.M.


mn =

4P + 4P + 4P + R + R + R + 2Q + 2Q 8
256 P3R3Q2
8

Let log3 6 be equal to k; therefore,

12P + 3R + 4Q
2 8 P3R3Q2
8

log3 6 =

16 16 8 P3R3Q2

k =

1 8 P3R3Q2 or 1 P3R3Q2 .
17. d

n+mC
2

If Yamini covers 5 km in t hours, Zora will cover 15 km

2
hours.
3
The distance between the two at this moment is 5 km,
and Yamini will cover 2 km more and Zora will cover 3
km more till they meet.

90

75

105

160

140

Prof it per ton


(Rs. lakhs)

30

15

20

15

40

21. b

Rice =

2
.
3

12 12 12
= 27 cm3
64
Edge of each smaller cube = 3 cm
Let the number of cubes along the length and the
breadth of the cuboid be 4x and x respectively.
4x x = 64 or x = 4
Length of the cuboid = 4x 3 = 48 cm
Breadth of the cuboid = x 3 = 12 cm
Required surface area = 48 12 = 576 cm2

15
100 = 9.375%
160

(i)

22. c

Two - Sugar Cane and Cotton.

23. c

Total quantity of raw material used in production of 1


ton of Cotton
=

27 105
= 50,000 kg
54

The total area of land required


=

(ii)

40
100 = 28.57%
140

So the profit percentage per ton is the highest for


Maize.

log3
=n
log5
From equations (i) and (ii), we get

20
100 = 19.05%
105

Mustard seeds =

Volume of each smaller cube

log5 3 =

15
100 = 20%
75

Cotton =

Speed of Yamini = 7.5 km/hr.

1 log5

=m
4 log2

30
100 = 33.33%
90

Sugar Cane =

Solving the above equation, we get t =

Page

Profit percentage per ton for:

Maize =

5
15
2
=

2
t
3
t + 3

log16 5 =

Sugar
M us tard
Cotton
Cane
Se e ds

Total production
cost (Rs. lakhs)

Therefore, the ratio of the speeds of Yamini to Zora


is 2 : 3.

20. a

1 + 4mn
.
4mn

Com m oditie s M aize Rice

in t +

19. c

log6 log3 + log2


log2
=
= 1+
=k
log3
log3
log3

For questions 21 to 23: The table given below can be formed


from the data given in the question.

= nC2 + 11

(n + m)(n + m 1) n(n 1)
=
+ 11
2
2
2
2
2
n + 2nm n + m m = n n + 22
m2 + (2n 1)m = 22
m(m + 2n 1) = 22
Hence, m = 2 and n = 5.
18. a

log5 1 log3
log2
1
or

=
log2 4 log5
log3 4mn

10
50,000 103
200

= 2500000 m2 = 2.5km2

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

24. b

If N is a natural number such that N = apbqcr... where a,


b, c etc are prime numbers, then Eulers Totient function
1
1
1

is given by (N) = N 1 1 1 .
a b
c

If P is some other natural number which is prime to N,

Alternate method: All the combinations can result in


a proper fraction except when 1 is chosen from both
the sets. So the answer = 5 5 1 = 25 1 = 24.
27. b

then the remainder when P (N) is divided by N is 1.


To find the last two digits we need to find the remainder
when 948367483 is divided by 100.
1
1

(100) = 100 1 1 = 40
2
5

Required remainder
= 8367483 = 8340k+3 = 833 = 87.

25. c
A

3x + a

Required probability =
28. b

30
30
30

3a
2x

B 3x F

The total number of possibe outcomes = 6 6 = 36.


The favourable values of the sum are 2, 3, 5, 7 and 11.
Favourable cases when the sum is:
I) 2 = (1, 1)
II) 3 = (1, 2) and (2, 1)
III) 5 = (1, 4), (4, 1), (2, 3) and (3, 2)
IV) 7 = (1, 6), (6, 1), (2, 5), (5, 2), (3, 4) and (4, 3)
V) 11 = (5, 6) and (6, 5)
The total number of favourable cases = 15.

15 5
= .
36 12

From Statement A:
6q p = 5
p = 6q 5
p + q = 7q 5
(7q 5) when divided by 7 leaves remainder 2.
This statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.
From Statement B:
8q + p = 45
p = 45 8q
p + q = 45 7q
(45 7q) when divided by 7 leaves remainder 3.
This statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Let the length of EB be 2x units.


Therefore, the length of BF = 3x units.
Let the length of FC be a units.
Therefore, the length of DC = 3a units.
(Since triangle DFC is 30- 60- 90 triangle.)
In triangle AED,

3( 3a 2x) = 3x + a
3x 2

=
a
3
Required ratio = 2 : 3.

26. a

Page

A = {1, 2, 4, 8, 16}
B = {1, 3, 9, 27, 81}
The number of possible proper fractions when
denominator is equal to 2, 4, 8 and 16 are 1, 2, 2 and 3
respectively.
The number of possible proper fractions when
denominator is equal to 3, 9, 27 and 81 are 2, 4, 5 and
5 respectively.
Since no two of these fractions can be equal, the
answer = 24.

29. b

(x 2 + y 2 )2 = 169
x 2 + y 2 = +13

...(i)

(since x 2 + y 2 0 )
(x 2 y 2 )2 = 25
x 2 y 2 = 5

...(ii)

Case I:
x2 + y2 = 13
x2 y2 = 5
Solving the equations, we get x 2 = 9 and y 2 = 4.
Case II:
x2 + y2 = 13
x2 y2 = 5
Solving the equations, we get x 2 = 4 and y 2 = 9.
In both the cases, x2y2 = 4 9 = 36.

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

30. d
y-axis

The first paragraph starts with a reference to three


recent judgments with a reference to a previous
judgment (Naz foundation). In the next few sentences
the author asserts that these pronouncements have a
lineage in jurisprudence. She also indicates that every
such case that is viewed and judged from the sociopolitical context is to be celebrated. Option (c) is the
answer. Option (a) is incorrect the three cases do
not form the core of the discussion. Similarly option
(b) is also incorrect. Option (d) can be ruled out as the
author does not state that jurisprudence has a lineage
that includes neo-liberalism. In fact, she states that
agents of the state are carried away by the ideology
of neo-liberalism this is with reference to the problem
of a soft state.

34. c

The third paragraph is in inverted commas indicating


that it is quoted from some other source. The paragraph
envisages a situation where the State, carried away
by the ideology of neo-liberalism and overly cautious,
ignores the signals of wrongdoing even when they
are strong. The tone of paragraph is cautionary and
objective. It is not particularly critical of anything in
particular nor does it have a disparaging tone. Option
(c) is the correct answer.
The given information can be shown as:

P
(5 , 4 )
(3 , 2 )

33. c

A
8

4 5

B
4 5

C
x-axis

As slope of line P is 45, ABC = 45.


(Corresponding angles)
In triangle ABC, length of AB

= (5 3)2 + (4 2)2 = 2 2 units


Therefore, length of AC = 2 2 units
Required area =
31. a

32.d

Page

1
2 2 2 2 = 4 sq. units
2

The author makes reference to three judgments by


the Supreme Court and asserts the significance of
social action. She draws an important connection
among courts, social sciences and social movements.
The second paragraph also makes a reference to the
importance of the State in social development - that in
certain areas it cannot be substituted by the private
sector or the private social sector. The last two
paragraphs also bring out the importance of the
constitution and for the legal framework to include
"the letter and the spirit of the constitution". Option (a)
is the answer. Options (b) and (c) can be ruled out
because there is not reference to politics - to the
socio-political context only. Option (d) can also be
ruled out because though the author hints at correct
governance or strict governance (when he refers to
a "soft state") it does not talk about enforcement of
justice.
The second paragraph provides the answer to this
question. Option (d) is the best paraphrasing of the
highlighted text which indicates that the understanding
of constitutionalism needs to be widened so that a
broader understanding of justice can be included. And
this will help cover all complexities of injustice. Option
(a) is incorrect as it is incorrect to infer that the
understanding of constitutionalism and justice need to
be merged. Option (b) is incorrect as it states that the
understanding of constitutionalism and justice should
include aspects of injustice not all complexities of
injustice. Option (c) is ambiguous as from it one can
infer that aspects of injustice are to be included/a part
of an understanding of constitutionalism and justice.

35. b

Name

Ajay

Surname

Rathore/Agarwal

Agarwal/Rathore

Therefore, the surame of Ajay is either Yadav or


Sharma.
From Statement A:
The surname of Chetan is Agarwal; but we still cannot
conclude anything about the surname of Ajay. This
statement alone is not sufficient to answer.
From Statement B:
The surname of Bikas is Yadav; therefore, the surname
of Ajay is Sharma. This statement alone is sufficient to
answer.
36. c

The lines talk about the response of the media to a


particular issue (the issue has not been mentioned).
The author has a good opinion about the response of
the media as understood by the word fervor. The
elites have presented their views about the response
but their opinion is disliked by the author as revealed
by the words insult to the basic integrity and
intelligence. So, we need a negative word for the first
as well as the second blank.
The word gimmick and contrivance are apt for the
first blank. Gimmick means an unusual trick or
unnecessary device that is intended to attract attention
or to persuade people to buy something. Contrivance
is (usually disapproving) something that causes things
to happen in a story in a way that does not seem

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

natural or believable; a clever trick or plan. Cachet


which means prestige makes option (a) unfit for the
blanks. Illusion which means a false idea or belief,
especially about somebody or about a situation is apt
for the second blank. Thus, option (c) is the correct
option.
Torrid means emotional and passionate, so torridity
is incorrect for the first blank. Pun means the clever
or humorous use of a word that has more than one
meaning, or of words that have different meanings
but sound the same; double-meaning. Thus, option (b)
and (d) are negated.
37. d

The author is speaking on a positive note about the


book and mentions its goodness. The author talks about
the regional disparities related to the subject that are
covered with a unifying theme in the book. Sundry
which means various is inappropriate is the given
context. Turnpike which refers to a wide road, where
traffic can travel fast for long distances and that
drivers must pay a toll to use is inappropriate. Thus,
options (b) and (c) are negated.

C vs D
Fina l

S e m ifina ls

For questions 38 and 39:


Let Alveston, Blackpool, Chelsea and Dunstable be represented
by A, B, C and D respectively.
From statement (iii), we can conclude that C and D played the
final match. From statement (iv), D was not the Champion, so
D must have lost to C in the final and C was the Champion. In
the three matches, as each team scored a different total
number of goals, the number of goals scored by the teams
must be 1, 2, 3 and 4, in no particular order. As A and B lost the
semifinals, they must have scored 1 and 2 goals, in no particular
order. Also, as C was the Champion of the tournament, it must
have scored 3 goals and D must have scored 4 goals.
As C played two matches and won both the matches, it must
have scored at least 2 goals in the semifinal, as the least
number of goals scored by any team was 1. Also, to win each
match, C must have scored at least 1 goal in each match. So C
must have scored 1 goal in one match and 2 goals in the other.
C must have won by a margin of 2 1 against A in the semifinal
and by a margin of 1 0 against D in the final. The table given
below illustrates the situation:

Page

C vs A

D vs B

21

42

38. a

39. b

Chelsea, the Champion of the tournament, scored 2


goals in the semifinal.

40. c

The last line of the first paragraph states that


meditation can be used for personal benefit and spiritual
growth. The rest of the paragraphs all present
information to the reader on how this is so. Option (c)
is the answer. Option (a) is incorrect as it mentions
the side effects of meditation indicating a negative
connotation. But the passage only refers to positive
side effects. Option (b) is incorrect as the passage
does not imply that meditation is necessary for enjoying
life. It only argues why and how meditation is beneficial.
Option (d) does not fit in with the scope of the passage.
The option itself could have been considered had there
been reference only to a specific spiritual journey in
the passage.

41. c

The last line of the second paragraph states the primary


purpose of meditation - The primary purpose of
meditation practice, however, is to bring forth clear
states of awareness that will make authentic spiritual
growth easier to experience. Link this with the last
paragraph and option (c) emerges as the answer.
Option (a) can be ruled out as there is no mention that
meditation improves biological processes it only
strengthens of the immune system and leads to
slowing of the biological ageing processes. These
are also mentioned as beneficial side effects and not
the main purpose of meditation. Option (b) has been
mentioned in the passage but not as the main purpose
of meditation they are benefits of meditation and
elements of living a wholesome life. Option (d) can be
ruled out because the ultimate goal of a follower has
not been mentioned and only acquisition of knowledge
is not the main purpose of meditation.

Disparate which means made up of parts or people


that are very different from each other (example: a
disparate group of individuals) matches with the theme
of the sentence. Distinct means easily or clearly
heard, seen, felt, etc; clearly different or of a different
kind is less apt than disparate for the first blank.
Heuristic means involving or serving as an aid to
learning, discovery, or problem-solving by
experimental and especially trial-and-error methods;
also : of or relating to exploratory problem-solving
techniques that utilize self-educating techniques to
improve performance. Thus, heuristic is the apt word
for the second blank. Option (d) is the correct answer.

10

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

42. c

43. d

Page

ABBBB
In the given context, flounder means to struggle to
move or get somewhere in water, mud, etc. Founder
as a verb means to fail because of a particular problem
or difficulty. For example: The peace talks foundered
on a basic lack of trust. It also means to fill with water
and sink. For example: Our boat foundered on a reef.
So floundering is the apt word for the first sentence.
Persevere means to continue trying to do or achieve
something despite difficulties. Perverse means
showing deliberate determination to behave in a way
that most people think is wrong, unacceptable or
unreasonable. Thus, perverse is apt for the second
sentence. Mordent means a musical decoration in
which either the note above or below is played as
well as the written note; a musical ornament made by
a quick alternation of a principal tone with the tone
immediately below it. Mordant means critical and unkind,
but funny. Thus, mordant is the apt word for the third
sentence. Cantor refers to the person who leads the
singing in a synagogue or in a church choir. Canter
as a noun means a movement of a horse at a speed
that is fairly fast but not very fast; a ride on a horse
moving at this speed. So, canter is apt for the fourth
sentence. Chard refers to a vegetable with large
leaves and thick white, yellow or red stems. Charred
means burnt and black. So charred is the apt word
for the fifth sentence.
ABBBA
Gilt refers to a thin layer of gold, or something like
gold that is used on a surface for decoration. Aureole
means a circle of light. Oriole refers to a bird. In the
context of gilt, the word aureole is appropriate. Auger
refers to a tool that looks like a large corkscrew and is
used for making holes in wood. Augur means to be a
sign that something will be successful or not
successful in the future; bode. Thus, augur is apt for
the second sentence. Sheath refers to any covering
that fits closely over something for protection. It is a
noun. Sheathe on the other hand is its verb form and
means to cover something in a material, especially in
order to protect it. As the sentence requires a verb,
sheathe is the apt word. Drupe is a noun and refers
to one-seeded indehiscent fruit having a hard bony
endocarp, a fleshy mesocarp, and a thin exocarp that
is flexible (as in the cherry) or dry and almost leathery
(as in the almond). Droop means to bend, hang or
move downwards, especially because of being weak
or tired. In the given context, droop is the apt word.
Complication in the given context means a new
problem or illness that makes treatment of a previous
one more complicated or difficult. Complexity means
the state of being difficult to understand example: the
complexities of the system. One develops
complications after surgeries; complexities is
inappropriate in the given context.

For questions 44 to 46:


Let Aadi, Bina, Cara, Diya, Ema, Fiza, Gauri and Hari be
represented by A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H respectively. The
number of neighbours of the person living in:
P1 and P5 = 2;
P2, P4 and P7 = 3;
P6 and P8 = 4;
P3 = 5.
From statement (v), it can be concluded that A lives in P1 or P2
or P6. From statement (i), A cannot live in P6 as then A and C
will not have the same number of neighbours. From statement
(ii), A and F have a common neighbour D and hence it can
be concluded that A lives in P2 and D lives in P3. From statement
(iii), E lives in P6 and hence G lives in P1. From statements (iv)
and (i), it can be concluded that C lives in P4. Thus it can be
concluded that one between B and H lives in P5 and the other
lives in P7. The following figure illustrates these conclusions:

P1
(G )

P2
(A )
P6
(E )

P3
(D )
P7
(H /B )

P4
P5
(C ) (B /H )
P8
(F)

44. d

Either Bina or Hari lives in P7.

45. b

Aadi has three neighbours.

46. a

Gauri is not a neighbour of Diya.

47. b

The author argues that the consumers have a choice


weather or not to view advertisements and therefore,
they should not complain about increasing adverts.
Option (b) weakens this argument. If people are not
aware that the piece of art or public information they
are viewing is a form of adverts, then it is impossible
to consciously avoid it.

48. a

The argument revolves around a patients right to


choose weather or not a treatment should be
administered to him/her. Option (a) states that in case
of mental illness, a patient loses the ability to exercise
this right as he/she is unable to take rational decisions.
Hence, option (a) weakens the argument.

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

49. b

Let the ages of the five people, from youngest to


oldest, be represented by A1, A2, A3, A4 and A5
respectively. From the given information it can be
concluded that the age of the Engineer is A1 and the
age of the Professor is A2. As the age of the Lawyer
is not A5 and he is standing between the Manager and
the Doctor, the Manager must be standing at one of
the ends of the row and the Professor must be
standing at the other end of the row. The tables given
below show the two possible cases.

Age
Profession

A2

A1

A5

Professor Engineer Doctor

Lawyer

Manager

A1

A2

53. a

The paragraph discusses the idea of reality on one


hand an idealized reality and on the other a naturalistic
reality. This paragraph indicates a dichotomy in
viewpoints. Option (c) can be ruled out because there
is no reference to a third view in the paragraph. Option
(d) is ruled out as the educated bourgeoisie are not
the subject of the paragraph it is the works and the
views of artistes (writers). Option (b) does not match
with the central idea of the passage as this option
talks about beauty and not reality. Option (a) is the
best answer as it considers the dichotomy as well as
the works of the German artistes with respect to
reality.

54. b

The paragraph is about policy failures specifically


the policing policy and the higher education policy. The
paragraph has a negative tone. Option (c) can be
ruled out as it has a tone of relief a positive tone.
Options (a) and (d) can be ruled out as they are only
specific to the policing policy. Option (b) is the answer
as it refers to both the policing and higher education
policies. It also follows from the penultimate line in the
paragraph that states that both failures could have
been mitigated option (b) logically completes the
paragraph by stating that instead they were allowed
to fester.

or
Age

Profession

Manager

Lawyer

A5

Doctor Engineer Professor

From Statement A:
The given information is already present in the root of
the question. This statement alone is not sufficient to
answer.
From Statement B:
As the Manager is younger than the Lawyer, the age
of the Manager must be A3. Hence, exactly two people
are younger than him. This statement alone is sufficient
to answer.
50. b

The first paragraph starts with a narration of an


incident between the tiger and the soldiers. It ends by
saying that this is the first scene of the play. Option (b)
is correct. Option (c) is incorrect as the second
paragraph takes forward the thread of thought
(discussing the structure of the play). Option (d) is
incorrect as there is no assertion or tone in the first
paragraph itself. Option (a) is incorrect since the
passage does not mention whether the scene
described is based on a real-life incident or not.

51. c

A careful reading of the passage will help identify that


the author uses the analysis and quotation approach.
She makes her point and then uses a quote from
Joseph to substantiate that point. This can be seen
from the second, third, fourth and sixth paragraphs.
Option (c) is the answer. Options (a) and (b) are
incorrect as the author never moves from specific to
general or vice versa.

52. d

Page

The last paragraph has the answer. Refer to the lines


Story-telling, he imparts, can get boring if youre
not dealing with the issues of life or death, or on the
edge of something. Option (a) is incorrect as violence
has not been explicitly linked to contemporary political
realities. Option (c) is incorrect as Joseph never states
this. Option (b) cant be inferred as there is no
reference to critiques of social realities.

For questions 55 to 57:


From statements (i), (ii) and (vi), it can be concluded that
Alfred was the first person to reach the museum. From
statements (i), (ii) and (iv), it can be concluded that Dirk was
wearing the Yellow shirt.
Hence, either Alfred or Buckley was wearing the Purple shirt
and the other one was wearing the White shirt. From statement
(v), it can be concluded that Alfred was wearing the Purple
shirt while Buckley was wearing the White shirt. Further
analysis leads to the following table:

(Lef t to Right)
First-to-last to arrive at museum
Pe r s on

A lf red

Dirk

Buckley Cherry

Shir t Colour Purple Y ellow

White

55. b

Buckley

56. c

Cherry

57. a

Only statement I is correct.

Red

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

58. c

To wash over means to suddenly affect somebody


strongly, so that they are not aware of anything else
or to happen to or around somebody without affecting
them. This is incorrect in the given context. The correct
sentence should be The body was found washed up
on a beach. Washed up here means to carry
something onto land. So (c) is incorrect.
Wash down means to drink in order to swallow
something solid. So, (a) is correct. Wash out means to
make a game, an event, etc. end early or prevent it
from starting. Thus (b) is correct. Wash up means to
clean the plates and dishes after a meal. Thus, (d) is
correct.

59. d

Sentence (d) is incorrect. The correct phrasal verb is


whip out which means to remove quickly. The correct
sentence is The police officer whipped out her radio
and called for back-up.

60. d

Zip somebody/yourself into something means to


fasten clothes, bags, etc. with a zip/zipper. For
example: The children were safely zipped into their
sleeping bags. However, in the context given in (d)
zip into is incorrect. The correct usage should have
been strode into which means to walk in with long
strides sometimes indicating confidence. Thus option
(d) is incorrect.
Zip together means to be fastened with a zip/zipper.
So (a) is correct. Zip up or zip somebody/something
up means to be fastened with a zip/zipper; to fasten
something with a zip/zipper. So (b) is correct. Zip past
means to move very quickly or to make something
move very quickly in the direction mentioned. Thus,
(c) is correct.

Have/hold the whip hand (over somebody/something)


means to be in a position where you have power or
control over somebody/something. So (a) is correct.
To whip through means to do something quickly. Thus,
(b) is correct. To whip up is to make food quickly. So
(c) is correct.

Page

10

Unproctored Mock-6 2012

Unproctored Mock-7 2012


Section - I
1.

The sum of three numbers in A.P. is 45. If the sum of their squares is 683, what is the largest of the
three numbers?
(a) 16
(b) 19
(c) 17
(d) 18

2.

The average market price of three shares A, B and C is Rs. x. Shares A and C lose Rs. y each
and B gains Rs.
The value of y is
(a) 2

3.

C(n,r ) =

y
. As a result, the average market price of the three shares decreases by Re. 1.
2
(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) dependent on x

n!
where n! = n (n 1) (n 2) K 2 1.
r ! (n r )!

What is the smallest positive integer k such that C(2k, k) is divisible by 200?
(a) 23
(b) 61
(c) 13
(d) 11
4.

If a, b, and c are positive integers such that (a b + c)(b c + a)(c a + b) = 15, then what is the
product of a, b and c?
(a) 24
(b) 64
(c) 42
(d) Cannot be determined

5.

In the figure given below, ABCD is a trapezium, in which AB||CD and DP||CQ. If AP = 4 units,
QB = 2 units and CD = 4 units, then what is the ratio of the area of the triangle COD to that of the
triangle AOB?

O
A
4
(a) 4 : 25

P
(b) 2 : 5

B
(c) 1 : 2

(d) None of these

6.

A watch, which gains time uniformly, was 5 minutes behind the correct time when it showed
11:55 AM on Monday. It was 10 minutes ahead of the correct time when it showed 06:10 PM on
the next day. When did the watch show the correct time?
(a) 6 AM, Tuesday
(b) 6 PM, Monday
(c) 2 PM, Tuesday
(d) 10 PM, Monday

7.

A function f(x) is defined for all real values of x as 2f(x) + f(1 x) = x2. What is the value of f(5)?
(a) 10

Page

(b) 17

(c)

34
3

(d) Cannot be determined


Unproctored Mock-7 2012

8.

Two jars contain milk and water in the ratio 7 : 3 and 3 : 2 respectively. In what ratio should the
contents of the two jars be mixed such that the final ratio of milk and water in the resultant solution
becomes 23 : 17?
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 1 : 5
(c) 3 : 5
(d) Data Inconsistent

9.

a+

1
b+

1
c+

= 21/ 3

1
d +K

If a, b, c, d etc are positive integers, then what is the value of b?


(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
10.

(d) 5

A car runs on four tyres and has one extra tyre. If each tyre lasts for 10,000 km then what is the
maximum distance (in km) that the car can travel using the five tyres?
(a) 10,000
(b) 11,000
(c) 12,500
(d) 15,000

Number of Votes

Directions for questions 11 to 13: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The political parties mentioned in the graph given below participated in a constituency election. The graph
shows the number of votes received by the candidates of six major parties and other smaller parties in
Round 1 of the election. The election is held as follows: In Round 1, if a candidate gets more than 50% of
the total number of votes cast in that round, (s)he is declared the winner of the election, else, top 5
candidates based on the number of votes move to Round 2. In Round 2, if a candidate gets more than 50%
of the total number of votes cast in that round, (s)he is declared the winner of the election, else, top 3
candidates based on the number of votes move to Round 3. In Round 3, the candidate who gets the
maximum number of votes in that round is declared the winner of the election. Assume that there are no
ties in deciding top 5, top 3 (if Round 2 happens) candidates or the winner (if Round 3 happens) in Round
3.

1800000 16,52,754 16,38,192 16,38,913 16,42,139 16,34,345 16,42,332


1600000
1400000
1200000
1000000
800000
600000
400000
1,51,325
200000
0
AJP
Kongress Junda Dal Bajrangi Samajik
Hindu
Others
Dal
Party
Muslim
Party

Page

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

11.

Among the five candidates who moved to Round 2, the candidate with the maximum number of
votes in Round 1 got what percentage of the total number of votes in that round?
(a) 17.4 %
(b) 19.8%
(c) 16.5%
(d) 18.2%

12.

If the votes received by the candidates of Samajik Party and Hindu Muslim Party in Round 1 are not
taken into account, then by what percentage points does the share of Others increase?
(a) 0.64
(b) 0.74
(c) 0.84
(d) 0.94

13.

If 1 Million votes are cast in Round 2 and 3 Million votes are cast in Round 3, then what is the
minimum total number of votes needed by a candidate to be declared the winner of the election?
(a) 26,38,194

(b) 21,38,195

(c) 21,38,193

(d) 26,38,195

14.

A and B start running simultaneously on a circular track from point O in the same direction. If the
ratio of their speeds is 6 : 1 respectively, then how many times is A ahead of B by a quarter of the
length of the track before they meet at O for the first time?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 10

15.

x and y are real numbers such that y = |x 2| |2x 12| + |x 8|. What is the least possible value
of y?
(a) 6
(b) 2
(c) 2
(d) None of these

16.

The difference between the compound interest (with annual compounding) and the simple interest
earned in two years on a certain sum at the rate of 18% p.a. is Rs. 972. What will the same sum
amount to (in Rs.) after three years at the rate of 18% p.a. when the interest is compounded
annually?
(a) 49290.96
(b) 49116.00
(c) 49280.50
(d) 49382.96

17.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Q. Is logax > logby?
A. 0 < a < 1, b > 1, x > 1, y < 1
B. 0 < a < 1, 0 < b < 1, x > y

Page

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

Directions for questions 18 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The two pie charts given below specify the percentage of men and women in the various age groups A, B,
C, D and E residing in a town in the year 2010.
Group A:
Group B:
Group C:
Group D:
Group E:

age 20
20 < age 25
25 < age 30
30 < age 35
35 < age

These men and women contribute to the income of their town and the ratio of mens contribution to
womens contribution is 4 : 5. Assume that all the people residing in the town are represented in the pie
charts.
Total Men = 3200
D
10%

Total Women = 3800

E
5%

E
15%

A
15%

A
30%

C
15%

B
25%

D
25%

B
40%

C
20%

18.

What is the ratio of mens contribution from Group D to womens contribution from Group C to the
towns income?
(a) 2 : 5
(b) 4 : 5
(c) 8 : 19
(d) Data Insufficient

19.

In 2011 the number of women in Group C increases by 15%. By what percentage will the total
number of women in the town increase?
(a) 15%
(b) 3%
(c) 5%
(d) Cannot be determined

20.

If the average contribution of men to the towns income is Rs 35,000, then what is the average
contribution of women to the towns income?
(a) Rs 36,842
(b) Rs 36,742
(c) Rs 36,942
(d) Rs 37,042

Page

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

21.

In the figure given below, there is a square circumscribed by a circle. In how many ways can 9
people occupy the marked positions such that each person occupies exactly one position?

(b) 9 C4 4! 4!

(a) 9 !
9

(c)
22.

(d)

C4 4! 5!
4

What is the sum of all the possible values of a natural number n that satisfy
n2 + 47

(n2 2n)
(a) 16
23.

C4 4! 5!
2

= n2 2n

16n16

(b) 18

(c) 19

(d) 20

In the figure given below, ABCD is an isosceles trapezium (BC || AD) circumscribing a circle such
that BC = 45 cm and AD = 125 cm. What is the radius of the circle?

A
(a) 85 cm

(b) 75 cm

D
(c) 42.5 cm

(d) 37.5 cm

24.

The degree of each term of a polynomial P(x) is odd. When P(x) is divided by (x 3), the remainder
is 6. What is the remainder when P(x) is divided by (x2 9)?
(a) 2x
(b) 36
(c) 0
(d) Cannot be determined

Page

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

Directions for questions 25 and 26: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The table given below is a part of the Profit & Loss statement of a company XYZ Limited from 2006 to 2011.
All the values are given in Rs Crores.
Particulars

2011

2010

2009

2008

2007

2006

258,651.15 200,399.79 146,328.07

139,269.46

118,353.71

89,124.46

4,369.07

5,463.68

6,654.68

8,246.67

248,170.00 192,461.02 141,959.00

133,805.78

111,699.03

80,877.79

INCOME :
Sales Turnover
Excise Duty
Net Sales

10,481.15

7,938.77

Other Income

3,142.19

2,460.47

2,148.40

6,615.62

478.28

682.92

Stock Adjustments

3,243.05

3,947.89

427.56

-1,867.16

654.60

2,131.19

138,554.24 112,831.91

83,691.90

Total Income

254,555.24 198,869.38 144,534.96

EXPENDITURE :
Raw Materials

194,698.19 150,915.03 107,010.32

96,311.56

78,692.94

58,342.31

Power & Fuel Cost

2,255.07

2,706.71

3,355.98

2,052.84

2,261.69

1,146.26

Employee Cost

2,581.82

2,307.73

2,357.40

2,049.95

2,045.95

932.09

6,599.73

5,578.24

3,704.00

3,951.40

3,486.87

2,217.72

7,163.28

5,549.74

4,619.24

4,882.01

5,342.31

5,765.46

109.97

-11.33

1,379.92

547.30

588.85

461.19

30.26

1,217.92

3,265.65

175.46

111.21

155.14

213,377.80 165,828.20 119,161.21

109,619.60

92,307.40

68,709.89

 Other Manufacturing Expenses


Selling and Administration
Expenses
Miscellaneous Expenses
Less: Pre-operative Expenses
Capitalized
Total Expenditure

25.

Which year saw the maximum percentage change in Total Income as compared to the previous
year?
(a) 2011
(b) 2010
(c) 2009
(d) 2007

26.

In which year is the ratio of Sales Turnover to Total Income the highest?
(a) 2011

Page

(b) 2009

(c) 2007

(d) 2006

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

27.

In the figure given below, ABCD is a square with side of length 2 cm. A semi-circle, with AB as a
diameter, is drawn inside the square. The line segment CE touches the semi-circle. What is the
length (in cm) of CE?

(a) 0.5

(b) 2.5

(c)

7
3

(d) 3

28.

In a community of 100 students, each student studies one or more of the two subjects
viz. Mathematics and Chemistry. The number of students studying Mathematics is greater than the
number of students studying Chemistry which is greater than the number of students studying both
Mathematics and Chemistry. What is the maximum number of students who study Chemistry?
(a) 97
(b) 49
(c) 98
(d) 50

29.

3 log4x = log4 7x
How many real solutions exist for the equation given above?
(a) 0

30.

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) More than 2

Given below is a tabular description of Ethanol produced from Sweet Sorghum, Sugarcane and
Maize. The total Ethanol produced is the sum total of Ethanol produced from grain, stalk cane juice
and residue.

Crop Duration

Sweet Sorghum
4 months

Sugarcane
12 months

Maize
3 months

Ethanol from grain (l/ha)


Ethanol from stalk cane juice (l/ha)
Ethanol from residue (l/ha)

760
1400
1000

0
5600
3325

1400
0
1816

Total Ethanol Cost ($/ha)

1200

4200

1000

Selling Price of Ethanol = Rs. 27 per liter; 1$ = Rs 50. Crop Duration refers to the time it takes for
a crop to get matured for producing Ethanol. Assume that the entire produce gets sold in the
market.
If a farmer makes three cultivations of Sweet Sorghum, one cultivation of Sugarcane and four
cultivations of Maize during a year, then what is the order of the three crops according to the profit
($/ha) achieved from them in a year?

Page

(a) Sweet Sorghum > Sugarcane > Maize

(b) Maize > Sugarcane > Sweet Sorghum

(c) Sweet Sorghum > Maize > Sugarcane

(d) Maize > Sweet Sorghum > Sugarcane

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

Section - II
Directions for questions 31 to 33: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
In this age of fierce competition between Internet marketing and traditional retail, merchants want to know:
Which approach stirs potential customers most?
Experiments by neuroeconomist Antonio Rangel and his colleagues suggest that the old pop song chorus
Aint nothing like the real thing, babymight have it right.
The findings could be relevant to more than shopping, however. They may give insight into the ways our
brains assign value in the computational activity that is human choice.
Whether the stimuli are physically present or not really affects the values you assign and the choices you
make, says Rangel, a California Institute of Technology researcher who published the research results
with his colleagues in the American Economic Review in September.
Rangel, an economist-turned-neuroscientist, is one of those people eager to find the biological basis for
human behavior, including choice making. He and many others have concluded that choices are made
based on the values people assign to the options they encounter.
In a series of experiments, his group set out to learn how people assign values to the same goods
presented differently: as text on a computer screen, as a high-quality photograph on the same screen or as
the thing itself.
They randomly presented more than 50 hungry Caltech students with snack foods such as candy bars,
potato chips and other sweet and salty snacks, one by one, in three different conditions: a text condition
where the foods name was written; a high-resolution picture of the food; or the actual snack in a tray. The
students were asked to assign values to each of the foods.
On average, there was no difference in the subjects willingness to pay for the foods between the text and
picture conditions, but subjects were willing to pay, on average, 50 percent more for items that were
physically present. Importantly, these were real decisions: Subjects purchased those items at the stated
price.
Concerned that noses rather than brains were guiding these judgments, the authors repeated the experiment
with something other than food. They asked their subjects to rate Caltech paraphernalia: key chains, pens
and baseball caps. The students still were willing to pay about 50 percent more for the goods in the real
condition, with no difference between text and picture. We were shocked when it replicated with all of our
goods, like the trinkets, Rangel says. Somehow the brain knows it is present, and computes the value of
stimuli differently when this is the case.
To gain more insight about the mechanisms in play, the team repeated the food experiment, but this time
placed the actual food behind clear Plexiglas so that subjects could see the foods just as before, but could
not reach or smell them. When behind glass, the real conditions advantage disappeared. The authors
argue that this suggests that the original effect is triggered by the activation of automatic approach responses
(often called Pavlovian processes) that strike when a highly appealing, or appetitive, item is placed within
sight and reach of a subject.
Page

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

The findings reinforced questions that nag at Rangel. We want to understand not just how signals get
coded in the brain but how they are constructed at the time of choice. What are the inputs that determine
what values get assigned? How is that affected by learning? How is it affected by a lot of perceptual
information in the environment? Rangel asks.
The researchers working hypothesis is that seeing something that you know you could reach out and
grab, if you really needed to, generates a larger cue in the brain than simply seeing an extrapolation of the
same object.
31.

