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CCNA 802
TOPIC 1, DESCRIBE HOW A NETWORK WORKS (81 questions)
Section 1: Describe the purpose and functions of various network devices (9 questions)
Cu 1 : Both switches and hubs are being utilized within the TestKing network.
Which of the following is true regarding the use of switches and hubs for network
connectivity in this network?
A. Switches take less time to process frames than hubs take
B. Hubs can filter frames
C. Switches do not forward broadcasts
D. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network
E. Using hubs can increase the amount of bandwidth available to hosts
F. None of the above
Chn cu 1 khng chn cu 2
Cu 2: Which one of the following characteristics is true regarding the use of hubs
and switches?
A. Hubs can have their ports be configured with VLANs
B. Using hubs is costly with regard to bandwidth availability.
C. Switches can not forward broadcasts.
D. Switches are more efficient than hubs in processing frames.
E. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network.
Cu 4: Which of the following correctly describe the various functions and virtues of
a router? (Select three)
A. Packet switching
C. Packet filtering
E. Broadcast forwarding
G. None of the above
Cu 5: Cisco is the leader in the router market space. What basic functions do their
routers perform in a network? (Select two)
A. The microsegmentation of broadcast domains
B. Path selection
C. Packet switching
D. Bridging between LAN segments
E. Access layer security
F. VLAN membership assignment
G. Application optimization
Cu 6: Both bridges are switches are being used throughout the TestKing LAN.
Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches in this
network? (Select three)
A. Switches are primarily software based while bridges are hardware based.
B. Switches usually have a higher number of ports than most bridges.
C. Bridges are frequently faster than switches.
D. Bridges define broadcast domains while switches define collision domains.
E. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcasts.
F. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.
Office 1
55 meters
Office 2
Two offices on the London campus of a the TestKing corporation must be connected
to use Ethernet with a bandwidth of at least 100 Mbps. TestKing is concerned about
possible problems from voltage potential differences between the two buildings.
Which media type should be used for the connection?
A. Coaxial cable
C. UTP cable
E. None of the above
Section 3: Use the OSI and TCP/IP models and their associated protocols to explain how
data flows in a network (12 questions)
Cu 1: As a CCNA candidate, you must know the various layers of the OSI model. At
which layers of the OSI Model do Wide Area Networks operate in? (Select two)
A. Physical Layer
B. Datalink Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Session Layer
E. Transport Layer
F. Presentation Layer
G. Application Layer
Cu 2: While troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the network, you issue the
ping command from your PC command prompt, but the output shows "request times
out." At which OSI layer is this problem associated with?
A. The data link layer
C. The access layer
E. The network layer
Cu 3:You download a file from an FTP site on the Internet. What is the highest layer
in the OSI model used in this FTP operation?
A. Application
C. Session
E. Internet
G. Physical
B. Presentation
D. Transport
F. Data Link
Cu 4: A host computer has been correctly configured with a static IP address, but
the default gateway is incorrectly set. Which layer of the OSI model will be first
affected by this configuration error?
A. Layer 1
C. Layer 3
E. Layer 5
E. Layer 7
B. Layer 2
D. Layer 4
F. Layer 6
Cu 5: Which layer of the OSI reference model is responsible for ensuring reliable
end-to-end delivery of data?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Session
D. Transport
E. Network
F. Data-Link
Cu 6: At which OSI layer is a logical path created between two host systems named
TK1 and TK2 on the TestKing LAN?
A. Physical
C. Data link
E. Network
G. Presentation
B. Session
D. Transport
F. Application
B. Layer 3
D. Layer 5
F. Layer 7
Cu 8:Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on
another network?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Session
D. Transport
E. Network
F. Data link
G. Physical
Cu 9: Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation
process? (Select two)
A. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical
link.
B. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and adds reliability and flow
control information.
C. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control
information to a segment.
D. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the
segment.
E. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and
destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
Cu 10: When files are transferred between a host and an FTP server, the data is
divided into smaller pieces for transmission. As these pieces arrive at the destination
host, they must be reassembled to reconstruct the original file. What provides for the
reassembly of these pieces into the correct order?
A. The sequence number in the TCP header
B. The Start Frame Delimiter in the 802.3 Preamble
C. The TTL in the IP header
D. The acknowledgement number in the segment header
E. The frame check sequence in the Ethernet frame trailer
You unsuccessfully try to ping the Internet from a PC host on the LAN. During the
troubleshooting process, you enter the "show ip nat translations" command but the
output is blank. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The keyword overload is missing from the command.
