KVS TGT and PRT Preliminary Examination Model Paper

KVS TGT and PRT Preliminary Examination Model Paper 2010
Question Paper containing 110 Questions of General Awareness, Current Affairs, General
Science & Indian Constitution, Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude and Teaching Aptitude etc.
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1. Among the following Indian cities, which one is located most southward?
a. Hyderabad
b. Vishakhapatnam
c. Panaji
d. Belgaum
2. Match List- I (National Highway) with List-II (Connected Cities) and select the correct
answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I
List-II
(National Highway)
(Connected Cities)
A. NH 3
1. Delhi Lucknow
B. NH 4
2. Agra-Bikaner
C. NH 11
3. Agra-Mumbai
D. NH 24
4. Chennai-Thane (Mumbai)
Code:
AB C D
(1) 3 1 2 4
(2) 2 4 3 1
(3) 3 4 2 1
(4) 2 1 3 4
3. Match List- I (Defense Institute) with List- II (City) and select the correct answer using
the code given below the Lists:
List-I
List-II
(Defense Institute)
(City)
A. College of Defense Management
1. Pachmarhi
B. Army Air Defense College
2. Bangalore
C. Army Supply Corps (ASC) Centre and College
3.
Secunderabad
D. Army Education Corps (AEC) Training College and Centre
4. Gopalpur
Code:
AB C D
(1) 3 4 2 1
(2) 1 2 4 3
(3) 3 2 4 1
(4) 1 4 2 3
4. Which of the following are Defense Public Sector Undertakings?
1. Goa Shipyard Limited
2. The Bharat Dynamics Limited
3. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(1) 1 and 2
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(2) 2 and 3
(3) l and 3
(4) 1, 2 and 3
5. Match List- I (Young Indian Player) with List- II (Game/Sport) and select the correct
answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I
List-II
(Young Indian Player)
(Game/Sports)
A. Armaan Ebrahim
1. Squash
B. Joshna Chinnappa
2. Hockey
C. Adrian DSouza
3. Lawn Tennis
D. Karan Rastogi
4. Auto Racing, Swimming
Code:
AB C D
(1) 2 3 5 1
(2) 4 1 2 3
(3) 2 1 5 3
(4) 4 3 2 1
6. Match List- I (Person) with List- II (Organization) and select the correct answer using the
code given below the Lists:
List-I
List-II
(Person)
(Organization)
A. Shiv Nadar
1. Satyam Computers
B. Kumaramangalam Birla
2. Tata Consultancy Services
C. R. Raju
3. Grasim Industries
D. S. Ramadorai
4. HCL Technologies
Codes:
ABCD
(1) 2 3 1 4
(2) 4 1 3 2
(3) 2 1 3 4
(4) 4 3 1 2
7. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(1) Gol Gumbaz
:
Hyderabad
(2) Tomb of Itmad-ud-daula
:
Agra
(3) Tomb of Sher Shah
:
Sasaram
(4) Tomb of Rani Rupmati
:
Ahmedabad
8. Where is the Baglihar Hydroelectric Project located?
(1) Ferozepur District of Punjab
(2) Doda District of Jammu and Kashmir
(3) Faridkot District of Punjab
(4) Baramulla District of Jammu and Kashmir
(For the next Five Items)
ABC Ltd. presently has three Accounts Assistants (A. B and C) and five Accounts Officers (D, E, F,
G and H). Its management is planning to-open a new office in another city using 3 Accounts
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Officers and 2 Accounts Assistants from its present staff. The following guidelines have been
established to set up the new office.
1. A and C are constantly finding faults with each other and should not be sent as
members of the same team.
2. C and E function well alone but not as a team. They should not be sent as members of
the same team:
3. D and G do not enjoy good relations. They should not be sent as members of the same
team
4. Since D and F have been competing for a promotion, they should not be sent as
members of the same team.
Based upon the above, answer the next five items:
9. If C and F are moved to the new office, what is the number of different teams that can be
formed?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
10. If C is sent to the new office which member of the staff can not go with C?
(1) H
(2) G
(3) F
(4) D
11. Under the guidelines developed, which of the following must go to the office?
(1) B
(2) D
(3) E
(4) G
12. Under the guidelines developed, which one of the following is the possible number of
different teams, which can be sent to the new office?
(1) 15
(2) 12
(3) 8
(4) 6
13. If D goes to the new office which of the following is/are correct?
1. C cannot go.
2. A cannot go.
3. H must also go.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) l and 2
(4) 1 and 3
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14. Consider the following statements

1. Megabyte (MB) is exactly equal to 2 20 bytes.
2. A byte is a unit of data that is eight binary digits long.
3. A bit has a single binary value, either 0 or 1.
Which of the statements given above is are correct?
(1) 2 only
(2) 3 only
(3) 1 and 2
(4) 1, 2, and 3
15. Consider the following statements.
1. Bluetooth technology uses simulation of a given environment.
2. Virtual reality uses short-range wireless connection for connecting mobile phones,
computers with each other.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
16. Match List -I (Temple/Cathedral) with List-II (Place) and select the correct answer using
the code given below the list:
List-I
List-II
(Temple/Cathedral)
(Place)
A. Brihadeswara Temple
1. Guwahati
B. Vishwanatha Temple
2. Chennai
C. Kamakhya Temple
3. Thanjavur
D. Santhome Cathedral
4. Khajuraho
Codes:
ABCD
(1) 3 2 1 4
(2) 1 4 3 2
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 1 2 3 4
17. Match List -I (Scholar) with List- II (Work) and select the correct answer using the code
given below the Lists:
List-I
List-II
(Scholar)
(Work)
A. Panini
1. Brihatsamhita
B. Varahamihira
2. Vedanga Jyotisha
C. Lagdhacharya
3. Rajatragani
D. Kalhana
4. Asthadhyayi
Codes:
ABCD
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(1) 4 1 2 3
(2) 3 2 1 4
(3) 4 2 1 3
(4) 3 1 2 4
18. Match List -I (World Heritage Site) with List- II (State) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists:
List-I
List-II
(World Heritage Site)
(State)
A. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary
1. Bihar
B. Mahabodhi Temple Complex
2. Uttranchal
C. Group of Monuments, Pattadakal
3. Assam
D. Nandadevi National Park
4. Karnataka
Codes:
ABCD
(1) 2 4 1 3
(2) 3 1 4 2
(3) 2 1 4 3
(4) 3 4 1 2
(For the next THREE items)
In a group of six men and womenA, B, C, D, and F there are two housewives who have not
taken up a any job one lecturer, one architect, one accountant and one lawyer. Further,
1. There are two married couples in the group.
2. The lawyer is married to D who is a housewife and she has not taken up any job
3. No lady in the group is either an accountant or an architect
4. C who is an accountant is married to F who is a lecturer
5. A is married to D and E is not one of the two non-working housewives.
Based on the above, answer the next THREE items:
19. Which of the following is a married couple?
(1) A-B
(2) A-F
(3) C-E
(4) None of the above.
20. What is E-working as?
(1) Lawyer
(2) Architect
(3) Lecturer
(4) Accountant
21. How many members of the group are males?
(1) 2
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(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) Cannot be determined
22. Consider the following statements:
1. Black soils occur mainly in Maharashtra, Western Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat.
2. Alluvial soils are confined mainly to the Northern plains
(1) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
1. India has an installed e1ectrlc power generation capacity of more than 1 lakh MW.
2. The total hydroelectric power potential of India is estimated around. 1, 50,000MW.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
24. Match List I (Ore) with List-II (Metal) and select the correct answer using the code given
below the Lists:
List-I
(Ore)
A. Magnetite
B. Galena
C. Bauxite
D. Sphalerite
List-II
(Metal)
1. Lead
2. Zinc
3. Iron
4. Aluminum
Codes:
ABCD
(1) 3 4 1 2
(2) 2 1 4 3
(3) 3 1 4 2
(4) 2 4 1 3
25. Who among the following is the first to have taken 600 test cricket wickets?
(1) Courtney Walsh
(2) Glenn McGrath
(3) Shane Warne
(4) M. Murlitharan
26. Match List- I (Person) with List-II (Organization) and select the correct answer using the
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List-I
(Person)
A. E. Shreedharan
B. M. Damodaran
C. A. Kakodkar
D. S. K. Jain
List-II
(Organization)
1. SEBI
2. Atomic Energy Commission
3. Nuclear Power Corporation of India
4. Delhi Metro Rail corporation
Code:
ABCD
(1) 4 1 2 3
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 4 3 2 1
(4) 2 1 4 3
27. 9 equally spaced points are shown in the figure given below.
Consider the following statements:

1.
The minimum number of straight lines that can be drawn by using a pencil and without
lifting the hand so as to touch all these 9 points is 5
2.
The maximum number of squares that can be formed by joining these points ss 5.
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
28. Three persons A, B, and C wore shirts of black, blue, and orange colours (not
necessarily in that order) and pants of green, yellow arid orange colours (not
necessarily in that order). No person wore shirt and pant of the same colour. Further, it
is given that
1. A did not wear shirt of black colour.
2. B did not wear shirt of blue colour.
3. C did not wear shirt of orange colour.
4. A did not wear pant of green colour.
5. B wore pant of orange colour. What were the colours of the pant and shirt worn, by C,
respectively?
(1) Orange and black
(2) Green and blue
(3) Yellow and blue
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(4) Yellow and black

29. A cube whose two adjacent faces are colored as cut into 64 identical small cubes. How
many of these small cubes are not colored at all?
(1) 24
(2) 36
(3) 48
(4) 60
30. Match List -I (Temple) with List- II (Built Under) and select the correct answer using the
List-I (Temple)
List-II (Built Under)
A. Badami Cave temples
1. Chalukyas
B. Ellora
2. Chandellas
C. Khajuraho
3. Pallavas
D. Mahabalipuram
4. Rashtrakutas
Codes:
A BCD
(1) 2 3 1 4
(2) 1 4 2 3
(3) 2 4 1 3
(4) 1 3 2 4
31. At which one of the following places did Gautama Buddha attain Par nirvana?
(1) Gaya
(2) Kushinagar
(3) Rajgir
(4) Shravasti
1. Nadir Shah invaded India during the rule of the Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah.
2. The Third Battle of Panipat was fought during the reign of Akbar Shah II.
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both l and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
33. Who among the following was a contemporary of the famous poet Amir Khusro?
(1) Iitutmish
(2) Ala-ud-din Khalji
(3) Ibrahim Lodi
(4) Akbar
34. Who among the following Delhi Sultans made Agra the capital of his Empire?
(1) Iitutmish
(2) Balban
(3) Feroz Shah Tughluq
(4) Sikander Lodi
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35. Which one of the following wars was fought earliest?

