Civil Services Prelims: Polity: Previous year questions

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Q. Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the commencement of the
election process in India?
(a) The recommendation for election is
made by the government and the
notification for election is issued by the
Election Commission.
(b) The recommendation for election is
made by the Election Commission and the
notification for election is issued by the
Home Ministry at the Centre and Home
Departments in the States.
(c) The recommendation for election is
made by the Election Commission and the
notification for election is issued by the
President and Governors of the States
concerned.
(d) Both the exercises of making a
recommendation for election and that of
issuing a notification in respect of it are
done by Election Commission.
Ans.(a) As per Art. 324, the Election
Commission has all the powers of
conducting elections in India and as for the
recommendation for elections, it is one of
the functions of the Government to
recommend holding of elections to the
President, who, acting on the advice of the
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Govt., directs the Constitutional body

(Election Commission) to conduct elections.

Q. Article 156 if the Constitution of India

provides that a Governor shall hold office
for a term of five years from the date on
which he enters upon his office. Which of
the following can be deduced from this?
1. No Governor can be removed from his
office till the completion of his term.
2. No Governor can continue in office
beyond a period of five years.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither
Ans.(b) No Governor can continue in office
beyond a period of five years though he can
be reappointed and remain in office for
another term of five years. The Governor
remains in office during the pleasure of the
President (Article 156) and can be removed
if the President is satisfied that he has failed
to fulfill his constitutional duties. No specific
provision for impeachment of the Governor
has been provided in the Constitution
unlike the President.

Q. Which one of the following is incorrect in

respect of Local Government in India?
(a) According to the Indian Constitution,
local government is not an independent tier
in the federal system.
(b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are
reserved for women.
(c) Local government finances are to be
provided by a Commission.
(d) Elections to local bodies are to be
conducted by a Commission.
A s. U der Part IX The Pa hayats ,
Art.243 D provides that one-third of the
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Civil Services Prelims: Polity: Previous year questions

total number of seats to be filled by direct
election in every Panchayat shall be
reserved for women.
Art.243B provides for a three tier structure
of local government in India at the village,
intermediate and district levels. Art.243 I
provides that the principles governing the
finances of the Panchayats are to be
determined by the Finance Commission of
the State. Art.243 K provides that elections
to the Panchayats are to be conducted by
the State Election Commission.

Q. If in an election to a State Legislative

Assembly, the candidate who is declared
elected loses his deposit, it means that
(a) the polling was very poor.
(b) the election was for a multi-member
constituency.
(c) the elected candidate's victory over his
nearest rival was very marginal.
(d) a very large number of candidates
contested the election.
Ans.(d) A candidate loses his deposit when
he gets less than 1/6th of the total valid
votes cast in the election. Now, it is given
here that the candidate wins and still loses
his deposit, which means that a large
number of candidates contested the
elections and the number of votes secured
by the winning candidate is less than 1/6th
of the total votes.

Q. Which of the following are the

discretionary powers given to the Governor
of a State?

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1. Sending a report to the President of India

for i posi g the Preside t s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State
Legislature for consideration of the
President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business
of the State Government
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only.
2, 3 and 4 only.
1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans.(b) Although all the given functions are

performed by the Governor but he has
discretion in performing the functions given
in options (1) and (3) only and the
remaining are performed by the Governor
on the advice of the Chief Minister.
As per Art.200, when a Bill has been passed
by the State Legislative Assembly, the
Governor has three choices either give his
assent to the Bill or withhold his assent or
reserve the Bill for the consideration of the
President.
Art.356 provides that on receipt of a report
from the Governor of a State or otherwise,
if the President is satisfied that a situation
has arisen in which the Govt. cannot be
carried on in accordance with the
Constitution, he may proclaim emergency in
the State.

Q. The power of the Supreme Court of India

to decide disputes between the Centre and
the States falls under its:
(a) Advisory jurisdiction
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Civil Services Prelims: Polity: Previous year questions

(b) Appellate jurisdiction
(c) Original jurisdiction
(d) Constitutional jurisdiction
Ans.(c) When a Court is said to have original
jurisdiction in a matter, it means that the
Court can try the case first hand and not by
way of appeal in which case the appellate
Court is said to have appellate jurisdiction.
Art. 131 provides that the Supreme Court
will have original jurisdiction in the
following cases:
* Where the dispute is between the Govt.
of India and one or more States
* Where the dispute is between the Govt.
of India and one or more States on one side
and one or more other State/s on the other
side
* Between two or more States.

