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What's that remainder? Level 4


(175 points)

Correct answer: 19

33 solutions

What is the remainder, when


is divided by 101?

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Details and assumptions

Krutarth Patel
22, India

You may use the fact that 101


is a prime.

Write a solution.

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Solution writing guide: Level 4


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Sambit Senapati
19, India

Upvote (45)

Jul 15, 2013

My solution uses Wilson's theorem. Here it is:


Let

(where

Multiply both sides of the equation by 100!.


By wilson's theorem

2013,2012,. . ., 1920 give remainders 94,93, . . ., 1 respectively when divided by 101.


1913,1914, . . .,1918 give remainders 95,96, . . ., 100 respectively on division by 101.
So,

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Calvin Lin
30, USA

STAFF

Jul 16, 2013

Nice solution. Note that you didn't need to use Wilson's Theorem at all, since you
already pointed out that the cancellation will occur. This is very similar to the proof
of Lucas Theorem.
Here's a vote boost from me :)
2

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Sambit Senapati
19, India

Jul 17, 2013

In response to Calvin Lin: Yes, you are right. :)

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Ruskin Bond
19, United Kingdom

Jul 16, 2013

An excellent method. Like it more than Lucas.


2

Reply

Jean Lee
19, South Korea

Jul 24, 2013

Whoa. NICE.
1

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Abul Ahmed
15, Bangladesh

Jul 23, 2013

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Yunhao King
17, Singapore

Jul 18, 2013

No Lucas!Nice!
1

Reply

Sri Kanth
28, India

Jul 15, 2013

I think Lucas theorem is an overkill. This solution is really nice :)


1

Reply

Hero P.
39, USA

Upvote (18)

Jul 15, 2013

An elementary proof without resorting to Lucas' Theorem follows. First, we claim for
all primes , positive integers , and integers
,

For

, the claim is trivially true. For

But since the LHS is an integer,

is prime, and

the given conditions, it follows that it must divide

cannot divide

under

. So the first term on

the RHS is divisible by . Hence

and induction on

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proves our claim. Next, we claim that for positive integers

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For

, the claim is again trivial:

Thus by the first claim with

. For

, we write

By induction on and recalling that


implies
for prime , the result immediately follows. Therefore, we have proved

and with the choice


of

, we find

when divided by

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leaves a remainder

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Muhammad Al Kahfi
18, Indonesia

Upvote (18)

Jul 15, 2013

First of all, let we see the Lucas theorem :


http://ecademy.agnesscott.edu/~lriddle/ifs/siertri/LucasProof.htm
Now, since

Then, by Lucas theorem above, we obtain :

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Rindell Mabunga
17, Philippines

Jul 18, 2013

wow amazing i did not know that there was an existing theorem like that
2

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Vishwa Iyer
16, USA

Jul 15, 2013

you should change your


respectively.

and

into

and

(last modified Jul 15, 2013 by a moderator)

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Jimmy Kariznov
25, USA

Jul 15, 2013

In response to Vishwa Iyer: In my opinion, \cdot is better for denoting


multiplication than . or *, but that's just me.
3

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Sotiri Komissopoulos
19, USA

Upvote (10)

. We see that

Jul 15, 2013

Considering the rest of the numerator (without the


)
the integers between and
, inclusive, present. That is,

, we have each of

, since for any prime ,


by Wilson's
Theorem (for more information, see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wilson's_theorem).
Similarly, looking at the rest of the denominator (without the
), we have
.
With these in mind, we can solve our problem:
. Therefore, the
remainder when

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is divided by

is

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Kiriti Mukherjee
17, Bangladesh

Upvote (7)

Jul 15, 2013

Upvote (6)

Jul 15, 2013

According to lucas theorem it can be solved.. since


applying lucas theorem-

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Jimmy Kariznov
25, USA
Note that
by Lucas' Theorem, we have:

and

. Then, since

is prime,

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George Williams

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Upvote (5)

Jul 16, 2013

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George Williams
21, USA

Upvote (5)

Jul 16, 2013

This is a nice solution, the source of the corresponding exercise is Apostol's. For all ,
we have that:

Note that this is a special case of Lucas theorem, which has already been described
here.

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Alyosha Latyntsev
19, United Kingdom

Jul 22, 2013

Do you have the name of this theorem?


1

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Yunhao King
17, Singapore

Jul 18, 2013

I can prove this without Lucas therorem.


