IBPS Clerk Main Practice Set 02

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IBPS CLERK MAIN PRACTICE SET-02

Test-I: Reasoning Ability
1.
In a certain code, TWICE is written as 34$5 and WEARS is written as 429%. How is
SEAT written in that code?
1) %23
2) %23
3) %43
4) %$23
5) None of these
2. In a certain code, BEAMING is written as BFCMHOJ and CLEAR is written as MDESB.

How is TRAIL written in that code?
1) USAMJ
2) USAJM
3) SUAMJ
4) SUAJM
5) None of these
3. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, fourth, fifth and seventh
letters of the word COURTESY, using each letter only once in the word, which of the following will
be the third letter of that word? If no such word can be formed, give N as your answer, and if more
than one such word can be formed, give M as your answer.
1) R
2) O
3) S
4) N
5) M
4. How many digits in the number 5279143 will be as far away from the beginning of the number as
when the digits are rearranged in ascending order from left to right within the number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
5. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 5391246 in both forward and backward
directions, each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are
arranged in ascending order within the number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
Directions (Q. 6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
M, N, A, D, J, V and R are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same
order. V is third to the right of J. N is fourth to the left of R. R is on the immediate right of J. A is
fourth to the right of D. D is not an immediate neighbour of V.
6. Who is second to the left of N?
1) V
2) J
3) A
4) M
5) Data inadequate
7. What is Ms position with respect to R?

1) Fourth to the right
2) Third to the left
3) Fifth to the right
4) Third to the right
5) None of these
8. Who is fourth to the right of R?
1) V
2) N
3) M
4) A
5) None of these
9. Who is second to the right of J?

1) N
2) A
3) V
4) D
5) None of these
10. Who is on the immediate right of D?

1) M
2) J
3) N
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4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
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Directions (11-15): Read the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
In a global environment summit, eight representatives, viz P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are representing
different countries, viz Australia, Canada, France, Iran, China, Korea, Nepal and Britain, but not
necessarily in the same order. All of them are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.
V sits third to the left of T. R and Z and also their immediate neighbours do not represent France.
Only one person sits between W and the representative of France. The representatives of Iran and
Canada are immediate neighbours of each other. R represents neither China nor Iran. Only one
person sits between P and the one who represents Korea. P does not represent either France or
Canada. R sits third to the right of Z. Z represents Britain. T is not an immediate neighbour of
either R or Z. The one who represents Australia is an immediate neighbour of T. Three people sit
between Z and the representative of Nepal. Q is not representing either France or Australia.
11. Who among the following represents Canada?
1) Q
2) R
3) T
4) V
5) Cannot be determined
12. Who among the following represent immediate neighbours of V?

1) P, Q
2) P, S
3) T, W
4) P, R
5) P and the representative of China
13. Which of the following is true regarding W?
1) W sits second to the right of P.
2) W represents Iran.
3) W sits between Q and the representative of Britain.
4) Only one person sits between W and the representative of Canada.
5) None is true
14. How many persons sit between S and the representative of Iran, when counted anticlockwise
from S?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) Four
15. Which of the following is true?
1) S represents France.
2) Only one person is sitting between the representatives of Iran and China.
3) The reperesentative of Canada is an immediate neighbour of W.
4) One person sits between Z and the representative of France.
5) None is true
Directions (Q. 16-20): In the following questions, the symbols H, $, , and % are used with the
following meanings as illustrated below:
P Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.
P % Q means P is neither smaller nor greater than Q.
P H Q means P is not greater than Q.
P $ Q means P is greater than Q.
P Q means P is either greater or equal to Q.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two
conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I is true.
2) if only conclusion II is true.
3) if either conclusion I or II is true.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
H H K, K N,
I. N $ H
II. W H
N$W
17. Statements:
Conclusions:
H K, K % R,
I.N K
II.R % H
RN
18. Statements:
Conclusions:
R $ T, T M,
I.J % T
II.J T
M%J
19. Statements:
Conclusions:
B A, A H M,
I.W $ B
II.A H W
WM
20. Statements:
Conclusions:
B % T, T M,
I.D B
II.M H B
MHD
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16. Statements:
Conclusions:
below:
P, Q, R, T, V, W and Z are seven football players, each playing for a team, viz Green, Red and Blue, with
at least two of them in each of these teams. Each of them likes a different fruit, viz Apple, Guava,
Banana, Orange, Mango, Papaya and Watermelon, not necessarily in the same order.
Q plays with V for team Blue and he likes Banana. None of those who play for either team Red or team
Green likes either Guava or Banana. T plays with only the one who likes Watermelon. W likes
Papaya and he plays for team Red. The one who likes Orange does not play for team Red. Z likes
Watermelon and he plays for team Green. P likes Apple and he plays for team Red. R does not like
Guava.
21. Which of the following players, plays for team Red?
1) WP
2) TZ
3) WR
4) WV
22. Which of the following teams has three players?
1) Blue
2) Red
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
5) None of these
3) Blue or Red
23. Which of the following combinations of team, person and fruit is incorrect?
1) Blue-Q-Apple
2) Red-P-Guava
3) Green-T-Apple
4) Blue-R-Orange
5) All are incorrect
24. Who likes Guava?
1) Q
4) Data inadequate
2) V
5) None of these
3) T
25. Which fruit does T like?

1) Banana
2) Guava
3) Orange
5) None of these
4) Papaya
Directons (Q. 26-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer
1)if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II
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alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2)if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3)if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4)if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5)if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
26. On which date in November is definitely Chetans fathers birthday?

I.Chetan correctly remembers that his fathers birthday is before 22nd November but after 14th
November.
II.Chetans brother correctly remembers that their fathers birthday is after 19th November but
before 28th November.
27. How is T related to W?
I.Ts only sister is married to M.
II.Ws mother is the only daughter of M.
28. How is home written a code language?

I.home for all is written as 9 2 1 in that code language.
II.you go home is written as 7 3 2 in that code language.
29. Who among A, B, C, D and E, each having a different weight, is the heaviest?
I.C is heavier than only A.
II.D is lighter than both E and B.
30. Towards which direction is Town M with respect to Town B?
I.Town B is to the West of Town D. Town D is to the North of Town M.
II.Town K is to the South of Town B. Town K is to the West of Town M.
below:
Following are the conditions for selecting a Finance Manager in an organisation: The candidate must
(i)be a graduate in any discipline with at least 50% marks.
(ii)have completed Postgraduate Degree/Diploma in Management with specialisation in Finance
with at least 65% marks.
(iii)have post-qualification work experience of at least 4 years in the finance department of an
organisation.
(iv)be at least 26 years and not more than 36 years as on 1.12.2011.
In the case of a candidate who fulfils all the conditions except
(a)(ii), but has secured at least 60% marks in post-graduate degree/diploma in management with
specialisation in Finance and at least 70% marks in graduation, his/her case is to be referred to the
DGM-Finance.
(b)(iii), but has post qualification work experience of at least two years as Assistant Finance Manager,
his/her case is to be referred to the GM-Finance.
In each question below, details of one candidate are provided. You have to take one of the following
courses of action based on the conditions and sub-conditions given above and the information provided
in each question and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume
anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on
1.12.2011.
Mark answer
1) if the candidate is to be selected.
2) if the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.
3) if the candidate is not to be selected.
4) if the case is to be referred to DGM-Finance.
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5) if the case is to be referred to GM-Finance.

