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While we respect Mary, and we love her, we are in no way to elevate her in stature to the point of
praying to her, or to appeal to her. She was a sinner by her own admission, and needed Jesus just as you and I do.
Jesus is the one to be elevated, and while Mary played a critical role, the truth is that God could have chosen any
woman He desired to fill that role. There's nothing intrinsically special about Mary communicated from the
pages of the Bible, or by the words of the Apostles other than she was chosen by God to complete a task, as
many others were in various capacities and at various times in the past.
John Martignoni claims Mary was not ordinary. Really? She absolutely WAS ordinary. This is the very
miracle that God worked. By choosing an ordinary (although Godly) woman to bear the Son of God, God
demonstrates that it's the least among us whom he uses to His glory. This very fact demonstrates the greatness of
God! We never see God use great people to do his work. Even Moses was a simple Hebrew slave in the end, and
God made sure that he was reduced from his elevated platform before he performed His great works through
him. He purged Moses and forged the iron making it simple and unassuming, thereby magnifying His glory.
We need to recognize that if Martignoni's logic is correct we enter into an infinite loop. What I mean is
that if we're to elevate Mary to Queen of Heaven status because she was used by God to bear Jesus, then what of
Mary's mother? After all, if Mary's mother had not been used by God to bear Mary, Mary would not have existed
to bear Jesus, right? We need to give her a title and reverence for being Mary's mother. And what of Mary's
mother's mother, and her mother, and her mother, and her mother........and on it goes. In fact, we find in the
genealogy of Jesus the blood relationship between Jesus and Rahab the harlot!
Think about it: the idea is that Mary might pass on her sin nature to Christ so she needed to be sinless in
order to avoid that. But why not just make Jesus sinless in the same way? Why not preserve Jesus from Mary's
sin nature, the way Mary was preserved from sin? Why the need to make Mary sinless so that she doesn't pass
on her sin nature, when that can be accomplished directly with Jesus? Presumably God was capable of doing the
same thing for Jesus that He did for Mary so why make her sinless in the first place? It makes no sense at all.
The immaculate conception of Mary is a fabrication that ultimately subtracts from the glory of Jesus Himself,
and the reason it makes no sense is because it's a man-made idea; it doesn't come from God.
Another point to consider as we mull over Martignoni's insistence that Mary needs to be elevated to a
higher level above women and is sinless as the RCC teaches is that if it's true, that's a huge thing to know and
accept, because it will form your entire theological outlook. Yet the Roman Catholic Church didn't officially
teach the idea of Mary's special role and sinless state as doctrine until some 1800 years after the establishment of
the Christian church! Why? One would think this vital information would be needed by every Catholic, even
those who lived before the RCC decided it was important enough to declare as dogma. Catholics during that time
in history did not view Mary the way today's Roman Catholic Church does because they weren't taught the
doctrine.
As a side note, it's beneficial to look at another analogy that's been used for thousands of years by
Catholics to try and show why Mary was so special and sinless. The question is that if Mary agreed she was a
sinner, then how could she be sinless? While disagreeing with what Mary believed about herself and said about
herself, this popular Catholic analogy tries to show how she could have been immaculately conceived as
Catholics believe:
Suppose a man falls in to a deep pit, and someone reaches down to pull him out. The man has been
saved from the pit. Now imagine a woman walking along, and she too is about to topple into the pit, but at the
very moment she is to fall in, someone holds her back and prevents her. She too has been saved from the pit, but
in an even better way: she was not simply taken out of the pit, she was prevented from getting stained by the mud
in the first place.
While this is a great story, it's just that a story. It's a story designed to get you to see how Mary could
have been preserved from sin, but that's not the same as it actually being the case. The question is, is it true?
Was Mary kept from her sin nature? If so, then why did she say she needed a savior? If she never fell into the
pit and was never muddied in the first place, why did she believe she was muddied?
There's no indication in the Bible that any such thing (as saving Mary before she was born) did, or even
could take place. First of all it was the work of Jesus, and His death on the cross that made it possible for all of
us to be saved by His grace. His sacrificial death and atonement for our sins (including Mary's) is was saves us
and her, and He had yet to perform that work at the time of Mary's birth. If He had saved her from the pit and
the stain of sin before He was born, then why do what He did to save the rest of us? Why not just save us all
before we fall in the pit and get stained? Coming up with a fanciful story about how something could be done, is
not the same as it actually being done. There's no indication anywhere other than what the Catholic Church
claims that this type of thing ever happened or even could happen. Why doesn't the Bible speak of Mary's
pulling from the pit and declare her sinless in it's pages? Because it never happened that's why.
We hear from the Roman Catholic Church the following:
...at the first instance of her conception, by a singular privilege and grace of the Omnipotent God, in virtue of
the merits of Jesus Christ, the Savior of mankind, was preserved immaculate from all stain of original sin...
Pope Pius IX, Ineffabilis Deus, December 8, 1854
It's an impossibility for Jesus to have saved Mary before she was born as is stated above, because in
order for Jesus to impart saving grace to anyone, He needed to first be born as a man in the flesh, lead a perfect
life, and then take on the sins of the world to kill sin through His atoning death on the cross. It was the death of
Jesus that made the forgiveness of our sins possible. His death and resurrection are the merits Pius IX spoke
about. It's shocking that he didn't see that those merits had yet to become manifest in the man Jesus Christ at the
time Mary was conceived. Jesus had not yet been born yet alone died at the time Mary was supposedly saved
from the pit. This is why God became flesh, suffered, and died for us all. To make it possible for us to be saved,
Jesus had to die. One can't die until they are born first. If there was any other way, would he have not chosen it?
In fact we see in the garden just before Jesus' death Jesus asking the Father Father, if thou art willing, let this
cup pass from me. Jesus was asking that if there was any other way to forgive the sins of man, let Me not go
through this. But there was no other way to remove sin, so Jesus went to His death on the cross to complete His
saving work.
In short, Martignoni misses the entire point on Mary, presumably because he needs the RCC story of her
greatness to live on. It must be true for him, and he'll most likely believe it even beyond the day that the Roman
Catholic Church finally declares her Co-Redemptrix. He dismisses the miracle God preformed thorough his
humble servant by trying to cobble together a crazy comparison on the Ark and Mary, and the great work
performed through Mary (not by her) is trashed by his insistence that she be more than what she really was; a
simple handmaiden that was honored by the Lord.
Blessings,
Mike