B. The NAT pool must be defined first.
C. An access list must be defined to create static NAT translations.
D. The interfaces must be configured for NAT.
E. None of the above
Cu 3: Which protocol below uses TCP port 443 at layer 4?
A. HTML
C. TFTP
E. SMTP
B. HTTPS
D. Telnet
F. None of the above
Cu 4: As a CCNA candidate, you will be expected to know the OSI model very well.
Which of the following are associated with the application layer (layer 7) of the OSI
model? (Select two)
A. TCP
C. FTP
E. IP
B. Telnet
D. Ping
F. UDP
Section 5: Describe the purpose and basic operation of the protocols in the OSI and
TCP models (12 questions) trang 30
Section 6: Describe the impact of applications (Voice Over IP and Video Over IP) on
a network (2 questions) trang 38
Cu 4: Which two of the addresses below are available for host addresses on the
TestKing subnet 192.168.15.19/28? (Select two)
A. 192.168.15.17
C. 192.168.15.29
E. 192.168.15.31
B. 192.168.15.14
D. 192.168.15.16
F. None of the above
Cu 5: TestKing has a Class C network and you need ten subnets. You wish to have
as many addresses available for hosts as possible. Which one of the following subnet
masks should you use?
A. 255.255.255.192
C. 255.255.255.240
E. None of the above
B. 255.255.255.224
D. 255.255.255.248
Cu 6: You have a single Class C IP address and a point-to-point serial link that you
want to implement VLSM on. Which subnet mask is the most efficient for this point
to point link?
A. 255.255.255.0
C. 255.255.255.248
E. 255.255.255.254
B. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.252
F. None of the above
Cu 8: You have a network that supports VLSM and you need to reduce IP address
waste in your point to point WAN links. Which of the masks below would you use?
A. /38
C. /27
B. /30
D. /23
E. /18
F. /32
Cu 19: A host on the TestKing network has been configured with the IP address
10.16.3.66/23. Which two statements describe this IP address? (Select two)
A. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
B. This network is not subnetted.
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
E. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
Section 6: Determine the appropriate classless addressing scheme using VLSM and
summarization to satisfy addressing requirements in a LAN/WAN environment (23
questions)
Cu 2: You need subnet a TestKing network segment. How many subnetworks and
hosts are available per subnet if you apply a /28 mask to the 210.10.2.0 class C
network?
A. 30 networks and 6 hosts.
C. 8 networks and 32 hosts.
E. 16 networks and 14 hosts.
Cu 3: The TestKing network was assigned the Class C network 199.166.131.0 from
the ISP. If the administrator at TestKing were to subnet this class C network using
the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask, how may hosts will they be able to support on each
subnet?
A. 14
C. 30
E. 62
B. 16
D. 32
F. 64
B. 172.16.107.0
D. 172.16.252.0
F. None of the above
Cu 18: You've been assigned the CIDR (classless inter domain routing) block of
115.64.4.0/22 from your ISP. Which of the IP addresses below can you use for a
host? (Select three)
A. 115.64.8.32
C. 115.64.6.255
E. 115.64.5.128
B. 115.64.7.64
D. 115.64.3.255
F. 115.64.12.128
Section 9: Identify and correct common problems associated with IP addressing and host
configurations (7 questions)
Cu 4: While troubleshooting a connectivity issue from a PC you obtain the following
information:
Local PC IP address: 190.0.3.35/24
Default Gateway: 190.0.3.1
Remote Server: 190.0.5.250/24
You then conduct the following tests from the local PC:
Ping 127.0.0.1 - Unsuccessful
Ping 190.0.3.35 - Successful
Ping 190.0.3.1 - Unsuccessful
Ping 190.0.5.250 - Unsuccessful
What is the underlying cause of this problem?