Now, read the information provided in each question and mark your answer accordingly.
31. Hemant Shah was born on 19 March 1981. He has been working in the finance department of an
organisation for the past six years. He has scored 65% marks in BCom and 75% marks in his
postgraduate degree in management with finance as specialisation.
32. Subodh Sahay was born on 7 November 1982. He has been working for the past four years as
Assistant Finance Manager in an organisation after completing his post-graduate degree in Finance
management with 66% marks. He has scored 52% marks in BSc.
33. Neera Bhagat has been working in the finance department of an organisation for the past seven
years after completing her postgraduate degree in management with specialisation in Finance with
62% marks. She has scored 75% marks in BSc. She was born on 12 January 1983.
34. Sudha Malhotra was born on 26 July 1984. She has been working as Assistant Finance Manager for
the past three years in an organisation after completing her Post- graduate diploma in management
with finance as specialisation with 68% marks. She has scored 55% marks in BA.
35. Atul Khemka has been working in Finance department of an organisation for the past five years
after completing his postgraduate degree in management with finance as specialisation with 60%
marks. He has scored 60% marks in BCom. He was born on 4 November 1985.
Directions (Q. 36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conditions and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known
facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
36. Statements
:All graphics are designs.
All patterns are designs.
Conclusions :I.At least some designs are graphics.
II.No pattern is a graphic.
37. Statements
Conclusions
38. Statements
Conclusions
39. Statements
Conclusions
40. Statements
:All leaves are roots.

Some leaves are branches.
:I.Some branches are not leaves.
II.At least some roots are branches.
:All toys are gifts.
No toy is a reward.
:I.At least some rewards are gifts.
II.All gifts are toys.
:Some kings are emperors.

No ruler is a king.
:I.No ruler is an emperor.
II.At least some rulers are emperors.
:No wish is a demand.
All wishes are claims.
Conclusions
:I.No demand is a claim.

II.All claims are wishes.
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Test-II: English Language
Directions (Q. 41-50): Read the following passage to answer the given questions. Certain words/
phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Activity in the services sector shrank in September as new orders sank, a new survey shows. To add to
the worries, overall economic activity is seen to be nearly stagnating, while employment levels fell for the
second successive month.
The seasonally adjusted Service Sector Business Activity Index fell to 49.8 from 53.8 in August, HSBC
Purchasing Managers Index, which is based on a survey of 350 private sector executives, showed. Any reading
of less than 50 indicates contraction, while economic activity is seen to be growing if the index is over 50.
This is the first time since April 2009 that the services sector, that accounts for more than half the Indian
economy, has slipped into negative terrain.
The decline in services sector activity could be attributed to lower demand for offshoring and IT and ITenabled services from the US and Europe, where several economies are grappling with debt problems.
There is also an impact on financial services as banking activity has slowed down on account of higher
interest rates and investors are wary of parking their funds in stock markets.
At the moment, manufacturing activity is continuing to grow, though at a much slower pace. As a result,
the HSBC India Composite Indexwhich covers manufacturing and services sectorsstood at 50.2 in
September, compared to 54.5 in August.
The overall trend is in line with expectations that the Indian economy will grow at less than 8% during
the current financial year, with agriculture providing the only silver lining. Last year the economy expanded
8.5%, prompting the government to predict 9% growth this year. But over the last few months, as the global
economic situation deteriorated and higher interest rates slowed down the tempo, the government too is
lowering its forecasts although not to the extent that others have done.
But it isnt just services which are shrinking. The survey shows employment fell for the second successive
month, increasing worries for policymakers, who want rapid economic growth to take care of the growing
population that is joining the workforce.
Typically, a near-stagnant economy will encourage the central bank to start lowering interest rates to
spur economic activity. But given the inflationary pressures, RBI is in no mood to do so and the debate is
whether it will resort to further rate hikes or pause after increasing key policy rates a dozen times over the
last 19 months. It is due to review its monetary policy later this month. The HSBC survey showed that inflation
pressures are firmly in place though the rate is moderating a little. We are getting close to the end of RBIs
tightening cycle, but we are not quite there yet, an economist observed.
41. Which of the following sector(s) is/are covered under HSBC India Composite Index?
1) Services only
2) Manufacturing only
3) Agriculture only
4) Both Services and Agriculture
5) Both Manufacturing and Services
42. According to the passage, what is the contribution of services sector to Indian economy?
1) Less than 25%
2) Less than 35%
3) More than 80%
4) More than 50%
5) None of these
43. Which of the following is correct in the context of the passage?
1)Banking activity has gone up with higher interest rates.
2)There have been many successive key policy rate hikes recently.
3)US has increased offshoring of their IT-enabled services.
4)Asian countries are grappling with debt problems.

5)The global economic situation is quite good.
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44. Which of the following is one of the factors, according to the passage, for not lowering interest
rates?
1) Inflationary pressure
2) Stagnant economy
3) Lower rate of employment
4) Successive fall in employment levels
5) The growth in agriculture is good
45. Which of the following conveys the meaning of the phrase, ...we are not quite there yet. as used
in the passage?
1)We are far from satisfactory levels of employment rate.
2)There may be one or two more rounds of further rate hike.
3)The tightening cycle has come to an end.
4)The rapid economic growth is far away.
5)The overall trend is not in line with expectations.
46. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
1)Services sector shrank while overall economy grew.
2)There is a fall in employment levels.
3)Manufacturing activity continues to grow marginally.
4)Agriculture sector continues to grow.
5)The government has now lowered the forecast of growth.
Directions (Q. 47-48): Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word
printed in bold as used in the passage.
47. Typically
1) Always
2) Sometimes 3) Intentionally 4) Moderately 5) Generally
48. Wary
1) Positive
2) Dependent
3) Cautious
4) Pervert
5) Deceptive
Directions (Q. 49-50): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in
bold as used in the passage.
49. Shrank
1) Hope
2) Depended 3) Grew
4) Pretended 5) Integrated
50. Deteriorated
1) Reduced
2) Moderated
3) Depreciated 4) Encouraged 5) Recovered
Directions (Q. 51-55): In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence
has a blank in it. Five words 1), 2), 3), 4) and 5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at
both the places in the context of each sentence. The number of that word is the answer.
51. I.He has now become a ___ to reckon with.
II.It is better not to use ___ to prove ones point.
1) model
2) force
3) coercion
4) name
5) influence
52. I.He tried his ___ best to score distinction in this exam.
II.It pays to keep ___ head in an emergency.
1) cool
2) utmost
3) very
4) possible
5) level
53. I.The system is working with ___ to getting things done.
II.___ must be commanded and not demanded.

