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General Studies
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2015-Mock-1
Answer Key and Supplementary Notes
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2. With reference to the mitosis and meiosis in the cells, consider the following statements:
1. While two daughter cells are formed in Mitosis, four daughter cells are produced in meiosis
2. While mitosis occurs in somatic cells, meiosis occurs in reproductive cells
Which among the above is / are correct statements?
Answer: Both 1 & 2
Notes:
A simple snippet from a 9th standard ICSE book is given below:
3. Which among the following is / are correct deference(s) between an artery and a vein?
1. Generally, an artery has thick muscular wall while a vein has thin muscular wall
2. Generally, arteries are located deeper in the body, while veins are closer to the skin
3. Generally, valves are absent in arteries while present in veins
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: 1, 2 & 3
Notes:
Oxygen Concentration
Arteries
Veins
Rigid walls
more rigid
collapsible
4. The chairman of the Competition Law Tribunal can be a person who is/ had been____:
1. Chief Justice of India
2. Judge of Supreme Court
3. Chief Justice of High Court
4. Judge of High Court
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: 2 or 3
Notes:
Out of the given options, India has cross border electricity trade with only Bhutan and Nepal. India Pakistan energy
trade has been a topic of speculation for some time now. On the other hand, India has also decided to approve the
cross-border trading on the Indian Energy Exchange (IEX) with an objective to facilitate an integrated power grid for
members of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC). As of now, the India-Bhutan, IndiaNepal and India-Bangladesh grids are interconnected and cross-border trade is already taking place through
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7. In recent times, Net Neutrality has been a subject of debate. Which among the following statement(s) explain the
concept of Net Neutrality?
1. Internet service providers and governments should treat all data on the internet equally
2. Internet service providers should not be able to slow down some content or speed up others to maintain equal
access
3. There should be no discrimination between the different packets that an Internet service provider (ISP) carries
4. The charges of internet access should be equal across the ISPs and nations -Not
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: Only 1, 2 & 3
Notes:
Free Internet
The definition of Net Neutrality is still under development. Basically, Net Neutrality is the principle that internet
service providers and governments should treat all data on the internet equally, not discriminating or charging
differentially by user, content, site, platform, application, type of attached equipment or mode of communication.
Net neutrality is commonly described as the principle of ensuring that there is no discrimination between the
different packets that an Internet service provider (ISP) carries. That means that the traffic from NDTV should be
treated equally by Reliance Infocomm as the traffic from Network 18s CNNIBN; that even if Facebook wants to pay
Airtel to deliver Whatsapps packets faster than Vibers, Airtel may not do so; that peer-to-peer traffic is not
throttled; that Facebook will not be able to pay Airtel to keep its subscribers bound within its walled gardens; and
also that Airtel cant claim to be providing Internet access while restricting that to only Facebook or Whatsapp.
8. Which among the following is / are near money?
1. T-bills
Treasury bills (T-bills) offer short-term investment opportunities,
2. Equity Shares of a company generally up to one year. They are thus useful in managing
3. Bill of Exchange
short-term liquidity. At present, the Government of India issues three
4. Debentures
types of treasury bills through auctions, namely, 91-day, 182-day and
Near Money is the money which is not cash but can be changed in cash in short time. But in the question, Equity
shares of a company is something which cannot be said as near money because equity shares can and do go through
periods where there are few would-be buyers.
9. Which among the following factors can trigger Demand Pull inflation?
1. Fall in the consumption expenditure
2. Increase in the level of unemployment
3. Sharp reduction in the income tax
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: Only 3
Notes:
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Demand Pull Inflation means that there is a demand that is pulling more money to chase too few goods. If there is a
fall in the consumption expenditure, we cannot expect that there will be inflation pulled by demand. Demand Pull
inflation is considered to arise when aggregate demand in an economy is more than aggregate. To let this happen the
unemployment level must fall, because if there is high level of unemployment, aggregate demand will be less. The
third option fits the bill because if all of the sudden Government becomes benign and makes income up to some 5-6
Lakh rupees tax free, this will lead to Demand Pull Inflation.
10. Continuous increase in tax rates will result in:
Answer: Increase in tax revenue up to a point and then decrease
Notes:
The basic principle is that zero tax rate would produce zero revenue and a 100% tax rate would also generate zero
revenue; why would people work if everything is taken off in taxes. Thus, there is a need to have an optimal tax rate,
which would yield maximum revenue for the government. When all other things being equal, if tax rates are
lowered, tax revenues will drop in the same proportion. Any increase should also make collections grow, but this
happens only up to a point. This is also known as Laffer Curve.
11. Currently, which among the following fertilizers are under statutory price control in India?
1. Urea
2. Di-ammonium Phosphate
3. Muriate of Potash
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: Only 1
Notes:
Urea is the only fertilizer under statutory price control. It can be deregulated any time.
12. The origin of which among the following rivers is in Tibet?
1. Sutlej River
2. Indus River
3. Ghaghara River
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: 1, 2 & 3
Notes:
Ghaghara is a trans-boundary perennial river originating on the Tibetan plateau near Lake Mansarovar. It cuts
through the Himalayas in Nepal and joins the Sarda River at Brahmaghat in India. Indus River, originating in the
Tibetan plateau of western China in the vicinity of Lake Mansarovar in Tibet Autonomous Region, the river runs a
course through the Ladakh district of Jammu and Kashmir and then enters Pakistan via the Northern Areas (GilgitBaltistan), flowing through the North in a southerly direction along the entire length of Pakistan, to merge into the
Arabian Sea near the port city of Karachi in Sindh.Sutlej Riverm, the longest of the five rivers that flow through the
historic crossroad region of Punjab in northern India and Pakistan, originates near Lake Rakshastal in Tibet near
Mount Kailas, and it flows generally west and southwest entering India through the Shipki La pass in Himachal
Pradesh.
13. Consider the following art forms of India:
1. Ramman
2. Mudiyettu
3. Kalbelia
Which among the above are included in the UNESCOs Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of
Intangible - not having physical presence
Humanity?