According to the passage, the purpose of the experiments on Caltech students was to
understand
(a) which approach stirs potential customers most.
(b) the way our brain assigns values to activities.
(c) the biological basis of human behaviour in making choices.
(d) human responses to actual objects.

32.

From the information on the findings of the researchers, which of the following situations would
send the strongest signals to the brain?
(a) A sweater displayed on a mannequin at the store entrance.
(b) A sweater displayed by a model walking on the ramp.
(c) A woman knitting a sweater behind a glass counter.
(d) A sweater gift wrapped attractively.

33.

The passage can be best described as


(a) Hypothetical
(b) Argumentative
(c) Factual
(d) Experimental

Directions for questions 34 to 37: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose
the most appropriate answer to each question.
How would one search for knowledge? The things which he knows requires no search, for he already
knows. The things which he does not know, he does not know what hes going to search for this is
Menos Paradox, also called the Sophistic Paradox.
In Meno, Plato eliminates the paradox by developing his theory of recollection through Socrates. A
contradiction is an always-false statement. For example, if P is any statement, then P and the negation of
P is a contradiction. A contradiction cannot be made true. A paradox, however, is a set of statements that
leads one into a contradiction. So a paradox misleads us.
The sophistic paradox tells us that we have no way to acquire knowledge. However, the sophistic paradox
must be an illusion since we do acquire knowledge. It is reasonable, then, to look for a problem in the
exposition of the paradox. Plato does the investigation and he finds a way out of the problem.
Socrates explains that the human soul is immortal and has been born many times. The soul has seen
everything that there is to be seen and there is nothing that it has not learned. Therefore, it is not absurd to
believe that its possible for the soul to recollect things that it already knows from past existences. What
Page

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

men call learning, Socrates calls recollection. But we have no evidence for souls, immortality, et cetera; we
have no considerable evidence of these things; so Platos theory is unfounded. However, the conclusion of
his theory has interesting implications in education, as we shall see.
In Meno, Socrates presents a geometrical problem after having Menos attendant agree on the definition of
a square. It is understood that the problem is to find a square with twice the size of the first. Socrates
initiates a series of suggestions followed by questions that induces the boy into concluding a false statement,
then into a correction, and finally to a correct solution. Since the boy is only suggested to, questioned, and
induced,
Socrates concludes that the boy already had the knowledge needed to solve the problem and has only
recollected it. Socrates experiment with Menos attendant is an evidence of the existence of the possibility
of learning. It proves something, as Sharples would put it. Whatever Platos plan was, he would be able to
successfully eliminate the paradox if he could provide one example in which knowledge is acquired. If
learning is possible, then the sophistic paradox poses an illusory impossibility.
Platos emphasis is on the existence of the method of recollection. He is not even concerned with how to
apply the method. If he were, we would see a lot more arguments that confirm that Menos attendant really
learned what he learned, and we would also see examples that illustrate the method. But we dont, so
Plato is not concerned with these; Plato is mainly concerned with the fact that the boy saw the result by
himself; that he acquired that knowledge by himself. Socrates shows him the way, and he is able to see it
with his own mind.
Socrates shows A and B, and the boy is able to confirm, in his brain, that there is something that tells him
if A, then B and therefore he draws the imaginary arrow from A to B - we will have more to say about this
later.
34.

What is the primary purpose of this passage?


(a) To compare Socrates and Platos observations from the experiment on Menos attendant.
(b) To prove the fallacy inherent in the Sophistic Paradox.
(c) To explain the basis for and critically analyse Platos theory of recollection.
(d) To discuss the paradox that exists in mans search for knowledge.

35.

Which one of these is mentioned as Platos main concern?


(a) The implication of a theory developed by him.
(b) The existence of a theory developed by him.
(c) Proving Socrates views on the method of recollection.
(d) The immortality of the soul as an axiom of Platos theory.

36.

Which of the following can be inferred about Platos theory of recollection?


(a) The human soul is immortal.
(b) The human soul reincarnates.
(c) The human soul recollects truths.
(d) The human soul has seen everything there is to be seen.

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Unproctored Mock-7 2012

37.

Why does the author claim that the Sophistic Paradox is an illusion?
(a) Reincarnation makes it possible for the soul to have a recollection of truths before birth.
(b) Plato is unable to provide an example in which learning is acquired.
(c) Learning is possible and knowledge can be acquired.
(d) Socrates claims that learning is not acquired, yet his experiment proves otherwise.

Directions for questions 38 to 40: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Plain speaking is necessary in any discussion of religion, for if the freethinker attacks the religious dogmas
with hesitation, the orthodox believer assumes that it is with regret that the freethinker would
remove the crutch that supports the orthodox. And all religious beliefs are crutches hindering the free
locomotive efforts of an advancing humanity. There are no problems related to human progress and happiness
in this age which any theology can solve, and which the teachings of free thought cannot do better and
without the aid of encumbrances.
Havelock Ellis has stated that, The man who has never wrestled with his early faith, the faith that he was
brought up with and that yet is not truly his ownfor no faith is our own that we have not arduously
wonhas missed not only a moral but an intellectual discipline. The absence of that discipline may mark
a man for life and render all his work ineffective. He has missed a training in criticism, in analysis, in openmindedness, in the resolutely impersonal treatment of personal problems, which no other training can
compensate. He is, for the most part, condemned to live in a mental jungle where his arm will soon be too
feeble to clear away the growths that enclose him, and his eyes too weak to find the light. The man who
has allowed his mental capacities to clear his way through the dense underbrush of religious dogma finds
that he has emerged into a purer and healthier atmosphere. In the bright light of this mental emancipation
a man perceives the falsities of all religions in their historic, scientific, and metaphysical aspects. The
healthier mental viewpoint holds up to scorn and discards the reactionary religious philosophy of morals,
and the sum total of his conclusions must be that religion is doomed; and doomed in this modern day by
its absolute irrelevance to the needs and interests of modern life. And this not only by the steadily increasing
army of freethinkers, but by the indifference and neglect of those who still cling to the fast slipping folds of
religious creeds the future freethinkers.
It was Spinoza who remarked that, The proper study of a wise man is not how to die but how to live.
Religious creeds can but teach how man should live, so that when he dies, he may be assured of salvation;
and the important thing is not what he does to help his fellow men while he
is living, but how closely he lives in conformity to a reactionary code of dogmas. Religion has always aimed
to smooth the sufferers passage to the next world, not to save him for this world.
Free thought has dethroned the gods from the pedestal, and has replaced, not an empty idol, but an ideal,
the ideal of a man who is his own god.
38.

According to the author when a man unquestioningly accepts his religion and its dogmas, he
(a) has mastered intellectual discipline.
(b) has won his faith.
(c) emerges in a pure and healthy atmosphere for his faith.
(d) misses a crucial training in criticism and broad-mindedness.

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Unproctored Mock-7 2012

39.

What does the statement The proper study of a wise man is not how to die but how to live mean?
(a) The subject of study of a wise man should be life not death.
(b) One should know how wise men lived not how they died.
(c) Philosophy is all about life and death.
(d) One should be obsessed with life, not death.

40.

The author is most likely to be


(a) a fanatic
(b) a bigot
(c) an atheist
(d) a rationalist

41.

Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate
option.
A. Images of the core of NGC 4150, taken in near-ultraviolet light with the sharp-eyed Wide Field
Camera 3 (WFC3), reveal streamers of dust and gas and clumps of young, blue stars that are
significantly less than a billion years old.
B. Elliptical galaxies were once thought to be aging star cities whose star-making heyday was
billions of years ago.
C. Evidence shows that the star birth was sparked by a merger with a dwarf galaxy.
D. But new observations with NASAs Hubble Space Telescope are helping to show that elliptical
galaxies still have some youthful vigor left, thanks to encounters with smaller galaxies.
E. The new study helps bolster the emerging view that most elliptical galaxies have young stars,
bringing new life to old galaxies.
(a) ADECB
(b) BDEAC
(c) BDACE
(d) ACDBE

42.

Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate
option.
A. A smattering of do-gooders plead for reform.
B. But it is hard to figure out exactly what sets them into motion or brings them to success.
C. Vast moral revolutions do take place once in a while.
D. A high-minded prophet in some part of the world denounces an old and dreadful social custom.
E. The reform in question appears, at a glance, to be impractical, unpopular, and unlikely.
(a) CBDAE

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12

(b) ABDEC

(c) DACBE

(d) ABCDE

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

Directions for questions 43 and 44: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Each of the three boys Amar, Brijesh and Chirag plays at least one of the four games among Hockey,
Football, Cricket and Squash. Further information is given below.
(i) If a boy plays Football, then he doesnt play Squash.
(ii) At least one of the three boys plays Football and at least one plays Cricket.
43.

Chirag plays exactly three games. Amar and Brijesh play exactly two games each such that none
of the games is played by both of them. Which of the following statements must be true?
(a) Amar plays Hockey.
(b) If Football is played by exactly one of the three boys, then Brijesh plays Squash.
(c) Squash is played by exactly two of the boys.
(d) Hockey and Cricket are played by exactly two boys each.

44.

Brijesh plays Squash and Chirag plays Hockey. Neither Amar nor Chirag plays Cricket. None of the
games is played by both Brijesh and Chirag. Which of the following statements must be true?
(a) Amar plays Football.
(b) Brijesh plays Cricket.
(c) Chirag plays Football.
(d) Amar plays Squash.

45.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
EASE
(a) The Government appears to have eased back on the RTI act.
(b) The tension between the two countries has eased off.
(c) He crossed the road when the traffic had eased in.
(d) When things ease up a bit, Ill go and meet him.

46.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
CHIP
(a) The opposition chipped away at the power of the government.
(b) The sculptor was chipping off at the stone.
(c) The paint has chipped off.
(d) If everyone chips in we will be able to buy a nice gift.

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Unproctored Mock-7 2012

Directions for questions 47 and 48: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Seven books, two each of Mathematics and Chemistry and three of Physics, are to be placed in order on
a shelf. The two Mathematics books are of Algebra and Geometry, the two Chemistry books are of Organic
and Inorganic and the three Physics books are of Kinetics, Thermodynamics and Electromagnetics.
The following conditions are to be kept in mind while placing the books:
(i)
All the books of a subject must be placed together.
(ii)
The Chemistry books should be placed between Mathematics and Physics books.
(iii)
The Thermodynamics book must be placed before the Electromagnetics book.
(iv)
The Algebra book must be placed before the Geometry book.
47.

If the Electromagnetics book is placed immediately before the Kinetics book, then which of the
following statements may be true?
(a) The Thermodynamics book is placed at the second position.
(b) The Thermodynamics book is placed at the third position.
(c) The Geometry book is placed at the sixth position.
(d) The Geometry book is placed at the seventh position.

48.

If a Chemistry book is placed adjacent to the Thermodynamics book, then which of the following
statements must be false?
(a) The Kinetics book is placed before the Geometry book.
(b) The Kinetics book is placed before the Electromagnetics book.
(c) The Inorganic book is placed before the Thermodynamics book.
(d) The Electromagnetics book is placed before the Kinetics book.

49.

There are two gaps in the sentence/paragraph given below. From the pairs of words given, choose
the one that fills the gaps most appropriately.
Traditionally, Indonesians practiced a tolerant, almost ____________ brand of faith, ______ with
the Buddhist, Hindu and the animist traditions of earlier periods.
(a) aesthetic, imbibed
(b) syncretic, infused
(c) hermetic, impelled
(d) emetic, infused

50.

There are two gaps in the sentence/paragraph given below. From the pairs of words given, choose
the one that fills the gaps most appropriately.
The more I thought about the vibrant___________ Scottish nationalists driving a debate north of
the border about what kind of relationship it wants with England, the more I grimly
____________the fallout on this side of the border.
(a) rejuvenated, contemplated
(b) empowered, sustained
(c) imaginative, learned
(d) outspoken, ascertained

Directions for questions 51 and 52: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Three teams A, B and C participated in a Football tournament in which the teams play with one another
exactly once. A win fetches a team 2 points and a draw 1 point. A team gets no points for a loss. Each
team scored exactly 1 goal in the tournament. A, B and C scored 3, 2 and 1 points respectively.
51.

Page

What was the result of the match A v/s B?


(a) A won
(c) A drew with B

14

(b) B won
(d) Cannot be determined
Unproctored Mock-7 2012

52.

How many goals were scored by C against B?


(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) Cannot be determined

53.

Given below are four sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized. From the
italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
Any judgment by the supreme court is a definite(A)/definitive(B) one; it cant be challenged by the
lower courts.
Every system of justice strives for an equitable(A)/equable(B) distribution of wealth and resources.
Metaphysics is such an esoteric(A)/exoteric(B) subject that only a handful of people can speak at
length on it.
Her greatest asset was her long and luxurious(A)/luxuriant(B) hair.
(a) ABAB

54.

(b) BAAB

(c) BBBB

(d) AAAA

Given below are four sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized. From the
italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
The artist uses a rich palate(A)/palette(B) of tones and timbres.
It is a novel that wallows in gross sentimentality and bathos(A)/pathos(B).
She was ingenuous enough to buy the meretricious(A)/meritorious(B) product from the vendor.
A whopping ninety percent of the respondents unequivocably(A)/unequivocally(B) said Yes.
(a) BAAB

55.

(b) BAAA

(c) ABAB

(d) BABA

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Zero has had a long history. The Babylonians invented the concept of zero; the ancient Greeks
debated it in lofty terms (how could something be nothing?); the ancient Indian scholar Pingala
paired Zero with the numeral 1 to get double digits; and both the Mayans and the Romans made
Zero part of their numeral systems. But Zero finally found its place around AD 498, when the Indian
astronomer Aryabhatta sat up in bed one morning and exclaimed, Sthanam sthanam dasa gunamwhich translates, roughly as, place to place in ten times in value. With that, the idea of decimal
based place value notion was born.
(a) Now Zero was on a roll.
(b) Now Zero spread to the Arab world.
(c) Zero ultimately found plenty of employment (together with the digit 1).
(d) Zero ultimately flourished in Silicon valley.

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15

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

56.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
And so I cried and I prayed, and as months passed, the ceiling above my bed slowly went back to
being just a ceiling. Taking Lucette by the hand, I went back to school. There were hundreds of other
children like me, children who had done nothing wrong and who, like me, had suffered some tragedy
and were waiting patiently serving out their time, coping as best as they could.
(a) If they did not ask questions, it was because they knew they would not like the answers.
(b) At night, in the darkness, I brooded on my sadness.
(c)I had loved this town all my life and today, I had to leave it.
(d)The tension was palpable- the anger almost burnt the walls.

Directions for questions 57 and 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In a gathering of some friends, it was observed that five of the friends dont like to play cards, five dont like
to watch TV and five dont like to listen to songs. Among those who like to play cards, only four like to
watch TV. Among those who like to watch TV, only three like to listen to songs. Among those who listen to
songs, only two like to play cards. Only one of the friends likes all the three activities mentioned.
57.

What is the total number of friends in the gathering?


(a) 15
(b) 14
(c) 11

(d) Cannot be determined

58.

What is the number of friends who like exactly one of the three activities mentioned?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) Cannot be determined

59.

Five people Amir, Bimal, Chatur, Deepak and Ehsan are standing in a row facing East. It is
also known that:
(i) Amir is standing adjacent to neither Bimal nor Ehsan.
(ii) Chatur is standing to the immediate left of Amir.
(iii) Either Bimal or Ehsan, but not both, is standing at one of the ends.
(iv) Ehsan is standing to the right of Chatur.
Who among the five is standing in the middle of the row?
(a) Amir
(b) Chatur
(c) Deepak
(d) Either Bimal or Ehsan

60.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Q. What is the sum of two numbers?
A. The LCM of the two numbers is 46.
B. One of the two numbers is 23.

Page

16

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

Answers and Explanations


1
11
21
31
41
51

Page

c
c
a
c
c
c

2
12
22
32
42
52

a
b
c
a
a
a

3
13
23
33
43
53

c
a
d
c
d
b

4
14
24
34
44
54

d
b
a
b
b
a

5
15
25
35
45
55

a
c
b
b
c
a

6
16
26
36
46
56

d
a
d
c
b
a

7
17
27
37
47
57

c
d
b
c
d
c

8
18
28
38
48
58

d
d
c
d
a
a

9
19
29
39
49
59

c
d
b
a
b
c

10
20
30
40
50
60

c
a
d
d
a
d

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

1. c

2. a

The average of the three numbers will be 15. Let the


numbers be 15 d, 15 and 15 + d.
(15 d)2 + 152 + (15 + d)2 = 683
d=2
So the numbers are 13, 15 and 17.

The watch gains (5 + 10) = 15 min in 30 hours


(12 Noon to 6 PM next day). This means that it will
show the correct time when it gains 5 min in 10 hours
or at 10 PM on Monday.

7. c

2f(x) + f(1 x) = x2
Replacing x by (1 x) in the above equation, we get:
2f(1 x) + f(x) = (1 x)2
Solving the above pair of equations, we get:

The net decrease in the average can be expressed

as

3. c

6. d

y
y +y
2 . Hence, y = 2.
3

f(x) =

(2k )! .
C(2k,k) =
For this number to be divisible by 200,
(k!)2
the difference in the number of zeroes of the numerator
and the denominator should be greater than or equal
to 2.
Case 1: k! has no zero and (2k)! has 2 zeroes. Not
possible for any value of k from 1 to 4.
Case 2: k! has 1 zero and (2k)! has 4 zeroes. Not
possible for any value of k from 5 to 9.
Case 3: k! has 2 zeroes and (2k)! has 6 zeroes. The
least value of k for which this is true is k = 13.
We can easily find the difference in the power of 2
contained in the numerator and denominator to
conclude that C(26,13) is even. Hence, C(26,13) is
divisible by 200. So the minimum value of k = 13.

(x

+ 2x 1
3

Thus, f(5) =

34
.
3

8. d

The concentration of milk in one jar is 70% and that in


the other jar is 60%. The concentration of milk in any
mixture of these two will lie between 60% and 70%
depending on the actual ratio of the two. However,
the concentration of the resultant solution can never
be less that 60%. So it is not possible.

9. c

The expression can be written as a +

1
, where
b + x

x lies in the interval (0, 1).


Since (1.25)3 = 1.953125 and (1.3)3 = 2.197, it can be
1

4. d

Note: We can also check the options starting with the


smallest one i.e. 11 to arrive at the answer.

concluded that 23 belongs to the interval (1.25, 1.3).

We can break 15 into factors (5, 3, 1) and (15, 1, 1).


Solving for a,b,c we get (4, 3, 2) and (8, 8, 1) as two
possible triplets for (a, b, c).
Thus abc = 24 or 64. So a unique answer cannot be
determined.

Hence, a = 1. This implies that

(0.25, 0.3). The only possible value of b = 3.


10. c

Note: We should also check for (5, 3, 1) and


(15, 1, 1) as other possible triplets because here
(a + b + c) > 0. However, since not all the individual
values of a, b and c will come out to be positive, the
cases will get rejected.

5. a

Lets denote the five tyres by a, b, c, d and e. The car


can be driven in the following pattern:
a b
c
d
e
1 1
1
1
0
0 1
1
1
1
1 0
1
1
1
1 1
0
1
1
1 1
1
0
1
Here 1 below a tyre indicates that the tyre has been
used for 1 km. Thus, we see that by rotating the tryes,
the car can be driven for 5 km when each of the four
tyres has been used for 4 km only. So if the life of
each of the four tyres is 10,000 km, the car can be
driven for 10,000

1
b + x lies in the interval

5
= 12,500km.
4

For questions 11 to 13:

AB = 4 + 4 + 2 = 10 units
Area( COD) (4)2
16
=
=
So
= 4 : 25
Area( AOB) (10)2 100

(3 COD ~ AOB )
Page

11. c

In Round 1, the total number of votes cast is


1,00,00,000. The candidate with the maximum number
of votes gets 16,52,754 votes or 16.5% of the total
number of votes.

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

12. b

The total number of votes becomes 67,23,323. Then


Others will have

1,51,325
= 2.25% share. This
67,23,323

From Statement A:
We have the following graph:
lo g ax
lo g by

means an increase of 0.74 percentage points over


the original 1.51% share.
13. a

Among the candidates who enter Round 2, the


Kongress candidate has got the least number of votes
which is 16,38,192.
The minimum number of votes required for him to move
from Round 2 to Round 3 is 1. For this to happen, the
last two candidates should get 0 votes each and the
top two candidates should get 10,00,000 and 9,99,999
votes respectively.
In Round 3, the least that he should get is 1 vote more

1
rd of the total number of votes cast. So he
3
should get at least 10,00,001 votes.
than

So the minimum number of total votes required by a


candidate to win the election is 26,38,194 (by the
Kongress candidate).
14. b

Since x > 1 and y < 1, we investigate the part of each


of the graphs below X axis. We cannot say anything
definite about log x and log y, as they depend on the
values of x and y chosen. Log x decreases with
increase in x and log y increases with increase of y,
however, both of them cannot be compared as no
relation is given between x and y.
From Statement B:
We have the following graph:
Y

lo g b y
lo g a x

Let A and B be travelling at 6x and x km/hr respectively.


Let the length of the track be L km. The relative speed
of A w.r.t. B is 5x km/hr. A meets B for the first time at
L L L
O after LCM , = hr
6x x x
In the meanwhile A would be ahead of B by a quarter

of L after the following time (in hr) :

lo g by X

L
5L
9L
,
,
,
20x 20x 20x

13L 17L
,
i.e. 5 times
20x 20x
15. c

The value of y will be minimum at all values of x 2.

16. a

The difference between the Simple Interest and the


Compound Interest at the end of two years is given by
2

r
P
= 972 where r = 18. Thus, P = 30000.
100

Let us say that a = b. Then the graph of log x and log


y will be exactly the same, or overlapping each other.
The graph of log y will change shape depending on
the relation between a and b. If the graphs are
overlapping, then when x > y, log x will be < log y.
However, if the graphs dont overlap, then log x can
be less or greater than log y depending on the relation
between x and y.
y

lo g ax

18
So A = 30000 1 +
= 49290.96
100
y2

17. d

It can be easily identified that the two statements


cannot be combined as the range for b in Statement A
is totally different from that in Statement B.

x1

y1
O

lo g by

Page

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

For example, in the above graph, we can see that


log y1 > log x1 where y1 < x1 but log y2 < log x1 where
y2 < x1.

So in right-angled triangle BAE we have


BE =

18. d

No information is given about the contribution of


different groups among men and women and so the
ratio cant be calculated.

19. d

Since no information has been provided about the


increase/decrease in the number of women in other
age groups, nothing can be said about the percentage
increase/decrase in the overall population of women.

20. a

The total contribution of men = Rs 35,000 3200


= Rs 11,20,00,000
The total contribution of women

24. a

402 =

(7225 1600 ) = 75 cm.

Since P(x) is a polynomial of odd degree terms only,


P(x) = P(x)
P(3) = P(3) P(3) = 6 which means that when
P(x) is divided by (x + 3) then the remainder obtained
is 6.
P(x) = (x 3)Q(x) + 6
...(i)
P(x) = (x + 3)R(x) 6
...(ii)
Multiplying (i) by (x + 3) and (ii) by (3 x) and adding
the two we get

Q(x) R(x)
+ 2x
6
So the remainder obtained when P(x) is divided by
(x2 9) is 2x.
P(x) = x 2 9

5
= Rs 14,00,00,000
4
Hence, the average contribution of women
= Rs 11,20,00,000

For questions 25 and 26:

Rs. 14,00,00,000
=
= Rs. 36,842
3,800

22. c

The length of BE is same as the diameter of the circle.


So the radius of the circle is 37.5 cm.

For questions 18 to 20:

21. a

(85

It should be noticed that the figure is not symmetrical.


The case is similar to a linear arrangement and the
answer will be 9!.
Equating the powers n 2 + 47 = 16n 16, we get
n = 9 or 7.
Now equating the base n2 2n to 0,1 and 1.
n2 2n = 0 n = 2.
n2 2n = 1 no integer solution possible.
n2 2n = 1 n = 1.
We get the values of n as 1, 2, 7 and 9.
So the sum of all the possible values of n is 19.

25. b

The percentage change for 2007, 2008, 2009, 2010


and 2011 are 34.82%, 22.80%, 4.31%, 37.59% and
28.00% respectively.

26. d

The required ratio for the years 2011, 2010, 2009,


2008, 2007 and 2006 are 1.016, 1.008, 1.0124, 1.005,
1.049 and 1.065 respectively.

27. b

F
E
B

23. d

We have AB + CD = BC + AD = 170 cm. This can be


proved using the theorem that the lengths of two
tangents drawn to a circle from the same point are
equal.
So AB = CD = 85 cm.
Drawing perpendiculars BE and CF from B to AD
meeting at E and from C to AD meeting at F respectively,
we have BC = EF = 45 cm (opposite sides of a
rectangle). Thus AE = DF =
B

(125 45 ) = 40
2

cm.

Assume that CE touches the semicircle at point F and


EF = x cm. Then, CF = CB = 2 cm. EA = EF = x cm.
DE = (2 x) cm.
In right angled triangle EDC, we have
(2 + x)2 = (2 x)2 + 4
x = 0.5 cm
CE = 2.5 cm
28. c

The sets C and M represent students studying


Chemistry and Mathematics respectively.
C

M
a

Page

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

We have, a + x > b + x > x a > b and a, b > 0.


To maximise (b + x), we have to put a = 2, b = 1.
x = 97 and n(C) = 98.
29. b

3log4 x = log47x
log4 x3 = log47x
x3 = 7x
x3 7x = 0
x (x2 7) = 0
x = 0 or x2 = 7

33. c

The passage is based on experiments on human


behaviour and the results. The language and content
both are objective and based on facts.

34. b

The passage mentions Socrates and Platos


viewpoints. However, it doesnt venture into a
comparison of the two viewpoints. The passage starts
with an introduction of Menos paradox and moves on
to discuss how Plato eliminates this paradox through
his theory of recollection. But it does not analyze the
theory. (d) is very general and does not correctly
bring out the specific aspects of the passage. The
author has consistently stated that the Sophistic
Paradox is illusory and goes on to prove the same.
Hence, (b) is the correct answer.

35. b

The penultimate paragraph states that Plato was


concerned more with the existence of the theory of
recollection and not even its application. The
penultimate paragraph also clearly indicates that Plato
did not aim to prove Socrates point of view. The
immortality of the soul could be an axiom of Platos
theory, however, this cant be surely gathered from
the passage and it is clear that this was not Platos
main aim.

36. c

Menos paradox questions the search for knowledge,


however, Plato eliminates this paradox through his
theory of recollection. His principal attention is placed
on the existence of this theory and though mention
has been made of the immortality of the soul and
reincarnation, these are not the main concerns of his
theory. As mentioned in the passage, the human soul
has seen everything there is to be seen, however,
this is also not the main concern of his theory of
recollection. (c) mentions that the human soul recollects
truths or knowledge here truth has not been used
as the opposite of falsity. It has been used to indicate
something that has been experienced or gathered
through existences or births.

37. c

The Sophistic Paradox questions the search for


knowledge indicating that it is not possible to search
for knowledge. However the author also goes on to
discuss in the second paragraph that a paradox is
misleading. In the third paragraph he mentions that the
sophistic paradox is an illusion because we do acquire
knowledge. The rest of the passage is spent in
discussing Socrates experiment with Menos
attendant and Platos perspective that reveals that
learning is possible and the soul recollects all that it
has learnt. (a) is not directly mentioned in the passage
and it is not the reason why the sophistic paradox is
an illusion. (b) is not indicated in the passage and (d)
is false.

38. d

Refer to para 2 lines 14-16 where the author talks


about the many things which a person misses if he
unquestioningly accepts religious dogma.

x = 0, 7 , 7
Since log is not defined for 0 and negative

numbers, x = 7 is the only real solution.


30. d

Total Ethanol produced (in l/ha) from Sweet Sorghum,


Sugarcane and Maize is 3160, 8925 and 3216
respectively.
Now we must multiply these values by the number of
cultivations which gives us the quantity of total Ethanol
produced (in l/ha) from the three crops Sweet
Sorghum, Sugarcane and Maize as 9480, 8925 and
12864 respectively.
Similarly, the Cost ($/ha) must also be multiplied by the
cultivation factors which gives 3600, 4200, and 4000
(respectively) as the cost of Ethanol cultivation.
The Revenue achieved can be determined using the
selling price/liter by multiplying the produce with a factor

27
to get the Revenue (in $/ha) as 5119.20,
50
4819.50, and 6946.56 respectively.
of

Thus profit ($/ha) from the given crops Sweet


Sorghum, Sugarcane and Maize can be stated as
1519.20, 619.50 and 2946.56 respectively.
Thus the correct order is:
Maize > Sweet Sorghum > Sugarcane
31. c

Refer to lines 9-12 where the author says Rangel, an


economist-turned-neuroscientist, is one of those
people eager to find the biological basis for human
behavior, including choice making. He and many others
have concluded that choices are made based on the
values people assign to the options they encounter.

32. a

Here the subject is most aware of the product, hence


it would send the strongest signals to the brain. (c)
and (d) will not work as the subjects cant touch or
see the product. (b) is a close option. However, the
reach afforded by a sweater displayed by a model
walking on the ramp is less as compared to the reach
afforded by a sweater displayed on a mannequin at
the store entrance.

Page

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

39. a

40. d

41. c

42. a

Inferential question- the author says religion teaches


a man to live the kind of life which it says will lead man
to salvationbut the focus of study( as Spinoza said)
should be life and how it should be lived. The aim of
life is not death and salvation.

Now, Amar doesnt play Hockey in Case (ii) and so


option (a) is not definitely true.
Though Football is played by exactly one player in
Case (iii), Brijesh doesnt play Squash. So option (b) is
not definitely true.

The author of the passage debunks the dogmatic


approach to religion and advocates freethinking
throughout the passage. He follows a rationalist
approach. The passage nowhere suggests that the
author is an atheist (one who denies the existence of
God).
Sentence B talks about an idea that was once thought
to be correct. Sentence D presents the present stream
of thought which is different from the original idea as
presented in B. Hence BD is a mandatory pair and but
in D is a good clue. Sentence D is followed by sentence
A as the latter states the new observations mentioned
in sentence D. In sentence C, the clue is the star
already referred to in sentence A as blue stars.
Sentence E is the concluding sentence.
The strongest clue here is AE, which is a mandatory
pair. Sentence A mentions reform and sentence E
refers to the same as the reform. Using elimination
one can easily arrive at option (a) being the right
answer. Also, sentence C is a generalized sentence
hence it should come at the beginning of the paragraph.
CB is also a mandatory pair as them in sentence B
refers to revolutions in sentence C.

Squash is played by exactly one player in Cases (i)


and (ii) and so option (c) is not definitely true.
Hockey and Cricket are played by exactly two players
each in all the cases and so this statement is definitely
true.
44. b

Taking into account all the conditions specified in the


question we get the arrangement given above. Note
that Brijesh cant play Football as he plays Squash.
Hence, among the options Brijesh plays Cricket is
definitely true.
45. c

(a) Ease back- move slowly or with less commitment


(b) Ease off-become less severe or intense.
Option (c) is wrong. The expression should be eased
off. Eased in means to move in gently and carefullyyou ease in behind the wheel of a car.
(d)Ease up means (here) become less pressing or
urgent.
(e)Ease off means (informally) do something less
intensely.

46. b

Chipped away means to make weak gradually.


Chipped off is wrong. Chipped away, which means to
break small pieces off something, is the correct
expression.

For questions 43 and 44:


43. d

H F C S
A
B
C

H F C S
A
B
C

If Chirag plays exactly 3 games then the above two


cases are possible.
Now, if Amar and Brijesh play two games each such
that none of the games is played by both of them then
the following four cases are possible:

H F
A
(i)
B
C
H F
A
(iii)
B
C

Page

C S

C S

H F
A
(ii)
B
C
H F
A
(iv)
B
C

C S

C S

H F C S
A

B
C

For questions 47 and 48:


From condition (ii), we have the following order of books on
the three subjects Mathematics (M), Chemistry (C), Physics
(P) or Physics (P), Chemistry (C) , Mathematics (M).
Let each book be designated by the first letter of its topic (e.g.
A stands for Algebra).
Using conditions (iii) and (iv), we get the following different
sequences (1 to 7 means first to last):

1
A
A
A
K
T
T

2
G
G
G
T
K
E

3
_
_
_
E
E
K

4
_
_
_
_
_
_

5
K
T
T
_
_
_

6
T
K
E
A
A
A

7
E
E
K
G
G
G

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

47. d

If E is placed immediately before K, then G (Geometry


book) must be placed at either the second or the
seventh position.

48. a

If a Chemistry book (either I or O) is placed adjacent to


T, then G must be placed before K.

49. b

Syncretic means uniting and blending together


different systems, as of philosophy, morals, or religion.

50. a

The sentence discusses the authors contemplation


of the effects of the debate that is being driven by the
Scottish nationalists. Keeping this context in mind, the
second blank can be filled only by contemplated.
Hence, (a) is the right answer.

