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1 The Udaipur Solar Observatory (USO) would do a detailed study of the Solar activity
including its magnetic field to facilitate space weather predictions in the future. The
observatory has been situated on an island in the middle of a lake. Why?
A. Middle of the water body, there will be less turbulence in the air mass and
thereby image quality and seeing will be improved
B. In the Island, the cosmic radiation will be comparatively lesser than that on
land
C. Measurement of magnetic field near water body is enhanced as water
molecules have zero magnetism, whereas land particles may have some
magnetism
D. There will be less interference from electromagnetic radiation from
telecommunications towers and other magnetic objects
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Learning:The USO is situated on an island in the middle of the Lake Fatehsagar of
Udaipur, Rajasthan, India. The sky conditions at Udaipur are quite favourable for
solar observations. The large water body surrounding the telescopes decreases the
amount of heating of the surface layers. This decreases the turbulence in the air mass
and thereby improves the image quality and seeing.

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The main objective of obtaining the high spatial and temporal resolution
observations of solar photospheric and chromospheric activity is to understand the
various dynamic phenomena occurring on the surface of the Sun.

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Q
Source:http://www.isro.gov.in/about-isro/multi-application-solar-telescope-operatio
nalised-udaipur-solar-observatory

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2 What do you understand by the term 'New International economic order (NIEO)' of the
1970s?
A. It was a call by developed nations to give equal space to newly decolonized
nations in global economic assistance.
B. It was a movement by International Economic Association (IEA) to stop the
exploitation of third world countries by MNCs.
C. It was a set of proposals by African nations to stop colonial conquest and
economic exploitation.
D. It was a call by some developing nations for revision of the international
economic system in favour of Third World countries.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

Learning:The New International Economic Order (NIEO) was a set of proposals


put forward during the 1970s by some developing countries through the United
Nations Conference on Trade and Development to promote their interests by
improving their terms of trade, increasing development assistance, developedcountry tariff reductions, and other means.

SI

It was meant to be a revision of the international economic system in favour of Third


World countries, replacing the Bretton Woods system, which had benefited the
leading states that had created it- especially the United States.

IN

Q Source:Chapter 4: Page 100: 10th NCERT World History

3 Consider the following about Snow Leopard.


1. It is listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
2. It is the National Heritage Animal of Afghanistan and Pakistan.
3. 2015 has been designated as the International Year of the Snow Leopard in selected
countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only

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D. All of the above


User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

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Learning:In a world first event, in October 2013, leaders in the governments of all
12 snow leopard range countries came together at the Global Snow Leopard Forum
initiated by the President of Kyrgyz Republic, Mr Almazbek Atambayev.
At that meeting in the Kyrgyz Republic's capital, Bishkek, the 12 countries agreed
that the snow leopard and the high mountain habitat it lives in, is too precious to let
disappear.

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To help spread the word amongst the people, government authorities and
conservation groups in each country, designated 2015 as International Year of the
Snow Leopard in Afghanistan, Bhutan, China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz Republic,
Mongolia, Nepal, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan.
Q Source:http://www.moef.nic.in/public-information/protected-area-network

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4 What differentiates a 'nation-state' from a 'state'?


A. A nation-state does not have a centralized authority as a state.
B. A state is a mix of several ethnicities and communities unlike a nation-state.
C. A nation-state does not have a constitution unlike a state.
D. State is only a legal/political entity, whereas nation-state is a legal/political
entity as well as a cultural/social entity.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification: USSR was a nation-state. Authority was centralized in it. So, (a) is
wrong. A nation-state is a mix of several ethnicities, a state need NOT be. So, (b) is
wrong. Both nation-states (e.g. USA, Canada) and states (e.g. India) can have
constitution. So, (c) is wrong.
Learning:A nation refers only to a socio-cultural entity, a union of people sharing
who can identify culturally and linguistically. This concept does not necessarily
consider formal political unions.
A state refers to a legal/political entity that is comprised of the following: a) a
permanent population; b) a defined territory; c) a government ; and d) the capacity

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to enter into relations with other states.


Combination of both is known as a nation-state.
Q Source:10th NCERT World History

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5 Consider the following about State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs).


1. It regulates commercial utilization of biological resources of India.
2. It is responsible for the conservation of folk varieties and cultivars in forests.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

Justification:The Biological Diversity Act 2002covers conservation, use of


biological resources and associated knowledge occurring in India for commercial or
research purposes or for the purposes of bio-survey and bio-utilisation.