1) status
2) relation
3) attitude
4) respect
5) honour
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54. I.There is a complaint against him that he ___ the mistakes of his juniors.
II. A good thing about this house is that it ___ the sea.
1) ignores
2) promotes
3) examines
4) overlooks
5) faces
55. I.Out of the total loans ___ by the bank, the largest share was for infrastructure.
II.The trees are ___ throughout the area.
1) disbursed
2) covered
3) distributed 4) spanned
5) extended
Directions (Q. 56-60): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below should replace the phrase
given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and
correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and No correction is required, mark 5) as the answer.
56. To identify potential leaders, look for people who are constantly suggesting new and better ways of
doing things.
1) look forward people
2) search at people
3) looking at people
4) people look at them
5) No correction required
57. Of late, both India and China have been seeing a slow- down in the credit market.
1) Off late
2) Of lately
3) Often late 4) Of recently 5) No correction required
58. No other communities have played a greater role in building an India of tomorrow than the teaching
community.
1) No communities have
2) Many communities has
3) No other community has
4) Have any other community
59. Theoretically, positive operating cash flow is considered a indicator of efficiency.
1) considering indicators
2) considered a indicators
3) considered an indicator
4) indicator considered
60. I have realised over times that there is a larger meaning to things happening around us.
1) time over
2) upon time
3) over the times
4) over time
Directions (Q. 61-70): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one
of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Mobile phones are changing the world we live in.
Kenya was regarded as a poor (61) lacking hospitals, running water, electricity, education, (62) etc.
Mobile phone technology has (63) all this. Today, 92 per cent of Kenyans (64) the Internet using their
mobile phones. Farmers can (65) only check the prices of crops but also (66) with customers directly.
Banking services are (67) available through mobile phones. A (68) by the World Bank shows that (69)
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countries where more people use mobile phones (70) by 0.6 per cent to 1.2 per cent every year.
This technology has also helped the world come closer together as it allows people from different
countries to interact with each other.
.
61. 1) neighbour 2) performance 3) country
4) development 5) choice
62. 1) tend
2) roads
3) poverty
4) peoples
5) leader
63. 1) changed
2) discovered
3) created
4) transform
5) made
64. 1) go
2) access
3) connect
4) used
5) online
65. 1) decide
2) allow
3) simply
4) not
5) still
66. 1) handle
2) supply
3) deal
4) argument
5) sell
67. 1) cheap
2) easy
3) income
4) also
5) though
68. 1) report
2) fund
3) researcher
4) wish
5) solution
69. 1) more
2) any
3) because
4) in
5) those
70. 1) increase
2) work
3) value
4) rise
5) grow
Directions (Q. 71-75): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the
proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, and then answer the given questions.
(A)When these millennium development goals were first formulated in 1990, 53.5 per cent of all
Indian children were malnourished.
(B)This would still be below the target of reducing malnourishment to 28.6 per cent.
(C)India has been moderately successful in reducing poverty.
(D)Since then, progress has been slow.
(E)Today, it is estimated that malnourishment could decline to 40 per cent by the end of 2015.
(F)However, eradicating hunger along with malnourishment still remains a key challenge, according
to the Millenium Development Goals.
71. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) E
5) D
72. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) F
4) D
5) E
73. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
d) D
5) F
74. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
75. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) F
3) D
4) C
5) B
Directions (Q. 76-80): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If
there is no error, the answer is 5) ie No Error. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
76. In times of crisis,1)/ the Bhagavad Gita gives light 2)/ and guide to the mind tortured by doubt 3)/
and torn by conflict of duties.4)/ No Error 5)
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77. It was not easy for late Raja Ram Mohan Roy 1)/ to root out the custom of sati 2)/ because a
majority of 3) / the educated class does not support him.4)/ No Error 5)
78. Deplete of the ozone layer 1)/ and the greenhouse effect 2) / are two long-term effects 3) / of air
pollution.4)/ No Error 5)
79. Most of the people which 1) / have been victims 2)/ of extreme violence 3)/ are too frightened to
report it to the police. 4) / No Error 5)
80. The doctor helps 1)/ to reducing human suffering 2) / by curing diseases 3) / and improving
health.4)/No Error 5)
Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. 81-85): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following equations?
81. 436.56-625.43 + 312.55 =?
1) 125.68
2) 135.86
3) 132.68
4) 123.86
5) None of these
82. 4% of 250 ?% of 140 = 84
1) 12
2) 5
3) 6
4) 8
5) None of these
83. 4545 50 5 =?
1) 445.5
2) 19.16
3) 454.5
4) 18.18
5) None of these
84. 5 ? = 2637 3
1) 4395
2) 157.8
3) 4539
4) 175.6
5) None of these
85. 1.5 (52 2.5) = ?

1) 30.1
2) 31.2
3) 32.1
4) 33.2
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 86-90): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the
following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
86. 15.003 14.998 + 125.010 = ?
1) 400
2) 320
3) 290
4) 270
5) 350
87. 9525 80 8 = ?
1) 23
2) 15
4) 19
5) 10
88. 7777.009 596.999 - 89.989 = ?

1) 6080
2) 6800
3) 7090
4) 8200
5) 7500
89. 805.0003 34.999 = ?