53. b

Definitive (of a conclusion or agreement) means


decisive and with an authority. Equitable means just or
fair or marked by principles of fairness or equity.
Esoteric means secret or known only to a few people.
Luxuriant means growing in abundance.

54. a

Palette-a range, quality or use of available


elements.(palette is also the name of an artists mixing
board). Bathos-insincere pathos; sentimentality;
mawkishness. Meretricious-flashy, gaudy, spurious.
Unequivocally means clearly and without doubt.

55. a

The paragraph discusses the history of zero and how


it came into use. Once the idea of decimal based place
value came into existence, zero became popular. It
was on a roll. Hence option (a) is correct. (c), which
is a close option, cant be the answer as the pairing of
zero with the numeral 1 gets discussed in the second
line of the paragraph.

56. a

The last sentence of the paragraph is about how,


apart from the author, there were hundreds of other
children, who were going through the same ordeal.
Their approach to the ordeal was one of patience.
They were coping with it as best as they could. In
such a context option (a), which describes the children
silently accepting their fate and not asking any
questions comes across as the best answer. Also,
the they in this option has an antecedent in the
children.

For questions 51 and 52:

X
C

There are two possible cases (as shown above) because A


scores 3 points which is possible with a Win and a Draw only.
And C scores 1 point which means a Draw and a Loss. So in
the first case, A defeats C and in the second case A defeats B.
Since A has won a match and A scores exactly one goal, it
means that this goal should have been scored by A in the
match in which A wins. So A wins by 1-0 and the other match
of A gets drawn 0-0. In the second case, if AC is a draw with
score 0-0, then it means that C scores a goal against B in the
match that C loses, which implies that B has to score at least
2 goals to win against C, which is not possible because B
scores exactly one goal in the tournament. Hence, only the
first case is feasible and the results are:

For questions 57 and 58:


C a rds
a

A drew with B.

52. a

1
1
3

2
d

TV

Using the above Venn diagram we have:


2+b+c+d=5
3 + a + c + d =5
1+a+b+d=5
Solving we get, b c = 2, a c = 1 and b a = 1.

Result of the Match A v/s C: 1-0


Result of the Match A v/s B: 0-0
Result of the Match B v/s C: 1-1
51. c

S o ng s

So, b + c = 3 d. Now, b + c 0, so d = 0, 1, 2 or 3.
But, b c and b + c should be of the same parity (odd/
even) for b and c to be natural numbers.
Hence, b + c = 2 which gives b = 2 and c = 0.
Note that b + c = 0 gives c < 0. Hence, it is rejected.
On solving we get, b = 2, c = 0, a = 1 and d = 1.
57. c

Page

58. a

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

59. c

In the arrangements given below, the people are


represented by the first letter of their names.
From statement (ii), possible positions for A and C are:
I. ___ ___ ___ _C_ _A_
II. ___ ___ _C_ _A_ ___

60. d

Let the two numbers be x and y.


From Statement A:
LCM(x, y) = 46
Possible pairs (x, y) are:
(1, 46); (2, 46); (23, 46); (46, 46) and (2, 23).
For each of the above pairs, the sum x + y is different.

III. ___ _C_ _A_ ___ ___


IV. _C_ _A_ ___ ___ ___

Cases I, II and III are not consistent with statements (i)


and (iv).
The two possible arrangements are:
_C_ _A_ _D_ _B_ _E_

From Statement B:
Its given that x = 23 but the value of y is not known.
Hence, the exact value of x + y cannot be determined.
Combining Statements A and B:
Possible pairs (x, y) are:
(23, 46) and (2, 23).
Hence, x + y = 69 or 25.
The question cannot be answered even by using both
the statements together.

or
_C_ _A_ _D_ _E_ _B_
In both the cases, Deepak is standing in the middle of
the row.

Page

Unproctored Mock-7 2012

Unproctored Mock-8 2012


Section - I
1.

N = 22 33 52 102
If k is a whole number, then how many factors of N are of the form 2k + 1?
(a) 36
(b) 20
(c) 48
(d) 19

2.

The average age of a group of 30 people is 40 years. Kay, whose present age is 11 years, had joined
the group two years ago. What was the average age (in years) of the remaining 29 people (excluding
Kay) two years ago?
(a) 37
(b) 38
(c) 40
(d) 39

3.

A point P (a, b) lies on the line 3x = 2y, where a and b are integers. What is the value of a2 + b2 + ab
if the distance between P and another point Q (7, 5) is minimum possible?
(a) 0
(b) 171
(c) 76
(d) 19

4.

A bus covers a journey at an average speed of 90 km/h. If the time for which the bus stops during the
journey is excluded, then the average speed for the journey becomes 108 km/h. For how much
time, on an average, does the bus stop every hour?
(a) 12 minutes
(b) 10 minutes
(c) 15 minutes
(d) 7.5 minutes

5.

The circle

Cn , where n is a natural number, is the incircle of triangle Tn and the circumcircle of

triangle Tn+1. The sides of each triangle Tn are in the ratio 24 : 45 : 51. What is the (approximate)
ratio of the area of

C1 to the area of T2 ?

(a) 3.2 : 1

6.

What is the value of


(a)

1 + 13
2

(b) 3.5 : 1

(c) 3.8 : 1

(d) 4.1 : 1

(c) 3

(d) Either (a) or (b)

3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + K ?

(b)

13
2

7.

Two litres of a solution having water and milk in the ratio 3 : 5 is mixed with three litres of another
solution having water and milk in the ratio 5 : 3. What is the ratio of water and milk in the resultant
mixture?
(a) 18 : 23
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 19 : 21
(d) 21 : 19

Page

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

8.

A function f(x) is defined, for all natural numbers x, as f(x) = 2f(x 1) + 5.


If f(1) = 1, then what is the value of f(40) f(39)?
(b) 6 240
(c) 6 239
(d) 6 238
(a) 6 241

9.

Sixty equally spaced line segments are drawn on a circular clock such that each line segment is a
radius of the circle. If the minute hand and the hour hand of the clock overlap with one of these line
segments at 12 Noon, then at what time during the next 12 hours will the minute hand overlap with
the line segment which is immediately prior to the line segment with which the hour hand overlaps?
(a) 4 : 24 P.M.
(b) 2 : 12 P.M.
(c) 9 : 48 P.M.
(d) Cannot be detemined

10.

Saral and Himanshu can do a work in 6 days and 8 days respectively. If Saral, Himanshu and
Abhishek together can complete the work in 2 days, then what is the ratio of the earnings of Saral,
Himanshu and Abhishek, if they are paid in the ratio of the work done by them?
(a) 5 : 4 : 3
(b) 3 : 4 : 5
(c) 4 : 3 : 5
(d) 4 : 5 : 3

Directions for questions 11 and 12: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A traveller spent some money in six different nations. The pie charts given below show the money spent in
each of the nations as a percentage of the total money spent in that year. The money spent in China in the
year 2007 was 75% less than the money spent in China in the year 2006. The money spent in India was
same for the two years.

Britain,
14%

Australia,
12%
India,
12%

America,
24%

Australia,
?
Britain,
32%

India,
15%
China,
?

China,
16%
Africa,
22%
2006

Africa,
16%

America,
22%
2007

11.

In the year 2007, what percentage of the total money spent by the traveller was spent in China?
(a) 8%
(b) 6%
(c) 4%
(d) 5%

12.

If the money spent by the traveller in Britain, America and Africa together was 32 dollars more in
2006 than in 2007, then how much money (in dollars) was spent by the traveller in Australia in the
year 2007?
(a) 64
(b) 120
(c) 96
(d) 80

Page

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

13.

A triangle is called a p-triangle if the length of each of its side (in units) and its area (in sq. units) are
integers. How many of the triangles with the sides (in units) given below are p-triangles?
(i) 4, 5 and 6
(ii) 3, 4 and 5
(iii) 5, 8 and 9
(iv) 5, 6 and 8
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

14.

In how many ways can eight people comprising four married couples sit at a circular table such that
no two men sit together and no husband sits beside his wife?
(a) 8
(b) 2
(c) 16
(d) 12

15.

What is the number of digits in 520? (Given log102 = 0.3010)


(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14

16.

(d) 15

The table given below shows partial information about the number of users of various mobile handsets
in the city of Tringpur, where nobody uses more than one handset.
Mobile Handset Number of users
Jokia B 56
DTC 883
Samjung Rock
Millimax Bong

11860
?
22366
14568

Number of users as a percentage of the


total population of the city
2.19
1.01
4.13
?

What is the total number of people (approximately) in Tringpur who do not use any of the above
mentioned handsets?
(a) 546200
(b) 487300
(c) 398900
(d) 426500
17.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Q. In a triangle ABC, there is a point D on the line BC, such that the circle drawn with AD as a
diameter is found to be touching BC. The length (in units) of each side of the triangle ABC is an
integer. The perimeter of the triangle ABC is 60 units. What is the circumference of the circle?
A. The length (in units) of the three sides of ABC are consecutive multiples of 5.
B. ABC is a right angled triangle with BC = 25 units.

18.

Each of the four parties A, B, C and D contested in all the seats in an election. Each seat was
won by exactly one of the four parties. Party A lost on 19 seats, Party B lost on 12 seats, Party C
lost on 10 seats and Party D lost on 16 seats. What was the total number of seats being contested
in the election?
(a) 57
(b) 38
(c) 19
(d) 26

Page

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

19.

There are two fixed poles on the opposite sides of a road at points A and B. The height of one of the
poles is 70% of AB and the height of the other pole is 40% of AB. A point on AB is equidistant from
the top of the two poles. What is the distance of this point from the foot of the shorter pole?
(a) 66.5% of AB
(b) 65.5% of AB
(c) 68.0% of AB
(d) 67.5% of AB

20.

A tank has four inlet pipes such that each inlet pipe while working independently can fill the tank in
4 hours. The tank also has two outlet pipes such that each outlet pipe while working independently
can empty the tank in 3 hours. If all the six pipes are opened simultaneously, then in how much time
will the tank get filled completely?
(a) 2.0 hours
(b) 3.0 hours
(c) 2.5 hours
(d) 7.0 hours

21.

In a triangle ABC (see the figure given below), ACB = 60, BAC = 40, AD = AB and
CED = ABC. What is the measure of angle DBE?

C
E
D

A
(a) 10o
22.

(b) 15o

(c) 20o

A box contains five red and five blue balls. A ball is picked from the box and is replaced by a ball of
the other colour. For instance, if a blue ball is picked then it is replaced by a red ball and vice-versa.
The process is repeated ten times and then a ball is picked from the box. What is the probability
that this ball is red?
10
1 1 2 1 3 1 4
1
1
...

(b)


2

2 2 2 2

10
1 1 2 1 3
1
1
...

+
+
+
+
(a)


2
2


2 2

(c)

23.

10

(d) None of these

An ant is at one of the corners of a square prism with base 5 m 5 m and height 10 m. What is the
minimum distance (in metres) that the ant has to crawl to reach the farthest corner on the prism?

(b) 125
1

(c)

200

(d)

250

If (7 )p = ( 49 )q = (2401)r , then p, q and r are in


(a) A.P.

Page

1 1
1 1
1
+ + ...
2 2
2 2
2

(a) 150

24.

(d) 30o

(b) G.P.

(c) H.P.

(d) Cannot be determined

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

Directions for questions 25 to 27: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In a country called XYZ, the number of patients changes every year. The graph given below shows the
percentage change in the number of patients w.r.t. the previous year. The table given below shows the
number of hospitals available in XYZ. The number of patients in 1999 were 2,00,000.
Percentage change in the number of patients
30
20
10
0
-10
-20
-30
-40
2000

2001

Year
2000
2001
2002
2003
2004
2005
2006

2002

2003

2004

2005

2006

Number of Hospitals
4700
4850
5100
5200
5350
5500
5700

The Unhealthiness Index of XYZ for a year is defined as the number of patients per hospital in the country.
25.

Find the year for which the Unhealthiness Index of XYZ was the maximum.
(a) 2000
(b) 2003
(c) 2004
(d) 2006

26.

In 2006, WHO launched a massive health improvement program in XYZ. As a result there was 30%
reduction in the number of patients per year for the next two years and the number of hospitals in the
country was also increased by 10% per year during the same period. Find the Unhealthiness Index
of XYZ for the year 2008.
(a) 15.4
(b) 19.8
(c) 13.9
(d) 21.3

27.

The Government of XYZ targets an Unhealthiness Index of 15 for the year 2007. By approximately
what percent should the number of hospitals be increased in 2007 over the previous year if the
number of patients in 2007 is expected to decrease by 40% over the previous year?
(a) 27%
(b) 34%
(c) 47%
(d) 37%

Page

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

Directions for questions 28 and 29: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In a five-star hotel there are 100 employees of which some are chefs. Each chef can make cuisine of at
least one type among Chinese, Indian and Continental. For each cuisine, the number of chefs who can
make only that cuisine is two and a half times the number of chefs who can make exactly one more cuisine
apart from that cuisine. The number of chefs who can make only Indian and Chinese cuisine is equal to the
number of chefs who can make only Chinese and Continental cuisine and is also equal to the number of
chefs who can make only Continental and Indian cuisine.
28.

There are 40 employees who are not chefs and 6 chefs who can make all the three cuisines in the
hotel. How many chefs cant make Continental cuisine?
(a) 18
(b) 33
(c) 30
(d) 15

29.

The number of employees who are not chefs is greater than the number of chefs who can make only
Indian cuisine. What is the maximum possible number of chefs who can make exactly one cuisine?
(a) 30
(b) 45
(c) 60
(d) 75

30.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Q. In a planet there are only three continents Amerika, Acia and Afrika. Each continent has
exactly one of the countries among UJA, Bakistan and SB. Each country is ruled by a different
President among Lafen, Gadazzi and Caspro. The country in Afrika is not ruled by Gadazzi. SB is
in Amerika. Is Lafen the President of the country which falls in Acia?
A. Bakistans President is a friend of President Lafen.
B. UJA is in Afrika.

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Unproctored Mock-8 2012

Section - II
31.

Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate
option.
A. This may mean breaking up old relationships to create more positive and productive ones.
B. Relationships can be developed from and determined by politics.
C. Any assessment performed to change an organizations environment should include possible
political ramifications of transformation.
D. Individual and organizational performance can be affected by myriad political influences, which
can come from both internal and external sources.
E. Changing an organizations environment should coincide with changing problematic political
practices.
(a) EABDC
(b) DBEAC
(c) BADCE
(d) BEACD

32.

Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate
option.
A. Earth has experienced climate change in the past without help from humanity.
B. The chemical make-up of the ice provides clues to the average global temperature.
C. For example, bubbles of air in glacial ice trap tiny samples of Earths atmosphere, giving scientists
a history of greenhouse gases that stretches back more than 800,000 years.
D. Using this ancient evidence, scientists have built a record of Earths past climates, or
paleoclimates.
E. We know about past climates because of evidence left in tree rings, layers of ice in glaciers,
ocean sediments, coral reefs, and layers of sedimentary rocks.
(a) ACDEB
(b) EACBD
(c) BDCEA
(d) AECBD

33.

Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate
option.
A. Thus, employee and manager alike may resist attempts to uproot established company traditions
or fiddle with untried, risky procedures.
B. The truth is if you want to learn to do it better, youve got to try a lot of things, many of which
wont work.
C. Their responses to creativity initiatives may in fact take shape vigorously, adamantly and fearfully.
D. With society officially downgrading the idea of creativity so strongly, it becomes problematic for
businesses to get their managers and other employees thinking truly freely and out of the box.
E. Also, genuine creativity, by definition, subverts the status quo by facing down long-held
assumptions and uncorking new ways of approaching things.
(a) DEBAC
(b) DEACB
(c) DBEAC
(d) ACBED

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Unproctored Mock-8 2012

34.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
GET
(a) The talk show fell flat- the anchor did not get his jokes across to his audience.
(b) I dont know how the news of his resigning got around.
(c) She is always getting at her husband because he doesnt clean the yard.
(d) With that innocent face, he could get off with murder.

35.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
HANG
(a) The detective spent several months hanging around the club making friends with the suspects.
(b) He is a loner and hangs back from group activities.
(c) Some of the students hung back after the lecture to have a word with the teacher.
(d) She hung on to the shares hoping to make a huge profit.

36.

There are two gaps in the sentence/paragraph given below. From the pairs of words given, choose
the one that fills the gaps most appropriately.
Herodotus celebrates the glory of human ___________ with a vigor that ________ parochial Plutarch.
(a) diversity, infuriates
(b) bigotry, incenses
(c) creativity, flails
(d) ingenuity, flays

37.

There are two gaps in the sentence/paragraph given below. From the pairs of words given, choose
the one that fills the gaps most appropriately.
A Beethoven quartet does not represent sorrow, but ________ it in hearer and player alike;and yet
it is emphatically not a ______ experience. Like tragedy it brings intense pleasure and insight.
(a) incites, tragic
(b) elicits, sad
(c) invokes, pleasurable
(d) imbues, memorable

Directions for questions 38 and 39: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A jeweller has 8 beads which he wants to use in making a necklace. There are 3 different beads of Red
colour Striped Red, Matt Red and Sparkling Red. Similarly, there are 3 different beads of Blue colour
Striped Blue, Matt Blue and Sparkling Blue. The other two beads are Green and Yellow in colour respectively.
The conditions given below must be followed while making the necklace.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)

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Striped Red and Striped Blue beads must always be put adjacent to each other.
Green and Yellow beads must always be put adjacent to each other.
No two beads of same colour should be put adjacent to each other.

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

38.

If none of the other two Red beads is to be put opposite the Striped Red bead then which of the
following statements can be true?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

39.

The Green bead is put opposite the Matt Red bead.


The Yellow bead is put opposite the Matt Red bead.
The Yellow bead is put opposite the Striped Blue bead.
The Yellow bead is put adjacent to the Striped Blue bead.

If one of the other two Red beads is to be put opposite the Striped Red bead then which of the
following statements can never be true?
(a) The Green bead is put opposite the Matt Red bead and the Yellow bead is put opposite the Matt
Blue bead.
(b) The Yellow bead is put opposite the Matt Red bead and the Green bead is put opposite the Matt
Blue bead.
(c) The Yellow bead is put opposite the Striped Blue bead and the Green bead is put opposite the
Sparkling Red bead.
(d) The Yellow bead is put opposite the Striped Blue bead and the Sparkling Red bead is put
opposite the Sparkling Blue bead.

40.

Given below are four sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized. From the
italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
The doctor advised that a glass of brandy at night may affect (A)/effect (B) his recovery.
He was actuated (A)/activated (B) by ambition.
My father is not averse (A)/adverse (B) to the idea of my studying abroad.
The witness was asked to indite (A)/indict (B) the reasons for his support of the plaintiff.
(a) ABAB

41.

(b) BBBA

(c) BAAA

(d) AAAB

Given below are four sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized. From the
italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
The statement is usually ascribed (A)/ prescribed (B) to Winston Churchill.
All aspirants (A)/ aspirators (B) to the title had to report by 9 a.m.
The novelist amended (A)/emended (B) the manuscript before sending it to his publisher.
The carpet will complement (A)/ compliment (B) my furniture.
(a) ABAB

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(b) AAAA

(c) AABB

(d) AABA

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

42.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
The quality of theatrically released films has been dropping so precipitously in recent years that the
Academy Awards are no longer a fair gauge of audiovisual entertainment. Several decades ago
audiences could expect a film such as The Social Network every week; now we are lucky to have
one or two a year. Add to this the fact that serious dramas have more or less migrated to television,
and its clear that the Oscars have become progressively less relevant.
(a) All long-form audiovisual entertainment, released on any distribution platform, should be eligible
for consideration, which of course would be a logistical nightmare for The Academy.
(b) Grown-up films and creative projects are over in the new era, and many are turning to long-form
television.
(c) Last year arguably the best male performance of the year (Al Pacino in You Dont Know Jack)
was not eligible for the Oscars because it was Made for TV.
(d) Besides, Made for TV movies would not in any way downgrade the specialness of theatrical
movies, if anything they would come as a wakeup call for all the movie studios.

43.

Given below are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s)
or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and usage. Then, choose the
most appropriate option.
1. Thanks to the coalition, we now have PCTs and hospitals that are confused, low in morale and
have no clear idea of their future.
2. What may seem good political win for anti-Tory forces at Westminster feels like mayhem on the
ground.
3. No responsible politician can afford to feel happy about the pause and the giant question mark
hanging around the structural future of the NHS.
4. Labour has to have their own plan, which advances their own thinking post-government.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) Only 4

44.

Vinod is about to start his preparation for BAT 2011. He has to study three subjects QA, LR and
VA. He has three books for QA (QA1, QA2 and QA3), three books for LR (LR1, LR2 and LR3) and
five books for VA (VA1, VA2, VA3, VA4 and VA5). He wants to arrange these books in a three-shelf
rack. The shelves are arranged vertically one on top of the other. The first and the second shelves of
the rack can accommodate 3 books each while the third shelf can accommodate 5 books. Vinod
wants to follow the conditions given below while arranging the books in the rack:
(i) The QA book(s) is/are always kept to the left of the book(s) of the other two subjects if they are
on the same shelf.
(ii) The LR book(s) is/are always kept to the right of the VA book(s) if they are on the same shelf.
(iii) There is exactly one shelf that does not contain any LR book.
(iv) The sum of book numbers in Shelf 1 is more than the sum of book numbers in Shelf 2 which in
turn is more than the sum of book numbers in Shelf 3.
Note: Book number refers to the number after the subject name. e.g. book number of both QA2 and
LR2 is 2, VA4 is 4 and VA5 is 5.

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10

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

Which of the following conditions if satisfied would give Vinod a possible arrangement for his books?
(a) All the books of a number are kept on the same shelf.
(b) No two books on the same shelf have the same number.
(c) On a shelf, a book with higher number is always kept to the right of a book with lower number.
(d) QA1 is placed on Shelf 1 and VA3 is placed on Shelf 2.
45.

Aman, Bharat, Chandu and Dev are four friends; no two among them have the same age. Aman is
older than Dev while Chandu is older than Aman. If Bharat is older than Dev, then who is the oldest
among the four?
(a) Chandu
(b) Bharat
(c) Either Aman or Chandu
(d) Either Bharat or Chandu

Directions for questions 46 to 48: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Marx maintains that the ruling ideology is always the ideology of the ruling class and that the set of ideas
and thought patterns existing in any epoch will in the final instance closely follow the material and
social relations of production. As soon as the surplus product emerges and class develops which has
control over that surplus, then that class will require that those who do the producing learn to accept the
rules of production and distribution.
Thus, in feudal society, for example, we will have feudal ideologies that emphasise hierarchy, God-given
positions in society, stability and the divine right of kings to rule and a religious form that bolsters those
requirements
The order that prevails will always be seen for extended periods of time as the natural law in which the
way things are is the way they should be. In bourgeois society the rules change. Stasis and hierarchy are
overthrown in the name of dynamism and innovation and a breaking down of restrictive practices and you
become a self-made man off to seek your fortune.
Where once the divine right of kings was seen as the natural law, it now becomes unnatural because it is
surplus to requirements and is superceded by the human right to remove the head of the king if necessary.
So, the rules may change, but they still have to be learned. However, this learning of the rules is not done
merely by repression but by the gradual inculcation of values.
Althusser, for example, describes these two functions as repressive and ideological state apparatuses.
The former is clear, but the latter is far more insidious. It is the way in which the prevailing rules of the game
become second nature to you and your obligations are turned into your desires.
Perhaps an unusual way of understanding this is through Kafkas Metamorphosis, perhaps the most
famous account ever written of a man who has turned into a beetle overnight. But the real strangeness of
the story is not the fact of the physical transformation but of what it represents. At one point Gregor Samsa
says of his family and his work life:
The fruits of his labour were transformed into the provision of money ... and he earned enough to meet the
expenses of the entire family and actually did so. They had just become used to it, the family as well as
Gregor, the money was received with thanks and given with pleasure, but that special warmth was missing.

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11

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

If this isnt Kafkas spin on Marxs line from the Communist Manifesto that The bourgeoisie has torn away
from the family its sentimental veil, and has reduced the family relation into a mere money relation then I
dont know what is. Gregors metamorphosis into a bug is the outward and inward transformation of the
need to earn money into his own picture of himself. This is alienation theory in a beetleshell. It is not that
he was poor and therefore suffering and needed to be kept down by a police state, but that the necessity
of having to work for others at a job he hates for an amorphous output which doesnt belong to him alienates
him from himself and from his labour power.
46.

The authors tone can be best described as


(a) Analytical
(b) Descriptive

(c) Critical

(d) Unbiased

47.

As per the content of the passage, which of the following statements is the author most likely to
agree with?
(a) The character (Gregor) has some idea of what is being done to him.
(b) The character (Gregor) gets alienated from himself and has no idea of what is being done to him.
(c) Alienation has brought a drastic change in the mindset of the character.
(d) Alienation is the normal psychological response of the character under the given conditions.

48.

The author is most likely to agree with which of the following?


(a) We get to learn a lot of new things with time and this leads to our growth as a human being.
(b) The ideas we have about society are not actually our own but are put there by a set of institutions
that have convinced us there is no other way to think about the world.
(c) We are not forced by anyone and gradually become more disciplined.
(d) Society plays a pivotal role in imparting good values.

Directions for questions 49 to 51: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Each of the four students Aman, Binay, Chaman and Dipin uses a distinct website among the four social
networking websites Basebook, Libibo, Dorkut and Bitter, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them
has some friends in his Friend List and no two of them have any common friend in their Friend Lists. None
of them is present in the Friend List of the other three. It is also known that:
(i)
The number of friends in the Friend List of each of the four students is less than 30.
(ii)
Aman uses Dorkut.
(iii)
The number of friends in the Friend List of Aman and Dipin are prime numbers. The sum of these two
prime numbers is 30.
(iv)
The number of friends in Chamans Friend List is a prefect square.
(v)
The student who uses Basebook has the least number of friends in his Friend List.
(vi)
Binay has 13 friends in his Friend List and he uses Libibo.
(vii) Chaman has the highest number of friends in his Friend List.
(viii) No two students have the same number of friends in their Friend Lists.
49.

What is the sum of the number of friends in the Friend Lists of Chaman and Aman?
(a) 44
(b) 32
(c) 48
(d) Cannot be determined

50.

For how many students can the exact number of friends and the social networking website used by
them be determined?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

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12

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

51.

What is the sum of the number of friends in the Friend Lists of the four students?
(a) 59
(b) 52
(c) 68
(d) Cannot be determined

Directions for questions 52 to 54: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
If you read only one book about the causes of the recent financial crisis, let it be Michael Lewis, The Big
Short.
Thats not because Lewis has put together the most comprehensive or authoritative analysis of all the
misdeeds and misjudgements and missed signals that led to the biggest credit bubble the world has
known. What makes his account so accessible is that he tells it through the eyes of the managers of three
small hedge funds and a Deutsche Bank bond salesman, none of whom youve ever heard of. All, however,
were among the first to see the folly and fraud behind the subprime fiasco, and to find ways to bet against
it when everyone else thought them crazy.
Nor would anyone including Lewis, Im sure claim this is an even-handed history that reflects the
differing views of investment bankers, rating-agency analysts and industry analysts, all of whom he holds
up to ridicule for their arrogance, their cynicism and their relentless incompetence.
Whats so delightful about Lewiss writing is how deftly he explains and demystifies how things really work
on Wall Street, even while creating a compelling narrative and introducing us to a cast of fascinating, alltoo-human characters. From their tales, we learn that Wall Street banks think nothing of stealing the
trading strategies of their clients and peddling them to other customers. We learn that the investment
bankers knew as early as 2006 about the rising default rate on subprime mortgages but engaged in
elaborate ruses to hide that reality from ratings agencies and investors. We learn that when investor
demand for subprime mortgages outstripped the supply, Wall Street filled the gap by creating synthetic
mortgage-backed securities whose performance would mirror that of the real thing.
For me, the most memorable chapter in Lewiss tale involves Michael Burrys struggle to keep his fund
alive in 2007 and early 2008 as long-time investors lost faith in his strategy to short the housing market
and began demanding their money back. Although home prices had begun to fall and mortgage defaults
were rising quickly, Wall Streets securitization machine had managed to prop up the price of mortgage
securities while forcing down the value of the bets Burry had placed against them. And even after the
market crashed and Burrys strategy was vindicated with a $720 million profit, not a single investor called
to say thanks.
There is nothing subtle about the dark portrait Lewis creates of the financial community. Through his lens,
all bond salesmen are out to cheat their customers, all top executives are clueless and all ratings analysts
are second-raters who could not get jobs in investment banks.
Even discounting for its generalizations and exaggeration and limited frame of reference, however, The Big
Short manages to give us the truest picture yet of what went wrong on Wall Street and why. At times,
it reads like a morality play, at other times like a modern-day farce. But as with any good play, its value lies
in the way it reveals character and motive and explores the cultural context in which the plot unfolds.

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13

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

52.

What is the primary concern of the author of this passage?


(a) To highlight the merits and demerits of the book The Big Short.
(b) To make the reader understand the subprime fiasco through the medium of the book.
(c) To present a comprehensive analysis of the book.
(d) To highlight the role of the financial community in the genesis of the subprime crisis.

53.

Why does the author feel that The Big Short is a book that a reader can connect with?
(a) It is a comprehensive and authoritative analysis of the recent economic crisis.
(b) It is a skillful analysis of the financial intricacies and the workings of the Wall Street.
(c) The book brings together a comprehensive perspective of bankers and analysts.
(d) The story is told through the accounts of characters that were able to see the crisis much before
others.

54.

According to the passage, which of the following is the main cause of the current economic crisis?
(a) Investment bankers knew about the rising default rate on subprime mortgages yet they overlooked
it and even hid this from ratings agencies and investors.
(b) The financial community is weak with clueless executives, bond salesmen who want to cheat
their customers, and incompetent ratings analysts.
(c) The overly aggressive lending practices of banks helped put millions of dollars into the home
mortgage business. When the real estate business collapsed, it snowballed and led to the
economic crisis.
(d) None of the above

Directions for questions 55 and 56: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Four friends Vikrant, Vikram, Jasneet and Saurabh were born in four different months January, March,
July and December of the same year, not necessarily in the same order. Each friend has a distinct
surname among Joshi, Singh, Gupta and Agarwal, not necessarily in the same order. It is also known that:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)

Vikrant is younger than Gupta.


Jasneet was not born in December.
Saurabh, who is not the youngest, was not born in March.
Joshi is not the youngest and was also not born in January.
Vikram was born before Vikrant but after Agarwal.
Agarwal was not born in January.

55.

Who among the four friends is the youngest?


(a) Vikrant Singh
(b) Vikram Gupta

56.

Page

(c) Vikrant Joshi

Who among the four friends was born in March?


(a) Saurabh Gupta
(b) Vikram Gupta
(c) Jasneet Agarwal

14

(d) Cannot be determined

(d) Cannot be determined

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

Directions for questions 57 to 59: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Since Biafra, humanitarianism has become the idea, and the practice, that dominates Western response
to other peoples wars and natural disasters; of late, it has even become a dominant justification for
Western war-making. It is remembered as it was lived, as a cause clbreJohn Lennon and Jean-Paul
Sartre both raised their fists for the Biafransand the food the West sent certainly did save lives. Yet a
moral assessment of the Biafra operation is far from clear-cut.
After the secessionist government was finally forced to surrender and rejoin Nigeria, in 1970, the predicted
genocidal massacres never materialized. Had it not been for the Wests charity, the Nigerian civil war
surely would have ended much sooner. Against the lives that the airlifted aid saved must be weighed all
those livestens of thousands, perhaps hundreds of thousandsthat were lost to the extra year and a half
of destruction. But the newborn humanitarian international hardly stopped to reflect on this fact. New crises
beckoned. The crisis caravan rolled on. Its mood was triumphalist, and to a large degree it remains so.
Michael Maren stumbled into the aid industry in the nineteen-seventies by way of the Peace Corps. In the
post-Vietnam world, the Peace Corps offered us an opportunity to forge a different kind of relationship with
the Third World, one based on respect, he writes. But he soon began to wonder how respectful it is to
send Western kids to tell the elders of ancient agrarian cultures how to feed themselves better. As he
watched professional humanitarians chasing contracts to implement policies whose harm they plainly
saw, he came to regard his colleagues as a new breed of mercenaries: soldiers of misfortune. Yet, David
Rieff notes, for better or worse, by the late 1980s humanitarianism had become the last coherent saving
ideal.
How is it that humanitarians so readily deflect accountability for the negative consequences of their actions?
Humanitarianism flourishes as an ethical response to emergencies not just because bad things happen in
the world, but also because many people have lost faith in both economic development and political
struggle as ways of trying to improve the human lot, the social scientist Craig Calhoun observes.
Humanitarianism appeals to many who seek morally pure and immediately good ways of responding to
suffering in the world. Or, as the Harvard law professor David Kennedy writes in The Dark Sides of Virtue
(2004), Humanitarianism tempts us to hubris, to an idolatry about our intentions and routines, to the
conviction that we know more than we do about what justice can be.
Maren, who came to regard humanitarianism as every bit as damaging to its subjects as colonialism, and
vastly more dishonest, takes a dimmer view: that we do not really care about those to whom we send aid,
that our focus is our own virtue. He quotes these lines of the Somali poet Ali Dhux: A man tries hard to help
you find your lost camels. He works more tirelessly than even you, but in truth he does not want you to find
them, ever.
57.

From the passage, what cant be inferred about Biafra?


(a) It is a justification for the West to wage war.
(b) The food sent by the West to Biafra helped save lives.
(c) The Wests charity only prolonged the civil war in Nigeria.
(d) A moral assessment of the Biafra operation is ambiguous.

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15

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

58.

Michael Maren call his colleagues Soldiers of misfortune because


(a) their philanthropic acts are rescue attempts directed at their own morality.
(b) they are only concerned with allegiances formed with the third world.
(c) they fight against human misery despite the harm involved in the process.
(d) they primarily work for their self benefit.

59.

Why does Maren quote the lines of Somali poet Ali Dhux?
(a) To draw an analogy between the humanitarians and the man who provides help in finding lost
camels.
(b) To highlight the hidden motive behind humanitarianism.
(c) To show humanitarians in poor light by comparing them with someone who does philanthropy
with an ulterior motive.
(d) To show that humanitarians are not concerned with the acts of their kindness.

60.