[A]1 & 2
[B]2 & 3
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[C]Only 2
[D]1, 2 & 3
Answer: 1, 2 & 3
Notes:
The following art forms find mention in UNESCOs Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of
Humanity:(10 Parts)
Kutiyattam is a form of Sanskrit theatre that originated in Kerala. It is recognised as a oral heritage
Vedic chanting which is considered the oldest unbroken oral tradition is also recognized as a oral heritage
by UNESCO
The performance of Ram Leela, which is the enactment of Lord Ramas life as described in Ramayana
Ramman which is a religious festival and ritualistic theatre prevalent in the Garhwal Himalayas
Mudiyettu, which is a ritual theatre and fold dance drama performed in temples in Kerala, and is
representative of the mythological battle between Kali and the demon, Darika
Chhau Dance is a tribal martial dance form found in Odisha, Jharkhand and West Bengal
Novruz, which is the observance of the Persian or Parsi New Year in India
Chanting of sacred Buddhist texts in the Ladakh and J&K region is also an oral cultural heritage.
14. Recently, the European Central Bank (ECB) announced that it would introduce a big programme of quantitative
easing. Which among the following comprise quantitative easing?
1. Cutting Interest Rates
2. Pumping Money in the economy directly
3. Issuing Bonds in the market
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: 2 only
Notes:
Quantitative Easing refers to creation of money to buy financial assets including sovereign bonds. Central banks
usually stimulate a slowing economy by cutting interest rates, which encourage people to spend by borrowing more
or discouraging them to save. But with interest rates in the developed world already close to zero, that option is no
longer available. In such situations , the central banks resort to pumping money directly into the economy, a process
Kindly read the second statement again. Intervention of the higher courts on appeals against the lower courts is not
judicial activism.
16. Consider the following:
1. Ideas
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2. Expression of Ideas
3. Inventions
Which among the above is / are protected under laws pertaining to intellectual property rights (IPR) in India?
Answer: Only 2 & 3
Notes:
Kindly note that Ideas cannot be protected under any law pertaining to intellectual property rights (IPR). Copyrights
protect expression of an idea, while Patents protect inventions. It's worth note that the industries such as cinema,
music, photography etc. have strong unions safeguarding the creative rights but still ideas are not protected under
IPR anywhere. Thus, only embodiment of an idea in a tangible form can be protected.
17. With reference to the Khilafat Movement, consider the following statements:
1. This movement was essentially to express support for the Caliph of Turkey against the allied powers
2. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was one of the prominent leaders of Khilafat Movement in India
3. The movement ended with an agreement between its leaders and the British
Which among the above is / are correct statements?
Answer: Only 1 & 2
Notes:
The Khilafat Movement was essentially a movement to express Muslim support for the Caliph of Turkey against the
allied powers particularly Britain. The Muslims were especially upset about the future of the Islamic places of
worship after the allied powers had partitioned the Turkish Empire. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, Dr. M.A. Ansari and
the Ali brothers were the prominent leaders of the movement.
The Ali brothers were arrested during the course of the war only to be released from jail after the war was over. This
movement reached a crescendo in Bengal, North-West Frontier Province and the Punjab. On 19th October 1919, the
country observed the Khilafat Day. On 19th January 1 920, the Ali brothers met the Viceroy to apprise him of Indian
sentiments in regard to position of the Sultan of Turkey but in vain.
A Khilafat Manifesto was also prepared. In March 1920 a committee under the leadership of Maulana Shaukat Ali
and Muhammad Ali was also sent to England. But the committee failed to bring the British around to its view. After
a while the Khilafat movement came to an end in 1922 when Mustapha Kemal led a revolution in Turkey and
abolished the office of the Caliph.
18. A person who wants to be Comptroller and Auditor General of India must also be qualified to be appointed as __?
Answer: Judge of Supreme Court
Notes:
Constitution in Article 74(2) mentains that the question if any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to
the President shall not be inquired into in any court. Thus second statement is incorrect. First is also incorrect and
same section was used krishna
to reject
such requests. Third statement is incorrect and is my own imagination to confuse
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you.
20. The environmental impacts of the concretization is one of the major issues in urban areas around the world.
Which among the following is / are environmental hazard(s) of surface concretization?
1. Increased Carbon dioxide emissions
2. Radioactive Pollution
3. Urban heat island effect
4. Emission of harmful rays
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: 1, 2, 3 & 4
Notes:
Surface concretization is one of the major environmental issues in urban areas around the world. Concretization is
not always harmful but depends upon the circumstances. Since cement is major component of concrete; the it
contributes a lot in the harmful environmental impacts caused by concrete. Such impacts include:
Cement Industry is a major contributor for carbon dioxide, a major GHG. It leads to global warming and
climate change.
Concrete causes surface runoff of the water. This might result in soil erosion, water pollution and
flooding.
Concrete is a major contributor of Urban Heat Island because of the massive rise in temperatures since
concretized surface gets heated up much faster and also loses heat at night at faster rate.
Concretized surface emits / radiates harmful Ultraviolet-B rays, which are hazardous to human / animal
health. Further, concrete has presence of many substances which might causes toxicity and health
problems.
Concrete can also lead to radioactive pollution because of presence of various natural radioactive elements
(K, U and Th) in concrete dwellings. However, it depends on the type of raw material used for the creation
of the concrete.
Excessive concretised surface also causes 'visual pollution' as a concretised surface looks barren in contrast
with the aesthetically beautiful green area.
Visual pollution Mean - aesthetic pollution, anything unattractive or visualing damaging to the
nearby landscape.
example -Skyscrapers that blocks a natural view, Graffiti or carving on trees, rocks, or other
natural landscapes Billboards, litter, abandoned homes, and junkyards could also be considered
8
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among three kinds of environmental
pollution
Kindly note that the current break up of instaled capacity is hydro (3804 MW), wind power (21136 MW), Bio mass
power / co-generation (4014 MW), Waste to power (107 MW) and Solar power (2132 MW). Further, notable fact
is that wind power output alone exceeds nuclear-generated electricity in India.
22. The Montreal Protocol was signed to phase out use of CHCs and HCFCs and replace them with HFCs. What
advantage(s) is / are offered by HFCs over CHCs and HCFCs?