Q: In which one of the following countries,

the no-confidence motion to bring down
the government passed by the legislature
be valid only when the legislature is able to
find simultaneously a majority to elect
successor government?
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) Italy
(d) Portugal
Ans.(b) As the possibility of the existing
Govt. being voted out in a no-confidence
motion results in political instability, two
provisions were added to the 1949 Weimar
Constitution of Germany. As a result, the
Bundestag (German Parliament) can
express its lack of confidence in the
Chancellor (position comparable to the
Prime Minister of India) only by electing a
successor with the majority of its members.

Q. State Funding of elections takes place in

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(a) U.S.A. and Canada

(b) Britain and Switzerland
(c) France and Italy
(d) Germany and Austria
Ans.(d) State funding of elections means the
funds
used
by
the
political
parties/candidates in elections for various
purposes are provided by the Government.
In India, this has been recommended by
various committees like the Indrajit Gupta
Committee (1998), Law Commission report,
1999, National Commission to Review the
Working of Constitution (NCRWC), 2001 and
the Second Administrative Reforms
Commission, 2008. While advocating state
funding of elections, it is assumed that it
will result in lesser use of black money in
elections.

Q. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to

the Upper House of Parliament
(a) he will not be able to vote in his favour
in the event of a no-confidence motion
(b) he will not be able to speak on the
budget in the Lower House
(c) he can make statements only in the
Upper House
(d) he has to become a member of the
Lower House within six months after being
sworn in as the Prime Minister
Ans.(a) As only members of the Lower
House are allowed to vote in the Lower
House, the Prime Minister, in case he is a
member of the Upper House, will not be
able to cast his vote in any proceedings in
the Lower House. Other than voting in the
lower house, the PM will not face any other
restriction(s)
as
per
constitutional
provisions and parliamentary procedures.

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Civil Services Prelims: Polity: Previous year questions

Q. Which one of the following schedules of
the Constitution of India contains provisions
regarding anti-defection Act?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Ans.(d) The Tenth Schedule of the
Constitution contains the provisions related
to disqualification of Members of
Parliament on grounds of defection. It was
added by the 52nd amendment to the
Constitution in 1985. The purpose of the
Anti-defection Act is to prevent horsetrading of elected representatives.

Q. Consider the following statements:

An amendment to the Constitution of India
can be initiated by the
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislatures
4. President
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 alone
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Ans.(d) A constitutional amendment can be
initiated by the introduction of a Bill in
either House of the Parliament as per
Art.368. The Bill further needs to be passed
in both the Houses by a majority of not less
than two-thirds of the members of each
House, present and voting.

Q. Which one of the following amendments

to the Indian Constitution empowers the

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President to send back any matter for

reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?
(a) 39th
(b) 40th
(c) 42nd
(d) 44th
Ans.(d) Art.74 provides that the President
shall act on the aid and advice of the
President. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978
added a provision to Article 74 which gives
the power to the President to send the
advice for reconsideration. After such
reconsideration, the President is bound to
act on the advice so given.

Q. The ter of the Lok Sa ha..

(a) cannot be extended under any
circumstances
(b) can be extended by six months at a time
(c) can be extended by one year at a time
during the proclamation of emergency
(d) can be extended for two years at a time
during the proclamation of emergency
Ans.(c) Art.83(2) provides that the term of
the House of the People (Lok Sabha) shall
be for a period of five years but during
emergency, the term may be extended to a
period of one year at a time. The term shall
not, in any case, be extended beyond a
period of six months after the proclamation
of emergency ceases to operate.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the
Parliament in India is sanctioned under
Article 108 of the Constitution.
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and
Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.

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Civil Services Prelims: Polity: Previous year questions

3. The second joint sitting of the two
Houses of Indian Parliament was held to
pass the Banking Service Commission
(Repeal) Bill.
Which of these statements is correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.(d) As per Art.108, the President may
call for a joint sitting of both the Houses of
the Parliament after a Bill has been passed
by one House and transmitted to the other
House if1.
the Bill is rejected by the other
House or,
2.
the Houses have finally disagreed as
to the amendments to be made in
the Bill or
3.
more than six months elapse from
the date of reception of the Bill by
the other House without the Bill
being passed by it.
The first joint sitting was called in 1961 in
which the Dowry Prohibition Bill was
passed. The second such sitting was called
in 1978 for the Banking Service Commission
Repeal Bill and the third time it was called
in 2002 for the Prevention of Terrorism Act,
2002.
There is no provision of joint sitting in case
of a Constitution Amendment Bill.