There are three balls one Red, one Yellow and one Blue. Each ball is to be placed in a box among
Box1, Box2 and Box3 such that there is exactly one ball in each of the three boxes. It is also known
that:
(i) If the Red ball is placed in Box1 then the Blue ball cannot be placed in Box3.
(ii) If the Yellow ball is placed in Box3 then the Blue ball cannot be placed in Box2.
(iii) If the Red ball is placed in Box3 then the Yellow ball cannot be placed in Box2.
(iv) If the Blue ball is placed in Box1 then the Yellow ball cannot be placed in Box3.
(v) If the Yellow ball is placed in Box1 then the Blue ball cannot be placed in Box3.
The Blue ball is placed in which box?
(a) Box1
(b) Box2

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16

(c) Box3

(d) Cannot be determined

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

Answers and Explanations


1

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

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Unproctored Mock-8 2012

1. b

2. d

We have to find the number of odd factors of N.


N = 24 33 54
So the number of odd factors
= 1 (3 + 1) (4 + 1) = 20
Sum of the ages of 30 people
= 30 40 = 1200 years
Sum of the ages of 30 people, two years ago
= 1200 (2 30) = 1140 years
Age of Kay, two years ago
= 11 2 = 9 years
So the sum of the ages of the remaining 29 people
= 1140 9 = 1131 years.
Hence, the average age of 29 people

Area of C1 (in sq. units) = (9 ) = 81.


2

Length of hypotnuese of T2 = 2 9 = 18 units


2

18
So the answer = 81 : 540
51
= 3.8 : 1 (approximately)

6. a

1131
=
= 39 years
29
3. c

Squaring both sides in the above equation, we get


y2 = 3 + y
y2 y 3 = 0

Points lying on the line 3x = 2y are


(4, 6); (2, 3); (0, 0); (2, 3); (4, 6); (6, 9) etc.
Among these points, it can be clearly seen that the
point closest to Q (7, 5) will be either (4, 6) or (6, 9).
Let P be (4, 6). So PQ =

(3 )2 + (1)2

= 10

+ 1 13
2
But the value of y cannot be negative.

Let P be (6, 9). So PQ =

(1)2 + (4)2

= 17

Hence, y =

y=

7. d

Had there been no stoppages, the bus would have


covered 108 km in one hour. But due to the stoppages
it covered only 90 km.
Running at 108 km/h the bus would cover 90 km in

The figure would look like:

24

51
T2
C1
45

The values 24, 45 and 51 form a Pythagorean triplet


as 242 + 452 = 512.
Let the sides of T1 (in units) be 24, 45 and 51.
Hence, the inradius of T1 (in units) will be

1
24 45

2
=9
= =
24
+ 45 + 51
s

Water in the first solution =

3
l
4

15
l
8

Total quantity of water in the mixture =

21
l
8

21 19
l
=
8
8
Hence, the required ratio = 21 : 19
So the total quantity of milk = 5

8. d

T1

1 + 13
.
2

Water in the second solution =

90
5
= th of an hour or 50 minutes.
108 6
Hence, on an average, the bus stops for 10 minutes
every hour.
5. c

Let y = 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + L
y = 3+y

Hence P (4, 6) is the required point.


a2 + b2 + ab = 16 + 36 + 24 = 76
4. b

18
18
Area of T2 = Area of T1 = 540 unit2
51
51

f(1) = 1
f(2) = 2f(1) + 5 = 7
f(3) = 2f(2) + 5 = 19
Hence, the sequence is:
1, 7, 19, 43, 91....
i.e. f(2) = f(1) + 6 20
f(3) = f(2) + 6 21
f(4) = f(3) + 6 22
f(5) = f(4) + 6 23
So f(40) = f(39) + 6 238
Hence, f(40) f(39) = 6 238
Note: f(n) = 6 2(n 1) 5

This is also the radius of the circle C1. Since T2 is a


right angled triangle inscribed in C1, the radius of C1 is
also half the hypotnuese of T2.

Page

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

9. c

10. c

Since the minute hand needs to overlap with one of


the sixty line segments, it can be concluded that the
time must be of the type X : 12Y, where X is a natural
number less than or equal to 12 and Y is whole number
less than or equal to 5. Let us also assume that at
12 Noon both the hands were at the 60th line segment.
At X : 12Y P.M., the line segment with which the hour
hand overlaps will be the (5X + Y)th. Also, the line
segment with which the minute hand overlaps will be
the (12Y)th.
According to the information given:
5X + Y = 12Y + 1
5X = 11Y + 1
The above equation is satisfied only for
X = 9 and Y = 4.
Hence, the answer should be 9: 48 P.M.

Hence, area = 3 2 1 6 = 6
Semi-perimeter (iii) =

22
= 11
2

Hence, area = 11 6 3 2 = 6 11

19
= 9.5
2
Note that the two triangles whose semi-perimeter is
not an integer clearly wont have the area as an integer.
Hence, only one triangle is a p-triangle among the
given four.
Semi-perimeter of (iv) =

14. d

Let the total work be of 24 units.


One day work of Saral = 4 units.
One day work of Himanshu = 3 units.
One day work of Saral, Himanshu and Abhishek
together = 12 units.
One day work of Abhishek = 12 (3 + 4) = 5 units.
Hence, the required ratio = 4 : 3 : 5

Let H1, H2, H3 and H4 be the husbands and W1, W2,


W3 and W4 be their wives respectively.
The number of ways in which H1, H2, H3 and H4 can
sit at the table is (4 1)! = 3! = 6.
Only two arrangements are possible for each of the
above 6 cases (as illustrated by the figure given below
for one of the cases):
H1

For questions 11 and 12:


Let the total money spent in 2006 be x and the money spent in
2007 be y.

W 3 /W 4

W 2 /W 3

H2

H4
W 1 /W 2

W 4 /W 1

11. d

For India: 12% of x = 15% of y 4x = 5y

5y
= 20% of y
4
Let the percentage of money spent in China in the
year 2007 be p.
p% of y = 25% of 20% of y
p=5

H3

So the answer = 2 6 = 12

For China in 2006, 16% of x = 16%

12. a

The percentage of money spent in Britain, America


and Africa together in 2006 = 60%
The percentage of money spent in Britain, America
and Africa together in 2007 = 70%
60% of x 70% of y = 32

5y
70% of y = 32
4
5% of y = 32
y = 640 dollars
The percentage of money spent in Australia in the
year 2007 = 100% 90% = 10% of 640 = 64 dollars.
60% of

13. a

Page

15. c

Let x = 520
Taking log on both sides
log10x = 20 log105 = 20 log10

10
2

log10x = 20 [log10 10 log10 2]

= 20 [ 1 0.3010]
= 20 0.6990
= 13.98
x = 1013.98
Hence, the number of digits in x is 14.

If all the lengths are in units and the areas are in sq.
units:
Semi-perimeter of (i) =

15
= 7.5
2

Semi-perimeter of (ii) =

12
=6
2

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

16. b

The completed table is given below:


Mobile
Handset

Number of
users

Jokia B 56

11860

Number of users as a
percentage of the total
population of the city
2.19%

DTC 883

5470

1.01%

Samjung Rock

22366

4.13%

Millimax Bong

14568

2.69%

Total

54264

10.02%

18. c

19. a

Since 10.02% of the population uses the mentioned


mobile handsets, the population not using any of these
handsets is 89.98% of the total population.
10.02% of the total population = 54264
89.98% of the total population = 487293
17. b

70

B
D

20. b

From Statement A:
The sides of ABC are consecutive multiples of 5.
Let 5n be the smallest side such that 5n + 5
(n + 1) + 5(n + 2) = 60. Solving for n, we get sides of
ABC as 15 units, 20 units and 25 units respectively.
Also, Angle ADB = 90, because BC is tangent to the

B
100 x

Let AB = 100 units


Now, D2 = 702 + (100 x)2 and D2 = x2 + 402
Hence, x2 + 402 = 702 + 1002 + x2 200x
200x = 4900 + 10000 1600
200x = 13300
x = 66.5

also given that perimeter of ABC is 60 units.

D
40

Following figure shows ABC with circle having AD


as diameter. Let the centre of circle be at Point O. For
finding the circumference of the circle with centre at
O we need to determine the length of the line AD. It is

Let the total number of seats be x.


The number of seats won by party A = x 19
The number of seats won by party B = x 12
The number of seats won by party C = x 10
The number of seats won by party D = x 16
x 19 + x 12 + x 10 + x 16 = x
4x x = 57
3x = 57
x = 19

Let the total capacity of tank be 12 units.


The volume filled by an inlet pipe in one hour
= 3 units
The volume emptied by an outlet pipe in one hour
= 4 units
One hour work of the 4 inlet pipes = 12 units
and one hour work of the 2 outlet pipes = 8 units
So one hour work of all the 6 pipes opened together
= 12 8 = 4 units
Hence, the tank will be full in =

12
= 3 hours.
4

circle at Point D. Thus the longest side of ABC is BC


whose length is 25 units. Now the area of triangle

ABC = 0.5 AB AC = 0.5 AD BC. We can


determine AD and the radius of the circle and hence
its circumference. So Statement A alone can answer
the question.
From Statement B:
Since all the sides of ABC are integers, the sides AB
and AC are of lengths 15 and 20 units. (Same values
as Statement A). Hence, Statement B alone can answer
the question.

Page

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

21. c

q = 2p and r = 2q
p, q and r are in G. P. with common ratio 2.

C
E

25. b

The Unhealthiness Index is maximum for the year 2003


and the value is

=
26. c

CED = ABC = ABD

ABDE is a cyclic quadrilateral.


Hence, DBE = EAD .

27. d

Also, BAD = 180o ADB ABD = 20o.

7804 5700
100 = 36.9%
5700

For questions 28 and 29:


E m p loye e= 10 0
C h in ese

1
Hence, p(R) = p(B) =
2
23. c

As per the given data (using graph information), the


number of patients in 2006 = 1,95,093. The number of
patients in 2007 will be 1,95,093 0.6
= 1,17,056. To have an Unhealthiness Index of 15, the

1,17,056
15
= 7804. Therefore the percentage increase needed
in the number of hospitals will be

Hence, DBE = DAE = 20o.

The number of red balls initially in the box is the same


as the number of blue balls. None of the ten operations
involved after this favour any particular colour between
the two. So the probability of the final ball picked being
red (p(R)) must be the same as that of being blue
(p(B)).
Thus, p(R) = p(B) and the ball picked should be either
red or blue, which means that p(R) + p(B) = 1.

95,596
= 13.86
6897

number of hospitals needed will be =

EAD = BAC BAD = 40o 20o = 20o.

22. d

The number of patients in 2008 = The number of


patients in 2006 (0.7)2 which comes out to be 95,596.
The number of hospitals in 2008 will be
= 5700 (1.1)2 = 6897
Therefore, Unhealthiness Index =

AED = 180 CED = 180 DBA


Hence, AED + DBA = 180

2,00,000 (1.2)(0.85)(1.1)(1.2)
= 51.8
5200

In dian
5x

Let d m be the minimum possible distance. For minimum


possible distance, the ant will travel along two faces
and d must be a represented by a straight line as
shown below:

5x

y
x

5x

1 00 1 8xy

10

C o ntine nta l
5

Hence, d = (5 + 5)2 + 102

The number of employees who are not chefs


= 100 18x y

= 200 m

28. b

24. b

(7)p = (7) q = (7) r


Hence,

Page

1 2 4
= =
p q r

100 18x y = 40
and y = 6
18x = 54
x=3
The number of chefs who cant make Continental
= 15 + 15 + 3 = 33

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

29. c

100 18x y > 5x


23x + y < 100
The maximum possible values of x is 4.
Hence, the maximum possible number of chefs who
can make exactly one cuisine = 15 4 = 60

30. c

SB is in Amerika and the Afrikan country is not ruled by


President Gadazzi. We need to find the President of
the Acian country.

34. d

(a) Get across means to communicate or transmit a


message/joke etc.
(b)Get around means to circulate or spread.
(c) Getting at somebody means to criticize or
persistently nag.
(d) is wrong - the expression is get away not get
off.

35. c

(a) Hanging around means wait around idly.


(b) Hesitate to do something because of fear etc.It
means to hold back.
(c) is wrong. Hung back after the lecture is not
idiomatically correct english, though it is used as a
slang. The correct expression is hung behind which
means to stop or remain behind.
(d) Hang on to something means(here) not to give or
sell.

From Statement B:
Since UJA is in Afrika, Bakistan is in Acia. But this
statement doesnt give any information through which
the President of Bakistan can be determined. Hence,
this statement alone cannot answer the question.

36. a

Parochial means narrow-minded and having only a


limited perspective. Diversity represents an idea which
is opposite to a parochial perspective. Therefore,
someone who celebrates diversity would infuriate a
parochial person.

Combining Statement A and Statement B:


Bakistan is in Acia and its President is the friend of
President Lafen. Hence, we can say that the President
of the Acian country i.e. Bakistan is definitely not Lafen.

37. b

Elicit means to draw forth or bring out. It fits the first


blank well. The beethoven quartet is compared with a
tragedy and like a tragedy it brings pleasure. Therefore

From Statement A:
Bakistans President is either Gadazzi or Caspro. But
this statement doesnt tell anything about whether
Bakistan is in Afrika or Acia. Similarly, no new information
is given about the Presidents. Hence, this statement
alone cannot answer the question.

31. b

32. d

33. b

Page

The sequence should start with a general statement


sentence D presents a situation, a general viewpoint.
E will not be a good start point, because sentence D
introduces the viewpoint that there can be political
influences on an organisation. This is also the problem
with B as a starting sentence. In fact, B goes on to
reiterate the point made in D. DB is a link. EA is also a
link as A elaborates on the point made in E. C ends the
sequence by stating the required understanding of
the situation under discussion. The answer is (b).
A is the starting sentence because it introduces a
general idea. E goes on to elaborate on this idea, making
AE the starting link. Another way to solve this question
is to look for the ending sentence. D is the best way to
end the paragraph as it uses the demonstrative and
points to the evidence that has been presented.
Sentence B discusses the clues that are presented in
the chemical make up of ice and so D fits in after this
sentence. All the other sentences also point to
evidence of climate change and so D should not only
come after B but should also end the entire sequence.
The answer is (d).

it cannot be sad.
38. c

If no other Red bead is to be placed opposite the


Striped Red bead then the possible arrangements are:

Sparkling B lue /
M att B lue

Strip ed
Red

Sparkling R e d/
M att R e d

M att B lue /
Sparkling B lue

Strip ed
B lue

M att R e d/
Sparkling R e d

Ye llow /
G re en

G re en /
Ye llow

The paragraph is about the resistance to genuine


creativity. The starting point should be D as it introduces
the argument. E and A are linked. E also follows D
because it presents an additional problem of
downgrading creativity. B ends the sequence as it
sums up the argument of the author. The answer is
(b).

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

Sparkling B lue /
M att B lue

Strip ed
Red

Sparkling R e d/
M att R e d

Ye llow /
G re en

Strip ed
B lue

Ye llow /
G re en

M att R e d/
Sparkling R e d

G re en /
Ye llow

M att B lue /
Sparkling B lue

G re en /
Ye llow

Sparkling B lue /
M att B lue

If one of the other two Red beads is to be placed


opposite the Striped Red bead then the possible
arrangements are:
Strip e d
Red

Sparkling B lue /
M att B lue

G re en /
Ye llow

M att R e d/
Sparkling R e d

Strip e d
Red
Sparkling B lue /
M att B lue

M att B lue /
Sparkling B lue

Page

M att R e d/
Sparkling R e d

Sparkling R e d/
M att R e d

M att B lue /
Sparkling B lue

Effect and affect are often confused because of their


similar spelling and pronunciation. The
verb affect usually has to do with pretense
<she affected a cheery disposition despite feeling
down.> The more common affect denotes having an
effect or influence <the weather affected everyones
mood.> The verb effect goes beyond mere influence;
it refers to actual achievement of a final result <the
new administration hopes to effect a peace
settlement.> The uncommon noun affect, which has a
meaning relating to psychology, is also sometimes
mistakenly used for the very common effect. In
ordinary use, the noun you will want is effect <waiting
for the new law to take effect> <the weather had
an effect on everyones mood.> Activated means to
make a thing active (make it start working). Actuate
means to motivate. Here the word to be used is
actuate. Averse means to be unwilling and reluctant.
Adverse means opposed. Here the word to be used
is averse. Indite means to make up, compose and put
down in writing. Indict means to charge with a fault or
offence: Criticise, Accuse.

41. d

Ascribed means attributed to. Prescribe means to tell


what is to be done/ or what medicine to take. Aspirant
is a person who has a strong desire to achieve a
position of power or to win a competition; an aspirator
is a medical term. It is a device used for sucking out
liquid from a persons body. Emend means to correct
usually by textual alterations. Amend means to change
or modify for the better. Complement means
to complete or enhance by providing something
additional. Compliment means to express esteem,
respect, affection, or admiration to someone.

Strip e d
B lue

Sparkling B lue /
M att B lue

Strip e d
B lue

G re en /
Ye llow

Sparkling R e d/
M att R e d

M att R e d/
Sparkling R e d

40. c

M att R e d/
Sparkling R e d

Ye llow /
G re en

Strip ed
B lue

Therefore, option (d) can never be true.

Therefore, only option (c) can be true.


39. d

Strip ed
Red

Ye llow /
G re en

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

42. c

(a) doesnt continue in the same vein as the paragraph,


it is not able to provide a link between the lack of
relevance of the Oscars and the consideration of all
forms of audio-visual entertainment for the Oscars.
(b) assumes that the Oscars are losing relevance
because of the decline in grown-up films and creative
projects. It fails to acknowledge other possible
reasons. (d) talks about Made for TV movies, which
havent been discussed till now; also it fails to provide
the link between the Oscars and the Made for TV
movies. (c) elaborates why the Oscars are becoming
irrelevant by bringing in the example of a performance
in a Made for TV movie that should have been
considered for the Oscars but was not considered.
Hence, it is the correct option.

46. a

The author analyses the theory of Karl Marx about


ideologies and alienation. He uses Kafkas
Metamorphosis as a tool to analyse Karl Marxs theory.
Therefore, his tone is analytical.

47. b

In bourgeois society the rules change and the learning


of the rules is not done merely by repression but by
the gradual inculcation of values. Althusser, for
example, describes these two functions as repressive
and ideological state apparatuses. The former is
clear, but the latter is far more insidious. It is the way
in which the prevailing rules of the game become
second nature to you and your obligations are turned
into your desires. So, you pull your socks and get into
the process of earning money for your family. Perhaps
an unusual way of understanding this is through
metamorphosis. Gregors metamorphosis into a bug is
the outward and inward transformation of the need to
earn money into his own picture of himself. This is
alienation theory in a beetle shell. Gregor gets alienated
from himself but he is not aware of this. (a) is incorrect
as it says that the man has some idea of what the
bourgeois society is doing to him. (He has idea about
what he is doing for his family but no idea of what the
bourgeois society is making him do.) Alienation is not
the cause but one of the effects of the drastic change
that the bourgeois society has brought about on the
mans mind. So (c) is incorrect. Author does not talk or
imply about whether this alienation is a normal or
abnormal response. Hence, (b) is the correct option.
The ruling class make us learn its rules by repression
as well as by gradually making its rules a part of our
nature and turning our obligations into our desires. So
the ideas that we have in our mind are insinuated by
the society(they are not ours). So the author is most
likely to agree with (b).

43. b

The sentence 1 is correct. As win is a countable


noun, the correction in 2 is a good political win. Hang
around which means to spend a lot of time with
someone is incorrectly used in 3. The correction should
be hanging over. If a threat or doubt hangs over a
place or a situation, it exists (for example:Uncertainty
again hangs over the project). There is a subject-verb
agreement error in 4. It should be Labour has to have
its own plan which advances its own thinking postgovernment.

44. d

The maximum possible sum of book numbers for shelf


1 is 12 and minimum possible sum of book numbers for
shelf 3 is 7.
Using option (a) there are no arrangements possible
because if all the books of a number are kept on same
shelf then the maximum possible sum of book numbers
for shelf 1 can be 9 and the sum of book numbers for
either of the other two shelves will be higher than 9.
This will contradict condition (iv).

48. b

Using option (b) there are no arrangements possible


as at least one of the shelves will have two books of
the same number.

For questions 49 to 51:

Using option (c) there are no arrangements possible.


Using option (d), one of the possible arrangements is:

45. d

Page

Site
Dorkut

Number of
friends
23/19
13

Binay

Libibo

Shelf 1

QA 1 VA 4 VA 5

Chaman

Bitter

25

Shelf 2

QA 3 VA 3 LR 3

Dipin

Basebook

7/11

Shelf 3

QA 2 VA 1 VA 2 LR 1 LR 2

Let the age (in years) of Aman, Bharat, Chandu and


Dev be a, b, c and d respectively.
Aman is older than Dev and Chandu is older than
Aman. So c > a > d.
Since Bharat is older than Dev, either Bharat or Chandu
is the oldest among the four.

Student Name
Aman

49. d

The sum of the number of friends of Chaman and


Aman cannot be determined.

50. b

The exact number of friends can be determined for


only two of the students.

51. c

The total number of friends = 30 + 13 + 25 = 68.

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

52. c

(a) is negated as highlighting only the merits and


demerits is not the primary objective of the author. The
author does not even intend to make the readers
understand the subprime crisis. His purpose is to
comprehensively analyse the book The Big Short.
Hence, (c) is the correct option.

53. d

The word accessible in the following lines, What


makes his account so accessible is that he tells it
through the eyes of the managers of three small hedge
fundshowever, were among the first to see the
folly and fraud behind the subprime fiasco, refers to
something capable of being understood or appreciated.
These lines clearly indicate that a reader can connect
with the book as it tells the story through the accounts
of characters that were able to see the crisis much
before others.

54. d

57. a

Refer to the line, John Lennon and Jean-Paul


Sartrethe food the West sent certainly did save
lives, which supports (b). Refer to the line, Had it not
beenthe Nigerian civil war surely would have ended
much sooner, which supports (c). Refer to the line,
Yet a moral assessment of the Biafra operation is far
from clear-cut, which supports (d). However (a)
cannot be inferred by the passage.

58. d

The author uses the term soldiers of misfortune instead


of the proper expression soldiers of fortune for
mercenaries- in his view humanitarian aid workers
are like mercenaries ready to fight/ work for anyone
who pays them-not really inspired by the spirit of
charity/sympathy etc. Hence, the correct answer is
(d).

59. b

Maren quotes the lines of Somali poet Ali Dhux to reveal


the truth behind humanitarianism. Maren does draw a
parallel between humanitarians and the man who
provides help in finding lost camels in order to highlight
that in both the cases there is some hidden motive
involved Although the work done in both cases seems
philanthropic. The aim of the author is not to show
humanitarians in poor light. Hence (c) is incorrect. (d)
nowhere gets mentioned or suggested in the passage.

60. b

The following six cases of distribution are possible:

Although (a) and (b) have been mentioned in the


passage, they are only presented as elements of the
economic crisis. (c) has not been mentioned in the
passage. The main cause of the recent enomic crises
cannot be identified from the passage.

For questions 55 and 56:


From statements (ii) and (iii), it can be inferred that neither
Jasneet nor Saurabh was born in December. It is also given in
statement (v) that Vikram was born before Vikrant. Hence,
Vikrant mustve been born in December and is the youngest.
Statements (i), (iv) and (v) collectively suggest that the surname
of Vikrant must be Singh. It is also known that Agarwal was
not born in January. The following case arises on the basis of
the above conclusions:
January

March
Agarwal

July

December

Vikram Vikrant Singh

Statement (v) indicates that the month in which Agarwal was


born was March. Further Analysis leads to the following table.

January

March

July

December

Saurabh
Gupta

Jasneet
Agarw al

Vikram
Joshi

Vikrant
Singh

Box1

Box2

Case 1

Box3

Red

Yellow

Blue

Case 2

Red

Blue

Yellow

Case 3

Blue

Yellow

Red

Case 4

Blue

Red

Yellow

Case 5

Yellow

Red

Blue

Case 6

Yellow

Blue

Red

Statements (i) to (v), in that order, reject cases 1 to 5.


Hence, the only case possible for distribution is
Case 6.

55. a
56. c

Page

Unproctored Mock-8 2012

Unproctored Mock-9 2012


Section - I
1.

A right circular cylindrical can of base radius 24 cm and height 100 cm is used to carry sand to a
construction site. How many such cans will be required to completely fill a circular field of radius
20 m with 18 cm thick layer of sand?
(a) 1250
(b) 1000
(c) 2000
(d) 500

2.

P = b2c2 ac bd, where a, b, c and d, in that order, are four consecutive natural numbers (a < b).
Which of the following statements is correct?

3.

(a)

P is always a prime number.

(b)

P is always a rational number, though not necessarily prime.

(c)

P can be rational or irrational depending on the numbers.

(d)

P is always an irrational number.

A solid cube, with edge of length 16 cm, is divided into two parts by passing a plane from one face
of the cube to the opposite face (see the figure given below). If EI = HJ = BK = CL = 2 cm, then by
what percentage is the sum of the surface areas of the two parts more than the surface area of the
cube?
H
E

G
F

I
L

D
A

(a) 16.67%

4.

(b) 20.83%

(A B) = ( A B )

1
2

C
B

(c) 41.67%

(d) 50.00%

A 2
and
B

(A $ B) =

(A B) 2
1
A 2

, where [x] is the greatest integer less than or equal to x.

(A B) (A $ B)
. [Given: A B > 0 ]
Find the value of
(A B) $ (A $ B)

(a) A B

Page

(b) A $ B

(c) A B

A
(d)
B
Unproctored Mock-9 2012

5.

Ten workers started a job and worked on it for 10 days. Eleventh day onwards, a new worker joined
them every day till the job was finished. It took exactly 20 days to finish the entire job. The same job
has to be done starting with the minimum possible number of workers when it is known that a
worker will quit the job every day after the first day. How many days will it take to finish the job in
such a manner?
(a) 23
(b) 22
(c) 19
(d) 17

6.

A man, while driving to his office, finds three traffic signals on his way. The probability that the traffic
5 5
3
,
and
respectively.
8 6
5
What is the probability that he finds at least one traffic light on his way which is not red?

light is red when he reaches the first, second and third traffic signal is

(a)

3
8

(b)

11
16

(c)

5
16

(d)

5
8

7.

a, b, c and d are four positive real numbers such that a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 = 100. What is the maximum
possible value of the sum of a, b, c and d?
(a) 30
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) None of these

8.

What digit does a represent, if


35! = 10333147966386144929a66651337523200000000?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 2

(d) 1

9.

Sameer and Sumer started running from the same point in opposite directions on a circular track of
length 120 m. Their speeds are 20 m/s and 40 m/s respectively. After every second, Sameer increases his speed by 2 m/s whereas Sumer decreases his speed by 2 m/s. How many times would
they have met on the track by the time Sumer comes to rest?
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) None of these

10.

P is a point outside a circle with center O and radius 6 units, such that OP = 10 units. Tangents are
drawn from P to the circle touching it at M and N (see the figure given below). The line segment
OP cuts the circle at point C and the tangent drawn to the circle at C meets PM and PN at points
A and B respectively. What is the length (in units) of the inradius of triangle ABP?

M
A
O

C
B
N

(a) 1.50

Page

(b) 1.67

(c) 1.73

(d) 2.00

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

Directions for questions 11 to 13: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The break-up of the financial budget of a country called Chaupatland for FY 2010-11 is represented by the
pie charts given below. Pie chart A represents Budgeted Revenue and pie chart B represents Budgeted
Expenditure.

Recovery of
Loans
1%

Other Receipts
4%

Planned Revenue
Account
21%

Planned Capital
Account
4%

Non-Planned
Capital Account
?

Non-Tax
Revenue
19%
Tax
Revenue
76%
Chart A

Interest Payment
?
Chart B

Non Planned
Revenue Account
53%

Budgeted Revenue was less than Budgeted Expenditure by Rs. 625 thousand crores. Interest Payment
exceeded Non-Planned Capital Account by 12% of Budgeted Expenditure. Non-Tax Revenue was
Rs. 285 thousand crores less than Tax Revenue.
11.

The difference between Budgeted Expenditure and Budgeted Revenue was what percentage of
Budgeted Revenue?
(a) 120%
(b) 125%
(c) 25%
(d) 20%

12.

By how much did the sum of Planned Revenue Account and Planned Capital Account exceed
Non-Tax Revenue?
(a) Rs. 281.25 thousand crores
(b) Rs. 236.25 thousand crores
(c) Rs. 186.25 thousand crores
(d) Rs. 88.25 thousand crores

13.

In FY 2011-12, if Budgeted Revenue is increased by 52% over that of the previous year, then what
will be the new percentage share of Tax Revenue in Budgeted Revenue?
(a) 50%
(b) 76%
(c) 56%
(d) Cannot be determined

14.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Q. What is the remainder when the number N = xxxxxxxxx (each digit of N is the same i.e. x)
is divided by 13?
A. N has 18n + 6 digits, where n is a natural number.
B. The value of x is 7.

Page

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

15.

In a ballot process, 900 votes more were polled in favour of a resolution than were polled against it.
It was also noticed that the number of votes polled against the resolution was 30 percent of the total
number of votes polled. If all the votes polled were valid and each vote was either in favour of the
resolution or against it, find the total number of votes polled.
(a) 1150
(b) 3400
(c) 2000
(d) 2250

16.

A group of students is to be divided into some rows such that all the rows have an equal number of
students. When 7 students are put in each row, 3 students are left; when 8 students are put in each
row, 5 students are left; and when 9 students are put in each row, 7 students are left. If 12 students
are put in each row, then how many students will be left?
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7

17.

Five hundred students appeared in an examination which comprises three subjects Physics,
Chemistry and Mathematics. The Venn diagram given below shows the number of students who
failed in one or more subjects. What percentage of students passed in at least two of the three
subjects?

P hysics

12

35
10

70

C hem istry

12

55
M athem atics
(a) 70.6%
18.

(c) 60.2%

(d) 92.2%

The letters of the English alphabet, in the order A to Z, are made to represent 26 numbers which are
in Arithmetic Progression. The sum of the numbers representing A, C and E is 36 while that of A, C,
E and G is 60. What is the sum of the numbers representing B, D, F and H?
(a) 96

Page

(b) 55.4%

(b) 66

(c) 72

(d) 84

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

Directions for questions 19 and 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the table given below.
Year

1951

1961

1971

1981

1991

1. Full Time Child Workers


Census data based estimates
13387144 14469775 10664018 11195544 12669909
(0-14 Yrs.)
NSS data based estimates
11339526 13777443 16330000 16166330 13950225
(5-14 Yrs.)
2. Non-workers & Non-students
(5-14 Yrs.)
Census data based estimates
MHRD & NSS data based
estimates
3. Child Marginal workers
Census estimates (1981 and
1991)
4. Estimates of total child
workers

49700129 64914609 89482123 89541313 97659410


52997224 61123492 86092259 77352410 94554833
NA

NA

NA

2445329 10498822

Census data based estimates

13387144 15469775 16153985 18340873 23161013

NSS data based estimates

11339526 15299910 16330000 18611659 23449047

19.

In Census data based estimates (0-14 Yrs.), which year saw the maximum percentage change in
Full Time Child Workers as compared to the previous Census?
(a) 1961
(b) 1971
(c) 1981
(d) 1991

20.

In Non-workers & Non-students (5-14 Yrs.) category, the two estimates are based on Census and
MHRD & NSS respectively. For which year is the absolute difference between the two estimates the
highest?
(a) 1951
(b) 1961
(c) 1971
(d) 1981

21.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Q. Four people Ram, Shyam, Gopal and Sameer are sitting at a circular table not necessarily in
the given order. Who is sitting opposite Sameer?
A. Ram is sitting to the immediate left of Sameer.
B. Gopal is sitting to the immediate right of Shyam.

Page

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

22.

There are three water-alcohol solutions A, B and C whose alcohol concentrations are 50%, 60% and
70% respectively. x ml of A, (x + 2) ml of B and (x + 3) ml of C are mixed. If the alcohol concentration
of the resultant mixture is 65%, then x lies in the range
(a) 0.1 to 0.5
(b) 0.5 to 0.9
(c) 0.9 to 1.4
(d) 1.4 to 1.9

23.

The pages of a book are numbered 1 to n, where n is a natural number. The total number of times the
digit 3 is used while printing all the page numbers is 184. What is the value of n?
(a) 432
(b) 430
(c) 431
(d) Cannot be determined

24.

A function f(x) is defined for all real values of x as f(x) = ax2 + bx + 1. It is also known that
f(5) = f(k) = 0, where k is not equal to 5. If a < 0, then which of the following is definitely correct?
(a) b < 0
(b) b > 0
(c) k < 0
(d) k > 0

Directions for questions 25 to 27: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The table given below shows the marks obtained by 20 students of a school in their annual exam. The
Performance Score of a student is calculated as:
Performance Score = Academic Score + 3 Extra Curricular Score

Page

Name

Gender

Academic Score

Vikrant
Saurabh
Kaushik
Meenal
Manmeet
Vikram
Manjari
Asmita
Mohit
Pavan
Lokesh
Pranab
Mudit
Amit
Maneet
Suresh
Puneet
Visakha
Renuka
Santosh

M
M
M
F
M
M
F
F
M
M
F
M
M
F
M
M
M
F
F
M

73
70
46
46
61
78
30
32
68
58
67
32
54
74
47
49
33
57
59
40

Extra Curricular
Score
10
12
7
6
4
10
16
6
15
3
6
8
12
11
19
19
12
12
3
9

Stage of Education
Secondary
Senior Secondary
Primary
Primary
Primary
Secondary
Primary
Primary
Senior Secondary
Secondary
Secondary
Secondary
Senior Secondary
Primary
Primary
Secondary
Secondary
Senior Secondary
Primary
Senior Secondary

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

The school calculates Happy Growth Index for every student to determine the relative happiness of its
students. Students are classified as either High or Low on Happy Growth Index based on the criteria shown
in the table given below.
Gender Stage of Education
Primary
Primary
Secondary
Male
Secondary
Senior Secondary
Senior Secondary
Primary
Primary
Secondary
Female
Secondary
Senior Secondary
Senior Secondary

Performance Score
70 PS 100
PS < 70 or PS > 100
75 PS 107
PS < 75 or PS > 107
85 PS 110
PS < 85 or PS > 110
60 PS 90
PS < 60 or PS > 90
70 PS 95
PS < 70 or PS > 95
75 PS 100
PS < 75 or PS > 100

Happy Growth Index


High
Low
High
Low
High
Low
High
Low
High
Low
High
Low

25.

How many students are Low on Happy Growth Index at Primary Stage of Education?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

26.

