Phys 15a

Solutions

Fall 10

Midterm #2

1.

(a) d If the hemisphere is sliced into horizontal pancakes, the lower pancakes are larger.
Each pancake can effectively be replaced by a point mass at its center. So the hemisphere
is equivalent to a series of point masses that are larger the lower they are. The CM is
therefore less than halfway to the top.
(b) b The initial energy is mv 2 /2. Conservation of p gives the final speed as v/2, so the
final energy is (2m)(v/2)2 /2 = mv 2 /4. Therefore, mv 2 /2 mv 2 /4 = mv 2 /4 is converted
to heat.
(c) d The photons move at speed c with respect to you. Since both of these speeds are
measured with respect to the same thing (you), we can simply add them; the velocity
addition formula doesnt apply. We therefore obtain c + c = 2c. Equivalently, in your
frame the gap between the photons is closing at a rate of 3108 m/s+3108 m/s = 6108 m/s.
(d) a As viewed by the train, the eastern person on the ground is the rear person (as the
ground flies by in the westward direction). So the eastern persons clock is ahead, as
viewed by the train. If the two people clap when their clocks read, say, noon, then the
train sees the eastern persons clock read noon first, which means she claps first.
(e) e = when v = c. So E = mc2 implies infinite energy when v = c. And
F = 3 ma = a = F/ 3 m implies that a becomes very small as v c. Choice (b) is
incorrect because there is no need for infinite acceleration.
(f) b Both scenarios have the same total energy, E = 4mc2 . So the Very Important Relation,
E 2 = p2 c2 + M 2 c4 , tells us that the particle with the smaller p has the larger M . The
second scenario has the smaller p, because the moving mass has less energy (and hence
less momentum, by the Very Important Relation) than in the first scenario.
(g) c Friction does no work, because the thing applying the force (the ground) isnt moving.
So energy is conserved. At the highest point on the right side, the ball is still rotating,
so there is energy contained in the rotation. The potential energy must therefore be less
than at the start. In other words, the ball doesnt go as high.
(h) c The mass is more concentrated in the center in choice (c). So when written in the
form of mr2 , the for choice (c) is the smallest. This means that less energy goes
into rotational energy, and more goes into translational energy. The CM speed for (c) is
therefore largest.
(i) a L is the sum of the angular momentum around the CM, plus the angular momentum of
the object treated like a point mass at the CM. The former has a clockwise sense relative
to A (and any other point, for that matter). The latter has a counterclockwise sense
relative to A (but zero relative to B, and clockwise relative to C). So it is possible for
these two contributions to cancel around point A if is chosen correctly ( = 6v/`, as
you can quickly show).
(j) b By conservation of Lz , the change in the wheels Lz equals the change in your Lz . The
z component of L changes only slightly in (a) and (c), because L is nearly horizontal.
But it changes significantly in (b), because L is nearly vertical.

2.

(a) Tunnel frame: The relevant picture is:

L
0

L/
v
train

-__
Lv
c2

tunnel

L-L/

The photon must travel a distance L L/ at speed c, so the time elapsed in the tunnel
frame is L(1 1/)/c. And since the front clock in the tunnel starts at zero, it reads
L(1 1/)/c when the photon reaches it.
(b) Train frame: The relevant picture is (see below for the explanations of the various
clock readings and distances):
-__
Lv _
1
c2

Lv2/c2
-__
Lv
c2

v
-__
Lv
c2

train
L

-__
Lv _
Lv
1 __
c2 + c2

Lv2/c2+L/-L
tunnel
L/

First, the clocks: The given information tells us that both clocks on the train read
Lv/c2 when the photon is fired (because the front clock reads this, by the rear-clockahead effect in part (a)). So we know that a time of Lv/c2 must elapse in the train frame
by the time the left ends meet, because we are told that they read zero then. During
this period, a time of (Lv/c2 )/ elapses on the tunnel clocks (because they run slow in
the train frame), so the left tunnel clock must read (Lv/c2 )/, as shown (because it
eventually reads zero when the left ends meet). The right clock in the tunnel is the rear
clock from the trains point of view, so it is Lv/c2 ahead of the left clock; it therefore
reads (Lv/c2 )/ + Lv/c2 = (Lv/c2 )(1 1/), as shown.
Now, the distances: During the time of Lv/c2 that it takes the left end of the tunnel
(which is moving at speed v) to reach the left end of the train, the tunnel travels a distance
(Lv/c2 )v = Lv 2 /c2 , as shown. The total span of the train and tunnel at the instant shown
is therefore Lv 2 /c2 +L/, which means that the two right ends are separated by a distance
Lv 2 /c2 + L/ L. Note that this can be written as L/ L/ 2 .
This gap of L/ L/ 2 is closed at a relative speed of c + v, so the time it takes in the
train frame for the right end of the tunnel to meet the photon is (L/ L/ 2 )/(c + v).
However, the tunnels clocks run slow, so only (L/ L/ 2 )/(c + v) elapses on them,
which can be written as (L/ 2 )(1 1/)/(c + v)
From above, the right clock in the tunnel starts the process at (Lv/c2 )(1 1/), and we
just found that (L/ 2 )(1 1/)/(c + v) elapses on it, so the final reading when the right
end meets the photon is

Lv
1
L
1
1
Lv 1 Lv
Lv
L
1
1

+
1

or

+
+
+

L
c2

2
c+v
c2
c2
c2

(c + v)
(1)
in the form without the minor simplification in terms of .
Remark: In the train frame, note that the overlap distance of the train and tunnel is LLv 2 /c2 =
L/ 2 , which is 1/ times the L/ length of the tunnel. This fraction 1/ must be the same as the
fractional overlap in part (a). That is, it must be frame independent, because you could imagine
a paint bomb exploding at the front of the train when the photon is released, which leaves a mark
at a specific point in the tunnel. And indeed, from the picture in part (a) the fractional overlap
is (L/)/L = 1/. (So technically the tunnel in the above figure should be moved a little to the
left, to be consistent with the picture in part (a).)

Extra credit: Lets show that this is equivalent to the answer in part (a):

1
L
1
1
1
v
v2
1
Lv
1

+
1

=
L
1

+
1

c2

2
c+v

c2
c2 c + v

1
v
c+vcv
1
= L 1
+

c2
c
c
c+v

=
=

1
v
cv
L 1
+

c2
c2

1 1
L 1
,
c

(2)

as desired.
3.

(a) Well use conservation of E and p, and then apply the Very Important Relation to the
mass m. Well drop the cs and then put them back in at the end to make the units right.
py : We know that E = p (or E = pc with the cs) for a photon. So conservation of
py quickly gives the py of the mass m as E sin . This is the total momentum of m
since it is moving only upward.
px : The initial photons have x-momenta equal to E and E cos . So conservation
of px gives the px of the resulting photon as E(1 cos ). Its energy is therefore also
E(1 cos ).
E: The initial energy is 2E, and we just found that the final photon has energy
E(1 cos ). So conservation of energy gives the energy of the mass m as 2E E(1
cos ) = E(1 + cos ).
The Very Important Relation applied to m then gives
m2

=
=
=
=

= m =

2
Em
p2
m

E 2 (1 + cos )2 sin2 )

E 2 (1 + 2 cos + cos2 sin2 )

E 2 (2 cos + 2 cos2 )
(using sin2 = 1 cos2 )
Ep
2 cos + 2 cos2
c2

(3)

where we have put the cs back in to make the units correct.

