Adayar – Adambakkam – East Tambaram – Pallavaram – Pammal

+1 PHYSICS
( Entire Syllabus)

Model Questiom Paper based on NEW PATTERN

Dur : 3 Hrs Max. Mark : 150

PART – I
( 30 x 1 = 30 )

1. A speck of dust weighs 1.6 X 10-10 kg. How many such particles would weighs 1.6 kg?

(a) 10-10 (b) 1010 (c) 10 (4) 10-1

2. The dimensional formula for gravitational constant is ………….

(a) M1 L3 T -2 (b) M -1 L3 T-2 (c) M -1 L-3 T2 (d) M1 L-3 T2

3. If a force F is applied on a body and the body moves with velocity V, the power will be

(a) FV (b) F/V (c) FV2 (d) F/V2

4. A bullet hits and gets embedded in a solid block resting on horizontal table which of the
following is conserved ?

(a) momentum and kinetic energy (b) kinetic energy alone

(c) momentum alone (d) potential energy alone

5. Unlike vectors have…………..

(a) same magnitude and same direction

(b) same direction but different magnitudes
(c) same in magnitude but opposite in direction
(d) different direction and different in magnitude

6. A water boat moves at a steady speed of 8 ms-1. If the resistive force of water is 2000 N, the
power of
the engine is …………

(a) 16 W (b) 16 KW (c) 8 W (d) 18 KW

7. In how much time a water pump of 500 W can lift 100 Kg of water to water tank situated at height
of
7 m? (g = 10 m sec-2)

(a) 140 s (b) 14s (c) 1400s (d) 144s

8. A body of mass 6 kg is acted upon by a force. Its velocity changes from 3ms-1 to 5ms-1. The
impulse
of the force for 2 seconds is…………
(a) 0.6 N (b) 6 N (c) 60 N (d) 16N
9. The moment of inertia of a ring of mass 1 kg and radius 10 cm about axis passing through its
centre and perpendicular to its place is ………..

PRAKASH INSTITUTE 1 +1 Model Question Papers

 (a) 1 kg m2 (b) 0.1 kg m2 (c) 10 kg m2 (d) 0.01 kg m2

10. Compute the rotational kinetic energy of a wheel of moment of inertia 0.0968 kg m2 completes 6
revolutions in 1 sec.

(a) 68.7 J (b) 6.87 (c) 0.68 (d) 69.7

11. Unit of angular momentum is …………..

(a) kg m2 s-2 (b) kgm-1s-2 (c) kg m2 s-1 (d) kg ms-1

12. The weight of a body at earth’s surface is W. At a depth half way to the centre of the earth, it will
be

(a) W (b)W/2 (c) W/4 (d) W/8

14. The rain drops falling from the sky neither hit us hard nor make holes on the ground
because they move with ……….

(a) constant acceleration

(b) variable acceleration
(c) variable speed
(d) constant velocity

15. The Young’s modulus of steel is …………

(a) 21 X 1011 pascals (b) 2 X 109 pascals
(c) 210 pascals (d) 200 giga pascals

16. The unit of surface tension is ………..

(a) Pascal b) Nm-1 (c) Nm2 (d) N

17. The excess of pressure in a bubble of radius (r) is given by …………..

(a) P = 2T/r (b) P=3T/r (c) P = 4T/r (d) P = T/r

18. The cohesive force is maximum among the molecules of …………..

(a) water (b) kerosene (c) coconut oil (d) mercury

19. The unit of force constant is ………….

(a) Nm-1 (b) Nm (c) Nm-2 (d) N2m2

20. Which one of the following is an idealised case of free oscillation ?

(a) Maintained oscillation (b) Resonance

(b) Forced vibration (d) Damped oscillation
21. Two springs of spring constants K1 and K2 are connected in parallel. The equivalent spring
constant is