A. TCP/IP not correctly installed
C. NIC not functioning
E. None of the above
Cu 3: Router TK1 has just received a packet and needs to route it. What two
actions must this router take in order to route incoming packets? (Select two)
A. Inspect the routing table to select the best path to the destination network addresses.
B. Validate sources of routing information.
C. Inspect the ARP table to verify a legitimate source MAC address for each packet.
D. Identify the destination network address of each packet.
E. Verify the receipt of routed packets by the next hop router.
F. Identify the source network address of each packet.
Cu 3: RIP version 2 is being used as the routing protocol within the TestKing
network. What does RIP version 2 use to prevent routing loops? (Select two)
A.CIDR
C.Authentication
E. Hold-down timers
F.Multicast routing updates
B.Split horizon
D.Classless masking
G.Path Vectoring
Section 5: Access and utilize the router to set basic parameters. (including: CLI/SDM) (6
questions)
Cu 2: You work as a network engineer at TestKing.com. You are required to allow
establishment of a Telnet session with a router TestKingC. Which set command
must be configured?
A. TestKingC(config)# line console 0
TestKingC(config-line)# enable password testking
B. TestKingC(config)# line console 0
TestKingC(config-line)# enable secret testking
TestKingC(config-line)# login
C. TestKingC(config)# line console 0
TestKingC(config-line)# password testking
TestKingC(config-line)# login
D. TestKingC(config)# line vty 0
TestKingC(config-line)# enable password testking
E. TestKingC(config)# line vty 0
TestKingC(config-line)# enable secret testking
TestKingC(config-line)# login
F. TestKingC(config)# line vty 0
TestKingC(config-line)# password testking
TestKingC(config-line)# login
Answer: F
Cu 3: Which sequence of actions will allow telnet traffic from a TestKing user's PC
to a router using TCP/IP?
A. Connect the PC's COM port to the router's console port using a straight-through cable.
B. Connect the PC's COM port to the router's console port using a crossover cable.
C. Connect the PC's COM port to the router's Ethernet port using a straight-through
cable.
D. Connect the PC's Ethernet port to the router's Ethernet port using a crossover cable.
E. Connect the PC's Ethernet port to the router's Ethernet port using a rollover cable.
F. Connect the PC's Ethernet port to the router's Ethernet port using a straight-through
cable.
G. None of the above
Cu 4: You are given a PC, a router, and a cable. Select the correct combination that
will allow you to log into router TK1 locally using a terminal emulation program such
as HyperTerminal.
A. Connect the PC's COM port to the router's console port using a straight-through cable.
B. Connect the PC's COM port to the router's console port using a rollover cable.
C. Connect the PC's COM port to the router's Ethernet port using a straight-through
cable.
D. Connect the PC's Ethernet port to the router's Ethernet port using a rollover cable.
E. Connect the PC's Ethernet port to the router's Ethernet port using a straight- through
cable.
F. None of the above
Cu 5: Which router console commands shown below are used to manage telnet
sessions to other routers? (Select three)
A. TestKingD# disconnect 3
B. TestKingD# exit session 2
C. TestKingD# kill connection 1
D. TestKingD# show sessions
E. TestKingD# show connection all
F. TestKingD# resume 4
Section 6: Connect, configure, and verify operation status of a device interface (8
questions)
Cu 4: Which of the following commands displays the configurable parameters and
statistics of all interfaces on a router?
A. show interfaces
B. show processes
C. show running-config
D. show versions
E. show startup-config
Cu 8: An administrator issues the show ip interface s0/0 command and the output
displays that interface Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is up
What does "line protocol is up" specifically indicate about the interface?
A. The cable is attached properly.
B. CDP has discovered the connected device.
C. Keepalives are being received on the interface.
D. A carrier detect signal has been received from the connected device.
Cu 6: Regarding the extended ping command; which of the statements below are
true? (Select three)
A. The extended ping command is supported from user EXEC mode.
B. The extended ping command is available from privileged EXEC mode.
C. With the extended ping command you can specify the TCP and UDP port to be
pinged.
D. With the extended ping command you can specify the timeout value.
E. With the extended ping command you can specify the datagram size.
Section 8: Perform and verify routing configuration tasks for a static or default
route given specific routing requirements (11 questions)
Cu 1: The TestKing network administrator has issued the "ip route 172.16.33.0
255.255.255.0 192.168.22.44" command on a TestKing router. Which two statements
are true about this command? (Select two)
A. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the
172.16.33.0 network
B. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.33.0 network
C. It uses the default administrative distance
D. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.22.0 network
Cu 8: Which of the following commands would you use to configure a default route
to any destination NOT found in the routing table of router TK1?
A. TK1(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
B. TK1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
C. TK1(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0
D. TK1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0
E. TK1(config)# ip route any any e0
F. None of the above
Cu 10: Some of the TestKing routers have been configured with default routes.