p
(b) If we write the answer as (E/c2 ) 2 cos (1 + cos ), the cos factor under the square root
tells us that we must have cos 0 if m is to be a real quantity (which it must be, of
course). Therefore, we must have 90 . (The exact value of = 180 is technically
also allowed. The two photons simply become a photon with twice the energy.)
(c) If = 0, then cos = 1, so Eq. (3) gives m = 2E/c2 . This makes sense for the following
reason. If = 0, there is zero py before the collision. So the py of m must also be zero.
In other words, m must be at rest (equivalently, it moves upward with v = 0). If = 0,
there is also zero px before the collision. So the momentum of the final photon must be
zero (because m doesnt have any px ), which means that it also has zero energy. In other
words, it doesnt exist. So the mass m (which just sits there) must have all of the initial
energy. Therefore, mc2 = 2E = m = 2E/c2 .
If = 90 , then cos = 0, so Eq. (3) gives m = 0 . So the mass m is actually a
photon. This makes sense for the following reason. Conservation of py says that the
momentum (and hence energy) of the mass must be E. And conservation of px says
that the momentum (and hence energy) of the photon must be E. So we essentially have
two photons in the final state, both with energy E. Its just as if the two initial photons
passed through each other and kept going. The final state is the same as the initial state,
so it certainly satisfies conservation of E and p with the initial state.
4. Energy is conserved, because we are told that the collision is elastic. Also, angular momentum
around the pole is conserved, because the force provided by the pole provides no torque around
it. But linear momentum is not conserved, because the pole applies a force.
The initial energy is Ei = mv02 /2. The final energy comes only from the CM motion of the
2
dumbbell (because it isnt rotating), so Ef = (2m)vCM
/2. Conservation of E therefore gives
1
v0
1
2
mv 2 = (2m)vCM
= vCM = .
2 0
2
2

(4)

Consider the angular momentum relative to the pole. The initial L comes from the moving
mass, which is a distance ` x away from the pole. So Li = mv0 (` x). The final L comes
only from the CM motion of the dumbbell (because it isnt rotating). The CM is a distance x
away from the pole, so Lf = (2m)vCM x. Conservation of L therefore gives
mv0 (` x) = (2m)vCM x.

(5)

Using vCM = v0 / 2 from above, this becomes

v0 (` x) =

2v0 x = x =

`
= `( 2 1)
2+1

(6)

which is slightly less than `/2.

Note: Another way of obtaining the result in Eq. (5) is to use the L = rp relation with the
origin being a dot on the table where the CM is. This gives

Lf Li = x(pf pi ) = 0 (mv0 `) = x 2mvCM (mv0 ) ,

(7)
where the 0 here comes from the fact that the CM of the (nonrotating) dumbbell is moving
directly away from our choice of origin. This equation is equivalent to Eq. (5).
Extra credit: The moment of inertia of the dumbbell around its center is 2 m`2 . For a quick
strike we have
L = `p = (2m`2 ) = `(2m)vCM = = vCM /`.

(8)

The motion of the end that isnt struck is the forward CM motion minus the backwards rotational motion. So the speed is vCM ` = vCM (vCM /`)` = 0, as desired.
5.

(a) The free body diagrams for the cylinder and board look like this:

Board:

Cylinder:
Ff

T
N2

N2

mg
Ff

N1
mg
We have arbitrarily picked upward to be the positive direction for the friction force on the
board. If it comes out negative, that just means that it actually points downward. (Well
eventually be demanding that it equals mg sin in part (c).) By Newtons third law, the
friction points in the opposite direction on the cylinder. The normal forces are simply
N1 = 2mg cos and N2 = mg cos , but these are irrelevant for the present purposes.
(b) The various equations are:
F = ma (along the plane) on the board: mg sin Ff = mab
F = ma (along the plane) on the cylinder: T + mg sin + Ff = mac
= I on the cylinder (around the center): (T Ff )r = (mr2 /2)
Non-slipping condition: ac = ab + r because the non-slipping condition tells us
that r is the acceleration of the cylinder with respect to the board, which itself is
accelerating at ab . Hence ac = ab + r.
Given T , we have four equation and four unknowns: ab , ac , , and Ff . (Or six and six, if
you count the normal forces and the F = ma equations perpendicular to the plane.)

(c) If ab = 0, the first equation above tells us that Ff = mg sin . And the fourth equation
says that ac = r = = ac /r. The second and third equations then become
T + mg sin + mg sin = mac
a
1
c
(T mg sin )r = mr2
2
r

T + 2mg sin = mac ,

1
= T mg sin = mac .
2

(9)

Subtracting these equations quickly yields ac = 6g sin . And then we find T = 4mg sin .