1) 23
2) 9
3) 14
4) 18
5) 27
90. (13.5)2 = ?
1) 170
3) 150
4) 215
5) 180
2) 200
3)7
Directions (Q. 91-95): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number
series?
91. 8 52 ? 1287 4504.5 11261.25 16891.875
1) 462
2) 286
241920 967680
3) 4536
4) 5040
5) None of these
5) None of these
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92. 3 42 504 ? 40320

1) 6048
2) 5544
3) 194 4) 328
93. 403 400

1) 244
310 ?
3) 214
4) 256
5) None of these
3) 12
4) 14
5) None of these
95. 250000 62500 12500 3125 625 ? 31.25

1) 156.25
2) 172.25
3) 125
4) 150
5) None of these
94. 7 8 4
1) 7
394
382 358
2) 210
13 3 22
2) 10
1 7 3 5
6
, , , and , what is the difference between the largest and the smallest
2 8 4 6
7
96. Out of the fractions

fraction?
1)
7
13
2)
3
8
3)
4
7
4)
1
6
5) None of these
97. The compound interest accrued in two years on a principal of `15,800 is `7716.72. What is the rate
of interest pcpa?
1) 22%
2) 16%
3) 18%
5) None of these
98. What will come in place of both question marks (?) in the following equation?
(?)0.6
26
1.4
104 (?)
1) 58
2) 48
3) 56
4) 42
5) 52
99. Madhur got 101 marks in Hindi, 100 marks in Science, 96 marks in Sanskrit, 108 marks in Maths
and 78 marks in English. If the maximum marks of each subject is equal and if Madhur scored 84 per cent
marks in all the subjects together, what is the maximum marks of each subject?
1) 110
2) 120
3) 115
4) 100
5) None of these
100.The perimeter of a square is thrice the perimeter of a rectangle. If the perimeter of the square is 84
cm and the length of the rectangle is 8 cm, what is the difference between the breadth of the rectangle and
the side of the square?
1) 15 cm
2) 19 cm
3) 10 cm
4) 8 cm
5) None of these
101.The average weight of 21 girls was recorded as 58 kg. If a teachers weight is also added, the
average weight increases by 1 kg. What is the weight of the teacher?
1) 96 kg
2) 78 kg
3) 80 kg
4) 62 kg
5) None of these
102.Find the missing number if the average of all the eight numbers is 472.
623, 164, 529, 425, ___, 205, 301, 824
1) 737
2) 711
3) 723
4) 705
5) None of these
103.Kartik sold an item for `6,500 and incurred a loss of 20%. At what price should he have sold the
item to have gained a profit of 20%?
1) `10,375
2) `9,750
3) `8,125
5) None of these
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104.A truck covers a distance of 330 km at the speed of 30 km/hr. What is the average speed of a car
which travels a distance of 110 km more than the truck in the same time?
1) 42 km/hr
2) 48 km/hr
3) 39 km/hr
4) 38 km/hr
5) None of these
105.The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest accrued on an amount at the
end of three years at the rate of 12% is `381.888. What is the amount?
1) `9,500
2) `8,400
3) `7,200
4) `8,000
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 106-110): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Number of students specialising in different fields from six different colleges, M-Males, FFemales
Spe cialis ation

N ame
of Econo- M ark- HR M S ociol- Ps ycho- Political
e ting
ogy
logy Scie nce
colle ge mics
M F M F M F M F M F M F
K
53 45 34 47 18 36 25 45 21 34 24
56
62 65 34 14 15 58 18 56 56 65 58
86
18 28 67 25 26 85 25 35 64 85 68
46
N
O
P
33 24 23 19 45 54 24 34 54 75 57
28 10 45 25 14 47 48 54 21 36 46
53 34 34 30 27 20 32 78 21 96 79
86
56
35
106.What
is
the
HRM from all colleges together?
1) 30
2) 45
average
3) 50
number
4) 55
of
females
specialising
in
5) None of these
107.The total number of males in College L are approximately what per cent of the total females from
the same college?
1) 10
2) 30
3) 50
4) 110
5) 70
108.What is the ratio of the total number of students specialising in Economics from College P to the
total number of students specialising in Psychology from the same college?
1) 29 : 31
2) 25 : 34
3) 28 : 39
4) 25 : 39
5) None of these
109.The total number of females specialising in Political Science from colleges K, N and P together is
approximately what percent of the males specialising in the same field from the same colleges?
1) 210
2) 90
3) 190
4) 150
5) 110
110.How many students are there in College M from all the specialisations together?
1) 574
2) 576
3) 572
4) 568
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 111-115): Study the following pie-charts carefully and answer the questions that
follow:
Percentage of students from different states attending a national seminar
Total students: 8000
MP
14%
M aharashtra
28%
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Assam
18%
Orissa
12%
Karnataka
13%
Kerala
15%
Percentage of female students from different states attending the national seminar
Total Female students: 3500
M ahara
shtra
18%
MP
13%
Assam
13%
Orissa
21%
Karnataka
10%
Kerala
25%
111.What is the ratio of the number of female students from Karnataka to the number of female students
from Kerala?
1) 2 : 7
2) 2 : 5
3) 2 : 3
4) 3 : 7
5) None of these
112.What is the total number of male students from Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh together?
1) 2175
2) 2725
3) 2527
4) 2275
5) None of these
113.What is the ratio of the number of male students from Assam to the number of male students from
Madhya Pradesh?
1) 197 : 134
2) 197 : 135
3) 197 : 133
4) 199 : 133
5) None of these
114.What is the ratio of the number of female students from Karnataka to the number of male students
from the same state?
1) 35 : 69
2) 32 : 69
3) 38 : 69
4) 35 : 67
5) None of these
115.The number of female students from Assam are approximately what per cent of the number of male
students from the same state?
1) 14
2) 28
3) 96
4) 66
5) 46
Directions (Q. 116 - 120): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You
have to solve both the equations and give answer
1) if x > y
2) if x y
3) if x < y
4) if x y
5) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established
116.I. 7x2 9x + 2 = 0
II. y2 4y + 3 = 0
II. 2y2 + 25y + 72 = 0
118.I. x2 + x 20 = 0
II. 2y2 19y + 45 = 0
119.I. 7x + 3y = 26
II. 2x + 17y = 41
120.I. 3x2 20x + 33 = 0
II. 2y2 11y + 15 = 0
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117.I. x2 = 64
Test-IV: General Awareness

(With special reference to Banking Industry)
121.KYC stands for

1) Know Your Company
3) Know Your Currency
5) None of these
2) Know Your Customer

4) Know Your Creditors
122.Fixed deposits are which type of liability to a bank?

1) Time liability
2) Demand liability
4) All the above
5) None of these
3) Net liability
123.The 2nd World Internet Conference was held recently in

1) Wuzen, China
2) Seoul, South Korea
4) Tokyo, Japan
5) Hyderabad, India
3) Frankfurt, Germany
124.Financial Inclusion is the latest powerful tool adopted by the Reserve Bank of India to fulfil the
basic objective of
1)upliftment of population lying Below Poverty Line
2)connecting every Indian to the Countrys Banking System
3)ensuring bank finance to all the landless agriculturists
4)overall financial growth backed by inflation control
5)inclusion of latest technology in Financial Sector of the country
125.As per the govts mid-year economic review, Indias economy is now expected to grow at
what per cent in the FY16?
1) 8-8.5 percent
2) 8-8.1 percent
3) 7.3-7.5 percent
4) 7-7.5 percent
5) 6.5-7 percent
126.The high rate of growth of economy certainly reduces
1) Gender inequalities
2) Poverty
3) Population of a country
4) Flow of foreign direct investment
5) None of these
127.Which country joined the World Trade Organisation (WTO) as its 163rd member recently?
1) Maldives
2) Bhutan
3) Seychelles 4) Afghanistan 5) Panama
128.RBIs policy stance to manage interest and liquidity are used to
1)moderate inflation and maintain economic growth
2)moderate competition among private and public sector banks
3)eradicate unemployment in public sector
4)moderate currency supply in public hands