(a) K1 + K2 (b) K1K2/K1+K2 (c) K1+K2/K1K2 (d) K1K2

22. The time period of a pendulum is 0.2 s. The angular frequency of it is ………….

(a) 1  rad s-1 (b) 5  rad s-1 (c) 100  rad s-1 (d) 10  rad s-1

23. If the diameter of the pipe in resonance column experiment is 2 cm, then the end correction is

(a) 0.6 cm (b) 0.3 cm (c) 0.6 m (d) 1.2 cm

24. In a stationary wave the phase difference between two adjacent segments is ………….
(a) 0 (b) /2 (c)  (d) 3/2

PRAKASH INSTITUTE 2 +1 Model Question Papers

25. The echo is not produced if the distance between the reflector and the source of sound is

(a) less than 17 m (b) greater than 17 m

(c) less than 34 m (d) greater than 34 m

26. A breaker full of hot water is kept in a room. If it cools from 800C to 750C in t1 minutes, from
750 C to 700 C in t2 minutes and from 700 C to 650C in t3 minutes then………

(a) t1 = t2 = t3 (b) t1 < t2 = t3 c) t1 < t2 < t3 d) t1 > t2 > t3

27. The value of universal gas constant (R) is …………….

(a) 8.31 J mole-1K-1 (b) 8.13 J mole-1K-1

(c) 1.013 J mole-1K-1 (d) 1.38 x 10-23 JK-1

28. If the velocity of light in medium is (2/3) times of the velocity of light in vacuum, then the
refractive index of that medium is ……………

(a) 3/2 C (b) 2 C/3 (c) 2/3 (d) 1.5

29. The deflection in the deflection magnetometer should lie in between …………..
(a) 00 to 300 (b) 300 to 450 (c) 300 to 600 (d) 00 to 900

30. The relative permeability of iron is 2 x 105. The susceptibility of iron is ………….
(a) 199999 (b) 200001 (c) 19999 (d) 20001

Part – II
( 15 x 3 = 45 Marks )
 Answer any 15 questions

31. Find out the number of significant figures in the following :

(i) 0.0006032 and (ii) 0.80.

32. Define uniform velocity.

33. What is conservative force? Give examples.

34. A force 100 N acts on a body for 0.3 sec. Calculate the impulse of the force.

35. Define moment of inertia in terms of kinetic energy.

36. Give two examples for couple.

37. State the law of conservation of angular momentum.

38. State the universal law of gravitation.

39. Define interatomic forces.

40. Define angle of contact.

41. Give any one practical application of viscosity.

42. Define force constant. Give its unit and dimensional formula.

43. Distinguish between linear and angular harmonic oscillator (any two).

PRAKASH INSTITUTE 3 +1 Model Question Papers

44. State the principle of superposition.

45. If the intensity is increased by a factor 60 by how many decibels the sound level is increased?

46. Define Clausius statement.

47. The surfaces of the sun glasses are curved, yet their power may be zero. Why?

48. Light of wavelength 5000 A falls on a plane reflecting surface. Calculate the wavelength and
frequency of reflected light.

49. What is known as remanance ?

50. A freely suspended magnet of moment 3 Wb.m is placed at an angle of 600 with the direction
of a uniform magnetic field of strength 150 A turns/metre. Find the moment of the couple acting
on the magnet.

Part – III
( 7 x 5 = 35 Marks )
 Answer any 7 questions
 Answer the Ques. No. 60 COMPULSORILY.
 Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

51. Check the correctness of the following equation by dimensional analysis.

(i) F = mv2/r2 where F is force, m is mass v is velocity and r is radius.

(ii) n=1/2g/l where n is frequency g is acceleration due to gravity and l is length.
(iii) 1/2mv2 = mgh2 where m is mass, v is velocity a is acceleration due to gravity and h is
height.

52. Two masses if 2 kg and 5 kg are moving with equal kinetic energies. Find the ratio of
magnitudes of respective linear momenta.

53. The following forces act at a point (i) 20 N inclined at 300 towards north to east. (ii) 25 N
towards north (iii) 30 N inclined at 450 towards north of west. (iv) 35 N inclined at 400 towards
south of west. Find the magnitude and direction of the resultant force.