(1) First Anglo-Burmese War
(2) First Anglo-Afghan War
(3) First Anglo-Maratha War
(4) First Anglo-Sikh War
36. S1 = a + b + c
S2 = d + e + f.
S3 = g + h + i,
S4 = a + d + g
S5 = b + e + h,
S6 = c + f + i
P = (a) ( e) ( i)
If the numerical values of S1, S 2, S3, S4, S, S6 and P are known, what is the minimum number
of values of the lower case letters that must be given such that values of all the lower case
letters become known?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
37. Seven players A, B, C, D, E, F and G are to be seated such that.
(i)
B must always occupy the second position
(ii)
F must always occupy the sixth position
(iii)
D and E must be seated adjacent to each other
In how many different ways can they be seated?
(1) 8
(2) 12
(3) 24
(4) None of the above
38. There are 24 equally spaced points lying on circumference of a circle. What is the
maximum number of equilateral triangles that can be drawn by taking sets of three
points and joining the three points of each set?
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 12
39. A has a few 5 rupee notes only; B has a few 10 rupee notes only while C has a few 20
rupee notes only. Each of them gives two notes to the other two. After doing so, they
end up having the same amount of money. Which one of the following combinations of
the number of notes possessed by A, B and C initially is not possible?
A
B
C
(1) 51 notes 27 notes 15 notes
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40. In Indian history, Lord Macaulay is known for his contribution to which one of the
following areas?
(1) Army
(2) Land revenue
(3) Railways
(4) Education
41. Who is the author of the bookTryst With Destiny?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) K.P.S. Menon
(3) K. M. Munshi
(4) S. Gopalan
42. Match List -I with List -II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
Lists:
List-I
List-II
A. Poona Act
1. Subhas Chandra Bose
B. Indian Association
2. M. G. Rande
C. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
3. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
D. Forward Block
4. Surendra Nath Banerjee
Codes:
ABCD
(1) 2 1 3 4
(2) 3 4 2 1
(3) 2 4 3 1
(4) 3 1 2 4
43. At which one of the following Congress Sessions, did Dadabhai Naoroji announce that
the Swaraj was the goal of Indias political efforts?
(1) Karachi Session
(2) Lahore Session
(3) Lucknow Session
(4) Calcutta Session
44. Who among the following was not associated with the Indigo Rebellion?
(1) Harishchandra Mukherjee
(2) Digambar Biswas
(3) Dinbandhu Mitra
(4) Keshabchahdra Sen
45. Who was the President of the Indian National Congress at the time of partition of India?
(1) Rajendra Prasad
(2) Jawaharlal Nehru
(3) J. B. Kriplani
(4) Vallabhbhai Patel
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46. Match List- I (Centre of Handicrafts) with List -II (State) and select the correct answer
List-I (Centre of Handicraft)
List-II (State)
A. Bankura
1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Gadwal
2. Bihar
C. Madhubani
3. Orissa
D. Phulbani
4. West Bengal
Codes:
ABCD
(1) 4 2 1 3
(2) 3 1 2 4
(3) 4 1 2 3
(4) 3 2 1 4
47. Consider the following series:
A B C DX Y Z | Y X..B A? B C D..YZ |Y X .C B A |B C..Y Z.
Which letter occupies the 1000th position in the above series?
(1) Y
(2) X
(3) C
(4) B
48. What is the minimum number of different colours required to paint the figure given
above such that no two adjacent regions have the same colour?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
49. In how many different ways can 7 identical coins be placed on a chessboard (containing
64 identical squares) so that all of them lie along the same line (Each of the 7 coins is to
be placed In a different square)?
(1) 49
(2) 64
(3) 124
(4) 148
50. Which one of the following does not share boundaries with Arunachal Pradesh?
(1) Assam
(2) Nagaland
(3) Meghalaya
(4) Bhutan
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51. Which pne among the following is the largest natural lake?
(1) Aral Sea
(2) Caspian Sea
(3) Lake Victoria
(4) Lake Huron
52. Which one among the following regions has the tropical rain forests?
(1) Chota Nagpur Plateau
(2) Coromandel Coast
(3) Malwa region
(4) Western Ghats
(1) Chitrakote Falls
:
Chhattisgarh
(2) Gokak Falls
:
Karnataka
(3) Dhuandhar Falls
:
Madhya Pradesh.
(4) Duduma Falls
:
Assam
54. Which of the following pairs of countries border Lake Victoria?
(1) Zambia and Tanzania
(2) Zambia and Botswana
(3) Botswana and Mozambique
(4) Tanzania and Uganda
55. Which one of the following is the most abundant gas in. the earths atmosphere other
than nitrogen and oxygen?
(1) Argon
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Hydrogen
(4) Methane
56. Match list-I (Desert) with List -II (Territory) and select the correct answer with the code
List-I (Desert)
List-II (Territory)
A. Chihuahuan
1. USA
B Kara Kum
2. Sudan
C. Nubian
3.Turkmenlstan
D. Sonoran
Codes:
ABCD
(1) 2 3 3 1
(2) 1 1 2 3
(3) 1 3 2 1
(4) 2 1 3 3
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57. Five friendsF1, F2, F 3, F 4, and F 5 have Rs. 100 each. F 1 gives Rs. 12 to F 3 who also
borrows Rs. 10 from F2 who in turn takes Rs. 15 from F 5 while F 5 gives is. 18 to F 4
and Rs.12 to F 1. F1 borrows Rs. 20 from F 4.
What is the amount of money left with F 2?
(1) Rs. 120
(2) Rs. 122
(3) Rs. 105
(4) Rs. 97
58. Four-digit numbers are to be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4, and none of these
four digits are repeated in any number. Further,
1. 2 and 3 are not to immediately follow each other.
2. 1 is not to be immediately followed by 3.
3. 4 is not to appear at the last place.
4. 1 is not to appear at the first place.
How many different numbers can be formed ?
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 9
59. While writing all the numbers from 700 to 1000. . how many numbers occur in which the
first digit is greater than the second digit, and the second digit is greater than the third
digit?
(1) 61
(2) 64
(3) 85
60. If 2nd and 4th Saturdays, and all the Sundays are taken as holidays for an office, what
would be the minimum number of possible working days of any month of any year?
(1) 20
(2) 21
(3) 22
(4) 23
61. Which one of the following is surrounded by the belt of volcanoes called the Ring of
Fire.
(1) Atlantic Ocean
(2) Arctic Ocean
(3) Mediterranean Sea
(4) Pacific Ocean
62. Match List-I (Place of Tourist Interest) with List -II (State) and select the correct answer
List-I
(Place of Tourist Interest)
A. Dalhousie
B. Alibagh
C. Kalimpong
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List-II
(State)
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
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D. Ooty
4. West Bengal
5. Karnataka
Codes:
ABCD
(1) 4 1 2 3
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 4 3 2 1
(4) 2 1 4 5
63. Match List -I (Organization) with List -II (Headquarters) and select the correct answer
List-I
List-II
(Organization)
(Headquarters)
A. International Monetary Fund
1. Geneva
B. International Labour Organization
2. Montreal
C. International Atomic Energy Agency
3. Vienna
D. International Civil Aviation Organization
4. Washington D.C.
Codes:
ABCD
(1) 4 1 3 2
(2) 3 2 4 1
(3) 4 2 3 1
(4) 3 1 4 2
64. Match List-I (Tourist Place) with List -II (State) and select the correct answer using the
List-I
List-II
(Tourist Place)
(State)
A. Kalakad
1. Kerala
B. Jwalamukhi
2. Himachal Pradesh
C. Munnar
3. Uttranchal
D. Valley of Flowers
4. Tamil Nadu
Codes:
ABCD
(1) 4 1 2 3
(2) 3 2 1 4
(3) 4 2 1 3
(4) 3 1 2 4
65. Match List -I (Industrial Town) with List- II (State) and select the correct answer with the
code given below:
List-I
List-II
(Industrial Town)
(State)
A. Bhadravati
1. Tamil Nadu
B, Ratnagiri
2. Karnataka
C. Tirupur
3. Chhattisgarh
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D. Korba
4. Maharashtra
5.Madhya Pradesh
Codes:
ABCD
(1) 1 4 2 3
(2) 2 3 1 5
(3) 1 3 2 5
(4) 2 4 1 3
66. Which one of the following (Equivalent ranks in the. Indian Army, Indian Navy and Indian
Air Force) is not correct?
Army
(1) Brigadier
(2) Lt Colonel
(3) Major
General Rear
Admiral Air Vice
Marshal
(4) Colonel
Navy
Commodore
Commander
Rear Admiral
Air force
Air Commodore
Wing Commander
Air Vice Marshal
Lt. Commander
Squadron Leader

(1) Janjira Fort
:
Maharashtra
(2) Asirgarh Port
:
Madhya Pradesh
(3) Daulatabad Fort
:
Rajasthan
(4) Girigee Fort
:
Tamil Nadu
68. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of convectional rainfall?
(1) Afternoon rain
(2) Drizzling
(3) Lightning and thunder
(4) Torrential rain
69. Which one among
coal reserves in India?
(1) Andhra Pradesh
(2) Chhattisgarh
(3) Jharkhand
(4) Orissa
the
following
States
has
the
largest
amount
of
70. Which one of the following places is situated most western ward among them?
(1) Bikaner
(2) Diu
(3) Jaiselmer
(4) Porbandar
71. Where is the Headquarters for the Northwestern Railway zone located?
(1) Udaipur
(2) Jodhpur
(3) Ajmer
(4) Jaipur
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72. Which state among the following has the highest percentage of the Scheduled Tribes of
its population in comparison to the other three States?
(1) Arunachal Pradesh
(2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Manipur
(4) Tirpura
73. Which Schedule Of the Constitution of India includes the emoluments payable to the
President and the Governors?
(1) First
(2) Second
(3) Third
(4) Fourth
1.
Until the Parliament by-law provides otherwise, all proceedings in the Supreme Court and
every High Court are to be the English.
2.
The authoritative texts of all bills, amendments, acts, ordinances, orders, rules, regulations,
and by-laws at the Union and State levels have to be in English only.
(1) l only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
75. Match List-I (Committee/Commission) with List-II (Subject) and select the correct answer
List-I
List-II
(Committee/Commission)
(Subject)
A. Narasimhan Committee
1. Constitutional reforms
B. Raja Chelliah Committee
2. Finance sector reforms
C. Sarkaria Commission
3. Taxation reforms
D. Venkatachaliah Commission
4. Centre State relations
Code:
ABCD
(1) 4 1 2 3
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 4 3 2 1
(4) 2 1 4 3
76. Who among the following was the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian State?
(1) Sucheta Kriplani
(2) Sarojini Naidu
(3) Nandini Satpathy
(4) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
77. How can the Legislative Council in a State in India be created or abolished?
(1) By the President of India on the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State
(2) By the Union Home Ministry on the advice of the State Government.
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(3) By the Parliament after the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that
effect
(4) By the Governor on the advice of the State Government
78. Where is the headquarters of the Amnesty International located?
(1) Paris
(2) Vienna
(3) London
(4) Geneva
1. India is a founder member of both GATT and WTO.
2. The Ministerial Conference of the WTO is mandated to be held at least once in two years.
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor2
80. Match List -I (Book) and List- II (Author) and select the correct answer using the code
List-I (Book)
List-II (Author)
A. Conquest of Self
1. Chandra Shekhar
B. Prison Diary
2. Jayaprakash Narayan
C. Dynamics of Social Change
3. K.P.S Menon
D. Yesterday and Today
4. Mahatma Gandhi
Code:
ABCD
(1) 4 3 1 2
(2) 1 2 4 3
(3) 4 2 1 3
(4) 1 3 4 2
81. The power to make any provision with respect to all matters relating to citizenship of
India rests with
(1) Parliament
(2) Union Ministry of External Affairs
(3) Union Ministry of Law and Justice
(4) Union Ministry of Home Affairs
82. What is the use of small particles of silica gel often found in the packages of medicine?
(1) It destroys fungal spores
(2) It kills bacteria
(3) It prevents oxidation of medicine
(4) It absorbs moisture in the package
83. Polyhydroxy derivatives of aldehydes or ketoens are
(1) Carbohydrates
(2) Fats
(3) Proteins
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(4) Steroids
84. Azurite is an ore of
(1) Aluminum
(2) Copper
(3) Gold
(4) Mercury
85. Rayon fiber is made from
(1) Cellulose
(2) Isoprene
(3) Polyethylene
(4) Polyvinyl chloride
86. Which of the following parts/spectra of solar radiation is/are mostly absorbed by the
leaves of green plants?
(1) Infrared
(2) Red and blue
(3) Violet, Indigo, and orange
(4) U1tra-violet, green and orange
1. Unlike blood, lymph-flows only in one direction.
2. Lymph carries digested fat.
(1) 1 only
(2) 2 only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither l nor 2
88. What are soaps chemically?
(1) Mild acids
(2) Mild alkalis
(3) Paraffins
(4) Salts
89. Which one of the following effects is employed in the instruments used by the police to
detect the over speeding of vehicles?
(1) Doppler effect
(2) Kerr effect
(3) Thompson effect
(4) Seebeck effect
90. Which one of the following is not a good source of nutritional iron?
(1) Jaggery
(2) Nuts
(3) Fish
(4) Milk
91. What is the cause of the disease myxoedema in adult human beings?
(1) Hyperthyroidism
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(2) Hypothyroidism
(3) Hyperparathyroidism
(4) Hyperparathyroidism
92. Which one of the following causes the infectious disease Anthrax?
(1) Bacteria
(2) Fungi
(3) Protozoa
(4) Virus
93. Which one of the following is not an alloy?
(1) 18 carat gold
(2) Soldering metal
(3) Steel
(4) Graphite
94. Match List -I (Invention/Discovery) with List-II (Inventor/Discoverer) and select the
correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I
(Invention/Discovery)
A. Pendulum clock
B. Machine gun
C. Radioactivity
D. X-rays
List-II
(Inventor/Discoverer)
1. Christian Huygens
2. Antoine Bacquerel
3. Richard Galling
4. W. K Rontgen
Code:
ABCD
(1) 2 4 1 3
(2) 1 3 2 4
(3) 2 3 1 4
(4) 1 4 2 3
95. Which one of the following is the predominant raw material used in the manufacture of
cement?
(1) Alumina
(2) Limestone
(3) Gypsum
(4) Magnesia
96. Which of the following can be taken as a reflection of meaningful learning?
(1) A good score in the examination
(2) A high degree of retention
(3) The capability of transferring/using learning in different situations
(4) The ability to recall as and when needed
97. The most important thing for a student to gain a better insight in the subject is / are?
(1) the notes given by the subject teacher in the class
(2) the discussion facilitated by the teacher and held by the students for comprehending
various aspects of the topic under reference
(3) the source material arranged by the teacher for the students
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(4) the scholarship of the teacher

