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IAS P.T.

TEST SERIES - 2014


SET NO: 13
By S.K. Mishra, IAS (Retd.) & Manoj K. Jha

INDIAN ECONOMY BASICS


Time Allowed: Two Hours

Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1.

IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD


CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2.

ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SET NUMBER IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN
THE ANSWER SHEET.

3.

You have to enter your Roll Number on the test Booklet in


the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else
on the Test Booklet.

4.

This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English only. Each item comprises
four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case
you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any
case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. More than one response will be treated as wrong
answer.

5.

In case you find any discrepancy in this test booklet in any question(s) or the Responses; a written representation
explaining the details of such alleged discrepancy, be submitted within three days, indicating the Question
No(s) and the Test Booklet Series, in which the discrepancy is alleged. Representation not received within
time shall not be entertained at all.

6.

You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.

7.

All items carry equal marks.

8.

For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (-0.33 %) of the
marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. There will be no penalty for a question which is
left blank.

9.

Before you proceed to mark in the Response Sheet, the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Response Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admit Card and
Instructions.

10. While writing Name and Roll No. on the top of the Response Sheet in appropriate boxes use "ONLY
BLACK BALL POINT PEN".
11. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Response Sheet and the examination has concluded,
you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Response Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you
the Test Booklet.

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1. Consider the following statements.


1. Participatory Notes are derivative
instruments
2. They are used by Foreign Institutional
Investors (FIIs) who are registered with
SEBI.
3. They are used on Indian shares, but at a
location outside India.

3. The third category C contained all the


remaining industries where industrial
development will be undertaken ordinarily
through the initiative and enterprise of the
private sector, though it will be open to the
State to start any industry even in this
category.
4. Industrial undertakings in the private sector
were not necessarily required to fit into the
framework of the social and economic
policy of the State and they would not be
subject to control and regulate in terms of
the Industries (Development and
Regulation) Act and other relevant
legislation.

OR

2. Consider the following definition of urban area


according to Indian census.
1. minimum population of 5000.
2. at least seventy five percent of all working
population engaged is nonagricultural
pursuits.
3. a density of population of at least 400
persons per square kilometer.
4. such urban settlement are also known as
census towns.
5. all other places with a municipality,
cooperation, cantonment board etc. are
regarded as urban area.

Which of the above statements are correct?


(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 2 & 3
(d) All of the above

Select the correct code:


(a) Only 2
(b) Only 2 & 4
(c) Only 4
(d) Only 3

SC

4. Consider the following statements about the


National Manufacturing Policy (NMP).
1. The policy aims to create 100 million
additional jobs over the next decade.
2. National Investment and Manufacturing
Zones (NIMZs) has been accorded with
benefits like exemption from capital gains
tax, simplified procedures and easier exit
norms.
3. The policy aims to raise the share of
manufacturing to 25 percent of GDP by
2022.

GS

Which of the above statements are correct?


(a) Only 1, 2 & 3
(b) Only 2, 3, 4 & 5
(c) Only 1, 3, 4 & 5 (d) All of the above

3. Indian Parliament accepted in December, 1954,


the socialistic pattern of society as the objective
of social and economic policy. Industrial policy,
as other policies, must therefore, be governed
by these principles and directions. Which of the
following is not true about the Industrial Policy
1956?
1. ScheduleA of Industrial Policy Resolution
1956 proposed that all new industrial units
in the first category, save where their
establishment in the private sector has
already been approved, will be sent only
by the State.
2. Industries in the second category will be
those listed in ScheduleB. With a view to
accelerating their future development, the
State will increasingly establish new
undertakings in these industries. At the
same time, private enterprise will also have
the opportunity to develop in this field,
either on its own or with State participation.
2

Which of the above statements are correct?


(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above
5. Consider the following statements about the
Fiscal Policy.
1. Fiscal policy is the use of government
spending and taxation to influence the
economy.
2. The most immediate effect of fiscal policy
is to change the aggregate demand for
goods and services.
3. Fiscal policy is said to be loose or
expansionary when revenue is higher than
spending.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above
IAS TEST SERIES 2014

1. Gross Domestic Product (GDP), measures


the output of goods and services produced
within the geographical boundary of a
nation regardless of the residence of that
labour or owner of capital.
2. Gross National Product (GNP) is total
output of goods and services produced by
residents of a nation regardless of where
they live and work or where they own
capital.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 & 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. Among the various sub sectors of the service


sector which claims the largest share in India's
GDP?

(a) Insurance, real estate and business services


(b) Trade, hotels, and restaurants

SC

(c) Community, social, and personal services


(d) Construction

8. Consider the following statements about


unemployment:

1. Cyclical unemployment occurs when there


is not enough aggregate demand in the
economy to provide jobs for everyone who
wants to work.

GS

2. Frictional unemployment occurs when a


labour market is unable to provide jobs for
everyone who wants one because there is
a mismatch between the skills of workers
and skills needed for jobs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 & 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. "Comparative Rating Index for Sovereigns"


(CRIS), is a welcome development in the area
of economic ratings of the various countries as
it is believed to give a clear picture of the
economic state of affairs of the countries
concerned. Consider the following statements
in this context:
1. A nation that has travelled down the rating
ladder in absolute terms may, in
comparative terms, be better off because
others have done even worse.
IAS TEST SERIES 2014

3. The two factors on the basis of which CRIS


is constructed are Moody's foreign currency
credit ratings and the International
Monetary Fund's (IMF) GDP statistics, with
no purchasing power parity (PPP)
correction.
4. If a nation X's sovereign credit rating is
constant, and all other nations Moody's
ratings rise, then nation X's CRIS will rise.

