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DOI:10.1093/acprof:oso/9780199239351.003.0001
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5. Delimiting rape
So all sheer use of human beings, all treatment of them merely as means, is abuse; and
rape is the central case of such abuse. This is the line of (p.17) thought that generates
the basic distinction between rape and (most) non-sexual offences against the person (as
well as some sexual offences). But does it fix, even approximately, the boundaries of
rape? Does it help to explain the modern focus on lack of consent as the touchstone of
rape? Does it help us to establish the focus on penetrative sexual abuse (or certain forms
of penetrative sexual abuse) which is still typical of the law of rape in most jurisdictions
which have retained the offence separately? And does this line of thought help us to settle
how mistakes as to consent should be dealt with by the law of rape? Let's look at each of
these familiar problems in turn.
(a) Lack of consent At the deepest level, the Kantian argument echoed above does not
distinguish between use by self and use by others. It resists the objectification of
subjects either by those subjects or by other subjects. In other words, the evil in
question is agent-neutral: it consists in the use of people as a mere means, irrespective of
which people are doing the using. So at the deepest level, the Kantian argument makes no
exception for self-abuse. A fortiori it makes no exception for self-licensed abuse by
others. How, then, can consent make all the difference between the paradigmatic use of a
person (rape) and the paradigmatic treating of a person as a person which is the opposite
of that use (sexual intercourse)? One suggestion is that only a subject can consent, and
so, by being astute to another's consent, someone who has sexual intercourse with that
other is not treating that other any more merely as a means, and hence is not objectifying
her.22 She may be treating herself as a mere means, but then again she is not the one
accused of rape. This suggestion makes astuteness to consent of the essence. But in most
familiar legal systems the first question about consent in a rape trial is not: was the
accused astute to the complainant's consent? The first question is: did she actually
consent? Only if the answer is no does the further question arise (depending on the
mens rea requirements for rape in that legal system) of how astute the accused was to
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