STUDY QUESTION FOR EXAM II: Bio 114

(Chapters 5-9)
Multiple-Choice Questions:
1) What is energy?
A) the capacity to cause movement
B) the capacity to cause change
C) a measure of calories
D) a measure of disorder
Answer: B
2) An object at rest has no ______ energy, but it may have ______ energy resulting from its location or structure.
A) kinetic... potential
B) kinetic... conserved
C) potential... kinetic
D) stored... potential
Answer: A
3) The principle that energy cannot be created or destroyed is known as ______.
A) interconversion
B) conservation of energy
C) conservation of heat
D) entropy
Answer: B
4) A rock on the top of a mountain contains ______ energy.
A) potential
B) no
C) kinetic
D) conserved
Answer: A
5) You are riding on your bike and stop pedaling, coasting along the road. Eventually, your bike slows down and
stops. What happened to the energy of your motion when your bike stopped?
A) It was returned to the bicycle.
B) It was converted back to chemical energy.
C) It was released as heat.
D) It was used to chemically break down the tires.
Answer: C
6) Which of the following is a measure of randomness in a system?
A) entropy
B) kinetic energy
C) potential energy
D) chemical energy
Answer: A
7) Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example, the sperm are
changing ______.
A) chemical energy into kinetic energy
B) chemical energy into potential energy
C) kinetic energy into potential energy
D) kinetic energy into chemical energy
Answer: A
8) Humans convert approximately ______ of the energy stored in food to useful work.
A) 22%
B) 34%
C) 55%
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D) 99.9%
Answer: B
9) Ten kilocalories are equivalent to ______ calories.
A) 1,000
B) 10,000
C) 0.1
D) 100
Answer: B
10) You have a 2-kg bottle of liquid water at 0C. About how many Calories are needed to heat up the water to
100C?
A) 100 Calories
B) 200 Calories
C) 2,000 Calories
D) 10,000 Calories
Answer: B
11) What compound directly provides energy for cellular work?
A) C6H12O6
B) ATP
C) DNA
D) fat
Answer: B
12) Energy is transferred from ATP to other molecules by transferring a(n) ______.
A) adenosine
B) heat unit
C) photon
D) phosphate group
Answer: D
13) Anything that prevents ATP formation will most likely ______.
A) result in cell death
B) force the cell to rely on lipids for energy
C) force the cell to rely on ADP for energy
D) have no effect on the cell
Answer: A
14) Usually, enzymes are ______.
A) fats
B) steroids
C) chemical reactions
D) proteins
Answer: D
15) The sum total of all the chemical reactions that occur in organisms is called ______.
A) summation
B) cellular synthesis
C) replication
D) metabolism
Answer: D
16) Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by ______.
A) increasing the temperature of the substrates
B) contributing electrons to the reaction
C) decreasing activation energy
D) changing the pH of the substrates
Answer: C
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17) Which one of the following is true?

