Baza III Curs Med

Topic 1
"Wounds and wound process. Treatment of clean wounds. "

1. Give the definition of "contamination." This is a) irrigation of the wound surface;
b) washing of cavities;
c) penetration of microbes to the human body; (+)
d) secondary infection of microorganism;
e) All of the above.
2. Give the definition "asepsis". This is a) the set of tools and organizational practices aimed on preventing the ingress of
microorganisms in the wound; (+)
b) a set of tools and organizational methods aimed on fighting with existing infection in the
wound;
c) penetration of microbes in the human body;
d) infestation by microorganism after complete recovery;
e) re-infection by microorganism before the recovery from primary infection.
3. Give the definition "antiseptic". This is a) the chlorination of surfaces;
b) sterilization;
c) the set of tools and organizational methods aimed at fighting with existing infection
in the wound; (+)
d) a set of tools and organizational practices aimed on prevent ingress of microorganisms in the wound;
e) penetration of microbes in the human body.
4. Give the definition "irrigation". This is a) washing of cavities; (+)
b) irrigation of surfaces;
c) treatment with iodine;
d) processing of chlorine bleach;
e) sterilization.
5. Give the definition "instillation". This is )washing of cavities;
b) irrigation of surfaces; (+)
c) processing by brilliant green;
d) processing by methylene blue;
e) sterilization.
7. Lines Lanhersa - is:
a) line of operational access during appendectomy;
b) line of operational access during laparotomy;
c) the course of elastic fibers in the thickness of the skin; (+)
d) dermatoglyphics image palmar surface of the hand;
e) line that separates necrotic tissue from healthy.

41. Vulnosorption - is:
a) the absorption of wound effluent with antibiotics;
b) the absorption of wound effluentwithenzymes;
c) the absorption of wound effluent with sorbents; (+)
d) the adsorption of anti-inflammatory wound effluent;
e) all of the above.
44. Secondary suture is impose:
a) in the first phase of wound healing;
b) in the second phase of wound healing; (+)
c) in the third phase of wound healing;
d) in the fourth phase of wound healing;
e) in the first and third phase of wound healing.
46. Drugs,that stimulate regenerative processes of tissues should appoint:
a) in the first phase of wound healing;
b) in the second phase of wound healing; (+)
c) in the third phase of wound healing;
d) in the fourth phase of wound healing;
e) in the first and third phase of wound healing.
48. Fresh wounds are characteristic all, except:
a) pain;
b) bleeding;
c) tissue defects;
d) twitching in the wound; (+)
e) dehiscence.
49. The secondary is called a wound infection, which possible, in:
a) violating the rules of asepsis at the time of the first medicalassistance;
b) violation of asepsis during bandaging;
c) violation of asepsis during surgery;
d) when receiving wound; (+)
e) all answers are correct.
51. Penetrating wound of the abdomen is called a wound with a damage of:
a) skin;
b) muscles;
c) the parietal peritoneum; (+)
d) visceral peritoneum;
e) internal organs.
52. What wound heals faster then other :
a) cut; (+)
b) chopped;
c) bitten;
d) wounded;
e) gunshot.
54. If there is a cavity between the edges of wounds , which is filled with granulation tissue,
wound is healing:
a) under the crust;
b) by primary intention; (+)
c) by secondary intention;
d) by tertiary intention;
e) by quaternary tension.
55. The correct is a statement, that, the clinical picture of wound,consists of such local
symptoms as pain,gaping and bleeding?
a) yes; (+)
b) no;
c) maiby;
d) depends on the type of wound;
e) no correct answer.
56. The primary wound infection is called getting into it infection:
a) during a first aid;
b) with bandage during the first bandaging;
c) at the time of injury; (+)
d) in next bandaging;
e) all of the above is correct.
58. The general symptoms of wound complications include:
a) anemia;
b) shock;
c) infection (sepsis);
d) pain;
e) all of the above . (+)
59. Secondary infection of woundis called penetration of infection into it:
a) at the time of injury;
b) during treatment of wounds; (+)
c) during repeated injury;
d) when the patient stays in the hospital;
61. Bad excretion smell from the wounds,caused by volatile sulfur compounds, produced by:
a) intestine stick;
b) staphylococcus;
c) blue pus bacillus; (+)
d) anaerobes;
e) streptococcus.
65. Area of molecular shake is available in :

a) slaughter wounds;
b) a gunshot wound; (+)
c) chopped wound;
d) ragged wound;
e) bitten wound.
66. Wounds olways have damage of:
a) internal organs;
b) skin and mucous membranes; (+)
c) subcutaneous adipose tissue;
d) the neurovascular bundle;
e) bone structures.
67. The first phase of wound healing is:
a) epithelization;
b) inflammation; (+)
c) granulation;
d) dehydration;
e) angiospasm.
68. Early secondary suture is imposed on previously processed wound:
a) before the appearance in it granulation;
b) at the appearance of granulation; (+)
c) covered with granulation after excision of the edges and the bottom edges;
d) immediately after treatment;
e) after 1 h.
Topic 2
"Infected and purulent wounds"
9.The most expressed immunodepression at injury and surgical intervention
continues:
a) from 2-day to 2 months;
b) from 2nd day to 28 days; (+)
c) from 1 day to 6 months;
d) from day 1 to year;
e) from the 4th day to 1 year.
15.By infection, define such wounds as:
a) septic, aseptic, poisoned;
b) aseptic, scalping, purulent;
c) bit, freshinfected, aseptic;
d) clean,freshinfected,infected;
e) purulent, freshinfected, aseptic. (+)
16.What explains the presence of molecular zone shake at gunshot injuries:

a) the pressure of the projectile on the tissues; (+)
b) pulsation cells in the wound area;
c) wavy movement of the channel walls;
d) changes of the osmotic pressure;
e) mass of the projectile.
17.What determine the degree of wound gaping :
a) the depth of damage;
b) damage of the nerve trunks;
c) damage of the fascia;
d) damage of the muscles and tendons;
e) the direction of the elastic fibers of skin. (+)
18.How long does bacteria in the wound, begin to show its activity?
a) 1-4 h
b) 6-8 h;
c) 10-12 h; (+)
d) 14-18 h;
e) 24 h.
19.The development of infection in the wound contribute to numerous factors, except:
a) hematoma;
b) blood loss;
c) shock;
d) depletion;
e) lack of foreign bodies. (+)
20.In the developed granulation distinguish six layers. Which of them is fourth?
a) leukocyte-necrotic;
b) vertical vessels;
c) ripenng; (+)
d) horizontal fibroblasts;
e) vascular loops.
21.In gunshot wound distinguish all the affected area, except:
a) the zone of the wound channel;
b) the zone of molecular shaking;
c) the zone of hemorrhage; (+)
d) primary zone of necrosis;
e) zone of parabiosis.
22. For missile wound is typical all, except:
a) the complexity of anatomical damage;
b) the presence of foreign bodies;
c) a high degree of infection;
d) the mandatory presence of input and output hole; (+)
e) uneven skin damage.

23.In what wounds,is most likely,will be the development of wound infection:
a) the incised;
b) bitten; (+)
c) chopped;
d) located on the face;
e) skalping .
24.Slaughtered wound from chopped distinguishes all, except:
a) the presence of hemorrhage on the edges of the wound;
b)different depths of damage;
c) the presence of located tissues;
d) violation of the integrity the nerve trunks;
e) less pronounced bleeding. (+)
25.To speed up the healing in the treatment of wounds in the phase of dehydration required:
a) frequent bandaging;
b) the use of enzymes;
c) the imposition of gauze bandages; (+)
d) the imposition of bandages with hypertonic solution;
e) therapeutic exercises.
26.Primary debridement is:
a) the excision of the wounds edges and bottom ;
b) opening of pockets;
c) separation of purulent content;
d) excision of the edges, sides and bottom of the wound; (+)
e) washing the wound with antiseptics, hemostasis.
27.The bottom of the wound is bone. How to conduct primary debridement?
a) to carve periosteum;
b) to clean the bone by Volkmann's curette;
c) remove the top layer of the periosteum;
d) to trepan the bone;
e) to carve only the edges and sides of the wound. (+)
28.Available a wound with limited areas of necrosis of the skin edges. What is necessary to
do?
a) to assign UHF on the wound;
b) to apply a bandage with hypertensive solution;
c) to apply a bandage with Vishnevsky ointment;
d) wound drainage;
e) to carve gangrenous area of the skin. (+)
29.Enter the main indications for the imposition of primary delayed suture:
a) shock;
b) a large loss of blood;

c) impossibility to pull the wound edges after debridement;
d) the possibility of infection development; (+)
e) injury of the nerve.
30.A primary delayed suture is imposing on wound:
a) at 3-4th day;
b) at 5th-6th day; (+)
c) at 8-15th day;
d) immediately after the primary debridement;
e) at 20-30th day.
31.In what case can be impose the primary suture on the wound, size 6-8 cm on the palmar
surface of the forearm?
a) If there is no foreign bodies in the wound;
b) if there is no inflammation in the wound;
c) if there is no necrotic tissues in the wound;
d) while using antibiotics;
e) primary suture is impossible to impose. (+)
32.For the first phase of wound healing is characterized all, except:
a) development of acidosis;
b) increasing number of hydrogen ions;
c) increasing the number of potassium ions;
d) increasing of vascular permeability;
e) development of alkalosis. (+)
33.What is the difference between late primary debridement and secondary debridement?
a) technique of operation;
b) terms of operation; (+)
c) number of previous bandages;
d) lack of primary debridement;
e) the use of drainage.
37.Late secondary suture is imposing on:
a) wound with the appearance of granulation;
b) granulating wound; (+)
c) granulating wound after excision of its the edges and bottom;
d) wound on his foot;
e) wound with the lack of foreign bodies.
38.If the wound edges are equal without reproduction, densely adjoin together, such wound
will be healing:
a) under the crust;
b) by secondary intention;
c) by re-tension;
d) by primary intention; (+)
e) by scarring.
39.If the wound edges are not equal, do not densely adjoin together, between the edges there
are granulation, such wound will be healing:
a) under the crust;
b) by secondary intention; (+)
c) by re-tension;
d) by primary intention;
e) by scarring.
40.If the wound edges are equal, slightly diverge, in the lumen between them - colloid
(smooth, shiny), such wound will be healing:
a) under the crust; (+)
b) by secondary intention;
c) by re-tension;
d) by primary intention;
e) by scarring.
43.Is it possible, that purulent wound in phase of hydration, drain by a tampon, moistened
with 10% sodium chloride solution?
a) yes; (+)
b) no;
c) at the request of a doctor;
d) at the request of the patient;
e) at the request of the head office.
48. Primary debridement doest conduct at:
a) point stab wounds;
b) gunshot wounds;
c) purulent wounds; (+)
d) large wound surface;
e) penetrating surface.
50.Deferred primary suture is imposing in:
a) 6 h;
b) 12 h;
c) 24 h;
d) 48 h; (+)
e) 10 days;
51.Secondary primary suture is imposing in :
)1 day;
b)a 1 week;
c)2 weeks; (+)
d)a 1 mounth;
e) 2 mounths.
52.After cleaning the wound and the appearance of fresh granulation,it is necessary to:
a) use hydrophilic ointments;
b) suturing the wound; (+)
c) use proteolytic enzymes;
d) suture after excision of the wound edges;
e) use ointments,based on fat.
53.In the first phase of wound process advisable to use:
a) bandages with hypertonic solution NaCl;
b) bandages with hydrophilic ointment; (+)
c) bandage with Vishnevsky ointment;
d) bandages with ointment,based on fat;
e) proteolytic enzymes.
54.In the first phase of wound process,bandages is necessary to conduct:
a) as seldom as possible;
b) two times a day; (+)
c) as often as possible;
d) 1 time a week;
e) 2 times a week.
55.In the second phase of wound process(proliferative phase)bandages is necessary to
conduct:
a) as seldom as possible; (+)
b) two times a day;
c) as often as possible;
d) 1 time a week;
e) 2 times a week.
58.Wound after primary debridement stitched tight. Bandage:
a) should be changed two times a day;
b) should be changed 3 times a day;
c) do not change until removal of sutures; (+)
d) should be changed 1 time a week;
e) should be changed 2 times a week.
60.In the first phase of wound process(phase of inflammation) use treatment:
a) suturing;
b) split all aroundwith novocaine;
c) the action of proteolytic enzymes locally; (+)
d) ointments based on fat;
e) hydrophilic ointments.
61.The development of pyoinflammatory process after injury called secondary
suppuration, if it takes place in:
a) the first 1-2 days;
b) the first 3-5 days;
c) after 5 days; (+)

d) the first 3-4 hours;
e) after 1 h;
62.Early secondary suture after debridement is imposing:
a) immediately;
b) provisionally;
c) after 3-5 days;
d) from 7 to 14 days; (+)
e) first 3-4 h.
63.The development of pyoinflammatory process after injury called primary suppuration, if it
takes place in:
)in 3-5 days; (+)
b)in 7-10 days;
c)in 12-14 days;
d)until 1 month.
64.In what quantity of microbial bodies (on 1 g of tissue) develops inflammation in the
wound?
a) 10 in 2 degree - 10 in 3degree;
b) 10 in 5degree - 10 to 6degree ; (+)
c) 10 in 3degree - 10 in 4degree;
d) 5 in 3degree - 5 in 6degree;
e) 5 in 2 degree - 5 in 9degree
65.Primary suture after debridement is imposing:
a) immediately; (+)
b) provisionally;
c)in 2-5 days;
d)in 8-15 days;
e) until 1 month.
66.The task of first aid in the treatment of fresh casual wound is:
a) processing wounds with antiseptic;
b) protection against secondary infection; (+)
c) primary debridement;
d) make peace in the wound;
e) radical surgery.
67.What suture should be impose on the wound,when subsides acute inflammation and
appeared
granulation:
a) primary;
b) primary deferred;
c) secondary early; (+)
d) secondary late;
e) it does not matter.

68.Late primary debridement,by time is conducting:
a) in the first 6 hours;
b) in the first 12 hours;
c) in the first 24 hours;
d) in the first 48 hours; (+)
e) in the first week.
69.Deferred primary debridement by time is conducting:
c) in the first 24 hours;
d) during the 2nd day; (+)
e) during 72 hours.
70.Early primary debridement by time is conducting:
c) in the first 24 hours; (+)
d) during the 2nd day;
e) during 72 hours.
Topic 3
"Closed damage of soft tissues, skull, chest, abdominal cavity"
2. At damage of abdominal organs, injuries can be:
a) of the abdominal wall;
b) damage of the abdominal cavity;
c) damage of the retroperitoneal space;
d) damage of parenchymatous organs;
e) all answers are correct. (+)
3. A patient with a closed injury should immobilize:
a) in flotation of sternum area;
b) in flotation of ribs area;
c) at a trauma without flotation;
d) in rib fractures with sternum flotation; (+)
e) All answers are correct.
8.At blow to the solar plexus,can occur:
a) shock; (+)
b) collapse;
c) loss of consciousness;
d) death;
e) there will be no changes.
9. At injury of the anterior abdominal wall,in a patient will observe:
a) pain in the blow area;

b) increasing of pain during movement of the abdominal wall;
c) swelling in the blow area;
d) the tension of the abdominal wall muscles;
11. At damage of parenchymal organs in a patient may arise:
a) dizziness;
b) nausea;
c) bleeding; (+)
d) vomiting;
e) there are no signs.
14. On the prehospital stage, patients with damage of the abdominal cavityshould be given:
a) antibiotics;
b) anti-inflammatory;
c) analgesics; (+)
d) disaggregants;
e) anticoagulants.
18. In the case of spleen crushing with its damage, shown:
a) suturing of spleen;
b) plastic of spleen;
c) splenectomy; (+)
d) suturing dekson grid;
e) a partial splenectomy.
26. In the case of easy concussion of the chest, patient needs special treatment for:
a) 1-2 days;
b) 2-3 days; (+)
c) 3-4 days;
d) 4-5 days;
e) 5-6 days.
29. Damageof the chest occurs in:
a) a light blow to the chest during a fall on a hard object;
b) a strong blow to the chest during a fall on a hard object; (+)
c) a light blow to the chest during a fall on a sharp object;
d) a strong blow to the chest during a fall on a sharp object;
e) there is no correct answer.
36. In the case of an open pneumothorax, air, through a hole in the bronchus or lung
tissue,during
inspiration comes in the pleural cavity, and during exhalation:
a) re-enters it;
b) comes out of it; (+)
c) there is no changes of air movement;
d) comes out an additional portion of air;

e) there is no correct answer.
37. At hemothorax,bleeding into the pleural cavity lasts until:
a) due to infused blood,pressure in the lungs and aorta unbalanced;
b) due to infused blood,pressure in the lungs and vena cava unbalanced;
c) due to infusedblood,pressure in the lungs and blood vessels unbalanced; (+)
d) until due to infusedblood,pressure in the lungs and heart unbalanced;
40. Insignificant bleeding into the pleural cavity (up to 500 ml) requires:
a) special treatment;
b) immediate treatment;
c) surgical treatment;
d) doesnt require special treatment; (+)
42. In easy cases of the chestdamage, subcutaneous air accumulates more often :
a) in the area of the affected part of the chest; (+)
b) in the area opposite to the damage;
c) on the face;
d) on the neck;
e) in other areas of the chedegree
46. Air at emphysema of lungs may disappear in:
a) several hours;
b) a few days; (+)
c) a few weeks;
d) a few months;
e) a year.
50. For the diagnosis of emphysema,advisable to use:
a) ultrasound;
b) radiography; (+)
c) CT scan;
d) nuclear magnetic resonance;
e) flowmetria.
59. In the pathogenesis of "wet" lung is underlying hypersecretion of bronchial glands and
violation of ventilation, as a result of accumulation in the bronchus:
a) blood;
b) air
c) mucus; (+)
d) dust;
e) lymph.
61. Patients with "shock" lung, appoint:
a) disaggregants;
b) antibiotics;
c) sleeping pills;
d) sedatives;
e) anticoagulants. (+)
62. The presence of free gas on radiographs,under the dome of the diaphragm,indicates on
damage:
a) duodenum;
b) colon;
c) rupture of hollow organ; (+)
d) ribs fracture;
e) liver rupture.
64. Erasing the contours m. Iliopsoas evidenced by:
a) damage of duodenum;
b) retroperitoneal hematoma; (+)
c) rupture of hollow organ;
d) ribs fracture;
e) liver rupture.
70.In diagnosis urinary bladder rupture, helps:
a) ultrasound scan;
b) radiography;
c) retrograde cystography; (+)
d) retrograde arteriotomia;
e) aortography.
Topic 4
"Fractures. First aid in fractures "
1. The absolute sign of fracture:
a) joint deformation;
b) deformation of soft tissues;
c) swelling;
d)pathologicmobility of bone fragments. (+)
e)bleeding.
2. Sign, characteristic only for fracture:
a) a bruise;
b) swelling;
c) crepitation of bone fragments; (+)
d) dysfunction of the limb;
e) swelling.
5. Correct immobilization is achieved by:
a) imposition of splints with any auxiliary material; (+)

b) imposition of splints from the board;
c) imposition of splints from the skis;
d) imposition of splints from straw;
e) imposition of splints from cardboard.
7. At saved skin integrity,is defined local pain, crepitation andlimb deformation,can be
assumed:
a) damage of ligamentous apparatus;
b) soft tissue slaughter;
c) dislocation;
d) closed fracture; (+)
e) open fracture.
8. Absolute shortened of limb is characteristic for:
a) sprain;
b) fracture; (+)
c) slaughter;
d) rupture of the joint capsule;
e) rupture of the cruciate ligament.
9. Combined injury is a:
a) fracture of the humerus and brain injury;
b) penetrating injury of the abdomen;
c) fracture of the thigh and shin;
d) rupture of the spleen;
e) rupture of the liver. (+)
10. At fracture of the thigh is necessary to fix:
a) thigh joint;
b) the thigh and knee joints;
c) thigh, ankle and knee joints; (+)
d) place of fracture;
e) ankle joint.
11.At fracture of the forearm bones,splint is imposed:
a) from the wrist to the upper third of the shoulder; (+)
b) from the wrist to the elbow joint;
c) into place of fracture;
d) from tips of fingers to the upper third of the shoulder;
e) only on the forearm.
12. At the position "frog" is transported patients with fractures of:
a) pelvic bones; (+)
b) spine;
c) thigh;
d) foot bones;
e) bones of the upper limbs.