54. Prove that the acceleration due to gravity varies with depth or altitude

55. Derive expression for the excess of pressure inside a liquid drop and hence inside a bubble.

56. Discuss the oscillations of mass connected to a set of two springs connected in parallel.

57. How do you determine the surface temperature of the sun?

58. If the refractive index of diamond be 2.5 and glass 1.5 then how faster does light travel in glass
than in diamond?

59. List out the properties of ferromagnetic materials.

60. Calculate the viscous force on a ball of radius 1mm moving through a liquid of viscosity
0.2 Ns m -2 at a speed of 0.07 m/s.

61. State and explain tangent law

62. Show that the oscillations of a simple pendulum are simple harmonic. Hence deduce the
expression for the time period.

PRAKASH INSTITUTE 4 +1 Model Question Papers

 Part – II
( 4 x 10 = 40 Marks )
 Answer any 4 questions

63. Obtain the expression for magnitude and direction of the resultant of two vectors when they are
inclined at an angle  with each other.

64. (a) Explain the motion of a projectile thrown horizontally and show that the path of it is a
parabola. Derive expressions for resultant velocity, time of flight and range.

65. Obtain the expression for the moment of inertia of solid sphere about its diameter.

66. What is orbital velocity ? Obtain an expression for it.

67. Explain the formation of stationary waves along a stretched string using a sonometer. Derive
expression for overtones in it.

68. Derive an expression for pressure exerted by a gas.

69. State and prove Bernoulli theorem

70. Expali Michelson’s method to determine the velocity of light.

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PRAKASH INSTITUTE 5 +1 Model Question Papers

 Adayar – Adambakkam – East Tambaram – Pallavaram – Pammal

+1 CHEMISTRY
( Entire Syllabus)

Model Questiom Paper based on NEW SYLLABUS

Dur : 3 Hrs Max. Mark : 150

A. Choose and write the correct answer.

( 30 X 1 = 30 )

1. A mole of ethanol contains…………..

(a) 6.023 X 1023 atoms (b) 6.023 X 1023 molecules of oxygen

(c) one molecule (d) 1.8069 X 1023 molecules of hydrogen.

2. Which one among the following is the standard for atomic mass?

(a) H (b) 6C12 (c) 6C14 (d) 8O16

3. Poisonous gas in exhaust fames of a car is ………….

(a) CH4 (b) C2H2 (c) CO (d) CO2

4. Ore of Uranium is ……………

(a) Pitch (b) Pitch blende (c) Zinc blende (d) Calamine

5. The number of orbitals in a p-shell is …………….

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 6

6. Which one among the following species has the largest atomic radius?

(a) Na (b) Mg (c) Al (d) Si

7. ……………is used as a propellant in nucleus.

(a) H2O2 (b) D2O (c) ND3 (d) CH2 = CH2

8. Plaster of paris is ………….

(a) CASO4.2H2O (b) CaCl2 (c) CASO4 (d) CASO4.2H2O

9. The general electronic configuration of carbon group element is ………..

(a) ns2np6 (b) ns2 (c) ns2np1 (d) ns2np2

10. Pick out the correct statements ………….

(i) Halides in lower oxidation state is largely ionic
(ii) Iodides and bromides are ionic
(iii) Halides in higher oxidation state is largely ionic
(iv) Fluorides are more ionic

PRAKASH INSTITUTE 6 +1 Model Question Papers

 (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)

11. The oxide which is amphoteric ……….

(a) Bi2O3 (b) N2O5 (c) PbO (d) SO3

12. There are …………… classes of unit cells.

(a) four (b) five (c) six (d) seven

13. For an ideal gas, the plot of PV verses P is …………..

(a) a straight line of parallel of pressure axis
(b) a curve with a minimum and then increases with increasing pressure
(c) a straight line parallel to PV axis
(d) curve

14. Which one among the following is highly covalent?

(a) LiCl (b) NaCl (c) KCl (d) RbCl

15. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to ………….