A) Enzymes are the products in a chemical reaction.
B) Enzymes are the reactants in a chemical reaction.
C) Enzymes catalyze specific reactions.
D) An enzyme's function requires inhibitors.
Answer: C
18) An enzyme's function is dependent on its ______.
A) pH
B) temperature
C) shape
D) size
Answer: C
19) Which component of the following reaction is the enzyme?
sucrose + sucrase + water sucrase + glucose + fructose
A) sucrose
B) sucrase
C) glucose
D) fructose
Answer: B
20) The region of an enzyme to which a substrate binds is called the ______ site.
A) active
B) substrate
C) enzymatic
D) conformational
Answer: A
21) Which component of the following reaction is the substrate?
sucrose + sucrase + water sucrase + glucose + fructose
A) sucrose
B) sucrase
C) glucose
D) fructose
Answer: A
22) Which one of the following is true?
A) An enzyme's function depends on its three-dimensional shape.
B) Enzymes work generally on a broad range of substrates.
C) Enzymes are used up in chemical reactions.
D) Enzymes emerge changed from the reactions they catalyze.
Answer: A
23) Substances that plug up an enzyme's active site are ______.
A) enzyme substrates
B) enzyme inhibitors
C) induced fit factors
D) enzyme products
Answer: B
24) Which one of the following is most similar to the mechanism of an enzyme inhibitor?
A) keeping someone from parking by parking in their designated spot
B) driving the wrong way on a one-way street
C) forgetting to put a cap back on a pen
D) changing the tires on a car
Answer: A
25) Diffusion is an example of ______.
A) phagocytosis
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B) active transport
C) endocytosis
D) passive transport
Answer: D
26) Diffusion ______.
A) is the result of the potential energy of atoms
B) requires an input of cellular energy
C) occurs when particles spread from areas where they are less concentrated to areas where they are more
concentrated
D) proceeds until equilibrium is reached
Answer: D
27) Facilitated diffusion across a biological membrane requires ______ and moves a substance ______ its
concentration gradient.
A) energy... down
B) transport proteins... down
C) energy and transport proteins... against
D) transport proteins... against
Answer: B
28) Osmosis can be defined as ______.
A) the diffusion of water
B) the diffusion of nonpolar molecules
C) active transport
D) the diffusion of a solute
Answer: A
29) When two solutions that differ in solute concentration are placed on either side of a selectively permeable
membrane, and osmosis is allowed to take place, the water will ______.
A) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower water concentration
B) exhibit a net movement to the side with higher water concentration
C) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower solute concentration
D) exhibit an equal movement in both directions across the membrane
Answer: A
30) Some protozoans have special organelles called contractile vacuoles that continually eliminate excess water
from the cell. The presence of these organelles tells you that the environment ______.
A) is isotonic to the protozoan
B) is hypotonic to the protozoan
C) is hypertonic to the protozoan
D) contains a higher concentration of solutes than the protozoan
Answer: B
31) In a hypotonic solution, a plant cell will ______.
A) undergo plasmolysis
B) become flaccid
C) burst
D) become turgid
Answer: D
32) Active transport ______.
A) uses ATP as an energy source
B) can move solutes against their concentration gradient
C) can involve the transport of ions
D) all of the above
Answer: D
31) When a person cries, tears are exported from cells through the process of________________.
A) facilitated diffusion.
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B) active transport.
C) endocytosis.
D) exocytosis.
Answer: C
32) The act of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is ______.
A) osmosis
B) diffusion
C) exocytosis
D) phagocytosis
Answer: D
33) The figure below shows that ______.

A) ADP can perform cellular work when it binds to an additional phosphate group
B) ATP can perform cellular work when it releases a phosphate group
C) ATP can be converted to ADP by adding a phosphate group
D) energy is released from ATP during the process of cellular respiration
Answer: B
34) Examine the cells below. Cells with a higher concentration of ions than the surrounding medium tend to
______.

A) stay about the same size and shape

B) expand
C) shrink
D) divide
Answer: B
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35) A difference between marathon runners and sprinters is ______.