Inside p consecutive integers k,k-1,...k--p+1,there must have an integer can be
divided by p,we let this integer be k-i. 0 =<i<=p-1;then we have
[k/p]=[k-i+i/p]=k-i/p+[i/p]=k-i/p
Let Q=(kk-1k-2...k-p+1)/k-i;
Then we have Q(p-1)!(mod p);
And Q[k/p]=Q(k-i)/p=(p-1)!{k \choose p};
(p-1)![k/p]Q[k/p](p-1)!{k \choose p}(mod p);
As p is a prime number;(p-1)! can not be divided by p;as a result
{k \choose p}=k/p
(last modified Jul 18, 2013 )

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Yunhao King
17, Singapore

Jul 18, 2013

Wow!!!!I like this one!


1

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Mayank Kaushik
21, India

Jul 16, 2013

I did the same as you did , But I didn't know that this result is the special case of
Lucas Theorem (which i never heard)
1

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Oscar Harmon
18, USA
We can see that

Upvote (4)

Jul 15, 2013

. Now, we could rearrange this to be


, but these are not precisely

equivalent since

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. So, we can factor this out initially and proceed:

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Calvin Lin
30, USA

STAFF

Jul 16, 2013

Indeed, you have to be careful with what


pointing that out!
1

means. Thanks for

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Daniel Chiu
16, USA

Upvote (3)

Jul 15, 2013

We must find this modulo 11.

Notice the top is equal to


answer is

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modulo 101. Now, the

cancel, and the

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Xuming Liang
17, USA

Upvote (2)

Jul 19, 2013

Here's a solution using the simple lemma:


when
Proof:

are relatively prime.

for some integer


, since
are relatively prime, thus it's clear that
. Q.E.D

Now consider the number

, which is equal to
, thus we have
. Since

is prime, thus

and

are

relatively prime. By the lemma above we have


, which
means that the remainder is

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Atonu Mukherjee
20, Bangladesh

Upvote (2)

Jul 15, 2013

Upvote (1)

Jul 21, 2013

According to lucas theorem it can be solved.. since


applying lucas theorem-

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Ang Yan Sheng


30, Singapore

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30, Singapore
Note that

Hence

(Note: all the divisions are valid (mod 101) because the denominators of every fraction,
except the first, are coprime to 101.)

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Abhishek Pushp
16, India

Upvote (1)

Jul 20, 2013

it can be solved by wid lucas theorem now, 2013=19.101^1+94. 101=1.101^1+0 by


Lucas theorem : m1=19 m0=94 n1=1 n2=0 C(2013 101)C(19 1).C(94 0) 19(mod
101) SO 19 IS ANSWER

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Hesto Plowkeeper
15, USA

Upvote (1)

Jul 17, 2013

Without resorting to fancy combinatoric theorems, we use generating function


(1+x)^2013, and consider the coefficient of term x^101, which is 2013C101. Under
mod 101, (1+x)^101=1+x^101, for all the coefficients in the middle are divisible by
101. Hence (1+x)^2013 = (1+x^101)^19 (1+x)^94, of which the coefficient of x^101
is 19 by binomial expansion. Namely, the answer is 19.

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Jorge Fernndez
19, Mexico

Upvote (0)

Jul 12

, top and bottom is a complete residue system, the multiples of


are
and
. They make
when dividing. The rest of the complete residue
system cancels out
.

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Patrick Corn
39, USA

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We have

Upvote (0)

May 20, 2014

after canceling a factor

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We have
of

after canceling a factor

from top and bottom.

The numbers
left in the
numerator run through all of the nonzero congruence classes mod
exactly once.
So, modulo
, the numerator is congruent to
. Since
is prime,
is
invertible mod
, so it makes sense to rewrite:

mod

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Rahul Nahata
19, India
According to Lucas' theorem since
Therefore

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Upvote (0)

May 20, 2014

and

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Ayush Saini
21, India

Upvote (0)

May 20, 2014

My solution uses Wilson's theorem. Here it is:


Let (2013101)=201320121913(101)!c(mod101) (where 0c<101)
Multiply both sides of the equation by 100!.
By wilson's theorem 100!1(mod101) 20132012(1919101)1913c100!
c(mod101) 2013,2012,. . ., 1920 give remainders 94,93, . . ., 1 respectively when
divided by 101.
1913,1914, . . .,1918 give remainders 95,96, . . ., 100 respectively on division by 101.
So, (2013101)94!19100999519100!c(mod101) c=19 Therefore
(2013101)19(mod101)

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B La Bc Khi
18, Vietnam

Upvote (0)

May 20, 2014

Since 2013=19.101+94 then according to the lucas theorem we have ${2013 \choose
101} \equiv {19 \choose 1}{94 \choose 0} \equiv 19 \pmod{101}$ Ans: 19.