1. HFCs are ozone friendly in comparison to CHCs and HCFCs
Kyoto protocal - global warming 2. HFCs are not proved to posses potential to contribute to global warming japan- 1997
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: Only 1
montreal
protocal - ozone depletingkrishna veni pradeep. Email address: krish.siddu@gmail.com
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Notes:
uk - 1987
Montreal Protocol is a UN treaty signed in 1987 to ban ozone-depleting substances like chloroflurocarbons (CFCs)
and hydrochloroflurocarbons (HCFCs), which were used in refrigerators and air conditioners. HFCs were brought
into replace the ozone-depleting substances but it was proved later that the ozone friendly gas has a potent warming
effect. Reference
(Hydroflurocarban)
23. The roots of which of the following plants are home to a variety of Nitrogen fixation bacteria?
1. Lentils
2. Groundnut
3. Sugarcane
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: Only 1 & 2
Notes:
The notable point in this question is that while some sugarcane varieties are known to be capable of fixing
atmospheric nitrogen in association with a bacterium called Glucoacetobacter diazotrophicus; in contrary to legumes and
other nitrogen fixing plants which form root nodules in the soil in association with bacteria, G. diazotrophicus lives
within the intercellular spaces of the sugarcane's stem.
24. The Mohorovicic discontinuity:
1. Separates the mantle from the Crust
2. breaks the waves originating in the mantle
Which among the above is / are correct statements?
Answer: Only 1
Notes:
The first statement is correct because Mohorovicic discontinuity separates the mantle from the Crust The Upper
mantle is fluid in nature and this is the place where all the volcanic activities originate so statement 2 is incorrect.
There is a Gutenberg discontinuity between the mantle and the earth's interior which limits the core and breaks the
waves that penetrate from the mantle.
25. With reference to the Arms Trade Treaty, which has entered into force in 2014, consider the following
statements:
1. This treaty seeks to set up an international agency that will control the availability of arms and ammunition
around the world
http://www.state.gov/r/pa/prs/ps/2013/09/214706.htm
http://www.betterworldcampaign.org/what-we-are-doing/att_myth_fact.html
26. With reference to the Istanbul Convention, that came into force in 2014, consider the following statements:
1. It is most closely related to Non-Navigational Uses of International Watercourses
2. It is first legally-binding instrument of its kind
Which among the above is / are correct statements?
Answer: Only 2
Notes:
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Istanbul convention has come into force on 1st August 2014. It is the Convention on preventing and combating
violence against women and domestic violence. Its first legally binding agreement on violence against women and
in Europe
domestic violence. More information is available here.
27. The correct sequence in terms of east flowing rivers from North to South in India is __:
Answer: Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Pennar, Kaveri
28. Which among the following statements with respect to Inflation is / are true?
1. Inflation redistributes wealth from creditors to debtors
2. Rising inflation indicates rising aggregate demand
3. Inflation increases employment in the short run
4. Investment in the economy is boosted by the inflation in the short run
Which among the above is / are correct statements?
Answer: 1, 2, 3 & 4
Notes:
The first statement is correct that Inflation redistributes wealth from creditors to debtors. This implies that the
lenders suffer and borrowers benefit out of inflation. The opposite effect takes place during disinflation. Second
statement is also correct as rising inflation indicates rising aggregate demand and indicates comparatively lower
supply and higher purchasing capacity among the consumers. Third statement is also correct as investment in the
economy is boosted by the inflation (in the short-run) because higher inflation indicates higher demand and suggests
enterpreneurs to expand their production level. Further, higher the inflation, lower the cost of loan. Last statement is
also correct as Inflation increases employment in the shortrun but becomes neutral or even negative in the long run.
This can be explained by Phillips Curve.
29. Consider the following:
1. General fall in demand
2. General rise in inflation
3. General rise in unemployment
4. General price cuts by producers of goods and services
Which among the above traits can be used to identify a "depression" in the economy?
Answer: Only 1, 3 & 4
Notes:
10
There is no widely accepted definition of agricultural extension however, closest definition is given by statement 1 in
this question. It application of scientific research and new knowledge to agricultural practices through farmer
education. It plays a vital role in community development. It is a two-way channel that brings scientific information
to rural people and takes their problems to scientific institutes (for further research and development) for their
solution.
31. In recent times, the term "Clean coal" has been making news frequently. Which among the following statements
is the closest explanation to clean coal ?
Answer: Underground coal gasification and liquefaction to reduce CO2 emissions
Notes:
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The basic idea is to reduce CO2 emission by either converting coal to something which reduces less CO2 or using
Carbon Capture and Storage. Thus, underground coal gasification and liquefaction which converts coal into liquid
and gaseous fuel alternatives is a recognized 'clean coal' technology-handy in extraction of energy from coal seams
which cannot be mined through conventional methods.
32. Consider the following festivals:
1. Vaisakhi
2. Losar
3. Vishu
Which among the above is / are predominantly harvest festivals?
Answer: Only 1
Notes:
Vaisakhi is the harvest festival of the Punjabis. It also marks the establishment of Khalasa Panth. Vishu is the
Malayalam new year and is celebrated with much fanfare and vigour in all parts of Kerala. The Loser festival marks
the beginning of the New Year in Ladakh and China's Tibet and considered to be the most important festival of the
region. During this festival the Ladakhi Buddhists make religious offering before their deities in the domestic shrines
or in the Gompas.
33. Why a little pack of Silica Gel (granular beads of Silica made from Sodium Silicate) is packaged with many new
items to control humidity and avoid spoilage or degradation?
Answer: Silica gel is a Hygroscopic substance with large surface area so its molecules absorb the moisture.
Notes:
The silica gel molecules have a large surface area because of the pores of around 2.4 nm. So, it absorbs the moisture.
Hydrophilic products are polarized and Hydrophobic molecules which generally don't catch water are NON polar.
34. Consider the following statements:
1. Wild elephants have been protected under the Schedule 1 of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972
2. Captive Elephants in India don't come under the purview of Wild Life Protection Act
Which among the above is / are correct statements?
Answer: Only 1
Notes:
Elephant (Both in wild as well as captive) is an endangered species included in Schedule 1 of the Wildlife Protection
Act of 1972. Animals included in Schedule 1 need high level of protection. It provides for the certificate of ownership
11
Both the statements are correct in this question. Sin tax refers to the tax levied on products such as cigarettes,
tobacco, wine and soft drinks, or activities such as gambling, which are deemed to be undesirable by the society.
36. Which among the following is / are components of the Macroeconomic Vulnerability Index released by
Ministry of Finance, Government of India?