A) marathon runners have more slow-twitch fibers in their leg muscles
B) marathon runners have more fast-twitch muscle fibers in their leg muscles
C) sprinters have a high proportion of muscle fibers that require oxygen to make ATP
D) sprinters perform better in activities that require slow, steady muscle activity
Answer: A
36) Humans are both___________________.
A) heterotrophs and consumers.
B) heterotrophs and autotrophs.
C) producers and consumers.
D) autotrophs and producers.
Answer: A
37) Photosynthetic organisms are ______.
A) producers that make all of their organic matter from organic molecules that they take in
B) consumers that obtain organic molecules from other living organisms
C) producers that make all their own organic matter from inorganic molecules
D) decomposers that obtain nutrients from the soil
Answer: C
38) Plants use photosynthesis to_____________________.
A) store chemical energy, and they use cellular respiration to harvest energy.
B) store as well as harvest chemical energy.
C) harvest energy, and they use cellular respiration to store chemical energy.
D) obtain carbon dioxide.
Answer: A
39) The waste products of cellular respiration include ______.
A) water only
B) carbon dioxide only
C) water and carbon dioxide
D) water and glucose
Answer: C
40) Plant cells ______.
A) do not need chloroplasts because their mitochondria meet their energy needs
B) have chloroplasts and mitochondria
C) use carbon dioxide but do not use oxygen
D) do not need mitochondria because their chloroplasts meet their energy needs
Answer: B
41) The ultimate source of the energy in food is ______.
A) the sun
B) producers
C) ATP
D) consumers
Answer: A
42) What compound directly provides energy for cellular work?
A) C6H12O6
B) glucose
C) ATP
D) fat
Answer: C
43) An aerobic process requires ______.
A) oxygen
B) carbon dioxide
C) ATP
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D) carbohydrates
Answer: A
44) Respiration describes the exchange of gases between your blood and the outside air. Cellular respiration
______.
A) produces ATP
B) produces oxygen
C) produces glucose
D) uses carbon dioxide
Answer: A
45) Which of these equations describes aerobic cellular respiration?
A) glucose lactic acid + energy
B) energy + carbon dioxide + water glucose + oxygen + water
C) glucose + oxygen carbon dioxide + water + energy
D) none of the above
Answer: C
46) Which of the following are produced during cellular respiration?
A) ATP and water
B) carbon dioxide and ATP
C) carbon dioxide, water, and ATP
D) oxygen and glucose
Answer: C
47) During redox reactions, ______.
A) the loss of electrons from one substance is called reduction
B) a substance that gains electrons is said to be oxidized
C) electrons are lost from one substance and added to another substance
D) protons from one molecule replace the electrons lost from another molecule
Answer: C
48) The first electron acceptor of cellular respiration is ______.
A) CO2
B) O2
C) NAD+
D) H2O
Answer: C
49) The final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration is ______.
A) ATP
B) oxygen
C) lactic acid
D) NAD+
Answer: B
50) Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?
A) cytoplasm
B) ER
C) within the fluid just inside the inner mitochondrial membrane
D) between the inner and outer mitochondrial membrane
Answer: A
51) Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages in cellular respiration?
A) glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport
B) citric acid cycle, glycolysis, electron transport
C) citric acid cycle, electron transport, glycolysis
D) electron transport, glycolysis, citric acid cycle
Answer: A
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52) A product of glycolysis is ______.

A) lactic acid
B) ethyl alcohol
C) O2
D) pyruvic acid
Answer: D
53) Which of the following is a result of glycolysis?
A) production of CO2
B) conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid
C) a net loss of two ATPs per glucose molecule
D) conversion of NADH to NAD+
Answer: B
54) The second stage of aerobic respiration is ______.
A) ATP production
B) the citric acid cycle
C) lactic acid fermentation
D) glycolysis
Answer: B
55) What must pyruvic acid be converted to before it can enter the citric acid cycle?
A) acetyl CoA
B) lactic acid
C) ethyl alcohol
D) citric acid
Answer: A
56) In aerobic respiration, how many molecules of acetic acid are produced from six molecules of glucose?
A) 1
B) 38
C) 6
D) 12
Answer: D
57) Electron transport takes place in the ______.
A) mitochondria
B) chloroplasts
C) cytoplasm
D) ribosomes
Answer: A
58) ATP synthase plays a role in ______.
A) pulling electrons down the electron transport chain
B) glycolysis
C) pumping hydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane
D) generating ATP
Answer: D
59) Aerobic cellular respiration generates about ______ ATP from one glucose.
A) 2
B) 6
C) 38
D) The number generated depends on whether the end product of aerobic respiration is lactic acid or ethyl
alcohol.
Answer: C
60) Human muscle cells use lactic acid fermentation to________________.
A) produce more ATP than is possible through aerobic respiration.
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B) produce ATP using the electron transport chain.