It establishes, NBA, SSBs and local level bodies.

SI

Statement 2 is done by local level Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs)


constituted under the Biological Diversity Act (2002).
You read more about all the functions of NBA and the Act here.

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Q Source: http://nbaindia.org/content/22/2/1/aboutnba.html

6 The Bretton Woods institutions were established with which of the following objectives?
1. Finance post-world war II reconstruction
2. To deal with external surpluses and deficits of member nations
3. To ensure full employment in developed countries
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. All of the above

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Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

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Justification & Learning:at the UN monetary and financial Conference held in


1944, at Bretton Woods, USA, it was decided to establish IMF and International
Bank for reconstruction and Development (World Bank).
IMF would deal with external surpluses and deficits of member nations. IBRD
would setup to finance post-war reconstruction. So, 1 and 2 is correct.
The goal of full employment is dealt with national governments. So, 3 is wrong.

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Q Source:Chapter 4: Page 100: 10th NCERT World History

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7 Which of the following are the 'disadvantages' of inland waterways as compared to


roadways?
1. It is less fuel efficient.
2. Cost of developing waterways is generally more than roadways.
3. Overall transportation cost is generally more.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

IN

Justification & Learning:The IWT advantages are several and disadvantages are
few. Among all the transport modes, it is the least capital-intensive, is environmentfriendly, can supplement rail and road transport, help in the decongestion of roads, is
best suited to carry over-dimensional cargo (ODC), requires minimum. So, 2 is
wrong.
Transportation costs are lesser than roadways. So, 3 is wrong.
Both IWT and coastal shipping are highly fuel efficient when compared to
roadways. So, 1 is wrong.
Rivers, canals and lakes can be used as IWT.

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For the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012-2017), IWT has been allocated R10,500 crore,
substantially more than the previous Plan periods. A World Bank study on IWT has
shown that 'in many instances, these advantages can be gained with little or no
improvement to existing waterways. In others, a modest level of complementary
investment can significantly increase usability'.

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Q Source:Yojana November 2015 -Inside Cover Page

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8 Why is the gravitational force of moon lesser than earth?


1. Moon has no atmosphere.
2. Moon spins at a slower rate than earth.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

Justification:This is one more question based on the concept of weight and gravity.

SI

The moon orbits the Earth once every 27.322 days. It also takes approximately 27
days for the moon to rotate once on its axis. The earth (despite being larger) takes
only 24 hours to rotate on its axis. So, clearly earth rotates faster than moon.
Moon's gravity has no relation with its rotation. But, yes, the weight of a body on
moon will be affected by Moon's rotation.

IN

This is because, your weight also depends on the centrifugal force exerted due to the
rotation of the body.
W = G - Centrifugal force
Q Source:Improvisation:Chapter 10: Page 137: 9th Science NCERT

9 If RBI changes the Repo rate, it also changes which of the following monetary policy
tools?
1. Reverse Repo rate
2. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)

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3. Cash Reserve ratio (CRR)


Select the correct answer using the codes below
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

Justification:The rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks is called
repo rate. It is an instrument of monetary policy. Whenever banks have any shortage
of funds they can borrow from the RBI.

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Reverse Repo rate is the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial
banks. The difference between both rates is always maintained at 100 basis points
(or 1%). So, if repo rate changes, it changes reverse repo also. Hence, 1 is correct
and 2 and 3 are wrong. CRR and SLR are fixed separately.
Q Source:https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/BS_PressReleaseDisplay.aspx?prid=35595

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10 If India declares a national war against the Islamic state (ISIS), it must be approved by
A. Ministry of External Affairs
B. President of India
C. Indian Armed Forces
D. National Security Council
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Justification:President of India is the chief commander of the Indian armed forces.
Any decision to conclude peace or war is finally approved by him.
However, after his approval, the Parliament must also assent to it within a certain
period of time.
So, (b) is correct. Others only play an advisory role. Final decision taken by cabinet
is forwarded to the President.
Learning:The question was made in backdrop of German cabinet approving a
mandate offering military assistance to fight against the Islamic State (IS) militant

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group in Syria.
Under this mandate Germany could deploy up to 1,200 military personnel to support
the international alliance but they won't actively engage in combat missions.