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Douglas Zare
38, USA

Upvote (0)

May 20, 2014

The first term simplifies:


. The other terms cancel in the arithmetic of the
integers mod 101, since each numerator is congruent to the denominator mod 101.
So, the product is 19 mod 101.

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So, the product is 19 mod 101.

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Ashwath Thirumalai
17, Uganda

Upvote (0)

May 20, 2014

By Lucas' Theorem, since 101 is prime, this binomial coefficient is equal to a bunch of
stuff choose 0 (which is just 1) times 19 choose 1 (modulo 101). This is clearly 19 mod
101.

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Thomas Baxter
21, Canada

Upvote (0)

The question is equivalent to, "What is


number from to

equivalent to modulo

Jul 21, 2013

, as a

inclusive?"

View this combination as the product

Note that the first fraction on the right-hand side is equivalent to modulo
,
because the top and bottom each include a number equivalent to modulo
for
each integer
, so their modular products are equal and non-zero.
Then, modulo

, the combination is equivalent to

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Jason Martin
23, USA
We know

Upvote (0)

Jul 21, 2013

. In mod 101, we can treat division by 100, 99,

98, etc as multiplication by their multiplicative inverses. Thus, we have


. Each value from 1913 to 2013 is a value
mod 101. The only value that is divisible by 101 is 1919. Thus, everything cancels
until we're left with
.

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Christopher Boo
18, Malaysia

Upvote (0)

Jul 20, 2013

This is a typical problem to be solved by Lucas Theorem. (The proof and explanation
of Lucas Theorem is too complicated, I will only write the way to tackle this problem,
for more information you can Google it)

Next,

So, the remainder of

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when divided by

is

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Tran Trung Nguyen


18, Vietnam

Upvote (0)

Jul 20, 2013

2013=19.101^1+94. 101=1.101^1+0 by Lucas theorem : m1=19 m0=94 n1=1 n2=0


C(2013 101)C(19 1).C(94 0) 19(mod 101) SO 19 IS ANSWER

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Evan Chien
16, USA

Upvote (0)

Jul 19, 2013

Upvote (0)

Jul 18, 2013

2013=19.101^1+94
101=1.101^1+0
by Lucas theorem:
m1=19
m0=94
n1=1
n2=0
C(2013 101)C(19 1).C(94 0)
19(mod 101) So 19 is the answer

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Utsav Singhal
16, India

It means.....2013 c 101 = 2013! ____ 101! (2013-101)! solve this and divide it by 101
which will give the remainder 19

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Abhishek Srivastava
18, India

Upvote (0)

Jul 18, 2013

2013=19.101^1+94. 101=1.101^1+0 by Lucas theorem : m1=19 m0=94 n1=1 n2=0


C(2013 101)C(19 1).C(94 0) 19(mod 101) SO 19 IS ANSWER

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Ajay Kumar
20, India

Upvote (0)

Jul 18, 2013

by seeing the question we will aply Lucas theorem now 2013=19.1011+94.


101=1.1011+0 Then, by Lucas theorem above, we obtain : m1=19 m0=94 n1=1 n2=0
(2013101)(191).(940)19.119(mod101)

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Tan Likai
17, Singapore
Since

Upvote (0)

. Note that

Jul 17, 2013

. Then note that the

numbers from 1913 to 2013 exculding 1919 are 1 to 100 modulo 101. By Wilson's
Theorem,

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Abhishek Kumar
17, India

Upvote (0)

Jul 16, 2013

Upvote (0)

Jul 16, 2013

According to lucas theorem it can be solved.. since


applying lucas theorem-

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Debjit Mandal
20, India

I am going to use the result that, if p is a prime and m and n are positive integers
satisfying m=ap+r , n=bp+s where 0\leq r,s<p, then {m \choose n}{a \choose b}{r
\choose s}\pmod{p}. Here, m=2013= 101 \times 19 + 94, and n=101 \times 1 + 0. So,
{2013 \choose 101}{19 \choose 1}{94 \choose 0}19 \times 119\pmod{101}. So,
the answer is 19.

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Harsa Mitra
21, India

Upvote (0)

Jul 16, 2013

Using Lucas Theorem (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lucas'_theorem)


2013=19.101+94. 101=1.101+0
Using Lucas theorem:we get, 19 (mod101)

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