1. Rate of inflation
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2. Current Account Deficit
3. Fiscal Deficit
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: 1, 2 & 3
Notes:
Macroeconomic Vulnerability Index, as mentioned in the Mid-Year Economic Analysis 2014-2015, released by
Ministry of Finance recently, adds together the rate of inflation, current account deficit and fiscal deficit of a country.
The Index value can be compared across countries for different time periods to gauge their relative vulnerability. The
ministry has done a comparison of the fragile five countriesBrazil, India, Indonesia, South Africa and Turkey.
According to the data, in the beginning of 2013, India was on top of the list with an Index value of 22.4.
The current account deficit was at 4.7% of the gross domestic product (GDP), inflation at 10.2% and budget deficit at
7.5% of GDP. For the purpose of comparison, the ministry has taken data from the World Economic Outlook of the
International Monetary Fund. Though Indias macroeconomic vulnerability has come down, it still needs to be
watchful, noted the mid-year analysis. India still needs to be watchful in terms of its macro-economic fundamentals.
[Live Mint]
37. The term 'Masala Bond', sometimes appearing in news, is used in relation to __:
Answer: Indian rupee denominated bonds issued in offshore capital markets
Notes:
The term Masala Bond is used for Indian rupee denominated bonds issued in offshore capital markets. One example
came to news recently when the International Finance Corporation (IFC), which is investment arm of the world
bank has issued a 10 year, Rs. 1000 Crore bond in London to fund Indian infra projects. The bonds are offered and
settled in US dollars by IFC and then, IFC will convert the dollars into rupees, thus enabling raising Indian Rupees
from international investors.
38. Which among the following represents a fall in the prices?
1. Stagflation
2. Disinflation
3. Deflation
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: Only 3
Notes:
12
Both the statements are correct in this question. The most significant feature of the land revenue system as
introduced by Sher Shah
was the elimination of tbe intermediaries, zamindars, agents or contractors for the purpose
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of collection of the land revenue. Instead, his government had established direct contacts with the ryots or cultivator,
and had thus saved both the panics from being exploited by the middlemen. That is why his land revenue system
has been called the Ryowari System or 'system of the cultivators or ryots'. It is important to remember, however, that
Sher Shah could not introduce this uniform land revenue system throughout his dominions. The iqtas of Multan,
Malwa, Rajputana and a large number of feudatory states did not benefit from his reforms.
40. If you travel through Western Ghats, you are likely to see:
1. Lion-tailed Macaque
2. Markhor
3. Hoolock gibbon
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A]Only 1
[B]1 & 2
[C]1, 2 & 3
[D]1 & 3
Answer: Only 1
Notes:
Markhor is a goat, incidentally also the national animal of Pakistan and is found in Central Asia, Afghanistan,
Pakistan, PoK , Gilgit-Baltistan and India's Jammu and Kashgmir. Similarly, Hoolock gibbon is found in Eastern
Himalaya, India's north East.
41. What factors facilitated the locational shift of the sugar industry from North India to South India ?
1. Per acre higher yield of sugar cane
2. Higher sucrose content of sugar cane
3. Longer crushing season
4. Improved Irrigation facilities
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: 1, 2, 3 & 4
42. One of the popular and widely adopted movement in modern Jainism is Anuvrata Movement. With this
reference consider the following statements:
1. Anuvrata refers to the vows which are to be applied to the practice of daily life
2. Anuvrata allows laxity in the observance of such vows
Which among the above is / are correct statements?
13
In 1949 Acharya Tulsi started a moral revolution, the "Anuvrat Movement" with the aim of re-establishing a strong
system of values, starting with individuals and how they can make a difference. 'Anuvrat' means 'small resolutions',
one who accepts these vows is an 'Anuvrati'. It is a relevent topic for mains also, so you may read this critical study.
43. Consider the following:
1. Foreign Currency Assets
2. Gold
3. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
Which among the following is the correct decreasing order of the above in the Foreign Exchange Reserves of India?
Answer: 1, 2, 3
Notes:
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Variation over
As on January 30, 2015
Week
Item
` Bn.
1
US$ Mn.
2
` Bn.
End-March 2014
` Bn.
US$ Mn.
US$ Mn.
6
Year
` Bn.
7
US$ Mn.
8
1 Total Reserves
20,294.4
327,883.5
432.6
5,845.9
2,010.6
23,660.3
2,109.3
36,813.2
18,747.3
303,325.0
429.4
5,814.5
2,138.2
26,965.7
2,217.9
38,755.7
1,227.2
19,377.9
69.0
2,188.9
27.1
697.8
251.5
4,072.5
2.5
24.6
16.8
391.1
25.3
357.5
68.4
1,108.1
0.7
6.8
41.8
725.4
56.2
887.2
1.2 Gold
1.3 SDRs
1.4 Reserve Position in the
IMF
44. What functions are done by the Non-banking Financial Companies (NBFC) in India?
1. Financing of physical assets
2. Sale and purchase of securities
3. Accept Public Deposits
4. Financing Infrastructure Projects
5. Business of factoring
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A]Only 1, 2 & 3
[B]Only 1, 2 & 4
[C]Only 1, 2, 3 & 4
[D]1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
Answer: 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
Notes:
NBFCs which are holding a valid Certificate of Registration with authorization to accept Public Deposits can
accept/hold public deposits. NBFCs authorized to accept/hold public deposits besides having minimum stipulated
Net Owned Fund (NOF) should also comply with the Directions such as investing part of the funds in liquid assets,
maintain reserves, rating etc. issued by the Bank. Unlike the Banks, they cannot accept demand deposits, they are not
14
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46. With reference to the Prevention of Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace, which among the following is
/ are correct provisions?
1. The Act made it mandatory for all offices with 10 or more employees to have an internal complaints committee to
address grievances in a stipulated time or face penalty.
2. Sexual harassment cases at the workplace will have to be disposed of by in-house complaint committees within 90
days, failing which a penalty will be imposed.
3. Repeated non-compliance of provisions can lead to cancellation of license or registration of the organisation
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: 1, 2 & 3
Notes:
All the above are correct statements and key features related to organizations.
47. At the time of its establishment, the constituent assembly of India was __:
1. A representative body
2. A Sovereign Body
3. Dominated by one political party
Which among the above is / are correct?