13. Lying back on the shield is transported patients with:
a) ribs fracture;
b) slaughter of the chest;
c) injury of the abdominal cavity;
d) fracture of the thoracic spine; (+)
e) fracture of both shoulder bones.
14. At damage of cervical spine,for transportimmobilization is using:
a) cotton-gauze rings Delbe;
b) cotton-gauze Shanzcollar; (+)
c) Diterichs' splint;
d)crossbandage;
e)Cramer's splint.
15. On examination a patien,who was delivered from the place of car accident,were found
damageofthehead - closed brain injury;fracture of the left shin bones - bumper fracture;
bilateral direct and indirect multiple rib fractures, left-sided fractures of the pelvic bones and
bruises in chest area,diamond shape in the area 16x 13 cm,which reminded imprint
ofwheelprotector. Which of these damages is typical for car injury?
a) presence of bumper-fracture; (+)
b) direct and indirect bilateral rib fractures;
c) left sided fractures of the pelvic bones;
d) fracture of theleft forearms;
e)closed-brain-injury.
16. At an open fracture,before immobilization, on the wound is necessary to impose:
a) sterile bandage;
b) unsterile napkin;
c) any helper means;
d) put drainage; (+)
e) do not impose anything.
17. Optimal analgesia in providing emergency care to the man withtraumatic shock:
a) introduction of analgin;
b) nitrous oxide narcosis; (+)
c) use of antispasmodics;
d) introduction of aspirin+ dimedrol;
e) introduction of morphine.
18. In children, as usually, are observed such fractures as:
a) oblique;
b) the type of "green branches";(+)
c) compression;
d) full;
e) incomplete.
19.On the road, was found injured anelderly man.On examination at the admission
department,were found symmetrical fractures of the pelvic bones of "Butterfly" type,with a
rapture of both sacroiliac joints, fractures of pubic bone, hemorrhages in the soft tissues and
pelvis organs, striped bruiseon anterior lateral surface of the right thigh.For what type of car
injury is characterized such damages?
a) removing by car wheels; (+)
b) collision between a car with a footer;
c) injury in the middle of the car;
d) falling from car that moves;
e) squeezing between cars.
20.The main sign of the ribs fracture is:
a) local crepitation; (+)
b) pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin ;
c) a bruise;
d) pain;
e) hyperemia.
24.Typical symptomof pelvic bones fracture:
a) hematoma in the perineal area;
b) crepitation in the upper third of the thigh;
c) compelling urge to urination;
d) symptom of "stuck heel." (+)
e) pain in the damage area.
25. At fractures of pelvic bones, patient is transported:
a) on the back on the soft stretcher;
b) on the back on a shield in the "frog" position; (+)
c) on the abdomen;
d) half-sitting;
e) half-laying.
26. Multiple fracture - is:
a) fracture of two or more segments; (+)
b) thigh fracture;
c) fracture of the skull base;
d) fracture of mandible;
e) fracture of the maxilla.
27At nose bleeding,as a result of the skull base fracture:
a) perform a front tamponade;
b) perform a back tamponade;
c) perfom front and back tamponade;
d)imposeslingbandage; (+)
e)impose a bandage - bridle.
28. Reposition of fragments conducted in:

a) interposition;
b) any displacement of fragments; (+)
c) sub-bone fractures;
d) open fractures;
e) closed fractures.
29. Interposition is -:
a) formation of pseudojoint;
b) displacement of bone fragments;
c) limiting soft tissue between the bone fragments; (+)
d) spiral fracture;
e) shortened fracture.
31. At bone fractures, for creating improvised splint,best to use:
a) bandage;
b) rubber;
c) dence cloth;
d) board; (+)
e) metal.
32. In conducting immobilization, splint is always impose:
a) no less than on two joints above a place of fracture,
b) no less than on two joints below a place of fracture,
c) no less than on two joints above and below a place of fracture, (+)
d) no less than on three joints below a place of fracture,
d) no less than on four joints above a place of fracture.
33. Percussion doesnt allow to find:
a) the presence of fluid in the joint cavity;
b) the presence of air in the joint cavity;
c) the degree of fractures concrescence of long bones;
d) the degree of limbs blood supply; (+)
e) the presence of large cavities in epiphysis and metaphysis of limbs;
34. Usual radiography enables to identify all listed pathology,except:
a) fracture or bone crack;
b) dislocation, subluxation of the joint fragments;
c) bone tumors;
d) soft tissue tumors;
e) damage of cartilage. (+)
35. A patient has an open fracture of the shin,because of the frontbumper car blow. What type
of fracture is the mostprobable in this case?
a) shortened;
b) compressive;
c) multifragmental; (+)
d) breakaway;
e) spiral.
36. Exclude incorrect layer of callus:
a) paraoksal;
b) periosteal;
c) intermedial;
d) endosteal;
e) bone-brain. (+)
37.Name symptoms of closed bone fracture:
a) subcutaneous emphysema;
b) patological mobility; (+)
c) an increase of absolute length of the limb;
d) bleeding;
e) elastic resistance in the near joint.
38. Examination of a patient, with complaints on pain in the shoulder should begin with:
a) poll; (+)
b) X-ray of the shoulder;
c) determining the level of hemoglobin;
d) identify crepitus in the shoulder area;
e) identify pathological bone mobility.
39. What should be the borders of the transport immobilization in a man with fracture of the
humerus?
a) fingers - scapula of the healthy side; (+)
b) wrist - shoulder of the sick side;
c) wrist joint - scapula of the sick side;
d) wrist joint shoulder jointof the sick side;
e) forearm - shoulder of the sick side.
40. Specify an element of first aid to the man ,at the scene of injury, with a broken
long tubular bone:
a) use a Belers splint;
b) anesthetize place of fracture;
c) performreposition of fragments;
d) immobilize limb by a transport splint; (+)
e) perform skeletal traction.
41. When and where it is necessary to conduct reposition of bone fragments in the open
fracture?
a) at the place of injury (when providing first aid); (+)
b) during transport to hospital;
c) during sanitization in the admission department;
d) in the operating room shortly after edelivery;
e) in any of these places and in any time.
42. Specify the time of fracture reposition in patients with symptoms of shock:
a) after novocaine blockade in the fracture area;
b) after the withdrawal the patient from a state of shock; (+)
c) after the start of intravenous transfusion;
d) immediately after delivery patient to the hospital;
e) at the time of first aid.
43. What should not be done for the prevention of shock at fracture of big tubularbone at the
time of first aid?
a) transport immobilization of the limb;
b) reposition of fragments; (+)
c) stop bleeding;
d) analgesics introduction;
45. According to the mechanism of "bias" often broken ribs:
) 1-2; (+)
b) 2-4;
c)5-7;
d)7-9;
e)8-12.
46. After imposing circular gipseous bandage on the limb, may occur all of the following
complications, except:
a) bedsores;
b) the death of the entire skin saprophyte microflora with subsequent replacement it by fungi;
(+)
c) compression of the vessels;
d) compression of the nerve trunks with subsequent formation of neuritis;
e) compression of the nerve trunks without neuritis.
47.From all listed types of anesthesia in operations on the hand and fingers,irrational to use:
a) a local anesthetic;
b) conduction anesthesia;
c) novocaine blockade of the brachial plexus;
d) intraosseous novocaine blockade with a twist; (+)
e) general anesthesia.
48.At conservative treatment of fractures of the distal corner of the shoulder,extensor corner
of forearms should be:
a) 20 ;
b) 60 ;(+)
c) 90 ;
d) 110-140 ;
e) 150 .
49. The average length of work restoration,after fractureof surgical neck of the shoulder is:
a) 3-4 weeks;
b) 5-6 weeks;
c) 8-10 weeks; (+)
d) 10-12 weeks;
e) 13-15 weeks.
50. At fracture of the lumbar vertebras do not apply:
a) electrostimulation of lumbar muscles;
b) massage;
c) therapeutic exercises;
d) physiotherapy;
e) hydrotherapy. (+)
51.In the treatment of the disease with severe pelvic bones fractures, do not apply:
a) treatment and prevention of traumatic shock;
b) restoration of blood lost at a trauma;
c) early ambulation and activation of the patient; (+)
d) reposition of displaced fragments of pelvic bones;
e) prevention and treatment of complications that arose.
55. Patient with a fracture of the lower limbs can be transported:
a) sitting;
b) lying; (+)
c) standing;
d) lying on a side;
56. Patient with a fracture of the uuper limbs can be transported:
a) sitting; (+)
b) lying;
c) standing;
d) lying on a side;
57. In order to prevent shock, in patients with fracture, can be applied:
a) analgin;
b) tempalgin;
c) alcohol;
d) vodka;
59. At rib fractures in a patient:
a) pain in the fracture area ; (+)
b) painless cough;
c) painless breathing;
d) asymptomatic movements;
64. According to the severity, blunt chest trauma are divided into:
a) easy;
b) average lightness;
c) moderate;
d) severe;
65.For conducting transportation of patients with spine fracture, laying of the patient must
conduct:
a) 1-2 people;
b) 2-3 people;
c) 3-4; (+)
d) 4-5 people;
e) 5-6 people.
66. Fractures of the pelvic bones may be accompanied by:
a) damage of internal organs;
b) shock;
c) bleeding;
d)unconsciousness;
e) all of the above. (+)
67.Transportation of patients with fractures of pelvic bones should be performed:
a) in back position with halfbent at the knee and thigh jointslegs; (+)
b) in back position with unbent in the knee and thigh joints legs;
c) on the abdomen with halfbent at the knee and thigh jointsfoot;
d) in back position with halfbent at the knee joints legs;
e) on the abdomen with halfbent at knee joints legs.
68. Transportation of patients with damage of pelvic bones performed:
a) on a hard surface after conducting antishock measures; (+)
b) on a hard surface before conducting antishock measures;
c) on soft surface after conducting antishock measures;
d) on soft surface before conducting antishock measures;
e) on soft surface without antishock measures.
69.Fracture,that arising from pressure or flattening is called:
a) cross;
b) oblique;
c) with displacement;
d) compression; (+)
e) shortened.
Topic 5
"Treatment of fractures. Dislocations "
1. Pathological dislocation is called:

a) natural;
b) at in injury;
c) in the destruction of bone;(+)
d) "deprecated";
e) fresh.
2. Surgically treatment of patients with craniocerebral injury,include all, except:
)craniotomy;
b)pneumography; (+)
c)tentoriotomia;
d)ventricular drainage;
e)falksotomia.
3. A symptom, characteristic only for the dislocation:
a) pain;
b) hyperemia;
c) dysfunction;
d) springy fixation; (+)
4. First aid for closed dislocation:
a) pressure bandage;
b) heat to the injury;
c) transport immobilization; (+)
d) aseptic bandage;
e) antiseptic bandage.
5. Pathological dislocation is called:
a) natural;
b) at in injury;
c) in the destruction of bone; (+)
d) "deprecated";
e) fresh
6.Internal decompression in patients with craniocerebral injury include all methods, except:
a) tentoriometria on one side;
b) tentoriometria on both sides;
c) falksotomia with sagittal sinus;
d) decompressive craniotomy; (+)
e) drainage lateral ventricles.
7.According to the mechanism of "bias" often broken ribs:
) 1-2;
b) 2-4;
c)5-7;
d)7-9;
e)8-12. (+)
8.Treatment of a patient with a fracture of the lumbar vertebra is made by:

a) raising the foot end of the bed with fixation of the foot;
b) raising the head end of the bed and fixationthe patien by loops at axillary cavity; (+)
c) fixing by loop Hlissona for the head with a load of 6 kg;
d) fixation of pelvic by special rods along the axis;
e) the imposition on the chest special cadegree
9.At the fructure of the lumbar vertebra are not used:
) electrical stimulationof lumbar muscles;
b) massage;
c) therapeutic exercises;
d) physiotherapy;
e) mechanotherapy. (+)
10.In conservative treatment of clavicle fracture are used all immobilization bandages,
except:
a) Diterichs' splint;
b) figure-of-eight bandage;
c) Delbes rings;
d) plaster bandagby Turner; (+)
11. The indications for surgical treatment of clavicle fracture include:
a) open fractures with damage or compression of neurovascularbeam;
b) comminuted clavicle fractures with danger of skin injury;
c) comminuted closed fractures;
d) only B and C; (+)
12.Restoration of labor activity after clavicle fracture occurs through:
a) 2-4 weeks;
b) 1.5-2 months; (+)
c) 2-3 months;
d) 3-4 months;
e) 5-6 months.
13.For skeletal traction at fractures of the surgical neck of the shoulder with displacement
need:
a) 1-2 weeks;
b) 3-4 weeks; (+)
c) 5-6 weeks;
d) 8-10 weeks;
e) 10-12 weeks.
14.Average duration of the restoration of labor activity after fracture of the surgical neck of
the
shoulder is:
) 3-4 weeks;
b) 5-6 weeks;
c) 8-10 weeks; (+)
d) 10-12 weeks;
e) 13-15 weeks.
15.In conservative treatment of diaphyseal fractures of the shoulder on the splint,optimal
corner
of abduction shall be:
a) 30 ;
b) 60 ;
c) 70 ;
d) 90 ;(+)
e) 100 .
16.Absolute symptom of dislocation:
a) swelling;
b) dysfunction;
c) pain;
d) "empty joint";(+)
e) redness of the skin.
17.Under favorable conditions,diaphyseal fractures of the shoulder at conservative
treatment,growth:
a) up to 4-5 weeks;
b) up to 6-8 weeks; (+)
c) up to 12-14 weeks;
d) up to 20-22 weeks;
e) up to 22-24 weeks.
18.During surgical treatment fractures diaphysis of the shoulder for osteosynthesis
mainly used:
a) derotation plate; (+)
b)different intraostealrods;
c) screws;
d) wires;
e) screws.
19.In conservative treatment of fractures of the shoulder, a mistake will be:
) over distension fragments with formation of diastase between them;
b) weak tension of fragments;
c) maintaining a slight displacement of fragments;
d) tight tension of fragments;
20.During surgical treatment of fractures, a mistake will be:
a) incorrect assessment of the general condition of the patient;
b) wrong choice of construction; (+)

c) shortening of immobilization terms;
d) prolongation of immobilization terms;
e) all of the above..
21.In conservative treatment of fractures of distal part of the shoulder, extensor corner of
F orearm,should be:
) 20;
b) 60;
c) 90;
d) 110-140;(+)
e) 150.
22.At the extensor fructure of the shoulder, corner between fragments is open:
a) anteriorly and outwards;
b) posteriorly and inward; (+)
c) anteriorly and inward;
d) laterally and inward;
e) corner displacement there is no.
23.There are the following types of dislocation:
a) fresh;
b) stale;
c) outdated;
d) usual;
24.Dislocation of acromial extremity of clavicle is characterized by:
a) a sign of Marx;
b) symptom "triangular pillow";
c) a symptom of "keys";(+)
d) the springy movement in shoulder belt;
25.Order to clarify diagnosis of "complete" or "incomplete" dislocation of acromial end of
clavicle is necessary radiograph of:
a) shoulder in the patient lying on his back;
b) shoulder in a standing position of the patient;
c) both forearms; (+)
d) both shoulders;
e) both shoulders in the patient lying on his back.
26.Irreducible dislocation of clavicle is considered outdated by:
a) 2 hours;
b) 1 day;
c) 5 days;
d) 3-4 weeks; (+)
e) 3-4 months.
27.For outdated complete dislocation of the clavicle in acromioclavicular joint,is
characterized
by all,except:
a)ledgeof acromial end of the clavicle upwards;
b) limitation of handsabduction;
c) painin shoulder during movement with load;
d) rapid fatigability of the upper limb on the affected side; (+)
e) weakening of strength in hand.
28.Surgical treatment of old dislocation acromial end of the clavicle is possible in:
a) 3 months; (+)
b) 6 months;
a) 1 year;
d) 2 years;
e) 3 years.
29.Term of the upper limbimmobilization, after surgical reduction,because of the clavicle
dislocation is:
a) 2 weeks;
b) 4-5 weeks; (+)
c) 8 weeks;
d) 12 weeks;
e) 14 weeks.
30. A Forced limb position and deformation in the area of the shoulder joint is typical for:
a) strike;
b) arthritis;
c) dislocation; (+)
d) tumor.
31.At the admission department a patient was diagnosed a shoulder dislocation. Which
examination need to conduct in this case?
a) determination of pulse on carotid artery;
b) determining of pulse on popliteal artery;
c) determiningof pulse on brachial artery; (+)
d) determining of pulse on shinl arteries;
e) determining of pulse on femoral artery.
32. At sprain of joint ligaments,first is necessary to:
a) impose a tight bandage; (+)
b) make stretching of the limb;
c) apply heat to the injury;
d) stop the bleeding.
33. A symptom, that is characteristic only for the dislocation:
a) pain;
b) hyperemia;
c) dysfunction;
d) elastic fixation; (+)
e) cyanosis.
34. First aid for closed dislocations:
a) impose pressure bandage;
b) heat to the injury;
c) transport immobilization; (+)
d) impose aseptic bandage;
e) impose antiseptic bandage.
35. After imposing circular gipseous bandage on the limb, may occur all of the following
complications, except:
a) bedsores;
b) the death of the entire skin saprophyte microflora with subsequent replacement it by fungi;
(+)
c) compression of the vessels;
d) compression of the nerve trunks with subsequent formation of neuritis;
e) compression of the nerve trunks without neuritis.
36. Absolute indications for surgery of osteosynthesis of fractures will be all, except:
a) close fracture,fragments,that threaten perforated of the skin;
b) compression of the neurovascular bundle by bone fragments; (+)
c) explicit interposition of soft tissue between the cthighs;
d) open fractures;
e) bone fractures, complications of large vesselsinjuries, that requiresurgical restoration of its
patency.
37. In the treatment of diaphysis fractures of the humerus is necessary to resort to its
osteosynthesis:
a) in 5-6% of cases;
b) in 10-12% of cases;
c) in 26-30% of cases;
d) in 32-38% of cases; (+)
e) in 40-43% of cases.
38. When using percutaneous osteosynthesis by compressive- distractive apparatus can
expect all complications, except:
a) traumatic neuritis;
b) circulatory disorders;
c) secondary displacement of fragments;
d) migration of apparatus spokes; (+)
e) septic complications in places ofcarrying out spokes.

39. In listed types of anesthesia during surgery on the hand and fingers irrational to use:
a) a local anesthesia;
b) conductive anesthesia;
c) novocaine blockade of the brachial plexus;
d) intraosseous novocaine blockade with tourniquet; (+)
e) general anesthesia.
40. From the proposed methods of operative and conservative treatment of multifragmental
fractures of metatarsal bones should not use:
) create the bone synthesis with neighboring undamaged metatarsal bones; (+)
b) skeletal traction by rings;
c) osteosynthesis by rods or pins;
d) extrafocal osteosynthesis;
e) intraosseous osteosynthesis.
41. Reposition at the fracture of the humerus and the forearm bones should start:
a) with a wrist;
b) with a forearm; (+)
c) both from arm and forearm;
d) with ahand and forearm;
e) with a shoulder.
42. Physiotherapy treatment is not contraindicated in:
a) cardiovascular disease in the stage of decompensation; (+)
b) malignant neoplasms;
c) open form of tuberculosis of the lungs;
d) combined radiation injuries;
e) case of poisoning.
43. To professional rehabilitation of traumatological patients belongs all, except:
a) professional training and retraining;
b) adaptation of machine tools and instruments of labor possibilities to people with
disabilities;
c) the creation of new specialties;
d) the creation of a special labor institutions in the form of workshops; (+)
e) providing tools of production and technology by place of residencedisabled people.
44. In the treatment of an open fracture of the III-b degree in the lower third of the thigh,
irrational to use the following method of analgesia inconducting compression-distraction
osteosynthesis:
a) general anesthesia with endotracheal intubation;
b) intravenous anesthesia;
c) peridural anesthesia;
d) local and intraosseous anesthesia;
e) true are B and D. (+)

45. The main conditions, that ensured the success of treatment in the compression-distraction
osteosynthesis are:
a) strong fixation rods in the bone, connected by a sided clip; (+)
b) use for connection rods of two brackets in different planes;
c) use framework for connecting rods;
d) connection by a figured frame rods, held in different planes;
e) Band D.
46. During conducting technique of single-stage rapprochement of bones in the place of
defect at the expense of temporarily shortening of the limb, can be single-stage
rapprochement fragments, separated by a distance:
a) 1-3 cm;
b) 4-6 cm;
c) 7-9 cm;
d) not more than 10 cm; (+)
e) more than 10 cm.
47. Outdated unreducible dislocation of clavicle considered in:
a) 2 hours;
b) 1 day;
c) 5 days;
d) 3-4 weeks; (+)
e) 3-4 months.
48. During conducting compression-distraction osteosynthesis by Ilizarov's apparatus should
remember, that, the most stiffness through- bone fixation observed:
a) to the vertical loading;
b) to the axial loading;
c) to the transverse loading;
d) trueareBandD;
49. The advantages of rod apparatus to spoke, are:
a) the simplicity of construction and speed of the apparatus configuration;
b) reduce the risk of damage of neurovascular structures;
c) ensuring optimal conditions of access to the soft tissues damages;
d) high variability of mounting modifications of the apparatus in the treatment;
50. The best anesthesia during osteosynthesis of the femur with a larged isplacement of
fragments in patients with combined trauma are:
a) spinal anesthesia in combination with nitrous oxide anesthesia;
b) peridural anesthesia combined with intravenous anesthesia;
c) ET anesthesia with muscle relaxants;
d) ET anesthesia with muscle relaxants in a small amount; (+)
e) Vinyl chloride anesthesia in combination with prolonged intraosseushemostatic blockade.

