You are on page 1of 3

Quantum Mechanics I Note #21

Peter Gyu Young Chang

Physics 143a
Prof. Gerald Gabrielse

Lecture Date: 04/14/2016


CA: Achilleas Porfyriadis

Lecture Summary
Learn how to use CG coefficient table. (For exam)
Perturbation expansion.
Energy eigenstate first and second-order correction and eigenket first-order correction
(Non-degenerate case).
2-state nearly-degenerate perturbation.
~ and S
~ and Clebsch-Gordon coefficient as change of basis matrix elements.
Coupling of L

Questions
1. What is the probabilistic interpretation of changing between coupled and de-coupled eigenstates (using CG coefficients)?
2. What happens if you change basis twice?
3. How are we able to assume small , do a power series in , and then plug in = 1 to get
the fully perturbed state?

Answers
1. What is the probabilistic interpretation of changing between coupled and de-coupled eigenstates (using CG coefficients)?
e.g.) If two particles of spin 2 and spin 1 are at rest in a box, and the total spin is 3, and
its z component is 0:
r
1
1
3
|(2, 1), 3, 0i = |2, 1i |1, 1i +
|2, 0i |1, 0i + |2, 1i |1, 1i
5
5
5
(1)

Then, the measurement of Sz yields value 1 with probability 1/5, the value 0 with
(2)
probability 3/5, and the value 1 with probability 1/5. (Same thing holds with Sz )
Conversely, for a system of two particles with (s1 , m1 ) = ( 32 , 21 ) and (s2 , m2 ) = (1, 0), the
total angular momentum yields:
r 



 r 

 r 


3 1
3
3
3
5
1
1
3
1
1 3
1 1
,


2 2 |1, 0i = 5 2 , 1 , 2 , 2 + 15 2 , 1 , 2 , 2 3 2 , 1 , 2 , 2
which means that if you measure the total spin, you get value 5/2 with probability 3/5,
value 3/2 with probability 1/15, and value 1/2 with probability 1/3.

2. What happens if you change basis twice?


Lets work it out, for example, for state coupling |1, 0i |2, 0i:
r
r
2
3
|1, 0i |2, 0i =
|(1, 2), 1, 0i +
|(1, 2), 3, 0i
5
5
Changing basis to each coupled eigenket:
r
r
r
3
2
3
|1, 1i |2, 1i
|1, 0i |2, 0i +
|1, 1i |2, 1i
|(1, 2), 1, 0i =
10
5
10
r
r
r
1
3
1
|(1, 2), 3, 0i =
|1, 1i |2, 1i +
|1, 0i |2, 0i +
|1, 1i |2, 1i
5
5
5
Plugging them in:
|1, 0i |2, 0i = |1, 0i |2, 0i
and we get the original ket back, which is as expected.
3. How are we able to assume small , do a power series in , and then plug in = 1 to get
the fully perturbed state?
Assuming small such that H = H0 + H 0 is equivalent to assuming H = H0 + H 0 with
small H 0 : H0  H 0 .
Taking that approach, we make the expansion of the perturbed wavefunction as a linear
combination of unperturbed wavefunctions:
X
|m i =
an n0
n

Then, plugging it in the TISE:


X
X

H |m i =
an (H0 + H 0 ) n0 =
an (En0 + H 0 ) n0
n

= Em |m i = Em


an n0

which means:
X

X

an (Em En0 ) n0 =
an H 0 n0


Taking the inner product with k0 :
X


an (Em En0 ) k0 n0 = ak (Em Ek0 )
n


an k0 H 0 n0

Or:
0
n an Hkn
Em Ek0

P
ak =

0
an Hkn

since we have:
X

0
0
an Hkn
= ak Hkk
+

0
an Hkn

n6=k

re-ordering, we have:
ak =

X
1
0
an Hkn
0
0
Em Ek Hkk
n6=k

0 , and therefore, we make the


The first-order perturbation is when we assume m m
approximation, am = 1 and all other an = 0 for n 6= m.
Therefore, we have the approximation:

0
0 0
am (Em Em
) m = am H 0 m
0
0
=0
am (Em Em
H 0 ) m
0
0
am (Em Em
Hkm
)=0

and hence, we have:


0
0
Em Em
+ Hkm

Further degree approximations can be made by iterations of this: for example, the secondorder perturbation is when we use:
ak =

0
X
X
X
Hkn
1
1
0
0
=
a
H
an0 Hnn
0
n
kn
0
0
0
Ek En0 Hnn
Ek Ek0 Hkk
Ek Ek0 Hkk
0
n6=k

n6=k

Since
X

0
0
an0 Hnn
0 = ak Hnk +

0
a0n Hnn
0

n0 6=n,k

n0 6=n

we have:

0 H0
X
H
1
kn nk
= ... 0
ak 1
0
0
Ek En0 Hnn
Ek Ek0 Hkk
n6=k

where the right-hand side is approximated to zero.


Hence, we have:
0
Ek Ek0 Hkk
=

X
n6=k

0 H0
Hkn
nk
0
Ek En0 Hnn

0
Ek Ek0 + Hkk
+

X
n6=k

0 |2
|Hnk
0
Ek En0 Hnn

n 6=n