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Q
Source:http://www.business-standard.com/article/news-ians/german-cabinet-clearsanti-terror-military-aid-115120100945_1.html

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11 Consider the following statements.


1. In Railways, investment is done by both Central and State governments.
2. In Civil Aviation, investment is done both by Central government and private sector.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

Justification:In railways, only Central government invests. Some services may be


outsourced to private parties (e.g. catering). So, 1 is wrong.

SI

In civil aviation, airports are usually built under the PPP model, where both Central
government and private parties invest jointly and share the revenues and risks. So, 2
is correct.

IN

Learning:In India, railways are under-invested. It accounts for only 5.5% of total
plan outlay vis-a-vis 11% in other transport sectors.
Network expansion in Railways has lagged behind capacity addition in the domestic
roads sector. So, significant freight share has gone to the roadways (57% of total),
instead of more efficient railways.
So, there is a strong case for channeling resources to such transport infrastructure in
India given the widely known spillover effects of transport networks to link markets,
reduce a variety of costs, boost agglomeration economies, and improve the
competitiveness of the economy, especially manufacturing which tends to be
logistics-intensive.

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Q Source:Yojana November 2015- Page 29-30

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12 In India, labour laws generally cover which of the following areas of concern?
1. Dispute settlement between the labourers and management
2. Provision for hiring and firing of labour
3. Provisions regarding payment of wages
4. Minimum labour qualifications for heavy industries
Select the correct answer using the codes below
A. 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

Justification:For e.g. recently the President assented to the Labour Laws (Gujarat
Amendment) Bill, 2015. It has provisions relating to

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Ban strikes: Empowers state government to ban strikes in public utility


services
Dispute Settlement: Add provision for out of court settlement between the
labourers and management by paying certain fee to the government.
Redefine contractors: Amends the definition of contractor to include
outsourcing agencies, which in some cases is government itself.
Payment of wages: Mandatory to be paid by cheque instead of cash for
establishments employing 20 persons or more.
Empower employers to change nature of jobs of the employees without prior
notice.

Hence, all options except 4 are correct. This is because minimum qualifications are
not generally regulated by laws except in some cases such as medical schools etc.
Instead, specialized bodies (for e.g. ICAI for CA) regulate minimum qualifications.
Q
Source:http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/gujarats-controversial-labour-lawsbill-gets-presidential-assent/article7938265.ece

13 Which of the following are reason(s) for non-adoption of bio-toilets at a large scale in

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India?
1. It cannot work in cold Himalayan regions.
2. To maintain the health of bacteria, bio-toilets need to be maintained regularly.
Which of the above is/are true?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

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Justification:They can be used in Himalayan Regions, glaciers and even sea ports.
So, 1 is incorrect.
Bio-toilets are generally maintenance free and have a life of upto 50 years at once.
This is why they are being installed at large scale in railways. So, 2 is also incorrect.

IN

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Learning:

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Q Source:Improvisation: Yojana November 2015

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14 Consider the following about Bihu dance.


1. It is performed by both young men and women.
2. Hand and leg movement is slow as dance is performed on grass plates.
3. The dance is performed to wish for good rains and crops.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

Justification & Learning:Performed in the state of Assam on Bihu festival, it is


characterized by brisk dance steps,and rapid hand movement. Dancers (both
genders) wear traditionally colorful Assamese clothing. So, 1 is correct and 2 is
incorrect.

The dance takes several forms among the different northeast Indian groups, e.g.
"Deori Bihu dance", "Mising Bihu dance" etc. However, the underlying goal of the
dance remains the same: to express the desire to feel both pain and happiness.

SI

Bihu generally marks the end of the harvest season. So, 3 is wrong.
Q Source:Improvisation:Chapter 1: Page 3 (picture): 9th Science NCERT

IN

15 Funds under the PM Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana (PMKKKY) can be utilized for
1. Improving physical infrastructure of the region
2. Subsidizing economically non-viable mining units
3. Enhancing quality of environment in mining districts
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

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Justification:The PMKKKY fund is obtained after imposing royalty payments on


the miners. So, the funds will not be used to subsidize mining company or units. It
will be used exclusively for the welfare of the citizens affected by mining. So,
statement 2 is incorrect.