98. Schools should arrange co-curricular activities for the students, because?
(1) curricular experiences are incomplete without supplements
(2) interplay of curricular and co-curricular experiences gives a better insight into the
content and its context
(3) everybody wants co curricular activities these days
(4) co-curricular activities make the schools program attractive.
99. You are teaching in your class and it is almost the end of your session. A child of your
class comes late and seeks your permission to enter the class. Being a good teacher,
you will?
(1) not permit the child, as it makes little sense coming to class so late
(2) get annoyed, as you are disturbed
(3) ask the child to explain his/her position before you take an appropriate decision
(4) allow him/her to enter and ask him/her the reasons for being so late when the class
gets over
100.
You enter your regular class to discover the children not in a mood to study that
particular day. You will
(1) value the childs precious time and world, therefore, teach as per your plan
(2) feel disturbed seeing the reluctance of the children to study
(3) ask the children to mend their ways
(4) allow students the freedom to come up with what they want and gradually
connect them to your plan
101.
The teacher who has developed an interest in teaching?

(1) Studies problem of student behaviour
(2) Compares different types of tests
(3) Refuses to be guided by the rules of thumb
(4) Cannot deal with children effectively
102.
Find the odd one out?

(1) Recall
(2) Recognition
(3) Trace
(4) Remembering
103.
Motivation should be followed by?

(1) Reward
(2) Reproof
(3) Knowledge of result
(4) Incentive
104.
Learning which involves motor organ is called?

(1) Sensory learning
(2) Motor learning
(3) Verbal learning
(4) Sensory motor learning
105.
Which of the following is an audio-visual aid?

(1) Radio
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(2) Tape-recorder
(3) Television
(4) Projector
106.
Do the children of intelligent parents always shine in studies?

(1) Yes
(2) No
(3) Psychology
(4) It depends on God
107.
Childrens fantasy reflects their?

(1) Love for imagination
(2) Inherent talent
(3) Age-specific traits
(4) Hidden frustrations
108.
I prefer teachting young children because?

(1) I love playing with them
(2) It is easy to manage them
(3) It does not take extra reading on my part
(4) This is the best time to develop values and skills
109.
Todays parents exert a lot of pressure for achievement on their children as?
(1) they want to fulfill their dreams through their children
(2) they are scared about their childrens future
(3) the world is getting competitive everyday
(4) social status is gained only through good grades
110.
An effective teacher
(1) can manage his/her class well
(2) knows his/her subject very well
(3) cares for his / her students
(4) helps his/her students to be authentic learners
General Aptitude Question Answers for All Examinations

1. The largest copper producing country in the World is
1. Chile
2. Russia
3. South Africa
4. China
2. If the radius of a circle is diminished by 10%, then its area is diminished by:
1. 10%
2. 19%
3. 20%
4. 36%
3. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms downstream in 4 hrs.Find the speed
of the boat in still water and the speed of the water current?
1. 1/2 kmph
2. 7/12 kmph
3. 5 kmph
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4. none of these
4. At what time after 4.00 p.m. is the minutes hand of a clock exactly aligned with the hour
hand?
1. 4:21:49.5
2. 4:27:49.5
3. 3:21:49.5
4. 4:21:44.5
5. A shop keeper sold a T.V set for Rs.17,940 with a discount of 8% and earned a profit of
19.6%.What would have been the percentage of profit earned if no discount was
offered?
1. 24.8%
2. 25%
3. 26.4%
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these
6.
If (2x-y)=4 then (6x-3y)=?

1. 15
2. 12
3. 18
4. 10
7.
A clock is set right at 8 a.m. The clock gains 10 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the
true time when the clock indicates 1 p.m. on the following day?
1. 48 min. past 12
2. 38 min. past 12
3. 28 min. past 12
4. 25 min. past 12
8.
What is the missing number in this series? 8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12

1. 16
2. 9
3. 15
4. 6
9.
Dinesh travelled 1200 km by air which formed 2/5 of his trip. One third of the whole trip,
he travelled by car and the rest of the journey he performed by train. What was the
distance travelled by train?
1. 600Km
2. 700Km
3. 800Km
4. 900Km
10. A train which travels at a uniform speed due to some mechanical fault after traveling for
an hour goes at 3/5th of the original speed and reaches the destination 2 hrs late.If the
fault had occurred after traveling another 50 miles the train would have reached 40 min
earlier. What is distance between the two stations?
1. 300
2. 310
3. 320
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4. 305
11. The average between a two digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the
digits is 9. What is the difference between the two digits of the number?
1. 8
2. 2
3. 5
4. Cannot be determined
12. Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins and Pipe C can empty the same in 40
mins.If all of them work together, find the time taken to fill the tank
1. 17 1/7 mins
2. 20 mins
3. 8 mins
4. none of these
13. A person has 4 coins each of different denomination. What is the number of different
sums of money the person can form (using one or more coins at a time)?
1. 16
2. 15
3. 12
4. 11
14. The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years is 225 and the compound
interest on the same sum at the same rate for 2 years is 153 then the principal invested
is
1. 1500
2. 2250
3. 3000
4. 1875
15. A cow is tethered in the middle of a field with a 14 feet long rope. If the cow grazes 100
sq. ft. per day, then approximately what time will be taken by the cow to graze the whole
field?
1. 2 days
2. 6 days
3. 18 days
4. 24 days
5. None of these
16. 2 hours after a freight train leaves Delhi a passenger train leaves the same station
travelling in the same direction at an average speed of 16 km/hr. After travelling 4 hrs
the passenger train overtakes the freight train. The average speed of the freight train
was?
1. 40
2. 30
3. 80
4. 60
17. The two colors seen at the extreme ends of the pH chart are:
1. Red and Blue
2. Red and Green
3. Green and Blue
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4. Orange and Green

18. 8 15 24 35 48 63 _?
1. 70
2. 80
3. 75
4. 88
19. One of Mr. Horton, his wife, their son, and Mr. Hortons mother is a doctor and another is
a lawyer.
a) If the doctor is younger than the lawyer, then the doctor and the lawyer are not blood
relatives.
b) If the doctor is a woman, then the doctor and the lawyer are blood relatives.
c) If the lawyer is a man, then the doctor is a man. Whose occupation you know?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Mr. Horton: he is the doctor

Mr. Hortons son: she is the lawyer
Mr. Horton: he is the doctor
Mr. Hortons mother: she is the doctor
20. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle at A and B respectively and the
chord BC is parallel to tangent PA. If AC = 6 cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm,
then what is the length of the chord BC?
1. 4 cm
2. 8 cm
3. 6 cm
4. 5 cm
21. Union Information and Broadcasting ministry recently gave an indication to change
which of the following laws on a larger scale, as the existing provisions of the Act are
inadequate to cater to the phenomenal growth of the print media in view of the
liberalization of the government policies?
1. Press & Registration of Books Act, (PRB Act) 1867
2. The Delivery Of Books And Newspapers (Public Libraries) Act, 1954
3. Indian Press (Emergency Powers ) Act 1931
4. None
22. 2 numbers differ by 5.If their product is 336,then the sum of the 2 numbers is:
1. 21
2. 51
3. 28
4. 37
23. Which number is the odd one out? 9678 4572 5261 3527 7768
1. 7768
2. 3527
3. 4572
4. 9678
5. 5261
24. Which one among the following has the largest shipyard in India
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1.
2.
3.
4.
Kolkata
Kochi
Mumbai
Visakhapatnam
25. If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x?