(a) Mole fraction of solvent (b) Mole fraction of solute

(c) Molality (d) Molarity

16. ……………… is not an extensive property.

(a) Mass (b) Volume (c) Heat capacity (d) Surface tension

17. H and U are related as …………..

(a) H = U + P (b) H = U + PV (c) H = U – P (d) H = U – PV

18. In Haber’s process,which combination of pressure and temperature give more amount of
ammonia ?

(a) High pressure and high temperature (b) High pressure and low temperature
(c) Low pressure and low temperature (d) Low pressure and high temperature

19. The IUPAC name of isobutyric aldehyde is …………….

(a) 2-methyl propanol (b) 2-methyl-2-propanal

(c) 2-methyl propanal (d) 1 butanol.

20. When the stationary phase is solid, then the compounds can be separated on the basis of

(a) Adsorption (b) Partition

(c) Both partition and adsorption (d) Either

21. In steam distillation, the organic substance to be purified is ………….

(a) soluble in water (b) insoluble in water

(c) decomposed (d) precipitated

22. The colour of lead sulphide is ………..

(a) black (b) white (c) orange (d) red

23. 0.24 g of an organic compound gave 0.287 g of AgCl in Carius method. The percentage

PRAKASH INSTITUTE 7 +1 Model Question Papers

 of chlorine in the compound is …………

(a) 29.59 % (b) 35.46 % (c) 71 % (d) 42.36 %

24. The order of stability of conformations of ethane.

(a) Staggered > skew > eclipsed (b) Staggered > eclipsed > skew
(c) Eclipsed > skew > staggered (d) Skew > eclipsed > staggered

25. When alkyl halides are treated with alcoholic KOH, the products are ………….
(a) olefins (b) alcohols (c) alkanes (d) aldehydes

26. The catalyst used in the reduction of ethene to ethane is …………

(a) copper (b) iron (c) nickel (d) sodium

27. Soda lime is ……………

(a) caustic soda (b) quick lime

(c) both (a) and (b) (d) caustic soda and lime stone

28. An example of polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon

(a) pyridine (b) pyrole

(c) naphthalene (d) cyclohexane

29. Bromobenzene is converted into biphenyl by ………….

(a) Wurtz reaction (b) Wurtz Fittigs

(c) Fittigs (d) Friedal craft’s reaction

30. The halogen compound used as anaesthetic is …………….

(a) CCl4 (b) CHCl3 (c) CCl2F2 (d) CH3Cl

PART – II
( 15 x 3 = 45 )

31. How many molecules are there in 34 mg of NH3 ?

32. Using the approximate exponential notation, express 34.5 in terms of SI units.

33. How many electrons can have S + ½ in a d- sub-shell ?

34. Arrange in the order of increasing atomic volumes in C,N and O.

35. Why alkali metals have strong electropositive character ?

36. NH3 is soluble in water whereas other hydrides of group 15 elements are insoluble in
water.

37. How is pure borax obtained from tincal ?

38. What is long-range order ?

39. Write the limitation of Vanderwaal’s equation of state.

PRAKASH INSTITUTE 8 +1 Model Question Papers

40. How are sigma and pi-bonds formed ?

41. What are the advantages of Berkeley Hartley method ?

42. Define enthalpy of combustion.

43. What is the influence of pressure on the dissociation of PCl5 ?

44. What is rate constant ?

45. What is an electrophile ? Give two examples each of neutral and ionic electrophile.

46. Distinguish between paper and thin layer chromatography

47. 0.530g of an organic compound gave 0.90g of BaSo4 in carius determination of sulphur.