Q: Which one of the following statements is

correct?
(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok
Sabha can have nominated members
(b) There is a constitutional provision for
nominating two members belonging to the
Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha

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(c) There is no constitutional bar for a

nominated member to be appointed as a
Union minister
(d) A nominated member can vote both in
the Presidential and Vice Presidential
elections
Ans.(c) As per Art.80, twelve members are
to be nominated by the President to the
Council of States (Rajya Sabha) whereas as
per Art.331, the President may nominate
two members from the Anglo-Indian
community to the House of the People (Lok
Sabha) if he is satisfied that adequate
representation has not been given to the
community.
A nominated member may be appointed as
a Union Minister. An individual may be
appointed as a Union Minister provided he
becomes a member of the Parliament
within six months of the appointment
(Art.75 (5)).
A nominated member can vote in the
elections for the office of the Vice-President
only.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are
associated with Committees on Public
Accounts
and
Public
Undertakings,
members of Committee on Estimates are
drawn entirely from Lok Sabha.
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
works under the overall direction of Cabinet
Committee on Parliamentary Affairs.
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
nominates Members of Parliament on
Committees,
Councils,
Board
and
Commissions etc. set up by the Government
of India in the various ministries.

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Civil Services Prelims: Polity: Previous year questions

Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.(d) For the Committees on Public
Accounts and Public Undertakings, 15
members are elected from the Lok Sabha
and 7 members from the Rajya Sabha. In
the case of Committee on Estimates, 30
members are elected from the Lok Sabha.
Lok Sabha has a privileged position
compared to the Rajya Sabha in financial
matters (Money Bill). Estimates Committee
provides
recommendations
regarding
Budget matters. Thus only members of Lok
Sabha become part of Estimate Committee.
The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
renders secretarial assistance to the
Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary
Affairs, which recommends prorogation of
both the Houses of the Parliament and the
Govt.'s stand on Private Members' Bills and
Resolutions.

Q. Consider the following statements:

Which of the statements given above are
correct?
1. The highest criminal court of the district
is the Court of District and Sessions Judge.
2. The District Judges are appointed by the
Governor in consultation with the High
Courts.
3. A person to be eligible for appointment
as a District Judge should be an advocate or
a pleader of seven years standing or more,
or an officer in judicial service of the Union
or the State.
4. When the Sessions Judge awards death
sentence, it must be confirmed by the High
Court before it is carried out.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
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(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans.(d) The District & Sessions Court stands

at the top of the hierarchy of Criminal
Courts in a district.
Art.233 provides that the appointment of
district judges shall be made by the
Governor in consultation with the State
High Court and as regards the eligibility, he
must have been an advocate for not less
than seven years.
As per Section 366 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973 when a Court of Sessions
passes a death sentence, the proceedings
are to be submitted to the High Court and
the sentence shall not be executed unless it
is confirmed by the High Court.

Q. Consider the following tasks:

1. Superintendence, direction and conduct
of free and fair elections
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all
elections to the Parliament, State
Legislatures and the Office of the President
and the Vice-President
3. Giving recognition to political parties and
allotting election symbols to political parties
and individuals contesting the election
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case
of election disputes
Which of the above are the functions of the
Election Commission of India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans.(a) The Constitution of India, under
Art.324, gives the Election Commission of
India all the powers related to conducting
of elections to the offices of the President,
the Vice-President, the Parliament and the
State Legislatures but election disputes are
not decided by the Commission. An election
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Civil Services Prelims: Polity: Previous year questions

petition is to be filed in the High Court of
the particular State in which the election
was conducted. Section 100 of the
Representation of People Act, 1951
provides the grounds on which an election
can be declared void by the High Court.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to
Property.
2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a
Fundamental Right.
3. Article 300 A was inserted in the
Constitution of India by the Congress
Government at the Centre by the 44th
Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.(a) The right to property was earlier a
fundamental right under Art.19(f) but by
the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act,
1978, it was made a legal right by adding
Art.300A. In 1978, the ruling Government
belonged to the Janata Party with Mr.
Morarji Desai as the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given is/are

correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1
(d) neither 1 nor 2
Ans.(a) Art.249 empowers the Rajya Sabha
to declare by a resolution supported by a
two-third majority, that it is expedient in
the national interest that the Parliament
should make laws with respect to any
matter enumerated in the State List. Such a
resolution remains in force for a period of
one year unless another resolution is
passed for its continuance.
Resolutions approving the Proclamation of
Emergency are to be passed by both the
Houses of the Parliament as per Art.352.

If you like this sample file and are interested

in buying 200+ Polity questions (with good
quality explanations) which appeared in
UPSC Prelims between 1995-2014, mail us
at: takshilaonline@gmail.com
Or WhatsApp : 9818872297
Meanwhile,
keep
visiting
www.TakshilaOnline.com to:
1. Practice Prelims (GS & CSAT)
objective questions
2. Access Public Administration and
Geography Civil Service Mains
notes.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to
declare that it would be in national interest
for the Parliament to legislate with respect
to a matter in the State List.
2. Resolutions approving the Proclamation
of Emergency are passed only by the Lok
Sabha.

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Civil Services Prelims: Polity: Previous year questions

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