OR

(a) Only 1

2. If nation X's absolute rating is unchanged,


but all other nations find their ratings rise,
then nation X's comparative rating would
go down; and an investor may well have
reason to consider pulling some of his
investment out of that nation.

6. Consider the following statements.

Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) All 1, 2, 3 & 4

(b) Only 2, 3 & 4

(c) Only 1, 2 & 3

(d) Only 1, 3 & 4

10. Consider the following statements about the


Balance Of Payments (BOP).
1. Balance of payments accounts are an
accounting record of all monetary
transactions between a country and the rest
of the world.
2. Balance of payments data is concerned
with actual payments made and received
by an economy.
3. Balance of payments also includes financial
claims on and liabilities to the rest of the
world and transfers such as gifts.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

11. Consider the following statements in the context


of instruments of Money Market Management:
1. A certificate of deposits is a time deposit,
commonly offered to consumers by banks,
thrift institutions, and credit unions and
which has a specific, fixed term usually,
and a fixed interest rate.
2. Commercial papers is a moneymarket
security issued (sold) by large corporations
to get money to meet short term debt
obligations, and is only backed by an
issuing bank or corporation's promise to
pay the face amount on the maturity date
specified on the note.

3. Treasury bills can be purchased by any one


(including individuals) except State govt.
which are issued by RBI and sold through
fortnightly or monthly auctions at varying
discount rate depending upon the bids.

2. In this system government or central bank


actively interferes in the foreign exchange
market by controlling supply and demand
of the currency.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(a) All 1, 2 & 3

(b) Only 1 & 2

(c) Both 1 & 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 2 & 3

(d) Only 1 & 3

1. When a government's total expenditures


exceed the revenue that it generates
including money from borrowings it is
called fiscal deficit.

12. Consider the following statements about the


Government debt.

15. Consider the following statements about Fiscal


Deficit.

OR

1. Government debt is one method of


financing government operations.
2. Government usually borrow by issuing
securities, government bonds and bills.

2. A large fiscal deficit leads to a weaker


national currency.

3. Government debt is an indirect debt of the


taxpayers.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(c) Both 1 & 2

Which of the above statements are correct?


(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

GS

13. The Central Statistics Office (CSO) of the


Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation (MOSPI) released the new
series of the IIP with 200405 as its new base in
2011, replacing the IIP series with 19934 as
base. Which of the following is/are true about
the new IIP?

1. Besides a more recent year as its base, the


new series has an enlarged and more
representative basket to better capture the
industrial structure.
2. The number of items from the mining sector
included in the IIP with 200405 base has
gone down while the number of items from
manufacturing sector and electricity has
increased from that of 199394.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 & 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Consider the following statements about the


linked exchange rate system.
1. A linked exchange rate system is a type of
exchange rate regime to link the exchange
rate of a currency to another.
4

16. Which of the following is true about inflation?

SC

(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. It is a measure of rise in the general price


level or equivalently average level of prices
of all the goods and services in an economy.
2. It is often viewed as a reduction in the
purchasing power of money and it does
not necessarily mean that the prices of all
the goods and services in an economy rise.
3. In an inflationary situation, the average
level of prices rise with some items showing
excessive rise while others may not follow
suit.
4. A macroeconomic policy measure mostly
used by the countries across the world, to
alleviate the adverse effects of inflation is
indexation.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 4
(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

17. Consider the following statements.


1. Current Account Deficit is a measurement
of a country's trade in which the value of
goods and services it imports exceeds the
value of goods and services it exports.
2. The current account also includes net
income, such as interest and dividends, as
well as transfers, such as foreign aid.
IAS TEST SERIES 2014

3. The current account is a calculation of a


country's foreign transactions, and along
with the capital account is a component of
a country's balance of payment.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 1 & 3

21. Consider the following statements about the


Engel curve.
1. It describes how household expenditure on
a particular good or service varies with
household income.
2. The shape of Engel curves depend only on
consumer characteristics.
3. For inferior goods, the Engel curve has a
negative gradient.

(c) Only 2 & 3


(d) All of the above

(b) Hotels and convention centres.


(c) Solid Waste Management

(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

22. Consider the following statements about Lorenz


curve.

OR

(a) Urban Public Transport

Which of the above statements are correct?

18. Recently the definition of infrastructure lending


has been extended by the Reserve Bank of India.
Which of the following sector has been included
in this?

1. It represents inequality of the wealth


distribution.
2. Lorenz curve always starts at (0, 0) and
ends at (1, 1).

(d) Terminal markets.


19. Consider the following statements.

SC

1. The Jan Sankhya Sthirta Kosh focus on


involving the civil society in responsible
parenthood strategy called 'Prerna'.

2. Prerna is a monetary incentive strategy


aimed at pushing up the age of marriage
of girls and delay the birth of the first child
in the interest of health of young mothers
and infants.