48. What happens when acetylene is passed through red hot tube ?

49. Define Markownikoffs rule.

50. How benzene is prepared commercially ?

51. What is fittig reaction ?

PART – III
( 7 x 5 = 35 )

 Answer any 7 questions by attending atleast 2 from each section

Section – A

52. How will you determine the equivalent weight of an element by oxide method ?

53. What do you understand by the following terms (i) roasting (ii) smelting ?

54. What are the various types of elements based on modern periodic table?

55. What is the difference between benzene and borazole.

Section – B

56. Explain PF or density of packing for BCC structure

57. Calculate the lattice enthalpy of CaCl2 given that the enthalpy of

 sublimation of Ca is 121 KJmol-1

 dissociation of Cl2 to 2 Cl is 242.8 KJ mol-1
 ionisation of Ca to Ca2+ is 2422 KJ mol-1
 electron gain for Cl to Cl- is -355 KJ mol-1
 H(o) over all is – 795 KJ mol-1

58. State laws of osmotic pressure and how will you determine the molecular weight of a solute from
osmotic pressure ?

59. Derive expression for KC for the equilibrium

H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI

PRAKASH INSTITUTE 9 +1 Model Question Papers

 Section – C

60. Write Lassigne’s test for nitrogen

61. Write the Canonical structures of benzene.

62. Explain Nucleophilic aromatic substitution.

63. Explain the mechanism of bromination of benzene.

PART – IV
( 10 x 4 = 40 )
 Answer any 3 questions from Q.No. 64 to 69
 Ques. No. 70 is compulsory

64. (i) Write a short note on Hydrosphere

(ii) What is the principle involved in Bessemer process?

65. (i) What are transition elements ? Name the different transition series.
(ii) Write a short note on fixation of nitrogen.

66. (i) Derive the values of gas constant (R) in different units.
(ii) Write short notes on VSEPR theory.

67. (i) Distinguish reversible and irreversible processes.

(ii) Describe the difference between the rate of reaction and rate constant of reaction

68. (i) Write the characteristics of homologous series

(ii) Explain fractional distillation.

69. (i) Explain Newman projection and Sawhorse projection for ethane
(ii) How are grignard reagent prepared ?

70. (a) Calculate the mass of lime that can be prepared by heating 200kg of limestone that is 90%
pure CaCO3.

(b) An element occupies group No.16 and period 3. This element forms a grey solid ‘A’ on
heating with iron filings ‘A’ on treatment with dil. HCl gives a colourless gas ‘B’ with
rotten egg smell and turns lead acetate paper black. The element on burning in oxygen
produces a colourless gas ‘C’ which decolourises acidified KMnO4. Identify ‘A’ ‘B’ and
‘C’

(or)

(c) On complete combustion 0.246 g of an organic compound gives 0.198 g of CO2 and
0.1014 g of H2O. Calculate the percentage of carbon and hydrogen

(d) In the reaction N2 + O2  2NO at 298k the partial pressure of NO , O2 at equilibrium

are 0.9 , 0.3 , 0.01 atm . Calculate the value of kp

PRAKASH INSTITUTE 10 +1 Model Question Papers

 Adayar – Adambakkam – East Tambaram – Pallavaram – Pammal

+1 MATHEMATICS
( Entire Syllabus)

Model Questiom Paper based on NEW PATTERN

Dur : 3 Hrs Max. Mark : 200

PART-A
( 40 x 1 = 40 )

 All the questions are COMPULSORY

 Each question carries 1 mark
 Choose the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives

1. Matrix A is of order 3 X 4. Matrix B is of order 4 X 3. Then order of matrix AB is

(1) 3 X 4 (2) 4 X 3 (3) 3 X 3 (4) 4 X 4

2. If a = i + j - 2k, b = -i + 2j +k, c = i -2j + 2k, then a unit vector parallel to

a + b+ c is………….

(1) i - 2j + k (2) i - j + k (3) 2i +j +k (4) i + j + k

√6 √3 √6 √3

3. The number of possible outcomes when a coin is tossed 5 times is ………….

(1) 25 (2) 52 (3) 5 (4) 16

4. Sum of the binomial coefficients is ……………

(1) 2n (2) n2 (3) 2n (4) n+17

5. The sum to the first 25 terms of the series 1 + 2 + 3+…is…………

(1) 305 (2) 325 (3) 315 (4) 335

6. When the terms of a G.P. are written in reverse order the progression formed

(1) A.P. (2) G.P (3) H.P (4) A.P and H.P.