C) regenerate NADH.
D) produce ATP without O2.
Answer: D
61) Anaerobic respiration produces a maximum of ______ ATP per glucose.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 10
D) 38
Answer: A
62) Which of the following metabolic pathways is common to both aerobic and anaerobic processes of sugar
breakdown?
A) the citric acid cycle
B) the electron transport chain
C) conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid
D) glycolysis
Answer: D
63) Some friends are trying to make wine in their basement. They've added yeast to a sweet grape juice mixture
and have allowed the yeast to grow. After several days they find that sugar levels in the grape juice have
dropped, but there's no alcohol in the mixture. The most likely explanation is that ______.
A) the mixture needs more sugar; yeast need a lot of energy before they can begin to produce alcohol
B) the mixture needs less oxygen; yeast only produce alcohol in the absence of oxygen
C) the mixture needs more oxygen; yeast need oxygen to break down sugar to produce alcohol
D) the mixture needs less sugar; high sugar concentrations stimulate cellular respiration, and alcohol is not a byproduct of cellular respiration
Answer: B
64) What waste product do yeast produce under anaerobic conditions?
A) ethyl alcohol
B) pyruvic acid
C) lactic acid
D) creatine
Answer: A
65) Large amounts of oxygen gas first appeared in Earth's atmosphere about ______ years ago.
A) 500,000
B) 10 million
C) 2.7 billion
D) 3.5 billion
Answer: C
66) Examine the following figure. Which of the following reactants primarily come(s) from the air?

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A) water
B) glucose
C) carbon dioxide
D) oxygen and carbon dioxide
Answer: D
67) Examine the following figure. Which of these stages occur(s) in the cytoplasm?

A) glycolysis
B) citric acid cycle
C) glycolysis and citric acid cycle
D) citric acid cycle and electron transport
Answer: A
68) Which of the following is an autotroph?
A) human
B) mushroom
C) pine tree
D) fish
Answer: C
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69) Photosynthesis contributes to plant growth by _____.

A) taking in oxygen and making wood
B) taking in carbon dioxide and making sugars (carbohydrates)
C) synthesizing carbon dioxide and making cellulose
D) converting sugar to oxygen and water
Answer: B
70) Within the inner membrane of a chloroplast, interconnected sacs of membrane called ______ are suspended
in a thick fluid called the ______.
A) chlorophyll... thylakoid
B) thylakoids... grana
C) thylakoids... stroma
D) grana... thylakoid
Answer: C
71) What is the function of stomata?
A) water absorption
B) Calvin cycle
C) location of photosystems
D) gas exchange
Answer: D
72) Through what structure(s) do plants obtain most of their water?
A) roots
B) interior cells
C) stomata
D) leaves
Answer: A
73) What name is given to the membranous sacs found within a chloroplast?
A) stroma
B) cristae
C) thylakoids
D) vesicles
Answer: C
74) What are grana?
A) thick fluids inside chloroplasts
B) convolutions of the inner chloroplast membrane
C) stacks of membranous sacs
D) pigments found in chloroplasts
Answer: C
75) If you provided your shade-tolerant plants with their preferred wavelength of light, but only minimal amounts of
water, which of the following would you expect to occur?
A) increased plant growth
B) increased amounts of oxygen released by the plants
C) decreased amounts of ATP being produced by the plants
D) increased growth of the plants leaves
Answer: C
76) Which of the following equations best summarizes photosynthesis?
A) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 6 O2 C6H12O6
B) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O C6H12O6 + 6 O2
C) 6 CO2 + 6 O2 C6H12O6 + 6 H2O
D) C6H12O6 + 6 O2 6 CO2 + 6 H2O
Answer: B