52. In fractures of the forearm bones,splint is imposing:
a) from the wrist to the upper third of the shoulder; (+)
b) from the wrist to the elbow joint;
c) in place fracture;
d) from tips of fingers to the upper third of the shoulder;
e) only on the forearm.
53. Reposition of the fragments is conducting at:
a) interposition;
b) any displacement of fragments; (+)
c) underbone fracrures;
d)open fractures;
e)close fractures.
54. Rational fixation of segment provides a pinapparatus, that consist of:
a) 2 rings;
b) 3 rings;
c) 4 rings; (+)
d) 6 rings;
e) A and C.
55. The most useful in conducting spoke of compression-distraction apparatus is to comply
the
following principles:
)spokes of inner rings conductat a distance of 8-10 cm from the fracture line,
distal rings - through the metaphysis;
b) spokes of internal rings conduct at a distance of 4-5 cm from the fracture line,distal rings through the metaphysis;
c)uniformlythroughequal intervals along the segment; (+)
d) spokes of internal rings conduct at a distance of 6-8 cm from the fracture line, distal rings
through metadiaphysis;
e) conducting of spokes depending of operating situation.
56. During conducting compression-distraction osteosynthesis is appropriate to use such
types of analgesia,except:
a) endotracheal anesthesia;
b) mask anesthesia;
c) local anastesia; (+)
d) conductive anesthesia;
e) spinal anesthesia.
57. Advantages of extrafocal through the bone osteosynthesis over others types of surgical
intervention are all listed, except:
a) low-traumatic;
b) reliable stabilization of bone fragments;
c) the possibility of early activation of seriously ill;

d) small terms of surgical intervention combined with the simplicity of methods of surgical
intervention; (+)
e) lack or inadequate blood loss.
58.Contraindications for the use of the method of compression-distraction osteosynthesis in
pseudojoint of long tubular bones are:
a) pseudojoint in combination with osteomyelitis;
b) pseudojoint of the joint in combination with heavy-scar changes of the skin in this area;
(+)
c) "tight" fibrous pseudojoint;
d) false joint with preservation of the axis of the limb and satisfactory condition of the skin
segment;
e) false joint with considerable in size bone defect.
59. For treatment of a thigh pseudojoint, complicated by osteomyelitis, by a method of
compression-distraction osteosynthesis appropriate to use all methods, except:
)out-mediatedthrough the boneosteosynthesiswithout surgery; (+)
b)out-mediatedthrough the boneosteosynthesiswith surgery;
c)resection of the damage by osteomyelitis process of a bone and replacement of the defect
by a autoplastic graft;
d)resection of the damageparts of pseudojointwith compression and subsequent distraction
of fragments;
e)resection of the damageparts ofsegment, sub-over bone osteotomy of one of the fragments.
60. In the treatment of bone fracture of the shin bone, shortened by 4 cm, by compressivedistraction osteosynthesis should use the following methods:
a) dosed compression of fragments to jointconcrescence;
b) dosed distraction;
c) osteotomy of the fibula,combined with distraction;
d) osteotomy of the fibula, distraction of the pseudojoint;
e) osteotomy of the fibula, and after 10 days - pseudojoint distraction. (+)
61. Using through the bone osteosynthesis by compression-distraction apparatus can expect
all
of the following complications, except:
a) traumatic neuritis;
b) violation of the blood and lymph circulation segment;
c) secondary displacement of fragments;
d) migration of apparatus spokes; (+)
e) septic complications in places of spokes laying.
62. In the elderly (with osteoporosis) to prevent cutting of the boneby spokes, spokes should
conducted:
a) three spokes within one ring;
b) in different planes with fixture spokes from different rings angles; (+)
c) tangentially two spokes at an angle to each other;
d) in the frontal plane;

e) A and C.
63. The stability of fixation of fragments in compression-distraction osteosynthesis,notes:
a) the number of spokes and the way they conduct;
b) the level of implementation of spokes and their number;
c) the thickness of spokes and the degree of tension;
d) A and C are correct;
e) all of the above . (+)
64. Fracture healing at compression-distraction osteosynthesis noted by the following
features:
a) absence of pain at the fracture;
b) lack of swelling of the foot when walking, regression osteoporosis of the central fragment;
c) radiologic picture of concrescence;
d) data of functional research of peripheric circulation - symmetry indices of both limbs;
e) all of the signs. (+)
65. When removing a segment by using compression-distraction osteosynthesis, most
appropriate use of:
a) z-shaped osteotomy;
b) oblique osteotomy;
c) double transverse osteotomy;
d) transversal osteotomy;
e)C and D. (+)
66. In the treatment of the disease with severe pelvic fractures, do not use:
a) treatment and prevention of traumatic shock;
b) restore the lost blood in trauma;
c) early uprising and activation of the patient; (+)
d) reposition of the displaced fragments of the pelvis;
e) prevention and treatment of complications that have arisen.
67. Indications for surgical treatment of clavicle fracture include:
a) open fractures with damage or compression of the neurovascular bundle;
b) comminuted clavicle fracture with risk of injury to the skin;
c)closedcomminuted fracture;
d) all of the above; (+)
e) onlyB) andC).
68. Rehabilitation with a positive result after clavicle fracture arises in:
) 2-4 weeks;
b) 1.5-2 months; (+)
c) 2-3 months;
d) 3-4 months;
e) 5-6 months.
69. Peripheral fragment at scapula fractures,displaced:
a) up and inside;
b) downwards and inwards; (+)
c) outward and upward;
d) outwards and downwards;
e) rotary.
70. In intraarticular fractures of the scapula,for immobilization use:
a) plaster cast by Turner;
b) handkerchief bandage; (+)
c) soft Desault's bandage;
d) plaster cast Desault's bandage;
e) splint.
Topic 6
"Burns and burn disease"
1. What is the area of 1% of the body surface in adults?
a) 100 cm. / kV
b) 120 - 140 cm. / kV;
c) 140 - 150 cm. / kV; (+)
d) 160 - 180 cm. / kV;
e) 130 - 160 cm. / kV.
2. What are the causes of the primary tissue necrosis at burns?
a) destruction of tissue;
b) tissue swelling;
c) the inflammatory response;
d) microcirculatory disorders; (+)
e) ulcer.
3. Four-classification of burns is based on:
a) the nature of the thermal agent;
b) location of burn;
c) the depth of the lesion; (+)
d) the stage of dysfunction;
e) the area of injury.
4. In deep burns, skin sensitivity is:
a) weakened;
b) strengthened;
c) absent; (+)
d) paradoxical;
e) synesthesia.
5. Burn disease develops at superficial burns,area over:
a) 5%;
b) 20%;(+)
c) 15%;
d) 50%;
e) 2%.
6. The best way to terminate factors action:
a) removal by cotton wool;
b) removal by tweezers (+)
c) removal by water immersion;
d) removal by water jet;
e) removal by the fingers.
9. The estimated healing time of I degree burn:
a) 2 days;
b) 7 days; (+)
c) 15 days;
d) 30 days;
e) 1.5 days.
10. Burn healing of I degree often passes:
a) without scarring; (+)
b) with form of a delicate scar;
c) with form of a rough scars;
d) with form of a crust;
e) will not occur.
12. A patient has a burn injury of the front surface of the chedegree The skin is hyperemic,
edematous, present multiple, small sizeblisters,filled with serous effusion. What is the
stage of the burn injury?
a) I (first);
b) II (second); (+)
c) III A (third);
d) III B (third);
e) IV (fourth).
13.A patient has a burn injury of the front surface of the chedegree The skin is hyperemic,
swollen, there are multiple, small size blisters,filled with serous effusion. Primary
debridement should include all the available measures, except:
a) the disinfect of skin and burn surface
b) disclosure of blisters;
c) tracheotomy; (+)
d) washing with cold water;
e) laying onaseptic bandages.
14. Clinical signs, typical for II degree of burn:
a) hyperemia;
b) swelling;
c) blisters filled with yellowish transparent liquid; (+)
d) emptied, shrunken blisters with serous fluid;

e) the presence of necrotic tissue with charring;
15. The factors that cause radiation burns:
a) acid;
b) alkali;
c) high temperature;
d) ionizing radiation; (+)
e) electrical accident.
18. In what department is necessary to hospitalize a patient with electric shock?
a) therapeutic;
b) surgery;
c) burn;
d) reanimation; (+)
e) any - that.
20. At a deep circular burn of limb, is necessary to conduct:
a) toilet of burn surface;
b) early necrotomy;
c) decompression necrectomy; (+)
d) free dermatoplasty;
e) chemical necrectomy.
21. Which layer of the skin called growth?
a) papillary;
b) granular;
c) basal; (+)
d) spinosum
e) brilliant.
22. First aid at burns includes all, except:
a) the use of ointment dressings; (+)
b) introduction of anesthetics;
c) imposition of dry aseptic bandage;
d) prevent of asphyxia in burns of respiratory tract
e) organize delivery to a specialized treatment institution.
23. Burn shock is characterized by:
a) poorly expressed erectile phase;
b) pronounced erectile phase; (+)
c) no torpid phase;
d) increasing of CVP;
e) increasing of CVB.
24. Burn disease in children arise at deep burns area of over:
a) 3 - 5%;
b) 5 - 6%;
c) 10%;(+)
d) 15%;
e) 20%.
25. The area of adult's palm is equal ....... % of body surface:
a) 0.5 - 0.6;
b) 1 - 1.1; (+)
c) 2 - 2.1;
d) 3 - 3.1;
e) 4 - 4.1.
26. Among the local signs for II degree burn,is typical all, except:
a) hyperesthesia; (+)
b) pain;
c) hyperemia;
d) blisters;
e) swelling.
27. The skin is consist of?
a) 2 layers;
b) 3 layers; (+)
c) 4 layers;
d) 5 layers;
e) 6 layers.
28. Which burn degrees belong to superficial?
a) 2 and 3;
b) 1 3A;
c) 1 - 2 3A; (+)
d) 3A 3B;
e) 3A 3B - 4.
29. Which burn degrees belong to deep?
)2 3 A;
b) 1 3 A;
c)1 2 3 A;
d) 3 A 3 B;
e) 3 B 4. (+)
30. How many periods of burn disease are distinguished:
a) 5;
b) 4; (+)
c) 3;
d) 2;
e) 1.
31. What is the name of the I period of burn disease?
a) septicotocsemia;
b) toxemia;
c) burn shock; (+)
d) reconvalescence;
e) sepsis.
32. What is the name of the II period of burn disease?
a) septicotocsemia;
b) toxemia; (+)
c) burn shock;
d) reconvalescence;
e) sepsis.
33. What is the name of the III period of burn disease
a) septicotocsemia; (+)
b) toxemia;
c) burn shock;
d) reconvalescence;
e) sepsis.
34. What is the name of the IV period of burn disease?
a) septicotocsemia;
b) toxemia;
c) burn shock;
d) reconvalescence; (+)
e) sepsis.
35. According to the rule of nines, what percent takes the head of adult?
a) 9%;(+)
b) 18%;
c) 21%;
d) 20%;
e) 36%.
36. According to the rule of nines, what percent takes the lower limb of adult?
a) 9%;
b) 18%;(+)
c) 21%;
d) 20%;
e) 36%.
37.According to the rule of nines, what percent takes the upper limb of adult?
a) 9%;(+)
b) 18%;
c) 21%;
d) 20%;
e) 36%.
38.According to the rule of nines, what percent takes head of the 1 year child?
)9 %;
b)18 %;
c)25 %;
d) 20 % ; (+)
e) 50%.
39. What is the main pathogenetic mechanism of burn shock?
a) pain;
b) traumatic; (+)
c) hypovolemic;
d) hemorrhagic;
e) toxic.
40. At burn shock, the patient's organism loses:
a) water;
b) electrolytes;
c) proteins;
d) plasma; (+)
e) blood.
41. How long lasts burn shock ?
a) 5 - 7 days;
b) 1 - 3 days; (+)
c) 6 - 8 days;
d) 10 - 12 days;
e) 16 - 18 days.
42.How long lasts the septicotocsemia period?
a) 5 - 7 days;
b) 1 - 3 days; (+)
c) 6 - 8 days;
d) 10 - 12 days;
e) 2 - 3 months to complete the restoration of skin.
43. How long last the convalescence period?
a) 10 - 12 days;
b) 30 - 40 days;
c) 2 - 3 months to complete the restoration of skin;
d) from several months to several years; (+)
e) 5 - 6 months.
44. When calculating fluid for i/ v introduction at burn shock,is necessary to take into
account?
a) sex and age;
b) the age and the percentage of of burns;
c) the percentage of burns and weight; (+)
d) sex and percentage of of burns;
e) age and weight.
45. In the treatment of burn shock it is necessary to introduce:
a) proteins;
b) plasma;
a) red cell mass;
d) glucose and cardiac glycosides;
e) solution of erythrocytes and glucose. (+)
46.A III-A degree burns clinically looks like:
a) hyperemia;
b) blisters;
) thick dim crust;
d) redness and blisters;
e) surface yellowish crudegree(+)
47.A III-B degree burns clinically looks like:
a) hyperemia;
b) blisters;
) thick dim crust; (+)
d) redness and blisters;
e) surface yellowish crudegree
48. A I degree burns clinically looks like?
a) hyperemia; (+)
b) blisters;
) thick dim crust;
d) hyperemia and blisters;
e) surface yellowish crust;
49. What is not a temporary wound cover?
a) ksenoskin;
b) auto skin; (+)
c) homo skin;
d) corpse skin;
e) allo fibroblasts.
50. As first aid for burns should impose:
a) oil;
b) sea buckthorn oil;

c) ointment based on fat;
d) goose fat;
e) antiseptic, antibacterial solutions. (+)
51. For drying necrotic crust is used:
a) antiseptic solutions;
c) hypoosmolar fat ointment;
d) hyperosmolar water-soluble ointment (Ofloksin, Myramistin); (+)
e) ointment on fat based.
52. For cleaning a wound from necrosis is used such measures as:
a) antiseptic solutions;
b) yodobak;
c) hyperosmolar ointments;
d) aerosols;
e) necrolitic ointments. (+)
53. Burn by concentrated acids, clinically looks like:
a) dry brown crust; (+)
b) hyperemia;
c) blisters;
d) hyperemia and blisters;
e) wet gray crudegree
54. First aid for burns by acids:
a) aerosols;
b) wash under running water; (+)
c) sea buckthorn oil;
d) hyperosmolar ointments;
e) dry bandage.
55. Treatment of III- B degree burns:
a) conservative methods;
b) operational methods; (+)
c) physiotherapy;
d) balneal methods,.
e) cryosurgical.
56. Treatment of III- A degree. burns:
a) conservative methods; (+)
b) operational methods;
c) physiotherapy;
d) balneal methods,.
e) cryosurgical.
57.First aid for burns by alkalis:

a) antiburn aerosols;
c) wash with citric acid;
d) hyperosmolar ointments;
e) wash with running water. (+)
58.What stage of burns heal by itself?
a) I (first);
b) III (third);
c) I - II - III A; (+)
d) III B - IV;
e) III B.
59. What degree of burn with lesions of bones?
a) I (first);
b) II (second);
c) III A;
d) III B;
e) IV. (+)
60. What is the longest stage of burn disease?
a) shock;
b) toxemia;
c) septicotocsemia;
d) reconvalescence; (+)
e) demarcation.
61. On what day after burn is recommend to conduct chemical necrolysis?
a) I-2nd day;
b) 3 - 4th day;
c) 5 - 6th day;
d) 7 - 8th day;
e) 9 - 10th day. (+)
62. At what maximum area is appropriate to conduct chemical necrolysis?
a) 1%;
b) 2%;
c) 3%;
d) 5%;(+)
e) up to 10%.
63. Burns by strong acids clinically looks like:
)colliquative ;
b) coagulation necrosis; (+)
c)endothermic reaction;
d)crust below the undamaged skin;
e)different types of crusts.

64. Burns by alkali clinically looks like:
)colliquative ; (+)
b) coagulation necrosis;
c)endothermic reaction;
d)crust below the undamaged skin;
e)different types of crusts.
65. What is the frequency of burns in peacetime?
a) 3 - 5%;(+)
b) 5 - 12%;
c) 12 - 16%;
d) 17 - 20%;
e) 25 - 30%.
66.What is the frequency of burns during a thermonuclear war?
a) 10 - 20%;
b) 20 - 30%;
c) 31 - 59%;
d) 61 - 80%;(+)
e) 81 - 100%.
67. How many percent takes front torso in adult?
a) 5%;
b) 15%;
c) 18%;(+)
d) 30%;
e) 40%.
68.How many percent takes back torso in adult?
a) 5%;
b) 15%;
c) 18%;(+)
d) 30%;
e) 40%.
69. How much blood is deposited in the skin of a healthy person?
a) 5 liters;
b) 4 liters;
c) 3 liters;
d) 2 liters;
e) 1 liter. (+)
70 The diagnosis of respiratory tract burn is confirmed,if:
a) there is a burn of the nasal mucosa, lips, tongue; (+)
b) burnt nose hair;
c) burnt hard and soft palate, posterior pharyngeal wall;