What is the ratio of the number of male students at Senior Secondary Stage who are High on Happy
Growth Index to the number of female students at Primary Stage who are High on Happy Growth
Index?
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 1 : 3
(d) 4 : 3

27.

How many female students whose Academic Score is less than 50 have the same Happy Growth
Index as that of Renuka?
(a) 1

28.

(b) 4

(c) 3

p, q, r and s are positive real numbers such that q =

(d) 2

p+r
, s = p q and r2 = s2. Which of the
2

following is definitely true?


(a) p =

3q
2

(b) p =

3q
2

(c) q =

3p
2

(d) q =

3p
2

29.

If p is a prime number and w, x, y, z are four natural numbers whose sum is less than p, then
(w + x + y + z)p (wp + xp + yp + zp) is always divisible by
(c) p
(d) p + 1
(a) p 1
(b) p2

30.

If x, y and z are whole numbers such that x y, then how many solutions are possible for the
equation x + y + z = 36?
(a) 361
(b) 323

Page

(c) 382

(d) 342

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

Section II
Directions for questions 31 to 33: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose
the most appropriate answer to each question.
We are our narratives has become a popular slogan. We refers to our selves, in the full-blooded personconstituting sense. Narratives refers to the stories we tell about our -selves and our exploits in settings as
trivial as cocktail parties and as serious as intimate discussions with loved ones. We express some in
speech. Others we tell silently to ourselves, in that constant little inner voice. The full collection of ones
internal and external narratives generates the self we are intimately acquainted with. Our narrative selves
continually unfold.
State-of-the-art neuro-imaging and cognitive neuropsychology both upholds the idea that we create our
selves through narrative. Based on a half-centurys research on split-brain patients, neuroscientist Michael
Gazzaniga argues that the human brains left hemisphere is specialised for intelligent behaviour and
hypothesis formation. It also possesses the unique capacity to interpret - that is, narrate - behaviours and
emotional states initiated by either hemisphere. Not surprisingly, the left hemisphere is also the language
hemisphere, with specialised cortical regions for producing, interpreting and understanding speech. It is
also the hemisphere that produces narratives.
Gazzaniga also thinks that this left-hemisphere interpreter creates the unified feeling of an autobiographical,
personal, unique self. The interpreter sustains a running narrative of our actions, emotions, thoughts, and
dreams. The interpreter is the glue that keeps our story unified, and creates our sense of being a coherent,
rational agent. To our bag of individual instincts it brings theories about our lives. These narratives of our
past behaviour seep into our awareness and give us an autobiography, he writes. The language areas of
the left hemisphere are well placed to carry out these tasks. They draw on information in memory (amygdalohippocampal circuits, dorsolateral prefrontal cortices) and planning regions (orbitofrontal cortices). As
neurologist Jeffrey Saver has shown, damage to these regions disrupts narration in a variety of ways,
ranging from unbounded narration, in which a person generates narratives unconstrained by reality, to
denarration, the inability to generate any narratives, external or internal.
How does Gazzanigas interpreter produce a narrative self? In 2003, one of us (Bickle) suggested that our
little inner voice is the key. The inner voice may be produced by ongoing activity in language regions of the
left hemisphere, both when the products of that activity are broadcast via external speech and when they
are silently expressed through inner speech.
One compelling study used PET imaging to watch what is going on in the brain during inner speech. As
expected, this showed activity in the classic speech production area known as Brocas area. But also
active was Wernickes area, the brain region for language comprehension, suggesting that not only do the
brains speech areas produce silent inner speech, but that our inner voice is understood and interpreted by
the comprehension areas. The result of all this activity, I suggested, is the narrative self.
31.

Page

What does the phrase we are our narratives mean?


(a) Our inner voice keeps us well informed about ourselves.
(b) We construct an idea of ourselves through stories which we communicate in certain ways.
(c) Our narratives are the true reflections of our identities.
(d) We are known by the stories we tell others.

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

32.

What does the author mean by the term narrative self?


(a) The narrative self is our inner voice that is generated and interpreted by certain areas of the
brain.
(b) The narrative self is a collection of the narratives about our past behaviour, which seep into
our awareness and give us an autobiography.
(c) The narrative self is the inner voice broadcast via external speech and actions.
(d) It is the interpreter that sustains a running narrative of our actions, emotions, thoughts, and
dreams.

33.

From the views presented in the passage we can infer that


(a) the narrative self is the glue that keeps our stories unified and makes us rational beings.
(b) our narrative selves are like alter egos, which are heard and comprehended by us.
(c) our narratives of the past help create a sense of who we are.
(d) narratives are mostly in first person because of the strong inner voice.

Directions for questions 34 to 36: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Adam Smith, who is mainly known to economists for defending the virtues of self-love, describes human
nature in the Theory of Moral Sentiments [1776] as possessing moral dispositions opposed to selfish
behaviour. In the Smithian model, the moral sense operates via the figure of the impartial spectator, who
allows us to define what actions are proper or appropriate (from propriety in the work of Smith) and thus
meritorious (worthy of reward) and which actions are not and, thus, are demeritorious (worthy of punishment).
Morality, in this scheme, can be described at two different levels, i) at the level of rules of behaviour against
which a social response is observed; and ii) at the level of effective behaviour, i.e., the actual degree of
compliance to the set of prevalent norms in the community.
The evolutionary, or biological, interest in the human sense of morality, can be traced back to Darwin
himself. In his The Descent of Man [1871] he concludes that:
[P]rimeval man, at a very remote period, was influenced by the praise and blame of his fellows. It is
obvious, that the members of the same tribe would approve of conduct which appeared to them to be for the
general good, and would reprobate that which appeared evil.
Since then, most of the work in evolutionary approaches to morality deal only with the evolution of moral
behaviour (generally understood as apparent or genuine self-sacrifice) and not with the evolution of rules of
behaviour. In his The Biology of Moral Systems, Alexander (1987) argues that beyond Hamilton (1964)s
world of kin-selection, moral systems are sustained by what he calls indirect reciprocity. Specifically,
selection could favor strategies that involve self-sacrifice due to returned benefits in the future associated
with the individuals reputation and status in his community. In his framework, there is no space for altruistic
behaviour when interaction is non-repeated. Sober and Wilson (1994), among others have pointed to multilevel selection arguments to understand how genuine altruism could have evolved in our species.
The evolution of the rules themselves is not only important in itself to the extent that it defines one communitys
culture, but also in its impact on behaviour. Experimental economists have shown that altruistic punishment
(sanctioning free-riders) plays a crucial role in the achievement of social cooperation in collective action
problems.

Page

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

34.

Which of the following statements is in line with Adam Smiths formulation of morality?
(a) Defending the virtues of selfishness is meritorious (worthy of reward) in any society and has
been so through the ages.
(b) Humans possess moral dispositions and this moral sense helps them decide which actions are
meritorious.
(c) Each of us has the figure of an impartial spectator inside us which allows us to come up with
rational solutions to moral problems.
(d) It is the actual degree of compliance to the set of prevalent norms in a community that ultimately
defines morality.

35.

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?


(a) Morality at the level of social rules is largely sustained through a focus on rewards and
punishments.
(b) Altruism arises from the tendency of humans to select strategies that ensure the survival of their
species.
(c) The definition of human morality changes with time and morality as such is subject to natural
selection on several levels.
(d) An individuals altruistic behaviour may lead to an improvement in his/her status within his/her
community.

36.

The author is most likely to agree with which of the following statements?
(a) Altruism as a concept seems to be at odds with the concept of evolution.
(b) Evolutionary approaches have largely concentrated on understanding how moral behaviour came
about.
(c) Darwins views cannot be reconciled with the Smithian model of the moral sense.
(d) Moral behaviour is a prerequisite for the survival of any species.

Directions for questions 37 to 39: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
So just what Dante scorns as unworthy alike of heaven and hell, Botticelli accepts, that middle world in
which men take no side in great conflicts, and decide no great causes, and make great refusals. He thus
sets for himself the limits within which art, undisturbed by any moral ambition, does its most sincere and
surest work. His interest is neither in the untempered goodness of Angelicos saints, nor the untempered
evil of Orcagnas Inferno; but with men and women in their mixed and uncertain condition, always attractive,
clothed sometimes by passion with a character of loveliness and energy, but saddened perpetually by
the shadow upon them of the great things from which they shrink. His morality is all sympathy; and it is
this sympathy, conveying into his work somewhat more than is usual of the true complexion of humanity,
which makes him, visionary as he is, so forcible a realist.
It is this which gives to his Madonnas their unique expression and charm. He has worked out in them a
distinct and peculiar type, definite enough in his own mind, for he has painted it over and over again,
sometimes one might think almost mechanically, as a pastime during that dark period when his thoughts
were so heavy upon him. Hardly any collection of note is without one of these circular pictures, into which
the attendant angels depress their heads so navely. Perhaps you have sometimes wondered why those
peevish-looking Madonnas, conformed to no acknowledged or obvious type of beauty, attract you more and
more, and often come back to you when the Sistine Madonna and the virgins of Fra Angelico are forgotten.
At first, contrasting them with those, you may have thought that there was even something in them mean
Page

10

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

or abject, for the abstract lines of the face have little nobleness and the colour is wan. For with Botticelli
she too, though she holds in her hands the Desire of all nations, is one of those who are neither for God
nor for his enemies; and her choice is on her face. The white light on it is cast up hard and cheerless from
below, as when snow lies upon the ground, and the children look up with surprise at the strange whiteness
of the ceiling. Her trouble is in the very caress of the mysterious child, whose gaze is always far from her,
and who has already that sweet look of devotion which men have never been able altogether to love, and
which still makes the born saint an object almost of suspicion to his earthly brethren.
37.

What is the essential difference between Boticellis Madonna and other artists Madonnas?
(a) Boticellis Madonna is more beautiful than the Madonnas painted by other artists.
(b) Boticellis Madonna is not as beautiful as the Madonnas painted by other artists.
(c) Boticellis Madonna inspires more reverence than the ones painted by other artists.
(d) Boticellis Madonna is not larger than life but belongs to the middle world.

38.

The author calls Boticelli both a visionary and a realist


(a) because Boticelli belonged to the middle world of ordinary men.
(b) because he depicted neither saints nor evil men in his paintings.
(c) because his work conveyed the real complexion of humanity.
(d) because his Madonna chose the common man over Gods and saints.

39.

What is the primary purpose of the author?


(a) To discuss the religious underpinnings of Botticellis art.
(b) To explain how Botticellis Madonna is integrated with the artists reverential approach to art and
life.
(c) To describe how Botticellis art is a reflection of his realism.
(d) To reflect on the techniques in Botticellis paintings that make them invaluable.

40.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
BEAR
(a) The facts and evidence bear out the truth of his statements.
(b) Your explanation does not bear upon the crux of the matter.
(c) It is upon the common man that the changes will bear the hardest.
(d) I have to bear up with all his caprice because he is my brother.

41.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
RUN
(a) The bus almost ran off the road during the storm.
(b) Clearly hostilities ran deep under the surface, despite the fact that they were supposed to be
allies.
(c) It is important for her to gain self-confidence; just give her the job and let her run with it.
(d) Please run on now and leave me alone; I am a bit busy today.

Page

11

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

Directions for questions 42 and 43: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Anju, Bimla, Charu and Dimple stay in the same colony and study in different schools. Their schools are
in North, South, East and West direction w.r.t. the colony in no particular order. Anjus school and Bimlas
school are located in opposite directions while Dimples school is located 90 clockwise w.r.t. Bimlas
school. The distance of the four schools from the colony is 100 units, 150 units, 200 units and 250 units in
no particular order. Dimples school is located in West. Anjus school is not the one closest to the colony
while Charus school is closer to the colony than Dimples school. The school located in South is farthest
from the colony.
42.

If the school located in North is closer to the colony than the school located in West, then who
studies in the school located at a distance of 150 units from the colony?
(a) Dimple
(b) Bimla
(c) Anju
(d) Charu

43.

If Anjus school is the one located at a distance of 200 units from the colony, then how far from the
colony is the school located in West?
(a) 150 units
(b) 250 units
(c) 200 units
(d) 100 units

44.

Three friends Sanjay, Harish and Gautam are standing in a row, from left to right in the same
order, facing North. Each of them likes a distinct sweet among Peda, Laddu and Gulabjamun. Also,
each of them is wearing a shirt of distinct colour among yellow, blue and green. The one who is
wearing green shirt doesn't like Peda. The one who likes Laddu is standing to the immediate left of
the one who likes Peda. If Sanjay is wearing yellow shirt, then what is colour of the shirt of the
person who likes Laddu?
(a) Either yellow or green
(b) Either yellow or blue
(c) Either green or blue
(d) Cannot be determined

45.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Art historians often view the Renaissance as beginning as early as the 13th century, with the art of
Giotto and Cimabue, and ending in the late 16th century with the work of Michelangelo and Venetian
painters like Titian. Literary scholars in the Anglo-American world take a very different perspective,
focusing on the rise of vernacular English literature in the 16th and 17th centuries in the poetry and
drama of Spenser, Shakespeare, and Milton. Historians take a different approach again, labelling
the period c.15001700 as early modern, rather than Renaissance. These differences in dating
and even naming the Renaissance have become so intense that the validity of the term is now in
doubt. Does it have any meaning any more?
(a) Does it underpin a belief in European cultural superiority?
(b) Today, there is a popular consensus that the term Renaissance refers to a profound and enduring
upheaval and transformation in culture, politics, art, and society in Europe between the years
1400 and 1600.
(c) Is it possible to separate the Renaissance from the Middle Ages that preceded it, and the
modern world that came after it?
(d) The word describes both a period in history and a more general ideal of cultural renewal.

Page

12

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

46.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
When it comes to partners, men often find womens taste fickle and unfathomable. But ladies may
not be entirely to blame. A growing body of research suggests that their preference for certain types
of male physiognomy may be swayed by things beyond their conscious controllike prevalence of
disease or crimeand in predictable ways.
Masculine featuresa big jaw, say, or a prominent browtend to reflect physical and behavioural
traits, such as strength and aggression. They are also closely linked to physiological ones, like
virility and a sturdy immune system.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

47.

Aggression is fine when directed at external threats, less so when it spills over onto the hearth.
The obverse of these desirable characteristics looks less appealing.
The results of the research are still tentative.
Lisa DeBruine, of the University of Aberdeen, believes that todays women still face a dilemma.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Ludwig Wittgenstein was a philosopher. Philosophy in the twentieth century has become a pursuit
for specialists, and accordingly most philosophers who have recently acquired reputations are
famous only among their fellows. Wittgenstein, however, is famous far beyond the boundaries of
philosophy. Among non-philosophers his name is mentioned surprisingly often and in a surprising
variety of connections. It seems that by many he is regarded as quintessentially representative of
twentieth-century philosophy, as if he exemplifies, not just in his work but in his personality, what
philosophy itself is like: difficult and profound.
(a) It lends itself to that treatment because of its style and structure, and because it seems to distil
something of wisdom.
(b) The laymans estimation of Wittgenstein differs from that of many contemporary philosophers.
(c) Perhaps for this reason his writings are plundered for aphorisms.
(d) However, it will not alter the fact that Wittgensteins life and thought were, at the very least,
extraordinary.

48.

Each of the four friends Raja, Ram, Mohan and Roy owns a distinct car among Matiz, Optra,
Palio and Santro. It is known that there is exactly one among the four friends who never speaks the
truth. The rest three always speak the truth. Each of the four friends made two statements as given
below.
Raja: Ram owns Matiz. Mohan doesnt own Palio.
Ram: Roy owns Santro. Mohan doesnt own Optra.
Mohan: Roy owns Palio. Raja doesnt own Optra.
Roy: Raja owns Santro. Mohan owns Optra.
Who among the four friends owns Santro?
(a) Raja
(b) Ram

Page

13

(c) Mohan

(d) Roy

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

Directions for questions 49 to 51: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
An ATM needs exactly two guards on each day of a week from Monday to Saturday. Puneet, Vikrant,
Vikram, Jasneet and Saurabh are the people responsible for guarding the ATM. None of them works for
three consecutive days during the week. Puneet does not work on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday.
Jasneet and Vikrant never work on the same day. Vikrant works on alternate days and he works with
Puneet on Friday. Saurabh works for the maximum number of days during the week among the five guards.
Both Jasneet and Vikrant work for an odd number of days during the week. Two particular guards work for
the same number of days during the week; each of the rest three works for a distinct number of days.
49.

If Saurabh works with one particular guard twice during the week, then which guard works on the
same day as Jasneet?
(a) Vikram
(b) Saurabh
(c) Puneet
(d) Cannot be determined

50.

If Saurabh works with a different guard every time during the week, then which two guards work on
Thursday?
(a) Saurabh and Puneet
(b) Saurabh and Jasneet
(c) Saurabh and Vikram
(d) Cannot be determined

51.

Which of the following statements cannot be true?


(a) Saurabh and Puneet work together on Thursday.
(b) Vikram and Jasneet work together on Thursday.
(c) Puneet and Saurabh work together on Saturday.
(d) Saurabh and Vikram work together on Thursday.

52.

Given below are four sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicised. From the
italicised words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
The committee was apprised (A)/appraised (B) of the problem and is deliberating it behind closed
doors.
Everyone loved his childlike (A)/childish (B) enthusiasm for the project.
He is a self-deprecating (A)/self-depreciating (B) person- self-critical and modest to a fault.
Our progress was slow as the guide had to hew (A)/hue (B) a path through the dense
undergrowth.
(a) AAAA

53.

(b) AAAB

(c) AABA

(d) ABBA

Given below are four sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicised. From the
italicised words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
Is altruism imminent (A)/ immanent (B) in all individuals or is it acquired from without?
I can empathize (A)/sympathize (B) with the teachers because of my own experience as a teacher.
He is the splitting (A)/spitting (B) image of his father.
The police conducting an exhausting (A)/exhaustive (B) investigation covering all possibilities.
(a) ABAB

Page

14

(b) BABA

(c) BABB

(d) ABBB
Unproctored Mock-9 2012

54.

There are two gaps in the sentence given below. From the pairs of words given, choose the one that
fills the gaps most appropriately.
Many children with ADHD have ________relationships with parents and are generally well behaved
their condition manifests itself only through a/an _________to concentrate and focus on specific
tasks.
(a) abiding, failure
(b) immutable, determination
(c) stable, inability
(d) weak, attempt

55.

There are two gaps in the sentence/paragraph given below. From the pairs of words given, choose
the one that fills the gaps most appropriately.
The House of Representatives unanimously approved a bill on Friday that would ________ restaurants,
stores and roadside stands to an injunction if they _______ the New Mexico Chile Advertising Act.
(a) subject, violate
(c) obligate, misuse

56.

Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most appropriate one.
A. To house this event a huge temporary exhibition hall (Joseph Paxtons steel and glass Crystal
Palace) was built on Hyde Park in central London.
B. Although the birth of dinosaurs was relatively inauspicious (first appearing as an afterthought in
the published report of the 11th meeting of the British Association for the Advancement of Science),
they were soon to become the centre of worldwide attention.
C. At the time of Owens review, he was working on a surprisingly meagre collection of fossil bones
and teeth that had been discovered up to that time and were scattered around the British Isles.
D. To celebrate such influence and achievement, the Great Exhibition of 1851 was devised.
E. The reason for this was simple. Owen worked in London, at the Museum of the Royal College of
Surgeons, at a time when the British Empire was probably at its greatest extent.
(a) CBEDA

57.

(b) BDACE

(c) BDAEC

(d) ECBDA

Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most appropriate one.
A. Like other ephemera of past times, bestsellers (even Orwells despised Deeping) offer the charm
of antiquarian quaintness.
B. Any study of bestsellers confronts the same question as does the decaf, no-fat latte drinker in
Starbucks: Why bother?
C. And, so short is their lifespan, that todays bestsellers become yesterdays fiction almost as
soon as one has read them.
D. One justification, and the easiest demonstrated, is their (that is, bestsellers) interesting peculiarity.
E. Where else would one encounter a line such as: I say, you are a sport, pater [Son addressing
Sorrell, on having been given a tenner tip in Deepings Sorrell and Son].
(a) ACBDE

Page

(b) hold, disrespect


(d) submit, desecrate

15

(b) BDAEC

(c) BEADC

(d) BDEAC

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

Directions for questions 58 to 60: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
There are five different machines in a factory Lathe, Drill, Boring, Milling and Welding. Each of the four
products A, B, C and D is manufactured by using a distinct combination of exactly three out of these
five machines. Drill machine is never used in conjunction with Lathe machine. If either Lathe machine or
Drill machine is used, then Milling machine is also used.
The individual processing time of these machines are 15, 20, 25, 30 and 40 minutes in no particular order.
The processing time of Drill machine is more than that of Milling machine which in turn is more than that of
Boring machine. The sum of the processing times of Drill machine and Welding machine is 10 minutes
more than the processing time of Lathe machine.
The time taken for manufacturing a product is the sum of the processing times of the three machines which
are used for manufacturing it. The manufacturing time of A is not the highest while D has the lowest
manufacturing time among the four products. The manufacturing time of B is more than that of C.
58.

Which of the following can be the manufacturing time of product B?


(a) 75 minutes
(b) 85 minutes
(c) 70 minutes

(d) 90 minutes

59.

It is known that Boring machine is used in manufacturing product A. If Lathe machines processing
time increases by 5 minutes due to the wear and tear of its tool, then which of the following can be
the manufacturing time of product A?
(a) 75 minutes
(b) 80 minutes
(c) 85 minutes
(d) 90 minutes

60.

Assume that Welding machine is not available and any combination of three machines out of the
remaining four can be used for manufacturing the products. Find the manufacturing time of product
B.
(a) 75 minutes
(b) 85 minutes
(c) 80 minutes
(d) 95 minutes

Page

16

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

Answers and Explanations


1

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

Page

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

1. a

Let the number of cans required to fill the field be n.

1
A 2 (AB) 2

2
(AB)$(A$B) = (AB) $
1
B

A 2
B

Volume of sand (in cm3) in a can = (24)2 100.


Total volume of sand (in cm3) in n cans
= n (24)2 100
...(i)
Total volume of sand (in cm3) to be filled in the field
2
...(ii)
= (2000) 18
Solving (i) and (ii) for n we get:
n = 1250

2. b

Since it is given that the four numbers are consecutive


natural numbers and a < b,
b = a + 1, c = a + 2 and d = a + 3.
P = b2c2 ac bd
P = (a + 1)2(a + 2)2 a(a + 2) (a + 1)(a + 3)
P = a4 + 6a3 + 11a2 + 6a + 1
P = (a2 + 3a + 1)2

1
1
1

(AB) 2
A
2

(AB) 2
1

B
A 2

1
(AB) 2 A 2
B

(AB) 2

A
2

P = a2 + 3a + 1, which is always a rational number,


though not necessarily prime. E.g. at a = 6.

Surface area of the cube = 6 162 = 1536 cm2.

3. c

Length of IK = 122 + 162 = 20 cm.


Area of the rectangle exposed = 16 20 = 320 cm2.
Hence, total surface area added = 320 2 = 640 cm2.
The required percentage increase
=

1
1

A 2 (AB) 2

2
= (AB)
1

B
A 2

1
= (AB) 2

Page

A 2

B

640
100 = 41.67%.
1536

(AB) 2
1

A 2
B

1
(AB) 2
A
2

(AB)(A$B) = (AB) 2
1
B

A 2
B

4. d

1
1

1
2
2 A 2
(AB)

(AB) 2

A 2

A 2
(AB) 2
(AB)(A$B)
B =A

=
B
1

(AB)$(A$B)
(AB) 2
1

A 2
B

5. d

Lets assume that each worker completes W units of


the job in a day. The number of units completed by
10 workers in 10 days = 10 10 = 100W.
If one more worker joins them, then the number of
units completed on the 11th day will be 11W.
As it took exactly 20 days to finish the job, it can be
concluded that the job consisted of (100W + 11W +
12W + + 20W) = 255W units of work.
In the second situation, let the number of workers
who started the job be n.
Hence, nW + (n 1) W + (n 2) W + . + W 255W
or

n (n + 1)
2

255

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

The minimum possible value of n which satisfies the


above inequality is 23. However, it must be noticed
that 23 + 22 + 21 + + 7 = 255.
Hence, the work will get completed in exactly
23 6 = 17 days.
6. b

Hence,

AP OP
OP
10
=
= 4
= 5 units.
or AP = CP
CP MP
MP
8
Subsequently, AC = 3 units and AB = 6 units.
Inradius of triangle ABP

Probability that the man finds all three traffic lights red

1
46
24

2
=r = =
=
= 1.5 units
s 1 6+5+5
16
(
)
2

5
5
3
5

=
8
6
5 16
Probability that he finds at least one light which is not
=

red = 1

7. c

5
11
=
16
16

The sum will be maximum when all of them are equal


i.e. when a = b = c = d = 5, which gives
Max (a + b + c + d) = 20.
Alternate Method:
Note that we also have an inequality rule:
(a2 + b2 + c2 + ..)(x2 + y2 + z2 + ) (ax + by +
cz + .)2
Where a, b, c,and x, y, z.. are all real numbers.
Using this,
(a2 + b2 + c2 + d2)(12 + 12 + 12 + 12) (a + b + c + d)2
100 4 (a + b + c + d)2
or Max (a + b + c + d) = 20.

8. b

This can be done using the Divisibility Rule of a number


like 9 or 11. E.g. Since 35! is divisible by 11, either the
sum of the digits at the odd places must be equal to the
sum of the digits at the even places or their difference
should be a multiple of 11. In this case the latter is not
possible. Hence, 66 + a = 72 and a = 6.

9. c

Sumer will come to rest after 20 seconds. The


combined distance covered by them every second is
60 m. Since the track length is 120 m, they will meet
after every 2 seconds. So they would have met
10 times by the time Sumer comes to rest.

10. a

CP = OP OC = 10 6 = 4 units
In right angled triangle OMP,

For questions 11 to 13:


Let Interest Payment be x% and Non-Planned Capital Account
be y% of Budgeted Expenditure. From pie chart B, x + y = 22%
and x y = 12%. Thus, x = 17 and y = 5.
Now 76% 19% i.e. 57% of Budgeted Revenue is given as
Rs. 285 thousand crores. Thus Budgeted Revenue = Rs. 500
thousand crores.
Budgeted Expenditure = Budgeted Revenue + Rs. 625 thousand
crores = Rs. 1125 thousand crores.
11. b

8
A

C
N

625
100 = 125%
500

12. c

The sum of Planned Revenue Account and Planned


Capital Account (Rs. 281.25 thousand crores)
exceeded the Non-Tax Revenue (Rs. 95 thousand
crores) by Rs. 186.25 thousand crores.

13. d

Since nothing is mentioned about the break-up of


Budgeted Revenue in FY 2011-12, the percentage
share of Tax Revenue cannot be determined.

14. a

Any number of the form xxxx..xxxx is divisible by 7,


11 and 13 if the number of digits is of the form 6k,
where k is a natural number.
From Statement A:
18n + 6 is of the form 6k. So the number is divisible by
13 and the remainder is 0.
From Statement B:
We cannot find the remainder using this statement
alone.

15. d

If y is the total number of votes polled and x is the


number of votes against the resolution, then
x + 900 = 0.7 y
...(i)
x = 0.3 y
...(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii), y = 2250.

MP = OP2 OM2 = 8 units.

The difference between Budgeted Expenditure and


Budgeted Revenue when expressed as a percentage
of Budgeted Revenue

Triangles MOP and CAP are similar as MPO = CPA.

Page

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

16. a

Let there be N students in all. According to the question:


N = 7k1 + 3 = 8k2 + 5 = 9k3 + 7, where k1, k2, k3 are all
natural numbers.
Let us take the first two terms initially.

20. d

The absolute difference for the year 1981 is clearly


much more than that for the other four years and the
value is 12188903.

8k 2 + 2
7
The least value of k2 that makes k1 a natural number is
5. Hence, the smallest number satisfying the first two
conditions is 8 5 + 5 = 45. So the complete series of
the type LCM (7, 8) K + 45 will satisfy the first two
conditions, where K is a whole number. So the series
is 56K + 45. Now we take the third condition.

21. c

From Statement A:
Using this statement, we can find the relative positions
of Ram and Sameer but we dont know about the
relative positions of the other two and so we cant
answer the question.

7k1 + 3 = 8k2 + 5 k1 =

56K + 38
9
The least value of K which makes k3 a natural number
is 8. Hence, the smallest number satisfying the above
three conditions is 56 8 + 45 = 493 and the total
number of students = LCM (7, 8, 9) P + 493.
So N = 504P + 493, where P is whole number. N when
divided by 12 leaves remainder 1. Hence, if 12 students
are put in each row, 1 student will be left.

From Statement B:
This statement provides only the relative arrangement
of Shyam and Gopal. So we cannot answer the
question using statement B alone.

56K + 45 = 9k3 + 7 k 3 =

17. d

19. b

Let the number representing A be a, and the common


difference be d.
...(i)
a + (a + 2d) + (a + 4d) = 36
and (A + C + E + G) (A + C + E) = 60 36
G = 24
...(ii)
a + 6d = 24
From (i) and (ii)
(3a + 6d) (a + 6d) = 12
2a = 12 a = 6 and d = 3
So B + D + F + H = 4a + 16d
= 24 + 48 = 72

Percentage change for the year 1971 is the highest


and the value is

According to the given condition


0.5x + 0.6(x + 2) + 0.7(x + 3)
= 0.65
x + (x + 2) + (x + 3)

0.5x + 0.6x + 1.2 + 0.7x + 2.1


= 0.65
3x + 5

1.8x + 3.3 = 1.95x + 3.25


.05 = 0.15x

461
x 100% = 92.2%
500

14469775 10664018
100 = 26.30%
14469775

Page

22. a

The students who passed in at least two subjects are


those who didnt fail in more than one subject.
The number of students who didnt fail in any of the
three subjects = 500 199 = 301
The number of students who failed in exactly one of
the three subjects = 35 + 70 + 55 = 160
The number of students who passed in at least two
subjects = 301 + 160 = 461
Hence, the percentage of students who passed in at
least two subjects =

18. c

Combining statements A and B:


If we combine statements A and B, we get the relative
positions of the four people and can conclude that
Gopal is sitting opposite Sameer.

x=

5
15

x=

1
= 0.33
3

23. b

The digit 3 is used 100 + 80 times while writing the first


400 natural numbers. So it will be used 181st time in
403, 182nd time in 413, 183rd time in 423 and 184th time
in 430.

24. c

It can be concluded that 5 and k are the two distinct


roots of the equation ax2 + bx + 1 = 0.
Also, product of the roots =

1
< 0 (as a < 0).
a

Hence, 5k < 0 k < 0.


For questions 25 to 27:
25. c

Among males, Performance Scores of Kaushik and


Maneet dont fall in the interval [70, 100] and so they
are Low on Happy Growth Index. Among females,
Performance Scores of Asmita and Amit dont fall in
the interval [60, 90] and so they are Low on Happy
Growth Index. So 4 students in all are Low on Happy
Growth Index at Primary Stage of Education.

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

26. b

Among males at Senior Secondary Stage, Saurabh


and Mudit are High on Happy Growth Index. Among
females at Primary Stage, Meenal, Manjari and Renuka
are High on Happy Growth Index. So the required ratio
is 2 : 3.

27. d

Renuka is High on Happy Growth Index. Meenal and


Manjari are the only female students whose Academic
Score is less than 50 and who are High on Happy
Growth Index.

28. a

s=pq

(p + r)
p + r = 2q r = p + 2q
2
r2 = s2 (given)
Putting the values of r and s in the given equation:
(p + 2q)2 = (p q)2

of self but the narrative is not the true reflection of


our identity. Option (d) is incorrect as it does not follow
from the passage.
32. a

Option (a) follows from the passage. Refer to the last


few lines. The silent, inner speech produced by the
brains speech areas is understood and interpreted
by the comprehension areas of the brain. This creates
the narrative self. The narrative self is not simply a
collection of narratives about our past behaviours. So
(b) is ruled out. Option (d) is incorrect as the author
describes Gazzanigas interpreter but does not
equate this to the narrative self.

33. c

Option (a) is incorrect. Since, in light of the passage,


the interpreter is the glue. Alter ego means other
self; a persons secondary or alternative personality
or an intimate and trusted friend. The concept of our
inner voice being our alter ego makes option (b)
incorrect. Option (d) is not mentioned in the passage.
The passage states The full collection of ones internal
and external narratives generates the self we are
intimately acquainted with. So option (c) can be
inferred from the passage. Option (d) is not mentioned
in the passage.

34. b

Option (a) does not follow from the passage. Selflove is mentioned in connection with Adam Smith but
the passage does not talk about the virtues of
selfishness. Option (c) is negated since nothing is
mentioned about rational solutions. Option (d) inflates
one factor in the Smithian model. It does not follow
from the passage that such compliance ultimately
defines morality. Option (b) follows directly from the
passage.

35. d

Option (d) is a possibility that has been mentioned in


the passage. selection could favour strategies that
involve self-sacrifice due to returned benefits in the
future associated with the individuals reputation and
status in his community. Option (a) is incorrect. While
altruistic punishment is mentioned in the passage,
nothing can be inferred about the extent to which
rewards and punishments, in general, sustain morality
at the level of social rules. Option (b) is incorrect. The
passage does not talk about species survival. It cannot
be inferred that humans select strategies that ensure
the survival of their species. Option (c) is eliminated
since nothing is mentioned about natural selection.

36. b

Option (b) follows from the passage- most of the


work in evolutionary approaches to morality deals only
with the evolution of moral behaviour. Option (a) and
option (c) cannot be concluded from the passage as
the passage does not talk about the relative merits
and demerits of Smiths formulation vis-a vis Darwins.
Option (d) cannot be concluded since the passage
only talks about how moral behaviour can help in
survival. It does not imply that moral behaviour is a
prerequisite for the survival of any species.

q=

p2 + 4q2 4pq = p2 + q2 2pq


3q2 = 2pq p =
29. c

30. a

If p is prime and m is not a multiple of p, then mp-1 when


divided by p leaves remainder 1.
So (w + x + y + z)p when divided by p will leave
remainder (w + x + y + z) and so will (wp + xp + yp +
z p ).
Hence, (w + x + y + z)p (wp + xp + yp + zp) will
always be divisible by p.
The total number of solutions for x + y + z = 36, if x, y
and z are whole numbers is given by
36+31C
38C = 703.
31 =
2
The number of solutions where x = y will be 19 {from
(x, y) = (0, 0) to (18, 18)}.
The number of solutions where x is not equal to y
= 703 19 = 684
Among these 684 solutions, half will have x > y and
the rest will have y > x.
Hence, the total number of solutions where x y

= 19 +
31. b

Page

3q
2

684
= 361.
2

Option (b) follows directly from the passage. Refer to


the first paragraph of the passageWe refers to our
selves, in the full-blooded person-constituting sense.
Narratives refers to the stories we tell about
ourselves and our exploits in settings as trivial as
cocktail parties and as serious as intimate discussions
with loved ones. We express some in speech. Others
we tell silently to ourselves, in that constant little inner
voice. The full collection of ones internal and external
narratives generates the self we are intimately
acquainted with. Our narrative selves continually
unfold. Option (a) is an inference that can be drawn
from the passage but is not the meaning of the phrase
we are our narratives, so it is incorrect. Option (c) is
incorrect as it is our narrative that give us the sense

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

37. d

Options (a) and (b) cannot be definitely concluded


from the passage. According to the passage, what
sets Botticellis Madonnas apart is their realistic
portrayal. So, option (c) is incorrect. Option (d) follows
from the passage.