1. 8
2. 3
3. 5
4. 6
26. A radio when sold at a certain price gives a gain of 20%. What will be the gain percent, if
sold for thrice the price?
1. 280
2. 270
3. 290
4. 260
27. x% of y is y% of ?
1. x/y
2. 2y
3. X
4. cant be determined
28. If the value of x lies between 0 & 1 which of the following is the largest?
1. x
2. x2
3. x
4. 1/x
29. The tutor of Alexander the great was
1. Darius
2. Cyrus
3. Socrates
4. Aristotle
30. Thirty men take 20 days to complete a job working 9 hours a day. How many hour a day
should 40 men work to complete the job?
1. 8 hrs
2. 71/2 hrs
3. 7 hrs
4. 9 hrs
31. Goitre caused by the deficiency of
1. Vitamin D
2. Iron
3. VItamin A
4. Iodine
32. Who invented Napiers Bones
1. John Napier
2. William Oughtred
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3. Charles Babbage
4. Napier Bone
33. The mass number of a nucleus is
1. Always less than its atomic number
2. Always more than its atomic number
3. Sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number
4. None of the above
34. A and B can do a piece of work in 45 days and 40 days respectively. They began to do
the work together but A leaves after some days and then B completed the remaining
work n 23 days. The number of days after which A left the work was
1. 9
2. 11
3. 12
4. 15
5. 16
35. Sam and Mala have a conversation. Sam says I am certainly not over 40 Mala Says I am
38 and you are at least 5 years older than me Now Sam says you are at least 39 all the
statements by the two are false. How old are they really?
1. Mala = 38 yrs, Sam =31 yrs.
2. Mala = 38 yrs, Sam = 41 yrs
3. Mala = 31 yrs, Sam = 41 yrs.
4. Mala = 45yrs, Sam = 41 yrs
36. What is the code name for Windows Vista?
1. Longhorn
2. Longhund
3. Stackspray
4. Pearl
37. On sports day, if 30 children were made to stand in a column, 16 columns could be
formed. If 24 children were made to stand in a column, how many columns could be
formed?
1. 20
2. 30
3. 40
4. 50
38. The probability that a man will be alive for 25 years is 3/5 and the probability that his
wife will be alive for 25 years is 2/3. Find the probability that only the man will be alive
for 25 years.
1. 2/5
2. 1/5
3. 3/5
4. 4/5
39. In a single throw of a dice, what is the probability of getting a number greater than 4?
1.
2. 2/3
3.
4. 1/3
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40. If every alternative letter starting from B of the English alphabet is written in small letter,
rest all are written in capital letters, how the month September be written. (1)
SeptEMbEr (2) SEpTeMBEr (3) SeptembeR (4) SepteMber (5) None of the above
1. (1)
2. (2)
3. (3)
4. (5)
5. (4)
41. After allowing a discount of 11.11% ,a trader still makes a gain of 14.28 % .at how many
precent above the cost price does he mark his goods?
1. 28.56%
2. 35%
3. 22.22%
4. None of these
42. Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins and Pipe C can empty the same in 40
mins.If all of them work together, find the time taken to fill the tank
1. 17 1/7 mins
2. 20 mins
3. None
4. 50 mins
43. There are 3 triplet brothers. They look identical. The oldest is John, he always tells the
truth. The second is Jack, he always tells a lie. The third is Joe, he either tells the truth
or a lie. Jimmie Dean went to visit them one day. He was wondering who was who. So he
asked each person a question. He asked the one who was sitting on the left: Who is the
guy sitting in the middle?. The answer was He is John. He asked the one who was
sitting in the middle: What is your name?. The answer was I am Joe. He asked the
one who was sitting on the right: What is the guy sitting in the middle?. The answer
was He is Jack. Jimmie Dean got really confused. Basically, he asked 3 same
questions, but he got 3 different answers. which is not true?
1. left most is joe
2. middle is jack
3. right is john
4. middle is john
44. A / B = C; C > D then
1. A is always greater than D
2. C is always greater than D
3. B is always less than D
4. None
45. Consider the following statements: 1. The Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC)
had recommended that the Department of Personnel of a State should be put under the
charge of the Chief Secretary of the State. 2. Chief Secretary of a State is not involved in
any manner in the promotion of State Civil officers to the All-India Services. Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only 1
2. Only 2
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3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
46. The population of a town was 1,60,000 three years ago. If it increased by 3%, 2.5% and
5% respectively in the last three years, then the present population of the town is :
1. 1,77,000
2. 1,77,366
3. 1,77,461
4. 1,77,596
47. What is the population of India ?
1. 98 crores
2. More than 2 billion
3. More than 1 billion
4. Less than 96 crores
5. 96 crores
48. Some green are blue. No blue are white.
1. Some green are white
2. No white are green
3. No green are white
49. What is the missing number in this series? 8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12
1. 8
2. 6
3. 9
4. 11
50. Average age of students of an adult school is 40 years. 120 new students whose
average age is 32 years joined the school. As a result the average age is decreased by 4
years. Find the number of students of the school after joining of the new students:
1. 1200
2. 120
3. 360
4. 240
51. On sports day,if 30 children were made to stand in a column,16 columns could be
formed. If 24 children were made to stand in a column , how many columns could be
formed?
1. 48
2. 20
3. 30
4. 16
5. 40
52. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 3? (i) 541326 (ii) 5967013
1. (ii) only
2. (i) only
3. (i) and (ii) both
4. (i) and (ii) none
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53. A square is divided into 9 identical smaller squares. Six identical balls are to be placed
in these smaller squares such that each of the three rows gets at least one ball (one ball
in one square only). In how many different ways can this be done?
1. 81
2. 91
3. 41
4. 51
54. A man owns 2/3 of the market research beauro business and sells 3/4 of his shares for
Rs.75000. What is the value of Business
1. 150000
2. 13000
3. 240000
4. 34000
55. 1,2,6,24,_?
1. 111
2. 151
3. 120
4. 125
56. The cost of 16 packets of salt,each weighing 900 grams is Rs.28.What will be the cost of
27 packets ,if each packet weighs 1Kg?
1. Rs.52.50
2. Rs.56
3. Rs.58.50
4. Rs.64.75
57. Ronald and Michelle have two children. The probability that the first child is a girl, is
50%. The probability that the second child is a girl, is also 50%. Ronald and Michelle tell
you that they have a daughter. What is the probability that their other child is also a girl?
1.
2. 1/3
3.
4. 1/5
58. Find the value of (21/4-1)( 23/4 +21/2+21/4+1)
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
59. The product of two fractions is 14/15 and their quotient is 35/24. the greater fraction is
1. 4/5
2. 7/6
3. 7/5
4. 7/4
60. 500 men are arranged in an array of 10 rows and 50 columns according to their heights.
Tallest among each row of all are asked to fall out. And the shortest among them is A.
Similarly after resuming that to their original podsitions that the shortest among each
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column are asked to fall out. And the tallest among them is B. Now who is taller among
A and B ?
1. A
2. B
3. Both are of same height
61. Choose the pair of numbers which comes next 75 65 85 55 45 85 35
1. 25 15
2. 25 85
3. 35 25
4. 35 85
5. 25 75
62. A three digit number consists of 9,5 and one more number. When these digits are
reversed and then subtracted from the original number the answer yielded will be
consisting of the same digits arranged yet in a different order. What is the other digit?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
63. ATP stands for:
1. Adenine triphosphate
2. Adenosine triphosphate
3. Adenosine Diphosphate
4. Adenosine tetraphosphate
64. Veselin Tapolev who became the World Champion recently, is associated with which of
the following games/sports ?
1. Chess
2. Golf
3. Snooker
4. Badminton
5. None of these
65. A piece of cloth cost Rs 35. if the length of the piece would have been 4m longer and
each meter cost Re 1 less , the cost would have remained unchanged. how long is the
piece?
1. 10
2. 11
3. 12
66. In a journey of 15 miles two third distance was travelled with 40 mph and remaining with
60 mph.How muvh time the journey takes
1. 40 min
2. 30 min
3. 120 min
4. 20 min
67. Solid cube of 6 * 6 * 6. This cube is cut into to 216 small cubes. (1 * 1 * 1).the big cube is
painted in all its faces. Then how many of cubes are painted at least 2 sides.
1. 56
2. 45
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3. 23
4. 28
68. Find the average of first 40 natural numbers.
1. 40
2. 35
3. 30.6
4. 20.5
5. None of these
69. 1, 5, 14, 30, ?, 91
1. 45
2. 55
3. 60
4. 70
5. None of these
70. There is a shortage of tubelights, bulbs and fans in a village Gurgaon. It is found that
a) All houses do not have either tubelight or bulb or fan.
b) Exactly 19% of houses do not have just one of these.
c) Atleast 67% of houses do not have tubelights.
d) Atleast 83% of houses do not have bulbs.
e) Atleast 73% of houses do not have fans.
1. 42 %
2. 46 %
3. 50 %
4. 54 %
5. 57 %
71. If 9 engines consume 24 metric tonnes of coal, when each is working 8 hours a day;
how much coal will be required for 8 engines, each running 13 hours a day, it being
given that 3 engines of the former type consume as much as 4 engines of latter type.
1. 22 metric tonnes.
72. To 15 lts of water containing 20% alcohol, we add 5 lts of pure water. What is % alcohol.
1. 20%
2. 34%
3. 15%
4. 14%
73. In page preview mode:
1. You can see all pages of your document
2. You can only see the page you are currently working
3. Satyam BPO Services
4. You can only see pages that do not contain graphics
74. A house wife saved Rs. 2.50 in buying an item on sale .If she spent Rs.25 for the item,
approximately how much percent she saved in the transaction?
1. 8%
2. 9%
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3. 10%
4. 11%
75. I have trouble _____.
1. to remember my password
2. to remembering my password
3. remember my password
4. remembering my password
76. Superheroes Liza and Tamar leave the same camp and run in opposite directions. Liza
runs 1 mile per second (mps) and Tamar runs 2 mps. How far apart are they in miles
after 1 hour?
1. 10800 mile
2. 19008 mile
3. 12300 mile
4. 14000 mile
77. A = 5, B = 0, C = 2, D = 10, E = 2. What is then AB + EE (ED)powerB + (AC)powerE = ?
1. 113
2. 103
3. 93
4. 111
78. A man can row upstream at 8 kmph and downstream at 13 kmph.The speed of the
stream is?
1. 2.5 kmph
2. 4.2 kmph
3. 5 kmph
4. 10.5 kmph
79. Find what is the next letter. Please try to find. O,T,T,F,F,S,S,E,N,_ What is that letter?
1. B
2. S
3. Q
4. T
5. O
80. There are 3 societies A, B, C. A lent cars to B and C as many as they had Already. After
some time B gave as many tractors to A and C as many as they have. After sometime c
did the same thing. At the end of this transaction each one of them had 24. Find the cars
each originally had.
1. A had 21 cars, B had 39 cars & C had 12 cars
81. A papaya tree was planted 2 years ago. It increases at the rate of 20% every year. If at
present, the height of the tree is 540 cm, what was it when the tree was planted?
1. 432 cm
2. 324 cm
3. 375 cm
4. 400 cm
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82. A boy has Rs 2. He wins or loses Re 1 at a time If he wins he gets Re 1 and if he loses
the game he loses Re 1. He can loose only 5 times. He is out of the game if he earns Rs
5. Find the number of ways in which this is possible?
1. 14
2. 23
3. 16
4. 12
5. 10
83. Five racing drivers, Alan, Bob, Chris, Don, and Eugene, enter into a contest that
consists of 6 races. The results of all six races are listed below: Bob always finishes
ahead of Chris. Alan finishes either first or last. Eugene finishes either first or last. There
are no ties in any race. Every driver finishes each race. In each race, two points are
awarded for a fifth place finish, four points for fourth, six points for third, eight points
for second, and ten points for first. If Frank enters the third race and finishes behind
Chris and Don, which of the following must be true of that race?
1. Eugene finishes first.
2. Alan finishes sixth.
3. Don finishes second.
4. Frank finishes fifth.
5. Chris finishes third.
84. A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece of work in 18 days.In
how many days will A alone finish the work?
1. 27
2. 26
3. 25
4. 24
85. Daal is now being sold at Rs. 20 a kg. During last month its rate was Rs. 16 per kg. By
how much percent should a family reduce its consumption so as to keep the
expenditure fixed?
1. 20 %
2. 40 %
3. 3%
4. 2%
86. The sum of 5 successive odd numbers is 1075. What is the largest of these numbers?
1. 215
2. 223
3. 219
4. 217
87. A man sells two buffaloes for Rs. 7,820 each. On one he gains 15% and on the other, he
loses 15%. His total gain or loss in the transaction is
1. 2.5% gain
2. 2.25% loss
3. 2% loss
4. 5% loss
5. None of these
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88. One ship goes along the stream direction 28 km and in opposite direction 13 km in 5 hrs
for each direction.What is the velocity of stream?
1. 1.5 kmph
2. 2.5 kmph
3. 1.8 kmph
4. 2 kmph
89. Which one of the words given below is different from others?
1. Orange
2. Grape
3. Apricot
4. Raspberry
5. Mango
90. Complete the series: 5, 20, 24, 6, 2, 8, ?
1. 12
2. 32
3. 34
4. 36
91. A can have a piece of work done in 8 days, B can work three times faster than the A, C
can work five times faster than A. How many days will they take to do the work together\
1. 3 days
2. 8/9 days
3. 4 days
92. 7 Pink, 5 Black, 11 Yellow balls are there. Minimum no. atleast to get one black and
yellow ball
1. 17
2. 13
3. 15
4. 19
93. (1/10)18 (1/10)20 = ?
1. 99/1020
2. 99/10
3. 0.9
4. none of these
94. Three friends divided some bullets equally. After all of them shot 4 bullets the total
number of bullets remaining is equal to the bullets each had after division. Find the
original number divided?
1. 18
2. 20
3. 54
4. 8
95. A sum of Rs. 427 is to be divided among A, B and C in such a way that 3 times As share,
4 times Bs share and 7 times Cs share are all equal. The share of C is
1. Rs.84
2. Rs.76
3. Rs.98
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4. RS.34
96. There are 20 poles with a constant distance between each pole. A car takes 24 second to
reach the 12th pole.How much will it take to reach the last pole.
1. 41.45 seconds
2. 40.45 seconds
3. 42.45 seconds
4. 41.00 seconds
97. An emergency vehicle travels 10 miles at a speed of 50 miles per hour. How fast must
the vehicle travel on the return trip if the round-trip travel time is to be 20 minutes?
1. 72 miles per hour
98. 12% of 580 + ? = 94
1. 24.4
2. 34.4
3. 54.4
4. 65.4
99. There is a certain relation between two given words on one side of : : and one word is
given on another side of : : while another word is to be found from the given
alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the given pair has. Select the
best alternative. Horse : Jockey : : Car : ?
1. Mechanic
2. Chauffeur
3. Steering
4. Brake
100. Which of the following numbers should be added to 11158 to make it exactly divisible by
77?
1. 9
2. 8
3. 7
4. 5
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Bank IT officer Quizs