7. The slope of a straight line 2x - 3y + 1 = 0 is …………

(1) -2/3 (2) -3/2 (3) 2/3 (4) 3/2

8. The length of the tangent from (4, 5) to the circle x2 + y2 = 25 is….………

(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 25 (4)16

9. In any triangle ABC , a2 is equal to…………

(1) b2 + c2 - 2bc cos A (2) a2 + b2 - 2bc cos A

PRAKASH INSTITUTE 11 +1 Model Question Papers

 (3) b2 + c2 - 2bc cos B (4) a2 + b2 - 2bc cos B

10. If in a triangle ABC , a cos A = b cos B then the triangle is ……….

(1) scalene (2) equilateral (3) obtuse angle scalene (4) isosceles

11. The principle value of sin-1(3/2) is …………

(1) /2 (2)  (3) /3 (4) /4

12. X={a, b}, Y={c, d, e} and f={(a, c),(b, d)}. The function is…………..

(1) an onto function (2) an into function

(3) an identity function (4) a constant function

13. The solution set of x2 ≤ 9 is …………

(1) (3, -3) (2) (-3, 3) (3) [-3, 3] (4) (-3, -3)

14. f(x) = x + 1, g(x) = x - 1, fog(0) is equal to …………

(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) -1 (4) 

15. Lim (ex – e ) / ( x – 1 ) is……….

x -> 1

(1) 1 (2) 0 (3)  (4) e

16. The function f(x) = (x2+1) / (x2-3x+2) is continuous at all points of R except at

(1) x = 1 (2) x = 2 (3) x = 1, 2 (4) x = -1, -2

17. The derivative of f(x) = x2│x│at x = 0 is……….

(1) 0 (2) -1 (3) -2 (4)1

18 ∫ dx/ex = ……….

(1) logex + c (2) (-1/ex) + c (3)(1/ex) + c (4)x + c

19.  ( 6x + 5) dx /  3x2 + 5x + 6

(1) 3x2 + 5x + 6 + c (2) 2 (3x2 + 5x + 6) + c

(3)  3x2 + 5x + 6 + c (4) 2  3x2 + 5x + 6 + c

20. P(A) =0.2, P(B)=0.5 A and B are independent events. P (A ∩ B) = ………….

(1)0.1 (2)0.5 (3)0.2 (4)0.8

21. If [ 2 x -1 ] 0
x = [ 13 ] then the value of x is
3

(1) 5 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4)  4

22. If the position vector of P and Q are 2i + 3j - 7k, 4i - 3j + 4k, then the direction cosines of PQ are

(1) 2/161, -6/161, 11/161 (2) -2/161 , -6/161 , -11/161

PRAKASH INSTITUTE 12 +1 Model Question Papers

 (3) 2, -6, 11 (4) 1, 2 , 3

23. 20 persons are invited for a party. The number of ways in which they and the host can be seated at
a circular table if two particular person be seated on either side of the host is equal to ………

(1) 18! 2! (2)18! 3! (3) 19! 2! (4) 20! 2!

24. Range of a constant function is ……….

(1) not equal to the co-domain (2) a set of two elements

(3) a null set (4) a singleton

25. If a, H, b are in H.P, then H =………..

(1) 1/(a+b) (2) 2ab/(a+b) (3) a/(a+b) (4) b/(a+b)

26. (e x +e – x )/2 = ………..

(1) 1 + x/1! + x2/2! + x3/3!.... (2) x + x 3/3! x4/4!..

(3) x - x2/2! + x3/3! - x4/4!.... (4) 1+x2/2!+x4/4!

27. Which of the following is the equation of a straight line that is neither parallel nor perpendicular to
the straight line given by x + y = 0.