38. c

44. a

Sanjay Harish

Option (c) follows from the passage-work somewhat


more than is usual of the true complexion of
humanityIt is this which gives to his Madonnas their
unique expression and charm.

39. c

The author starts by talking about the Botticellis


concerns-that his morality is all sympathy. Then he
goes on to describe why Botticellis Madonnas are
distinctive. Option (a) is incorrect. The passage does
not talk about the religious structure of Botticellis art
per se. Option (b) is incorrect. Nothing is mentioned
about Botticellis reverential approach to art and life.
Option (d) does not deal with the primary purpose of
the passage. Option (c) links Botticellis realism to
Botticellis Madonnas. Hence, option (c) is correct.

40. d

Option (a) is correct-bear out means to prove true; to


confirm. Option (b) is correct- bear upon means to be
relevant to something. Option (c) is correct- bear hard
on/upon means cause suffering. Option (d) is
incorrect. The correct expression is bear with which
means to endure.

41. d

Run off something means to drive or travel off


something (tracks, a road, etc.) Run deep means to
be very strong or well established. Run with it means
to do something independently. Run on means to
continue running; to continue for a long time. The
sentence uses run on incorrectly. The correct phrasal
verb in this case is run along i.e. to leave.

Direction w.r.t
Colony

Distance
(in units)

Anju

North

150/200

Bimla

South

250

Charu

East

100

Dimple

West

200/150

42. c

43. a

Page

The statement indicates that Anjus school is located


closer to the colony than Dimples school. Therefore,
Anjus school is 150 units away from the colony.

Gautam

Yellow

Blue

Green

Laddu

Peda

Gulabjamun

Or

Sanjay

Harish Gautam

Yellow

Green

Blue

Gulabjamun Laddu

Peda

45. c

The author is concerned with assigning a definite


period to the renaissance. He says that the debate
over this dating has become so intense that the validity
of the term is now in doubt. Option (c) furthers this
idea that probably the desired dating is not possible
anymore.

46. b

The paragraph talks about how and why some


characteristics are considered desirable and
preferable by women. Option (a) talks about when
aggression (a characteristic) is not considered
desirable and does not match with the theme and tone
of the paragraph. The word obverse means opposite.
Option (b) continues the narrative by elaborating on
the significance of behavioural traits like strength and
aggression in males and states that the opposite of
these desirable characteristics looks less appealing.
Hence, option (b) is the correct option. The sentence
given in option (c) may come after (b). The paragraph
does not express any dilemma which leads to the
negation of option (d).

47. c

Option (a) mentions that treatment but no reference


to treatment is made in the passage. Moreover, it is
not the correct pronoun. So option (a) is negated.
Option (c) is the best option as the last line gives us a
reason for the writings be filled with aphorisms. Option
(b) is incorrect as it introduces an altogether fresh
perspective which cannot be linked to the paragraph.

48. a

Either Ram or Mohan is the lier as they make contradictory claims about the car owned by Roy. Hence,
Raja and Roy always speak the truth. The only possible arrangement is given below.

For questions 42 and 43: The given information can be


tabulated as shown below.

Name

The given information can be tabulated as shown


below in two possible cases.

Raja

Ram

Mohan

Roy

Santro

Matiz

Optra

Palio

If Anjus school is 200 units away from the colony, it


indicates that the distance of Dimples school from the
colony is 150 units. As Dimples school is located in
West, the school in West is 150 units away from the
colony.

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

For questions 49 to 51:


Jasneet, Vikram, Puneet, Vikrant and Saurabh must have
worked for 1, 2, 2, 3 and 4 days respectively.
49. a

The table given below can be formed from the given


information.

Monday

Vikrant

Tuesday

Vikram

Jasneet

Wednesday

Vikrant

Saurabh

Thursday

Vikram/Puneet

Saurabh

Friday

Vikrant

Puneet

Saturday

Puneet/Vikram

Saurabh

especially wood or coal) with an axe, pick, or other


tool. Hue means color or shade; character or aspect.
It can also mean an aspect of a thing/person. Hence,
(A) is correct.
53. c

BABB
Imminent means about to occur whereas immanent
means inherent. Here the word we want is immanent
or inherent. Hence, (B) is correct. Sympathize means
to feel sympathy or compassion for someone while
empathy means to understand and share the feelings
of others. Here the word we want is empathize. Hence
(A) is correct. Spitting image means someone who
looks very much like someone else usually singular
example: She is the spitting image of her mother. Hence,
(B) is correct. Exhausting means tiring whereas
exhaustive means thorough or complete. Hence, (B)
is correct.

54. c

One of the meanings of abiding is to remain or continue


in a state. It is not used to describe a relationship.
Failure means lack of success which indicates that
an attempt was made to accomplish something. The
sentence does not indicate this; it only discusses the
inability of a child suffering from ADHD. Determination
does not fit into this sentence as a disorder/condition
is being discussed and the word alters the meaning of
the sentence. Immutable means unchangeable. Again,
though this is a synonym for stable, it cannot be used
to describe the relationship between the parent and
child in this sentence. Stable means to be firmly
established. Weak goes against the meaning of the
sentence and attempt makes the sentence
grammatically disjoint. The correct answer is option
(c).

55. a

Subject means to be made to undergo. An injunction


is an order so violate works well in the next blank. It
is idiomatically incorrect to say that an individual was
held to an injunction. Obligate means to give word
that something will be done. Desecrate means to
violate but it would not be used for an Advertising
Act. The correct answer is option (a).

56. a

Statement B states they were soon to become the


centre of worldwide attention and statement E gives
a reason for this worldwide attention. Hence BE is a
mandatory pair. Also DA is a mandatory pair. The
event mentioned in A refers back to the Great
Exhibition of 1851 mentioned in D.

57. b

AE is a mandatory pair. A talks about antiquarian


quaintness while E gives an example of the same.
Also BD is a mandatory pair. D answers the question
(Why bother?) raised in B.

Saurabh

Hence, Vikram works with Jasneet.


50. d

The tables given below can be formed from the given


information.

Monday

Vikrant

Saurabh

Tuesday

Vikram

Saurabh

Wednesday

Vikrant

Vikram

Thursday

Puneet/Jasneet

Saurabh

Friday

Vikrant

Puneet

Saturday

Jasneet/Puneet

Saurabh

Monday

Vikrant

Saurabh

Tuesday

Jasneet

Saurabh

Wednesday

Vikrant

Vikram

Thursday

Puneet/Vikram

Saurabh

Friday

Vikrant

Puneet

Saturday

Vikram/Puneet

Saurabh

It can be seen that the two guards who work on


Thursday cannot be uniquely determined.
51. b

52. a

Page

It can be seen from the tables made for the previous


questions that Vikram and Jasneet cannot work
together on Thursday.
AAAA
Appraise means to form a judgment or to evaluate
while apprise means to inform. Here the word we
want is apprise so (A). Childlike is an adjective used
for adults which means having the good qualities,
such as innocence, associated with a child <she
speaks with a childlike directness> while childish
means silly and immature. Since the tone of the
sentence is positive, childlike (A) is apt. Deprecate
means express disapproval of something while
depreciate means to fall or lower in value. Here the
word we want is self deprecating, hence (A) is
correct. Hew means chop or cut (something,

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

For questions 58 to 60:


Let Lathe, Drill, Boring, Milling and Welding machines be
represented by L, D, B, M and W respectively. Table-I shows
the processing times of different machines. Table-II shows the
possible combinations of machines and their total time.

59. c

Table - I

Total Tim e

DMB

70 min

75 min

Processing Time

40 min

LMW

90 min

30 min

LMB

85 min

25 min

MWB

60 min

20 min

15 min

The order of the manufacturing times of the four


products is either B > C > A > D or B > A > C > D. As
product A requires Boring machine, its manufacturing
time is either 70 min or 85 min.

Table - II

Page

Pos s ible
Com bination
DMW

Machine

Possible
Combination
DMW

58. b

As the processing time of Lathe machine has


increased, the new total time for different combinations
is tabulated below.

Total Time
75 min

DMB

70 min

LMW

85 min

LMB

80 min

MWB

60 min

60. d

As per the conditions, the possible combinations are


LDM, LMB, DMB and LDB. Therefore, product B will
have the combination LDM and the manufacturing time
will be 40 + 30 + 25 = 95 min.

Product B has the highest manufacturing time among


the four. As per the table, the combination of machines
used for B is either LMW or LMB. So the manufacturing
time of B is either 85 min or 80 min.

Unproctored Mock-9 2012

Unproctored Mock-10 2012


Section - I
1.

What is the total number of ways of selecting twenty balls from an infinite number of blue, green and
yellow balls?
(b) 203
(c) 231
(d) 1771
(a) 320

2.

In a class comprising 60 boys and some girls, the average age of boys is 14.8 years and that of girls
is 14.1 years. If the average age of the class is 14.7 years, then how many girls are there in the
class?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25

3.

If m and n are positive integers such that (m n)2 =


possible?
(a) 4

(b) 10

4mn
, then how many pairs (m, n) are
(m + n 1)

(c) 16

(d) Infinite

4.

The lengths of the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock are 3.5 cm and 5.25 cm respectively.
If the hour hand covers an area of 7.7 cm2, then find the approximate area (in cm2) covered by the
minute hand during the same time period.
(a) 17
(b) 158
(c) 260
(d) 208

5.

In ABC, M is the midpoint of AB and N is the midpoint of AC. CM and BN meet at point O and are
perpendicular to each other. The length of AB is 2 13 cm and that of AC is 73 cm. What is the
length of BC (in cm)?
(a) 17
(b) 19.25
(c) 8
(d) 5

6.

There are 13 equidistant bus stops on a straight road. A bus running at 60 km/hr is some distance
away from the 1st stop from where it will move towards the 13th stop. Two cars start running from
the 6th stop in opposite directions with the same speed. If the bus meets one of the cars at the 1st
stop and the other at the 13th stop, then find the speed of the cars.
(a) 10 km/hr
(b) 20 km/hr
(c) 30 km/hr
(d) Cannot be determined

7.

How many divisors of 25200 can be expressed in the form 4n + 3, where n is a whole number?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) None of these

8.

The HCF of three natural numbers x, y and z is 13. If the sum of x, y and z is 117, then how many
ordered triplets (x, y, z) exist?
(a) 28
(b) 27
(c) 54
(d) 55

9.

n is a natural number such that nC4 = nC12 . What is the remainder when n! is divided by n + 1?
(a) n 1
(b) n 2
(c) n
(n) 0

10.

What is the number of common tangents of the circles x2 + y2 2x 2y 23 = 0 and x2 + y2 12x


26y + 141 = 0?
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Page

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

11.

U = 5(log2x)2 5(log2x) 8, where x is a real number. If xU = 16, find the value of x.


(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 8

12.

The digits of a 3-digit number in Base 4 get reversed when it is converted into Base 3. How many
such numbers exist?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

Directions for questions 13 to 15: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In a country called Khelabad, each sportsman plays either Cricket or Hockey, but not both. Each of them
plays for one of the two teams Under-19 or Above-19. All the sportsmen of Khelabad who had passed in
a Physical Fitness Examination conducted by the Sports Ministry recently are certified as fit and the rest
are called unfit. It is also known that:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
13.

The ratio of the number of fit sportsmen to the number of unfit sportsmen is 3 : 2.
Fifty percent of the sportsmen who play Hockey are fit.
The number of unfit sportsmen who play Hockey for the Under-19 team is 2000.
Eighty percent of the Hockey players play for the Under-19 team.
All the sportsmen who play Cricket are fit.
The number of unfit sportsmen who play Hockey for the Above-19 team is equal to the total number
of sportsmen who play Cricket for the Above-19 team.
The total number of sportsmen who play Cricket is 1250.
What is the total number of sportsmen in Khelabad?
(a) 5000
(b) 6250
(c) 6000

(d) 5500

14.

What is the ratio of the number of unfit sportsmen who play Hockey for Above-19 team to the
number of unfit sportsmen who play Hockey for Under-19 team?
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 4 : 1

15.

What is the total number of fit sportsmen who play for Above-19 team?
(a) 1000
(b) 2000
(c) 1500
(d) Cannot be determined

16.

A = {3, 23, 43 ..603} and S is a subset of A. If the sum of no two elements of S is more than
606, then what can be the maximum possible number of elements in S?
(a) 15
(b) 14
(c) 17
(d) 16

17.

The solution set for |5x + 2| 10 is


(a) 8 x 12
5
5

18.

12
8
x
5
5

8
12
(c) x
5
5

(d)

12
8
x
5
5

There are two Arithmetic Progressions A and B such that their n th terms are given by
An = 101 + 3(n 1) and Bn = 150 + (n 1), where n is the set of natural numbers. The first 50 terms
of A and B are written alternately i.e. A1B1A2B2..A50B50. What is the remainder when the number
so formed is divided by 11?
(a) 0

Page

(b)

(b) 1

(c) 9

(d) 10
Unproctored Mock-10 2012

19.

How many 4-digit multiples of 3 can be formed using the digits 2 and 3 only?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 7

Directions for questions 20 to 22: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The table given below shows the marks scored by six students of a School in Physics, Chemistry,
Mathematics and English in an exam. Each subject is assigned a Credit as mentioned along with the
subject name in bracket. E.g. the Credit assigned to Physics is 2.5.

Subject
Student
Aman
Bipin
Cute
David
Esha
Fardeen

Physics
(2.5)

Chemistry
(1.5)

Mathematics
(4)

English
(3.5)

40
55
75
64
75
41

67
65
64
74
65
39

77
88
55
98
41
67

38
44
60
48
77
84

The Grade assigned to a student against the marks scored by him/her in a subject is calculated as
per the table given below.

Marks (X)
X < 40
40 X < 50
50 X < 65
65 X < 75
X 75

Grade
E
D
C
B
A

The points received by a student against the grade assigned to him/her in a subject are calculated
as per the table given below.
Grade
A
B
C
D
E

Points
10
8
6
4
2

The CGPA (Cumulative Grade Point Average) of a student is calculated using the formula given
below.
[Credit (Subject Y) Points Received (Subject Y)]
Credit
(Y represents one of the four subjects.)
CGPA =

20.

Page

Who among the six students got the highest CGPA?


(a) Aman
(b) Bipin
(c) Esha

(d) Fardeen

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

21.

22.

23.

Which two students got the same CGPA?


(a) Cute and Fardeen (b) Bipin and Esha

(c) Bipin and David

(d) Aman and Fardeen

What was the CGPA of Fardeen?


(a) 6.00
(b) 7.04

(c) 6.96

(d) 6.86

In the figure given below, BG = GA = GD, AD = BD and EF = EC. Also, ADFE is a cyclic quadrilateral. Which of the following statements is/are definitely true?

A
G
B

E
D

(i) The orthocentre of triangle ABC lies at point A.


(ii) GBD and GDA are congruent.
(iii) AD is a median of triangle ABC.
(iv) AD = 2
EF
(a) (i) and (iii)
24.

(d) All four are true

(b) 1 : 4

(c) 2 : 3

(d) 2 : 5

N = a 4 + b 4 + c 4 + d 4till 31 terms, where a, b, c, d etc. are distinct prime numbers.


If N is divisible by 30, then which of the following statements is/are definitely true?
I. One of the numbers is 2.
II. One of the numbers is 3.
III. One of the numbers is 5.
(a) Only I

Page

(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

In the figure given below, a regular hexagon has been constructed inside a rectangle. Find the ratio
of area of the shaded region to that of the rectangle.

(a) 1 : 3
25.

(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(b) I and III

(c) II and III

(d) I, II and III

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

26.

A sum of Rs. 9000 was invested in two different Savings Schemes. Scheme A offered Simple
Interest at the rate of 16% p.a. while Scheme B offered Compound Interest at the rate of 16% p.a.,
with semi-annual compunding. The amount received after two years from Scheme A was eight times
the amount received from Scheme B. What were the approximate amounts invested in Scheme A
and Scheme B respectively?
(a) Rs. 8,000 and Rs. 1,000
(b) Rs. 6,778 and Rs. 2,222
(c) Rs. 8,025 and Rs. 975
(d) Rs. 6,000 and Rs. 3,000

27.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Q. ax3 + bx2 + cx + d = 0 is a cubic equation where a, b, c and d are rational numbers. What is the
value of 2a + 3b + 4c + 7d?
A. The equation has one positive and two negative roots.
B. The Arithmetic Mean as well as the Geometric Mean of the roots of the equation is 5.

28.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Q. A trapezium ABCD has parallel sides as AB and CD. The diagonals AC and BD intersect at
point O. What is the area of the trapezium?
A. Area of AOD is equal to the area of BOC.
B. Area of AOB is equal to 4 cm2 and area of DOC is equal to 9 cm2.

Page

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

The bar graph given below shows the amount (in billion dollars) invested by five countries Austra
lia, Canada, Germany, India and Japan in Education in the years 2009 and 2010.

Investment (in billion dollors)

29.

4000
3500
3000
2500
2000
1500
1000
500
0

3875

3875

3250

3000
2375

3125

2875

2250
1625

2009

1250

Australia

India

Germany

Canada

2010

Japan

Country

What is the percentage change in the investment made in Education by the five countries from 2009
to 2010?
(a) 9.09%
(b) 11.11%
(c) 18.18%
(d) 22.22%
Pranab and Pavan started running along a straight line, from the same point, in the same direction
and at the same time (t = 0). The graph given below shows their respective speeds at different times.
During which interval of time would Pavan and Pranab meet for the first time?

Speed (in m/s)

30.

18
16
14
12
10
8
6
4
2
0
0

10

12

14

Tim e, t (in sec.)

(a) 46 seconds

Page

Pranab's Speed

Pavan's Speed

(b) 68 seconds

(c) 810 seconds

(d) 1012 seconds

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

Section II
31.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
In 1898 the British Egyptologists James Quibell and Frederick Green uncovered a slab of greenishgrey slate-like stone in the ruins of an early temple at the Upper Egyptian site of Hierakonpolis. This
was not a find, which, like Tutankhamuns tomb 24 years later, would bring the worlds journalists
racing to the scene, but its discoverers were almost immediately aware of its importance. Like the
Rosetta stone, this carved slab the Narmer Palette would have powerful repercussions for the
study of ancient Egypt, spreading far beyond its immediate significance at Hierakonpolis.
(a) For the next century or so, this object would be variously interpreted by Egyptologists attempting
to solve numerous different problems.
(b) No single object can necessarily typify an entire culture.
(c) The surviving artefacts from the Nile Valley are so iconic and so rich in information that they can
act as microcosms of certain aspects of ancient Egyptian culture as a whole.
(d) On the front, there is a depiction of intertwined long-necked lions (serpopards) held on leashes
by two bearded men.

32.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Tragedy is a precious word. We use it to confer dignity and value on violence, catastrophe, agony,
and bereavement. Tragedy claims that this death is exceptional. Yet these supposedly special
fatalities are in our ears and eyes every day, on the roads, in the skies, out there in foreign lands and
right here at home, the latest bad news.
(a) Do our conceptions of tragedy have any real connection with those of the ancient Greeks, with
whom it originated two and half thousand years ago as the description of a particular kind of
drama?
(b) How did tragedy migrate from the Greeks to Shakespeare and Racine, from drama to other art
forms, from fiction to real events?
(c) What needs has the idea of tragedy served, and to what use and abuse has it been put?
(d) Is the word now bandied around so freely that it has lost all meaning?

33.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
The film Gladiator opens with an epic battle in the forests of Germany. On one side are the Romans,
in disciplined units with uniform equipment. They wait in full view, in silence, and prepare their
relatively high-technology weapons. Their watchwords are strength and honour. As orders are
issued from a set hierarchy of command, they shoot as one, and advance in line. In combat they
help each other, and display courage. On the other side are the barbarians. They have no units, and,
clad in furs, no uniformity.
(a) The Greeks, in contrast, are spearmen.
(b) It is important to ask where this concept of a Western Way of War originated, why it was
constructed, and why maintained.
(c) Initially they conceal their force in the woods. Surging backwards and forwards, each man
clashes his weapons on his shield, and utters wild shouts.
(d) The Romans are portrayed as practicing what is often described as the Western Way of War,
where the aim is an open, decisive battle, which will be won by courage instilled in part by
discipline.

Page

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

Directions for questions 34 and 35: The passage given below is followed by a set of two questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
The Balkans, said Winston Churchill, produce more history than they can consume. They may also
produce more history than the EU can digest. The nationalist obsession of a single small member can
hamper the workings of the union as a whole: the division of Cyprus (an EU member) and its dispute with
Turkey (a NATO member) mean that the two most important international organisations in Europe cannot
co-ordinate properly. Thus one watchword in Brussels is no more Cyprus.
Another is no more Romania and Bulgaria. Most Eurocrats agree that the EU s two newest members,
struggling with corruption and organised crime, were let in too soon. Entry requirements have since been
toughened, raising complaints of double standards. But if mishandled, Balkan accession could yet bring
more Cypruses, Romanias and Bulgarias rolled into one.
There is another danger: that enlargement fatigue among existing members, at a time of rising xenophobia
and populism, will consign the Balkans to eternal instability. Turkeys accession talks are blocked by
members, like France and Cyprus, that do not want it to join. This is one reason why Turkey has slowed
down reforms and become more awkward in its foreign policy. Enlargement fatigue has a mirror image:
apathy and resentment. By expanding, the EU has a remarkable tool for influencing its neighbours, but
only in the right circumstances. A country must want to join, it must be given strict conditions for reforms,
it must settle disputes within and on its borders and it must see the promise of membership as genuine.
Membership without conditions spells trouble; conditions without membership spell betrayal.
34.

According to the passage, which one of the following cannot be used as an argument against a
nation that wants to join the EU?
(a) The country struggling with organized crime and corruption.
(b) The country lacks financial stability.
(c) The country is not carrying out reforms.
(d) The country has leaders with strong nationalist agendas.

35.

How can enlargement fatigue consign the Balkans to instability?


(a) Reluctance by the EU to accept them into the union will breed discontent and lead to slowing
down of reforms.
(b) Reluctance by the EU to accept them into the union will lead to nationalist sentiments being
revived.
(c) Reluctance by the EU to accept them into the union will lead to political uprising and civil unrest.
(d) Reluctance by the EU to accept them into the union will accelerate organized crime and corruption.

Page

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

Directions for questions 36 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Five friends Vikram, Vikrant, Vipin, Vijay and Vinay decide to watch a movie together. Each of them
likes movies of a different genre among Action, Comedy, Romantic, Musical and Horror, not necessarily in
the same order. Also, each of them recommended a movie from the genre of his choice. The movies
recommended by them were My Funny Nose, Abra Ka Dabra, Superman, I love You and Doomed, in no
particular order. It is also known that:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Vipin likes Horror movies.


Vinay recommended Superman, which is not an Action movie.
Abra Ka Dabra is a Musical movie.
Vikrant likes Comedy movies and recommended Doomed.

36.

For how many friends can both the choice of genre and the movie recommended be determined?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

37.

Who recommended the movie Abra Ka Dabra?


(a) Vikram
(b) Vikrant
(c) Vijay

38.

(d) Cannot be determined

Which statement, if true, would help in completing all the Name-Genre-Movie combinations?
(a) Vikram recommended Abra Ka Dabra.
(b) Vijay recommended Abra Ka Dabra.
(c) Vikram recommended My Funny Nose.
(d) None of these

Directions for questions 39 to 41: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Hofstadter approaches the Mind from the perspective of the computer sciences, in that there are both
hardware and software aspects of human intelligence. He looks at the enactment of intelligence in terms of
a formal system. In turn, Hofstadter declares that in primal, natural systems, formal systems are embedded.
He infers that in relation to what we perceive as explicit in such formal systems, there is also an aspect
that is intrinsically implicit. The idea of an embedded implicitness ultimately suggests a Within in the
heart of things.
To begin, there is a need for a descriptive presentation of Hofstadters brain system model. He uses the ant
colony as an analogy of the human brain system. Hofstadter relays that individual ants seem to be able to
cooperate as teammates and not randomly wander off. After billions of years of evolution, these ants have
passed a critical threshold...reinforcing themselves into a collective behaviour that results in an ant colony.
Hofstadter likens ant teams to signals; and, basically, the effect of signals is to transport ants of various
specialization to approximate parts of the colony. Ultimately, the fully evolved ant colony takes on a
holistic aspect, and emerging molecular mechanisms take form.
The colonys teams, its signals, are low-level active sub-systems of a complex system. These signals
trigger other signals. With this, Hofstadter draws a similarity between these team signals and the human
brains neurons and their interconnections and firings. The colonys team signals exist according to a
caste distribution; in the brain, there is no caste distribution...but a counterpart can be found in what
Hofstadter calls a brain state.
Page

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

Now Hofstadter leaps into the full system, whether it is the ant colony or the brain. He believes that the full
system is the agent, that the full system is responsible for how its symbols trigger each other. At this
juncture, Hofstadter poses the question that leads to the other side of his analogy. He ponders on the fact
that a single ant brain does not carry any information about nest structure; and then he asks, how then
does the nest get created...where does the information reside? The above questions provide Hofstadter
the vehicle in which to launch his probe of the human brain; thus, he asks how this brain carries out the
processes of thinking, how it spawns intelligence?
Underlying everything in the hardwired brain is the reality of rules. In the elementary constituents of the
brain, down to the level of the nerve cells, there is the presence of the rules. At this neural level, at this
substrate level of the brain, there can be no interpretation. There is no imitation, because the rules in the
brains hardware are basic. Hofstadter succinctly states, the brain has a formal, hidden hardware level
which is a formidably complex mechanism that makes transitions from state to state according to definite
rules embodied in it.
Intelligence resides in this brain hardware. Yet, it is of a *different quality* so infers Hofstadter. Intelligence,
although brain bound, can be lifted right out of the hardware in which it resides...or in other words, intelligence
[can] be a software property. Hofstadter focuses on the pivot that configures intelligence, mainly information
and its various expressions: such as words, stories, messages, and interpretations of meaning.
39.

Hofstadter is most likely to agree with which of the following statements?


(a) Intelligence has certain components that cannot be examined in functional isolation.
(b) At the most basic level of brain activity, rules cease to operate.
(c) Formal systems embedded in natural systems have an implicit aspect to them.
(d) Intelligence in natural systems is explicitly dependent on brain structure.

40.

Which of the following is not true about the parallels Hofstadter draws between ant colonies and
human intelligence?
(a) Both are complex systems that have several subsystems built into them and in both cases the
full system is the agent.
(b) Caste distribution in the ant colony is functionally similar to brain states.
(c) Ant teams are likened to signals in the brain.
(d) The behaviour of an individual ant in a colony is analogous to an emergent molecular mechanism
in the brain.

41.

intelligence [can] be a software property. Hofstadters implied message is that


(a) intelligence can be variously interpreted and can have several expressions; however, it operates
according to simple rules.
(b) intelligence can be conceptualised separately from the brain hardware, which houses it.
(c) intelligence is a rule-bound system and it has several expressions.
(d) intelligence carries explicit information about the underlying brain structure.

Page

10

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

42.

Five sentences are given below, labelled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate
one.
A. Classical music, by contrast, encodes maturity and, by extension, the demands of responsibility
to family and to society.
B. The meaning of the commercial emerges out of this odd juxtaposition of the music you see and
the music you hear.
C. What the commercial is saying (though not in so many words, of course) is that you can begin
responsible financial planning without selling out on your youth, freedom, and spontaneity.
D. Rock stands for youth, freedom, being true to yourself; in a word, authenticity.
E. Through music, the commercial accomplishes a kind of conjuring trick, combining both sets of
values and in this way selling the advertisers message (you need to start planning for your old
age now) to a segment of society that might be expected to be resistant to it.
(a) BDAEC

43.

(b) EDABC

(c) ECBDA

(d) BECDA

Five sentences are given below, labelled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate
one.
A. The chief modern challenge to myth has come not from ethics but from science.
B. Where Plato bemoans myths for presenting the gods as practitioners of immoral behaviour,
modern critics dismiss myth for explaining the world unscientifically.
C. It was above all the Stoics who defended myth against this charge by reinterpreting it allegorically.
D. In the West the challenge to myth goes back at least to Plato, who rejected Homeric myth on,
especially, ethical grounds.
E. Here myth is assumed to explain how gods control the physical world rather than, as for Plato,
how they behave among themselves.
(a) ABCDE

(b) AEDCB

(c) DCAEB

(d) BDCAE

Directions for questions 44 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Four students - Kali, Ranu, Dia and Dev - were asked the names of the heads of four labs - Alpha, Beta,
Theta and Gama - in a college. The heads of these four labs are Mr. Hari, Mr. Karan, Mr. Ram and Mr. Arjun,
in no particular order. Ranu named Mr. Ram as Alpha's head and Mr. Arjun as Theta's head. Both Kali and
Dia named Mr. Hari as Gama's head. Kali didn't name Mr. Karan as Theta's head. No two students named
the same person as the head in case of lab Beta. Dia and Dev named the same person as the head in case
of exactly two of the four labs. No other pair of students, apart from Dia and Dev, named the same person
as the head in case of these two particular labs. The person, who was named as the head of a different lab
by each student, was identified correctly by Dev and it was Dev's only correct answer. Ranu gave exactly
two correct answers.
44.

Who is the head of lab Alpha?


(a) Mr. Ram
(b) Mr. Arjun

(c) Mr. Hari

(d) Mr. Karan

45.

For which lab did none of the students give the name of the correct head?
(a) Alpha
(b) Beta
(c) Theta
(d) Gama

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11

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

46.

47.

Which student did not give any correct answer?


(a) Dia
(b) Kali
(c) Either (a) or (b)

(d) Both (a) and (b)

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
SEE
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

48.

I dont see fit to allow her to come here.


He said he would see about getting the license plates.
Will you please see for my plants while Im away?
We decided to see it out, even if it meant another year.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
RUB
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

49.

They did not hesitate to rub in the fact that we lost by seven goals.
It is an elite club where the rich and famous rub shoulders with one another.
His enthusiasm is so infectious that some of it rubs up on others.
Your knowledge is rusty better rub it up a bit.

Given below are four sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicised. From the
italicised words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
She seems to be the more dominating partner. Whenever they argue, the husband seems to be
supplicating (A) / duplicating (B).
The smell of asafoetida is a quintessential (A) / quixotic (B) part of Indian cooking.
We got accustomed to the distant cackle (A) / crackle (B) of machine gunfire.
The cine stars supporters crammed (A) / cramped (B) the streets.
(a) BABA

50.

(b) BBBB

(c) AABA

(d) AAAA

Given below are four sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicised. From the
italicised words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
The government is assessing (A) / accessing (B) every aspect of the situation.
The doctor councilled (A) / counseled (B) her to avoid lifting heavy objects.
She has a flair (A) / flare (B) for painting.
The speaker struck a chord (A) /cord (B) with his audience.
(a) ABAA

Page

12

(b) ABAB

(c) AAAB

(d) BBAA

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

Directions for questions 51 to 54: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose
the most appropriate answer to each question.
In each case, freedom meant a degree of instability. So I dont expect perfection. But I also dont think this
to be the time for conservatism and rereading Burke. In no colour revolution did the country find itself
facing catastrophe or a worse dictatorship. Unlike opposition movements in many parts of the Arab world,
notably Egypt and neighbouring Algeria, in the Tunisian revolt there has been no trace of Islamism.
As a Frenchman, however, I am sad to report that my government has not taken any account of this. The
French political class has traditionally had incestuous relations with the dictatorships of francophone
Africa north and south of the Sahara and in both former French or Belgian colonies and Tunisia was no
exception. At stake are French prestige and influence, economic interests, and a short-term conception of
stability against the twin spectres of Islamism and immigration. As a result of this, notorious African
dictators have been a common sight at Bastille Day parades. And, in this specific case, Ben Ali was
simply here to stay.
The first casualty in these situations, inevitably, is the truth. And its been rather amusing to hear French
ministers rationalize, sometimes distorting reality completely like an old issue of Pravda. Minister of
Culture Frdric Mitterrand said on French television that To say that Tunisia is an unequivocal dictatorship
is an exaggeration. Ben Ali had been president of Tunisia since 1987, regularly re-elected with between
89 and 100% of the vote. Minister of Agriculture Bruno Lemaire similarly declared that It isnt my place to
qualify the Tunisian regime. I am French, it isnt my place to judge a foreign government like that. The
French have had no difficulty judging the developments in Ivory Coast or, in general, claiming to make
human rights a major plank of foreign policy. Meanwhile, Foreign Minister Michle Alliot-Marie when
questioned about the bloody crackdown in Tunisia, suggested, in no less solemn a venue than the National
Assembly, that France should assist the Ben Ali regime saying that the know-how, which is recognized in
the entire world, of our security forces makes it possible to resolve security situations of this type.
Government officials and the Elyse website called for apaisement (calming down) of the situation, a line
that was parroted almost verbatim by a center-right MP on the talk show Ce soir (ou jamais !), with
scarcely a word of encouragement to the protestors or real condemnation of the crackdown.
This matters in terms of policy too. EU observer has reported that, prior to Ben Alis flight, Mediterranean
countries including France had blocked a tougher European position against the regime. The French
government didnt allow Ben Ali to take refuge in France as so many other infamous kleptocrats have in
the past as it would have been too much of a PR disaster. Or perhaps, with the Presidents escape, the
reality of the winds of change simply could not be denied any longer.
51.

What is the central idea of the passage?


(a) The French position with regard to the dictatorships in Africa.
(b) The consistency of the French position in terms of its policies with regard to the dictatorships in
North Africa.
(c) The inconsistency of the French position in terms of its policies with regard to the dictatorships
in Africa.
(d) The revolt in Tunisia and its effect on the French diplomacy.