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77) In photosynthesis, redox reactions ultimately transfer electrons from ______ to ______.
A) O2... CO2
B) C6H12O6... O2
C) H2O... C6H12O6
D) H2O... CO2
Answer: D
78) Which of the following is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis?
A) O2
B) CO2
C) C6H12O6
D) ADP
Answer: A
79) The Calvin cycle requires ______ and ______ from the light reactions in order to operate.
A) glucose... carbon dioxide
B) electrons... NADH
C) ATP... NADPH
D) RuBP... NADP+
Answer: C
80) The color that we see when looking at a pigmented object is ______.
A) the wavelengths that are absorbed by the pigment
B) the wavelengths that are reflected or transmitted by the pigmented object
C) the wavelengths that have been raised to an excited state by the pigmented object
D) the wavelengths that the pigmented object created after interacting with sunlight
Answer: B
81) If a plant appears blue to us, what wavelength of light is being reflected?
A) blue
B) green
C) red
D) yellow
Answer: A
82) The energy of wavelengths that appear ______ is least useful to photosynthesis.
A) red
B) green
C) blue
D) orange
Answer: B
83) What name is given to a discrete packet of light?
A) phaser
B) wavelength
C) photon
D) quantum
Answer: C
84) The shorter the wavelength of visible light, the ______.
A) less energy absorbed by photosynthetic pigments
B) redder the color
C) more photons it contains
D) greater the energy
Answer: D
85) Where are photosystems located?
A) chlorophyll
B) thylakoid membrane
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C) cristae
D) stroma
Answer: B
86) The light reactions of photosynthesis take place ______.
A) in the stroma
B) on the cristae
C) in the thylakoid membrane
D) in the cytosol
Answer: C
87) Which of the following is the source of electrons for the light reactions?
A) C6H12O6
B) CO2
C) NADPH
D) H2O
Answer: D
88) Which of the following is found in both cellular respiration and in the light reactions of photosynthesis?
A) citric acid cycle
B) glycolysis
C) Calvin cycle
D) electron transport chain
Answer: D
89) In photosynthesis, an H+ ion gradient forms across the ______.
A) thylakoid membrane
B) outer chloroplast membrane
C) endomembrane
D) inner chloroplast membrane
Answer: A
90) The Calvin cycle makes direct use of ______ to make ______.
A) light energy and CO2... sugar
B) CO2, ATP, and NADPH... sugar and O2
C) light energy, CO2, and water... sugar and O2
D) CO2, ATP, and NADPH... sugar
Answer: D
91) C4 plants conserve water by ______.
A) shuttling CO2 from the Calvin cycle to the water-splitting photosystem
B) keeping their stomata closed when the weather is hot and dry
C) growing very deep roots
D) running the Calvin cycle at night
Answer: B
92) CAM plants conserve water by ______.
A) opening their stomata only at night
B) incorporating CO2 into RuBP
C) keeping their stomata closed at night
D) running the Calvin cycle at night
Answer: A
93) Refer to the accompanying figure. Plant cells that contain the organelle responsible for photosynthesis are
concentrated in cells of the ______.

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A) roots
B) leaves
C) stomata
D) grana
Answer: B
94) Refer to the accompanying figure. Which of the following is true regarding the behavior of a chlorophyll
molecule as it absorbs a photon?

A) An electron goes from the excited state to the ground state.

B) Light is released.
C) The energy of a photon raises an electron to the excited state.
D) ATP is broken down.
Answer: C
95) Refer to the accompanying figure. Which of the following best describes the direct mechanism of ATP
production during photosynthesis?