(1) y = x (2) y – x + 2 = 0 (3) 2y = 4x + 1 (4) y+x = 2

28. If the terminal side is collinear with the initial side in the opposite direction, then the angle
included is

(1) 00 (2) 900 (3) 1800 (4) 2700

29. In  ABC, cos B is equal to …………..

(1) (c2 +a2 -b2) / 2ca (2) (c2 + b2 - a2) / 2bc

(3) (a2 + b2 - c2) / 2ab (4) (a2 + b2 + c2) / 2ab

30. Value of sin (-1200) is …………..

(1) ½ (2) 2/3 (3) -2/3 (4) -1/2

31. A polynomial function of degree 2 is called……………

(1) a linear function (2) an exponential function

(3) a hyperbolic function (4) a quadratic function

32. If f : AB f-1 is ………….

(1) BA (2) AB (3) BB (4) AA

33. f and g are two functions. f.g and fog are …………

(1) equal (2) unequal (3) cannot be compared (4) product functions

34. lim [ 1 – (1/x) ] x is ………….

x->

(1) e (2) –e (3) 1/e (4) 0

35. The left hand limit sinx ………..

x->0+ x

PRAKASH INSTITUTE 13 +1 Model Question Papers

 (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) -1 (4) does not exists

36. The function f(x) = sin x is continuous at all points of ………….

(1) R (2) N (3) Z (4) Q

37.  tanx dx = ……….

(1) log(cos x) + c (2) log(sec x) + c

(3) sec2x + c (4) (tan2x) / (2) + c

38. - dx/sin2x =…………….

(1) cotx +c (2) cosx+c (3) –cotx + c (4) -cosx + c

39. The probability of a sure event is…………..

(1) 0 (2) >1 (3) <1 (4) 1

40. When three coins are tossed once the probability of getting atmost two heads is

(1) 3/8 (2) 4/8 (3) 1/8 (4) 7/8

PART-B
( 10 x 6 = 60 )
 Answer 10 questions
 Choose 9 questions from 41 to 53 and 1 question from 54 and 55
 Each question carries 6 marks

41. If A = 1 8 ;B = 1 3 ;C = - 4 6 . Prove that A (BC) = (AB) C.

4 3 7 4 3 -5

2
1 a a 1- 2a 2 -a 2 -a 2
42 Show that a 1 a = -a 2 -1 a 2 - 2a
a a 1 -a 2 a 2 - 2a -1

43. Prove that the points 2i + 3j + 4k, 3i + 4j + 2k and 4i + 2j +3k form an

equilateral triangle.

44. If G is the centroid of a triangle ABC, prove that GA + GB + GC = 0.

45. Resolve into partial fractions: 9 / (x-1)(x+2)2

46. Prove by mathematical induction 12 + 22 + 32+ ……. +n2 = n(n + 1)(2n + 1)

for all n  N. 6

47. Find the value of 3126 correct to four decimal places.

48. If cos θ + sin θ =√2cos θ, Show that cos θ – sin θ =√2sin θ.

PRAKASH INSTITUTE 14 +1 Model Question Papers

49. (a) Find the derivative of (x2 - 1) / (x2 + 1) with respect to x.
(b) Find dy/dx when tan (x + y) + tan (x - y) = 1.

50. Show that the equation 4x2 + 4xy + y2 - 6x – 3y – 4 = 0 represents a pair of

parallel lines and also find the distance between them.

51. (a) Integrate: 1/(x2+5x+7) (b) Evaluate:  dx/(x+5)x+4

52. Evaluate :  ( 1/ x2 ) log ( 1/ x2) dx

53. ‘A’ can hit a target 4 times in 5 shots, ‘B’ 3 times in 4 shots, ‘C’ 2 times in 3 shots.
What is the chance that the target is damaged by exactly 2 hits?

54. Evaluate:  dx / (a2 - x2)

tan-1x
55. If y = e , Prove that ( 1 + x2 ) y2 + ( 2x – 1) y1 = 0.

PART-C
( 10 x 10 = 100)

 Answer 10 questions
 Choose 9 questions from 56 to 68 and 1 question from 69 and 70
 Each question carries 10 marks

56. Prove that (b+c)2 a2 a2

b2 (c+a)2 b2 = 2abc ( a+ b + c)3.
c2 c2 (a+b)2

57. If ABCD is a quadrilateral and E and F are the mid-points of AC and BD respectively,

Prove that AB + AD + CB + CD = 4 EF.