Learning:Areas of focus:

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Welfare would involve overall development, i.e. watershed development, reducing


pollution, improving health indicators, education etc. So, 1 and 3 are correct.

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High priority areas like drinking water supply, health care, sanitation,
education, skill development, women and child care, welfare of aged and
disabled people, skill development and environment conservation will get at
least 60 % share of the funds.
For creating a supportive and conducive living environment, balance funds
will be spent on making roads, bridges, railways, waterways projects,
irrigation and alternative energy sources.
About District Mineral Foundations (DMFs):

The Mines and Minerals (Development & Regulation) Amendment Act,


2015, mandated the setting up of District Mineral Foundations (DMFs) in all
districts in the country affected by mining related operations.
Q Source:Yojana November 2015 Page 62

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16 Why are whales and dolphins mammals and not most other fishes?
1. Like mammals, whales and dolphins breathe air through a pair of lungs.
2. Like most mammals, they are cold-blooded.
3. Like most mammals, they give birth to live young ones.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Justification:Mammals are warm-blooded animals with four-chambered hearts.
They have mammary glands for the production of milk to nourish their young. Their

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skin has hairs as well as sweat and oil glands.


Most mammals familiar to us produce live young ones. However, a few of them,
like the platypus and the echidna lay eggs, and some, like kangaroos give birth to
very poorly developed young ones.

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Whales, dolphins, porpoises, seals, walruses, and many other marine animals are
mammals, not fish. Apart from the options mentioned above, they have fur
(although it is very sparse on their body) and they provide milk for their young.
Q Source:Chapter 7: Page 94: 9th Science NCERT

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17 Russia has recently imposed economic sanctions against Turkey on the issue of
A. Turkey has shot down a Russian aircraft which entered its territory
B. Turkey supporting the Islamic State (ISIS) in its territory
C. Turkey was suspected to be involved in the development of chemical
weapons
D. Turkey was suspected to have instigated a coup in the Ukrainian region
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

SI

Learning:NATO member Turkey recently in November 2015 had shot down


Russian Sukhoi 24 (Su-24) warplane escalating crisis in bilateral relations of both
countries.

IN

Turkey has claimed that the Russian jet was shot down after it had crossed into its
airspace and ignored several warnings to change course. However, Russia has
furiously denied the claims and demanded an apology and economic compensation
from Turkey.
Russian economic sanctions covers Ban on imports from Turkey, work of Turkish
companies in Russia and any Turkish nationals working for Russian companies. It
also covers end to charter flights between the countries and urges Russian tour
operators to refrain from selling tourist packages to Turkey.
Q
Source:http://www.reuters.com/article/2015/12/01/us-mideast-crisis-russia-turkey-s
anction-idUSKBN0TK4SD20151201

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18 One of the criteria for recognizing a political party in a State by the ECI is if
A. It meets criteria of minimum assets in form of land and bank account
liquidity
B. It has won at least three local body elections since its formation
C. It has been engaged in political activity for a continuous period of five years.
D. At least one of the members of the party has been an MP for two terms
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Learning:Here are the criteria mentioned on the ECI website.

(A) that such party -

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A political party shall be treated as a recognised political party in a State, if and only
if either the conditions specified in Clause (A) are, or the condition specified in
Clause (B) is, fulfilled by that party and not otherwise, that is to say-

has been engaged in political activity for a continuous period of five years; and
has, at the last general election in that State to the House of the People, or, as the
case may be, to the Legislative Assembly of the State, returned-

either (i) at least one member to the House of the People for every twenty-five
members of that House or any fraction of that number from that State;

SI

or (ii) at least one member to the Legislative Assembly of that State for every thirty
members of that Assembly or any fraction of that number;

IN

To read clause (B) visithttp://eci.nic.in/eci_main1/RegisterationPoliticalParties.aspx


Q Source:Chapter 6: Page 11: 10th NCERT Polity

19 Consider the following about 'Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)'


1. It is an autonomous body under the ECI.
2. It is aided by the government.
3. The ECI relies on its criminal record findings to approve the nomination of political
candidates.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only

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C. 1 and 3 only
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

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Justification & Learning:The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR) is a


non-partisan, non-governmental organization which works in the area of electoral
and political reforms.
Along with National Election Watch (NEW), which is a conglomeration of over
1200 organizations across the country, ADR aims at bringing transparency and
accountability in Indian politics and reducing the influence of money and muscle
power in elections.