d) there is a hoarseness, aphonia;
e) there is abdominal pain.
Topic 7
Frostbite. Electrical accident.
11. At what body temperature starts general cooling - freezing?
a) below 36 C;
b) below 35 C;
c) below 34 C; (+)
d) below 31 C;
e) below 30 C.
12. What phase of freezing (Petrov classification) develops when the body temperature of the
victim reaches 34-31?
a) adaptive phase; (+)
b) stupor phase;
c) convulsive phase;
d) erectile phase;
e) torpid phase.
13. At what body temperature (Petrov classification) develops stupor phase of freezing?
a) 34-31 C;
b) 31-29 C; (+)
) 29-26 C;
d) 26-24 C;
e) below 24 C.
14. What phase of freezing (Petrov classification) develops when the body temperature of the
victim reaches 29 C?
a) adaptive;
b) stupor;
c) erectile;
d) die away of vital functions; (+)
e) torpid.
17. Specify the main morphological sign of I degree of frostbite:
a) necrosis of the entire thickness of the skin;
b) signs of necrosis are not defined; (+)
c) necrosis of all layers of the epithelium;
d) necrosis to a depth of all tissues of the limb;
e) necrosis of the skin to the basal layer.
18. On what degree of frostbite indicates necrosis of all layers of the epithelium?
a) I degree;
b) II degree; (+)
c) IIIA degree;
d) IIIb degree;
e) IV degree.
19. Specify characteristic morphological sign of III degree of frostbite:
a) necrosis of all layers of the epithelium;
b) necrosis of the entire thickness of the skin; (+)
c) necrosis to a depth of all tissues of the limb;
d) necrosis of the epithelium to the papillary layer;
e) lack of necrosis.
20. Characteristic pathologic sign of IV degree of frostbite is:
a) lack of skin necrosis;
b) partial necrosis of the epithelium;
c) necrosis of the entire thickness of the skin;
d) necrosis to a depth of all tissues of the limb; (+)
e) necrosis of all layers of the epithelium.
25. By whar external sign, IV degree of frostbite differ from the others:
a) hyperemia of the skin;
b) expressive swelling;
c) bubbles with hemorrhagic content;
d) presence of necrosis;
e) presence of dry or wet gangrene. (+)
26. Specify the most probable timing of the demarcation line formation at dry gangrene after
frostbite.
a) 1 day;
b) 5-6 days;
c) 2 weeks; (+)
d) 2 months;
e) six months.
27. At what period conduct determination of the depth damage at frostbite?
a) in pre-reactive;
b) in reactive; (+)
c) in torpid;
d) in erectile;
e) in convulsive.
30. What conditioned the severity of the patient's general condition in pre-reactive period?
) general hypothermia; (+)
b) toxemia;
c) septicotocsemia;
d) bacteremia;
e) renal insufficiency.
32. Specify the most typical complications that are possible in the pre-reactive period of
frostbite:
a) shock; (+)
b) renal insufficiency;
c) liver insufficiency;
d) phlegmon;
e) osteomyelitis.
35. In conditions of wet environment frostbite and general freezing goes faster than in a dry
environment. What it caused by?
a) heat transfer in a wet environment is lower;
b) heat transfer in a wet environment is higher; (+)
c) heat transfer doesn't matter;
d) only comorbidities are important;
e) has meaning only the weight of the victim.
41. When occur signs of "trench foot":
a) at high humidity and periodic influence of temperatures +3 +5 C; (+)
b) periodic influence of temperature +3 +5 C;
c) at high humidity;
d) at diabetes;
e) at obesity.
43. When providing first aid to the victim from electrical accident necessary:
a) to pull away a current source from the victim by a wooden or rubber object; (+)
b) to pull away victim by wear;
c) to turn off a contact-breaker;
d) to call an ambulance and wait for its arrival;
e) to pull away victim by metallic stick.
44. Reanimation measures to victim of electrical accident are necessary to conduct:
a) to appearance of independent heartbeat and breathing or arrival of the doctor; (+)
b) for 5 minutes;
c) for 20 minutes;
g) for 5 minutes, then pause for 5 minutes and then continue;
e) within 60 minutes.
45. In what way as soon as possible may warm the victim:
a) immerse the victim to a bath with water, whose temperature for 20 minutes increase from
+36 C to +40 C; (+)
b) wrap the patient in a warm blanket;
c) rub the patient with alcohol ;
d) give the patient a hot drink;
e) conduct intravenously infusion of heated glucose.
49. Potentially dangerous for life is the current in voltage of:
a) 20 V;
b) 40 V; (+)
c) 60 V;
d) 80 V;
e) 100 V.
51. On the first day after electrical accident victims must be treated in:
a) the burn department;
b) the surgical ward;
c) the intensive care department; (+)
d) the therapeutic department;
e) the traumatological department.
52. Late bleeding at electric current lession most often occur in:
a) 1-3 days;
b) 3-5 days;
c) 5-7 days;
d) 7-10 days; (+)
e) 10-14 days.
54. Name residual symptoms after undergone frostbite of I degree:
a) spontaneous regeneration is impossible;
b) formation of scars;
c) comes complete recovery; (+)
d) nails exfoliate and completely restore;
e) damaged areas regenerate completely.
61. What is phenomenon of metallization:
a) deposition of small particles of molten metal in tissues; (+)
b) deposition of oxidized metal in tissues;
c) accumulation of gas in tissues;
d) accumulation of electrical discharge in tissues;
e) creation of magnetic field in the tissues.
67. From what is necessary to start cardio-pulmonary resuscitation at providing emergency
care to the victim with electric current:
a) precardial blow; (+)
b) turn the head of the victim to the side ;
c) intravenously introduce adrenaline;
d) first need to call an ambulance;
e) bent limbs of the victim in the knee joints.
Topic 8
Methods of examination surgical patient.
10. What term is called lowering level of blood pressure below normal in a healthy person?
a) hypertension;
b) hypotension (+)
c) tachypnea;
d) bradypnoe;
e) tachycardia.
Specify correct answer.
11. Central venous pressure of the patient is determined:
a) millimeters of mercury column;
b) millimeters of water column (+)
c) degrees Celsius;
d) inches of mercury column;
e) inches of water column;
12. What size,in average is characterized breathing rate in a healthy person at rest?
a) 10 respiratory acts in a minute;
b) 15 respiratory acts in a minute;
c) 18 respiratory acts in a minute (+)
d) 25 respiratory acts in a minute;
e) 30 respiratory acts in a minute.
15. What stage of examination of surgical patient should conduct to confirm (negation)
previous diagnosis and establishing final clinical diagnosis?
a) objective examination place of disease;
b) additional laboratory and instrumental methods of examination (+)
c) objective examination;
d) measurements of pulse and blood pressure;
e) objective examination in systems.
19. An examination of surgical patient near his bed, the doctor should stand (sit) ...:
a) from the back of the patient;
b) in front to the face of the patient;
c) to the right of the patient face to him (+)
d) to the left of the patient to the patient's face;
20. What does irradiation of pain mean?
a) increased pain;
b) weakening strength of pain;
c) spread of pain to another place (+)
d) localization of pain;
e) inducing pain during the examination.
26. In a patient at examination was found subicterus sclera. What laboratory examination
needs to be appoint?
a) blood analysis on glucose;
b) level in the blood bilirubin and liver enzymes(+)
c) general blood analysis;
d) presence of acetone in urine;
e) prothrombin index.
28.
At lung percussion in a healthy person is defined :
a) absolute pulmonary dullness;
b) relative pulmonary dullness;
c) dull lung sound;
d) ringing lung sound;
e) clear lung sound. (+)
29.
Objective examination of heart rate (pulse) is most often performed on
peripheral arteries:
a) left upper limb; (+)
b) left lower limb;
c) both upper limbs at the same time (+)
d) right upper limb;
e) right lower limb.
30.
Complaints of patient on sudden appearance of pain, decreased sensitivity, cooling of
limb and limiting function of limb, may point on necessity of additional examination of the
system:
a) arterial blood supply of limb (+)
b) vegetative innervation;
c) venous outflow of limb;
d) limb innervation;
e) osteoarticular apparatus of limb.
31. The heart rate in a healthy person on average is equal:
) 90 beats in a minute;
b) 50 beats in a minute;
c) 70 beats in a minute; (+)
d) 120 beats in a minute;
e) 140 beats in a minute.
33. Upper limit of blood pressure in healthy people is equil:
a) 100/60 m.m.c.;
b) 120/80 m.m.c.;
c) 139/89 m.m.c.; (+)
d) 120/100 m.m.c.;
e) 80/60 m.m.c.
34. Falling of blood pressure less than 120/80 m.m.c. is called:
a) hypertension;
b) tachypnea;
c) tachycardia;
d) bradypnoe;
e) hypotension. (+)
36. What blood, flows in pulmonary arteries of human:
a) venous blood (+)
b) arterial blood;
c) mixed blood;
d) lymph;
e) synovial fluid.
41. What stage examination of surgical patient is the next after objective examination?
a) patient's complaints;
b) previous diagnosis (+)
c) passport part;
d) final diagnosis;
e) treatment.
43. What stage examination of surgical patient should perform after installation final clinical
diagnosis?
a) conducting echocardioskopy;
b) measurement of respiratory rate;
c) determination of total protein in the blood;
d) filling diary;
e) appointment treatment to the patient. (+)
46. Methods of examination of surgical patient provides measuring the temperature of his
body:
a) once a day;
b) twice a day (+)
c) three times a day;
d) four times a day;
e) if necessary.
48. The last stage algorithm examination of surgical patient is:
a) anamnesis of disease;
b) anamnesis of life;
c) objective examination;
d) epicrisis (+)
e) diary.
52. Level of erythrocytes in general blood analysis of a healthy person is:

) 4,0-5,01012/l; (+)
b) 6,0-7,01012/l;
c) 8,0-9,01012/l;
d) 10,0-11,01012/l;
e) 12,0-13,01012/l.
53. Level of leukocytes in general blood analysis of a healthy person is:
) 25,0-30,0109/l;
b) 15,0-24,0109/l;
c) 10,0-14,0109/l;
d) 7,0-11,0109/l;
e) 4,0-9,0109/l. (+)
54. Level of thrombocytes in general blood analysis of a healthy person is:
) 100,0-200,0109/l;
b) 150,0-240,0109/l;
c) 180,0-320,0109/l; (+)
d) 230,0-330,0109/l;
e) 280,0-390,0109/l.
55. "Shift of leukocyte formula to the left" means:
a) increase in general blood analysis content of leukocytes;
b) decrease in general blood analysis content of leukocytes;
c) increase in general blood analysis content of lymphocyte;
d) increase in general blood analysis content of neutrophil; (+)
e) increase in general blood analysis content of monocyte.
56. Level of erythrocyte sedimentation rate for men and women on average in norm is:
) 0,70-1,0 mm/h;
b) 1-15 mm/h; (+)
c) 3,5-18 mm/h;
d) 1,35-16,8 mm/h;
e) 2-27 mm/h.
57. How many in norm in general blood analysis must be eosinophils?
) 0,5-1,0%;
b) 0,5-2,0%;
c) 0,5-3,0%;
d) 0,5-4,0%;
e) 0,5-5,0%.(+)
58. How many in norm in general blood analysis must be basophils?
) 0-1,0%; (+)
b) 0-2,0%;
c) 0-3,0%;
d) 0-4,0%;
e) 0-5,0%.
59. How many in norm in general blood analysis must be lymphocytes?
) 10,0-20,0%;
b) 15,0-24,0%;
c) 19,0-37,0%; (+)
d) 25,0-44,0%;
e) 30,0-50,0%.
60. How many in norm in general blood analysis must be monocytes?
) 3,0-12,0%;
b) 3,0-14,0%;
c) 3,0-17,0%;
d) 3,0-11,0%; (+)
e) 3,0-15,0%.
61. What specific density of urine in norm (in general urine analysis)?
) 1,000-1,020;
b) 1,001-1,040; (+)
c) 1,002-1,020;
d) 1,003-1,020;
e) 1,001-1,020.
62. What reaction (pH) of urine in norm (in general urine analysis)?
) 1,0-3,0;
b) 3,0-5,0;
c) 5,0-7,0; (+)
d) 7,0-9,0;
e) 9,0-11,0.
63. How many in norm can be protein in the urine (in general urine analysis)?
) to 0,033; (+)
b) to 0,043;
c) to 0,053;
d) to 0,063;
e) to 0,073.
64. How many, in norm, in general urine analysis, can be leukocytes?
) to 3-9 in sight;
b) to 3-8 in sight;
c) to 3-7 in sight;
d) to 3-6 in sight;
e) to 3-5 in sight. (+)
65. How many, in norm, in general urine analysis, can be erythrocytes?
) 0-9 in sight;
b) 0-5 in sight;
c) 0-7 in sight;
d) 0-1 in sight; (+)
e) 0-15 in sight.
66. Color of urine in norm is:
a) orange;
b) straw-yellow (+)
c) red;
d) straw-orange;
e) straw-red.
67. The increase of blood glucose is called:
a) glycosemia;
b) glycocytosis;
c) glycemia;
d) hyperglycemia (+)
e) hyperglycosemia.
68. The increase level of leukocytes in the blood is called:
a) politcytosis;
b) anisocytosis;
c) leukocytosis; (+)
d) poikilocytosis;
e) agranulocytosis.
Topic 9-11.
Curation of surgical patients. Writing of medical history.
1. What should be written in documents Rh-factor?:
) Rh(+ /-) (positive / negative);
b) Rh (negative); (+)
c) Rh(+ /-);
d) Rh;
e) Rh (positive).
2.What are the possible options while assessing the general condition of a patient?
a) satisfactory;
b) medium well;
c) moderate severity;
d) difficult; (+)
e) questionable.
3.Which required additional laboratory and instrumental examinations must be appointed to
the patient at the time
of curation?
a) general blood analysis;
b) general urine analysis ;

c) biochemical blood analysis; (+)
d) electrocardiography;
e) X-ray of the chest.
4.During curation near a bed sick doctor should stand (sit) ...:
a) front face to the patient;
b) from the back of the patient;
c) right of the patient to the patient's face; (+)
d) left of the patient's, face to the patient;
e) face-to-the patient.
5.Invasive additional instrumental methods of examination include:
a) electrocardiography;
b) Ultrasound diagnosis;
c) reovasography;
d) contrast angiography; (+)
e) capillaroscopy.
6.What is the heart rate of a healthy person?:
a) 70 per minute; (+)
b) 50 per minute;
c) 90 per minute;
d) 120 per minute;
e) 140 per minute.
7.What is the name of increase of heart rate more than normal?:
a) bradycardia;
b) tachypnea;
c) bradypnoe;
d) tachycardia; (+)
e) hypertension.
8.Blood pressure in a healthy person is:
a) 100/60 mm Hg;
b) 120/100 mm Hg;
c) 140/100 mm Hg;
d) 120-140/80-90 mm Hg; (+)
e) 80/60 mm Hg.
9.What is the name of reduction of blood pressure below normal:
a) hypertension;
b) hypotension; (+)
c) tahykardiya;
d) bradypnea;
e) tachypnea.
10.What is the frequency of breathing in a healthy person?:
a) 30 per minute;
b) 15 per minute;
c) 25 per minute;
d) 18 per minute; (+)
e) 10 per minute.
11.In human pulmonary arteries is flowing:
a) arterial blood;
b) venous blood; (+)
c) mixed blood;
d) lymph;
e) synovial fluid.
12.Which of the following named steps is unnecessary when examining surgical patient?
a) passports part;
b) filling the sheet of temporary disability; (+)
c) patient's complaints;
d) anamnesis of disease;
e) anamnesis of life.
13.What is not included in the data,which are necessary to fill the passport part of the
history?
a) lastname, name and patronymic of the patient;
b) age of the patient;
c) body temperature of the patient;
d) blood group, Rh-factor;
e) diagnosis at direction. (+)
14."Anamnessis of the disease" include:
a) name of the disease in Latin;
b) a brief description of the patient's life, transferred previously diseases;
c) information about the presence of allergic reactions;
d) description of the location of disease;
e) all information about the disease, about which the patient came to the doctor. (+)
15.What doesnt refer to physical examination?
a) general objective examination;
b) objective examination by systems;
c) objective examination of the disease place;
d) examination, palpation, percussion, auscultation;
e) patients complaints. (+)
16.What stage of curation of the patient is performed after objective examination?
a) patient's complaints;
b) passport part;
c) setting previous diagnosis; (+)
d) setting final diagnosis;
e) treatment.
17.What stage of examination of the surgical patient necessary to conduct confirmation
(denial) previous
diagnosis and establishing final clinical diagnosis?
a) measuring of pulse and blood pressure;
b) objective examination of the diseases place;
c) general objective examination;
d) objective examination by systems;
e) additional laboratory and instrumental methods of examination. (+)
18.What stage of curation of the surgical patient is performed after setting final clinical
diagnosis?
a) treatment of the patient; (+)
b) measurement of respiratory rate;
c) measurement of blood pressure;
d) filling the diary;
e) conducting X-ray of the chest.
19.What is not an indicator of general blood test?
a) the number erythrocytes;
b) the number of leukocytes;
c) number thrombocytes;
d) albumin-globulin coefficient; (+)
e) ESR.
20.What information is necessary to write down in the diary of medical history?
a) anamnesis of life;
b) passport part;
c) biochemical blood analysis;
d) electrocardiography;
e) the level of heart rate, blood pressure, body temperature. (+)
22.Condition of the major systems of the patients body writes in medical history section:
c) an objective examination; (+)
d) clinical diagnosis;
e) epicrisis and prognosis.
23.Anthropometry - is:
a) a section anthropology;
b) conducting diagnostic manipulations to the patient;
c) conducting medical manipulations to the patient;
d) determination of growth and body weight of the patient, (+)
e) measurement of respiratory rate.
24.Allergic anamnesis,allergic reactions on medicines, foods, etc. write down to the medical
history section:
b) anamnesis of life; (+)
c) present state;
d) local status;
25.Which types of the patients position in bed reflecting in medical history:
a) an active, normal, forced;
b) a common, unusual, passive;
c) active, passive, involuntary; (+)
d) forced, simple, complex,
e) passive, involuntary, special.
26.Objective examination of the patient is write down to the medical history section:
d) present state and local status; (+)
e) any of the following.
27.Date, time and cause of hospitalization are write down to the medical history section:
a) anamnesis of disease; (+)
c) present state;
d) clinical diagnosis;
29.Palpation in the surgical patient should begin from :
a) where more worried pain;
b) with those, that border on affected area; (+)
c) hidden under cloth and inaccessible to overview;
d) immediately from the pathological focus after anesthesia;
e) it does not matter from which.
30.Is it true sequence of given examination of surgical patient:
a) complaints, anamnesis, examination, palpation, percussion, auscultation, laboratory data,
special methods of examination; (+)
b) complaints, percussion, auscultation, laboratory data, special methods of examination;
c) complaints, anamnesis;
d) percussion, auscultation, laboratory data;
e) objective and special methods of examination.
31.Beginning and course of the disease write down to medical history section:
a) anamnesis of disease; (+)
d) present state and local status;
e) any of the following
32. Is it is enough for diagnosis statement only examination of the patient's disease and
complaints:
a) yes; (+)
b) no;
c) + palpation and percussion;
g) + laboratory data;
e) + special methods of examination.
33. What does allow for strict bed rest:
a) allowed to walk around the ward and to the toilet;
b) not allowed actively move on the bed; (+)
c) allowed to move freely in bed, but do not leave it;
g) allowed to sit on the bed, walk in the ward;
e) allowed to move freely and stay in bed.
34.Description of wounds, ulcers and inflammatory processes and tumors is performed in to
medical history section:
c) an objective condition;
d) local status; (+)
e) patients complaints.
35.Medical mystery - is:
a) sacramental confession;
b) non-proliferation by medical worker information of intimate nature;
c) non-proliferation by medical worker about disease of the patient; (+)
d) non-proliferation by medical worker about privacy.
e) non-proliferation by medical worker compromising information about collective.
36.At palpation is impossible to determine:
a) presence of pain; (+)
b) degree of muscle tension (Defense);
c) local increase or decrease of temperature;
d) subcutaneous emphysema;
e) degree of blood loss.
37.The determining factors, which have direct or indirect link with disease, write down to
the medical history section :
c) patient's complaints; (+)
d) present state;
e) local status.
38. Specify typical schema of diagnostic search while writing medical history:
a) diagnosis, syndrome, disease, course;
b) localization, diagnosis, clinical course, syndrome;
c) disease, course, location, syndrome diagnosis;
d) course, syndrome, diagnosis, localization; (+)
e) syndrome, course, disease, diagnosis, localization.
39.In the section "previous diagnosis" write down;
a) passport information of the patient;
b) patient's complaints;
c) anamnesis of life;
d) basic disease and comorbidities; (+)
e) anamnesis of disease.
40. Results of consultation of other specialists write down to medical history section:
a) plan of examination;
b) present state and local status;
c) results of laboratory and instrumental methods and other special examinations; (+)
d) clinical diagnosis and its rationale;
e) treatment plan, treatment results.
41.To the section "plan of examination" write down the following information:
a) laboratory instrumental and other special methods of examination, which should be
conducted; (+)
c) results of laboratory and instrumental methods and other special examinations;
42.Surgical treatment involves the following algorithm:
a) indications for surgery;
b) preoperative training;
c) date, type of anesthesia;
d) name of the operation and operations protocol;
e) surgical intervention and pre-and postoperative period. (+)
43.Information about the appointment of treatment, regimen, diet, special methods of
examination write down:
a) in plan of examination;
b) in present state and local status;
c) in sheet doctor appointments; (+)
d) in hospital sheet;
e) in the treatment plan section.
44.The dynamics of the disease write down to medical history section:

a) plan of examination;
c) diary; (+)
45.Diary is writing by doctor:
a) in a day;
b) in a week;
c) in a month;
d) daily; (+)
e) when the doctor want.
46.Diary contains information about;
a) dynamics of complaints;
b) protocol of operation;
c) protocol of anesthesia;
d) epicrisis;
e) effect of treatment. (+)
47.There are the following predictions about life:
a) good, very good, excellent;
b) favorable, questionable unfavorable; (+)
c) good, favorable, uncertain;
d) questionable, very difficult unfavorable;
e) bad, favorable, questionable.
48.In the prediction of the disease write down:
a) passport information;
b) results of treatment;
c) truest versions in each specific case; (+)
d) general data of medical literature;
e) data of special methods of examination and treatment.
49.There are the following predictions for working capacity:
a) favorable, unfavorable, questionable;
b) restored temporarily lost, steadily lost; (+)
c) temporarily lost, good ,limited;
d) consistently lost, questionable restored;
e) questionable, restored, not restored.
50.A short retelling of medical history - is:

a) epilogue;
b) prediction;
c) prologue;
d) epicrisis; (+)
e) conclusion.
51.In epicrisis of medical history write down:
a) wishes;
b) opinion about the cause of the disease;
c) wishes of the patient;
d) protocol of operation;
e) recommendations. (+)
52.In plan of hospital treatment distinguish the following types of modes:
a) general- hospital, ambulatory, private;
b) bed, special, ward;
c) ward, bed, strict bed; (+)
d) bed, individual, ward;
e) general- hospital, bed, individually.
53.A patient, 45 years old, was hospitalized to surgical department with complaints on
sudden sharp pain in the epigastric region. After the examination, diagnosed:Perforative
(breakthrough) ulcer of the back wall of the stomach. Where poured out stomach contents in
the moment of perforation?
A)to omental bursa; (+)
B) to hepatic bag;
B) to pre-stomach bag;
D) to the left mesenteric sinus;
E) to the right mesenteric sinus.
54.During examination a patient was suspected purulent exudate in rectal- uterus hollow.
Through which anatomical formation is the best to puncture the hollow?
A) back fornix of the vagina; (+)
B) front vaginal vault;
B) ampulla of the rectum;
D) diaphragm of pelvis;
e) front vaginal wall.
55.On examination a patient, 43 years old, was found that protein products badly digest in his
stomach. Analysis of gastric juice showed low acidity. The function of which cells of the
stomach are violated in this case?
A) main exocrinocytes;
B) parietal exocrinocytes; (+)
B) mucous (mukotsyt)
D) endocrine
e) cervical mukotsyt.
56.A patient, 45 years old was hospitalized with complaints on stomach pain. Gastroscopy
found small in size ulcers in the bottom of the stomach. Violation function of which cells of
the gastric mucosa became one of the causes of damage of the mucous shell?
a) cells of surface epithelium
b) parietal cells of gastric glands, that produce chloride and hydrogen ions, (+)
c) main exocrinocytes, that produce pepsinogen,
d) endocrinocytes, that produce somatostatin,
e) endocrinocytes, that produce serostotyn.
57.In the body chymotrypsin is secreted by pancreas and in intestines cavity undergoes
limited proteolysis with transformation on active chymotrypsin under:
a) aminopeptidase,
b) enterokinase,
c) pepsin, (+)
d) trypsin;
e) carboxypeptidase.
58.After the course of treatment, a patient with duodenal ulcer, doctor suggests
take the juice of cabbage and potatoes. Content of which substances in these vegetables helps
to prevention and healing of ulcers?
a) Vitamin U, (+)
b) Pantothenic acid,
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin B1,
e) Vitamin K.
59.Concentration of glucose in the blood plasma of healthy human varies in the following
ranges:
a) 2-4 mmol / l
b) 3,3-5,5 mmol / l, (+)
c) 10-25 mmol / l,
d) 6-9,5 mmol / l,
e) 1-2 mmol / l.
60. Data of subjective and objective examinations suppose an inflammation in the
gallbladder, violation colloidal properties of the urine, probability of formation of gallstones.
What could cause it's formation?
a) oxalate,
b) urate,
c) cholesterol, (+)
d) chlorides,
e) phosphate.
61.A patient complaints on pain in the right under-rib area, vomiting with blood. At
examination was found enlargement of the liver, enlargement of the subcutaneous veins of
the front abdominal wall.In what vessel labored blood flow?
a) hepatic vein;
b) abdominal aorta;
c) portal vein; (+)
d) inferior vena cava,
e) superior vena cava.
62.In a patient, 60 years old was found a sharp expansion of the subcutaneous veins of the
right lower limb. In what vein violated blood flow?
a) superior vena,
b) azygous,
c) great subcutaneous, (+)
d) superior mesenteric,
e) inferior vena.
63.On examination a 48 years old patient, doctor found ascites, in the region of the navel extended full-blooded veins (symptom head of Medusa). In anamnesis noted that the patient
had abused alcohol. What abdominal organ is affected and on which venous anastomosis
flows venous blood?
a) liver. Porto-cava-caval anastomosis through near navelveins; (+)
b) pancreas. Cava-caval anastomosis through the mesenteric veins;
c) spleen. Cava-portal anastomosis through gastric veins;
d) liver. Cava- caval anastomosis through the lower and upper mesenteric veins;
e) stomach. Porto-caval anastomosis through gastric veins, inferior and superior mesenteric
veins.
64.The patient suffers from pain in the legs and swelling. On examination: on the medial
surface of the thigh seen swelling, increasing size of veins, nodes. From the side of what vein
observed pathology?
) V. Saphena magna, (+)
b) V Saphena parva,
c) V. femoralis,
d) V. poplitea,
e) V. tibialis.
65.A woman was hospitalized in clinic with symptoms of acute abdomen. On examination
was suspected ectopic pregnancy. Which of the anatomical structures of pelvis necessary to
puncture to confirm the diagnosis?
a) back vaginal vault, (+)
b) front vaginal vault,
c) ampulla of the rectum,
d) diaphragm of pelvis,
e) front wall of the vagina.
66. During radiological examination of the patient, 30 years old, in an upright position doctor
noted the presence of air in the stomach. In which part of the stomach it was found?
a) in the body;
b) in the bottom; (+)
c) in the cardiac,
d) in the pyloric,
e) in the area of low curvature.
67. On the basis of clinical data patient was set a previous diagnosis: acute pancreatitis.
Name biochemical test, which confirms the diagnosis.
a) level of creatinine in blood;
b) activity of acid phosphatase in blood;
c) activity of alkaline phosphatase in blood;
d) activity of aminotransferase in blood;
e) activity of amylase in blood. (+)
68.A patient with alcoholic hepatic cirrhosis complains on general weakness, shortness of
breath. Were found decrease of blood pressure, ascites, enlargement of superficial veins of
the front abdominal wall, splenomegaly. What violation of hemodynamics observed in the
patient?
a) insufficiency of left ventricle;
b) syndrome of portal hypertension; (+)
c) insufficiency of the right ventricle;
d) collapse;
e) total heart insufficiency.
69.In a patient with peptic ulcer with bleeding, endoscopically, in the stomach was found
fluid of coffee grounds color. What pigment caused such color?
a) Hemosiderin, (+)
b) Hematin chloride,
c) bilirubin,
d) Ferritin,
e) Porphyrins.
70. In a patient with peptic ulcer of stomach during fibrogastroscopy took biopsy of mucous
membrane in the area of the ulcer. From a biopsy sample made a smear-print, painted by the
method of Gram, with the rest biopsy made test for urease activity. During microscopy of
smear-print was found gram-negative bacteri, urease activity test is positive. Which bacterias
were found?
) Campylobacter jeuni,
b) Sprilla minor,
c) Shigella flexneri,
d) Treponema pallidum,
e) Helicobacter pylori. (+)
Topic 12
"Acute purulent diseases of soft tissues;
abscess, phlegmon, furuncle, carbuncle, hydradenitis
1. Name one of the stages of local reaction of organism at infection development:
a) infiltration; (+)
b) induration;
c) desquamation;
d) dulation;
e) penetration.
2. Symptom of fluctuation is not determined at:
a) subcutaneous hematoma;
b) abscess; (+)
c) phlegmon;
d) hemothorax;
e) purulent bursitis.
3. What danger exists at the localization of furuncle on the upper lip:
a) development of peritonitis;
b) development of inflammation of pleura;
c) thrombosis of sagittal venous sinus; (+)
d) development of submaxillary lymphadenitis;
e) development of mumps.
5. Which changes arise at acute surgical infection in the morphological composition of
blood:
a) neutrophilia; (+)
b) leukopenia;
c) lymphocytosis;
d) anisocytosis;
e) poikilocytosis.
6. Name one of protective barriers of organisms local reaction at penetration of purulent
infection:
a) fascia;
b) peritoneum;
c) pleura;
d) subcutaneous tissue;
e) pyogenic membrane. (+)
7. Name non-existent localization of phlegmon:
a) phlegmon of subcutaneous tissue:
b) phlegmon of fascia: (+)
c) intermuscular phlegmon:
d) phlegmon of retroperitoneal space:
e) phlegmon of mouths bottom.
8. Phlegmon is called mediastinitis at localization of process:

a) in muscles:
b) in brain:
c) in omentum:
d) at anterior abdominal wall:
e) in mediastinum. (+)
9. Which of the following microbes leads to the development of furuncle?
a) streptococcus:
b) staphylococcus: (+)
c) gonococcus:
d) blue pus bacillus:
e) proteus.
10. Which of the following diseases is a common cause of purulent surgical infection?
a) a malignant tumor;
b) heart disease;
c) diabetes; (+)
d) chronic renal failure;
e) closed craniocerebral injury.
12. At suspicion on abscess at the first place:
a) apply ointment compress:
b) perform the incision:
c) apply ice pack:
d) perform puncture: (+)
e) appoint laser irradiation and X-ray irradiation.
13. Name therapeutic measures that are shown at furunculosis:
a) application of leeches:
b) massage;
c) clean the skin with ether:
d) clean the skin with 70% alcohol: (+)
e) squeezes out abscess.
14. Name complication that is typical for carbuncle of the upper lip:
a) sepsis:
b) skin necrosis:
c) meningitis: (+)
d) osteomyelitis of the upper jaw:
e) thrombosis of the carotid artery.
15. What tactic should be used in the case of softening of soft tissues at phlegmon?
a) perform a wide incision and drainage: (+)
b) impose a warming compress:
c) impose ointment bandage:
d) recommend a cold compress:
e) perform injection of novocaine with antibiotics.
16. Name main condition that prevents the development of surgical infection:
a) a high level of education of population;
b) providing patients with antibiotics;
c) prevention and treatment of microtraumas: (+)
d) good nutrition:
e) rejection of bad habits.
17. What is called an abscess?
a) purulent inflammation of the sweat glands;
b) purulent inflammation of the sebaceous glands;
c) limited tissue inflammation: (+)
d) diffuse inflammation of the tissue:
e) inflammation with limited accumulation of pus.
18. What is called a phlegmon?
a) purulent inflammation of the sweat glands;
b) purulent inflammation of the sebaceous glands;
c) limited tissue inflammation:
d) diffuse inflammation of the tissue: (+)
e) inflammation with limited accumulation of pus.
19. Name one of components of general treatment at purulent diseases:
a) prevention of fungal skin lesions:
b) failure of detoxification therapy;
c) retention of antibiotic therapy:
d) suppression of purulent bacteria; (+)
e) refusal of correction of fluid - electrolyte and carbohydrate metabolisms.
20. At carbuncle of neck in stage of infiltration is used:
a) decussate section;
b) compress with water-soluble ointments:
c) puncture of infiltrate: (+)
d) compress with proteolytic enzymes:
e) ice pack.
32. Complication of phlegmon is:
a) lymphangitis;
b) lymphadenitis;
c) thrombophlebitis;
d) sepsis; (+)
e) erysipelas.
34. Treatment of phlegmon conduct:
a) on their own, without addressing to the doctor;
b) ambulatory;
c) in the surgical department; (+)
d) in the therapeutic department;
e) at a day patient facility.

38. Drainage of phlegmon:
a) is compulsory; (+)
b) is not compulsory;
c) at the request of the patient ;
d) at the request of the surgeon:
e) if its necessary.
40. Conservative treatment of phlegmon is:
a) ward mode;
b) immobilization;
c) use of antibiotics; (+)
d) physiotherapy;
e) drainage.
41. Hidradenitis is an inflammation of:
a) sebaceous glands;
b) sweat glands; (+)
c) hair follicle;
d) lymphatic vessel;
e) lymph node.
42. Name usual place of hydradenitiss localization:
a) submandibular area;
b) groin area;
c) inguinal area; (+)
d) neck;
e) back.
45. Hidradenitis most often appears in such areas of the body as:
a) scalp;
b) axillary pits; (+)
c) on the back of the neck;
d) groin area;
e) palmar surface of hands.
46.Which of the listed is used at faces carbuncle in stage of abscess formation?
a) excision of carbuncle;
b) decussate section through carbuncle; (+)
c) irradiation of carbuncle by quartz lamp;
d) locally use salicylic acid;
e) squeezes out purulent rod.
47. In which area is most often occur after injection abscesses?
a) in paraumbilical;
b) in gluteal; (+)
c) on the shoulder;
d) on the wrist;
e) in the elbows bend.
48. Fourniers phlegmon affects:
a) scrotum: (+)
b) peritoneum:
c) pleura:
d) subcutaneous tissue:
e) muscles.
50. At carbuncle of neck in stage of abscess formation is used:
a) H-shaped incision; (+)
b) compress with water-soluble ointments:
c) puncture of infiltrate:
d) compress with proteolytic enzymes:
e) ice pack.
53. Phlegmons can be localized:
a) intradermally:
b) intramuscular:
c) in lungs:
d) in small pelvis: (+)
e) in brain.
58. What disease is necessary to differentiate carbuncle?
a) furuncle:
b) anthrax: (+)
c) gout;
d) diabetes;
e) obliterating atherosclerosis.
59. Drainage of abscess:
a) is compulsory; (+)
b) is not compulsory;
c) at the request of the patient ;
d) at the request of the surgeon:
e) at the request of the head department.
60. Conservative treatment of hidradenitis is:
a) bed rest:
b) immobilization:
c) use of antibiotics:
d) physiotherapy: (+)
61.What level of hyperglycemia recommended to be in patients with diabetes at the day of

operation:
a) 6,6-8,5 mM \ L;
b) 3,3-5,5 mM \ L;
c) 2,3-5,8 mM \ L;
d) 4,3-6,5 mM \ L;
e) 8-11 mM \ l. (+)
66. What is peritonitis?
a) accumulation of pus in the abdominal cavity; (+)
b) accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity;
c) accumulation of pus in the gall bladder;
d) accumulation of blood in the gall bladder;
e) accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity.
Topic 13
Purulent infection -II (erysipelas, mastitis, paraproctitis, lymphadenitis).
2. What organism is the causative agent of erysipelas?
a) Staphylococcus aureus;
b) beta-hemolytic streptococcus; (+)
c) pneumococcus;
d) blue pus bacillus ;
e) proteus.
19. What is erysipelothrix?
a) kind of erysipelas; (+)
b) colds;
c) parasitic disease;
d) sensitizing disease
e) autoimmune disease.
22. The main causative agent of lactational mastitis:
a) streptococcus;
b) staphylococcus; (+)
c) blue pus bacillus;
d) intestinal stick;
e) proteus.
23. At surgical treatment of chronic mastitis mandatory is :
a) excision of regional lymph nodes;
b) gland tissue biopsy with histological examination; (+)
c) suturing of wound after disclosure of abscess;
d) radiation therapy;
e) chemotherapy.
25. Difference between hydradenitis in the stage of infiltration and superficial serous
lymphadenitis:
a) at palpation node moves with the skin; (+)
b) skin moves over the node;
c) can not be distinguished;
d) pain during movement;
e) absence of pain.
26. Characteristic sign of erysipelothrix is :
a) presence of itch; (+)
b) presence of bubbles;
c) presence of erythema;
d) swelling;
e) dysfunction.
30. Specify form of erysipelas in which there is purulent infiltration of the skin with seropurulent impregnation of subcutaneous tissue:
a) erythematous;
b) bullous;
c) phlegmonous; (+)
d) necrotic;
e) in all forms.
31. Purulent melting of lymph node with involvement in process its capsule and surrounding
tissues is called:
a) peri-lymphadenitis;
b) peri-lymphangitis;
c) adenophlegmon; (+)
d) adenoabscess;
e) hydradenitis.
32. Acute purulent inflammation of pararectal tissue is called:
a) paranephritis;
b) parotitis;
c) paraproctitis; (+)
d) proctitis;
e) erysipelas.
33. Erysipelas, which manifests sequential lesion of one or the other parts of the body is
called:
a) migrating; (+)
b) recurrent;
c) sequential;
d) intermittent;
e) chronic.
35. Type of paraproctitis where in the initial stage are absent external signs of inflammation:
a) subcutaneous;
b) submucosal;
c) isheo-rectal;
d) pelvic-rectal; (+)
e) catarrhal.
37. Inflammation of the lymph nodes is called:
a) lymphadenitis; (+)
b) lymphangitis ;
c) arteritis ;
d) hydradenitis;
e) thrombophlebitis.
38. The causative agent of erysipelas is:
a) streptococcus; (+)
b) staphylococcus;
c) pneumococcus
d) intestinal stick;
e) proteus.
39. Dissemination of inflammation from lymphatic vessels on surrounding tissue is called:
a) lymphadenitis;
b) peri-lymphangitis; (+)
c) reticulated lymphangitis;
d) trunkular lymfanhit;
e) adenophlegmon.
40. In what way erysipelothrix causative agent penetrates in organism?
a) airborne droplets;
b) lymphogenous;
c) hematogenous;
d) contact; (+)
e) alimentary.
41. Form of paraproctitis, at localization of abscess outside of anus:
a) submucosal;
b) subcutaneous; (+)
c) isheorectal;
d) pelvic-rectal;
e) retro-rectal.
42. Expressed skin hyperemia without clear borders, sometimes with reticulation in the area
of hyperemia is typical for:
a) erysipelas;
b) reticulated lymphangitis; (+)
c) trunkular lymphangitis;
d) lymphadenitis;
e) hydradenitis.
43. What form of erysipelas is a contagious disease?
a) serous;
b) erythematous;
c) bullous; (+)
d) phlegmon ;
e) necrotic.
44. What localization of paraproctitis if in reactive inflammatory process involves the pelvic
peritoneum?
a) submucosal;
b) subcutaneous;
c) buttock-rectal;
d) pelvic-rectal; (+)
e) retro-rectal.
45. Inflammation of the lymphatic vessels is called:
a) lymphadenitis;
b) thrombophlebitis;
c) erysipelas;
d) erysipelothrix;
e) lymphangitis. (+)
47. Local signs of trunkular lymphangitis are:
a) hyperemia of the skin with clear unequal borders;
b) expressed hyperemia of the skin without clear borders;
c) painful consolidation of subcutaneous veins in the form of limited tumors;
d) hyperemic painful stripes; (+)
e) enlarged lymph nodes.
56. Most often erysipelas is localized in the area of:
a) shin; (+)
b) face;
c) perineum;
d) shoulder;
e) back.
57. Incision for retromammary abscess:
a) radiar;
b) para-areolar;
c) semi-oval; (+)
d) transverse;
e) cruciform.
58. The main cause of gangrenosum form of mastitis is:
a) breakthrough of abscess in retromamar space;
b) thrombosis of breast vessels; (+)

c) lactostasis;
d) purulent fusion of breast;
e) reduction of organism reactivity.
61. Incision for subareolar abscess:
a) radiar;
b) para-areolar; (+)
c) half-moon-shaped cut on transitional fold;
d) cruciform;
e) H-shaped.
62. Incision for intramammary abscess:
a) radiar; (+)
b) para-areolar;
c) half-moon-shaped cut on transitional fold;
d) cruciform;
e) H-shaped.
Topic 14
Festering diseases of hands
1. At cutaneous whitlow pus accumulates:
) between an epidermis and dermis; (+)
b) in a dermis;
c) in a hypodermis;
d) subfascial;
e) under a nail plate.
2. Hockey-stick similar incisions conduct at:
a) pandactylitis;
b) subcutaneous whitlow of nail phalanx; (+)
c) at lesion of middle or basic phalanges;
d) paronychia;
e) tendinous paronychia.
3) What is the name of whitlow at localization of process in interphalangeal joint?
) bone;
b) tendinous;
c) arthral; (+)
d) pandactylitis;
e) subcutaneous.
4. Kind of whitlow, at accumulation of pus under a nail phalanx:
) paronychia;
b) cutaneous;
c) subungual; (+)
d) arthral;
e) bone.
5. Swelling and overhanging near a nail roller above a nail plate are typical for:
) subungual whitlow;
b) arthral whitlow;
c) bone whitlow;
d) tendinous whitlow;
e) paronychia. (+)
9. At cutaneous whitlow operation is conduct:
) under local anesthesia;
b) under anesthesia by Oberst-Lukashevich;
c) without anesthesia; (+)
d) under General anesthesia;
e) under endotracheal narcosis.
10. At cutaneous whitlow, abscess is open:
) by Clps incision;
b) a hockey-stick similar cut;
c) cut down only exfoliative epidermis ; (+)
d) use a cruciform cut;
e) use -shaped cut.
12. Indications for surgery in patients with whitlow:
a) early conducting of surgical treatment;
b) first sleepless night; (+)
c) inefficiency of conservative treatment;
d) 3rd day of inflammatory process;
e) distribution of purulent process on surrounding tissues.
16. Palpation of finger at tendinous whitlow is conduct by:
) fingers;
b) spatula;
c) probe; (+)
d) scalpel;
e) forceps.
17. At tendinous whitlow at palpation pain is defined:
a) on the lateral surface of the finger;
b) tendon vagina; (+)
c) main phalanx with irradiation to the middle palmar space;
d) on the front surface of the finger;
e) in the area between interphalangial joint.
18. At operation,because of tendinous whitlow used section:
a) by Clapp; (+)
b) oval;
c) semi-oval;
d) cruciform;
e) H-shaped.
19. During operation because of tendon whitlow open:
a) skin;
b) skin and subcutaneous tissue;
c) cavity of interphalangeal joint;
d) skin, subcutaneous tissue and tendon vagina; (+)
e) skin, subcutaneous tissue and superficial fascia.
22. At the expressed destruction of the articular ends in a patient with articular whitlow is
conduct:
a) resection of joint with the formation of arthrodesis; (+)
b) joint puncture;
c) X-ray;
d) electrophoresis with lidasa;
e) appointment of calcium preparations.
23. Typical localization of bone whitlow is:
a) nail phalanx; (+)
b) main phalanx;
c) middle phalanx;
d) sesamoid bones;
e) interphalangeal joint.
26. Purulent inflammation of all tissues of the finger is called:
a) total whitlow;
b) pandactylitis; (+)
c) erysipelothrix;
d) generalized whitlow;
e) transcutaneous whitlow.
27. Methods of pandactylitis treatment are:
a) regional intraarterial introduction of antibiotics;
b) radiotherapy;
c) deep stripes cuts;
d) amputation of a finger; (+)
e) necrectomy.
30. The most common complication of corn abscess is:
a) commissural phlegmon; (+)
b) abscess of thenar area;
c) -shaped phlegmon;
d) abscess of hypothenar area;
e) pandactylitis.
31. Symptom "first sleepless night" at whitlow is:

a) indication for opening of abscess; (+)
b) indication to the appointment of analgesics;
c) indication the continuation of conservative treatment;
d) indication for radiotherapy;
e) indication for amputation of a finger.
32. In the treatment of osteoarticular, drug of choice is:
a) lincomycin; (+)
b) penicillin;
c) tetracycline;
d) metronidazole;
e) sulfonamides.
33. Cushion-shaped swelling of palm and the inability to straighten I-V fingers is a symptom
of:
a) phlegmon of a middle palmar space; (+)
b) phlegmon of a hypothenor area;
c) phlegmon of thenor area;
d) -shaped phlegmon;
e) pandactylitis.
53. What method is used in the treatment of pandactylitis?
a) complex; (+)
b) operative;
c) conservative;
d) doesnt require treatment;
e) physical therapy.
54. Tendon vagina of which fingers pass through Pirogovs space?
a) I and V; (+)
b) II;
c) III;
d) IV;
e) all.
55. Which form of whitlow is the lightest in the clinical course:
a) subcutaneous;
b) nail;
c) subungual;
d) tendon;
e) skin. (+)
56. Tenosynovitis is:
a) tendonious whitlow; (+)
b) inflammation of the nail roll;
c) inflammation with involvement in the process of bone;

d) inflammation with involvement of all tissues;
e) subcutaneous whitlow.
57. Whitlow is:
a) inflammatory disease of the hand's fingers;
b) acute purulent inflammation of cellular spaces of hand;
c) a limited accumulation of pus in the tissues;
d) acute purulent inflammation of the tissues except open finger damages; (+)
e) purulent focus localized at the base of the finger.
58. Whitlow in the form of "cufflink" - is:
a) subcutaneous whitlow with a break of pus under the epidermis; (+)
b) tendonious whitlow;
c) paronychia;
d) bone whitlow;
e) purulent fusion of all the tissues of the finger.
59. At cutaneous whitlow in the stage of abscess:
a) disclosed and emptied the contents of peeled off epidermis; (+)
b) completely removes peeled off epidermis;
c) imposing of oitment bandage;
d) imposing of half-alcohol compress;
e) assigned physiotherapy treatment
60. In total subungual whitlow conduct:
a) removal of the nail plate; (+)
b) arc-shaped incision on the round- nail roller;
c) resection of the nail plate;
d) trepanation of the nail plate;
e) amputation of a nail phalanx.
61. Subcutaneous whitlow of basic phalanx disclosing:
a) mid-lateral cuts on neutral lines;
b) cruciform cut through the area of abscess formation;
c) cut perpendicular through an abscess on Langers line;
d) a linear cut through the zone of abscess formation along Langers lines; (+)
e) a rabble-similar cut by Sokolov.
62. At total osteomyelitis of middle and primary phalanges, complicated by pandactylitis
performed:
a) curettage of the affected area;
b) amputation at the level of the main phalanx;
c) longitudinal resection of the phalanx;
d) transverse resection of the phalanx;
e) esarticulation of finger with resection with thumb metacarpophalangeal joint. (+)
65. Performing cuts in the "restricted area" of the palm may cause damage:
a) deep arterial arch;
b) superficial venous arch;

c) motional branches of the median nerve; (+)
d) sensitive branches of the ulnar nerve;
e) tendon sheaths of III-IV fingers.
69. Infection of hypothenar area is most likely arises:
a) at the break of pus from II-III tendon vaginas;
b) at the break of pus from meddle palmar space;
c) at the break of pus from tendon vagina of the I finger;
d) direct at damage; (+)
e) came from t tenor.
Topic 15
Acute purulent diseases of bones.
1. What is acute osteomyelitis?
a) a purulent inflammation of fascial spaces of the limbs;
b) a purulent inflammation of articular bags;
c) a tuberculous lesions of the spine;
d) an infectious inflammatory process of all bones elements; (+)
e) a specific inflammation of the periosteum.
3. One of the measures of successful treatment of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis is:
a) a limbs massage;
b) active movements in the joints of the limbs;
c) a skeletal traction;
d) immobilization of the limb with a gypseous cast; (+)
e) imposition of warming compress.
4. What operation dosent performs in the early stages at acute osteomyelitis:
a) disclosure of phlegmon;
b) section of the periosteum;
c) trepanation of bone marrow cavity;
d) sequestrectomy;
e) bones plasty. (+)
5. What medical event is contraindicated in the early stage of hematogenous osteomyelitis?
a) massage, therapeutic exercise; (+)
b) the use of antibiotics;
c) blood transfusion;
d) use of vitamins;
e) establishment of functional resting of the affected area.
6. What complication is not typical for acute hematogenous osteomyelitis?
a) a pathological fracture;
b) gangrene of limbs; (+)
c) sepsis;
d) abscess;
e) intermuscular abscess.
7. Name a complete classification of osteomyelitis by etiological sign:
a) staphylococcal; specific;
b) streptococcal, staphylococcal, specific;
c) non-specific, tuberculous;
d) specific, non-specific; (+)
e) staphylococcal, streptococcal, tuberculous.
8. Name forms of primary chronic osteomyelitis:
a) Harrys sclerosing osteomyelitis; b) Brodies abscess; c) Olyes albuminous osteomyelitis;
(+)
b) Harrys chronic osteomyelitis; b) Olyes abscess; c) Brodies albuminous osteomyelitis;
c) Brodies sclerosing osteomyelitis; b) Harrys abscess; c) Olyes albuminous osteomyelitis;
d) Brodies abscess; b) Harrys albuminous osteomyelitis; c) sclerosing Olye osteomyelitis;
e) Olyes chronic osteomyelitis; b) Harrys abscess; c) Brodies albuminous osteomyelitis.
9. Hematogenous osteomyelitis often get sick:
a) boys up to 5 years;
b) boys from 5 to 14 years; (+)
c) adults;
d) men from 20 to 30 years;
e) girls up to 10 years.
10. Among the bones of the skeleton, hematogenous osteomyelitis often damaged:
a) flat bones (scapula, iliac bone);
b) vertebras;
c) thigh; (+)
d) bones of the skull;
e) face bones.
11. Where most often arises a primary area of inflammation in the bone?
a) in the area of the bone diaphysis;
b) in the area of bone epiphysis;
c) in the area of bone metaphysis ; (+)
d) in the area of bone diaphysis and epiphysis;
e) simultaneous diaphysis, epiphysis and metaphase.
12. Which microflora most often cause hematogenous osteomyelitis?
a) streptococcus;
b) blue pus bacillus;
c) mixed flora;
d) staphylococcus; (+)
e) typhoid bacillus.
13. For filling sequestrum cavities at chronic osteomyelitis do not use:
a) cartilage;
b) subcutaneous adipose tissue; (+)
c) spongy bone mass;
d) muscles;
e) blood clot.
14. Who is a primary- chronic form of hematogenous osteomyelitis:
a) typhoid osteomyelitis;
b) Brodie's abscess; (+)
c) arthritis;
d) syphilis of bones;
e) tuberculosis of bones.
15. Early radiographic sign of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis is:
a) obliteration of the medullary canal;
b) sekvestralna cavity;
c) abscess; (+)
d) ossificans myositis;
e) osteosclerosis
16. Whom was proposed term of osteomyelitis:
a) Billroth in 1824;
b) Kocher in 1890;
c) Raynaud in 1831; (+)
d) Schassenyakom in 1824;
e) Vishnevsky in 1938.
17. Full X-ray picture at hematogenous osteomyelitis appears:
a) before the beginning of the 2nd month of the disease; (+)
b) at the end of the 2nd month of the disease;
c) to the beginning of the 1st week of the disease;
d) on 3 day;
e) after 3 months.
18. For the diagnosis of hematogenous osteomyelitis use such methods as:
a) rheovasography, skin thermometry, laparoscopy, bone puncture;
b) ultrasonic echolocation; electroroentgenography; cholecystography;
c) osteotonomometry, intraosseous thermometry; rheovasography, ultrasonic echolocation;
(+)
d) colored contact thermography, reovagrafy, ultrasound, bone puncture, bicycle ergometry;
e) rheovasography, electrocardiography, thermometry.
20. With a rapid development of hematogenous osteomyelitis in small children, radiological
signs appear:
a) on 10-12 days;
b) on 3-5 days; (+)
c) on 1-2 days;
d) on 14-16 days;
e) at 1 month.
21. Pathognomonic radiological sign of osteomyelitis is:
a) disappearance of trabecular bone structure;
b) an increase in the volume of surrounding soft tissues;
c) disappearance of muscle bundles contour;
d) linear periostitis; (+)
e) disappearance of bone structure.
22. Non-specific immunotherapy of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis include:
a) pentoksil;
b) timalin; (+)
c) levamisole, protease inhibitors;
d) protease inhibitors;
e) gentamicin.
23. With the purpose of body detoxification at acute hematogenous osteomyelitis use:
a) Non-narcotic analgesics;
b) non-specific immunotherapy;
c) hemosorption; (+)
d) specific immunotherapy;
e) protease inhibitors.
24. In the treatment of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis identify microflora and determine
sensitivity to antibiotics every:
a) 1-2 days;
b) 3-5 days; (+)
c) 6-7 days;
d) 10 days;
e) 15 days.
25. With the purpose of body detoxification at acute hematogenous osteomyelitis use:
a) specific immunotherapy;
b) protease inhibitors;
c) humidified oxygen;
d) forced diuresis; (+)
e) narcotic analgesics.
26. Radical surgery at chronic osteomyelitis:
a) sequestnecrectomy; (+)
b) sequestrectomy;
c) excision of the fistula;
d) disclosure of osteo-phlegmon;
e) bone trepanation.
27. Palliative surgery at chronic osteomyelitis:
a) sequestnecrectomy;
b) bone resection within healthy tissues
c) disclosure of osteo-phlegmon; (+)
d) excision of the fistula;
28. In discussing timing of surgical intervention at chronic osteomyelitis is recommended to
follow:
a) specific timing of inflammatory process subsiding;
b) forming sequestal capsule and distinct demarcation of sequester; (+)
c) term from 3 to 6 months after decrease of inflammation in the bone;
d) term does not matter;
e) after 1 year.
29. Embolic theory of hematogenous osteomyelitis was established by:
a) Derizhanovym;
b) Lexers; (+)
c) Henke;
d) Hrynevym;
e) Pirogov.
30. Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis often occurs in
a) adults;
b) elderly people;
c) children and young males; (+)
d) sex and age do not affect;
e) women of any age.
31. The main side of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis - reactivity of the organism, was
covered in the works of:
a) Lexers;
b) Derizhanova; (+)
c) Henke;
d) Hryneva;
e) Pirogov.
32. Surgical treatment of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis in children, such as:
a) decompression osteoperforation; (+)
b) bone trepanation;
c) dissection only soft tissues and periosteum;
d) bone resection within healthy tissues;
33. Fistulography at chronic osteomyelitis - it's a bone radiography after administration of
contrast in osteomielitic cavity:
a) through a fistulas course; (+)
b) method of puncture;
c) through a vein, which is next;

d) through the artery, which is next;
e) performed after bone trepanation.
34.At chronic osteomyelitis there are such radiographic sings as:
a) osteoporosis with lack of productive reaction on the part of periosteum;
b) alternation of osteoporosis with symptoms of osteosclerosis; (+)
c) linear periostitis;
d) extinction of muscle bundles contour;
e) signs of intermuscular phlegmon.
35. Bone cavity by Shede is closing by:
a) muscle on the leg;
b) autobone;
c) xenobone;
d) hemoplomb; (+)
e) subcutaneous tissue.
36.Bone cavity by Shulten is closing by:
) autobone;
b) muscle on the leg; (+)
c) hemoplomb;
d) xenobone;
e) subcutaneous tissue.
37.Most often acute hematogenous osteomyelitis affects:
a) epiphysis;
b) metaphysis; (+)
c) epiphyseal cartilage;
d) periosteum;
e) diaphysis.
38. Primary- chronic osteomyelitis develops at:
a) low virulence of flora and lowered reactivity of the organism; (+)
b) high virulence of flora and high reactivity of the organism;
c) low virulence of flora and high reactivity of the organism;
d) high virulence of flora and low reactivity of the organism;
e) lack of flora and lower reactivity of the organism.
39. At total osteomyelitis of middle and basic finger's phalanges, complicated by
pandactylitis, performed:
a) necrectomy;
b) amputation at the level of the main phalanx;
c) longitudinal resection of the phalanx;
d) transverse resection of the phalanx;
e) finger disarticulation with resection of metacarpophalangeal joint. (+)
40. Indications to osteoperforation at acute hematogenous osteomyelitis are:

a) manure at bone puncture; (+)
b) eosinophilia;
c) secondary immunodeficiency;
d) anemia;
e) leukocytosis and accelerated ESR.
41. Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis is:
a) an acute purulent inflammation of the bone marrow;
b) an acute purulent inflammation of the bone;
c) a purulent osteitis of the phalanx;
d) an acute purulent inflammation of the bone marrow, bone and periosteum; (+)
e) an purulent inflammation of the interphalangeal joint.
42. Indications for surgical treatment of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis are:
a) subperiosteal abscess; (+)
b) soft tissue swelling of limbs;
c) joint contracture;
d) secondary immunodeficiency;
e) eosinophilia.
43. Indications to osteoperforation at acute hematogenous osteomyelitis are:
a) severe general condition;
b) increase of intraosseous pressure; (+)
c) an increase of soft tissue swelling on the background of conservative treatment;
d) leukocytosis and increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate;
e) increased of transaminases levels in blood.
44. Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis is most often caused by:
a) streptococcus;
b) enterococcus;
c) colon bacillus;
d) blue pus bacillus;
e) staphylococcus. (+)
45. Classification of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis by clinical and anatomical changes:
a) toxic, metastatic forms;
b) septicemia;
c) local-focal, toxic, septicopiyemic forms; (+)
d) septicopiyemic;
e) locally-focal, septic-toxic forms.
46. For Olyes albuminozal osteomyelitis is typical:
a) formation in cortical bone layer fireplace that contains serous or
mucous fluid; (+)
b) obliteration of the regional lymph nodes;
c) formation in bone bounded cavity that contains pus;
d) presence of pronounced sclerosis of the bone;

e) obliteration of the medullary canal.
47. Brodie's bone abscess - is:
a) a primary chronic form of osteomielitis; (+)
b) a subacute limited form of osteomielitis;
c) an acute osteomyelitis of the shin;
d) reccurent form of osteomielitis;
e) toxic form of osteomyelitis.
48. Surgical methods of treatment at purulent bursitis:
a) disclose mucous bag and remove pus or remove mucous bag without opening its lumen;
(+)
b) disclosure of abscess, wound washing, overlay primary suture;
c) artrotomia;
d) disclosure of abscess, installation of flow drainage;
e) disclosure of abscess, installation of rubber drainage.
50. Radiographic signs of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis appear on:
a) 1-2 days;
b) 3-4 days;
c) 5-6 days;
d) 7-14 days; (+)
e) 15 21days.
57. What operation is not done in the early stages of acute osteomyelitis?
a) disclosure of phlegmon;
b) section of the periosteum;
c) trepanation of medullary cavity;
d) sequestrectomy;
e) bone grafting. (+)
58. What part of the bone most often affects Harrys sclerosing osteomyelitis?
a) metaphysis;
b) diaphysis; (+)
c) pineal gland;
d) meta diaphysis;
e) periosteum.
61.What is sequester?
a) its a different size areas of bone, that completely lost connection with maternal base; (+)
b) its a different size areas of bone,that not completely lost connection with maternal base;
c) its equal areas of bone, that completely lost connection with maternal base;
d) its equal areas of bone that not completely lost connection with maternal base;
d) its a tumor hole on the bone.
63. What is formed around the sequester?
a) sequesteral cork;
b) sequesteral box; (+)
c) sequesteral rubber;
d) sequesteral hole;
e) sequesteral corn.
64. What means the presence of separated sequester:
a) transition of inflammation in the chronic stage; (+)
b) transition of inflammation in the acute stage;
c) about recovery;
d) that the treatment is effective;
e) that the treatment is ineffective.
65. Appearance of purulent foci in other tissues and organs is typical for:
a) local forms of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis;
b) generalized form of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis; (+)
c) secondary chronic osteomyelitis;
d) primary chronic osteomyelitis;
e) bursitis.
67. What is thermal imager?
a) distance method of thermo-diagnosis; (+)
b) method of surgical treatment;
c) surgical instrument;
d) registrator of limbs scanogram;
e) drug for conservative therapy.
68. What intraosseous temperature is enough criterion for the diagnosis of acute
hematogenous osteomyelitis:
a) more than 37,2 C; (+)
b) more than 37,0 C;
c) more than 36,2 C;
d) more than 38,2 C;
e) more than 40,0 C.
69. What is the norm of intraosseous pressure in the long tubular bone?
a) 96-120 m. w. c.; (+)
b) 100-150 m. w. c.;
c) 150-200 m. w. c.;
d) 200-220 m. w. c.;
e) 220-300 m. w. c.;
Topic 16
Acute specific surgical infection.
1. What microorganism is the causative agent of tetanus?
) Cl. Perfringens; (+)
b) Cl.Oedematiens;
c) Cl. Histolyticum;
d) Cl. Tetani;
e) Vibrion Septicum.
5. On which structures of human body affects tetanospazmin?
a) on cerebral cortex;
b) on myocytes of striated muscle;
c) on motoneurons horns of the spinal cord; (+)
d) on skin receptors;
e) forming elements of blood.
6. Specify point of application of tetanohemolysin:
a) motoneurons of the spinal cord;
b) fibers of peripheral nerves;
c) cerebral cortex;
d) forming elements of blood; (+)
e) myocytes.
7. How long often lasts incubation period of tetanus?
a) 2 months.;
b) 1-3 days;
c) 4-14 days; (+)
d) 21 days;
e) 4 or more months .
12. Specify the most accurate definition of opisthotonus.
a) seizure of facial muscles;
b) painful spasm of chewing muscles;
c) contraction of the muscles of the back and limbs; (+)
d) tremor of the muscles around the wound;
e) neck stiffness.
13. Specify the most accurate definition of trismus.
a) twitching of muscles around the wound;
b) muscle convulsions of the body;
c) painful spasm of the masticatory muscles; (+)
d) seizures facial muscles;
e) twitching of eyeballs.
15. Specify localization of the early manifestations of convulsions at the ascending form of
tetanus?
a) chewing muscles;
b) mimic muscles;
c) muscles of the back; (+)
d) occipital muscles;
e) muscles around the wound.
22. How much of anatoxin is injected for emergency prevention to vaccinated people?
a) single injection of 1.0 ml. anatoxin;
b) single injection of 0.5 ml. anatoxin; (+)
c) double injection of 0.5 ml. anatoxin;
d) double injection of 1.0 ml. anatoxin;
d) single injection of 1.5 ml. anatoxin.
23. How much of tetanus serum introduce for emergency prevention?
a) 1,000 IU;
b) 2,000 IU;
c) 3000 IU; (+)
d) 1.0 ml;
e) 1.5 ml .
24. How much tetanus anatoxin introduce unvaccinated persons for emergency prevention of
tetanus?
a) once 0.5 ml.;
b) once 1.0 ml.; (+)
c) three times by 0.5 ml.;
d) twice by 1.0 ml;
e) once 1.5ml .
25. What dose of tetanus serum should use in first two days for tetanus treatment?
a) 200 000 IU; (+)
b) 100 000 IU;
c) 1.0 ml.;
d) 0.9 ml.;
e) 140 000 IU.
27. How much tetanus anatoxin should be introduced in the acute period to stimulate active
immunity?
a) 6.0 ml.;
b) 900 IU;
c) 1.0 ml.; (+)
d) 200 000 IU;
e) should not introduce.
36. For what causative agent is most characteristic gas formation?
) Vibrion Septicum;
b) Cl.Oedematiens;
c) Cl. Histolyticum;
d) Cl. Tetani;
e) Cl. Perfringens. (+)
37. For what causative agent of gas gangrene is most characteristic swelling?
) Cl.Oedematiens; (+)
b) Cl. Perfringens;
c) Cl. Tetani;
d) Cl. Histolyticum;
38. For what causative agent of gas gangrene is the most common tissue necrosis?
) Cl. Perfringens;
b) Cl.Oedematiens;
c) Cl. Histolyticum; (+)
d) Cl. Tetani;
43. Melnikovs symptom at anaerobic infection include:
a) in-cutting ligatures in swollen limb; (+)
b) crepitus at palpation;
c) metallic sound when shaving skin around the wound;
d) tympanitis at percussion by spatula;
e) clapping sound at obtaining tampon from the wound.
46. Tetanus is characterized by a triad of symptoms:
a) temperature, sardonic smile, opisthotonus;
b) trismus, sardonic smile, opisthotonus; (+)
c) difference between the temperature and pulse, sardonic smile, opisthotonus;
d) all answers are wrong;
e) trismus, opisthotonus, tachycardia.
47. Prevention of Tetanus in an emergency to unvaccinated:
a) introduction of 1 ml anatoxin + 3000 IU serum; (+)
b) introduction of 600 IU hammaglobulin + 3000 IU serum;
c) introduction of 0.5 ml anatoxin and 600 IU hammaglobulin;
d) introduction of 2 ml anatoxin + 3000 IU serum;
e) introduction of 1 ml toxoid + 5000 IU serum.
48. Treatment dose of antitetanic serum is:
a) 20,000 - 30,000 IU;
b) 600,000 - 700,000 IU; (+)
c) 1000000 - 1500000 IU;
d) 400000-500000 IU;
e) 200000-500000 IU.
49. Daily dose of antitetanic serum is:
a) 150,000 - 200,000 IU; (+)
b) 200,000 - 300,000 IU;
c) 1000000 - 1500000 IU;
d) 30000-400000 IU;
e) 400000-500000 IU.
50. Mild form of tetanus is characterized by:

a) muscular pain, difficult swallowing, sardonic smile, perchant to convulsions;
b) difficult swallowing, numbness, sardonic smile, muscular pain, lack of convulsions; (+)
c) sardonic smile, opisthotonus, isolated titanic convulsions;
d) generalized titanic convulsions with breathing disorders;
e) opisthotonus and generalized convulsions.
51. Symptoms are coming gradually, general convulsions develop in 2-3 days. Death can
occur within 3-5 days. It is possible to recovery. This is typical for:
a) sudden form of tetanus;
b) acute; (+)
c) subacute;
d) chronic;
e) fulminant.
52. The earliest and factual diagnostic symptoms of tetanus are:
a) sardonic smile, tonic-clonic convulsions;
b) simultaneously occurrence of trismus, dysphagia, neck stiffness with sharp pain; (+)
c) opisthotonus, blepharospasm, swallowing disorders;
d) respiratory disorders with saving the function of the diaphragm only;
e) fever and twitching in the area of the wound.
53. Particularities of tetanus in children:
a) convulsions periods alternating with periods of normal muscle tone; (+)
b) constant tonic convulsions;
c) possible paralysis of certain muscle groups;
d) strongly expressed blepharospasm;
e) respiratory disorders with saving the function of the diaphragm only.
54. For prophylaxis in previously vaccinated persons introduce:
a) 0.5 ml of tetanus anatoxin with subsequent revaccination; (+)
b) 1 ml of tetanus anatoxin;
c) 250 IU antitetanic human Ig;
d) 1.5 ml of tetanus anatoxin;
e) 2 ml of tetanus anatoxin.
55 The most common complications of tetanus are:
a) pneumonia, airway obstruction sputum, cardiovascular failure; (+)
b) pulmonary atelectasis, sepsis, joint contractures;
c) accusation of gastric contents into the respiratory tract, breaking of rectus muscle of
stomach, brain tumor;
d) erosion of of the gastric mucosa, cystitis, hypooncotic swelling;
e) brain injury.
Topic 17
Sepsis
2. What is bacteremia?
a) presence of toxins in blood;
b) presence of viable bacteria in blood; (+)
c) presence of immune complexes in blood;
d) increase of stick leucocyte in blood;
e) appearance of secondary foci of infection.
9. Sepsis is called earliest if it develops:
a) up to 21 days from the moment of injury;
b) up to 14 days after injury;
c) in 2 weeks or more from the moment of injury;
d) up to 1 day from the moment of injury;
e) in a 1 month from the moment of injury.
10. Sepsis is called late if it develops:
a) in 2 weeks or more from the moment of of injury; (+)
b) in 21 days or more from the moment of of injury;
c) in 6 months from the moment of of injury;
d)up to 14 days after of injury;
e) up to 1 week from the moment of injury.
24. Which of the complications of sepsis can cause embolism of the greater circulation
circle?
a) purulent pancreatitis;
b) erosive gastritis;
c) liver abscess;
d) endocarditis; (+)
e) purulent pleurisy.
37. What is the leading component of the prevention of sepsis at damages.
a) preventive antibiotic therapy;
b) immunotherapy;
c) surgical treatment; (+)
d) anti-inflammatory therapy;
e) vaccination.
38. Which surgical manipulation should end sanation of infections foci at sepsis?
a) "deaf" wounds suturing;
b) drainage;
c) immobilization; (+)
d) "lampas" section;
e) injections with novocaine.
56. The basic condition for conducting intracorporal detoxification is:

a) maintain of filtration function of the kidneys; (+)
b) normal blood pressure;
c) absence of anemia;
d) normal levels of blood proteins;
e) lack of fluid and electrolyte disturbances.
67. Where is retractable lymph for lymphosorption?
a) thoracic lymphatic duct; (+)
b) lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs;
c) lymphatic vessels of the upper limbs;
d) enlarged lymph nodes;
e) cubiti vein.
Topic 18
"Chronic specific surgical disease"
1. Chronic surgical infection is divided into:
a) purulent, putrefactive;
b) aerobic, anaerobic,
c) contagious, non-contagious;
d) exogenous, endogenous,
e) specific, nonspecific. (+)
2. One of the earliest diagnostic manifestation of bone tuberculosis is:
a) pulsating pain; (+)
b) inflammatory reaction;
c) high body temperature;
d) unexplained appearance of effusion in joint;
e) intoxication, fever.
3. What complications may arise after disclosure of actinomycotic abscess:
a) increase of infiltrate;
b) formation of fistula; (+)
c) spread to the neighboring organs and metastasis;
d) all of the above;
e) complications do not observed.
4. What belongs to characteristic radiological signs of bone tuberculosis:
a) local thinning and destruction of bone structure;
b) lack of response from the periosteum;
c) presence of sequestration by type "piece of sugar, that dissolves";
d) lack of sclerosis zone around the fire;
5. If metastasis possible at actinomycosis:
a) possible by lymphogenous way;
b) possible by venous way;

c) possible by arterial way;
d) possible by all of the above; (+)
e) impossible.
6.What conducive to the development of secondary surgical infection:
a) dysfunction of the immune system;
b) inadequate drainage of purulent cavities;
c) presence of foreign bodies in the tissues;
d) violation of the principles of antibiotic therapy;
e) all the above. (+)
7. What methods are used in surgical treatment of bone-joint tuberculosis:
a) puncture and disclosure of abscesses;
b) economical resection of joints;
c) resection within healthy tissues
d) amputation;
8. Conservative methods of actinomycosis treatment include all, except:
a) UHF-therapy; (+)
b) radiotherapy;
c) antibiotics;
d) use of iodine drugs;
e) injection of aktynolizat.
9. Microflora,that at sowing from tuberculous abscess doesn't grow on usual environment :
a) Streptococcus;
b) Tubercle bacillus;
c) Escherichia coli; (+)
d) Pneumococcus;
e) Staphylococcus.
11. What doesnt belong to specific chronic infection:
a) tuberculosis;
b) chronic hematogenous osteomyelitis; (+)
c) leprosy;
d) actinomycosis;
e) syphilis.
13. Places of most often nidus, at actinomycosis:
a) in the intestines;
b) in the lungs;
c) on the limbs;
d) on the face and neck; (+)
e) in parenchymatous organs.
14. Phases of bone tuberculosis (according to P.G Korneva) are:

a) periost, arthritic, postarthritic;
b) prearthritic, arthritic, postarthritic; (+)
c) prearthritic, intermuscle, postarthritic;
d) pulmonary, hematogenous, arthritic;
e) osteomielitic,abscessed, sclerotic.
15. Bones, that are most often affected at bone-joint tuberculosis:
a) skull;
b) forearm and shin;
c) thigh;
d) vertebral bodies; (+)
e) pelvis.
18. Flowing abscess is accumulation of pus:
a) in the cavities of the body;
b) in the area of primary focus;
c) in tissues, distant from the primary focus; (+)
d) in the bone marrow canal;
e) under the periosteum.
20. What method is most informative at examining patients with bone tuberculosis :
a) ultrasound;
b) scanning;
c) angiography;
d) computed tomography; (+)
e) rheovasography.
21. At what age, most often, arise bone-joint tuberculosis:
a) up to 15 years; (+)
b) 16-30 years;
c) 31-45 years;
d) 46-60 years;
e) more than 60 years.
23. Name a most often localization of periostitis at a secondary syphilis:
a) skull;
b) ribs and sternum;
c) pelvis bones;
d) front surface of the shin; (+)
e) all the above.
24. Name local symptoms of joint tuberculosis:
a) pain, swelling;
b) dysfunction;
c) deformation of joints;
d) muscle atrophy;

27. Where, in the tubular bones, localize process at syphilis:
a) in epiphysis;
b) in metaphysis;
c) in diaphysis; (+)
d) in spongy articular end;
e) equally affects all areas.
28. To what, leads a tuberculosis of a joint in prolonged duration of disease:
a) to progression of limb muscle atrophy;
b) to a stable contraction with dysfunction of the joint;
c) to sclerosis of the subcutaneous tissue;
d) to abscesses and fistulas;
e) to all of the above. (+)
29. What is typical for actinomycosis of the maxillofacial area:
a) woody density and lack of clear boundaries of infiltrate;
b) billow-form skin folds in the damage area;
c) involvement surrounding tissues in process;
d) bluish-black skin color over infiltrate;
30. Which joints most often suffer at bone-joint tuberculosis:
a) between phalangeal, wrist, ankle;
b) intervertebral, sacroiliac; (+)
c) knee, hipbone, shoulder;
d) all of the above;
e) at tuberculosis joints are not damaged.
32. X-ray picture in damade of bone by syphilis is:
a) osteoporosis destruction of bone;
b) bone sclerosis;
c) osteoperiostitis;
d) deformation of bone;
33. At damage of vertebras by tuberculosis,arises destruction of:
a) bodies; (+)
b) brackets;
c) lumbar processes;
d) spinous processes;
e) ligaments.
34. At lesion of gastrointestinal tract by actinomycosis,process is usually localized in:
a) esophagus, stomach,
b) small intestine;
c) cecum; (+)
d) sigmoid colon;
e) rectum.
36. At tertiary syphilis is mark:
a) periostitis;
b) osteitis;
c) osteomyelitis;
d) bone sclerosis;
37. Surgical methods of actinomycosis treatment include all, except:
a) resection of the lung or intestine;
b) disclosure of foci decay and abscesses;
c) laser and mechanical removal of granulation;
d) wide resection with removal of regional lymph nodes; (+)
e) removal of infiltrate within healthy tissues.
38. What joints most often affected at syphilis:
a) knee, ankle; (+)
b) interphalangeal;
c) intervertebral;
d) interphalangeal and intervertebral;
e) temporomandibular.
40. Causative agent of syphilis is:
a) tubercle bacillus;
b) pale treponema; (+)
c) stick Leffler;
d) clostridium tetani;
e) clostridium perfringens.
41. For syphilitic ulcer is typical:
a) weakpain, clear rounded contours, grayish bottom; (+)
b) strong pain, clear rounded contours, black bottom;
c) weak pain, clear rounded contours, black bottom;
d) strong pain, clear rounded contours, grayish bottom;
e) strong pain, not clear contours, black bottom.
42. Treatment of tertiary syphilis conduct in:
a) therapeutic department;
b) surgical department;
c) intensive care unit;
d) venereal diseases dispensary; (+)
e) infectious hospital.
43. Contagiousness of leprosy is:
a) small; (+)
b) high;
c) very high;
d) unexplained;
e) is absent.
44. Leprosy has the following forms:
a) syphilitic and tuberculoid;
b) syphilitic and leprous;
c) leprous and tuberculoid; (+)
d) leprous and actinomycotic;
e) tuberculoid and actinomycotic.
45. At leprosy, on skin appear:
a) vesicles with hemorrhagic content;
b) spots of different colors, forming a dense infiltrate with lost sensitivity; (+)
c) spots of different colors, forming a dense infiltrate with hypersensitivity;
d) areas of necrosis with hypersensitivity;
e) areas of necrosis of lost sensitivity.
46. There are the following clinical forms of actinomycosis:
a) osteo-articular, jaw-face;
b) osteo-articular, pulmonary, abdominal,
c) jaw-face, bone-joint, abdominal;
d) jaw-face l, osteo-articular, pulmonary;
e) jaw-face, pulmonary, abdominal. (+)
47. At conservative treatment of tertiary syphilis, main drugs are:
a) antibiotics; (+)
b) non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs;
c) vitamins;
d) painkillers;
e) enzymes.
48. In patients with leprous form of leprosy, treatment lasts:
a) 1-2 weeks;
b) 2-3 months;
c) 1-2 years;
d) 3-5 years;
e) all life. (+)
49. Causative agent of leprosy is:
a) Clostridium;
b) mycobacterium; (+)
c) Staphylococcus;
d) Streptococcus;
e) virus.
50. Causative agent of tuberculosis is:

a) tubercle bacillus; (+)
b) pale treponema;
c) stick Leffler;
d) clostridium tetani;
e) clostridium perfringens.
51. Specific chronic infection include:
a) diphtheria of wounds;
b) actinomycosis; (+)
c) rabies;
d) anthrax;
e) tetanus.
52. Bones- joints tuberculosis is characterized:
a) men doesnt get sick;
b) men and women suffer with equal frequency;
c) women suffer twice as often as men;
d) men suffer twice as often as women; (+)
e) women doesnt get sick.
53. Most frequent, tuberculosis affects:
a) of spine; (+)
b) pelvic-femoral joint;
c) knee joint;
d) foot;
e) wridegree
54. When choosing a place for tuberculosis osteoarticular sanatorium, take into acount:
a) presence of moist air;
b) presence of sea coast;
c) presence of coniferous forest; (+)
d) proximity to highways;
e) proximity to industrial facilities.
55. In the course of tuberculous spondylitis distinguish:
a) spondylitic phase; (+)
b) prearthritic phase;
c) arthritic phase;
d) postarthritic phase;
e) panarthritic phase.
56. The final diagnosis of tuberculous spondylitis is placed on the basis of:
a) ultrasound;
b) biochemical analysis of blood;
c) angiography;
d) X-ray examination; (+)

e) thermography.
57. In the course of tuberculous coxit distinguish:
) prespondylitic phase;
b) spondylitic phase;
c) postspondylitic phase;
d) arthritic phase; (+)
e) panspondylitic phase.
58. In the course of tuberculous honit distinguish:
) prespondylitic phase;
b) spondylitic phase;
c) postspondylitic phase;
d) arthritic phase; (+)
e) panspondylitic phase.
59. Treatment of tuberculosis of short tubular bones of hand and foot, include:
a) hormone therapy;
b) antiviral therapy;
c) antibiotic therapy; (+)
d) anticoagulant therapy;
e) thrombolytic therapy.
60. A diet of patients suffering on tuberculosis must contain proteins, fats and carbohydrates
in ratio:
) 3:1:1;
b) 1:3:1;
c) 1:1:3; (+)
d) 3:1:3;
e) 3:3:1
61. The greatest effect of surgical treatment at bone-joint tuberculosis is achieved:

a) in prearthritic phase; (+)
b) in arthritic phase;
c) in postarthritic phase;
d) phase doesn't matter;
e) effect is absent.
62. Causative agent of syphilis is:
b) corynebacterium;
c) pale treponema; (+)
d) clostridium;
e) viruses.
63. Stage of syphilis are:
a) early, late;
b) early, late,remote;
c) primary, secondary, tertiary, (+)
d) primary, secondary, remote;
e) fresh, not fresh, outdated.
64. For syphilitic ulcer is typical:
a) weakpain, clear rounded contours, grayish bottom; (+)
b) strong pain, clear rounded contours, black bottom;
c) weak pain, clear rounded contours, black bottom;
d) strong pain, clear rounded contours, grayish bottom;
e) strong pain, not clear contours, black bottom.
65. Causative agent of actinomycosis is:
b) Corynebacterium;
c) pale treponema;
d) Clostridium;
e) radiant mushroom. (+)
66. Main clinical forms of actinomycosis are:
a) brain, pulmonary, abdominal,
b) jaw-face, pulmonary, abdominal, (+)
c) skin, brain, pulmonary,
d) skin, pulmonary, abdominal,
e) jaw-face, brain, abdominal.
67. Treatment of actinomycosis include:
a) analgesics;
b) antibiotics; (+)
c) antivirals;
d) anticoagulant therapy;
e) chemotherapy.
68. The main forms of leprosy are:
a) leprous, tuberculoid; (+)
b) syphilitic, leprous;
c) diphtheria, tuberculoid;
d) tetanus, syphilitic;
e) tuberculoid, tetanus.
69. In case of severe course of leprosy is observed:
a) keratitis;
b) polyneuritis;
c) necrosis of hands areas;
d) necrosis of foot areas;
70. Leprosy is characterized by:
a) high contagiousness, lack of ulcers on mucous membranes, surgical
treatment;
b) low contagiousness, ulcers on mucous membranes, surgical treatment;
c) high contagiousness, ulcers on mucous membranes, conservative
treatment;
d) low contagiousness, ulcers on mucous membranes, conservative
treatment; (+)
e) high contagiousness, ulcers on mucous membranes
Topic 19
Professional risk of getting an infection, that transmitted with blood and ways
of its disappearing. Post-contact prophylaxis. "
6. The most important characteristic feature of all retroviruses is:
a) presence of membrane;
b) integration into the host genome; (+)
c) presence of DNA;
d) presence of RNA;
e) lymphtropism.
7. Retroviruses family includes all of these viruses, except:
a) Virus of B-cell lymphoma;
b) human immunodeficiency virus (HIV);
c) monkey immunodeficiency virus (SIV);
d) EpsteinBarr virus(+)
e) cat immunodeficiency virus.
8. Which HIV proteins are most confirmed by ancient variations?
a) dr 41;
b) r 24;
c) r 7;
d) r 9;
e) dr 120. (+)
9. The most important diagnostic coat protein of human immunodeficiency virus is?
a) dr 41 dr 120;
b) r 24, r 18;
c) r 7, r 9;
d) r 17, 41 dr;
10. Which additional tests should conduct to patients with infectious mononucleosis:
a) reaction of Paul-Bunnelya and lymph node puncture;
b) ELISA for HIV infection, bacteriological analysis for shigellosis;
c) bacteriological analysis for diphtheria and typhoid fever;
d) Bporny and Wright-Hedson reactions;
e) ELISA for HIV infection, bacteriological analysis for diphtheria. (+)
11. Pathogen HIV belongs to:
a) retroviruses; (+)
b) rabdovirusiv;
c) miksovirusiv;
d) paramyxoviruses;
e) pikornavirusiv.
12. HIV can be transmitted:
a) through the use of non-sterile instruments for tattoo; (+)
b) with a handshake;
c) by coughing and sneezing;
d) from animals or animal bites;
e) using utensils.
13. Standard test systems give positive result on HIV in the patients after an average
of:
a) 6-12 hours after infection;
b) 3-5 days after infection;
c) 1-2 weeks after infection;
d) 6 months after infection; (+)
e) 3 years after infection.
14. Rapid tests to HIV have a sensitivity about:
a) 10%;
b) 30%;
c) 50%;
d) 70%;
e) 99.5%.(+)
15. HIV infection is diagnosed by the presence in blood:
a) antibodies to components of HIV; (+)
b) leukocytosis;
c) leukopenia;
d) polycythemia;
e) C-reactive protein.
20. How can find out if a person is infected or not?
a) to conduct general overview;
b) to conduct a general analysis of blood and urine;
c) to conduct test for HIV; (+)
d) to conduct a survey, to collect anamnesis in a patient;
e) to hold a conversation with family.
21. Source of hepatitis C virus infection:
a) reusable medical instruments;
b) sick people; (+)
c) insects;
d) sick animals;
e) household items and home furnishings.
22. Specify appropriate measures aimed at prevention of ways and factors of
transmission of viral hepatitis:
a) vaccine injection;
b) hospitalization of the patient to the hospital;
c) sanitary - educational work;
d) disinfection and disinfestation; (+)
e) introduction of serum.
23. What belongs to means of a specific effect on pathogens of contagious infections?
a) antibiotics, sulfonamides, nitrofurans;
b) interferons;
c) bacteriophages;
d) serum, vaccines, immunoglobulin;
e) all mentioned. (+)
24. Clinical signs,at which is not conduct testing for HIV:
a) prolonged diarrhea;
b) long-term pneumonia;
c) unexplained loss of body weight;
d) Kaposi's sarcoma;
e) purulent lymphadenitis. (+)
25. Picture of blood at viral hepatitis is characterized by:
a) leukopenia, lymphocytosis, accelerated ESR;
b) leukocytosis, neutrocytosis, accelerated ESR;