5)moderate deposits in public sector banks
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129.Which country received the largest remittances ($72 bn) in 2015 as per a report released by
the World Bank recently?
1) Philippines 2) China
3) India
4) Indonesia
5) Bangladesh
130.Which of the following teams won the 2015 FIFA Club World Cup title?
1) River Plate
2) FC Barcelona
3) TP Mazembe
4) Auckland City FC
5) Club America
131.Who among the following has been crowned Miss Universe 2015?
1) Anastasia Lin
2) Maria Harfanti
3) Sofia Nikitchuk
4) Mireia Lalaguna Royo
5) Pia Alonzo Wurtzbach
132.Which of the following is NOT a category of NBFCs?
1) Infrastructure Finance Company 2) Loan Company
4) Asset Finance Company
5) None of these
3) Investment Company
133.In India the interest rate on savings bank accounts in all nationalised commercial banks is fixed by
1) Union Ministry of Finance
2) Union Finance Commission
3) Indian Banks Association
4) Reserve Bank of India
5) All the banks decide together
134.What is the Repo Rate?
1)It is the rate at which RBI sells government securities to banks.
2)It is the rate at which RBI allows small loans in the market.
3)It is the rate at which banks borrow money from the Reserve Bank of India.
4)It is the rate which is offered by banks to their most valued customers or prime customers.
5)None of these
135.Indias current account deficit (CAD) narrowed to what amount in the second quarter (Q2) ended
Sep 2015?
1) $6.2 bn
2) $7.4 bn
3) $8.2 bn
4) $8.6 bn
5) $9.2 bn
136.NPA in banking terminology denotes
1) New Para-banking Assets
2) Net Profitable Assets
3) Net Performing Assets
4) Non-Performing Assets
5) New Pension Act
137.The book titled On My Terms: From the Grassroots to the Corridors of Power is the autobiography
of
1) Narendra Modi
2) Nitish Kumar
3) J Jayalalithaa
4) Naveen Patnaik
5) Sharad Pawar
138.When a customer draws a cheque on a bank
1) it is a mandate on that bank to pay.
2) it is a mandate on the Government of India to pay.
3) it is a mandate on the State Government to pay.
4) it is a mandate on the RBI to pay.
5) it is a mandate on the Finance Ministry to pay.
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139.A nationalised bank is also called by which of the following names

1) Private Sector Bank
2) Self Help Group
3) Cooperative Bank
4) Grameen Bank
5) Public Sector Bank
140.Nomination for a deposit account in the bank means

1)mandate given by the close relative/s of the depositor to settle the death claim in case of death of
the depositor.
2)mandate decided by the bank to settle the death claim of its depositor.
3)mandate of the depositor in favour of one or more persons to claim the amount on death of the
depositor.
4)mandate of the depositor in favour of a close relative who can claim the amount on death of the
depositor.
5)court order instructing the banks to settle the death claim of its depositor.
141.In which year was UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UFCCC) was adopted?
1) 1990
2) 1992
3) 1993
4) 1994
5) 1995
142.In which of the following accounts is operation by cheques permitted?
1) Savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts
2) Current accounts and fixed deposit accounts
3) Savings bank accounts and floating loan accounts
4) Savings bank accounts and cash accounts
5) Savings bank accounts and current accounts
143.Who among the following is all set to take over as the new Director of The Energy and Resources
Institute (TERI)?
1) Ajay Mathur
2) Srikumar Banerjee
3) Ratan Kumar Sinha
4) Rajendra K Pachauri
5) None of these
144.Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the field of Cinema?
1) Kalidas Samman
2) SS Bhatnagar Award
3) Golden Pen Award
4) Pulitzer Prize
5) Dada Saheb Phalke Award
145.Name Indias first indigenously designed and built warship which was on 23 Dec decommissioned
in Naval Dockyard Mumbai.
1) INS Mysore 2) INS Vagsheer 3) INS Godavari 4) INS Kalvari 5) INS Khanderi
146.Banks cannot do which of the following businesses?
1)Accepting demand and time deposits from public
2)Accepting items for keeping in safe custody
3)Selling gold coins
4)buying commodities for trading
5)accepting foreign currency for selling to money changers
147.The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approved an umbrella scheme for
integrated development and management of fisheries worth
1) Rs 1,000 cr 2) Rs 2,000 cr 3) Rs 3,000 cr 4) Rs 3,500 cr 5) Rs 5,000 cr
148.Bulls and Bears are terms used in
1) Bullion markets
2) Vegetable markets
3) Stock Exchange
5) None of these
4) Commodity Markets
5) Kidney Punch
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149.Which of the following terms is used in the game of Football?

1) LBW
2) Spin
3) Touch Down 4) Bully
150.What does the letter S denote in SEZ as seen frequently in financial newspapers?
1) Small
2) Social
3) Secret
4) Secondary 5) Special
151.Gautam H Bambawale was on 23 Dec appointed as the High Commissioner of India to which of the
following countries?
1) Afghanistan 2) Maldives
3) Bhutan
4) Myanmar
5) Pakistan
152.Real Time Gross Settlement or RTGS enables
1)immediate transfer of money from customer of one bank to customer of another bank.
2)immediate transfer of money from customer of one branch to customer of another branch within
the same bank.
3)immediate transfer of money from customer of one country to customer of another country.
4)immediate transfer of money from customer of one bank to customer of the RBI.
5)None of these
153.The headquarters of the International Atomic Energy Agency is located in
1) Manila
2) Vienna
3) Paris
4) Washington DC
154.Which of the following is a private bank in India?
1) Union Bank of India
2) Syndicate Bank
4) UCO Bank
5) HDFC Bank
155.What is the currency of Iran?
1) Dinar
2) Euro
3) Rial
4) Peso
5) London
3) IDBI Bank
5) Taka
156.A travellers cheque is