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Function & Research Areas

Election Watch or Analysis of Affidavits


Political Party Watch (PPW):
legal advocacy for Political and Electoral Reforms
Dissemination of information on elected representatives

Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 5: 10th NCERT Polity

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20 The apparent flattening of the Sun's disc at sunrise and sunset is due to
1. Formation of mirage on ground
2. Halo effect of the Sun
3. Cloud iridescence
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification:The actual reason is atmospheric refraction, which was covered in the
last Test.
A mirage has nothing to do with the flattening of the Sun's discs. So, 1 is incorrect.

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A Halo is an optical phenomenon produced by light interacting with ice crystals


suspended in the atmosphere, resulting in a wide variety of colored or white rings,
arcs and spots in the sky. It's not the reason for the flattening of the disc. So, 2 is
wrong.

Q Source:Xth NCERT

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Cloud iridescence is the occurrence of colors in a cloud similar to those seen in oil
films on puddles, and is similar to irisation. So, 3 is also incorrect.

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21 Which of the following are convincing arguments for adopting democracy?


1. Democratic nations have had a higher economic growth rate historically than
dictatorial regimes.
2. Only democratic nations can become members of the United Nations (UN).
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

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SI

Justification:Here is the table comparing growth rates in the recent past. There is no
evidence that democracies grow faster than dictatorships. In fact, the reverse has
been found to be true. So, 1 is wrong.

Non-democratic nations like Saudi Arabia, Syria are all members of UN. So, even
statement 2 is wrong.

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Q Source:Chapter 7: page 94: 10th NCERT Polity

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22 Artificial satellites and space probes like Mars orbiters generally use which source of
energy?
A. They exploit Dark energy of the outer space
B. They obtain energy from the microwaves and ultrasonic waves
C. They harness energy from gravitational waves
D. They get solar energy from the use of solar cells
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

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Justification:Science has not learnt to even understand dark energy. The question of
harnessing is distant. So, (a) is incorrect.
Microwaves are a part of the electromagnetic spectrum, which are used for
communication, not generating energy. So, (c) is incorrect.
Gravitational waves are primordial waves of the Universe. So, (c) is incorrect.

Learning:Solar cells, batteries and nuclear cells are some of the sources of energy
for artificial satellites and space probes.Solar cells also have other uses. Radio or
wireless transmission systems or TV relay stations in remote location use solar cell
panels.

SI

Traffic signals are also fitted with solar cells. The solar cell panels are mounted on
specially designed inclined roof tops so that more solar energy is incident over it.
The domestic use of solar cells is, however, limited due to its high cost.

IN

Q Source:Xth NCERT

23 Consider the following about IBSA, an international grouping of India, Brazil and South
Africa.
1. It originated through the Brasilia declaration.
2. India has not hosted any IBSA summit till date.
3. IBSA members are the largest democracies of their respective continents.
4. It runs the IBSA Facility for Hunger and Poverty Alleviation.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only

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C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

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Justification:India has hosted three IBSA (founded in 2003) summits, all in New
Delhin in 2008, 2013 and 2015 (planned). So, 2 is wrong.
The main objective of the IBSA Fund (established in 2004) is to benefit other
developing countries, particularly Least Developed Countries (LDCs) and Post
Conflict Reconstruction and Development (PCRD) countries around the world in
partnership with the UN. So, 4 is correct.

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Learning:This is a good article that compares the role of BRICS and IBSA.
We feel a question might come in this year UPSC Mains, or next year Prelims.
Q
Source:http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/the-bricks-to-rebuild-ibsa/article714
7509.ece

IN

SI

24 Coliform bacteria can


1. Spread Tuberculosis among humans
2. Act as an indicator of water pollution.
3. Indicate the presence of natural gas deposits in a certain area
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Justification:Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by bacteria (Mycobacterium
tuberculosis), not coliform. So, 1 is incorrect.
Natural gas deposits occur generally with oil. It has nothing to do with coliform
bacteria. So, 3 is incorrect.

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Coliform bacteria are a commonly used bacterial indicator of sanitary quality of


foods and water (e.g. in Ganges water). So, 2 is correct.