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13

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

52.

Notorious African dictators have been a common sight at Bastille Day parades, paraphrased this
would be read as:
(a) the French have long been interested in maintaining international relations and stability.
(b) the presence of African dictators at Bastille Day parades is indicative of their influence on the
French regime.
(c) France has traditionally supported dictatorships.
(d) France has traditionally tried to maintain its influence and economic interests in the dictatorships
in Africa.

53.

The tone of the author of the passage is


(a) disappointed
(b) amused

(c) sardonic

(d) analytical

54.

What inference does the author make of the French governments refusal to give Ben Ali refuge in
France?
(a) The French government didnt have much of a choice in the said matter.
(b) The French government is confused about its stand vis--vis dictatorships in Africa.
(c) The French government has matured in its understanding of Ben Alis form of governance.
(d) The French government has been influenced by Mediterranean countries to change its position
on Ben Ali.

55.

There are two gaps in the sentence given below. From the pairs of words given, choose the one that
fills the gaps most appropriately.
At the moment, security agencies are getting _____ printouts of chat messages within four to five
hours of their requirements with RIM, a home ministry source said, adding that once it gets ________
access, it could track chat messages on a real-time basis.
(a) secure, exhaustive
(c) computer, secure

56.

(b) complete, inclusive


(d) manual, automated

There are two gaps in the sentence given below. From the pairs of words given, choose the one that
fills the gaps most appropriately.
He later said that his organization was in ________discussions with the Indian government and he
remains optimistic that a positive outcome can be achieved but _________it will not alter the security
architecture of its corporate offering.
(a) serious, announced
(b) constructive, reasserted
(c) advanced, stated
(d) preliminary, justified

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14

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

57.

Anu, Banu, Charu, Dia, Esha, Fiza and Gita were the seven players who participated in an interschool Chess tournament. Each player played with the rest six players exactly once. A win earned
a player 4 points, a draw earned 2 points and a loss earned no points. None of the matches ended
in a draw. No two players scored the same number of points in the tournament. Surprisingly, the
ranks of the seven players at the end of the tournament were found to match with the alphabetical
order of their names, with Anu getting 1st Rank, Banu getting 2nd Rank and so on. Which of the
following statements is correct?
(a) Esha defeated Fiza and scored 12 points.
(b) Fiza defeated Esha and scored 12 points.
(c) Esha defeated Fiza and scored 8 points.
(d) Fiza defeated Esha and scored 8 points.

58.

Ram started rowing upstream from the bottom of a river-bed at 7 a.m. and reached the top at 5 p.m.
He started rowing downstream from the top the next day at 7 a.m. and reached back at the starting
point at 5 p.m. The speed of the river and all other conditions that may affect his rowing speed
remain the same on the two days. Which of the following statements is definitely true?
(a) The effort put by Ram while rowing downstream was greater than that while rowing upstream.
(b) Ram was at the same point at 1 p.m. on both the days.
(c) There must be a point where Ram reached at the same time on both the days.
(d) There cannot be a point where Ram reached at the same time on both the days.

59.

Sameers house is connected to his school by seven different paths A, B, C, D, E, F and G. He


uses four different paths in a day one while going to school, one while coming back and two during
the lunch-break. Also, the following restrictions hold true:
(i) Paths A and F cannot be used on the same day.
(ii) If path B is used, then path C must be used on that day.
(iii) If path E is used, then either path D or path G, but not both, must be used on that day.
Which path is definitely taken by Sameer every day?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) E

60.

Four friends Ram, Rahul, Rajesh and Rajul live in different cities among Ramgarh, Rampur,
Rajghat and Raipur, not necessarily in the same order. They like doing different activities among
Rock Climbing, Running, River Diving and Rafting, in no particular order. It is also known that:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Rahul lives in Raipur and does not like Running and Rafting.
Ram does not live in Rampur and does not like Rafting.
The one who lives in Rampur likes River Diving.
Rajul does not like Rafting.

Who among the four lives in Rampur?


(a) Ram
(b) Rajesh

Page

(d) There is no such path.

15

(c) Rajul

(d) Cannot be determined

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

Answers and Explanations


1

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

Page

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

1. c

2. a

Let the number of blue, green and yellow balls picked


be x, y and z respectively.
x + y + z = 20
So the number of ways = 20+31C31= 22C2 = 231

The line segment joining the midpoints of two sides of


a triangle is parallel to the third side and half as long as
the third side.

Let the number of girls in the class be n.

MON : COB

60 14.8 + 14.1 n
= 14.7
60 + n

n = 10

3. d

MO ON MN 1
=
=
=
OC OB BC 2

In right angled triangles MOB and NOC, by Pythagoras


theorem
c2 = MO2 + BO2 = MO2 + 4ON2
b2 = OC2 + NO2 = 4MO2 + ON2

4 mn
(m n) =
(m + n 1)
2

(m n)2 (m + n 1 ) = 4mn
(m n)2 (m + n 1 ) = (m + n)2 (m n)2

2
2
MO + ON =

(m n)2 ( m + n) = (m + n)2
(m n)2 = (m + n)

The above equation has infinitely many solutions


where m and n are positive integers.
We can put m + n = v and m n = u, and re-write the
equation as u2 = v and then plug in different values of
u and v to get different pairs of (m, n).

(3.5)2

6. a

b2 + c 2
25 5
=
= cm
5
4
2

C a r I C a r II
d
Bus

= 72

5x

7x

Stop 1

Stop 1 3

Stop 6

Let the speeds of the two cars be s km/hr and the


distance travelled by them be 5x and 7x km
respectively. Let the distance travelled by the bus be
d km.

As the speed of minute hand is 12 times the speed of


hour hand, the angle covered by the minute hand in
the same time will be 12 i.e. 864.

Area covered by minute hand

+ c2

BC = 2MN = 5 cm

area covered by it is 7.7 cm2.


=

MN = MO2 + ON2 =

Let be the angle made by the hour hand when the


7.7 360

(b

In right angled triangle MON, by Pythagoras theorem

(Since, m + n 0)

4. d

73
and c = 13
2

b=

864 22

(5.25)2 208 cm2


360 7

d 5x
d
x
=

=
60
s
60 5 s

and

d + 12x 7x
d + 12x x
=

=
60
s
60 7
s

...(i)

...(ii)

From (i) and (ii), we get d = 30x


5. d

2 1
3

N 73

Let the lengths (in cm) of NC and MB be b and c


respectively.

Page

7. c

30x 5x
=
s = 10
60
s

25200 = 24 32 52 71
As the required divisors when divided by 4 leave
remainder 3, the power of 2 in the divisors has to be 0.
Therefore, any such divisor is of the form 3a 5b 7c,
which when divided by 4 leaves the remainder
(1)a 1b (1)c.
For the remainder to be 3 i.e. 1, one of a or c must
be even/0 and the other should be odd. Also, b can
take all the three possible values without making a
difference to the remainder.

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

The nine possibilities are listed below:


a = 0, b = 0, c = 1
a = 2, b = 0, c = 1
a = 1, b = 0, c = 0
a = 0, b = 1, c = 1
a = 2, b = 1, c = 1
a = 1, b = 1, c = 0
a = 0, b = 2, c = 1
a = 2, b = 2, c = 1
a = 1, b = 2, c = 0
8. b

10. c

U=

As n C 4 = n C 12 , n = 16. So we need to find the


remainder when 16! is divided by 17.
(p 1)! + 1 is divisible by p if p is a prime number.
Hence, 16! will leave remainder 1 i.e. 16 when divided
by 17.
Let C1 x 2 + y 2 2x 2y 23 = 0 and
C2 x 2 + y 2 12x 26y + 141 = 0.

Let points O1 and O2 be the centers and r1 and r2 be


the radii of the circles C1 and C2 respectively.
Hence, O1 (1,1) and O2 (6,13 ).
O1O2 =

(6 1)2 + (13 1)2

2
U = 5 (log2 x ) 5 (log2 x ) 8 , we get

4
= 5y2 5y 8
y
5y3 5y2 8y 4 = 0
5y2 (y 2) + 5y (y 2) + 2 (y 2) = 0
(y 2) (5y2 + 5y + 2) = 0
y = 2, as other roots are not real.
log2 x = 2 x = 22 = 4
Note: We can also substitute the options to arrive at
the answer.

12. b

Hock e y
= 13 units.

r1 =

(1)2 + (1)2 ( 23) = 5 units.

r2 =

(6 )2 + (13 )2 (141) = 8 units.

It is given that xU = 16.


Taking log to the base 2 on both the sides, we get
U log2 x = log2 16 = 4
4
U=
log2 x

Page

Let the 3-digit number be abc. Now according to the


given condition, (abc)4 = (cba)3.
16a + 4b + c = 9c + 3b + a
15a + b = 8c
The only set of numbers which satisfies the relation
given above is a = 1, b = 1 and c = 2.

For questions 13 to 15:


Let the number of fit sportsmen who play Hockey be x. From
statement (ii), the number of unfit sportsmen who play Hockey
is also x. From statements (v) and (vii), the number of fit
sportsmen who play Cricket is 1250 and the number of unfit
sportsmen who play Cricket is 0. From statement (i), we can
deduce that x is equal to 2500. From statement (iv), the number
of sportsmen who play Hockey for Under-19 team is 4000 and
the number of sportsmen who play Hockey for Above-19 team
is 1000. Further analysis leads to the tables given below.

Unde r -19 te am

Above -19 te am

Fit

Unf it

Fit

Unf it

2000

2000

500

500

Cr ick e t

r1 + r2 = 5 + 8 = 13 = O1O2
The distance between the centers of the two circles
is the same as the sum of the radii of the two. So the
two circles touch each other externally and the number
of common tangents will be 3.
11. c

4
.
y

Now putting this value in equation

Let the three numbers be 13a, 13b and 13c, where a,


b and c are coprime.
13a + 13b + 13c = 117
13(a + b + c) = 13 9
a+b+c=9
The number of positive integer solutions of
a + b + c = 9 is 9 1C31 i.e. 8C2 = 28.
However, there is a case, a = b = c = 3, where a, b and
c are not coprime.
So the answer = 28 1 = 27

9. c

Let us assume the value of log2x to be y, therefore,

Unde r -19 te am

Above -19 te am

Fit

Unf it

Fit

Unf it

750

500

13. b

The total number of sportsmen in Khelabad is 6250.

14. c

The required ratio is 1 : 4.

15. a

The total number of fit sportsmen who play for


Above-19 team is 1000.

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

16. d

The terms of set A form an A.P. with first term 3 and


common difference 20.
The number of terms in set A =

603 3
+ 1 = 31
20

Let ath and bth terms of set A be the largest and the
second largest terms of set S.

3 + 20(a 1) + 3 + 20(b 1) 606


20(a + b) + 6 40 606
a + b 32

Maximum (a, b) = (16, 15)


Thus, sum of any two elements of set A up to the 16th
term will always be less than 606. Hence, the maximum
possible number of elements in set S is 16.
17. d

Bipin

Cute

David

Esha

Fardeen

CGPA of Bipin =

The number so formed is 101150248199. We can


write this number as:
101 10

297

+150 10

294

+. . .+ 248 10 +199 10
3

The sum of the digits of the 4-digit numbers could be:


i. 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 8
ii. 2 + 2 + 2 + 3 = 9
iii. 2 + 2 + 3 + 3 = 10
iv. 2 + 3 + 3 + 3 = 11
v. 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 = 12
Only cases (ii) and (v) can be taken for the numbers
to be divisible by 3.
Total such numbers =

(6 2.5 + 8 1.5 + 10 4 + 4 3.5)


(11.5)

= 7.04
CGPA of Cute =

101 + 248
150 + 199
=
50 +
50
2
2

349
349
=
50 +
50 = 0.
2
2

(4 2.5 + 8 1.5 + 10 4 + 2 3.5)


(11.5)

= 6.00

When 10n is divided by 11, the remainder is 1 if n is


even and the remainder is 1 if n is odd.
Thus, the remainder when the number is divided by 11
= 101 + 150 104 +151248 +199
= (101 + 104 + 107+ 248) + (150 + 151+ 199)

Page

Aman

CGPA of Aman =

10 5x + 2 10
8
12

x
5
5

19. c

Subject Physics Chemistry Mathematics English


(2.5)
(1.5)
(4)
(3.5)
Student

5x + 2 = (5x + 2)
5x + 2 10 and (5x + 2) 10

18. a

For questions 20 to 22:


The table given below shows the grades received by the
students in different subjects.

(10 2.5 + 6 1.5 + 6 4 + 6 3.5)


(11.5)

= 6.87
CGPA of David =

(6 2.5 + 8 1.5 + 10 4 + 4 3.5)


(11.5)

= 7.04
CGPA of Esha =

(10 2.5 + 8 1.5 + 4 4 + 10 3.5)


(11.5)

= 7.65
CGPA of Fardeen =

(4 2.5 + 2 1.5 + 8 4 + 10 3.5)


(11.5)

= 6.96
20. c

Esha got the highest CGPA.

21. c

Bipin and David got the same CGPA.

22. c

The CGPA of Fardeen was 6.96.

4!
+ 1 = 5.
3!

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

25. d

23. b
A
a
G

a 2

2a

a 2

The 4th power of any prime number is an odd natural


number except when the prime number is 2. Hence if
none of the 31 prime numbers is 2, we can say that N
must be an odd number. This is not true as N is divisible
by 2. Hence, one of the numbers is definitely 2.

As 30 = 2 3 5, any natural number which is divisible


by 30 must also be divisible by 2, 3 and 5.

2a 2

In triangle ABD, + + 2 = 180 = 45


As exterior angle of a cyclic quadrilateral is equal to
the interior opposite angle, angle DAE = angle EFC and
angle AEF = angle ADB.

All prime numbers, except 2 and 5, have 1, 3, 7 or 9 as


the unit digit. Thus the 4th power of each of these
prime numbers must end with 1. The remainder obtained
when 5 divides the fourth power of each of these
numbers is 1. The same is true for 24, which is definitely
one of the terms as concluded above.
Hence, if none of the prime numbers is 5, the overall
remainder when N is divided by 5, will be 1 + 1 + 1 +

Hence, = = 45

131 times 31 1. This is not true as N is divisible

(i) ABC is a right angled isoceles triangle and so its

by 5. Hence, one of the numbers is definitely 5.

Let AG = BG = GD = a units

orthocentre lies at A.

Similarly, the 4th power of any prime number except


34 leaves a remainder of 1 on division by 3. Further
analysis (as done in the case above) will lead to the
conclusion that N wont be divisible by 3 if none of the
31 numbers is 3. Hence, one of the numbers is
definitely 3.

(ii) GBD GDA


(iii) Since AD = BD and AD = DC, BD = DC. Thus AD is
a median of ABC .
(iv) In right angled isoceles triangle EFC, let EF = EC be
b units; therefore, FC = b 2 units.

DF = a 2 b 2 , which must be greater than 0.

26. c

Hence, a 2 > 2 or AD > 2


b
EF

Let the sum invested in Scheme A be PA and the sum


invested in Scheme B be PB. Thus after two years PA
will amount to PA (1.32) and PB will amount to PB(1.08)4.
As per the given condition,
1.32 PA= 8 (PB(1.08)4)

24. b

A
3a

2a

2a

Also, PA + PB = Rs. 9,000


.
Thus, PA= Rs. 8,025 and PB= Rs. 975

3a

27. d
3a

3a
a

2a

Let the side of the regular hexagon be 2a units.


Each angle of the regular hexagon is equal to 120.
ABC = 60 and ACB = 30 .

PA
= 8.25
PB

From Statement A:
We cannot find the values of a, b, c and d.
From Statement B:
Since the Arithmetic Mean is equal to the Geometric
Mean, we can say that each root is equal to 5. So the
equation is k(x 5)3 = 0, where k is a real number. The
values of a, b, c and d will depend on k and hence
cannot be determined uniquely.

As the sides of a 90-60-30 triangle are in the ratio


2 : 3 : 1 , AB = a units and AC = 3a units .

The required ratio =

Page

Combining Statements A and B:


The two statements cannot be combined.

1
a 3a
1
2
=
4
4a 2 3a

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

28. a

From Statement A:
We cannot find the area of the trapezium, as the
statement just gives a fact and there is no new
information.

Tim e
(in s e conds )

From Statement B:
A

Area ADC = Area BCD

(Triangles with the same base and between the same


parallel lines have equal areas)
Area AOD + Area DOC = Area BOC + Area DOC
Area AOD = Area BOC

30. c

Page

18

32

40

52

10

72

66

12

100

72

14

112

74

The paragraph describes an epic battle scene from


the movie Gladiator. It describes the two opposing
sides in the war. The first side (Romans) is described
at length. The other side (barbarians) has been
mentioned just before the Para breaks. The next line
will describe them as is done in option (c).

34. b

The aspect of financial stability is not mentioned in the


passage. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
Option (a) can be eliminated as the EU has said No
more Romania and Bulgaria and option (a) highlights
the problems they have been facing. Option (c) can
be inferred from the last paragraph. Refer to the lines
A country must want to join, it must be given strict
conditions for reforms. Option (d) can be inferred
from the first paragraph. Refer to the lines The
nationalist obsession of a single small member can
hamper the workings of the union as a whole.

15,125 12,375
100% = 22.22%
12,375

In the speed-time graph, distance covered during any


interval of time is equal to the area under the speedtime graph during that particular interval. The table
given below shows the total distances covered by
Pavan and Pranab after t = 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14
seconds.

33. c

Hence, area of the trapezium = 6 + 6 + 9 + 4 = 25 cm2.


The total investment made by Australia, India, Germany,
Canada and Japan in Education in:
Year 2009 = $12,375 bn
Year 2010 = $15,125 bn
The required percentage change

15

Author mentions that tragedy is a precious word and


yet we have started using it all too often. He says that
we use it to describe all kinds of fatalities and hence
the word has now lost its importance.

(Areas of triangles with the same vertex and with


their bases on the same straight line are in the ratio of
their respective bases)

29. d

32. d

Area AOB AO 4
Area AOD AO a
and
=
=
=
=
Area BOC OC a
Area DOC OC 9

4 a
= a2 = 4 9 a = 6 cm2
a 9

The last line of the passage states that this carved


stone would have powerful repercussions for the
study of ancient Egypt. Option (b) presents a
contradiction to the idea presented in the last line and
is negated. Option (c) shifts the discussion from the
Narmer Palette to the surviving artefacts from the Nile
valley. Option (d) shifts the focus from the effect of
this discovery to the details of the stone rather abruptly.
This object in option (a) refers to this carved slab
the Narmer Palette mentioned in the last line of the
passage and makes option (a) the most appropriate
choice.

a cm2

By Pr anab

31. a

Let us assume area AOD and area BOC be

By Pavan

Till t = 8 seconds, the distance covered by Pranab


was more than that covered by Pavan. However, it
can be observed from the table that the total distance
covered by Pavan exceeded that covered by Pranab
at t = 10 seconds. This means that Pavan must have
overtaken Pranab during the interval 810 seconds.

Dis tance Cove r e d (in m e te r s )

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

35. a

The answer can be inferred by using the example of


Turkey. After realizing that efforts to join the EU were
blocked, Turkey slowed down reforms and its foreign
policy became awkward. Refer to the line,
membership without conditions spells trouble;
conditions without membership spell betrayal, which
indicates that the reluctance by EU to accept them into
the union will breed discontent.

colony and emergent molecular mechanisms in the


brain. Individual ants have not been compared to such
mechanisms.
41. b

The passage talks about information and its various


expressions as a pivot that configures intelligence.
While its mentioned that In the elementary constituents
of the brain, down to the level of the nerve cells, there
is the presence of the rules, it is not claimed that
intelligence operates according to simple rules. Hence,
option (a) is negated. It cannot be concluded that
intelligence can have several expressions thus option
(c) is also negated. Option (b) comes directly from the
passage as the passage mentions that intelligence
(though resides in the brain hardware and is thus
brain bound) can be lifted out. Thus, it can be
conceptualised separately from brain hardware which
houses it.

42. a

BDAEC
B is the opening sentence as it introduces the topic.
The word this in B is a demonstrative adjective and
describes the juxtaposition. D and A continue this idea
and explain by giving examples of rock and classical
music. DA forms a mandatory pair as A talks about the
condensed and elaborate meanings of classical music.
E should come immediately after DA as it talks about
both sets of values. C summaries the whole concept
and should come in the end. EC forms a mandatory
pair as both the sentences talk about commercials
depicting an idea through music.

43. c

DCAEB
This question can be solved by options. Sentence B
cannot come before D as D introduces Plato. This
eliminates option (a) and option (d). D says that Plato
on ethical grounds rejected the Homeric myth and A
says that the chief modern challenge to myth has not
come from ethics but from science. So A should come
after D. Hence, option (c) is the correct option. It starts
with discussing the challenges to myth (in D). C carries
the idea further and states that this challenge was
above all the Stoics. A talks about the modern
challenge. So DCA are connected. E talks about the
basis of the modern challenge and B summarises the
concept.

For questions 36 to 38:


The given information can be tabulated as shown below.

Friend

Genre

Movie Recommended

Vikrant

Comedy

Doomed

Vipin

Horror

My Funny Nose/I love You

Romantic

Superman

Vikram

Vijay
Vinay
36. b

The complete information can be determined only for


Vikrant and Vinay.

37. d

Either Vikram or Vijay.

38. c

If Vikram recommended My Funny Nose, then Vijay


must have recommended Abra Ka Dabra and Vipin
must have recommended I love You. Hence, all the
combinations can be determined.

39. c

Option (a) cannot be inferred from the passage. Nothing


is mentioned about examining components of
intelligence in functional isolation. Option (b) is negated
by In the elementary constituents of the brain, down
to the level of the nerve cells, there is the presence of
the rules. Option (d) does not follow from the
passage. Hofstadter opines that intelligence might be
brain bound, but it can be lifted right out of the
hardware in which it resides. Option (c) is correct; it
can be inferred from the lines he infers that in relation
to..a Within in the heart of things.

40. d

Page

Options (a), (b) and (c) can be inferred from the


passage. Hofstadter draws an analogy between ant
teams in a colony and brain states. He further states
that these teams are low-level active sub-systems
of a complex system. It is also mentioned in the
passage that Hofstadter likens ant teams to signals.
Option (d) cannot be concluded from the passage.
Refer to the lines Ultimately, the fully evolved ant
colony takes on a holistic aspect, and emerging
molecular mechanisms take form. Here, the analogy
is between the holistic aspect of a fully developed ant

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

For questions 44 to 46:


The information given can be tabulated as shown below.

Kali

Student

Ranu

Dia

47. c

See fit means to consider proper, desirable, etc


(I dont see fit to allow her to come here). See about
means to turn ones attention to; take care of (He said
he would see about getting the license plates). See
after means to attend to; take care of (Will you please
see after my plants while Im away?). See for has
been used incorrectly in option (c). See out means to
remain with (a task, project, etc.) until its completion
(We decided to see it out, even if it meant another
year).

48. c

Rub in means to constantly remind someone that he


is inferior or unfortunate etc. Rub shoulders (with)
means to be on intimate terms with somebody. Rub up
on means revise for example: I need to rub up on my
Portuguese before I go to Brazil. Option (c) is incorrect.
The correct expression is rub off on/onto others which
means to pass a quality or characteristic to people.
Rub it up means refresh ones knowledge of something.

49. c

AABA
Supplicating is the right choice. It means to talk or act
in a humble manner. Quintessential is the right word.
It means the most typical example of something.
Crackle is the right word. It means small, sharp, sudden
and repeated noises. Cackle, on the other hand,
means a sharp broken noise like that made by a hen or
the sound of sudden sharp laughter. Crammed the
streets is the right expression- it means filled the
streets. Cramped, on the other hand, is used as an
adjective to describe a small space like cramped
conditions, cramped rooms etc.

50. a

ABAA
Assessing is the right word. It means to determine
the value of something. Accessing means to
approach or enter some place. Counseled is the right
choice. It means advised. Flair means talent, having
the skill for something. Flare means a sudden outburst
(as of excitement or anger), a spreading outward;
also : a place or part that spreads. Chord is the right
choice. To strike a chord means to say or do
something that makes people feel sympathy or
enthusiasm. Cord means a rope or wire or cable.

Dev

Lab
Alpha

Mr. Ram

Beta
Theta
Gama

Mr. Arjun
Mr. Hari

Mr. Hari

Beta cannot be the lab for which Dia and Dev named the same
person as the head as it is already given that no two students
named the same person as the head in case of lab Beta. Gama
also cannot be the lab for which Dia and Dev named the same
person as the head as in that case all three - Kali, Dia and Dev
- would have named Mr. Hari as Gama's head. So Dia and Dev
must have named the same person as the head in case of
Alpha and Theta.
The cell Theta-Kali cannot be filled by Mr. Karan (given in
question), Mr. Hari (filled in the cell Gama-Kali) and Mr. Arjun
(filled in the cell Theta-Ranu and no pair of students, other than
Dia and Dev, can name the same person as the head for
Theta). So Kali must have named Mr. Ram as the head of lab
Theta. Subsequently, the only person who could have been
named as the head of lab theta by Dia and Dev is Mr. Karan.
Further analysis leads to the following table:

Student

Kali

Ranu

Dia

Dev

Lab
Alpha

Mr. Karan Mr. Ram

Beta

Mr. Arjun Mr. Karan Mr. Ram

Theta

Mr. Ram

Mr. Arjun Mr. Karan Mr. Karan

Gama

Mr. Hari

Mr. Hari

Mr. Arjun Mr. Arjun

Mr. Hari

Mr. Hari
Mr. Ram

Dev correctly identified Gama's head. Therefore, Mr. Ram is


the head of lab Gama. Hence, Mr. Arjun, Mr. Karan and Mr. Hari
are the heads of Theta, Beta and Alpha respectively.
44. c

Mr. Hari is the head of lab Alpha.

45. a

Lab Alpha

46. d

Both Kali and Dia got all the answers incorrect.

Page

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

51. c

52. d

The third paragraph of the passage brings out the


central idea as the author starts by saying that the
first casualty is the truth. He also goes on to state that
the French have no difficulty in passing judgment on
matters in the Ivory Coast, however they refrained
from doing so with regard to matters in Tunisia. Option
(c) is the correct answer. Option (a) is incomplete.
Option (b) is opposite to the central idea. Option (d) is
incorrect as it talks only about Tunisia. Moreover, the
effect on French diplomacy is not discussed in the
passage. The passage focuses more on the response
of the French government.
The second paragraph states At stake are French
prestige and influence, economic interests, and a
short-term conception of stability against the twin
specters of Islamism and immigration. The paragraph
goes on to indicate that the French have tried to maintain
this by maintaining relations with African dictators.
Option (d) is the best answer. Option (a) is incorrect
as it does not state that the French interest was linked
to African dictatorships. Option (b) is incorrect as there
is no indication that the African dictators influenced
France. Option (c) is also incorrect because the
connotation here is that France has supported the
rise and possibly the growth of dictatorships in Africa.
This has not been indicated in the passage.

53. a

Throughout the passage the author expresses


disappointment with the French governments policy
as far as dictatorships in Africa are concerned. In
fact, he makes it quite clear in the beginning of the
second paragraph, when he says as a Frenchman
... I am sad to report.... and again in the third paragraph
Government officials with scarcely a word of
encouragement to the protestors or real condemnation
of the crackdown.

54. a

The French government did not have much of a choice


because providing refuge to Ben Ali was perhaps
fraught with the prospect of a PR crisis. Alternately,
the support could have meant turning ones face away
from the undeniable change that had happened. The
last line of the paragraph presents the inference that
the author makes on the French refusal to give Ben Ali
refuge. Option (b) goes against the information in the
passage. Option (c) is beyond the scope of the
passage and option (d) is incorrect in light of the
information given in the passage.

Page

55. d

Exhaustive means comprehensive. Secure and


complete do not fit in the context of taking printouts.
Manual means involving or using human effort and
this fits in the context of a contrast with tracking
messages on a real-time basis. The answer is option
(d).

56. b

Constructive means promoting further development


or advancement. Advanced means further along in
progress. Though preliminary and advanced can be
used to describe discussions, they do not fit in the
context as the rest of the sentence says that he
remains optimistic that a positive outcome can be
achieved. Reassert means to state with assurance
or state strongly. The answer is option (b).

57. c

Each player played six matches and had a different


score. This means that the maximum that a player
could score was 24 points. Since they all had different
scores which should be multiples of 4 (since no match
ended in a draw), the points scored by Anu, Banu,
Charu, Dia, Esha, Fiza and Gita must have been 24,
20, 16, 12, 8, 4 and 0 respectively.

58. c

Since he took equal time while rowing upstream and


downstream, he must have put more effort while
rowing upstream.
The journey upstream and the journey downstream
started at the same time and also ended at the same
time (on different days). So if we were to assume a
hypothetical case in which a person starts rowing
downstream at 7 a.m. and another person starts rowing
upstream at the same time, then there would be a
point on the path where they would meet (i.e. they
would reach at the same time), irrespective of their
speeds. The given case is similar except for the fact
that here there is only one person moving in opposite
directions on two different days. So there has to be a
point on the path where Ram reached at the same time
on both the days.

59. b

Either A or F can be used in a day. Among the paths D,


E and G, at most two paths can be used in a day.
Case I: If paths A/F and B are used in a day, the
following cases are possible:
(i) A/F, B, C, D
(ii) A/F, B, C, G

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

Case II: If path A/F is used but path B is not used, the
following cases are possible:
(i) A/F, C, E, D
(ii) A/F, C, E, G
(iii) A/F, C, D, G
Case III: If paths A and F are not used, the following
cases are possible:
(i) B, C, E, D
(ii) B, C, E, G
(iii) B, C, D, G
In all the possible cases, path C is definitely used.
60. c

The given information can be tabulated as shown


below:

Friend
Ram

City
Rajghat/Ramgarh

Activity
Running
Rock Climbing

Rahul

Raipur

Rajesh

Ramgarh/Rajghat

Rafting

Rajul

Rampur

River Diving

Hence, Rajul lives in Rampur.

Page

10

Unproctored Mock-10 2012

Unproctored Mock-11 2012


Section I
1.

Each root of the equation ax3 7x2 + cx + 231 = 0 is an integer. One of the roots is

1
times the
2

sum of the other two roots. What is the sum of all the possible values of a?
(a) 17
(b) 7
(c) 17
(d) None of these
2.

In the figure given below, ABCDEF is a regular hexagon whose diagonals intersect at point O. G is
the centroid of triangle AOF and L is the midpoint of FO. The line segment HK joins the midpoints of
AB and CD. Find the ratio of the shaded area marked x to the shaded area marked y.

(a) 3 : 7
3.

M = 3 5 + 9 4 5 and N =

(a) 0
4.

(b) 2 : 9

(b) 1

(c) 2 : 5

(d) 3 : 11

MN
?
M+N
(d) None of these

7 1 11 4 7 . What is the value of

(c) 1

1
1
1
= Q + = 1, where P, Q and R are real numbers. What is the value of PQR + R + ?
P
Q
R
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) Cannot be determined
P+

5.

Anant purchased x chocolates for Rs. y, where y is a natural number. The shopkeeper had offered
to give him x+10 chocolates for Rs. 2. Anant declined the offer though it would have resulted in a
saving of 80 paise per dozen chocolates for him. Which of the following can be the number of
chocolates purchased by Anant?
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 15

6.

There are two boxes I and II. Each contains balls of two colours White and Black. A ball is
selected at random. It is known that P(W I) = 0.3 and P(B'|II) = 0.8, where W, B, I and II represent
the events White ball selected, Black ball selected, ball selected from Box I and ball selected from
Box II respectively. Find P(I|B).

7.

2
1
1
3
(b)
(c)
(d)
3
3
2
4
N is a five-digit perfect square whose unit digit is same as the tens digit. How many such N are
there?
(a) 31
(b) 30
(c) 33
(d) 32

Page

(a)

Unproctored Mock-11 2012

8.

N = 70! 69! 68! ..... 3! 2! 1!


Which of the following represents the 147th digit from the right end of N?
(a) 2
(b) 0
(c) 5
(d) 7
a
b
c
, where a, b and c are the three sides of a triangle, then which of the
+
+
b+c c +a a+b
following best describes the range in which n lies?

If n =

9.

3
(a) , 2
2
10.

2 3
(b) ,
3 2

5
(c) 1,
2

4 5
(d) ,
3 3

P and Q are two points 100 km apart. A starts running from P towards Q at 10 km/hr. B starts
running from Q at exactly the same time and in the same direction as that of A at 20 km/hr. After an
hour, B turns back and changes his speed to 10 km/hr. After another hour, B again turns back and
changes his speed to 20 km/hr. He keeps on changing his speed and direction in this manner till the
time he meets A. After how much time will A and B meet for the first time?
(a) 30 hours
(b) 18 hours
(c) 10 hours
(d) 20 hours

Directions for questions 11 and 12: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Two stock traders Hasan and Sajid trade in the shares of Pineapple Group only. Each of them follows
a different strategy for selling and buying the stocks. Sajid sells an equal number of shares at 9 a.m. and
10 a.m. and buys them back in equal numbers at 1 p.m. and 2 p.m. Hasan sells some shares at 11 a.m.
and the rest at 12 noon such that the amount he gets on the two occasions is the same. He buys back the
whole lot at 3 p.m. The chart given below displays the performance of Pineapple Group stock on two
particular days Day 1 and Day 2.
The profit/loss made by a trader on a particular day is the difference between the amount that he obtains by
selling the shares and the amount that he spends in buying the shares. Margin for a day is the profit/loss
expressed as a percentage of the total amount obtained by selling the shares on that day.

Stock price (in Rs.)

Stock Price Movement of Pineapple Group over a Trading Day

800
700
600
500
400
300
200
100
0

750
625

625
500
375

300

500
400

10:00
a.m.

Day 1 Stock Price


Movement

375

Day 2 Stock Price


Movement

300

200

9:00
a.m.

750

11:00
a.m.

12:00
noon

1:00
p.m.

250

225

2:00
p.m.

3:00
p.m.

Time
Page

Unproctored Mock-11 2012

11.

If Sajid and Hasan sold an equal number of shares on Day 1, then which of the following statements
would definitely be true?
I. Hasan made more profit than Sajid on Day 1.
II. Hasan made less profit than Sajid on Day 1.
III. Hasans Margin was more than Sajids Margin on Day 1.
IV. Hasans Margin was less than Sajids Margin on Day 1.
(a) I only
(b) I and IV
(c) II and IV
(d) I and III

12.

What was the ratio of Hasans Margin to Sajids Margin on Day 2?