1)a supplementary credit card.
2)a cheque issued by a bank or financial institution which functions as capital.
3)a certificate issued by a bank or financial institution in lieu of cash.
4)a cheque issued by a bank or financial institution which functions as a bond.
5)a prepaid instrument issued by a bank or finance institution which can be substitute of cash.
157.The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), once again, extended the date for exchanging pre-2005 currency
notes with new ones to
1) 31 Mar 2016 2) 1 Apr 2016 3) 30 Jun 2016 4) 30 Sep 2016 5) 31 Dec 2016
158 Which of the following is NOT a member of Organisation of Petroleum Exporting countries (OPEC)?
1) Iran
2) Kuwait
3) Libya
4) China
5) Indonesia
159 A mortgage is a security created on
1)movable property for a loan given by a bank.
2)immovable property for a deposit received by a bank.
3)a confirmation of immovable property given by a bank.
4)movable property for a deposit given by a bank.
5)immovable property for a loan given by a bank.
160.The 30th National Consumers Right Day was observed across India on
1) 16 Dec
2) 18 Dec
3) 20 Dec
4) 22 Dec
5) 24 Dec
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Test-V: Computer Knowledge

161.When you enter text in a cell in Excel, it also appears in which of the following?
1) Status bar 2) Formula bar 3) Row heading 4) Name box 5) None of these
162.Which elements of a Word document can be displayed in colour?
1) Only graphics
2) Only text
3) Only the first word of each line
4) All elements, but only if you have a colour printer
5) All elements
163.A workbook is a collection of
1) Page Setup 2) Buttons
3) Diagrams
4) Charts
164.____ appear at the bottom of the Excel Window.

1) Sheet tabs 2) Name Box 3) Formula bar 4) Title bar
5) Worksheets
5) None of these
165.EPROM stands for

1) Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory
2) Electronic Programmable Read-Only Memory
3) Enterprise Programmable Read-Only Memory
4) Extended Programmable Read-Only Memory
5) Electrical Programmable Read-Only Memory
166.The technology that stores only the essential instructions on a microprocessor chip and thus enhances
its speed is referred to as
1) CISC
2) RISC
3) CD-ROM 4) Wi-Fi
5) MISC
167.Which is not a basic function of a computer ?
1) Store data 2) Accept input 3) Process data 4) Copy text
5) Accept and process data
168.ASCII is a coding system that provides

1) 256 different characters
169.Which part of the computer is directly invoked in executing the instructions of the computer program?
1) The scanner
2) The main storage
3) The secondary storage
4) The printer
5) The processor
170.In order to create column data in Word, you need to
1)tab consecutively until your cursor reaches the desired place
2)set tabs or use the Table menu
3)use Excel
4)press the space bar until your cursor reaches the desired place
5)None of these
171.Files are organised by storing them in
1) tables
2) databases
3) folders
4) graphs
5) diagrams
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172.When a computer is switched on, the booting process performs

1) Integrity Test
2) Power-On Self-Test
3) Correct Functioning Test
4) Reliability Test
5) Shut-down
173.In Word, the feature that automatically detects common errors is called
1) Autocorrect
2) Autograph
3) Spelling and Grammar
4) Go to
5) Thesaurus
174.A computer system that is old and perhaps not satisfactory is referred to as a(n)
1) Ancient system
2) Historical system
3) Age old system
4) Legacy system
5) Legal System
175.Which of the following is not a binary number?
1) 001
2) 101
3) 202
4) 110
5) 011
176.Which of the following does not store data permanently?

1) ROM
2) RAM
3) Floppy Disk 4) Hard Disk
5) None of these
177.Which of the following is the smallest storage?

1) Megabyte 2) Gigabyte
3) Kilobyte
4) Terabyte
5) Nanobyte
178.Which menu enables the user to choose toolbars?

1) View
2) Format
3) Insert
4) Edit
5) Help
179.By viewing the properties of the local hard disk of a computer, the user can find out
1)the amount of space that has been used up and the remaining free space on the disk.
2)the name of the user viewing the properties of the disk.
3)nothing useful to the user.
4)the number of programs available in the computer.
5)None of these
180.Pre-defined and built-in formulas in Excel are known as
1) Autosheets 2) Diagrams
3) Charts
4) Tables
5) Functions
181.Which of the following contains permanent data and gets updated during the processing of
transactions?
1) Operating System File
2) Transaction file
3) Software File
4) Master file
5) Any File
182.The keyboard shortcut to centralise the selected text in Word is
1) Ctrl+Esc
2) Ctrl+C
3) Alt+C
4) There is no keyboard shortcut for this operation
5) Ctrl+E
183.Which of the following helps to protect floppy disks from data getting accidentally erased?
1) Access notch
2) Write-protect notch
3) Entry notch
4) Input notch
5) None of these
184.A modem is connected to
1) a telephone line
4) a monitor
2) a keyboard
5) a scanner
3) a printer
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185.Large transaction processing systems in automated organisations use

1) Online processing
2) Batch Processing
3) Once-a-day Processing
4) End-of-day processing
5) Once-a-week processing
186.Which of the following is done to force a page break in Word?
1)Position the cursor at the appropriate place and press F1.
2)Use the Insert/Section Break.
3)Position the cursor at the appropriate place and press Ctrl+Enter.
4)Change the font size and colour of the document.
5)None of these
187.Where is the disk placed in a computer?
1) In the modem
2) In the hard drive
3) Into the CPU
4) In the disk drive
5) In the scanner
188.The name that the user gives to a document is referred to as

1) document name
2) filename
4) document identity
5) file id
3) name given
189.Which Excel feature enables pre-defined layouts to selected tables in the worksheet?
1) Autoformat
2) Header and Footers
3) Undo and Redo
4) Spelling and Grammar
5) Autograph
190.Which of the following is a hardware and not a software?
1) PowerPoint 2) Printer driver 3) Operating System
4) ALU
191.What is the default file extension for all Word documents?

1) TXT
2) WRD
3) FIL
4) DOC
5) None of these
5) Excel
192.Which of the following is true for the octal system?

1)It needs less digits to represent a number than in the binary system.
2)It needs more digits to represent a number than in the binary system.
3)It needs the same number of digits to represent a number as in the binary system.
4)It needs the same number of digits to represent a number as in the decimal system.
5)None of these
193.When you scroll through a document, the ___ does not move.
1) I-beam
2) scroll bar
3) page
4) insertion point 5) None of these
194.Which of the following is not a term pertaining to the Internet?
1) Link
2) Hyperlink 3) Browser
4) Search Engine
5) Mouse
195.A set of formats that has a name and can be quickly applied to selected text is called a(n)
1) font
2) style
3) feature
4) finish
5) None of these
196.You can show an entire page or multiple pages at the same time using ____ options.
1) Word
2) Draft
3) Zoom
4) Show/Hide 5) Hide page
197.The basic goal of a computer process is to convert data into
1) graphs
2) tables
3) files
4) information 5) diagrams
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198.When browsing the World Wide Web, the browser is a

1) feeder
2) server program
3) application program
4) system program
5) client program
199.Where is the newly received email stored?
1) In your website
2) In Address-box
4) In your personal laptop
5) None of these
3) In Inbox
200.___ implies a combination of audio, video, text, animation and graphics.

