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THE NATIONAL EXAMINATION BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH

NATIONAL GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH


PAPER A2: THE MANAGEMENT OF SAFETY AND HEALTH
Answer ALL questions

MARCH 2002
Time Allowed: 2 hours

Section 1
This section contains ONE question. You are advised to spend approximately HALF AN HOUR on it.
The maximum marks for each part of the question are shown in brackets.
Question 1
A production manager intends to implement a programme of regular workplace inspections.
(i) Outline the factors that should be considered when planning the inspection programme. (6)
(ii) State the main health and safety issues that might be included on the inspection checklist. (8)
(iii) Other than inspections, outline THREE proactive methods of monitoring health and safety
performance. (6)
In answering part (i) of the question, many candidates did not pay sufficient attention to the word "planning"
and instead outlined the health and safety issues that might be included in an inspection checklist, thereby
unknowingly anticipating the expected response to part (ii). Candidates were expected to refer to factors such
as:

the composition of the inspection team,


the specific areas of the workplace to be inspected,
the frequency and timings of the inspections,
the possible need to provide personal protective equipment to the inspection team,
the preparation of checklists,
consulting previous inspection reports
researching applicable legislation and standards,
deciding on procedures to be followed after the inspection to ensure appropriate remedial action is taken.

Candidates who had mistakenly provided what should have been a response to part (ii) in the first part of the
question seemed a little thrown by part (ii). The need to read the entire question before tackling individual
parts is emphasised. Others, however, provided some good responses and included such issues as:

machinery safety,
the storage and use of hazardous substances,
fire prevention and the procedures to be followed in the event of an emergency
ergonomic issues,
electricity,
housekeeping,
welfare provision,
observation of workers' behaviour
the work environment.

Unfortunately, a similar level of competence was not demonstrated in answers to part (iii), revealing an
inability to differentiate between proactive and reactive methods of monitoring. Some candidates volunteered

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methods such as 'training' and 'accident investigation' even though these are not methods of monitoring at all.
Relatively few candidates were able to identify and expand as required on methods such as:

audits,
safety surveys,
sampling, tours,
benchmarking,
health surveillance
environmental monitoring.

Question 2
Name and describe FOUR classes of safety sign under the Health and Safety (Safety Signs and Signals)
Regulations 1996. (8)
This was a straightforward question designed to test candidates' knowledge of the different classes of safety
sign. Most responded well, indicating that they had a good grasp of this part of the syllabus, by naming and
describing four classes from the list of five given in Schedule 1 (Part 11) of the Regulations specified. These
are:

prohibitory,
warning,
mandatory,
emergency escape or first-aid,
fire fighting.

For a description, candidates were expected to identify both shape and colours (background, foreground and,
where appropriate, borders) of each class of sign.
Question 3
(a) Define the term 'negligence'

(2)

(b) Outline the THREE standard conditions that must be met for an employee to prove a case of
negligence against an employer. (6)
For part (a), many candidates found it difficult to provide a complete definition of the legal term negligence',
which can be described as a civil wrong (tort) involving unreasonably careless conduct or a breach of the
common law duty of care, resulting in loss, damage or injury.
In answering part (b), most candidates provided satisfactory answers that identified the standard conditions for
an employee to prove a case of alleged negligence. These are:
firstly, that a duty of care was owed by the employer (i.e. that the employee was acting in the course of
his/her employment);
secondly, that the employer acted in breach of that duty by not doing everything that was reasonable to
prevent the harm;
thirdly, that the breach led directly to the loss, damage or injury.
Better candidates were able to support their answers with examples and, in many cases, by reference to
reasonableness and foreseeability.
Some candidates obtained very good marks for their answers to this question, showing that they had studied
and clearly understood the basic legal concepts involved.

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Question 4
(a) Identify the key stages of a workplace risk assessment

(5)

(b) Outline THREE circumstances that might require a risk assessment to be reviewed.
(3)
Those candidates who were familiar with the risk assessment process provided good answers to part (a) by
making reference to:

the identification of hazards;


the identification of all persons at risk;
an evaluation of risks arising from the hazards (in terms of likelihood and likely severity of harm);
a review of the existing precautions;
setting out proposals for methods to eliminate or control the risks;
making a record of the findings of the assessment;
setting a timescale for its review.

Some candidates who were evidently less familiar with the key stages of the risk assessment process confused
hazard and risk. Others were content to concentrate solely on the identification of hazards andlor the hierarchy
of control measures.
Part (b) was generally better answered, with most candidates identifying that a risk assessment may require
reviewing if there is:
a change in the nature or method of work,
if new plant is introduced or existing plant modified
following an accident.
Fewer candidates referred to the necessity for a review:
if there is a change in the legislation,
if improved control methods become available or even after a lapse of time.
Question 5
Outline the personal factors that might place an individual at a greater risk of harm while at work.
(8)
Factors that may place an individual at greater risk of harm at work include:

a generally poor attitude to work, authority andlor risk often coupled with low motivation;
issues relating to physical capabilities or development (such as lack of stature, strength andlor stamina)
mental capabilities (such as poor reasoning skills);
poor perception of risk, perhaps influenced by alcohol or drugs;
age-related behavioural factors associated with immaturity;
innate or medical conditions affecting physical or mental capacity.

Further factors relate to the levels of training and experience of the individual.
Answers to this question were generally to a reasonable standard although some candidates were a little
confused and included factors other than those that could be related to the person, as signified by the word
'personal'.

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Question 6
Outline the factors that should be taken into account when planning traffic routes for internal transport.
(8)
Marks were awarded to those who outlined factors such as:

the purpose of the routes,


the types of vehicle using the routes,
the likely volume of traffic,
the layout of the area,
the possible need for one-way systems,
speed limits,
markings,
crossing points and signs,
the importance of separating pedestrians and vehicles possibly by the use of physical barriers.

Better candidates additionally considered:


the suitability of floors
environmental issues such as lighting levels and ventilation when diesel-powered transport is to be used
inside a building.
This question was concerned with the planning of the traffic routes themselves and therefore marks were not
available for identifying factors relating to safe practices when vehicles and pedestrians operate in the same
area -such as high visibility jackets, driver training and the use of audible or visual signals.
Question 7
(a)

Explain the meaning of the term 'safe system of work'

(2)

(b) Describe the enforcement action that could be taken by an enforcing authority when a safe system of
work has not been implemented. (6)
Few candidates achieved full marks for part (a) of this question and there appeared to be a general lack of
understanding of the term 'safe system of work'. Examiners were looking either for an explanation:
that pointed to a step-by-step procedure - taking into account hazards, controls, essential equipment,
personal protective equipment and training
or for one based on the integration of people, equipment, materials and the environment to produce an
acceptable level of safety.
Part (b), on the other hand, was answered adequately by many candidates, who referred to the issue of:
an improvement notice when a breach of a statutory requirement has been identified - allowing safety to be
improved within a given time period
a prohibition notice when there is a risk of serious personal injury, which prohibits the use of equipment or
a process until the necessary improvements in safety have been completed.
Depending on the circumstances, the enforcing authority could instigate a prosecution for breaches of health
and safety legislation in a magistrates' court or, in serious cases, the Crown Court (or their equivalents in the
UK regions).
Alternatively, the authority might decide that the circumstances demand no more than the provision of verbal
advice, possibly followed by formal written confirmation or warning.
A few candidates wasted time by going further than the question demanded -for instance, by detailing the
powers of enforcement officers or by describing at length the various appeals procedures open to the employer.
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Question 8
Outline the topics that may typically be included on the agenda of a safety committee meeting.

(8)

This question produced a mixed response from candidates. Those who thought carefully about the role of a
safety committee were able to identify and outline those topics that should appear on the
agenda. These may include, for instance,

a review of recent incidents,


a review of proactive monitoring strategies such as safety inspections and audits,
reports following visits by enforcement authorities,
the effects on the company of new or impending health and safety legislation
possible amendments to the company's health and safety policy and risk assessments,
the extent and effectiveness of any health and safety training given to employees,
the introduction of new equipment and processes.

Better candidates identified that the safety committee is the place for health and safety concerns of employees
to be raised by their representatives, as well as for management to raise its concerns about poor safety
practices.
A number of candidates spent far too much time detailing the administrative items to be included on an agenda,
such as welcomes, previous minutes and dates of future meetings. Although these do form part of any agenda,
they do not really satisfy the description of 'topics' and therefore did not form an important part of the answer.
Question 9
(a) Identify FOUR reasons why accidents should be reported and recorded within a workplace.
(b) Outline factors that might discourage employees from reporting workplace accidents.

(4)

(4)

For part (a), most candidates identified that accidents should be reported and recorded in order to:

comply with legislative requirements,


to enable an accident investigation to take place (with the aim of preventing accidents of a similar type)
to identify accident trends from later statistical analysis
identifying that accident reporting and recording can also lead to a useful review of risk assessments and
can assist in the consideration of any civil claims that may arise.

In answering part (b), Examiners were looking to candidates to outline factors such as.

ignorance of the reporting procedures,


the possibility of retribution (particularly within a 'blame culture'),
peer pressure,
a previous lack of management response
an aversion to form filling
a reluctance to lose time from the job in hand,
the trivial nature of any injury sustained
a desire to preserve the company's, the department's or the individual's personal safety record, particularly
where bonus payments are affected by it.

The majority of candidates produced good answers to both parts of the question, partly because of the wide
range of possible issues but also because this area of the syllabus does appear to have been well covered by
course providers.
Question 10
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Outline the cheeks that could be made in assessing the health and safety competence of a contractor.
(8)
In practice, the amount of time and effort in assessing the health and safety competence of contractors will
vary according to;
the time that they are to be on site,
the extent of the work they are undertaking
the risks involved.
However, candidates should have outlined at least the need to check such issues as:

the experience and training of the workforce;


the previous experience and reputation of the company;
arrangements they have in place for implementing their own safety policy and systems of work;
their accident record;
information on whether the contractor has been the subject of enforcement action by the relevant
enforcement authority.

Although there was quite a variation in the standard of answers that were submitted, the response was
encouraging. The need to vet contractors before they are appointed is becoming much more widely appreciated
and many organisations now appoint only from a list of approved contractors that have been through such a
process.
Question 11
Replacement or repair of damaged plant and equipment is a cost that an organisation may face following
a workplace accident.
List EIGHT other possible costs to the organisation following a workplace accident. (8)
There were many possible responses to this question and candidates could have chosen from a list of costs
including those associated with:

lost production,
damage to materials,
first-aid,
investigation
remedial action,
additional administration incurred,
replacement staff,
an increase in insurance premiums,
fines, damages and legal representation
a loss of business image or a possible detrimental effect on employee morale resulting in reduced
productivity.

The question was generally answered well and, since only a list was required, it presented an opportunity for
candidates to gain marks relatively quickly. Most took advantage of this opportunity.

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