1. Which is Computer Memory that does not forget ?
Ans: ROM
2. The computer memory holds data and ?
Ans: program
3. What is means by term RAM ?
Ans: Memory which can be both read and written to
4. Which computer memory is esentially empty ?
Ans: RAM
5. The bubbles in a bubble memory pack are created with the help of ?
Ans: magnetic field
6. Virtual memory is
Ans: an illusion of an extremely large memory
7. Special locality refers to the problem that once a location is referenced
Ans: a nearby location will be referenced soon
8. An example of a SPOOLED device
Ans: A line printer used to print the output of a number of jobs
9. Page faults occurs when
Ans: one tries to divide a number by 0
10. Overlay is
Ans: a single contiguous memory that was used in the olden days for running large programs
by swapping
Operating System Question Answer
11. Concurrent processes are processes that
Ans: Overlap in time
12. The page replacement policy that sometimes leads to more page faults when the size of
the memory is increased is
Ans: FIFO
13. The only state transition that is initiated by the user process itself is
Ans: Block
14. Fragmentation is
Ans: fragments of memory words unused in a page
15. Give Example of real time systems
Ans: Aircraft control system, A process control system
PSU Papers for Computer Science
16. Dijkstras banking algorithm in an operating system solves the problem of
Ans: Deadlock Avoidance
17. In a paged memory system, if the page size is increased, then the internal fragmentation
generally
Ans: Becomes more
18. An operating system contains 3 user processes each requiring 2 units of resources R.
The minimum number of units of R such that no deadlock will ever occur is
Ans: 4
19. Critical region is
Ans: A set of instructions that access common shared resources which exclude one another in
time
20. Kernel is
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Ans: The set of primitive functions upon which the rest of operating system functions are built
up
21. Necessary conditions for deadlock are
Ans: Non-preemption and circular wait, Mutual exclusion and partial allocation
22. In a time sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is completed,
the process goes from the RUNNING state to the
Ans: READY state
23. Supervisor call
Ans: Are privileged calls that are used to perform resource management functions, which are
controlled by the operating system
24. Semaphores are used to solve the problem of
Ans: Mutual exclusion, Process synchronization
25. If the property of locality of reference is well pronounced in a programAns: The number of page faults will be less
Operating System Question Answer for Competitive Exams
26. Pre-emptive scheduling, is the strategy of temporarily suspending a running processAns: before the CPU time slice expires
27. Mutual exclusion problem occurs
Ans: among processes that share resources
28. Sector interleaving in disks is done by
Ans: the operating system
29. Disk scheduling involves decidingAns: the order in which disk access requests must be serviced
30. Dirty bit is used to show the
Ans: page that is modified after being loaded into cache memory
31. Fence register is used forAns: memory protection.
32. The first-fit, best-fit and worst-fit algorithm can be used forAns: contiguous allocation of memory
33. Give example of single-user operating systemsAns: MS-DOS, XENIX
34. In Round Robin CPU Scheduling, as the time quantum is increased, the average turn
around timeAns: varies irregulary
35. In a multiprogramming environmentAns: more than one process resides in the memory
36. The size of the virtual memory depends on the size of the
Ans: Address Bus
37. Give example of Scheduling Policies in which context switching never take placeAns: Shortest Job First, First-cum-first-served
38. Suppose that a process is in BLOCKED state waiting for some I/O service. When the
service is completed, it goes to theAns: READY State
Computer Awareness Solved Paper for Allahabad Bank PO Exam
1. Programs from the same developer , sold bundled together , that provide better
integration and share common features , toolbars and menus are known as .
(A) software suites
(B) integrated software packages
(C) software processing packages
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(D) personal information managers

(E) none of these
2. A data warehouse is which of the following ?
(A) Can be updated by the end users
(B) Contains numerous naming conventions and formats
(C) Organized around important subject areas
(D) Contains only current data
(E) None of these
3. ______________ servers store and manages files for network users.
(A) Authentication
(B) Main
(C) Web
(D) File
(E) None of these
4. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks Except _____
(A) hackers
(B) spam
(C) viruses
(D) identify theft
(E) None of these
5. ___________ terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to
complex inventory and sales computer systems .
(A) Data
(B) Sales
(C) Query
(D) (Point-of-sale (POS)
(E) None of these
6. The OSI model is divided into _______ processes called layers.
(A) five
(B) six
(C) seven
(D) eight
(E) None of these
7. System software is the set of programs that enables your computers hardware devices
and ______ software to work together.
(A) management
(B) processing
(C) utility
(D) application
(E) None of these
8. ________ are specially designed computer chips reside inside other devices, such as
your car or your electronic thermostat.
(A) Servers
(B) Embedded computers
(C) Robotic computers
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(D) Mainframes
(E) None of these
9. The following are all computing devices , except
(A) notebook computers
(B) cellular telephones
(C) digital scanners
(D) personal digital assistants
(E) None of these
10. in a ring topology , the the computer in possession of the ______ can trasmit data
(A) packet
(B) data
(C) access method
(D) token
(E) None of these
11. This part of operating system manages the essential peripherals, such as the keyboard,
screen , disk drives, and parallel and serial ports ____
(A) basic input/output system
(B) secondary input/output system
(C) peripheral input/output system
(D) marginal input/output system
(E) None of these
12. ________ Viruses are often transmitted by a floppy disk left in the floppy drive
(A) Trojan horse
(B) Boot sector
(C) Script
(D) Logic bomb
(E) None of these
13. ________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a
means by which users can interact with the computer
(A) The platform
(B) Application software
(C) Operating system
(D) The motherboard
(E) None of these
14. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a
___________
(A) mainframe
(B) network
(C) supercomputer
(D) client
(E) None of these
15. A goal of data mining includes which of the following?
(A) To explain some observed event or condition
(B) To confirm that data exists
(C) To analyze data for expected relationships
(D) To create a new data warehouse
(E) None of these
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16. URL stands for ..

(A) Universal Research List
(B) Universal Resource List
(C) Uniform Resource Locator
(D) Uniform Research Locator
(E) None of these
17. A database management system (DBMS) is a
(A) hardware system used to create , maintain and provide controlled access to a database
(B) hardware system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.
(C) software system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.
(D) software system used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to a
database.
(E) None of these
18. A Proxy server is used for which of the following?
(A) To provide security against unauthorized users
(B) To process client requests for web pages
(C) To process client requests for database access
(D) To provide TCP/IP
(E) None of these
19. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes:
(A) data redundancy
(B) information overload
(C) duplicate data
(D) data inconsistency
(E) None of these
20. _____________ are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
(A) Control worlds
(B) Reserved words
(C) Control structures
(D) Reserved keys
(E) None of these
23. ______ describe what is database fields.
(A) Structures
(B) Field markers
(C) Field definition
(D) Field names
(E) None of these
24. You must install a (n) ____________ on a network if you want to share a broadband
Internet connection.
(A) router
(B) modem
(C) node
(D) cable
(E) None of these
25. A goal of normalization is to __________
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(A) minimize the number of relationships

(B) minimize the number of entities
(C) minimize the number of tables
(D) minimize the number of redundancy
(E) None of these
26. Granting an outside organization access to internet web pages is often implemented
using a (n) ____
(A) extranet
(B) intranet
(C) internet
(D) hacker
(E) None of these
27. Which term identifies a specific computer on the web and the main page of the entire
site
(A) URL
(B) Web site address
(C) Hyperlink
(D) Domain name
(E) None of these
28. The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database
task is referred to as ..
(A) QBE
(B) SQL
(C) OLAP
(D) Sequel Server
(E) None of these
29. Chip is a common nickname for a (n):
(A) transistor
(B) resistor
(C) integrated circuit
(D) semiconductor
(E) None of these
30. The purpose of the primary key in a database is to:
(A) unlock the database
(B) provide a map of the data
(C) uniquely identify a record
(D) establish constraints on database operations.
(E) None of these
31. The design of the network is called the network:
(A) architecture
(B) server
(C) transmission
(D) type
(E) None of these
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32. The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched
from:
(A) the hard disk
(B) cache memory
(C) RAM
(D) Registers
(E) None of these
33. The ____________ contains data descriptions and defines the name, data type, and
length of each field in the database.
(A) data dictionary
(B) data table
(C) data record
(D) data field
(E) None of these
34. Personal logs or journal entries posted on the Web are known as:
(A) listservs
(B) Webcasts
(C) Blogs
(D) subject directories
(E) None of these
35. A(n) _______ uses pictures (called icons) and menus displayed on the screen to send
commands to the computer system.
(A) command based user interface
(B) GUI
(C) system utility
(D) API
(E) None of these
36. Which of the following is NOT a type of broadband Internet connection?
(A) Cable
(B) DSL
(C) Dial-up
(D) Satellite
(E) None of these
37. Software, such as viruses, worms and Trojan horses, that has a malicious intent, is
known as:
(A) spyware
(B) adware
(C) spam
(D) malware
(E) None of these
38. Making a field ______ means that it cannot be left blank.
(A) numeric
(B) required
(C) calculated
(D) validated
(E) None of these
39. ____________ are viruses that are triggered by the passage of time or on a certain date.
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(A) Boot-sector viruses

(B) Macro viruses
(C) Time bombs
(D) Worms
(E) None of these
40. Linux is a (n) ____________ operating system.
(A) open-source
(B) Microsoft
(C) Windows
(D) Mac
(E) None of these
41. What is a backup?
(A) Restoring the information backup
(B) An exact copy of a systems information
(C) The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
42. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to
largest
(A) character, file, record, field, database
(B) character, record, field, database, file
(C) character, field, record, file, database
(D) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database,
(E) None of these
43. The internet is
(A) a large network of networks
(B) an internal communication system for a business
(C) a communication system for the Indian government
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
44. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
(A) GUIs
(B) Icons
(C) Menus
(D) Windows
(E) None of these
45. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning file names?
(A) Files may share the same name or the same extension but not both
(B) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name
(C) File extension is another name for file type
(D) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name
(E) None of these
46. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
(A) configuration
(B) accessibility
(C) authentication
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(D) logging in
(E) None of these
47. Which of the following would most likely NOT be a symptom of a virus?
(A) Existing program files and icons disappear.
(B) The CD-ROM stops functioning.
(C) The Web browser opens to an unusual home page.
(D) Odd messages or images are displayed on the screen.
(E) None of these
Computer Awareness For Bank PO Exams Part 2
1. In a survey of more than 500 companies and government agencies, ____________
percent detected computer security breaches.
A. 20
B. 75
C. 85
D. 99
2. The survey showed that these businesses lost more than ____________ due to security
breaches.
A. $100,000 each
B. $377 million
C. five employees each
D. $1 million
3. The typical computer criminal is a(n):
A. young hacker.
B. trusted employee with no criminal record.
C. trusted employee with a long, but unknown criminal record.
D. overseas young cracker.
4. The majority of computer crimes are committed by:
A. hackers.
B. insiders.
C. overseas criminals.
D. young teenage computer geniuses.
5. The common name for the crime of stealing passwords is:
A. spooling.
B. identity theft.
C. spoofing.
D. hacking.
Answer: C Reference: Theft by Computer
6. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as
the crime of:
A. spooling.
B. identity theft.
C. spoofing.
D. hacking.
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7. Malicious software is known as:

A. badware.
B. malware.
C. maliciousware.
D. illegalware.
8. A program that performs a useful task while simultaneously allowing destructive acts is
a:
A. worm.
B. Trojan horse.
C. virus.
D. macro virus.
Answer: B Moderate
9. An intentionally disruptive program that spreads from program to program or from disk
to disk is known as a:
A. Trojan horse.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. time-related bomb sequence.
10. In 1999, the Melissa virus was a widely publicized:
A. e-mail virus.
B. macro virus.
C. Trojan horse.
D. Time bomb.
11. What type of virus uses computer hosts to reproduce itself?
A. Time bomb
B. Worm
C. Melissa virus
D. Macro virus
Answer: B
12. The thing that eventually terminates a worm virus is a lack of:
A. memory or disk space.
B. time.
C. CD drive space.
D. CD-RW.
Answer: A
13. When a logic bomb is activated by a time-related event, it is known as a:
A. time-related bomb sequence.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. Trojan horse.
Answer: C
14. A logic bomb that was created to erupt on Michelangelos birthday is an example of a:
A. time-related bomb sequence.
B. virus.
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C. time bomb.
D. Trojan horse.
Answer: C
15. What is the name of an application program that gathers user information and sends it to
someone through the Internet?
A. A virus
B. Spybot
C. Logic bomb
D. Security patch
Answer: B
16. Standardization of Microsoft programs and the Windows operating system has made the
spread of viruses:
A. more complicated.
B. more difficult.
C. easier.
D. slower.
Answer: C
17. HTML viruses infect:
A. your computer.
B. a Web page in the HTML code.
C. both a Web page and the computer that is viewing it.
D. No
Answer: B
18. Software programs that close potential security breaches in an operating system are known
as:
A. security breach fixes.
B. refresh patches.
C. security repairs.
D. security patches.
Answer: D
19. When customers of a Web site are unable to access it due to a bombardment of fake traffic, it
is known as:
A. a virus.
B. a Trojan horse.
C. cracking.
D. a denial of service attack.
Answer: D
20. ___________ is the measurement of things such as fingerprints and retinal scans used for
security access.
A. Biometrics
B. Biomeasurement
C. Computer security
D. Smart weapon machinery
Answer: A
21. What is the most common tool used to restrict access to a computer system?
A. User logins
B. Passwords
C. Computer keys
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D. Access-control software
Answer: B
22. The most common passwords in the U.S. or Britain include all EXCEPT:
A. love.
B. Fred.
C. God.
D. 123.
Answer: D
23. Hardware or software designed to guard against unauthorized access to a computer network
is known as a(n):
A. hacker-proof program.
B. firewall.
C. hacker-resistant server.
D. encryption safe wall.
Answer: B
24. The scrambling of code is known as:
A. encryption.
B. a firewall.
C. scrambling.
D. password-proofing.
Answer: A
25. If you want to secure a message, use a(n):
A. cryptology source.
B. encryption key.
C. encryption software package.
D. cryptosystem.
Answer: D Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography
26. To prevent the loss of data during power failures, use a(n):
A. encryption program.
B. surge protector.
C. firewall.
D. UPS.
Answer: D
27. A(n) ____________ can shield electronic equipment from power spikes.
A. encryption program
B. surge protector
C. firewall
D. UPS
Answer: B
28. All of these are suggestions for safe computing EXCEPT:
A. dont borrow disks from other people.
B. open all e-mail messages but open them slowly.
C. download shareware and freeware with caution.
D. disinfect your system.
Answer: B
29. Freeware ___________ encrypts data.
A. encryption
B. firewall software
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C. PGP
D. private and public keys
Answer: C
30. ____________ is defined as any crime completed through the use of computer technology.
A. Computer forensics
B. Computer crime
C. Hacking
D. Cracking
Answer: B
31. Most computer systems rely solely on ___________ for authentication.
A. logins
B. passwords
C. encryption
D. lock and key
Answer: B
32. Creating strong computer security to prevent computer crime usually simultaneously helps
protect :
A. privacy rights.
B. personal ethics.
C. the number of cookies downloaded to your personal computer.
D. personal space.
Answer: A
33. Over ___________ was spent by businesses and government to repair problems in regard to
Y2K.
A. 20 million dollars
B. 100 million dollars
C. 1 billion dollars
D. 100 billion dollars
Answer: D
34. What is a complex system that takes on nearly complete responsibility for a task eliminating
the need for people, verification, or decision making?
A. Autonomous system
B. Missile defense auto-system
C. Smart weapon
D. Independent system
Answer: D
35. Security procedures can:
A. will eliminate all computer security risk.
B. reduce but not eliminate risks.
C. are prohibitively expensive.
D. are inaccessible for the average home user.
Answer: B
Fill in the Blank:
36. The field of computer ____________ uses special software to scan hard drives of potential
criminal suspects.
Answer: forensics Reference: Online Outlaws: Computer Crime Difficulty: Challenging
37. Computer ____________ often goes unreported because businesses fear negative publicity.
Answer: crime
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38. ____________ connections are the most frequent point of attack for Internet commerce.
Answer: Internet
39. ____________ is the most common form of computer crime.
Answer: Theft
40. A survey by eMarketer.com found that ____________ are the most often cited online fraud
cases.
Answer: online auctions Reference: Identity Theft
41. Theft of computers is most common for PDAs and ____________ computers.
Answer: notebook
42. When you use a disk in several different computers within the same day, you are taking the
chance of contracting a(n) ____________.
Answer: virus Reference: Viruses Difficulty: Easy
43. A(n) ____________ attaches itself to documents that contain embedded programs that
automate tasks.
Answer: macro virus
44. Both viruses and ____________ use computer hosts to replicate.
Answer: worms
45. ____________ programs search for and eliminate viruses.
Answer: Antivirus
46. A security patch is a software program that closes possible security breaches in the operating
system. The cost to the consumer is ____________.
Answer: nothing or free
47. ____________ was once the word used for malicious computer wizardry.
Answer: Hackers or hacking
48. ____________ refers to electronic trespassing or criminal hacking.
Answer: Cracking
49. DoS stands for ___________.
Answer: denial of service
50. DDoS stands for ___________.
Answer: distributed denial of service
51. ____________ hijack Web pages and redirect users to other sites.
Answer: Webjackers
52. ___________ software monitors and records computer transactions.
Answer: Audit-control
53. Each individual who uses a public key cryptosystem has ___________ keys.
Answer: two Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography
54. PGP stands for ___________.
Answer: Pretty Good Privacy
55. Most operating systems, including Windows XP, assign each user a unique ___________.
Answer: user identifier or user ID
56. It should now be common knowledge that users should not open ___________ from e-mail
recipients that the user does not know.
Answer: attachments
Matching:
57. Match the acts and centers with their purposes:
I. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act A. created by Attorney General Janet Reno in 1998
II. USA Patriot Act B. defines what kinds of communications are legal online
III. Digital Millennium Copyright Act C. created in 2001 as a response to the terrorist attacks of
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September 11, 2001

IV. Telecommunications Act of 1996 D. provides instant information on crimes and criminals
V. Communications Decency Act E. declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court
VI. National Infrastructure Protection Center F. created as a result of the first headline-making
worm
VII. National Crime Information Center G. used to arrest a student for writing to crack an Adobe
product
Answers: F, C, G, B, E, A, D
58. Match the following rules of thumb about safe computing with the proper descriptions:
I. share with care A. be aware of e-mail from what appear to be legitimate companies
II. handle e-mail carefully B. dont choose a dictionary word
III. disinfect regularly C. keep your disks in your own computer
IV. take your password seriously D. copy, copy, copy
V. if its important, back it up E. encrypt
VI. sensitive info over the Internet? F. use antivirus software
Answers: C, A, F, B, D, E
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Computer Awareness For Bank PO Exams

Posted by Admin on March 13, 2010
27 Votes
1. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT:
A. hackers.
B. spam.
C. viruses.
D. identity theft.
Answer: B
2. A process known as ____________ is used by large retailers to study trends.
A. data mining
B. data selection
C. POS
D. data conversion
Answer: A
3. ____________terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex
inventory and sales computer systems.
A. Data
B. Point-of-sale (POS)
C. Sales
D. Query
Answer: B
4. A(n) ____________ system is a small, wireless handheld computer that scans an items tag
and pulls up the current price (and any special offers) as you shop.
A. PSS
B. POS
C. inventory
D. data mining
Answer: A
5. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminals computer is an
example of a law enforcement specialty called:
A. robotics.
B. simulation.
C. computer forensics.
D. animation.
Answer: C
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major data processing functions of a computer?
A. gathering data
B. processing data into information
C. analyzing the data or information
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D. storing the data or information