Answer: Only 3
Notes:
At the time of its establishment, the Constituent Assembly was not a representative body as its members were not
directly elected by the people of India on the basis of universal adult franchise. Also it was not a sovereign body as it
was created by the proposals of the British Government. The third statement is correct as it was dominated by
Congress.
48. Consider the following statements with respect to the Ordinance making power of the President of India:
1. The president of India can promulgate an ordinance only when both houses of parliament are in session
2. An ordinance promulgated when either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha is in session is void
Which among the above is / are correct statements?
Answer: Neither 1 nor 2
Notes:
President can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session or when either
of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session. An ordinance can also be issued when only one House is in session
15
Part IV (Directive Principles of the State Policy) and Part IVA (Fundamental Duties) of the Constitution are not
applicable to the state of Jammu & Kashmir. The provisions of Art. 368 of the Constitution of India are not
applicable for the amendment of the State Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir. Read this for complete study.
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Notes:
The price earnings ratio, or the PE multiple, is a valuation measure that indicates how much investors are willing to
pay per rupee of the earnings of a company. The PE ratio of a company is calculated by dividing the current market
price of a company share by its earnings per share.
The PE ratio is a much better indicator of the value of a stock than its market price. All things being equal, a Rs. 10
stock with a PE of 30 is much more expensive than a Rs. 100 stock with a PE of 20. The PE of a company must be
compared with others in the same sector or the industry average. It is futile, for instance, to compare the PE of a
services company with that of a manufacturing firm. Investors will often find that the companies with good earnings
track record and stable finances also have a high PE.
51. Consider the following matches:
1. Bhagat Movement - Mavji
2. Lingayat movement - Basava
3. Gaudiya Vaishnavism - Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
Which among the above is / are correct?
Answer: 1, 2 & 3
Notes:
Bhagat Movement is a religious movement among the Bhils scattered in 4 states of India viz. Rajasthan, Gujarat, MP
and Maharastra. Bhagat means a devotee. When one of the Bhils becomes a Bhagat he has to abstain from eating
meat, eggs and drinking wine. He also does not accept bride price. The movement is 3 centuries old and oldest
Bhagat considered to be is Mavji of Rajasthan. Mavji is considered to be the 10th incarnation of Vishnu and had a
large followership in Banswara and Dungarpur of Rajasthan.
The Lingayat movement is a socio-religious movement of Karnataka. its proponent was Basava, a minister of the
Chalukya king Bijjala Raya of Kalyana (1157-68 AD). Virasaivism means the Saivism of the stalwarts or heroic
Saivism.
The Virasaivas philosophy is called Saktivisistadvait a term which means the non-duality of God (viz, Parasiva) as
qualified by power or Shakti. There is no duality between the soul and the Lord God. Lord God and soul are in an
inseparable union through the inalienable power called Shakti.
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16
wadh could not be annexed on the basis of the Doctrine of Lapse as Wajid Ali Shah, the then Nawab of Awadh has
several successors. Awadh was formally annexed to the British Empire in India on 7 Feb 1856 when the reigning
monarch, Wajid Ali Shah , refused to sign a treaty handling over the administration to east India company, with this
act Lord Dalhousie brought to a logical end the progressive subordination of Awadh to British economic and
political control that begun with the battle of buxar. He annexed Awadh in the name of "good of the governed",
condemning the Nawab for misrule the Nawab for misrule and ill administration. Note : Sadaat Ali, the Nawab of
Awadh had to accept the subsidiary alliance on Nov. 10 1801
53. Which of the following
powers is / are exclusively vested in the Rajya Sabha ?
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1. To initiate impeachment proceeding against the president
2. To recommend the creation of new all India services
3. To remove the chairman of UPSC
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: Only 2
Notes:
Rajya Sabha being a federal chamber - representing States/Union territories, enjoys certain special powers, which
are:
To empower Parliament to make laws in respect of any matter enumerated in the State List in the national
interest by adopting a resolution to this effect (article 249)
Creation by law one or more all-India services common to the Union and the States.(article 312)
Approving Proclamations (issued under article 352 or article 356 or article 360) if the Lok Sabha stand
dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place within the period allowed for the approval of the
Proclamation by Parliament.
54. Which among the following was the key objective of the Cripps mission?
Answer: To persuade Indian leaders to support British war efforts
Notes:
The mission was sent to under the pressure from President Roosevelt of the USA and President Chiang Kai Shek of
China.
The aim was to secure the active cooperation of Indians in war by promising some constitutional reform
The declaration promised India Dominion Status and a constitution making body after the war
whose members would be elected by the provincial assemblies and nominated by the Princely States
The demand for separate Pakistan was accommodated by the clause that any province which do not accept
the constitution has right to secede.
55. Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA) does not authorize the States to give the Gram Sabhas
power to regulate and restrict:
Answer: Management of mineral resources
Notes:
Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA) authorizes the States give the Gram Sabhas power to regulate
and restrict sale/consumption of liquor; ownership of minor forest produce; power to prevent alienation of land and
restore alienated land; power to manage village markets, control money lending to STs and power to manage village
17
Tropical Deciduous Forests or Monsoon forests are most common forests. Important trees include Sandal wood,
Shisam, Mahua, Sal, Teak and Bamboo. Moist deciduous and the dry deciduous forests are two major categories of
these forests.
57. Consider the following countries:
1. Russia
2. Venezuela
3. Nigeria
4. Japan
The continuous fall in the
oil prices is likely to most adversely affect which of the above?
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Answer: Only 1, 2 & 3
Notes:
If you observe the countries, you find that the economies of Russia, Venezuela and Nigera is very much dependent
on Oil exports, while Japan is one of the largest net importers of Oil in the world. The current fall in prices of oil has
already triggered a financial crisis in Russia. The Russian ruble, Venezuelas Bolivar and Nigerias naira have already
plunged this year. Thus, the correct option would be D.