Select the correct code:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 & 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

23. Misery Index is defined as:


(1) Inflation plus rate of unemployment
(2) Sometimes also as inflation plus rate of
unemployment plus rate of interest.
(3) Inflation as measured by Consumer Price
Index only

4. The strategy can be implemented by NGOs


or community level organizations etc.

(4) Inflation as measured by Wholesale Price


Index only

GS

3. The beneficiaries of this scheme must


undergo sterilisaiton after the second child.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Select the correct code:

(a) Only 1 & 2

(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 4

(b) Only 3

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

(c) Only 4
(d) None of the above
20. Which of the following provides correct
definition of GNP deflator?
(a) The ratio of GNP at current prices to the
GNP at constant prices.
(b) GNP at current prices divided by Wholesale
Price Index.
(c) GNP of current year divided by GNP of
the previous year.
(d) None of the above.
IAS TEST SERIES 2014

24. Consider the following statements about the


Phillips curve.
1. It represents the relationships between
inflation and employment in an economy.
2. According to the Phillips curve, the lower
an economy's rate of unemployment, the
more rapidly wages paid to labour increase
in that economy.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1
(c) Both 1 & 2

(b) Only 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. Stagflation is a condition of slow economic


growth and relatively high unemployment
accompanied by a rise in prices, or inflation.
2. Stagflation can result from inappropriate
macroeconomic policies.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 & 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

29. The European Commission has proposed a


temporary ban on which of the following
vegetables and fruits?

OR

Which of the above statements are correct?


(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above

28. Consider the following statements about


Stagflation.

25. Consider the following statements about the


'Laffer Curve.
1. It shows the relationship between tax rates
and tax revenue collected by governments.
2. According to it, as taxes increase from low
levels, tax revenue collected by the
government also increases.
3. It also shows that tax rates increasing after
a certain point would cause people not to
work as hard or not at all, thereby reducing
tax revenue.

1. Mangoes
2. Eggplant
3. The taro plant
4. Bitter gourd
5. Bottle gourd

SC

26. Consider the following statements about the


Open Market Operations also known as OMO.
1. Open Market Operations include buying
and selling of government securities in the
open market.
2. Open market operations are the principal
tools of monetary policy.
3. Central government has the main
responsibility for implementing Open
market operations.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above

GS

27. Which of the following is/are true about


measurement of poverty in India?
1. Official estimates of poverty in India have
hitherto been made by the Planning
Commission on the basis of the
methodology that was recommended by the
Lakdawala Committee (1993).
2. The official poverty lines presently in use
are based on the per capita consumption
level, which in 197374, was associated
with a commodity bundle that yielded a
specified level of calories.
3. The original link with calories was broken
over time, mainly because consumption
patterns have changed since 197374.
4. With rising living standards and accelerated
growth, a purely calorie based norm is no
longer regarded as appropriate.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 4
(b) Only 1, 3 & 4
(c) Only 2 & 3
(d) All of the above
6

Select the correct code:

(a) Only 1, 2, 3 & 5


(b) Only 1, 2, 3 & 4
(c) Only 1, 3, 4 & 5
(d) All of the above

30. Consider the following statements in the context


of financial markets and intermediation:
1. Equity derivative is a derivative instrument
with underlying assets based on equity
securities whose value will fluctuate with
changes in its underlying asset's equity,
which is usually measured by share price.
2. Currency futures are contracts to buy or
sell a specific underlying currency at a
specific time and specific price in the future,
are standardized in terms of delivery date,
amount and contract terms.
3. Options Contract is a type of Derivatives
Contract which gives the buyer/holder of
the contract the right (but not the
obligation) to buy/sell the underlying asset
at a predetermined price within or at end
of a specified period.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) Only 1, 2 & 3


IAS TEST SERIES 2014

Which of the above statements are correct?


(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 2 & 3
(d) All of the above

37. Consider the top 5 economies with the highest


GDP per capita.
1. Qatar
2. Macao
3. Luxembourg
4. Kuwait
5. Brunei.

OR

32. Consider the following statements about Special


Drawing Rights (SDR).
1. SDRs also called paper gold are
international financing instrument created
by the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
2. SDR is backed by currency or precious
metal.

36. National Commodity & Derivatives Exchange


(NCDEX) on 31 March 2014 has launched the
future contract for which of the following
crops?
(a) Bajra
(b) Maize
(c) Wheat
(d) Barley

31. Consider the following statements about Follow


on Public Offer (FPO)?
1. It is an issuing of shares to investors by a
public company that is already listed on
an exchange.
2. Followon Public Offer is both dilutive and
Nondilutive types.
3. An FPO is essentially a stock issue of
supplementary shares.

SC

Which of the above statements is/are correct?


(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

GS

33. Which of the following is correct order (high to


low) of recipients of remittances for year 2013?
(a) India ChinaMexico Phillippines.
(b) India China Phillippines Mexico.
(c) ChinaIndia Mexico Philippines.
(d) IndiaPhilippines ChinaMexico.
34. Which of the following has been included in
the sensitive list of countries by the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI)?
(a) Hong Kong
(b) Singapore
(c) UAE
(d) Rwanda

Which among the following is the correct order?


(a) 1 4 3 2 5
(b) 3 1 2 4 5
(c) 1 2 3 4 5
(d) 3 4 1 2 5

38. Capital inflows can be classified by instrument


(debt or equity) and maturity (shortterm or
long term). Consider the following statements
in the same context:
1. Foreign investment comprising FDI and
portfolio investment represents nondebt
liabilities, while loans (external assistance,
ECBs, and trade credit) and banking capital
including NRI deposits are debt liabilities.
2. In India, portfolio is preferred over FDI
flows as the portfolio flows tend to be more
stable than FDI and other forms of capital
flows.
3. Rupeedenominated debt is preferred over
foreign currency debt while medium and
longterm debt is preferred over shortterm.

35. The NEER and REER indices are used as


indicators of external competitiveness of the
country over a period of time. Consider the
following statements in this context:
1. REER is the weighted average of bilateral
nominal exchange rates of the home
currency in terms of foreign currencies.
2. NEER is defined as a weighted average of
nominal exchange rates, adjusted for home
and foreign country relative price
differentials.

39. Consider the top four economies with highest


actual individual consumption per capita:
1. US
2. Bermuda
3. Cayman Islands
4. Hong Kong

Which of the above statements is/are correct?


(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Which among the following is the correct order?


(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 2 4 1 3

IAS TEST SERIES 2014

Which of the above statements is/are correct?


(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All 1, 2 & 3

40. Consider the following statements about the


roles and responsibilities of Bharat Bill Payment
System (BBPS) as suggested by the Umesh Bellur
headed GIRO Advisory Group.

3. BBPS shall act as the final dispute


resolution escalation point.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

44. Consider the following statements about the


Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs), a newly
created class for overseas investors.
1. FPIs will be allowed to invest only in listed
nonconvertible debentures or bonds issued
by governments in the infrastructure sector.
2. FPIs are barred from buying shortterm
government securities.

OR

(a) Only 1 & 2

Select the correct code:


(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. It will be a 'notforprofit organization'


registered under the Companies Act 1956.
2. It will be responsible for carrying out
payment, clearing and settlement of the
transactions carried out at various
BBPOUs

2. It has suggested establishing an


independent body for recommending
benchmark foreign exchange rate in order
to avoid any potential manipulation by the
bankers.

Select the correct code:


(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

45. The Lok Sabha in 2012 gave its approval for


the Companies Bill 2011, paving the way for a
new modern company law. The main proposals
for the amendment of the act include:
1. It brings in the concept of a 'One Man
Company' in India.
2. It includes a more extensive range of
activities possible online.
3. The Mandatory Rotation of Auditors every
five years.
4. Corporate Social Responsibility has been
made mandatory

SC

41. Consider the following statements about the


Bridge Loan.
1. It is a shortterm (usually less than a year)
loan taken to cover the period between the
expiry of one loan and the beginning of
another loan.

2. Bridge loan is arranged mostly to


accomplish a purchase before the borrower
gets payment from a sale.
3. Bridge loans are normally more cheaper
than normal financing,.
Which of the above statements are correct?

GS

(a) Only 1 & 2


(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

42. The cheap and dear money policy relate to


changes in
(a) REPO rate
(b) Bank rate
(c) Both REPO rate and reverse REPO rate
(d) Both REPO rate and Bank rate
43. Consider the following statements about the P.
Vijaya Bhaskar Committee's recommendations
relating to Financial Benchmarks.
1. It has suggested Indian money and
currency markets should move their
benchmarks towards transactionbased
from pollbased in an attempt to comb out
manipulation.
8

Select the correct code:


(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 3 & 4
(c) Only 1 & 4
(d) All of the above
46. Consider the following statements about the
Government bonds or dated securities.
1. These are long term Government securities
with original maturity of one year or more.
2. Government securities are issued via
"Auctions" conducted by the Reserve Bank
of India.
3. The Short term Government securities are
called Treasury bills with maturities of less
than one year.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above
IAS TEST SERIES 2014

51. Recently the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)


launched an Institutional Trading Platform (ITP)
to help Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs)
and startup companies. Which of the following
is correct in this context?
1. It will help Small and Medium Enterprises
(SMEs) and startup companies to list on
the bourses without an Initial Public Offer
(IPO).
2. It will facilitate capital raising by small and
medium enterprises.
3. It will provide easier entry and exit options
for investor's viz. angel investors, venture
capital funds, and private equity players.

OR

Which of the above statements are correct?


(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above

(b) Sovereign bonds are bonds floated by


sovereign countries which can be traded
as foreign exchange.
(c) Sovereign bonds are bonds floated by some
strong industrialized countries which are
bought by other countries and are
considered akin to foreign exchange
reserves.
(d) Sovereign bonds are bonds floated by
sovereign countries in any currency which
can be freely traded in the open market.

47. Consider the following statements about the


Indian Banks Base Rate (IBBR) suggested by
RBI panel headed by Anand Sinha.
1. It is a fresh benchmark for floating interest
rate products.
2. In the beginning, IBBR may be used for
home loans.
3. It will be compared and released by RBI on
a periodical basis.

SC

48. Consider the following statements about Ways


and Means Advances (WMA).
1. RBI provides Ways and Means Advances
(WMA) to the States in order to assist them
to overcome the temporary mismatches in
the cash flow of their receipts and
payments.
2. Time Period of WMA facility is maximum
90 days.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

GS

49. Consider the following statements about the


new corporate governance norms approved by
SEBI.
1. It has restricted independent directors to
serve as directors on a maximum of 7 listed
companies.
2. If a person is a whole time director in a
listed company then also he can serve on
seven boards.
3. There should be at least one woman director
on the Board of the company.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 2 & 3
(d) All of the above
50. What are sovereign bonds?
(a) Sovereign bonds are bonds held by
sovereign countries which can be traded
as foreign exchange.
IAS TEST SERIES 2014

Which of the above statements are correct?


(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 2 & 3
(d) All of the above
52. Consider the following statements about
Financial Action Task Force (FATF).
1. It is a Parisbased multidisciplinary and
intergovernmental body whose purpose is
the development and promotion of national
and international policies to combat money
laundering and terrorist financing.
2. It was founded at the 1989 OECD
Economic Summit.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
53. Non convertible debentures are:
(a) Debt instruments which acquire equity
status only at the investors' option.
(b) Debt instruments which acquire equity
status only with the permission of Registrar
of Companies.
(c) Debt instruments which acquire equity
status only on maturity.
(d) Debt instruments which retain their debt
character and cannot acquire equity status.

1. Non performing asset (NPA) is a loan or


an advance where Interest and/ or
installment of principal remain overdue for
a period of more than a year in respect of
a term loan.
2. It is a loan or an advance where the
account remains 'out of order' in respect of
an Overdraft/Cash Credit.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 & 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

OR

(a) Only 1

57. Which of the following is not true about services


sector?
(a) National Accounts classification of the
services sector incorporates trade, hotels,
and restaurants; transport, storage, and
communication; financing, insurance, real
estate, and business services; and
community, social, and personal services.
(b) Construction sector is not included in
service sector category in the National
Accounts classification.
(c) Only Pucca construction is included in
service sector category in the National
Accounts classification.
(d) In World Trade Organization (WTO) and
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) classifications,
construction is also included.

54. As per RBI guidelines, which of the following


is covered under Nonperforming Assets (NPA)?

55. The Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY)?

1. To incentivize the states so as to increase


public investment in Agriculture and allied
sectors.

SC

2. To provide flexibility and autonomy to


states is in the process of planning and
executing Agriculture and allied sector
schemes.

58. Consider the following statements


1. The components of GDI includes female live
expectancy, female adult literacy and gross
enrolment ratio as well as female per capita
income.
2. The greater the difference between HDI and
GDI the greater is the gender equality.

3. To ensure the preparation of agriculture


plans for the districts and the states based
on agroclimatic conditions availability of
technology and natural resources.

GS

4. To achieve the goal of maximizing the yield


gaps in important crops, through focused
interventions.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1, 2 & 3

(b) Only 1, 3 & 4

(c) Only 2, 3 & 4

(d) Only 1, 2 & 4

56. As per their risk profiles, Foreign Portfolio


Investors (FPIs) are divided into three categories.
Consider the following statements in this
context..
1. Foreign government and government
related foreign investors have been included
in categoryI which has lowest risk.
2. Qualified Foreign Investors (QFIs) has been
included in categoryIII.

10

Which of the above statements are incorrect?


(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

59. The Indian President has recently launched


Rupay, India's own card payment network.
Consider the following statements related to it.
1. The new payment network has been
developed by the National Payments
Corporation of India (NPCI),
a not for
profit company envisioned by the RBI.
2. It covers all the Automated Teller Machines
(ATMs) and most of the retail and e
commerce platform.
3. This scheme provides flexibility to card
issuing banks to issue special purpose cards
like kisan cards, milk procurement cards
etc.
4. The system is expected to increase the
dependence on cash and cheque modes of
settlements within the country.

Select the correct code:

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(a) Only 1, 3 & 4

(b) Only 1, 2 & 3

(c) Both 1 & 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 2, 3 & 4

(d) All of the above


IAS TEST SERIES 2014

1. The NPS was opened up for all citizens in


India to join on a voluntary basis.
2. Swavalamban Scheme is a cocontributory
pension scheme whereby the central
government would contribute a sum of
Rs.1,000 per annum in each NPS account
opened having a saving of Rs. 1,000 to
Rs.12,000 per annum.

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

61. Consider the following statements about the


objectives and strategies of the 12th Five Year
Plans.

GS

SC

1. Its strategy for growth depends crucially


on productivity gains as one of the key
drivers of growth.
2. Development cannot take place without
additional energy and the energy
requirement of development will have to
be reconciled with the objective of
protection of environment.
3. Eliminate gender and social gap in school
enrolment and between SCs, STs, Muslims
and the rest of the population by the end
of the plan.
4. To connect all villages with all weather
roads by the end of the Twelfth Plan.
5. To complete eastern and western Dedicated
Freight corridors by the end of the plan.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(a) Only 1, 2 & 3
(b) Only 2, 3 & 4
(c) Only 3, 4 & 5
(d) None of the above
62. The UN Conference on Sustainable
Development (UNCSD) or Earth summit 2012,
was the third international conference on
sustainable development aimed at reconciling
the economic and environmental goals of the
global community. The conference's objectives
include:
IAS TEST SERIES 2014

2. assessing the progress and implementation


gaps in meeting the previous commitments.
3. addressing new and emerging challenges.
4. they also agreed on Long term Cooperative
Action LCA.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1, 2 & 3
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 3 & 4

(d) All of the above

OR

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. securing renewed political commitment for


sustainable development.

60. The Government is extremely concerned about


the old age income security of the working poor
and is focused on encouraging and enabling
them to join the NPS. Consider the following
statements in the context of NPS:

63. Consider the following statements.


1. High levels of lead primarily from vehicle
emission have been identified as the greatest
environmental damage in a number of large
cities in the developing world.
2. High levels in adults are linked with
hindered neurological development
including lower IQ and agility.
3. In children, the consequence include risks
of higher blood pressure and higher risks
of heart attacks, strokes and death.
Which of the above statement are incorrect?
(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) None of the above

64. Consider the following statement about the


recent study of WHO.
1. The national capital has the highest
concentration of particulate matters less
than 2.5 microns form of air pollution which
is considered most serious.
2. This form of concentration consists of tiny
particles that put people at additional risk
of respiratory diseases and other health
problems.
3. Many factors contribute to this increase
including reliance on nuclear power.
Which of the above statement are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above

11

65. The RBI has recently issued the guidelines to


allow the minors of age above 10 years to
independently open and operate saving bank
accounts and use other facilities like ATM and
cheque books. Indentify the incorrect statement.

(b) The banks can also decide on the minimum


documents which are required for opening
of accounts by minors.

69. Consider the following objectives of the National


Program For the Health care of the ELDERLY
(NPHCE) in India.
1. To provide an easy access to promotional,
preventive, curative and rehabilitative
services through community based primary
healthcare (PHC) approach
2. To identify health problems in the elderly
and
provide
appropriate
health
interventions in the community with a
strong referral backup support
3. To build capacity of the medical and
paramedical professionals as well as the
caretakers within the family for providing
healthcare to the senior citizen
4. To provide referral services to the elderly
patients through district hospital regional
medical institutions
5. Convergence with National Rural Health
Mission (NRHM), Ayush and other line
departments like Ministry of Social Justice
and Empowerment.

OR

(c) Banks with prior permission of RBI can also


offer additional banking facilities like
internet banking subject the safeguards that
minor accounts are not allowed to be
overdrawn and that these always remain
in credit.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?


(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(a) All minors can now open a saving/fixed/


recurring bank deposit account through
either his/her natural guardian or legally
appointed guardian.

2. Reserve money includes the deposits with


RBI also.

SC

(d) On attaining majority, the minor would be


required to confirm the balance in his/her
account.
66. Consider the following statements.

1. Agreement on Agriculture is a multilateral


trade negotiation under the aegis of World
Bank.

2. The agreement is concerned with reduction


in subsidies given by different countries to
their agricultural sector.

GS

Which of the above statements is/are correct?


(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 & 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

67. Consider the following statements about the


concept of money supply calculated by RBI:
1. M1 includes currency with public as well
as deposits (time and demand) with the
banks.
2. M3 which also includes post office deposits
is known as broad money.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 & 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

68. Consider the following statements.


1. RBI deposits consists of bank's deposits with
RBI as well as deposits of some individual
people.
12

Which of the above statements are correct?


(a) Only 1, 2, 3 & 4 (b) Only 2, 3, 4 & 5
(c) Only 1, 3 & 5
(d) All of the above

70. Recently Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued the


final guidelines for licensing of new private
sector banks. Consider the following statements
and choose the correct options
1. Entities both from private and public sector
shall be eligible to set up a bank through a
whollyowned nonoperative financial
holding company (NOFHC).
2. The NOFHC will be registered as a non
banking finance company with the RBI.
3. The new banks must meet the criteria of
having 50% of its branches in unbanked
rural areas with population upto 9,999.
4. New bank should achieve priority sector
lending target of 40%.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1, 2 & 4
(b) Only 1, 2 & 3
(c) Only 2, 3 & 4
(d) All of the above
IAS TEST SERIES 2014

1. The QFIs would be individuals, groups or


associations residing in a foreign country
that is compliant with the Financial Action
Task Force (FATF) and that is a signatory
to The International Organisation of
Securities
Commissions's
(IOSCO)
multilateral MoU.
2. The RBI would grant general permission to
the QFIs to invest in the Portfolio Investment
Scheme (PIS) route similar to FIIs.

OR

3. The individual and aggregate investment


limit for QFIs shall be 25 per cent and 50
per cent respectively of the paidup capital
of an Indian company.

74. Which one of the following statements is correct


with reference to FEMA in India?
(a) The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
(FERA) was replaced by Foreign Exchange
Management Act in the year 2001.
(b) FERA was given as unset clause of one year
till 31st May, 2002 to enable Enforcement
Directorate to complete the investigation of
pending issues.
(c) Under FEMA, violation of foreign exchange
rules has ceased to be a criminal offence.
(d) As per the new dispensation, Enforcement
Directorate can arrest and prosecute the
people for the violation of foreign exchange
rules.