c) leukopenia, lymphocytosis, normal or slow ESR; (+)
d) leukocytosis, limfopenyey, accelerated ESR;
e) leukopenia, lymphocytosis.
28. What is Danas part:
a) virus of hepatitis A;
b) virus of hepatitis B; (+)
c) virus of hepatitis C;
d) virus of hepatitis D;
e) virus of hepatitis E.
29. Specify the length of the incubation period at hepatitis B:
a) a few days;
b) 15-21 days;
c) 4-5 weeks;
d) 6-26 weeks; (+)
e) six months or more.
31. Testing for presence of antibodies to HIV is conducting under the code:
a) 120;
b) 115; (+)
c) 178;
d) 112;
e) 150.
32. In case of medical staffs skin contamination, without violation of its integrity,
when working with blood or body fluids, for the prevention of occupational HIV
infection is necessary:
a) to process a place of contamination with 70% ethanol solution;
b) to process a place of contamination with 70% ethanol solution, wash with running
water and again process with alcohol; (+)
c) wash with running water;
d) you don't need to do anything;
e) you don't need two wash, impose aseptic bandage.
33. In case of contact with blood, body fluids, biomaterial on mucous membranes of
eyes, for the prevention of HIV infection in eyes is necessary to instill:
a) 70% ethanol solution;
b) 3% hydrogen peroxide solution;
c) 3% chloramine solution;
d) 30% sodium sulfatsil solution; (+)
e) 96% ethanol solution.
34. At damage of skin, mucous membranes of medical staff,contamination of
patients biomaterials, during medical care and conduct in the established order of
registration of the accident, injured is offer (with his consent)to take a test for the
presence of antibodies to HIV. First blood test take directly after the accident, but no
later than:
a) 3 days;
b) 5 days; (+)
c) 10 days;
d) 15 days;
e) a calendar month.
35. If a medical worker, who works with blood or biomaterials, has injuries or
wounds on his hands, exudative lesions of hand skin, which can not be closed with a
plaster or rubber gloves, must:
a) shall be exempt from work with pay;
b) shall be exempt from work without pay;
c) unable to continue work in medical institutions;
d) shall be exempt for a period of disease from direct medical care of patients; (+)
e) goes on vacation.
36. In case of contact with blood, body fluids, biomaterial on oral cavity mucous
membranes for the prevention of getting infected with HIV, oral cavity is necessary to
rinse with:
a) 70% ethanol solution; (+)
b) 3% hydrogen peroxide solution;
c) 3% chloramine solution;
d) 30% sodium sulfatsil solution;
e) 96% ethanol solution.
Topic 20
"Violation of arterial blood supply of limbs. Necrosis. Ulcers. Fistula. Foreign
bodies. "
1. The main causes of circulatory necrosis include:
a) violation of arterial permeability, violation of venous outflow, violation of
innervation; (+)
b) violation of venous outflow, mechanical injury, violation of innervation;
c) violation of arterial permeability, mechanical injury, effect of chemicals;
d) mechanical trauma, effect of chemicals, violation of innervation;
e) violation of arterial permeability, violation of venous outflow, effect of chemicals.
2. Dry necrosis is characterized by:
a) lack of demarcation line, joining of infection, lack of intoxication;
b) presence of demarcation line, lack of infection,presence of intoxication;
c) presence of demarcation line, lack of infection, lack of intoxication; (+)
d) presence of demarcation line, joining of infection,presence of intoxication;
e) lack of demarcation line, lack of infection,presence of intoxication.
3. Specify the types of gangrene, that doesn't exist:
a) foot, pancreas, brain;

b) foot,front surface of the finger, brain;
c) gall bladder, pancreas, brain;
d) front surface of the finger, pancreas, brain; (+)
e) foot, pancreas, front surface of the finger.
4. There are the following types of gangrene:
a) white, blue;
b) blue, red;
c) white, dry;
d) blue, wet;
e) dry,wet. (+)
5. By etiology, ulcers may be:
a) serous, atherosclerotic, infiltrative;
b) atherosclerotic, neurotrophic, infiltrative;
c) atherosclerotic, venous, neurotrophic; (+)
d) serous, venous, neurotrophic;
e) serous, venous, infiltrative.
6.Trophic ulcer is characterized by:
a) lack of tendency to healing, surrounding tissues have an ordinary appearance,
presence of microorganisms on the surface is not typical;
b) lack of tendency to healing, occurs in center of trophic disorders, on the surface
there is a commonplace microflora; (+)
c) surrounding tissues have an ordinary appearance, on the surface there is a
commonplace microflora;
d) lack of tendency to healing, surrounding tissues have an ordinary appearance;
e) occurs in the center of trophic disorders, the presence of microorganisms on the
surface is not typical.
7. There are the following types of fistula:
a) angular, circular;
b) circular, crateriform;
c) tubular, lip-similar; (+)
d) lip-similar, crateriform;
e) tubular, angular.
8. Foreign bodies include:
a) interstitial parasites;
b) fish bone in the esophagus; (+)
c) urinary bladder stones;
d) xsenoprosthesis;
e) thrombotic mass.
9. Complications of gastric ulcer doesn't include:
a) bleeding;
b) suppuration; (+)
c) perforation;
d) penetration;
e) malignization.
10. Fistula may be:
a) natural, acquired; (+)
b) primary, acquired;
c) primary, secondary, tertiary;
d) natural, secondary;
e) natural, primary.
11. At wet gangrene,theer is no:
a) swelling;
b) intoxication;
c) harlequin skin color;
d) demarcation line; (+)
e) pain.
12. Is it a true tactic, that after reaching ulcer with granulation, used bandages with
ointment and carefully cauterize granulation by lapis (nitrate of silver):
a) yes;
b) only for urgent reasons;
c) the impossibility conducting other methods of treatment;
d) with the consent of the patient.
e) no. (+)
13. Verify the diagnosis of gastric fistula,promotes researches of excretion on:
a) amylase;
b) uropepsyn; (+)
c) uric acid salts;
d) hydrochloric acid;
e) bile acids.
14. Anticoagulants do not apply at:
a) thrombophlebitis;
b) early gangrene; (+)
c) endarteritis;
d) thromboembolism;
e) atherosclerosis.
15. External artificial fistula is:
a) tracheoesophageal;
b) gastrostomy; (+)
c) arteriovenous shunt;
d) choledochoduodenal anastomosis
e) urahus.
16. What disease can cause gangrene:

a) erysipelas;
b) varikoznoe expansion of veins;
c) arthrosis;
d) atherosclerosis of lower limbs; (+)
e) ascites.
17. Gained fistula is:
a) caused by a pathological process;
b) artificial; (+)
c) epithelial-coccygeal course;
d) interatrial septum;
e) defect of interventricular septum.
18. The symptoms of femoral artery occlusion include all, except:
a) absence of pulsation;
b) cooling of the limb;
c) pain;
d) redness of the limb; (+)
e) loss of limb sensitivity.
19. By origin distinguish such fistula as:
a) antenatal;
b) puerperal;
c) inborn and gained; (+)
d) intestine;
e) lip-similar and epithelial.
20. At acute thrombosis use all, except:
a) antibiotics; (+)
b) anticoagulants;
c) leeches;
d) active movements;
e) anti-inflammatory drugs.
21. Demarcative axle formed during:
a) limb ischemia;
b) wet gangrene;
c) dry gangrene; (+)
d) hematoma;
e) arteriovenous aneurysm.
22. Pale phlegmazia is a combination of deep venous thrombosis with:
a) total venous thrombosis of lower limbs;
b) sustained spasm of arteries; (+)
c) femoral arterial thromboembolism;

d) obliterating endarteritis;
e) spasm of the veins and arteries.
23. There are the following bedsores:
a) hidden and explicit;
b) iatrogenic and pathological;
c) endogenous and exogenous;
d) acute, subacute, chronic, recurrent,
e) erythematous, bullous, abscess and necrotic. (+)
24. Name optimal treatment of acute radiation ulcer of soft tissues:
a) excision of the ulcer; (+)
b) ointment with vitamins;
c) general- reinforcing means;
d) detoxification of the body;
e) treatment under the bandage.
25. The external fistula include all, except:
a) intestinal;
b) pararectal;
c) urinary;
d) gastrointestinal; (+)
e) duodenal.
26. Blue phlegmazia is a thrombosis of iliac veins, that accompanied by:
a) total venous thrombosis of the lower limbs; (+)
b) stable spasm of arteries;
c) femoral arterial thromboembolism;
d) obliterating endarteritis;
e) spasm of veins and arteries.
27. Radical treatment of epithelial and lip-similar intestinal fistulas include;
a) processing of fistula wall by lapis;
b) electrocoagulation of fistula wall;
c) excision of fistula with suturing of the wall defect; (+)
d) fistula tamponade;
e) imposition of a magnetic stopper.
28. A mechanical factor that doesnt cause tissue necrosis:
a) compression by a foreign body;
b) compression by a hemostatic tourniquet more than 2-3 hours.;
c) organ torsion or jamming ;
d) injury with damage to blood vessels and nerves;
e) washing purulent wound with a pulsating jet of antiseptic. (+)
29. Optimal method of treatment of soft tissues trophic ulcer with violation of blood
circulation:
a) treatment under a bandage;
b) excision of the ulcer, edge suturing;
c) closure of the defect with skin plasty;
d) closure of the defect with vascularized flap;
e) restoration of blood circulation. (+)
30. To speed up the melting of ulcers gangrenous tissues, apply:
a) antibiotics;
b) sulfonamides;
c) nitrofuran drugs;
d) proteolytic enzymes; (+)
e) silver nitrate solution.
31. Ulcers as a result of general infringement of an exchange, arise at:
a) varicose of subcutaneous veins;
b) violation of the outflow of lymph (elephantiasis);
c) obliterating endarteritis;
d) diabetes; (+)
e) Raynaud's disease.
32. Fistulas,that may heal by itself:
a) granulating; (+)
b) epithelizating;
c) lip-similar;
d) inborn;
33. Patients with a gangrene of the abdominal cavity organs (gallbladder, intestines,
etc.). first of all use :
a) introduction of large doses of antibiotics;
b) introduction of antispasmodics;
c) introduction of painkillers;
d) introduction of anticoagulants;
e) emergency laparotomy with removal of the affected organ. (+)
34. Optimal method of treatment of soft tissues trophic ulcer with violation of
venous circulation:
e) restoration of blood circulation. (+)
35. According to the structure,fistulas are:
a) lip-similar, epithelizating , granulating; (+)
b) epithelizating, scar, bone;

c) epithelizating, scars, granulating;
d) granulating, epithelizating, bone;
e) granulating, scar, bone.
36. Lip-similar fistulas by itself:
a) heal quickly;
b) heal slowly;
c) heal very slowly;
d) do not heal; (+)
e) transformed into tubular.
37. What is the best method of trophic ulcers treatment in violation of innervation:
e) recovery (suturing) of nerve. (+)
38. To prevent galling and infection of the skin around the fistula, apply:
a) Vishnevsky ointment;
b) indigokarmina;
c) iodine solution;
d) paste Lassara, zinc paste; (+)
e) formalin.
39. Reasons of tissue necrosis may be:
a) glycosuria in diabetes;
b) tuberculosis;
c) incompatible blood transfusion;
d) circulatory disorders; (+)
e) citrate shock.
40. At conservative treatment of trophic ulcer of lower limb,necessary:
a) bed rest, position of the lowered limb;
b) stop outflow of excretion from ulcers to bandage;
c) careful toilet of ulcer surface and the skin around the ulcer; (+)
d) bandages with salicylic ointment;
e) imposing warmcompress to the ulcer.
41. Nonspecific gangrene develops at:
a) clostridial infection;
) syphilis;
c) tuberculosis;
d) poisoning by plants;
e) thrombosis and embolism of major vessels. (+)
42. As a result of trophic disorders,ulcer arise at:

a) cancer;
b) scurvy;
c) syphilis;
d) tuberculosis;
e) damage of nerves. (+)
43. Circulatory disorders, that can cause necrosis of tissues and organs, arise as a
result of such processes, except:
a) cardiac disorders;
b) prolonged spasm or obliteration of the vessel;
c) compression or injury of blood vessels;
d) violation of the chemistry of the blood;
e) obesity. (+)
44. Conditions, that doesnt affect on speed and prevalence of necrosis:
a) sarcoma; (+)
b) penetrating radiation;
c) hypothermia;
d) anatomical-physiological characteristics;
e) availibility or lack of infection.
45. For dry gangrene is not typical:
a) limited by a part of segment;
b) pallor, skin marbling;
c) expressed pain;
d) severe intoxication; (+)
e) intoxication absent or negligible.
46. Demarcative billow not formed:
a) for separating gangrenous tissue;
b) at dry necrosis;
c) at dry gangrene;
d) at joining of putrefactive microflora; (+)
e) there is such thing.
47. Immediate necrectomy or amputation at dry gangrene is conducted in such cases,
except:
a) joining of putrefactive flora;
b) passing dry gangrene in wet;
c) unformed demarcation billow; (+)
d) joining of general symptoms;
e) occurrence of intoxication.
48. More often,wet gangrene develops under such conditions, except:
) hyperstenia;
b) rapid circulatory disorders;

c) pastosity, swelling;
d) availability of coagulation necrosis; (+)
e) availability of colliquative necrosis.
49. A local sign of wet gangrene doesnt include:
a) lack of sensitivity;
b) saved movements; (+)
c) rapidly growing tissue swelling;
d) pale skin;
e) marble cold skin.
50.Intoxication at wet gangrene is the result of:
a) absorption of decay products of tissue and bacterial toxins; (+)
b) decrease of blood pressure;
c) availability of demarcation billow;
d) lack of movement;
e) immunodeficiency.
51. For ulcer is not typical:
a) defect of skin and deeper lying tissues;
b) lack or poorly expressed regeneration processes;
c) generally chronic course;
d) increase of microcirculation; (+)
e) slow healing.
52An important element of conservative treatment of ulcers is all, except:
a) upraised limb position;
b) cleaning of ulcer defect using different ointments under the bandage;
c) activation of regenerative processes;
d) an increase blood pressure; (+)
e) calorie, enriched with vitamins and minerals nutrition.
53. By origin fistulas divide:
a) internal, external;
b) lateral, lateral;
c) inborn and gained; (+)
d) internal, lateral;
e) external, lateral.
54. The peculiarity of epithelial and lip-similar fistulas are:
a) needs surgical intervention, doesnt heal by itself; (+)
b) heal by itself at any stage;
c) heal by itself ,when content is no longer allocate from fistula tract;
d) needs only conservative treatment;
e) does not need any treatment.
55. In what areas bedsores dont develop:

a) sacrum;
b) lumbar area;
c) nape;
d) heel;
e) back of the shin . (+)
56. Basic principles of trophic ulcers treatment,such except:
a) etiological;
b) pathogenetical;
c) surgical;
d) waiting; (+)
e) etiopathogenetical.
57. At dry gangrene,in tissue observed:
a) reactive swelling;
b) coagulative necrosis; (+)
c) regenerative swelling;
d) mixed necrosis;
e) expressed lymphangitis.
58. Demarcation line is observed at:
a) sepsis;
b) dry gangrene; (+)
c) wet gangrene;
d) decay of tissues;
e) fistulas.
59. Decay of tissues and absorption of toxins - feature:
a) presence of of foreign body;
b) dry gangrene;
c) wet gangrene; (+)
d) coagulation necrosis;
e) obliterating atherosclerosis..
60. Necrectomy or amputation at dry gangrene is conduct:
a) immediately at diagnosis statement;
b) at full and expressive formation of demarcation billow; (+)
c) is not made;
d) at the beginning of the formation of the demarcation line;
e) with suspected of dry gangrene.
61. Method of wet gangrene treatment is:
a) amputation at formation of demarcative billow;
b) sparing necrectomy;
c) safe-organ operation;
d) early amputation to save the patient's life; (+)
e) amputation is not perform.

62. Gangrene of the abdominal cavity is:
a) dry;
b) wet; (+)
c) necrotic;
d) coagulation necrosis;
e) untreated.
63. Gangrene of the abdomen is shown:
a) by peritonitis; (+)
b) by chronic abdominal syndrome;
c) by hypertension;
d) by myocardial infarction;
e) by hepatosis.
64. Trophic ulcer arise as a result:
a) of tumors ulceration;
b) of violation of tissue nutrition; (+)
c) after radical treatment;
d) of traumatic damage;
e) of joining the infection.
65. Granulating fistula is characterized by:
a) walls formed by mucous membrane;
b) for its closure is necessary surgical intervention;
c) always internal;
d) walls formed by intestinal epithelium;
e) walls are covered with granulations. (+)
66. In order to identify the direction of fistula move, apply:
a) scintigraphy;
b) fluorography;
c) fistulography; (+)
d) thermography;
e) doppler examination.
67. Specify more frequent causes of limb embolism:
a) thrombus of the left half of the heart; (+)
b) thrombophlebitis of limbs;
c) atherosclerotic plaques in limbs;
d) violation of the blood coagulation;
e) abdominal aortic aneurysm.
68. In providing aid to patients with acute arterial occlusion is shown:
a) limb massage;
b) imposition of a tourniquet;
c) heating of the limb;

d) cooling of the limb; (+)
e) amputation.
69. A patient after opening of foot phlegmon, appeared fistula that long heals. What
should be done to determine the etiology of fistula?
a) arteriography;
b)fistulography; (+)
c) detailed formula of blood;
d) X-ray of foot;
e) ultrasound.
70. Lack of pulsation on limbsmain arteries, pale skin with marble hue, hemorrhagic
spots, signs of lymphangitis and lack of superficial and deep sensitivity with positive
symptom "thread" specify on:
a) dry gangrene;
b) wet gangrene; (+)
c) postthrombotic syndrome;
d) obliterating atherosclerosis;
e) varicose veins.

Baza III Curs Med

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Topic 1

"Wounds and wound process. Treatment of clean wounds. "

e) line that separates necrotic tissue from healthy.

65. Area of molecular shake is available in :

16.What explains the presence of molecular zone shake at gunshot injuries:

e) uneven skin damage.

b) a large loss of blood;

c) after 5 days; (+)

e) it does not matter.

a) pain in the blow area;

d) comes out an additional portion of air;

a) imposition of splints with any auxiliary material; (+)

e) bones of the upper limbs.

28. Reposition of fragments conducted in:

1. Pathological dislocation is called:

8.Treatment of a patient with a fracture of the lumbar vertebra is made by:

b) wrong choice of construction; (+)

e) septic complications in places ofcarrying out spokes.

e) true are B and D. (+)

e) Vinyl chloride anesthesia in combination with prolonged intraosseushemostatic blockade.

c) the possibility of early activation of seriously ill;

d) in the frontal plane;

d) emptied, shrunken blisters with serous fluid;

b) sea buckthorn oil;

57.First aid for burns by alkalis:

e)different types of crusts.

c) burnt hard and soft palate, posterior pharyngeal wall;

52. Level of erythrocytes in general blood analysis of a healthy person is:

b) general urine analysis ;

44.The dynamics of the disease write down to medical history section:

50.A short retelling of medical history - is:

8. Phlegmon is called mediastinitis at localization of process:

e) at a day patient facility.

61.What level of hyperglycemia recommended to be in patients with diabetes at the day of

b) thrombosis of breast vessels; (+)

31. Symptom "first sleepless night" at whitlow is:

c) inflammation with involvement in the process of bone;

b) superficial venous arch;

c) through a vein, which is next;

40. Indications to osteoperforation at acute hematogenous osteomyelitis are:

d) presence of pronounced sclerosis of the bone;

50. Mild form of tetanus is characterized by:

56. The basic condition for conducting intracorporal detoxification is:

b) possible by venous way;

14. Phases of bone tuberculosis (according to P.G Korneva) are:

e) all of the above. (+)

50. Causative agent of tuberculosis is:

d) X-ray examination; (+)

61. The greatest effect of surgical treatment at bone-joint tuberculosis is achieved:

b) leukocytosis, neutrocytosis, accelerated ESR;

a) foot, pancreas, brain;

16. What disease can cause gangrene:

c) femoral arterial thromboembolism;

b) epithelizating, scar, bone;

42. As a result of trophic disorders,ulcer arise at:

b) rapid circulatory disorders;

55. In what areas bedsores dont develop:

e) amputation is not perform.

c) heating of the limb;

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