58. Which among the following statements with respect to the Ganges River Dolphin is / are correct?
1. It is one of the indicator species, which can indicate the health of Ganga River
2. It is at the apex of the food chain in its habitat
3. Nearly 50 per cent of the total population of Ganges River dolphins is found in Bihar
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: 1, 2 & 3
Notes:
Every Cut Motion to a demand for Grant represents disapproval of some aspect or other of the Budget or the
economic policy of the Government. Accordingly Cut Motion is of three kinds:
Policy Cut: This type of cut motion aims that the amount of the demand be reduced to Re. 1. It represents
the complete disapproval of policy underlying the Demand. This is because the motion aims to reduce the
demand for grant to Re. 1 only, which almost finishes the demand for grant of a ministry.
Economy Cut: This type of cut motion aims that the amount of demand be reduced to certain other
amount and it represents that the demand for grants should be altered.
Token Cut: This Cut Motion aims that the amount of the Demand be reduced by ` 100 in order to
ventilate a specific grievance, which is within the sphere of responsibility of the Government of India.
Actually, Token cut is symbolic and is humiliating for the Government. To be precise, all cut motions are
18
The Cut Motions are mostly defeated due to Number strength of the ruling party or coalition. As the cut motion is a
veto power given to the member of the Lok Sabha to oppose a demand in the financial bill discussed by the
government, it is seen as an effective tool to test the strength of the government. If a cut motion is adopted by the
House and the government does not have the numbers, it is obliged to resign. The cut motion can be admitted to the
house only if it is related to only one demand and not many. No cut motion can be moved on charged expenditures.
The cut motions are important because they facilitate the constructive discussion on each demand and uphold the
principle of democratic government, by giving the members power to veto the demands.
60. Consider the following statements with respect to the Vote on Account:
1. The Vote on Account can be presented by only a caretaker government
2. Vote on Account has provisions of only expenditure side of budget
3. Vote on Account can be valid only for 2 months
venifor
pradeep.
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4. No appropriation billkrishna
is passed
Vote on
Account
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
Answer: Only 2
Notes:
The Appropriation Bill and Finance Bill are presented in the month of February, and they take their own time to
become act. In order to keep the Government functioning, the House is asked to vote usually two months funds i.e.
approximately 1/6th of the total estimated expenditure under various grants. This is called Vote on Account. Vote
on Account is passed after general discussion on the Budget. Usually it is treated as a formal matter and is passed
without discussion. Vote on account is as per provisions of Article 116 of the Constitution. This makes clear that
Vote on Account __:
Can be passed on occasions when government needs some money on its disposal to keep running the
administration till appropriation act is passed.
Related to only taking money out of Consolidated Fund of India and thus limited to expenditure side
Normally related to expenditures of 2 months only that is equivalent to 1/6th of the total budget; but that
is NOT a rule. In 2004-05, the NDA Government sought for a Vote on Account for Four Months. In fact,
during election year or when it is anticipated that the main demands and appropriation bill will take longer
time than two months; the vote-an-account may be for a period extending two months. Typically this
period does not exceed six months, as that is the maximum gap possible between two sittings of the
Parliament.
Can be passed by all governments whether incumbent or regular or caretaker, however, Vote On Account
becomes of special importance when the elections are underway and a caretaker government is in place.
61. To curb the revenue deficit, one should advise the government to__:
1. cut expenditures on subsidy
2. cut social expenditures
3. impose import controls
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: Only 1 & 2
Notes:
The government can curb the revenue deficit either by increasing revenue receipts or by decreasing revenue
expenditure. Revenue expenditure can but reduced by a cut in social expenditures and subsidies. Since both ways
have their own economic and political ramifications, government could never achieve what it was supposed to
19
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67. An amendment of which among the following provisions of the Constitution of India essentially requires to be
ratified by legislatures of at least half of the states?
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Composition of Supreme Court
21
68. The CAG (Comptroller and Auditor General) is known as friend, philosopher and guide of the__?
Answer: Public Account Committee
Notes:
The PAC is an august Parliamentary body that enforces the accountability of the executive, and the CAG as the
constitutional instrument of accountability has repeatedly been referred to as the friend, philosopher and guide of
the PAC.
69. With reference to the Adjournment motion in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. A matter of urgent public importance can be brought before the Legislature and discussed through Adjournment
veni pradeep.
Motion by interruptingkrishna
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2. An Adjournment Motion should be supported by not less than 10 members of the House
Which among the above is / are correct statements?
Answer: Only 1
Notes:
The Legislature carries on its business according to the given agenda, but a matter of urgent public importance can
be brought before the Legislature and discussed through Adjournment Motion by interrupting its regular business.
An Adjournment Motion should be supported by not less than 50 members of the House for being accepted. If
accepted, it results in the holding the ongoing business of the House and discussing the matter raised in the
Adjournment Motion. The basic idea behind this motion is to give an opportunity to the House to discuss a matter of
urgent public importance. The matter should be of definite nature and should have factual basis. The discussion on
the matter takes place at 1600 hours and continues for two and half hours. At the end of the discussion, voting takes
place. Since voting exposes the Government's strength in the House, the ruling party tries not to allow the
acceptance of the Adjournment Motion in the House.
70. Buddha spent most of his monastic life in __:
Answer: Sravasti
Notes:
Sravasti was the capital city of the kingdom of Kosala. Buddha spent most of his monastic life (25 years) in Sravasti.
During that time, the king of Kosala, Prasenjit became a disciple of Buddha. The main monasteries in Sravasti were
Jetavana and the Pubbarama. According to tradition, Buddha spent 19 rainy seasons in Jetavana monastery and six in
Pubbarama monastery. He spent more time in Sravasti than in any other place and performed his major miracles
there, including the Twin Miracle under the Gandamba tree. It was also a place where Buddha delivered largest
number of discourses.
71. Which of the following is / are correct observations regarding the social and cultural conditions in the postGupta period ?
1. There was an increase in the number of land-grants
2. There was an increase in the number of castes in the society
3. There was an increase central control over polity
4. There was an increased incidence of tantric activities
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: Only 1, 2 & 4
22
the sabha, whose membership was open only to the Brahmans of the village or else was found exclusively
in villages gifted to brahmans;
the nagaram, found in centres of trade and commerce, since it was devoted entirely to serving the interests
of the mercantile community.
The Chola economy was based on a three- tiered system. At the local level, agricultural settlements formed the
foundation. Groups of these communities were, in turn, linked to commercial towns called "nagaram," which acted
as redistribution.