(a) 13 : 20
(b) 11 : 20
(c) 20 : 13

13.

(d) Cannot be determined

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Q. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral in which AB = 8 cm and BC = 15 cm. What is the area of the
quadrilateral?
A. AD = CD
B. The length of the diameter of the circumcircle of triangle BCD is 17 cm.

Directions for questions 14 to 16: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Average Revenue Per Unit Energy


Consumed per Department
(in Rs. Lacs/W-hrs)

The graph given below shows the statistics of five companies Perfitti VM, UB Group, ITC, Unilever and
Wipro in India. Each point on the graph indicates the Total Revenue generated by a different department
of one of these companies and the Average Revenue generated per Unit Energy Consumed by that particular
department.

700
600
500

Perfitti VM

400

UB Group
ITC Ltd.

300

Unilever
Wipro

200
100
0
0

200

400

600

800

1000

1200

Total Revenue per Department (in Rs. Crores)


Page

Unproctored Mock-11 2012

14.

If the departments represented in the graph are the only departments in the five companies where
energy is consumed, then for which company is the Energy Consumption the highest?
(a) Wipro
(b) UB Group
(c) ITC Ltd.
(d) None of these

15.

How many of the represented departments across the five companies have consumed less than
100W-hrs of energy?
(a) Seven
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Six

16.

Which of the five companies has the highest number of departments that generate more than
Rs. 600 crores as the Total Revenue and consume less than 200W-hrs of energy?
(a) Perfitti VM
(b) Unilever
(c) Wipro
(d) ITC Ltd.

17.

A 3-digit natural number abc, where a, b and c are distinct digits, when increased by 33.33%
becomes cab. When cab is increased by 33.33% it becomes bca. How many such numbers are
there?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 5

18.

In the figure given below, a tangent is drawn at point P on a circle of radius 1 cm. A and B are two
points on the tangent and ABCD is a rectangle, where C and D are two points on the circumference
of the circle. What is the approximate area (in cm2) of the rectangle ABCD if 2AB = BC?

A
(a) 1.77

(b) 1.50

B
(c) 1.83

(d) 1.60

19.

In how many ways can 18 identical balls be distributed among 3 identical boxes?
(a) 25
(b) 210
(c) 105
(d) 37

20.

One hundred ml of alcohol is mixed with y ml of water. Forty ml of this alcohol-water mixture is
added to 2y ml of another alcohol-water mixture whose alcohol concentration is 26%. If the percentage
of water in the resultant mixture is 2y%, then what is the value of y?
(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 20
(d) 25

21.

If a and b are real numbers such that aa = b and a b , then what is the value of ab b?
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2

22.

A function f(x) is defined for all real values of x as f(x) =

x 1
. If y1 = f(x), y2 = f(f(x)), y3 = f(f(f(x)))
x +1

and so on, then what is the value of y501?


(a) 1
x
Page

(b)

x +1
x 1

(c) 501x 1

(d) x 1
x +1
Unproctored Mock-11 2012

23.

What is the equation of the straight line which passes through the point of intersection of the
straight lines 3x + 4y 11 = 0 and x + y 3 = 0 and is parallel to the line 2x + 5y = 0?
(a) 5x 2y 12 = 0
(b) 2x + 5y 12 = 0
(c) 2x + 5y 9 = 0
(d) 5x + 2y 9 = 0
If a and b are integers such that log2 (a + b ) + log2 (a b ) = 3, then how many different pairs

24.

(a, b) are possible?


(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 3

25.

A cylindrical pipe of length 75 m, through which water flows at the rate of 54 km/hr, can fill 80% of a
cuboidal tank of 118800 m3 capacity in 14 hours. What is the radius (in cm) of the cross section of
the pipe?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 50
(d) Cannot be determined

26.

A large cube is formed by bringing together 729 smaller identical cubes. Each face of the larger
cube is painted with red colour. How many smaller cubes are there none of whose faces is painted?
(a) 216
(b) 256
(c) 343
(d) None of these

Directions for questions 27 and 28: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

1000

137500
700000
425000
950000

187500
725000
160000
8000

10000

Oil Exports

1000

7500
5000
8500

100000

40000
13750
35000

1000000

Non-Oil Exports

225

Exports and Imports (in Rs. crores)

The graph given below shows the total Exports and Imports of a country for four different years.

Oil Imports

100

Non-Oil Imports

10
1
1980-81

1990-91

2000-01

2010-11

Year

Please note:
(i) Total Exports is the sum of Oil Exports and Non-Oil Exports.
(ii) Total Imports is the sum of Oil Imports and Non-Oil Imports.
(iii) Oil Trade Balance is the surplus of Oil Exports over Oil Imports.
(iv) Non-Oil Trade Balance is the surplus of Non-Oil Exports over Non-Oil Imports.
(v) Total Trade Balance is the sum of Oil Trade Balance and Non-Oil Trade Balance.

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Unproctored Mock-11 2012

27.

Which of the following experiences the highest increase?


(a) Oil Exports from 2000-01 to 2010-11.
(b) Oil Imports from 1990-91 to 2000-01.
(c) Oil Trade Balance from 1990-91 to 2000-01.
(d) Total Trade Balance from 1990-91 to 2000-01

28.

Which of the following experiences the lowest percentage change?


(a) Non-Oil Exports from 2000-01 to 2010-11.
(b) Total Exports from 1990-91 to 2000-01.
(c) Oil Imports from 1980-81 to 1990-91.
(d) Total Imports from 2000-01 to 2010-11.

Directions for questions 29 and 30: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The performance appraisal of the employees of Hondai Motors Pvt Ltd. was done three times in the year
2010. The first appraisal was done in January, the second in July and the third in November. Only the
employees who were appraised in January were eligible for appraisal in July and only those who were
appraised in July were eligible for appraisal in November.
During an appraisal, an employee was appraised on exactly one of the three performance areas Individual
Performance, Team Performance and Moral Conduct. An employee already appraised on a particular
performance area was not appraised on the same performance area in subsequent appraisal(s) during the
year.
The table given below shows the number of employees appraised in each of the three appraisal months in
2010 for different performance areas.
Performance Area
Individual Performance
Team Performance
Moral Conduct

Appraisal Month
January
July
November
71
30
9
67
22
13
97
29
11

29.

How many employees of Hondai Motors Pvt Ltd. were appraised on exactly one performance area
in 2010?
(a) 235
(b) 121
(c) 154
(d) None of these

30.

Among the employees of Hondai Motors Pvt Ltd. who were appraised in 2010, how many were not
appraised on Individual Performance?
(a) 125
(b) 134
(c) 113
(d) 165

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Unproctored Mock-11 2012

Section II
Directions for questions 31 to 33: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Dont shoot the messenger is usually a good rule to live by. But it is hard when it comes to Bernie Madoff,
the former billionaire serving a 150-year jail term for running historys biggest Ponzi scheme.
Yet, in recent jailhouse interviews, Madoff has given a valuable insight into causes of the Great Recession,
whose awful impact has blighted millions of lives across America and around the world. No one can deny
Madoffs activities were an appalling fraud, but, he insists, what about the involvement of everyone else in
the global financial system.
They had to know, Madoff told the New York Times, referring to the banks and hedge funds that greedily
reaped millions in fees from his operations. He pointed out to New York magazine that he refused to give
the banks any information as to how he got such high returns and would not let them do due diligence. Yet
they never complained.
These banks and these funds had to know there were problems, he said.
No wonder that Irving Picard, the trustee representing Madoffs victims, has filed a civil suit seeking damages
from banks who did business with Madoff. They include big Wall Street names like HSBC, Citigroup, JP
Morgan and Merrill Lynch. Just because Madoff is a crook sitting in jail does not mean he isnt right when
he tells us to look elsewhere, too.
Yet, unfortunately, Madoff is the only one behind bars.
That is the worst thing about the whole sorry saga. Madoff and his scheme have become a useful foil for the
entire finance industry and a distraction from its venality. Its always Madoff that the tabloids put on the
front pages. Its Madoff who is the ultimate banking bogey man. Its Madoff who spurs public outrage and
whose jailing has satiated a quest for justice. It is the classic one bad apple defence of the kind banks
and Wall Street specialise in. It is not the systems or the bosses fault, they say, it is just a few rogue
operators and they have been dealt with.
But we should not be fooled. We should listen to Madoff when he fingers the whole financial sector and the
giant firms within it as part of the problem, too. He told New York magazine:
Its unbelievable no one has has any criminal convictions. The whole new regulatory reform is a joke.
Hes not alone in being amazed that, despite the astonishing frauds and manipulations by Wall Street
during the boom years, not one top banking or hedge fund executive sits in jail. It is indeed jaw-dropping.
31.

Which of these can be inferred as the insight given by Madoff?


(a) The Recession was caused by a few rogue operators.
(b) The Recession was caused by the failure of the banks and financial organizations.
(c) The Recession was caused by the venality of the finance industry.
(d) The Recession was caused, in part, by the actions of the banking and financial industry.

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Unproctored Mock-11 2012

32.

Why does the author call Madoff the ultimate banking bogeyman?
(a) Madoff has come to represent the wrongs committed by the banking industry.
(b) Madoff has come to represent the type of agent that caused the recession.
(c) Madoffs actions were like those of a bogeyman.
(d) Madoff was to blame for the banking industry losing millions.

33.

Which one of these would be the best title for the passage?
(a) Bernie Madoff The new banking poster boy
(b) Beyond Madoff - Who else is to blame for the Recession?
(c) How did Bernie Madoff cause the Recession?
(d) How did the financial sector contribute to the Recession?

Directions for questions 34 and 35: The passage given below is followed by a set of two questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
The British monarch, Elizabeth II, in a green dress and leprechaun hat daintily sipping a glass of Guinness
through a straw would have been a most fantastic depiction anytime in her past 59-year reign. But on
Wednesday a cartoon in Londons Independent came close to reality, excepting perhaps the frothy beer
mug dancing in the air. For the first time in a century, ever since her grandfather, George V, crossed the
Irish Sea, a reigning British monarch has set foot on Ireland. That absence of a hundred years puts into
relief the bloodshed, bitter enmity and mistrust that have marked Anglo-Irish relations and cleaved the two
nations all along. As a foil, her presence has been invested, not very surprising for Dublin, by a high degree
of symbolism some real, some exaggerated. The real: the queens laying of the wreath at the Garden of
Remembrance to honour the Irish patriots who fought against the British. The exaggerated: her green cloak
to go with the Emerald Isle.
The queens visit is meant to symbolise more than anything else an acknowledgment that history should
not be allowed to stand in the way of the future; that the two nations have come a long way since the Easter
Rising and the Irish War of Independence and the many fraught years since. While Sinn Feins black
balloons, the largely deserted streets and the heavy security presence reminded that history could not be
too easily wished away, the queen took the first step towards a new rapprochement between the old
adversaries. A year ago, British Prime Minister David Cameron had already apologised for the Bloody
Sunday of 1972.
As Stephen said in Ulysses, History is a nightmare from which I am trying to awake. That is quite like
what the British and the Irish are trying to do.
34.

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?


I. Relations between England and Ireland are cordial now.
II. Both Irish and British have been making efforts to ease the tension between the two nations.
III. The queen had chosen her attire to match Irish colours.
(a) Only I
(b) II and III
(c) I and II
(d) None of the above

35.

How is the quote from Ulysses relevant to Britain and Ireland?


(a) After years of conflict between Britain and Ireland, efforts are being made to resolve issues.
(b) After years of shared misfortune, Britain and Ireland are trying to make amends.
(c) Both Britain and Ireland have a tragic past that they are trying to recover from.
(d) Britain and Ireland have had bitter enmity and mistrust toward each other but that is now a thing
of the past.

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Unproctored Mock-11 2012

Directions for questions 36 to 39 : The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
But I wonder how much real attention Dickenss books will get. In America at least, he seems to be an
author more known than read. (Find me someone who claims to have read Martin Chuzzlewit and I will
show you a goddamned liar.) Yet even if youve read only one of his books, his stamp is such that it feels
like youve read them all. The virtues that kept him famous, prosperous and never out of printthat he is
easily grasped and eternally inventive in his visuals and jokeshave served to make him iconic. His
characters, of course, deserve most of the credit. They possess those funny allegorical names, behave
just as fixedly, and get thrown into one melodramatic scene after another. But taken as a whole, those 989
characters make up an unforgettable universe of humanity matched only by Shakespeare, whom Dickens
worshipped.
George Orwell, in his famous essay on Dickens, pegged the novelist as a cynic who was neither a radical
nor an idle bourgeois, but a self-made mystery who unswervingly championed the underdog, typically the
working poor. He went on to assert that Dickenss reticence to take a definitive position on class and rights
carried over to his characters, who tend to feel unreal. While Orwell claimed he could conduct a conversation
with a chap like Leopold Bloom, he held that he couldnt imagine one with any of the folks imagined by
Dickens.
The Orwell essay is a long one and is interesting because there is a palpable tension between his obvious
love for Dickens and his need to bring a clear, socialist critique to the table, if for no other reason than to
prevent Dickens from being stolen by others with their own specious agendas. For example, Orwell
couldnt say enough about how amazing Dickens was in writing the way children think, but on the other
hand it rankles him that Dickens never talks about actual work and what people do when theyre not
standing around in some literary scene.
But despite persistent and, to my mind, niggling quarrels that Orwell picks with Dickens, he couldnt bring
himself to condemn him. He went on to concede that he couldnt imagine a day when he wouldnt be
reminded of a particular Dickensian scene or moment. It is this aspect of Dickens, the sheer scope of the
world he created and the widescreen variety of his novels, that is his true legacy. Yes, his novels are of a
piece, but when you fit the jigsaw together its a remarkable picture, whirling and alive. Its intricacies and
moving parts far outweighing the surprise coincidences, occasional mawkishness and deus ex machina
endings.
36.

Which of these best expresses the central theme of the passage?


(a) The passage explores why Dickens is an important author and will always be read.
(b) The author wants to argue that despite some weaknesses Dickens as a writer is second only to
Shakespeare.
(c) The passage captures the universal legacy of Dickens writings.
(d) The passage captures the authors analysis of a George Orwell essay on Dickens.

37.

All of the following are criticisms of Dickens novels except:


I. Dickens novels feature characters that have funny allegorical names.
II. Dickens is too sentimental at times.
III. Dickens characters opinion on class and rights is not clear which makes them feel unreal.
IV. Dickens novels feature surprising coincidences.
(a) Only I
(b) I and III
(c) II and IV
(d) II, III and IV

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Unproctored Mock-11 2012

38.

According to author, what is the most important feature of Dickens writings?


(a) The fact that his writing is easily understood by everybody.
(b) The whimsical characters that he created.
(c) The inventive visuals and jokes.
(d) The complete range and variety of his writings.

39.

Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?


(a) Analytical
(b) Pedantic
(c) Descriptive

40.

(d) Nostalgic

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
THROW
(a) When I bought my motorbike, they threw in free insurance.
(b) He loves the new project and has thrown himself into it with great gusto.
(c) Shah Rukh Khan has not been able to throw off the romantic hero image.
(d) Were not going to throw the towel just because we lost one game.

41.

The word given below has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option
corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
SIT
(a) My partner just sits and expects things to get done.
(b) I was new to the job, so I sat in on the meetings to learn the procedures.
(c) He had to sit out most of the matches due to injury.
(d) He sat on many committees dealing with environmental issues.

Directions for questions 42 to 44: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
IILK organized a 2-day Indian Classical Music Event with three slots on each day. Four artists Subbu,
Kumar, Shankar and Kehsanloy and three bands Delhi Sea, GTH and Mitti performed at the event. In
each slot, an artist or a band or a combination of an artist and a band performed. No artist performed alone
in the last slot of a day and no band performed alone in the first slot.
Whenever Delhi Sea and Mitti performed, they did it in two successive slots with Delhi Sea performing
before Mitti. The number of performances given by Shankar was less than that given by GTH and the last
performance of Shankar was held before the first performance of GTH. Subbu performed alone only once
during the event and that was in the first slot on the second day. The sum of the number of performances
given by Mitti, Kehsanloy and Kumar respectively wasnt a prime number. The total number of performances
given by the artists was equal to the total number of performances given by the bands.
42.

It is known that Kehsanloy performed in the last slot on both the days. If a combination of an artist
and a band performed in two of the slots on the second day, then who performed in the second slot
on the first day?
(a) Shankar-GTH
(b) Shankar-Mitti
(c) Mitti
(d) Kumar-Mitti

43.

If Kumar performed on both the days, then he must have performed with which of the bands?
(a) Delhi Sea
(b) GTH
(c) Mitti
(d) Cannot be determined

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10

Unproctored Mock-11 2012

44.

Which of the following statements cannot be true?


(a) Kehsanloy and GTH performed in the third slot on the first day.
(b) Shankar and Mitti performed in the second slot on the first day.
(c) Kumar and GTH performed in the third slot on the second day.
(d) None of these

45.

The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the
following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Q. The houses of Pavan, Pranab, Mohit and Santosh are of different sizes and each house has
some vehicle parking slots. Pavan stays in the second smallest house, which has the same number
of parking slots as that in Pranabs house. The largest house is not the one with the highest number
of parking slots. Santoshs house is not the smallest. The sum of the number of parking slots in
Mohits house and Pranabs house is an even number. Who among the four stays in the second
largest house and how many parking slots does it have?
A. One house has two parking slots and the remaining three houses have one parking slot each.
B. The four houses have two, three, three and five parking slots, in no particular order.

46.

Given below are a few sentences. Identify the sentence(s)/ part(s) of the sentence(s) that is/are
correct in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency).
Then choose the most appropriate option.
(A) Many a men dated their ruin from some murder or other that perhaps they thought little of at the
time.
(B) Afterwards, when fascinated by the man, as you will be, turn immediately to this excellent,
detailed and often harrowing biography.
(C) After they had finished the meal they asked the waiter the bill.
(D) By the time she arrives, we will have finished our homework.
(a) A and B

47.

(b) A and D

(c) B and D

(d) Only C

Given below are a few sentences. Identify the sentence(s)/ part(s) of the sentence(s) that is/are
correct in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency).
Then choose the most appropriate option.
(A) Imagine a speck of dust close to a planet a billion times the size of earth. The speck of dust
represents the odds in favour of your being born.
(B) The huge planet would be the odds against itself. So stop sweating the small stuff.
(C) Dont be like the ingrate who got a castle as a present and worried about the mildew in the
bathroom.
(D) Stop looking at the gift horse in the mouth- remember that you are a Black Swan.
(a) A & B

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11

(b) A & D

(c) C & D

(d) C
Unproctored Mock-11 2012

48.

Given below are five sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicised. From the
italicised words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
He showed us grisly (A)/grizzly (B) photos of the crime scene.
Salmans last (A)/latest (B) movie which was released yesterday is a big hit.
The trees cast a big shade (A)/shadow (B), so he sat under it.
The vice-president must now take on the mantle (A)/mettle (B) of supreme power.
The garden blazed (A)/braised(B) with colour.
(a) AABAB

49.

(b) BBBBA

(c) ABBAA

(d) BBAAB

Given below are five sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicised. From the
italicised words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences
are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the
set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.
I havent seen him for (A)/ since (B) over five years.
The teacher asked us to use our fantasy (A)/ imagination (B)while writing essays.
He should be arriving briefly (A)/shortly (B).
Unfortunately inflation is on the rise (A)/ raise (B) again.
The opposition parties are making political capital (A) / capitol (B)out of the governments problems.
(a) ABABA

50.

(b) ABBAA

(c) BBBAB

(d) AABAB

Each of the five children Aman, Bhanu, Chaman, Deepak and Elhan likes at least one activity
among Rowing, Singing, Dancing, Sketching and Running. Each activity except Dancing is liked by
at least three of the five children. There are two children who like exactly the same set of activities.
Aman likes Rowing and Running. There is no activity which is liked by both Aman and Deepak. Both
Bhanu and Deepak like Dancing but there is no other activity which is liked by both of them. Deepak
likes Sketching. Who among the five children definitely like Running?
(a) Aman, Bhanu, Chaman and Elhan.
(b) Aman, Chaman, Deepak and Elhan.
(c) Aman, Chaman and Elhan.
(d) Aman, Bhanu and Chaman.

Directions for questions 51 to 53: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Ten people Chuck, Berry, David, Gilmour, Eric, Clapton, Jimmy, Page, Kirk and Hammett live in a
building that has six floors numbered 1 to 6 (lowest to highest). Each floor is occupied by at least one of the
ten people. If N(x) represents the number of people living on floor x, then N(1) = N(6) N(3) and N(2) = N(5).
Also, N(x) N(x+1) for x = 1 to 5. It is also known that:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Page

Both Chuck and Berry live on the floor that is immediately above the floor on which Kirk lives.
David lives on a higher floor as compared to Clapton, Jimmy and Hammett but on a lower floor as
compared to Chuck.
Gilmour and Page live on the same floor.
The number of people who live on the floor on which Jimmy lives is equal to that on which Eric lives.

12

Unproctored Mock-11 2012

51.

What is the difference between the number of people who live on floor 3 and floor 5?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 2

52.

Who among the following lives on floor 6?


(a) Eric
(b) David

(c) Chuck

(d) Gilmour

53.

How many people live on a floor higher than the one on which Jimmy lives?
(a) 7
(b) 5
(c) 9
(d) 6

54.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
The realist at last loses patience with ideals altogether, and sees in them only something to blind
us, something to numb us, something to murder self in us, something whereby, instead of resisting
death, we can disarm it by committing suicide. The idealist, who has taken refuge with the ideals
because he hates himself and is ashamed of himself, thinks that all this is so much the better.
(a) And it is not the ignorant and stupid who maintain this error, but the literate and the cultured.
(b) The idealist says, Realism means egotism; and egotism means depravity.
(c) The realist, who has come to have a deep respect for himself and faith in the validity of his own
will, thinks it so much the worse.
(d) Unfortunately, this is the sort of speech that nobody but a realist understands.

55.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Christopher Dells Monsters: A Bestiary of the Bizarre is a visual typology of the monstrous. Dell
draws on images from across centuries and continents to celebrate the hideous fecundity of the
human imagination. Resistance to monsters is clearly futile, he writes. While we may no longer
worry about being eaten by trolls on the way home, there remains a fascination with, and fear of,
these creatures that have shadowed us throughout history.
(a) It shows us what mans imagination can do to man.
(b) After all, we should remember God is our creator.
(c) After all, we should remember who created them: not the gods, not Echidna, but man.
(d) Believe in God, not in fantasy.

56.

A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options,
choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Months after its debut, Hillary: The Movie faces the supreme court. The justices review of the
documentary financed by long term critics of Secretary of State Hillary Clinton could bring more
than just a thumbs up or thumbs down.
(a) It may win all time high approval ratings for the Secretary of State.
(b) It will vindicate the faith of movie goers the world over.
(c) It may settle the question of whether Hillary deserves to be so popular.
(d) It may settle the question of whether the government can regulate a politically charged film as a
campaign ad.

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13

Unproctored Mock-11 2012

57.

Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical
order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most appropriate one.
A. In 1986 it was renamed Recent Acquisitions because, as the museums director Philippe de
Montebello wrote, the rise in art prices has limited the quantity and quality of acquisitions to the
point where we can no longer expect to match the standards of just a few years ago.
B. And as the museums buying power fades, public experience of art is impoverished, and the brain
drain of gifted young people from curatorship into art dealing accelerates.
C. From the point of view of American museums, the art-market boom is an unmitigated disaster.
D. The symbol of the Metropolitan Museum of Arts plight is an annual booklet that used to be titled
Notable Acquisitions.
E. These institutions voice a litany of complaints, a wrenching sense of disfranchisement and
weakness, as their once adequate annual buying budgets of $2 million to $5 million are turned to
chicken feed by art inflation.
(a) ABECD

58.

(b) DABEC

(c) CEDAB

(d) DABCE

The passage given below is followed by a question. Choose the most appropriate answer to the
question.
Why should this absolutely God-given faculty of memory retain so much better the events of yesterday
than those of last year, and, best of all, those of an hour ago? Why, again, in old age should its
grasp of childhoods events seem firmest? Why should repeating an experience strengthen our
recollection of it? Why should drugs,fevers, asphyxia, and excitement resuscitate things long since
forgotten? . . . such peculiarities seem quite fantastic; and might, for aught we can see a priori, be
the precise opposites of what they are. Evidently, then, the faculty does not exist absolutely, but
works under conditions; and the quest of the conditions becomes the psychologists most interesting
task.
Which one of the following can be inferred from the passage?
(a) We tend to misunderstand our brains status quo.
(b) The functions of faculty of memory are beyond human comprehension.
(c) Psychologists are trying to understand how memory functions.
(d) Psychologists believe that understanding the conditions under which faculty of memory operates
is the key to understand this faculty.

59.

Page

Six persons Chetan, Kartik, Hari, Pankaj, Naresh and Vicky are married to Radha, Kiran,
Shama, Hema, Divya, and Charu, not necessarily in the same order. There is no person among the
six whose name starts with the same letter as his wifes name. They are going on a picnic in three
cars such that each car has two couples. It is known that:
(i) Charu is not in the same car as Hari.
(ii) Radha is in the same car as Pankaj.
(iii) Shama is in the same car as Hema.
(iv) Kiran is not in the same car as Naresh.
(v) Divya is not in the same car as Charu.

14

Unproctored Mock-11 2012

If Vicky is in a car in which nobodys name starts with the same letter as that of any of the other
eleven persons, then which of the following statements cannot be true?
(a) Shama is married to Hari.
(b) Hema is married to Kartik.
(c) Radha is married to Vicky.
(d) Pankaj is married to Divya.
60.

Eight persons Anu, Bindu, Candy, Dolly, Emran, Fiza, Gauri and Hemant are sitting at a square
table, in the same order, in clockwise direction. Two persons are sitting on each side of the table.
Two of them are Managers, two Executives, two Consultants and two Engineers.
The Executives are sitting opposite each other. One of the Executives is sitting on the same side of
the table as an Engineer and on his/her left. The Consultants are sitting opposite each other and
each of them is sitting next to an Engineer. The Managers are sitting next to each other. If Anu is a
Consultant who is sitting next to a Manager, then which of the following statements is definitely
false?
(a) Fiza is an Executive.
(b) Hemant is sitting next to a Manager.
(c) Emran is an Engineer.
(d) None of these

Page

15

Unproctored Mock-11 2012

Unproctored Mock-11 2012

Answers and Explanations


1

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

Page

Unproctored Mock-11 2012

1. d

Let the three roots of the equation be , and .

3
3
a units and GL =
a units
2
6
(Centroid divides medians in the ratio 2:1)

Also, AL =

1
Let us assume that = ( + ) or + = 2.
2
From the given equation we have:
7
a

...(i)

231
a

...(ii)

++ =
=

Area of GOL
1
1
3
a
3 2
a =
a sq. units ...(i)
LG LO =
2
2 6
2 24
As H and K are the mid points of AB and CD
respectively, HK is parallel to AD. Thus, HI is parallel to
AO and OD is parallel to JK. Hence, I is the mid point of
OB and J is the mid point of OC.
=

Putting the value of + in equation (i), we get

7
7
or = .
a
a
Putting the value of in equation (ii), we get

OIJ : OBC

2 + =

Area OIJ
IJ2
1
=
=
Area OBC BC2 4

231
7
=
= 33.
a
a

Area of quadrilateral BCJI

The possible sets of values of , and are:

17
7

/
1
3

/
33
11

17
7

1
3

33
11

Alternate Method:

AOF and OBC are equilateral triangles with equal


area (as length of the sides is the same for the two).
1
Area FOG
2
1 1
1
= Area AOF = Area AOF
23
6
Area GOL =

7
7 7
7
and .
values of a are , ,
17
7 17
7
1 1 1 1
Therequired sum = 7 + +
+ =0
17 7 17 7

...(i)

3
Area OBC.
4
From (i) and (ii), required ratio = 2:9.

Area of quadrilateral IJCB =

...(ii)

3. a

K
F

...(ii)

From (i) and (ii), required ratio = 2:9.

7
As a = , for different values of , the possible

2. b

3
3 2 3
area OBC =
a sq. units.
4
4
4

x
G

J
I

M= 3 5 + 94 5

= 3 5+

((

5 )2 2 2 5 + 22

y
= 3 5 + ( 5 2)2

= 3 5 + 5 2 = 1=1

Let the length of the side of the hexagon be a units.

AFO and BCO are equilateral triangles with the


length of their side equal to a units and area (in sq.
units) of each being

3 2
a.
4

In AFO, as G is the centroid and L is mid point of OF,


AL is the median to the side OF.

Page

N=

7 1 11 4 7

7 1

( 7 ) (2 2 7 ) + (2)2

7 1

72

Unproctored Mock-11 2012

=
Hence,

Q P(B' II) = P(W II)

7 1 7 + 2 = 1 = 1

M N 1 1
=
= 0.
M + N 1+ 1

P(W II) =

2
5

P(B II) = P(II) P(W II) =


4. c

P+

1
1
1
Q
= 1 =
=
Q
P 1 1 Q 1
Q

...(i)
Now, P(I | B) =

1
1
= 1 R =
R
1 Q
From (i) and (ii), we get
Q+

P(B) =
...(iii)

Q 1 1
Also, PQR =
Q
= 1
Q 1 Q
From (iii) and (iv), we get

PQR + R +

5. c

Cost per dozen chocolates =

y
12y
= Rs.
x
x
12
2
24
= Rs.
x + 10
x + 10
12

12y
24
80

=
x
x + 10 100

The last two digits of such perfect squares could be


either 00 or 44.

Case I: The perfect square ends with 00.


Any multiple of 10 will always end up with two zeros.
100 would be the first such number and 310 the last.
There are 22 such numbers.
Case II: The perfect square ends with 44.
For the square of a number to end with 4, its unit digit
must be either 2 or 8.

12y
24
4

=
x
x + 10 5

(i) Let the number be ab2, where a and b are the


digits at hundreds and unit place respectively.

3y
6
1

=
x x + 10 5

(ab2)2 = (ab 10 + 2)2

P(I) = P(II) =

P(B I) =

1
2

Also, P(B' | II) =

The last digit will always be 4, but for the second last
digit to be 4, 4 b must end with 4. Thus b could be
either 1 or 6.
Possible numbers are 112, 162, 212, 262 and 312.
(ii) Let the number be ab8, where a and b are the
digits at hundred and unit place respectively.

1 3
1

=
2 10 5

P(B' II) =

= a2b2 100 + ( 4 ab 10 ) + 4

P(B I) = P(I) P(W I)

Page

7. a

15y
30

=1
x
x + 10
The equation is satisfied for x = 5, y = 1.

6. a

...(iv)

1 3 2

= .
5 10 3

Also, the largest five digit perfect square is (316)2


i.e. 99856. So the number must be less than 316.

Cost per dozen under the offer =

Saving per dozen =

1 1
3
+
=
5 10 10

P(I | B) =

1
= 1 1 = 0.
P

P(I B)
P(B)

As P(B) = P(B I) + P(B II), therefore,


from (i) and (ii)

...(ii)

1
1
Q
R+ =

=1
P 1 Q 1 Q

1 2 1
=
2 5 10

P(B' II)
P(II)

8 1 2
=
10 2 5

(ab8)2 = (ab 10 + 8)2


...(i)

= a2b2 100 + (16 ab 10 ) + 64


The last digit will always be 4, but for the second last
digit to be 4, 6 b + 6 must end with 4. Thus b could
be either 3 or 8.
Possible numbers are 138, 188, 238 and 288.
Total possible numbers = 22 + 5 + 4 = 31.

Unproctored Mock-11 2012

Alternate Method:
The last two digits of such perfect squares could be
either 00 or 44.
Perfect squares ending with 00 are always of the
form N2 102, where N is a natural number.
Total such numbers would be 22 i.e. 10000 to 96100.

10. d

Perfect squares ending with 44 are the squares of


numbers of the form 50k 12, where k is whole
number.
Total such numbers would be 9 i.e. 1122, 1382, 1622,
1882, 2122, 2382, 2622, 2882 and 3122.
Total possible numbers = 22 + 9 = 31.
8. b

=
11. c

We have to calculate the number of zeroes starting


from the right end of the number N.

1! to 4! = 0
5! to 9! = 1 5 = 5
10! to 14! = 2 5 = 10
15! to 19! = 3 5 = 15
20! to 24! = 4 5 = 20
25! to 29! = 6 5 = 30
30! to 34! = 7 5 = 35
35! to 39! = 8 5 = 40

9. a

12. b

a
b
c
a
b
c
, and
+
+

+
+
b+c a+c a+b a+c a+b b+c

a
b
c
a
b
c
.
+
+

+
+
b+c a+c a+b a+b b+c c +a

a+b+c
, where s is the semiperimeter of triangle.
2
a + b > c and a + b > s.

s=

a b c a+b+c
= 2.
But + + =
s s s
s
Hence

Page

a
b
c
+
+
< 2.
b+c c +a a+b

6750 4000
= 68.75%
4000

For Sajid:
Let the total number of shares sold by Sajid at 9 a.m.
and 10 a.m. be 2y.
Total sales amount = 200 y + 300 y = Rs. 500y
Total investment in purchase = 500 y + 625y
= Rs. 1,125y

a
b
c
3
+
+

b+c c +a a+b 2

c
c
a
a
b
b
< ,
< and
<
a+b s b+c s
a+c s

For Hasan:
As the share price at 11:00 a.m. and 12:00 noon was
Rs. 500 and Rs. 400 respectively, the number of shares
sold by Hasan at 11:00 a.m. and 12:00 noon must be in
the ratio 4 : 5 respectively. Let the number of shares
sold by Hasan at 11:00 a.m. and 12:00 noon be 4x and
5x respectively.
Total sales amount = 500 4x + 400 5x = Rs. 4,000x
Total investment in purchase = 750 9x = Rs. 6,750x
Margin (loss) =

Adding these two inequalities and dividing the resultant


by 2, we get

Let the number of shares sold by Sajid and Hasan on


Day 1 be 36x each.

Investment made by Hasan


= 225 36x = Rs. 8,100x.
Profit made by Hasan
= 375 16x + 300 20x 225 36x
= Rs. 3,900x.
Hasans Margin on Day 1 = 32.5%.

Assume that a b c.
So

100
2 = 20 hours
10

Investment made by Sajid


= 375 18x + 250 18x = Rs. 11,250x.
Profit made by Sajid
= 750 18x + 625 18x 375 18x 250 18x
= Rs. 13,500x.
Sajids Margin on Day 1 54.5%.

The number of zeroes from: