KCET PHYSICS 2015

VERSION CODE: A 2
1.

The circuit has two oppositely connected ideal diodes in parallel. What is the current flowing
2
in the circuit?
D2
3
D1

+
4

(1) 2.31 A
(2) 1.71 A
Ans: (2)
12
12
E
I=
=
=
= 1.71 A
RS
4+ 3
7

12 V

(3) 1.33 A

(4) 2.0 A

[D2 reverse biased No conduction]

2.
Amplitude modulation has
(1) one carrier with infinite frequencies
(2) one carrier with two side band frequencies
(3) one carrier with high frequency
(4) one carrier
Ans: (2)
c, c m
3.
An LED is constructed from a pn junction based on a certain semi-conducting material whose
energy gap is 1.9 eV. Then the wavelength of the emitted light is
(1) 6.5 x 107 m
(2) 2.9 x 10-9 m
(3) 9.1 x 10-5 m
(4) 1.6 x 10-8 m
Ans: (1)
1240 eVnm
hc
hc
Eg =
=
=
650 nm
Eg

1.9
4.

The waves used for line-of-sight (LOS communication) is

(1) sound waves
(2) ground waves
(3) sky waves
Ans: (4)
5.
The given truth table is for
Input

(4) space waves

Output

(1) NAND gate

Ans: (1)

(2) AND gate

(3) NOR gate

(4) OR gate


6.

The input characteristics of a transistor in CE mode is the graph obtained by plotting

(1) IB against IC at constant VCE
(2) IB against VBE at constant VCE
(3) IB against IC at constant VBE
(4) IB against VCE at constant VBE
Ans: (2)
7.
A particle is projected with a velocity v so that its horizontal range twice the greatest height
attained. The horizontal range is
(1)

4 v2
5g

v2
g

(2)

(3)

v2
2g

(4)

2 v2
3g

Ans: (1)
R=

V 2 sin 2
V 2 sin
=2x
g
2g

2 sin cos = sin2

tan = 2
2
sin =
5
R=
R=

cos =

1
5

x sin
2
1
2 sin cos
2
= V2 x
= V2 x
x
x
g
g
g
5
5

4V2
5g

The velocity time graph for two bodies A and B are shown. Then the acceleration of A and
B are in the ratio
B

Velocity

8.

40o
25o
Time

(2) tan 25o to tan 40o

(4) tan 25o to tan 50o

Velocity

(1) sin 25o to sin 50o

(3) cos 25o to cos 50o
Ans: (4)
a = slope of VT graph = tan
tan 25
a=
tan 50

B
A
o

50 o
25
Time

9.

The ratio of the dimensions of Planck constant and that of moment of inertia has the
dimensions of
(1) angular momentum (2) time
(3) velocity
(4) frequency
Ans: (4)
nh
mvr
h
v
=
=
=f
= L = mvr
2
I
r
2
mr
Dimensions of h = dimensions of L


10. Moment of Inertia of a thin uniform rod rotating about the perpendicular axis passing
through its centre is I. If the same rod is bent into a ring and its moment of inertia about its
diameter is I, then the ratio
(1) 2/3 2
Ans: (1)

I
is
I'

(2) 3/2 2

For a thin rod, I =

2
I
L2
L2
=
x 2 =
I'
12
R
6R2
L2
2

6xL

x 42 =

(4) 8/3 2

ML2
12

For a ring, about diameter, I =

(3) 5/3 2

MR 2
2

L
L = 2 R R = 2

2 2

11. If the mass of a body is M on the surface of the earth, the mass of the same body on the
surface of the moon is
(1) 6 M
(2) M/6
(3) Zero
(4) M
Ans: (4)
Mass remains same.
12. The ratio of angular speed of a second-hand to the hour-hand of a watch is
(1) 3600 : 1
(2) 720 : 1
(3) 72 : 1
(4) 60 : 1
Ans: (2)
2
1 =
(T = 60 sec)
60
2
2 =
(T = 12 hr)
12 x 60 x 60
1
720
= 12 x 60 =
2
1

13. The kinetic energy of a body of mass 4 kg and momentum 6 Ns will be

(1) 4.5 J
(2) 2.5 J
(3) 5.5 J
(4) 3.5 J
Ans: (1)
K=

36
p2
=
= 4.5 J
2 x 4
2m

14. A stone of mass 0.05 kg is thrown vertically upwards. What is the direction and magnitude
of net force on the stone during its upward motion?
(1) 0.98 N vertically downwards
(2) 0.49 N vertically upwards
(3) 9.8 N vertically downwards
(4) 0.49 N vertically upwards
Ans: (4)
F = m x g = 0.05 x 9.8 = 0.49 N, downwards.
15. The ratio of kinetic energy to the potential energy of a particle executing SHM at a distance
equal to half its amplitude, the distance being measured from its equilibrium position is
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 8 : 1
(4) 4 : 1
Ans: (2)
1
A
KE = m2 (A2 y2), y =
2
2
1
U = m2y2
2

A y
KE
=
U
y2

A2
2
4 = 3A x 4 = 3
4
1
A2
A2
4

A2

16. 1 gram of ice is mixed with 1 gram of steam. At thermal equilibrium, the temperature of the
mixture is
(1) 50o C
(2) 0o C
(3) 55o C
(4) 100o C
Ans: (4)
80 (8x y)
t=
= 280o C
x+y
It is not possible
t = 100o C
17. Water is heated from 0o C to 10o C, then its volume
(1) does not change
(2) decreases
(3) first decreases and then increases
(4) increases
Ans: (3)
Volume

4o C

Temperature

18. The efficiency of a Carnot engine which operates between the two temperatures T1 = 500 K
and T2 = 300 K is
(1) 75%
(2) 50%
(3) 40%
(4) 25%
Ans: (3)

T
= 1 2 100
T1

300

= 1
100
500

= 40%
19. The ratio of hydraulic stress to the corresponding strain is known as
(1) Youngs modulus
(2) Compressibility
(3) Rigidity modulus (4) Bulk modulus
Ans: (4)
Bulk Modulus
Hydraulic stress
[k] =
strain

20. The angle between the dipole moment and electric field at any point on the equatorial plane
is
(2) 0o
(3) 45o
(4) 90o
(1) 180o
Ans: (1)
Dipole moment and electric field are opposite to each other on equatorial line.
21. Pick out the statement which is incorrect.
(1) A negative test charge experiences a force opposite to the direction of the field.
(2) The tangent drawn to a line of force represents the direction of electric field.
(3) Field lines never intersect.
(4) The electric field lines forms closed loop.
Ans: (4)
Electric lines never form closed loops
4


22. Two spheres carrying charges +6C and +9C, separated by a distance d, experiences a
force of repulsion F. When a charge of 3 C is given to both the sphere and kept at the
same distance as before, the new force of repulsion is
(1) F/3
(2) F
(3) F/9
(4) 3 F
Ans: (1)
F Q1Q2
F
69
F
=
F| =
F1
3 6
3
23. A stretched string is vibrating in the second overtone, then the number of nodes and
antinodes between the ends of the string are respectively.
(1) 3 and 4
(2) 4 and 3
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 3 and 2
Ans: (2)
A
A
A
2nd over tone = 3rd Harmonic

24. When two tuning forks A and B are sounded together, 4 beats per second are heard. The
frequency of the fork B is 384 Hz. When one of the prongs of the fork A is filed and sounded
with B, the beat frequency increases, then the frequency of the fork A is
(1) 379 Hz
(2) 380 Hz
(3) 389 Hz
(4) 388 Hz
Ans: (4)
380 Hz
FB = 384 Hz
fA
388 Hz

When 388 Hz filed the frequency away from 384 Hz and Beats increases
25. Three resistances 2, 3 and 4 are connected in parallel. The ratio of currents passing
through them when a potential difference is applied across its ends will be
(1) 5 : 4 : 3
(2) 6 : 3 : 2
(3) 4 : 3 : 2
(4) 6 : 4 : 3
Ans: (4)
V = iR
V = constant
1
1
1
1
i1 : i2 : i3 =
:
:
i
R
R1 R 2
R3

1 1 1
: : =6:4:3
2 3 4
26. Four identical cells of emf E and internal resistance r are to be connected in series. Suppose
if one of the cell is connected wrongly, the equivalent emf and effective internal resistance of
the combination is
(1) 2E and 4r
(2) 4E and 4r
(3) 2E and 2r
(4) 4E and 2r
Ans: (1)
Total internal resistance doesnot charge
R| = 4r
n = Total number of cells, m = Wrong connection
E| = E [n 2m]
= E [4 2] = 2E
27. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then isolated. The effect of increasing the plate
separation on charge, potential and capacitance respectively are
(1) constant, decreases, increases
(2) constant, decreases, decreases
(3) constant, increases, decreases
(4) increases, decreases, decreases
=


Ans: (3)
After separation charge = constant
E A
capacity [C] = o
d
Capacity decreases with increase in distance
Q
V=
C
Potential increases
28. A spherical shell of radius 10 cm is carrying a charge q. if the electric potential at distances
5 cm, 10 cm and 15 cm from the centre of the spherical shell is V1, V2 and V3 respectively,
then
(2) V1 > V2 > V3
(3) V1 = V2 < V3
(4) V1 < V2 < V3
(1) V1 = V2 > V3
Ans: (1)
Inside the spherical shell potential same
V1 = V2
1
V
d
V1 = V2 > V3
29. Three point charges 3nC, 6nC and 9nC are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of
side 0.1 m. The potential energy of the system is
(1) 9910 J
(2) 8910 J
(3) 99100 J
(4) 89100 J
Ans: No correct answer
6 nc
1 Q1Q2
PE =
4 o d
PE =

9 10 9
[18 + 54 +27] 10-18
0.1

3 nc
9 nc
= 90 99 109
9
= 8910 10 J
30. In the circuit shown below, the ammeter and the voltmeter readings are 3 A and 6 V
respectively. Then the value of the resistance R is

A
V

(2) 2
(3) 2
(1) < 2
Ans: (1)
V = iR
6
R=
=2
3
If the Ammeter ad voltmeter have resistance [R < 2]

(4) > 2
A 3A

V
6V

31. Two cells of emf E1 and E2 are joined in opposition (such that E1 > E2). If r1 and r2 be the
internal resistance and R be the external resistance, then the terminal potential difference is


r1

E1
+

E2

r2

(1)

E1 E2
xR
r1 + r2

(2)

E1 + E2
xR
r1 + r2

(3)

E1 E2
xR
r1 + r2 + R

(4)

E1 + E2
xR
r1 + r2 + R

Ans: (3)

I=

E1 E2
Net emf
=
Total resis tan ce
R + r1 + r2

V = IR V =

(E1 E2 ) R
R + r1 + r2

32. A proton beam enters a magnetic field of 10-4 Wb m-2 normally. If the specific charge of the
proton is 1011 C kg-1 and its velocity is 10 ms-1, then the radius of the circle described will
be
(1) 100 m
(2) 0.1 m
(3) 1 m
(4) 10 m
Ans: (1)
r=

r=

mV
V
r=
qB
q
m
m

109
11

(10 ) 10

= 102 m

33. Two concentric coils each of radius equal to 2 cm are placed right angles to each other. If
3A and 4A are the currents flowing through the two coils respectively. The magnetic
induction (in Wb m-2) at the center of the coils will be
(2) 12 x 10-5
(3) 7 x 10-5
(4) 10-5
(1) 5 x 10-5
Ans: (1)
BR =

B12 + B22

BR =

(3 x 10 5 ) 2 + (4 x 10 5 ) 2

BR = 10-5

B1 =

2 ( 4)
o
2I
.
= 10-7 x
4
r
2 x 10 2

9 + 16 = 5 x 10-5 T

2I
10 7 x 2 ( 4)
=
r
2 x 10 2

B1 = 3 x 10-5, B2 = o
4
B2 = 4 x 10-5

34. The resistance of the bulb filament is 100 at a temperature of 100 C. If its temperature
co-efficient of resistance be 0.005 per C, its resistance will become 200 at a temperature
(2) 300 C
(3) 200 C
(4) 400 C
(1) 500 C
Ans: (2)
=

R 2 R1
200 100
0.005 =
R 1 (t 2 t1 )
100 ( t 2 100)

t2 = 300oC
35. In Wheatstones network P = 2 , Q = 2 , R = and S = 3 . The resistance with which S
is to shunted in order that the bridge may be balanced is
(2) 1
(3) 6
(4) 2
(1) 4


Ans: (3)
P
=
Q

P
2
2
3X

=2
SX
3
x
X
2
3+ X
S+X
3+ X

3X = 6 + 2X X = 6
36. Core of electromagnets are made of ferromagnetic material which has
(1) low permeability and high retentivity
(2) high permeability and low retentivity
(3) low permeability and low retentivity
(4) high permeability and high retentivity
Ans: (2)
37. If there is no torsion in the suspension thread, then the time period of a magnet executing
SHM is
I
MB

(1) T = 2

(2) T =

1
2

MB
I

(3) T = 2

MB
I

(4) T =

1
2

I
MB

Ans: (1)
38. Two parallel wires 1 m apart carry currents of 1 A and 3 A respectively in opposite directions.
The force per unit length acting between two wires is
(2) 6 x 10-7 Nm-1 repulsive
(1) 6 x 10-5 Nm-1 repulsive
(4) 6 x 10-7 Nm-1 attractive
(3) 6 x 10-5 Nm-1 attractive
Ans: (2)

2 o I1 I 2
2 x 10 7 x 1 x 3
F
=
=
= 6 x 10-7 repulsive
L
4r
1
39. A galvanometer of resistance 50 gives a full scale deflection for a current 5 x 10-4 A. The
resistance that should be connected in series with the galvanometer to read 3 V is
(2) 595
(3) 5950
(4) 5050
(1) 5059
Ans: (3)
R=

V
-G
Ig

R=

3 x 10 4
3

50
=
- 50
5
5 x 10 4

6000 50 = 5950
40. A cyclotron is used to accelerate
(1) only negatively charges particles
(2) neutron
(3) both positively and negatively charged particles
(4) only positively charged particles
Ans: (4)
41. A transformer is used to light 100 W 110 V lamp from 220 V mains. If the main current is
0.5 A, the efficiency of the transformer is
(1) 96%
(2) 90%
(3) 99%
(4) 95%
Ans: (2)
=

Poutput
Pinput

100
220 x

1
2

10
100
=
= 90%
11
110


42. In an LCR circuit, at resonance
(1) the current is minimum
(2) the current and voltage are in phase
(4) the impedance is maximum
(3) the current leads the voltage by /2
Ans: (2)
43. An aircraft with a wingspan of 40 m files with a speed of 1080 km / hr in the eastward
direction at a constant altitude in the northern hemisphere, where the vertical component of
the earths magnetic field 1.75 x 10-5 T. Then the emf developed between the tips of the
wings is
(1) 0.21 V
(2) 0.5 V
(3) 2.1 V
(4) 0.34 V
Ans: (1)
e = B A v = 1.75 x 10-5 x 40 x 300 = 0.21 V
44. Two coils have a mutual inductance 0.005 H. The current changes in the first coil according
to the equation I = im sin t where im = 10 A and = 100 rad s-1. The maximum value of
the emf induced in the second coil is
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 5
(1)
Ans: (4)
e=

dI
dt

e = (Im)
= 0.005 x 10 x 100 = 5

d
(Im sin t) = Im cos t
dt
for maximum value of emf

dI
is maximum
dt
cos t = 1

dI
= Im
dt

45. The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic material at -73 C is 0.0075 and its value at 173 C will be
(1) 0.015
(2) 0.0045
(3) 0.0075
(4) 0.0030
Ans: (1)

1
T

2
T
= 1
1
T2

2
273 73
=
0.0075
273 173
2
200
=
0.0075
100
2 = 0.0150
46. In a Youngs double slit experiment the slit separation is 0.5 m from the slits. For a
monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm, the distance of 3rd maxima from 2nd minima on
the other side is
(1) 22.5 mm
(2) 2.75 mm
(3) 2.25 mm
(4) 2.5 mm
Wrong question
47. Calculate the focal length of a reading glass of a person if this distance of distinct vision is 75
cm.
(1) 75.2 cm
(2) 25.6 cm
(3) 100.4 cm
(4) 37.5 cm
Ans: (4)
u = -25 cm
v = -75 cm

1
1
1
=- +
f
u
v
1
1
1
2
=
=
f
25
75
75
75
f=
= 37.5 cm
2
48. A person wants a real image of his own , 3 times enlarged. Where should he stand infront of
a con cave mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm?
(1) 90 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 20 cm
(4) 30 cm
Ans: (3)
m = -3, f =

R
30
== -15 cm
2
2

f
f 4
15
45 + 3u = -15 u = -20 cm
-3 =
15 4

m=

49.

If 0 and 0 are the permittivity and permeability of free space and and are the
corresponding quantities for a medium, Then refractive index of the medium is
(1) 1

(2)

00

(3) Insufficient information

(4)

00

Ans: (4)

c=

n=

v=

oo
c
=
v

oo

50. The average power dissipated in a pure inductor is

(1)

VI2
4

(2)

1
VI
2

(3) zero

(4) VI2

Ans: (3)
Pav = VI cos

, Pav = 0
2

51. An -particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered through 180 by gold

closest approach is of the order of
(2) 10-10 cm
(3) 10-16 cm
(1) 10-14 cm
Ans: (4)
Distance of closest approach is = 10-14 m = 10-12 cm.
52. Find the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron with kinetic energy of
(1) 112 pm
(2) 95 pm
(3) 124 pm
Ans: (1)
V = 120 V

1227 pm
V

1227
120

nucleus. The instance of

(4) 10-12 cm

120 eV.
(4) 102 pm

1227
112pm
11

10


53. Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV respectively,
successively illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV. Ratio of maximum
speeds of emitted electrons will be
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 5
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 4
Ans: (1)
E = o + Kmax
1 = 0.5 + K1 K1 = 0.5
2.5 = 0.5 + K2 K2 = 2
K1
0.5
1
=
=
K2
2
4

v1

v2

K1
1
=
2
K2

54. The polarizing angle of glass is 57. A ray of light which is incisent at this angle will have an
angle of refraction as
(2) 25
(3) 38
(4) 33
(1) 43
Ans: (4)
P + r = 90o
r = 90 57 = 33o
55. To observed diffraction, The size of the obstacle
(1) Should be much larger than the wavelength.
(2) has no relation to wavelength
(3) should be of the order of wavelength.
(4) should be /2, where is the wavelength.
Ans: (3)
d, size of the obstacle.
56. A radioactive decay can from an isotope of the original nucleus with the emission of particles
(2) one four
(3) four nd one
(4) one and two
(1) one and one
Ans: (4)
A
ZX

Z 2Y

A4

A4
2

ZX

57. The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. The time taken between 50 % decay
and 87.5% decay of the substance will be
(1) 25 minutes
(2) 30 minutes
(3) 10 minutes
(4) 40 minutes
Ans: (4)
t2 t1 =

N
T
20
20
50
ln 1 =
ln
ln 4 = 40 min
=
ln 2
ln 2
ln 2
12.5
N2

58. A nucleus at rest splits into two nuclear parts having radii in the ratio 1: 2. Their velocities
are in the ratio
(1) 4 : 1
(2) 8 : 1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 6 : 1
Ans: (2)
m1v1 = m2v2

R
v1
m2
=
= 2
v2
m1
R1

m A R3

v1
8
2
= =
1
v2
1

11


59. What is the wavelength of light for the least energetic photon emitted in the Lyman series of
the hydrogen spectrum. (take hc = 1240 eV nm)
(1) 122 nm
(2) 82 nm
(3) 150 nm
(4) 102 nm
Ans: (1)

hc

hc
1240
=
=
E
10.2
E=

for least energetic photon E = E2 E1 = 10.2 eV

122 nm.
60. If an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from an orbit of level n = 3 to an orbit of level n =
2, the emitted radiation has a frequency (R = Rydberg constant., C = velocity of light)
8RC
3RC
5RC
RC
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1)
9
27
36
25
Ans: (3)
=

1
c
1
5RC
1 1
= RC 2 2 = RC =

36
4 a
n1 n 2

12