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A) use of the energy generated as hydrogen ions (H+) move up a proton gradient; this energy is used to make
ATP
B) use of the energy released as excited electrons are passed from one molecule to another in the electron
transport system; the energy is converted to the chemical bond energy of ATP
C) use of the energy stored in excited electrons; as the electrons move from the excited state to the ground state,
the energy released is converted to the energy stored in the third phosphate bond in ATP
D) use of the energy stored in hydrogen ion (H +) gradients; the potential energy of the proton gradient is released
as the protons move down their gradient through special membrane protein channels; this energy is converted to
chemical bond energy in the ATP molecule
Answer: D
96) A(n) ______ is an example of an organism that can sometimes reproduce asexually.
A) cat
B) human
C) Komodo dragon
D) mouse
Answer: C
97) Ordinary cell division produces two daughter cells that are genetically identical. This type of cell division is
important for all of the following functions EXCEPT
A) growth of a multicellular organism.
B) cell replacement.
C) production of sperm and eggs.
D) asexual reproduction.
Answer: C
98) The chromosomes of eukaryotic cells are found in the ______.
A) nucleus
B) centriole
C) Golgi apparatus
D) nucleolus
Answer: A
99) Chromatin consists of ______.
A) DNA and protein
B) RNA and protein
C) protein only
D) DNA only
Answer: A
100) A duplicated chromosome consists of two ______.
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A) centromeres
B) centrosomes
C) genomes
D) sister chromatids
Answer: D
101) Sister chromatids are joined at the ______.
A) centromere
B) spindle
C) centrosome
D) centriole
Answer: A
102) Which of the following occurs during interphase?
A) Chromatin becomes tightly coiled.
B) Chromosome duplication.
C) Sister chromatids separate.
D) The mitotic spindle forms.
Answer: B
103) The cell cycle results in the production of ______.
A) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information
B) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information
C) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information
D) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information
Answer: C
104) Which of the following occurs during prophase?
A) Chromosomes line up on the midline of the cell.
B) The nuclear envelope forms.
C) Sister chromatids separate.
D) The mitotic spindle begins to form.
Answer: D
105) Which of the following is a stage of mitosis?
A) cytokinesis
B) telophase
C) interphase
D) DNA synthesis
Answer: B
106) The correct sequence of stages of mitosis is ______.
A) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
B) telophase, prophase, interphase, anaphase, metaphase
C) anaphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
D) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
Answer: A
107) During metaphase ______.
A) the nuclear envelope breaks up
B) sister chromatids separate
C) centromeres divide
D) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
Answer: D
108) Which of these events occurs during anaphase?
A) Sister chromatids separate.
B) Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.
C) The nuclear envelope reappears.
D) The nuclear envelope breaks up.
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Answer: A
109) During telophase ______.
A) the events of prophase are reversed
B) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
C) sister chromatids separate
D) the nuclear envelope breaks up
Answer: A
110) A cell that completed the cell cycle without undergoing cytokinesis would ______.
A) have less genetic material than it started with
B) not have completed anaphase
C) have its chromosomes lined up in the middle of the cell
D) have two nuclei
Answer: D
111) Cytokinesis typically begins during the ______ stage of mitosis.
A) telophase
B) prophase
C) metaphase
D) anaphase
Answer: A
112) What is the difference between a benign and a malignant tumor?
A) Benign tumors are composed of cancer cells; malignant tumors are not.
B) Benign tumors are not the result of a failure of a cell cycle control system; malignant tumors are.
C) Benign tumors do not metastasize; malignant tumors do.
D) Benign tumors do not form lumps; malignant tumors do form lumps.
Answer: C
113) Homologous chromosomes ______.
A) carry genes controlling the same inherited characteristics
B) include only the autosomes
C) are a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one parent
D) carry the same versions of all genes
Answer: A
114) What chromosomes belong to a normal human male?
A) 22 autosomes and two Y chromosomes
B) 44 autosomes and two Y chromosomes
C) 44 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome
D) 46 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome
Answer: C
115) What chromosomes belong to a normal human female?
A) 22 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes
B) 44 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes
C) 44 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome
D) 46 autosomes and two X chromosomes
Answer: B
116) Chromosomes that do not determine the sex of an individual are called ______.
A) homologous chromosomes
B) nonhomologous chromosomes
C) sex chromosomes
D) autosomes
Answer: D
117) Sexual intercourse in humans ______.
A) allows a haploid sperm cell to fertilize a haploid egg cell
B) produces a haploid individual
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C) produces an individual with 23 chromosomes