71. Consider the following statements.

SC

4. The QFIs shall be allowed to invest through


the SEBIregistered Qualified Depository
Participant (DP), with the QFI required to
open only one demat account and a trading
account with any of the qualified DP and
make purchase and sale of equities through
that DP only.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1, 2 & 3
(b) Only 1, 2 & 4
(c) Only 3 & 4

GS

(d) All 1, 2, 3 & 4

72. Managed currency is said to be the


(a) Currency, the exchange rate of which can
be managed easily.
(b) Currency, the intrinsic value of which can
be managed by increasing or decreasing its
supply.
(c) The government of the country intervenes
in some way or the other to influence the
prevailing rate of exchange.
(d) Quota of currency to be managed by the
Central Bank at times of deflation.
73. Out of the following groups, with which group
India's trade is maximum?
(a) OECD
(b) OPEC

75. Consider the following statements about the


Cooperative Banks in India.
1. They are required to assist the weaker
sections and agricultural sector.
2. They are organized under the state
government's laws.
3. They have access to liberal financial
assistance from NABARD
4. They are organized in a tiered structure.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 3 & 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2 & 4 are correct
(c) 1 & 3 are correct
(d) All of the above are correct
76. The Net Asset Value (NAV) of the units of a
mutual fund serves as:
(a) Market price of the unit
(b) Value of assets of the mutual fund
(c) Face value of the unit
(d) Price at which the units are offered to public
through NFO.
77. Which of the following facts can effect the value
of sensex?
1. GDP growth rate
2. Foreign investment
3. Political stability
4. Literacy rate

(c) Eastern Europe

Select the correct code:


(a) Only 1, 2 & 4
(b) Only 1, 2 & 3

(d) Developing Countries

(c) All of the above

IAS TEST SERIES 2014

(d) None of the above

13

78. Which of the following organisation facilitate


demat trading in the stock exchanges?
1. National Securities Depository Limited
2. National Informatics Centre

2. Cheque book and ATM facilities are not


provided in nofrill savings account scheme.
3. Nofrill savings account scheme is provided
by public sector banks in rural areas only.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Select the correct code:


(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 2

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) Only 2 & 3

83. Consider the following statements related to


Basel III norms and select the correct answer:
1. Basel III is a set of reform measures,
developed by the Basel Committee to
strengthen the regulation, supervision and
risk management of the banking sector.

OR

79. The Phillip's curve is the schedule showing the


relationship between:
(a) aggregate supply and demand
(b) total savings and investment
(c) the rate of unemployment and rate of
inflation
(d) demand for and supply of loanable funds

(a) Only 1

3. Banks will be required to hold a capital


conservation buffer of 2.5%.

SC

80. The index of a stock exchange measures the


change in:
(a) Size and performance of the selected
companies.
(b) Share prices of all the companies listed in
the stock exchange.
(c) Value of real assets of the selected
companies.
(d) Market capitalization of the selected
companies.

2. The highest form of lossabsorbing capital


known as common equity has been raised
under Basel III from 2% to 4.5% of total
riskweighted assets.

GS

81. Which of the following statements define the


difference between NEFT and RTGS?
1. NEFT facilitate transfer of funds from bank
branch to other bank branch of the same
bank whereas RTGS allows transfer of
funds from one branch to any other bank
branch.
2. NEFT allows transfer of funds of individuals
only whereas RTGS allows transfer of funds
of individuals, firms and corporate.
3. The minimum amount to be remitted
through RTGS is '2 lakh' whereas there is
no minimum amount in NEFT.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 1 & 3

82. Consider the following statements related to no


frill savings account scheme launched by RBI:
1. Nofrills savings account enables excluded
people to open a savings account thus lead
to financial inclusion.
14

4. Deadline for implementation of Basel III in


India is 2016.

Select the correct code:


(a) Only 1, 2 & 3

(b) Only 2, 3 & 4

(c) Only 1, 3 & 4

(d) All of the above

84. Consider the following statements:


1. Current accounts deposits are payable on
demand but can be drawn upon by cheque
without any restriction.
2. Fixed Account Deposits are not payable on
demand and do not enjoy cheque facilities.
3. Savings Accounts Deposits are payable on
demand and also withdrawable by cheque,
but with certain restrictions on the number
of cheques issued in a period of time.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

85. Consider the following statements related to


concept of Non Resident Indian and select the
correct answer:
1. It is an economic concept and refers only
to the tax status of an person who has not
resided in India for a specified period for
the purposes of the Income Tax Act.
IAS TEST SERIES 2014

3. NRI are the citizens of India but their


economic interest lies in other countries.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

Select the correct code:


(a) Only 1 & 3
(b) Only 1 & 2
(c) Only 1, 2 & 4
(d) All of the above
89. Consider the following statements related to
13th finance commission recommendations and
select the correct answer:
1. The share of states in net proceeds of
shareable central taxes shall be 32 per cent
in each of the financial years from 201011
to 201415.
2. Local bodies should be transferred 2.28%
of the divisible pool of taxes.
3. State taxes should be divided between states
and local bodies.

OR

86. Consider the following statements related to


"merit and demerit" goods provided by
government?

3. Divestment of equity holding in public sector


enterprises Revenue Account
4. Market loans raised by the government
Capital Account

2. For the purposes of the Incometax Act,


"residence in India" requires stay in India
of at least 182 days in a calendar year or
365 days spread out over four consecutive
years.

1. Merit goods are goods that would be


provided in a free market system, but would
almost certainly be underprovided.
2. Demerit goods are goods whose cost fall
on people other than those consuming the
goods.