What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Select two)
B. RIP version 1
D. OSPF
F. CDP
Cu 5: You need to configure a single router into load balancing traffic across 4
unequal cost paths. Which routing protocols can satisfy this requirement? (Select
two)
A. RIP v1
C. IGRP
E. OSPF
B. RIP v2
D. EIGRP
F. IS-IS
Cu 6:You need to choose a routing protocol for a new TestKing network. This
network will be running IP, IPX, and Appletalk, and you wish to utilize only one
routing protocol. Which one would be the best choice?
A. OSPF
C. RIP v2
E. RIP v1
B. EIGRP
D. IGRP
Cu 7:Which of the routing protocols shown below support both VLSM and route
summarization? (Select three)
A. IGRP
C. RIP v1
E. OSPF
G. CDP
B. EIGRP
D. RIP v2
F. VTP
Cu 8: Which of the following routing protocols support the use of VLSM (Variable
Length Subnet Masking)? (Select three)
A. RIPv1
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. IGRP
E. RIPv2
Cu 9:Which of the following routing protocols do NOT support VLSM (variable
length subnet masking)? (Select two)
A. RIPv1
C. EIGRP
E. IS-IS
B. IGRP
D. OSPF
F. RIPv2
Cu 10: You need to implement the use of a routing protocol that meets the
following requirements:
1. Converges quickly
2. Supports VLSM, CIDR, IP, and IPX.
3. Uses minimal bandwidth for routing updates.
Which one of the following routing protocols would be the best choice?
A. RIPv1
C. IGRP
E. EIGRP
B. RIPv2
D. OSPF
B. EIGRP
D. RIP v2
Cu 17: Router TK1 learns about a remote network from EIGRP, OSPF, and a static
route. Assuming all routing protocols are using their default administrative distance,
which route will TK1 use to forward data to the remote network?
A. The router will use the static route.
B. The router will use the OSPF route.
B. OSPF
D. RIPv1
F. None of the above
B. RIP v2
D. IGRP
F. VLSM
Cu 23: Which of the following technologies can be used in distance vector routing
protocols to prevent routing loops? (Select two)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol
B. Shortest path first tree
B. ICMP
D. RIP v1
F. EIGRP
Cu 25: Which of the following statements describe the characteristic of link state
routing protocols? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The exchange of an advertisement is triggered by a change in the network.
B. All routers exchange routing tables with each other in a multipoint network.
C. Packets are routed based upon the shortest path to the destination.
D. Paths are chosen depending on the cost efficiency factor.
E. Every router in an OSPF area is capable of representing the entire network topology.
F. Only the designated router in an OSPF area can represent the entire network topology.
Cu 26: What are the different characteristics of distance vector and link state
routing protocols?
A. Distance vector protocols send the entire routing table to directly connected neighbors.
B. Distance vector protocols are responsible for sending updates to all networks listed in
the routing table.
C. Link state protocols are responsible for sending the entire routing table to the whole
network.
D. Link state protocols send updates regarding their own links status to all other routers
on the network.
E. None of the above
Cu 27: Which one of the following statements best explains the split horizon rule
used in distance vector routing protocols?
A. Only routers can split boundaries (horizons) between concentric networks.
B. Each AS must keep routing tables converged to prevent dead routes from being
advertised across boundaries.
C. Networks can only remain fully converged if all information is sent out all active
interfaces.
D. Information about a route should not be sent back in the direction from which the
original update came.
E. Distance vector protocols need fall back routers that are responsible for momentary
loops.
Cu 28: Which of the following statements are correct in regard to classless routing
protocols? (Select two)
A. Discontiguous subnets are not allowed.
B. Variable length subnet masks are allowed.
C. RIP v1 is a classless routing protocol.
D. IGRP supports classless routing within the same autonomous system.
E. RIP v2 supports classless routing.
Cu 30: A large corporation that frequently integrates networks from newly acquired
businesses has just decided to use OSPF as the corporate routing protocol instead of
EIGRP. What two benefits will the change from EIGRP to OSPF provide to the
corporation? (Choose two)
A. The ability to automatically summarize networks
B. The ability to redistribute default and static routes
C. The ability to use VLSM
D. The ability to support multi-vendor routers
E. The ability to create a hierarchical design using areas