Answer: C
7. ____________ tags, when placed on an animal, can be used to record and track in a database
all of the animals movements.
A. POS
B. RFID
C. PPS
D. GPS
Answer: B
8. Surgeons can perform delicate operations by manipulating devices through computers instead
of manually. This technology is known as:
A. robotics.
B. computer forensics.
C. simulation.
D. forecasting.
Answer: A
9. Technology no longer protected by copyright, available to everyone, is considered to be:
A. proprietary.
B. open.
C. experimental.
D. in the public domain.
Answer: A
10. ____________ is the study of molecules and structures whose size ranges from 1 to 100
nanometers.
A. Nanoscience
B. Microelectrodes
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence
Answer: A
11. ____________ is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the same type of
intelligence that humans do.
A. Nanoscience
B. Nanotechnology
C. Simulation
D. Artificial intelligence (AI)
Answer: D
12. ____________ is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion.
A. A process
B. Software
C. Storage
D. Information
Answer: D
13. The name for the way that computers manipulate data into information is called:
A. programming.
B. processing.
C. storing.
D. organizing.
Answer: B
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14. Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to ____________ data.
A. present
B. input
C. output
D. store
Answer: B
15. After a picture has been taken with a digital camera and processed appropriately, the actual
print of the picture is considered:
A. data.
B. output.
C. input.
D. the process.
Answer: B
16. Computers use the ____________ language to process data.
A. processing
B. kilobyte
C. binary
D. representational
Answer: C
17. Computers process data into information by working exclusively with:
A. multimedia.
B. words.
C. characters.
D. numbers.
Answer: D
18. In the binary language each letter of the alphabet, each number and each special character is
made up of a unique combination of:
A. eight bytes.
B. eight kilobytes.
C. eight characters.
D. eight bits.
Answer: D
19. The term bit is short for:
A. megabyte.
B. binary language.
C. binary digit.
D. binary number.
Answer: C
20. A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a:
A. megabyte.
B. byte.
C. kilobyte.
D. gigabyte.
Answer: B
21. A ____________ is approximately one billion bytes.
A. kilobyte
B. bit
C. gigabyte
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D. megabyte
Answer: C
22. A ____________ is approximately a million bytes.
A. gigabyte
B. kilobyte
C. megabyte
D. terabyte
Answer: C
23. ____________ is any part of the computer that you can physically touch.
A. Hardware
B. A device
C. A peripheral
D. An application
Answer: A
24. The components that process data are located in the:
A. input devices.
B. output devices.
C. system unit.
D. storage component.
Answer: C
25. All of the following are examples of input devices EXCEPT a:
A. scanner.
B. mouse.
C. keyboard.
D. printer.
Answer: D
26. Which of the following is an example of an input device?
A. scanner
B. speaker
C. CD
D. printer
Answer: A
27. All of the following are examples of storage devices EXCEPT:
A. hard disk drives.
B. printers.
C. floppy disk drives.
D. CD drives.
Answer: B
28. The ____________, also called the brains of the computer, is responsible for
processing data.
A. motherboard
B. memory
C. RAM
D. central processing unit (CPU)
Answer: D
29. The CPU and memory are located on the:
A. expansion board.
B. motherboard.
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C. storage device.
D. output device.
Answer: B
30. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are examples of:
A. application software.
B. system software.
C. operating system software.
D. platform software.
Answer: A
31. ____________ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to help perform tasks.
A. An instruction
B. Software
C. Memory
D. A processor
Answer: B
32. System software is the set of programs that enables your computers hardware devices
and ____________ software to work together.
A. management
B. processing
C. utility
D. application
Answer: D
33. The PC (personal computer) and the Apple Macintosh are examples of two different:
A. platforms.
B. applications.
C. programs.
D. storage devices.
Answer: A
34. Apple Macintoshes (Macs) and PCs use different ____________ to process data and different
operating systems.
A. languages
B. methods
C. CPUs
D. storage devices
Answer: C
35. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a:
A. network.
B. mainframe.
C. supercomputer.
D. client.
Answer: A
36. Smaller and less expensive PC-based servers are replacing ____________ in many
businesses.
A. supercomputers
B. clients
C. laptops
D. mainframes
Answer: D
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37. ____________ are specially designed computers that perform complex calculations extremely
rapidly.
A. Servers
B. Supercomputers
C. Laptops
D. Mainframes
Answer: B
38. DSL is an example of a(n) ____________ connection.
A. network
B. wireless
C. slow
D. broadband
Answer: D
39. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without
this access is known as the:
A. digital divide.
B. Internet divide.
C. Web divide.
D. broadband divide.
Answer: A
40. ____________ is the science revolving around the use of nanostructures to build devices on
an extremely small scale.
A. Nanotechnology
B. Micro-technology
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence
Answer: A
41. Which of the following is the correct order of the four major functions of a computer?
A. Process Output Input Storage
B. Input Output Process Storage
C. Process Storage Input Output
D. Input Process Output Storage
Answer: D
42. ____________ bits equal one byte.
A. Eight
B. Two
C. One thousand
D. One million
Answer: A
43. The binary language consists of ____________ digit(s).
A. 8
B. 2
C. 1,000
D. 1
Answer: B
44. A byte can hold one ____________ of data.
A. bit
B. binary digit
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C. character
D. kilobyte
Answer: C
45. ____________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a
means by which users can interact with the computer.
A. The platform
B. The operating system
C. Application software
D. The motherboard
Answer: B
46. The operating system is the most common type of ____________ software.
A. communication
B. application
C. system
D. word-processing software
Answer: C
47. ____________ are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such
as your car or your electronic thermostat.
A. Servers
B. Embedded computers
C. Robotic computers
D. Mainframes
Answer: B
48. The steps and tasks needed to process data, such as responses to questions or clicking an
icon, are called:
A. instructions.
B. the operating system.
C. application software.
D. the system unit.
Answer: A
49. The two broad categories of software are:
A. word processing and spreadsheet.
B. transaction and application.
C. Windows and Mac OS.
D. system and application.
Answer: D
50. The metal or plastic case that holds all the physical parts of the computer is the:
A. system unit.
B. CPU.
C. mainframe.
D. platform.
Answer: A
Fill in the Blank:51. Between PCs and Macs, the ____________ is the platform of choice for graphic design
and animation.
Answer: Mac
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52. The ____________ is the program that manages the hardware of the computer system,
including the CPU, memory, storage devices, and input/output devices.
Answer: operating system
53. The type of operating system software you use depends on your computers
____________.
Answer: platform
54. ____________software helps you carry out tasks, such as typing a document or
creating a spreadsheet.
Answer: Application
55. ____________are the fastest and most expensive computers.
Answer: Supercomputers
56. A ____________ is approximately 1,000 bytes.
Answer: kilobyte
57. Input devices are used to provide the steps and tasks the computer needs to process
data, and these steps and tasks are called ____________.
Answer: instructions
58. A computer gathers data, processes it, outputs the data or information, and
____________ the data or information.
Answer: stores
59. The binary language consists of two digits: ____________ and ____________.
Answer: 0 and 1
60. A string of ____________ 0s and 1s is called a byte.
Answer: eight (8)
61. The devices you use to enter data into a computer system are known as ____________
devices.
Answer: input
62. The devices on a computer system that let you see the processed information are
known as ____________ devices.
Answer: output
63. ____________ is the set of computer instructions or programs that enables the
hardware to perform different tasks.
Answer: Software
64. When you connect to the ____________, your computer is communicating with a server
at your Internet service provider (ISP).
Answer: Internet
65. ____________ are computers that excel at executing many different computer programs
at the same time.
Answer: Mainframes
66. ____________is the application of computer systems and techniques to gather legal
evidence.
Answer: Computer forensics
67. ____________ is the science that attempts to create machines that will emulate the
human thought process.
Answer: Artificial intelligence (AI)
68. Macintosh computers use the Macintosh operating system (Mac OS), whereas PCs
generally run ____________ as an operating system.
Answer: Microsoft Windows
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69. A process known as ____________ tracks trends and allows retailers to respond to
consumer buying patterns.
Answer: data mining
70. Hard disk drives and CD drives are examples of ____________ devices.
Answer: storage
71. You would use ____________ software to create spreadsheets, type documents, and
edit photos.
Answer: application
72. ____________ are computers that support hundreds or thousands of users
simultaneously.
Answer: Mainframes
73. ____________ is the term given to the act of stealing someones identity and ruining
their credit rating.
Answer: Identity theft
74. Surgeons are using ____________ to guide robots to perform delicate surgery.
Answer: computers
75. Patient ____________ are life-sized mannequins that have a pulse and a heartbeat and
respond to procedures just like humans.
Answer: simulators
True and False
76. Currently, the performance of tasks by robots is based on preprogrammed algorithms.
Answer: True
77. Data can be a number, a word, a picture, or a sound.
Answer: True
78. Strictly defined, a computer is a data processing device.
Answer: True
79. The discrepancy between the haves and have-nots with regard to
computer technology is commonly referred to as the digital society.
Answer: False (digital divide)
80. One of the benefits of becoming computer fluent is being a savvy computer user and
consumer and knowing how to avoid viruses, the programs that posethreats to computer
security.
Answer: True
81. Trend-spotting programs, developed for business, have been used to predict criminal
activity.
Answer: True
82. Employers do not have the right to monitor e-mail and network traffic on employee
systems used at work.
Answer: False
83. Clicking on an icon with the mouse is a form of giving an instruction to the computer.
Answer: True
84. Output devices store instructions or data that the CPU processes.
Answer: False (memory)
85. The CPU and memory are located on a special circuit board in the system unit called
the motherboard.
Answer: True
86. Nanostructures represent the smallest human-made structures that can be built.
Answer: True
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87. The main difference between a supercomputer and a mainframe is that supercomputers
are designed to execute a few programs as quickly as possible,whereas mainframes are
designed to handle many programs running at the same time (but at a slower pace).
Answer: True
88. Being computer fluent means that you should be able to build a computer yourself.
Answer: False
89. Embedded computers are self-contained computer devices that have their own
programming and do not receive input.
Answer: True
90. A Web browser is a special device that is installed in your computer that allows it to
communicate with other devices on a network.
Answer: False (network adapter)
91. With a wireless network, it is easier to relocate devices.
Answer: True
92. The most common type of memory that the computer uses to process data is ROM.
Answer: False (RAM)
Matching:
93. Match the following terms with their approximate size:
I. kilobyte A. one million bytes
II. byte B. eight bits
III. gigabyte C. one thousand bytes
IV. megabyte D. one billion bytes
V. terabyte E. one trillion bytes
Answer: C, B, D, A, E
94. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. printer A. storage device
II. scanner B. output device
III. RAM C. input device
IV. CPU D. a type of memory
V. CD drive E. processor
Answer: B, C, D, E, A
I. mainframe A. the most expensive computers that perform complex calculations extremely rapidly
II. supercomputer B. a computer that provides resources to other computers connected to a
network
III. embedded computer C. a large, expensive computer that supports hundreds or thousands of
users simultaneously
IV. PDA D. a self-contained computer device that usually performs preprogrammed functions such
as temperature control
V. server E. a small mobile computing device
Answer: C, A, D, E, B
I. software A. transforming data into information
II. hardware B. data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion
III. operating system C. any part of the computer that you can physically touch
IV. processing D. a set of computer programs that enables hardware to perform different tasks
V. information E. the most common type of system software, it controls the way in which the
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computer system functions

Answer: D, C, E, A, B
I. system software A. the set of programs that enables computer hardware devices and application
software to work together
II. application software B. the kind of operating system software you will use depends on this
III. platform C. operating system software generally used on PCs
IV. Microsoft Windows D. a set of programs used to accomplish a specific task
V. Mac OS E. operating system software used on the Apple Macintosh
Answer: A, D, B, C, E
I. data
A. the main circuit board in the system unit
II. Memory
B. the representation of a fact or idea (unprocessed information)
III. output
C. processed data or information
IV. storage
D. holds instructions or data that the CPU processes
V. motherboard
E. data or information that can be accessed again
Answer: B, D, C, E, A
I. bit A. the science revolving around the use of nanostructures to build devices on an extremely
small scale
II. binary language B. the case that contains the system components
III. instructions C. consists of 0s and 1s
IV. system unit D. short for binary digit
V. nanotechnology E. steps and tasks necessary to process data into usable information
Answer: D, C, E, B, A
100. Match the following fields to the related computer technology:
I. medicine A. Internet research and virtual tours
II. business B. data mining
III. law enforcement C. robotics and simulation
IV. education D. computer forensics
V. archeology E. digital recreations of ruins
Answer: C, B, D, A, E
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Computer Awareness For Bank Clerical Exam

Posted by Admin on November 1, 2009
1.Which among the following is not a security / privacy risk?
(A)Spam
(B)Hacking
(C)Virus
(D)Phishing
(E)Vishing
Ans. Spam
2.Now a days Vishing has become a criminal practice of using social engineering over which of
the following?
(A)Social networking sites
(B)Mobile Phones
(C)E-mails
(D)Cyber cafs
(E)All of the above
Ans. Mobile Phones
3.When some unidentified / unknown person / firm sends you mail in a trustworthy /lucrative way
asking for sensitive banks and online payment information, this is a case of __?
(A)spam
(B)hacking
(C)Phishing
(D)Vishing
(E)Simulation
Ans. Phishing
4.Which among the following is a correct definition of Digital Divide?
(A) gap between people having access to mobile and internet access
(B) gap between people having access to internet /IT and no internet/IT
(C) gap between people having access to broadband and narrowband internet
(D) gap between people having access to internet banking and normal banking
(E)Gap between the people having an email account and no email account
Ans. (B) gap between people having access to internet /IT and no internet/IT
5.Which among the following is the most common source of Viruses to the hard disk of your
computer?
(A)Incoming Email
(B)Outgoing Email
(C)CD Roms
(D)Websites
(E)Mobile
Ans. (A) Incoming Email
6.What is the fullform of W3C?
(A)World Wide Web Consortium
(B)World Wide Web Company
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(C)World Wide Web Center

(D)World Wide Web Command
(E)None of them
Ans. (A) World Wide Web Consortium
7.Which among the following is used for removing a software bug / defect which is available for
free of cost from the software provider?
(A)Version
(B)Update
(C)Help
(D)Patch
(E)Syntax
Ans. (D) Patch
8.What is the name of the proposed software application that would allow users of automated
teller machines (ATMs) to alert the police of a forced cash withdrawal by entering their personal
identification number (PIN) in reverse order?
(A)ATM SafetyPIN
(B)ATM SafetyPro
(C)ATM SafetyCode
(D)ATM SafetySign
(E)ATM SafetyDigit
Ans. (A) ATM SafetyPIN
9.In the MICR Code Line Structure what do represent the first three digits of Sort field number
consisting of nine digits?
(A)City
(B)Bank
(C)Branch
(D)Account Type
(E)None of the above
Ans. first three digits represent the city, the next three indicate the bank and the last three
digits signify the branch
10.Most of the internet banking sites provide which of the following feature to reduce the risk of
keystroke logging for the password entry?
(A)Virtual keyboard
(B)Finger Touching
(C)Touchscreen
(D)ShapeWriter
(E)Dasher
Ans. (A) Virtual Keyboard
11.ADSL data communications technology uses which of the following for faster data
transmission ?
(A)Voiceband modem
(B)Wireless Modem
(C)Copper telephone Lines
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(D)Sockets
Ans. (C) Copper telephone Lines
12.While working on Microsoft World , which among the following is the command for Undo?
(A)Cntrl +A
(B)Cntrl +Z
(C)Cntrl +Y
(D)Cntrl +C
(E)Cntrl +V
Ans. (B) Cntrl + Z
13.While browsing the internet , which of the following key is used for full screen view?
(A)F3
(B)F5
(C)F11
(D)F9
(E)F10
Ans. (C) F11
14.Which of the following is a suitable term for any programmable content of a hardware device
configurations and data for application-specific integrated circuits (ASICs), programmable logic
devices, etc.?
(A)Hardware
(B)Software
(C)Firmware
(D)Malware
(E)Liveware
Ans. (C) Firmware
15.Most of the internet sites now a days use CSS primarily to enable the separation of document
content (written in HTML or a similar markup language) from document presentation, including
elements such as the layout, colors, and fonts. What is full form?
(A)Cascading Style Software
(B)Clear Style Sheet
(C)Cascading Style Sheet
(D)Common Style Sheet
(E)Conditional Style Sheet
Ans. (C) Cascading Style Sheet
16.What is the purpose of keeping electronic devices such as computers, televisions, and remote
controlled devices on Sleep mode?
(A)Reduce Power consumption
(B)Back Up
(C)To write contents of RAM to hard disc
(D)To improve download speed
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Ans. (A) Deduce Power Consumption