D) combines two diploid gametes, producing a zygote
Answer: A
118) In meiosis, how does prophase I differ from prophase II?
A) During prophase I there is one diploid cell; during prophase II there are two haploid cells.
B) During prophase I chromosomes line up single file in the middle of the cell; during prophase II the
chromosomes line up in double file in the middle of the cell.
C) During prophase I the chromosomes coil up; the chromosomes are not coiled up during prophase II.
D) In prophase I the sister chromatids are attached; in prophase II the sister chromatids are separated.
Answer: A
119) How much genetic material is present in a cell during prophase I compared to a cell that has completed
meiosis II?
A) one-quarter as much
B) four times as much
C) one-half as much
D) twice as much
Answer: B
120) During metaphase I, ______.
A) crossing over occurs
B) homologous chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
C) the nuclear envelope breaks up
D) sister chromatids separate and migrate to opposite poles
Answer: B
121) Upon completion of telophase I and cytokinesis, there is(are) ______ cell(s).
A) four haploid
B) two diploid
C) two haploid
D) one diploid
Answer: C
122) Which of the following is a characteristic seen in prophase I that does not occur in prophase II?
A) Chromosomes move to the middle of the cell.
B) Spindle formation occurs.
C) Chromosomes have been duplicated.
D) Crossing over occurs.
Answer: D
123) Anaphase II is essentially the same as mitotic anaphase except that in anaphase II ______ and in mitotic
anaphase ______.
A) the cells are diploid... the cells are haploid
B) chromosomes line up double file in the middle of the cell... chromosomes line up single file in the middle of the
cell
C) crossing over occurs... crossing over does not occur
D) the cells are haploid and sister chromatids separate... the cells are diploid and sister chromatids separate
Answer: D
124) One difference between mitosis and meiosis is ______.
A) mitosis produces cells genetically identical to the parent cell, but meiosis does not
B) mitosis produces more daughter cells than meiosis
C) mitosis produces haploid cells, but meiosis produces diploid cells
D) mitosis requires only one parent cell, but meiosis requires two parent cells
Answer: A
125) Genetic variation is accomplished by all but one of the following. Which is it?
A) the events of meiosis I
B) crossing over
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C) independent assortment
D) the events of meiosis II
Answer: D
126) Which of the following is the best description of the events of anaphase I?
A) Half of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole along with half of the chromosomes
inherited from the father.
B) Sister chromatids separate and the daughter chromosomes migrate to opposite poles.
C) Homologous chromosomes randomly separate and migrate to opposite poles.
D) All of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole of the cell, and all of the chromosomes
inherited from the father go to the other pole.
Answer: C
127) For a species with four pairs of chromosomes, ________ chromosome combinations are possible.
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 20
Answer: C
128) A ______ describes a site of crossing over.
A) chiasma
B) histone
C) synapse
D) centromere
Answer: A
129) Crossing over during prophase I results in ______.
A) nondisjunction
B) reciprocal translocation
C) duplication
D) genetic recombination
Answer: D
130) How many chromosomes does an individual with Turner syndrome have?
A) 2n + 1
B) n + 1
C) 2n - 1
D) n - 1
Answer: C
131) Examine the figure below. Nucleosomes are made of ______.

A) RNA and protein

B) DNA
C) proteins
D) DNA and histone proteins
Answer: D
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132) The best definition of a purebred plant is one that ______.