73. Consider the following
Muslim poets of medieval India:
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1. Rasakhan
2. Amir Khusrau
3. Mulla Daud
4. Qutuban
Who among the above wrote poetry mainly on Hindu mythological heroes ?
Answer: Only 1
Notes:
Rasakhan was a poet who was both a Muslim and follower of Lord Krishna. The poetry of Raskhan focuses on Lord
Krishna. "Lilas" of Lord Krishna, such as Bal Lila, Chir Haran Lila, Kunj Lila, Ras Lila, Panghat Lila, and Dan Lila,
were his favorite subjects. Apart from Lilas, Raskhan has also created poems on Lord Shankar, Goddess Ganga, and
the Holi festival.
74. The Mahalwari settlement:
1. was a permanent measure introduced as an improvement over other two settlements
2. was applied to each village separately
3. made the peasants' communities as a whole responsible for revenue collection
4. was first introduced in Gangetic valley, Punjab and parts of Central India
Which among the above is / are correct statements?
Answer: Only 1, 3 & 4
Notes:
Mahalwari system was introduced in the North West Provinces, the Punjab, Delhi, Parts of Central India and Uttar
Pradesh In this system, the land was not owned by an individual be it zamindar or any cultivator but by a group of
estates or villages called Mahal. The Mahal was collectively known as the landlord and revenue was collected from
the head of the Mahal, also known as Talukdar.
75. What provisions have been made by the Constitution of India to ensure co-operation between centre and states?
1. Seventh Schedule
2. Interstate Council
3. Zonal Council
4. Finance Commission
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A]Only 1 & 4
[B]Only 1, 2 & 4
[C]Only 1, 3 & 4
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23
The constitution has provided several instruments to ensure co-operation between centre and states. These are:
7th schedule: It clearly demarcates central, state and concurrent list based on the principle of subsidiarity.
Residuary power has been kept with centre.
Integrated Judiciary, All India Services: An integrated judicial system has been established to enforce both
state as well as central laws.
Under article 263 of the constitution Inter State Council has been established to discuss and investigate the
subject of common interest between the centre and the states.
For interstate water disputes parliament can adjudicate for the same.
The concept of joint sector implies cooperation between public-sector and private-sector industries.
77. The execution of which among the following Indians during the British India is commonly called a Judicial
murder?
Answer: Nandakumar
Notes:
Although Maharaja Nandakumar assisted the British during the Battle of Plassey (1757), but he seemed to be hostile
to the British, particularly Warren Hastings . In 1775, a year after Warren Hastings became the Governor-General,
Nandakumar accused him of accepting bribes from the Nawab and others. Hastings retaliated by accusing him of
conspiring to coerce a third party to make the bribery accusation against him.
The charge was soon dismissed, but an accusation of forgery was brought against the Maharaja in an unrelated case.
Despite the fact that the person who levelled the charges against him was an Indian, Nandakumars case was judged
under British laws under which convictions for forgery carried capital punishment. A newly- established British
court at Kolkata sentenced him to death. Nandakumar was publicly hanged on the banks of the Hooghly at
Kidderpur at a place known as Collie Bajar. Sir Elijah Impey the presiding judge who sentenced Nandakumar to
death was a close friend of Warren Hastings.
Thus, the hanging of Nandakumar was termed "Judicial Killing" by Edmund Burke and Lord Thomas Babington
Macaulay. Further, Nandakumars graft charge against Hastings was one of the early acts of rebellion against the
British rule, and heralded one of the most important periods of British history in India.
78. With reference to Pulse production in India, consider the following statements:
1. India is world's largest producer, consumer as well as importer of the pulses
2. The Most produced pulse of India is Chick Pea
3. The top pulse producing state of India is Madhya Pradesh
Which among the above is / are correct statements?
Answer: 1, 2 & 3
Notes:
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79. Which among the following organizations is the Indias largest debt market investor?
Answer: EPFO
80. Consider the following:
1. Oxides of Carbon
2. Oxides of Sulphur
3. Mercury
4. Radioactive material
Which among the above is / are released in the environment when coal is burnt?
Answer: 1, 2, 3 & 4
Notes:
All the options are correct in this question. Coal is considered to be the worst environmental pollutant when burnt
because of its sulphur content and traces of mercury and radioactive material.
81. With reference to the astronomical bodies, what is the difference between Blue Galaxies and Red Galaxies?
Answer: Blue Galaxies are those which are still actively making new stars, while Red Galaxies are those which have
stopped making new stars
82. Consider the following:
1. Excise duty
2. Capital gains tax
3. Fringe Benefit Tax
4. Wealth Tax
Which among the above come under the category of Indirect Taxes?
Answer: Only 1
Notes:
25
84. The mosquito fern or Azolla is one of the most important bio fertilizers. In association with which among the
following Azolla acts as a biofertilizer?
Answer: Blue-green algae
Notes:
Bio-fertilizers such as Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Azospirillum and blue green algae (BGA) have been in use a long
time. Anabaena, a blue green alga in association with water fern Azolla contributes nitrogen and also enriches soils
with organic matter.
85. Consider the following statements:
krishna
pradeep.
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1. The rotation of the earth
onveni
its axis
generates
force on water.
2. Effect of centrifugal force in creating tides is of great use in determining the location of the high tides and low tides
Which among the above is / are correct statements?
Answer: Only 1
Notes:
The rotation of the earth on its axis generates centrifugal force on water. As a result there is a tendency for the water
to be thrown away from the earth. The centrifugal force is directly proportional to the radius of the circle of rotation.
Therefore the centrifugal force will be the maximum at the equator and minimum near the poles. However, the
effect of the centrifugal force along parallels of latitude will be uniform irrespective of the longitude. Therefore, the
effect of centrifugal force in creating tides is of no concern while determining the location of the high tides and low
tides.
86. Consider the following statements about the Angami tribals of India:
1. The people from this tribe live predominantly in the extreme north east part of India
2. The main festival of this tribe is Moatsu
3. Christianity is the major religion followed among the Angami tribal people
Which among the above is / are correct statements?