17.Which of the following device is a volatile storage?
(A)RAM
(B)Hard Disc
(C)Magnetic Tape
(D)Floppy Disc
(E)ROM
Ans. (A) RAM
18.Which of the following company owns/ uses the Virtual Hard Disk (.vhd) format for Virtual PC?
(A)IBM
(B)Microsoft
(C)Intel
(D)Google
(E)Apple
Ans. (B) Microsoft
19.What is Office Open XML?
(A)A file format
(B)A software
(C)A electronic device
(D)An international standard
Ans. (A) A file format
20.What is the ultimate purpose of Defragmentation?
(A)Make the PC faster
(B)Create More Free Space
(C)Delete temporary files
(D)Reduce Power consumption
(E)All of the above
Ans. (B) Create More Free Space is the main purpose however performance is also
improved in most cases.
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GATE Sample papers for Computer Science

Posted by Admin on October 1, 2009
Computer Science Engineering Sample Papers
1 The problems 3-SAT and 2-SAT are
A) both in P
B) both NP-complete
C) NP-complete and in P respectively
D) undecidable and NP-complete respectively
Answer : (C)
2 Consider the following relation schema pertaining to a students database:
Student (rollno, name, address)
Enroll (rollno, courseno, coursename)
where the primary keys are shown underlined. The number of tuples in the Student and Enroll
tables are 120 and 8 respectively. What are the maximum and minimum number of tuples that can
be present in (Student * Enroll), where *denotes natural join?
A) 8, 8
B) 120, 8
C) 960, 8
D) 960, 120
Answer : (C)
3 Consider a relation scheme R = (A, B, C, D, E, H) on which the following functional
dependencies hold : (A -> B, BC -> D, E -> C, D -> A). What are the candidate keys of R?
A) AE, BE
B) AE, BE, DE
C) AEH, BEH, BCH
D) AEH, BEH, DEH
Answer : (D)
4 The goal of structured programming is to
A) have well indented programs
B) be able to infer the flow of control from the compiled code
C) be able to infer the flow of control from the program text
D) avoid the use of GOTO statements
Answer : (C)
5 The tightest lower bound on the number of comparisons, in the worst ease, for comparisonbased sorting is of the order of
A) n
B) n 2
C) n log n
D) n log2 n
Answer : (B)
6 A circuit outputs a digit in the form of 4 bits. 0 is represented by 0000,1 by 0001,, 9 by 1001. A
combinational circuit is to be designed which takes these 4 bits as input and outputs 1 if the digit
5, and 0 otherwise. If only AND, OR and NOT gates may be used, what is the minimum number of
gates required
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
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D) 5
Answer : (C)
7 WA and B are the only two stations on an Ethernet. Each has a steady queue of frames to send.
Both A and B attempt to transmit a frame, collide, and A wins the first backoff race. At the end of
this successful transmission by A, both A and B attempt to transmit and collide. The probability that
A wins the second backoff race is
A) 0.5
B) 0.625
C) 0.75
D) 1.0
Answer : (A)
8 If 73x (in base-x number system) is equal to 54y (in base-y number system), the possible values
of x and y are
A) 8, 16
B) 10, 12
C) 9, 13
D) 8, 11
Answer : (D)
9 In a packet switching network, packets are routed from source to destination along a single path
having two intermediate nodes. If the message size is 24 bytes and each packet contains a
header of 3 bytes, then the optimum packet size is
A) 4
B) 6
C) 7
D) 9
Answer : (D)
10 A Priority-Queue is implemented as a Max-Heap. Initially, it has 5 elements. The level-order
traversal of the heap is given below: 10, 8,5,3,2 Two new elements 1 and 7 are inserted in the
heap in that order. The level-order traversal of the heap after the insertion of the elements is
A) 10,8,7,5,3,2,1
B) 10,8,7,2,3,1,5
C) 10,8,7,1,2,3,5
D) 10,8,7,3,2,1,5
Answer : (D)
11 Consider an operating system capable of loading and executing a single sequential user
process at a time. The disk head scheduling algorithm used is First Come First Served (FCFS). If
FCFS is replaced by Shortest Seek Time First (SSTF), claimed by the vendor to give 50% better
benchmark results, what is the expected improvement in the I/O performance of user programs ?
A) 50%
B) 40%
C) 25%br> D) 0%
Answer : (D)
12 How many distinct binary search trees can be created out of 4 distinct keys?
A) 5
B) 14
C) 24
D) 42
Answer : (B)
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GATE Information Technology Sample Papers

Posted by Admin on October 1, 2009
Information Technology Sample Paper I

1 A subnet has been assigned a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. What is the maximum
number of hosts that can belong to this subnet?
A) 14
B) 30
C) 62
D) 126
Answer : (C)
2 Which one of the following is NOT shared by the threads of the same process ?
A) Stack
B) Address Space
C) File Descriptor Table
D) Message Queue
Answer : (A)
3 Let G be a weighted undirected graph and e be an edge with maximum weight in G.
Suppose there is a minimum weight spanning tree in G containing the edge e. Which of the
following statements is always TRUE?
A) There exists a cutset in G having all edges of maximum weight.
B) There exists a cycle in G having all edges of maximum weight.
C) Edge e cannot be contained in a cycle.
D) All edges in G have the same weight.
Answer : (C)
4 A software organization has been assessed at SEI CMM Level 4. Which of the following
does the organization need to practice beside Process Change Management and
Technology Change Management in order to achieve Level 5 ?
A) Defect Detection
B) Defect Prevention
C) Defect Isolation
D) Defect Propagation
Answer : (B)
5 Suppose that two parties A and B wish to setup a common secret key (D-H key) between
themselves using the Diffle-Hellman key exchange technique. They agree on 7 as the
modulus and 3 as the primitive root. Party A chooses 2 and party B chooses 5 as their
respective secrets. Their D-H key is
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
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D) 6
Answer : (C)
6 Consider the following message M = 1010001101. The cyclic redundancy check (CRC) for
this message using the divisor polynomial x5 + x4 + x2 + 1 is :
A) 01110
B) 01011
C) 10101
D) 10110
Answer : (C)
7 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a bridge
A) Bridge is a layer 2 device
B) Bridge reduces collision domain
C) Bridge is used to connect two or more LAN segments
D) Bridge reduces broadcast domain
Answer : (D)
8 What is the availability of a software with the following reliability figures?
Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) = 25 days
Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) = 6 hours
A) 1%
B) 24%
C) 99%
D) 99.009%
Answer : (B)
9 A channel has a bit rate of 4 kbps and one-way propagation delay of 20 ms. The channel
uses stop and wait protocol. The transmission time of the acknowledgement frame is
negligible. To get a channel efficiency of at least 50%, the minimum frame size should be
A) 80 bytes
B) 80 bits
C) 160 bytes
D) 160 bits
Answer : (D)
10 In a depth-first traversal of a graph G with n vertices, k edges are marked as tree edges.
The number of connected components in G is
A) k
B) k+1
C) n-k-l
D) n-k
Answer : (C)
11 Which of the following statements is TRUE about CSMA/CD
A) IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN runs CSMA/CD protocol
B) Ethernet is not based on CSMA/CD protocol
C) CSMA/CD is not suitable for a high propagation delay network like satellite network
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D) There is no contention in a CSMA/CD network

Answer : (C)
12 Which one of the following regular expressions is NOT equivalent to the regular
expression (a + b + c)* ?
A) (a* + b* + c*)*
B) (a*b*c*)*
C) ((ab)* + c*)*
D) (a*b* + c*)*
Answer : (C)
Information Technology Sample Paper II
1 In a population of N families, 50% of the families have three children, 30% of the families
have two children and the remaining families have one child. What is the probability that a
randomly picked child belongs to a family with two children?
A) 3/23
B) 6/23
C) 3/10
D) 3/5
Answer : (B)
2 Which one of the following is NOT shared by the threads of the same process ?
A) Stack
B) Address Space
C) File Descriptor Table
D) Message Queue
Answer : (A)
3 A subnet has been assigned a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. What is the maximum
number of hosts that can belong to this subnet?
A) 14.
B) 30
C) 62
D) 126
Answer : (C)
4 A software organization has been assessed at SEI CMM Level 4. Which of the following
does the organization need to practice beside Process Change Management and
Technology Change Management in order to achieve Level 5 ?
A) Defect Detection
B) Defect Prevention
C) Defect Isolation
D) Defect Propagation
Answer : (B)
5 Suppose that two parties A and B wish to setup a common secret key (D-H key) between
themselves using the Diffle-Hellman key exchange technique. They agree on 7 as the
modulus and 3 as the primitive root. Party A chooses 2 and party B chooses 5 as their
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respective secrets. Their D-H key is

A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Answer : (C)
6 We have two designs D1 and D2 for a synchronous pipeline processor. D1 has 5 pipeline
stages with execution times of 3 nsec, 2 nsec, 4 nsec, 2 nsec and 3 nsec while the design
D2 has 8 pipeline stages each with 2 nsec execution time. How much time can be saved
using design D2 over design D1 for executing 100 instructions?
A) 214 nsec
B) 202 nsec
C) 86 nsec
D) -200 nsec
Answer : (A)
7 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a bridge
A) Bridge is a layer 2 device
B) Bridge reduces collision domain
C) Bridge is used to connect two or more LAN segments
D) Bridge reduces broadcast domain
Answer : (D)
8 What is the availability of a software with the following reliability figures?
Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) = 25 days
Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) = 6 hours
A) 1%
B) 24%
C) 99%
D) 99.009%
Answer : (B)
9 In a particular Unix OS, each data block is of size 1024 bytes, each node has 10 direct
data block addresses and three additional addresses: one for single indirect block, one for
double indirect block and one for triple indirect block. Also, each block can contain
addresses for 128 blocks. Which one of the following is approximately the maximum size of
a file in the file system?
A) 512 MB
B) 2 GB
C) 8 GB
D) 16 GB
Answer : (D)
10 On a TCP connection, current congestion window size is Congestion Window = 4 KB.
The window size advertised by the receiver is Advertise Window = 6 KB. The last byte sent
by the sender is LastByteSent = 10240 and the last byte acknowledged by the receiver is
LastByteAcked = 8192. The current window size at the sender is
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A) 2048 bytes
B) 4096 bytes
C) 6144 bytes
D) 8192 bytes
Answer : (B)
11 Which of the following statements is TRUE about CSMA/CD
A) IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN runs CSMA/CD protocol
B) Ethernet is not based on CSMA/CD protocol
C) CSMA/CD is not suitable for a high propagation delay network like satellite network
D) There is no contention in a CSMA/CD network
Answer : (C)
12 How many pulses are needed to change the contents of a 8-bit upcounter from 10101100
to 00100111 (rightmost bit is the LSB)?
A) 134
B) 133
C) 124
D) 123
Answer : (B)
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KVS TGT and PRT Preliminary Examination Model Paper

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KVS TGT and PRT Preliminary Examination Model Paper 2010

14. Consider the following statements

Consider the following statements:

(4) Yellow and black

35. Which one of the following wars was fought earliest?

(4) 70 notes 37 notes 20 notes

67. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(4) the scholarship of the teacher

The teacher who has developed an interest in teaching?

Find the odd one out?

Motivation should be followed by?

Learning which involves motor organ is called?

Which of the following is an audio-visual aid?

Do the children of intelligent parents always shine in studies?

Childrens fantasy reflects their?

I prefer teachting young children because?

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If (2x-y)=4 then (6x-3y)=?

What is the missing number in this series? 8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12

4. Orange and Green

Mr. Horton: he is the doctor

25. If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x?

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(D) personal information managers

16. URL stands for ..

(A) minimize the number of relationships

(A) Boot-sector viruses

7. Malicious software is known as:

September 11, 2001

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D. storing the data or information

computer system functions

Computer Awareness For Bank Clerical Exam

(C)World Wide Web Center

Ans. (A) Deduce Power Consumption

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Information Technology Sample Paper I

D) There is no contention in a CSMA/CD network

respective secrets. Their D-H key is

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