A) cannot be cross-fertilized
B) self-fertilizes to produce offspring identical to the parent
C) produces sterile offspring when cross-fertilized
D) self-fertilizes to produce hybrid offspring
Answer: B
133) Alleles are described as ______.
A) homologous chromosomes
B) environmental factors that affect gene expression
C) alternate versions of a gene
D) alternate phenotypes
Answer: C
134) A purebred plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a purebred plant that produces green seeds.
The F1 plants have yellow seeds. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of seed color of the offspring of an F1
F1 cross?
A) 1:2:1
B) 2:1
C) 3:1
D) 9:3:3:1
Answer: C
135) According to Mendel's law of segregation, ______.
A) two alleles segregate into each gamete
B) more gametes carrying the dominant allele are produced than gametes carrying the recessive allele
C) gametes have one copy of each allele
D) gametes are diploid
Answer: C
136) Mendel crossed purebred purple-flowered plants with purebred white-flowered plants, and all of the
resulting offspring produced purple flowers. The offspring are all ______, and the allele for purple flowers is ___.
A) heterozygotes... recessive
B) heterozygotes... dominant
C) homozygotes... recessive
D) homozygotes... dominant
Answer: B
136) Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What is the probability of having a child with attached
earlobes when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
Answer: C
137) What name is given to the specific location of a gene on a chromosome?
A) locus
B) chromaddress
C) genotype
D) allele
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Answer: A
138) Round seeds (R) are dominant to wrinkled seeds (r), and yellow seeds (Y) are dominant to green seeds (y).
What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a cross between an RrYy and an rryy individual?
A) 1:2:1
B) 9:3:3:1
C) 3:1
D) 1:1:1:1
Answer: D
139) An individual with the genotype AaBb produces four different gametes in equal proportions. This is a
demonstration of ______.
A) the chromosomal theory of inheritance
B) Mendel's law of independent assortment
C) linkage
D) Mendel's principle of segregation
Answer: B
140) A couple has two female children. What is the probability that their next child will be male?
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 33%
D) 67%
Answer: B
141) In humans, free earlobes (E) are dominant to attached earlobes (e) and the presence of freckles (F) is
dominant to the absence of freckles (f). If an individual heterozygous for both of these traits were to mate with
an individual with attached earlobes and no freckles, what is the probability of having a child with attached
earlobes and freckles?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 100%
Answer: B
142) The ______ is most commonly found in nature.
A) recessive trait
B) wild-type trait
C) parental
D) dominant trait
Answer: B
143) An individual heterozygous for cystic fibrosis ______.
A) cannot have children with cystic fibrosis
B) is a carrier
C) will have children who are all carriers of cystic fibrosis
D) has cystic fibrosis
Answer: B
144) Achondroplasia is a form of dwarfism caused by a dominant allele. The homozygous dominant genotype
causes death, so individuals who have this condition are all heterozygotes. If a person with achondroplasia
mates with a person who does not have achondroplasia, what percentage of their children would be expected
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to have achondroplasia?
A) 0%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%
Answer: B
145) What is the key to the recognition of incomplete dominance?
A) The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.
B) The trait exhibits a continuous distribution.
C) The alleles affect more than one trait.
D) The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.
Answer: A
146) What is the key to the recognition of codominance?
A) The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.
B) The trait exhibits a continuous distribution.
C) The alleles affect more than one trait.
D) The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.
Answer: D
146) What is the key to the recognition of a trait whose expression is determined by the effects of two or more
genes (polygenic inheritance)?
A) A mating between a homozygous and a heterozygous individual produces more than the expected number of
offspring expressing the dominant trait.
B) All of the alleles of the gene for that trait are equally expressed.
C) Pleiotropy occurs.
D) The trait varies along a continuum in the population.
Answer: D
147) What is the basis of Mendel's laws?
A) the behavior of chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis only
B) the behavior of chromosomes during mitotic anaphase
C) the behavior of chromosomes during prophase I and prophase II of meiosis
D) the behavior of chromosomes during metaphase I and anaphase I of meiosis
Answer: D
148) Linked genes are usually______
A) found on the X chromosome.
B) found on the Y chromosome.
C) codominant.
D) located close together on a chromosome.
Answer: D
149) Assume that having three nostrils is inherited as a sex-linked trait on the Y chromosome. A man with three
nostrils has a daughter who has a son with a man who has only two nostrils. What is the probability that the
three-nostriled man's grandson has three nostrils?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 100%
Answer: A
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150) Red-green color blindness is inherited as a sex-linked recessive trait. The gene is found on the X
chromosome. How can a man with normal color vision father a daughter who is red-green color-blind?
A) The woman with whom he mates is red-green color-blind.
B) The man is heterozygous for red-green color blindness.
C) He can't (unless there is a mutation).
D) The man's mother carries an allele for red-green color blindness, and the expression of the trait skipped a
generation.
Answer: C

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