1) Special media
2) Multiplexer
3) Multiplier
4) Message-media
5) Multimedia
Answers With Explanations:

1. 2;As,
T W I C E and W E A R S
3 4 $ 5
4 2 9 %
S = %, E = , A = 2, T = 3
S E A T
% 2 3
2. 3;As,
And,
Similarly,
3. 5;Second, fourth, fifth an seventh letters are O, R, T, and S respectively. Words, that can be formed
with these lettlers are SORT and ROTS.
4. 2;
There is only one such digit, ie 2.
5. 3;
Such pairs are 12 and 13.

(6-10):
7. 3
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6. 3
8. 5;
9. 2
(11-15):
D is fourth to the right of R.
10. 1
(Nepal)
Q
R (Korea)
(France) T
(Australia) S
V (Canada)
(China) W
P (Iran)
Z
(Britain)
11. 4
12. 4
14. 3; Only two persons, ie W and Z
15. 2
13. 5
16. 1;H K....(i); K < N....(ii); N > W....(iii);

From (i) and (ii), we get
H K < N H < N. Hence, conclusion I follow. Again, combining all, we get H < K < N > W
no relationship between H and W can be established. Hence, conclusion II doesnot follow.
17. 4;H K....(i); K = R....(ii); R < N....(iii)
From (ii) and (iii), we get
= R < N K < N. Hence conclusion I doesnot follow. Again, from (i) and (ii), we get
H > K = R H > R. Hence conclusion II also doesnot follow.
18. 3;R > T....(i); T M....(ii); M = J....(iii)
From (ii) and (iii), we get
T > M = J T > J J < T
Therefore, either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
19. 5;B < A....(i); A M....(ii); W M....(iii)

Combining all, we get
B < A < M < W B < W W < B
Hence, conclusion I follows.
Again, from (ii) and (iii), we get
A < M < W A < W. Hence conclusion II also follows.
20. 2;B = T....(i); T > M....(ii); M < D....(iii)

Combining all, we get B = T > M < D no relationship between B and D can be established. Hence
conclusion I doesnot follow.
Again, from (i) and (ii), we get
B = T > M B > M M < B. Hence, conclusion II follows.
(21-25):
Team Red
|
Person P
Blue
|
Q
Red
|
R
Green
|
T
Blue Red
|
|
V
W
Green
|
Z
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|
|
|
|
|
|
|
Fruit Apple banana Mango orange Guava Papaya W.melon
21. 3
22. 2
23. 5
24. 2
25. 3
26. 4;From I. Possible dates are
15th to 21st Nov
From II. Possible dates are
20th to 27th Nov
From I and II. Possible dates are
20th and 21st Nov
Thus even after combining I and II, we cant find exact date.
So, both I and II are not sufficient.
27. 4;From I. M is the husband of Ts only sister and the gender of T is unknown. Nothing is mentioned
about W.
From II. M is maternal grandfather of W. Nothing is mentioned about T.
From I and II. Even by combining both I and II, the gender of T and W does not become clear. So,
we cant find exact relationship between them.
28. 5;From I. home for all 9 2 1
From II. you go home 7 3 2
home 2
By combining both I and II, we can find out that the code for home is 2.
29. 4;From I. C > A (only)
From II. E, B > D
There are two possibilities:
B>E>D
or
E>B>D
From I and II.
B>E >D> C>A
or
E >B>D> C>A
Thus even by combining both I and II, we cant find who is the heaviest. Hence, both I and II
together are not sufficient.
30. 3;From I, It is clear that town M is in the south-east of town B.
From II, it is clear that town M is in the south-east of town B.
(31-35):
Candidate
31
32
33
34
35
31. 2
32. 1
(i)
33. 4
(ii)/(b)
()
34. 5
(iii)/(a)
()
(iv)
35. 3
36. 1;All graphics are designs (A) conversion Some designs are graphics (I). Hence conclusion I
(At least some designs are graphics Some designs are graphics) follows.
37. 2;Some leaves are branches (I) conversion Some branches are leaves (I) + All leaves are roots
= I + A = I = Some branches are roots conversion Some roots are branches. Therefore conclusion II
follows.
38. 4;
39. 3;Either I or II follows.
40. 4;
41. 5
42. 4
43. 2
44. 1
45. 2
49. 3
54. 4
59. 3
64. 2
69. 5
50. 5
55. 5
60. 4
65. 4
70. 5
74. 3
75. 5
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46. 1
47. 5
48. 3
51. 2
52. 5
53. 4
56. 5
57. 5
58. 3
61. 3
62. 2
63. 1
66. 3
67. 4
68. 1
(71-75): CFADEB
71. 5
72. 1
73. 5
76. 3;Substitute guide to with guides.
77. 4;Substitute does with did.
78. 1;Substitute deplete with depletion.
79. 1;Substitute which with who.
80. 2;Substitute to reducing with reduce.
81. 5;436.56 625.43 + 312.55 = 123.68
4
?
250
140 = 84
100
100
4545
4; 4545 5 =
= 18.18
50 5
50
82. 3;
83.
?=6
2637
= 879
3
879
= 175.8
5
84. 5;5 ? =
or, ? =
85. 2;
52 1.5
2.5
= 31.2
86. 5;15 15 + 125 = 350

9525
87. 2; 80 8 = 14.88 ~ 15
88. 3;7777 597 90 = 7777 687 = 7090

89. 1;
805
35
= 23
90. 5;(13.5)2 = 182.25 ~ 180

91. 2;8 6.5 = 52
52 5.5 = 286
286 4.5 = 1287
92. 4;3 14 = 42
42 12 = 504
504 10 = 5040
5040 8 = 40320
93. 3;403 3 = 400
400 6 = 394
394 12 = 382
382 24 = 358
358 48 = 310
310 96 = 214
94. 4;
95. 1;250000 4 = 62500

62500 5 = 12500
12500 4 = 3125
3125 5 = 625
625 4 = 156.25
156.25 5 = 31.25
96. 2;Largest fraction =
7
8
1
2
Smallest fraction =
7
1
2
74
8
3
8
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Difference = 8
97. 1;Amount =
P 1
100
or, 15800 + 7716.72 =
15800 1
100
2351.72 =
23516.72
15800
100
100
1.4884 =
15800 1
100
Taking square root of both the sides,

1.22 =
r
100
122 = 100 + r
or, r = 22%
0.6
1.4
98. 5;(?) (?) = 26 104
or, ?2 = 2704
or, ? = 52
99. 3;Total marks = 101 + 100 + 96 + 108 + 78 = 483
Since it is 84% of the total maximum marks,
Total maximum marks =
483
100 =
84
575
Maximum marks of each subject =
575
5
= 115
100.1;Perimeter of the square = 84 cm