Answer: Only 1 & 3
Notes:
Angami tribe belongs to the extreme north eastern part of the country, in the state of Nagaland. Tenyidie is the most
common language spoken among the Angamis in Nagaland. The total population of the Angamis is around 12
million. Agriculture is the main occupation. They cultivate rice and grains on the hilly terrains. Christianity is the
major religion followed among the Angami tribal people. Sekrenyi is the main festival celebrated among the Angamis
in Nagaland. The festival falls in the month of February and marks the beginning of the lunar year. This ten day
festival is also known as the Phousnyi among the local people
87. Consider the following matches:
1. Araku Valley - Andhra Pradesh
2. Spiti Valley - Jammu & Kashmir
3. Pin Valley - Himachal Pradesh
Which among the above is / are correct pairs?
Answer: Only 1 & 3
Notes:
26
Reference
89. The indigenous tribal groups found in Andaman Island are__:
1.Jarawa
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2.Sentinelese
3.Onge
4.Shom Pen
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: Only 1, 2 & 3
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Notes:
Shom Pen people are found in Nicobar Islands and rest three in Andaman.
90. In recent times, which among the following sites have emerged as nesting sites for critically endangered vultures?
1. Gandhisagar Wildlife Sanctuary
2. Panna Tiger Reserve
3. Nagarahole Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary
Chose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: Only 1 & 2
Notes:
Vultures, which are on the verge of extinction, have been restricted to Panna Tiger Reserve where efforts are being
taken for their protection and conservation. Now Gandhisagar wildlife sanctuary in Mandsaur and Neemach districts
of Madhya Pradesh has emerged as second best nesting site for the Vultures
91. The Budget documents comprise the inflow and outflow of money to and from __?
1. Consolidated Fund of India
2. Contingency Fund of India
3. Public Account of India
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: All 1, 2 & 3
Notes:
Article 112 (1) of the constitution says that The President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid
before both the Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of
India for that year, in this Part referred to as the annual financial statement. It consists of all expenditures which
have to be charged from consolidated fund of India. As mandated in the Article 112 of the constitution the first
document which is presented to both the houses of the parliament is Annual Financial statement It consist of :
27
Statement I Consolidated Fund of India : which Consists of Revenue Account Receipts &
Disbursements, as well as capital account
2. Receipts and Disbursements.
3. Statement IA Disbursements Charged on the Consolidated Fund of India
4. Statement II Contingency Fund of India Receipts and Disbursements
5. Statement III Public Account of India
6. Receipts & Expenditure of Union Territories without Legislature
92. In which among the following states, you will find Ganges River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica gangetica)?
1. Assam
2. Rajasthan
3. Jharkhand
4. Madhya Pradesh
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: 1, 2, 3 & 4
Notes:
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These dolphins are found in Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal
(7 states ) and ideal habitats are in the Ganga, Chambal, Ghaghra, Gandak, Sone, Kosi, the Brahmaputra and Kulsi
rivers.
93. Which among the following is / are parts of Fiscal policy by the Government of India?
1. Change in the Reserve Requirements
2. Taxation
3. Government Expenditure
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: Only 2 & 3
Notes:
This is very basic question. Change in reserve requirements is not related to the Fiscal Policy; its a part of monetary
policy of RBI.
94. Which among the following Himalayan passes can be used for cross border trade between China and India?
1. Nathu La
2. Lipulekh Pass
3. Shipki La
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: 1, 2 & 3
Notes:
Lipulekh pass connects Kumaon in Uttarakhand to Taklakot (Purang) in Tibet. It has been used as an ancient trade
route between India and China. Shipki La is also connecting India with Tibet and has been used since ancient times
as a trade route. Satluj river enters India via this pass. Nathu la connects Sikkim to China. Thus all are correct options
in this question.
95. Consider the following countries:
1. Finland
2. Iceland
3. Sweden
Which among the above are members of the arctic council but DO NOT border the Arctic Ocean?
Answer: 1, 2 & 3
28
Five countries viz. Russia, United States, Canada, Norway & Denmark surround the Arctic Ocean; the arctic council
members are these five plus Finland, Iceland and Sweden.
96. Which among the following is / are correct statements?
1. There are no landlocked countries among ASEAN members
2. There are only two Landlocked countries among SAARC members
3. All neighbours of India are members of either SAARC or ASEAN
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: None of them
Notes:
First statement is incorrect because Laos is a Landlocked country surrounded by Burma, China , Vietnam , Cambodia
and Thailand. The second statement is easily figured out by you as Nepal, Bhutan and Afghanistan are landlocked.
The Third statement is also incorrect because China is in neither SAARC or ASEAN.
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97. Consider the following:
1. Barrackpore Mutiny
2. Vellore Mutiny
3. First Rampa Rebellion
Which among the following is the correct chronological order in which they took place?
Answer: 2 1 3
Notes:
Vellore Mutiny took place in 1806. Barrackpur is best known for two mutinies; one in 1824 and another in 1857. As
per the records, the 26th, 47th and 62th battalions of the Native Infantry of the Bengal army were ordered to March
to Chittagong and from there to board the ships to reach Rangoon to participate in the First Anglo Burmese War in
October 1824. Indian Sepoys had taboo of going by sea and refused it. This triggered a mutiny in Barrackpore which
was led by Binda. Similalry, there are two Rampa Rebellions. Rampa Rebellion of 1879 is the First Rampa Rebellion
and second one is Rampa Rebellion of 1922-24. They took place in the current Vizag.
98. Which among the following can induce the formation of Ground Level Ozone?
1. Nitrogen Oxides
2. Carbon Dioxide
3. Methane
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: Only 1 & 3
Notes:
Its not CO2 that plays role in making of the Ground Level Ozone. Ground Level Ozone is formed from the Nitrogen
Oxides, CO and Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs). The Ground Level Ozone is also called the Tropospheric
Ozone. In the last 100 years the emission of Methane, which is a Volatile Organic Compound has increased
dramatically and it has contributed to the Ground Level Ozone formation.
99. What should RBI do to check inflation?
1. Raise Bank Rates
2. Reserve Ratio Requirements
3. Purchase securities in the Open Markets
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
Answer: Only 1 & 2
Notes:
29
Prime Minister is the chairman of National Disaster Management Authority, while the Chief Minister is the
Chairman of State Disaster Management Authority. Second statement is also not correct. The National fund is at the
disposal of a high level committee of the Union Ministry (which includes Finance, Home and Agriculture Ministers).
Similarly, state fund is at
disposal of the state executive.
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30