SC

3. Example of merit and demerit goods


include:
education and cigarette
respectively.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 3

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 2

(d) All of the above

GS

87. Consider the following statement about


Consolidated Fund of India:
1. The Consolidated Fund of India has been
established under Article 267 (1) of the
Constitution.
2. All revenues received by the Government
by way of taxes nonTax Revenues are
credited into the Consolidated Fund.
3. The fund is held on behalf of President by
the Cabinet Secretary.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

88. Which of the following are correctly matched?


1. Different proceeds of taxes levied by the
government Revenue Account
2. Government borrowings from the Reserve
Bank and treasury bills Capital Account
IAS TEST SERIES 2014

Select the correct code:


(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above

90. In which of the following ways the Government


could provide/redesign fiscal incentives for
R&D activities in the country?
1. Government should provide Tax incentives
instead of tax credit.
2. There should be Credit on inputs/capital
goods used for R&D outside the factory
premises.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
91. A strong intellectual property regime is a
prerequisite for creation of global IP from India.
It has also become a requirement under WTO.
Which of the following steps need to be taken
in this context?
1. Improve IP management and protection
mechanisms.
2. Develop global information database on IPs
accorded.
3. Strengthen and modernise the process of
patent examination and according patents.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

15

92. Indian capital goods industry is facing severe


competition from Chinese companies over the
last few years. The major factors responsible
for increasing Chinese competitiveness are?
1. Artificially appreciated Chinese currency.
2. Much lower interest rates.
3. Simpler labour laws.
4. Tax advantages and subsidies given by the
Government.

95. Policy interventions for MSMEs must be tailored


to their conditions. Government policies for
MSMEs should therefore help them improve
their technological capabilities by focusing on
which of the following steps.
1. Providing access to risk capital.
2. Improving Industry/research institute/
academia interaction, mostly in clusters
3. Stimulating demand/providing scale
through similar treatment in government
purchases.

(b) Only 2, 3 & 4

(c) Only 1, 3 & 4

(d) All of the above

Select the correct code:


(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above

OR

(a) Only 1, 2 & 3

Which of the above statements are correct?

93. The present business regulatory environment is


seriously deficient for various reasons. Which
of the following are correct in this context?
1. Lack of coherence in business regulatory
governance across country.

SC

2. Absence of national repository of business


regulations.
3. Ambiguous nature and vast scope of
business regulations.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3

GS

(d) All of the above

94. Which of the following are the key challenges


identified in 12th five year plan faced by Indian
industries?
1. Many segments of the industry, especially
MSMEs, have limited information and
access to risk capital for sourcing/
developing and internalizing new
technologies.
2. Absence of national agenda and policy
framework to support innovation.
3. The Indian Industry has not given sufficient
importance to the documentation of
knowledge and creation of IP.
Select the correct code:

16

96. Consider the following statements about 'Value


Added Tax VAT'.
1. VAT is a type of consumption tax.
2. The amount of valueadded tax that the
user pays is the cost of the product, less
any of the costs of materials used in the
product that have already been taxed.

(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

Which of the above statements is/are correct?


(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

97. Consider the following statements about


Minimum Alternate Tax.
1. The concept of MAT was introduced under
the Income Tax Act.
2. The intent to introduce MAT was to ensure
that no tax payer with substantial income
can avoid tax liability.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
98. Which of the following features about the Right
of Children to Free and Compulsory Education
Act (RTE Act) are correct?
1. Every child of the age 614 years shall have
a right to free and compulsory education
in a neighbourhood school till the
completion of elementary & secondary
education.
IAS TEST SERIES 2014

2. The appropriate government and the local


authority shall establish within such area
or limits of neighbourhood three years.
3. If shall be the duty of every guardian or
parent to admit or cause to be admitted to
his or her child or ward to an elementary
and secondary education in the
neighbourhood school.
4. No teacher shall engage himself or herself
in private tuition or private teaching
activity.
5. No school or person shall while admitting
a child, collect any capitation fee and
subject the child or his or her parent or
guardian to any screening procedure.

plan envisaged development of labour


intensive industries as there was deficiency
of capital in India.
4. MontekManmohan Strategy of Industrial
development adopted in the 1991 industrial
policy was based on the pillars of
liberalization,
privatization
and
globalization, but it departed from
trickledown theory of the Mahalanobis
strategy.

OR

Select the correct code:


(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 4
(d) Both 3 & 4

Select the correct code:


(a) Only 1, 2 & 3
(b) Only 3, 4 & 5
(c) Only 2, 4 & 5
(d) All of the above

GS

SC

99. Which of the following is true about Industrial


Policy resolutions of India since independence?
1. The Industrial Policy Resolution 1948 was
the first such resolution after India's
independence.
2. The Industrial Policy Resolution 1948
recognized the need for mixed economy,
i.e. need for combined participation of the
public
and
private
sectors
for
industrialization of India.
3. The Mahalanobis strategy of industrial
growth adopted in the Second five year

100. Select the correct facts about the contribution


of services sector in GDP.
1. Countries like the UK, USA, and France
have the highest share of services in GDP
at above 78 per cent.
2. India's share of 57 per cent is much below
than that of China at 71.8 per cent.
3. India is the topmost country in terms of
increase in its services share in GDP (7
percentage points) followed by Spain and
Canada (5.3 percentage points each)
4. None of the above
Select the correct code:
(a) Both 1 & 3
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 1
(d) Only 4

IAS TEST SERIES 2014

17

E
OR
SC
GS
18

IAS TEST SERIES 2014