Perimeter of the rectangle = 28 cm
Perimeter of the rectangle = 2(l + b)
or, 2(8 + b) = 28 cm
or, b = 14 8 = 6 cm
Breadth of the rectangle = 6 cm
Side of the square =
84
4
= 21 cm
Difference = 21 6 = 15 cm
101.3;Teachers weight = 58 + (21 + 1) = 80 kg
102.4;Sum of all the numbers = 8 472 = 3776
Sum of the given numbers (excluding the missing number) = 3071
Let the missing number be x.
Then x = 3776 3071 = 705
103.2; 6500
100 120
80 100
= 9750
330
104.5;Total time taken = 30 = 11 hrs

New distance = 330 + 110 = 440 km
Avg speed =
440
11
= 40 km/hr
105.5;The difference between CI and SI in three years =

3
Sum r (300 r )
3
100
or, 381.888 100 = Sum r (300 + r)
Sum =
381888 1000
144 (300 12)
= 8500
36 58 85 54 47 20
300
50
=
6
6
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106.3; Required average =
381888 1000
144 312
107.5;Required per cent =

=
108.5;Required ratio =
243
100 70.64% 70%
344
53 34 87
29
= 29 : 39
21 96 117 39
109.5;Required per cent =
62 34 15 18 56 58
100
65 14 58 56 65 86
56 86 35
100
24 57 79
177
100 110.625% 110%
160
110.3;Total number=18+28+67+25+26+85+25 + 35 + 64 + 85 + 68 + 46 = 572

350
2:5
875
112.4;Required total number

=
( 28 14) 8000 (18 13) 3500
100
100
= 3360 1085 = 2275
18 8000 13 3500 18 8000 13 3500
100 100
100
100
= (1440 455) : (1120 455)

= 985 : 665 = 197 : 133
10 3500 13 8000 10 3500
100
100 100
114.1;Required ratio=
= 350 : (1040 350)

= 350 : 690 = 35 : 69
13 3500
100
45500
%
% = 46.19% 46% (Approx.)
115.5;Required per cent = 100
985
985
116.4;I.7x2 7x 2x + 2 = 0
or,7x(x 1) 2(x 1) = 0
(7x 2) (x 1) = 0
or,x =
2
7
,1
II.y2 y 3y + 3 = 0
or,y(y 1) 3(y 1) = 0
or,(y 3) (y 1) = 0
y = 1, 3
x y
117.2; I. x2 = 64
x = 8
II. 2y2 + 9y + 16y + 72 = 0
or, y(2y + 9) + 8(2y + 9) = 0

or, (y + 8) (2y + 9) = 0
9
2
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y = 8,
x y
118.3; I. x2 + x 20 = 0
or, x2 + 5x 4x 20 = 0
or, x(x + 5) 4(x + 5) = 0
or, (x 4) (x + 5) = 0
x = 4, 5
II. 2y2 10y 9y + 45 = 0
or, 2y(y 5) 9(y 5) = 0
or, (y 5) (2y 9) = 0
y = 5,
9
2
x<y
119.1; Eqn (I) 2

Eqn (II) 7
14 x 6 y 52
14 x 119 y 287
__________
_______
113 y 339
y = 3 and x = 5, ie x > y
120.2; I. 3x2 9x 11x + 33 = 0

or, 3x(x 3) 11(x 3) = 0
or, (3x 11) (x 3) = 0
x = 3,
11
3
II. 2y2 6y 5y + 15 = 0
or, 2y(y 3) 5(y 3) = 0
or, (y 3) (2y 5) = 0
y = 3,
5
2
xy
121. 2
122. 1
123. 1
124. 2
125. 4
126. 2
127. 4
128. 1
129. 3
130. 2
131. 5
132. 5
133. Note: Formerly interest rate on savings bank allots in all nationalised commercial banks was
fixed by RBI, but now it is fixed by banks itself individually. So, none of the options given is
correct.
134. 3
135. 3
136. 4
141. 2
146. 4
151. 5
156. 5
161. 2
137. 5
142. 5
147. 3
152. 1
157. 3
162. 5
138. 1
143. 1
148. 3
153. 2
158. 4
163. 5
139. 5
144. 5
149. 3
154. 5
159. 5
164. 1
140. 4
145. 3
150. 5
155. 3
160. 5
165. 1
167. 5
172. 2
177. 5
182. 5
187. 4
192. 2
197. 4
168. 4
173. 1
178. 1
183. 2
188. 2
193. 4
198. 3
169. 5
174. 4
179. 1
184. 1
189. 1
194. 5
199. 3
170. 3
175. 3
180. 5
185. 2
190. 4
195. 4
200. 5
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166. 2
171. 3
176. 2
181. 1
186. 2
191. 4
196. 4

IBPS Clerk Main Practice Set 02

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IBPS CLERK MAIN PRACTICE SET-02

2. In a certain code, BEAMING is written as BFCMHOJ and CLEAR is written as MDESB.

7. What is Ms position with respect to R?

9. Who is second to the right of J?

10. Who is on the immediate right of D?

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12. Who among the following represent immediate neighbours of V?

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25. Which fruit does T like?

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alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

26. On which date in November is definitely Chetans fathers birthday?

28. How is home written a code language?

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5) if the case is to be referred to GM-Finance.

:All leaves are roots.

:Some kings are emperors.

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:I.No demand is a claim.

Test-II: English Language

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4)Asian countries are grappling with debt problems.

3) Depreciated 4) Encouraged 5) Recovered

53. I.The system is working with ___ to getting things done.

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II.___ must be commanded and not demanded.

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and torn by conflict of duties.4)/ No Error 5)

Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude

85. 1.5 (52 2.5) = ?

88. 7777.009 596.999 - 89.989 = ?

89. 805.0003 34.999 = ?

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92. 3 42 504 ? 40320

93. 403 400

95. 250000 62500 12500 3125 625 ? 31.25

96. Out of the fractions

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Spe cialis ation

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II. 2y2 + 25y + 72 = 0

II. 2y2 19y + 45 = 0

120.I. 3x2 20x + 33 = 0

II. 2y2 11y + 15 = 0

Test-IV: General Awareness

121.KYC stands for

2) Know Your Customer

122.Fixed deposits are which type of liability to a bank?

123.The 2nd World Internet Conference was held recently in

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4)moderate currency supply in public hands

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5) it is a mandate on the Finance Ministry to pay.

139.A nationalised bank is also called by which of the following names

140.Nomination for a deposit account in the bank means

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149.Which of the following terms is used in the game of Football?

156.A travellers cheque is

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Test-V: Computer Knowledge

164.____ appear at the bottom of the Excel Window.