58. A candidate is required to answer 7 questions out of 12 questions which are divided into two
groups, each containing 6 questions. He is not permitted to attempt more than 5 questions from
either group. In how many ways can he choose the 7 questions.

59. (i) Find the constant term in the expansion of (x - (2/x2)10
(ii) If the 21st term and 22nd term in the expansion of (1 + x)44 are equal, find the value of x.

60. If x is so large prove that x2 + 25 - x 2 + 9 = 8/x nearly.

61. Show that the triangle formed by straight lines 4x - 3y – 18 = 0, 3x - 4y +16 = 0 and x + y – 2 = 0
is isosceles.

62. Solve: 2tan  - cot  = -1.

PRAKASH INSTITUTE 15 +1 Model Question Papers

 x+3
63. Evaluate : lim x+3
x->  x-1

64. Differentiate w.r.t. x , y = tan-1(cotx) + cot-1(tanx).

65. Find dy/dx if xy + x.e -y + yex = x 2

66. Evaluate:  ex cos 2x dx.

3
67. Evaluate the definite integral as the limit of a sum :  x2 dx.
2

68. A consulting firm rents car from three agencies such that 20% from agency X , 30% from agency
Y and 50% from agency Z. If 90% of the cars from X, 80% of the cars from Y and 95% of the
cars from Z are in good condition.
(i) What is the probability that the firm will get a car in good condition?
(ii) If a car is in good condition what is the probability that it has come from Y ?

69. Prove that (1 + co t A + tan A) (sin A – cos A) = [ (sec A)/(cosec 2A) ] – [ (cosec A)/(sec 2A)]

70. Find the equation of the circle which passes through (1,-1) and cuts
orthogonally each of the circle x2 + y2 + 5x - 5y + 9 = 0 and x2 + y2 - 2x + 3y – 7 = 0.

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PRAKASH INSTITUTE 17 +1 Model Question Papers

 Our “Win Centum Coaching Program” for +2 powered with

 Excellent Coaching by the EXPERTS with rich experience in the field

 Coaching will be given in Maths , Phy and Che
 Memory Refresher ( Study Material ) will be given for each subject
 Assignment in the important questions will be given
 Periodical Tests will be conducted
 Answer sheets will be valued promptly
 One to one interaction with the teachers for doubt clarification

Phase I : (with special fee concession)

(a) +2 Classes commence from January 8th , 2008
(b) “Free” Revision Classes and Tests will be conducted in +1 Syllabus
(c) 40% of the +2 First Midterm Portions will be finished before 04.02.2008
and the remaining portions will be finished during May 2008.
(d) Free +1 Revision Classes , Tests will be conducted after 04.02.2007
Phase II :
(a) +2 Classes commence from 2nd week of April, 2007
(b) +2 First Midterm Portions will be finished before 14.05.2007
(c) Classes will be re-started from June 1st, after summer vacation

Merit Scholarships
In order to honour and encourage the meritorious students we offer the following
concessions on our coaching fee
Group A : Overall percentage ( for 100 )mark in 10th Public Exam
Group B : Overall percentage ( for 100 ) mark in our 5 unit tests in “+1 Free Class”
Group C : Overall percentage ( for 100 ) mark in our +1 Pre common Examination
Scholarship
Scholarship details Discount
Title

Achiever More than 270 100% discount in fee.

DIAMOND ( in Groups A,B,C) out of 300 “FREE +2 COACHING “

Achiever Less than 270 and more than 240 75% discount in

GOLD ( in groups A,B,C) out of 300 +2 coaching fee

Achiever Less than 240 and more than 200 60% discount in
( in groups A,B,C) out of 300 +2 coaching fee
SILVER

Limited Period offer

PRAKASH INSTITUTE 18 +1 Model Question Papers