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Learning:Coliforms can be found in the aquatic environment, in soil and on


vegetation; they are universally present in large numbers in the feces of warmblooded animals. While coliforms themselves are not normally causes of serious
illness, they are easy to culture, and their presence is used to indicate that other
pathogenic organisms of fecal origin may be present.
E. coli), a rod-shaped member of the coliform group. Most strains of E. coli are
harmless, but some can cause serious illness in humans. Infection symptoms and
signs include bloody diarrhea, stomach cramps, vomiting and occasionally, fever.

H
TS

Q Source:Xth NCERT

25 In India, the 'Constitution' of political parties must be approved by


A. The Chief Election Commissioner of India
B. Election Commission of India in case of national parties, and Chief Secretary
of the state in case of state parties
C. All State Election Commissions in which they fight elections
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

SI

Justification:The constitution of political parties defines their composition,


governance structures, mandate, vision, mission etc. It serves as an inner check on
the party members and cannot be violated. It need not be approved by anybody.

IN

However, if the manifestos issued by the political parties contain something


objectionable, an appeal can be filed to the ECI. OR if a registered political party
has an objectionable constitution (e.g. seditious content), it can be banned (e.g.
Maoist parties) by the government and ECI.
Q Source:Chapter 6: page 75: 10th NCERT Polity

26 Some hybrid varieties of crops are developed to tackle 'biotic and abiotic stresses'. What
do you understand by this?
1. By preventing the plant to biologically choose its own agronomic characteristics
2. Crop can tackle conditions of greater than normal cold or frost

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3. Making the crop insect-resistant


Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
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Justification: Crops production can go down due to biotic (diseases, insects and
nematodes) and abiotic (drought, salinity, water logging, heat, cold and frost)
stresses under different situations. Varieties resistant to these stresses can improve
crop production. So, 2 and 3 are correct.
Agronomic characteristics are tallness, dwarfness etc of plants. Tallness and profuse
branching are desirable characters for fodder crops. Dwarfness is desired in cereals.
But, these are not part of biotic and abiotic stresses. So, 1 is incorrect.
Learning: Varieties or strains of crops can be selected by breeding for various
useful characteristics such as disease resistance, response to fertilisers, product
quality and high yields.

SI

One way of incorporating desirable characters into crop varieties is by hybridisation.


Hybridisation refers to crossing between genetically dissimilar plants. This crossing
may be intervarietal (between different varieties), interspecific (between two
different species of the same genus) or intergeneric (between different genera).

IN

Another way of improving the crop is by introducing a gene that would provide the
desired characteristic. This results in genetically modified crops.
Q Source: Chapter 15: Page 204: 9th Science NCERT

27 The SEBI-FMC merger will allow Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to
A. Monitor speculation in stock market
B. Track and take action against malpractices in commodity futures market
C. Fine retailers and firms involved in inflating prices due to hoarding
D. Regulate futuristic mergers of food related corporations in India
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

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Justification SEBI already monitors speculation in stock market. So, (a) is not
appropriate answer, given (b).
Fining retailers for hoarding comes under the jurisdiction of local governments. So,
(c) is wrong.

IA
S

SEBI cannot regulate any mergers and acquisitions. It falls under the domain of
other regulatory authorities like CCI. So, (d) is also wrong.
Learning: Under the Forward Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1952, which regulates
commodity trading in India, a forward contract is a contract for the actual delivery
of goods. On the other hand, a futures contract is one where the buyer can settle the
contract in cash as well.

H
TS

With SEBI-FMC merger, SEBI is set to take over regulation of commodities


markets as well. However, it is not comfortable with forward contracts in
commodity exchanges. SEBI's concern stems from two facts:
One, unlike futures contracts, forward contracts are not standardised;
Two, there's greater counterparty risk associated with forward contracts.
You can also read the article below to understand it better.

SI

Q Source:
http://indianexpress.com/article/explained/merger-of-sebi-and-fmc-what-it-means-fo
r-market-players/

IN

28 In areas with light soils, crops get adversely affected by drought conditions. Why?
A. Light soils have less water retention capacity.
B. Light soils have low iron content.
C. Light soils cannot be irrigated unlike dense soils.
D. Light soils change their mineral nutrients composition on dehydrating.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification Iron content in the crop will remain the same before and after drought.
So, (b) can't be the answer.
Light soils can be as easily irrigated, and in fact more frequently, as dense soils. So,
(c) is incorrect.

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They don't change mineral nutrient composition on drying. In severe drought,


organic matter may however dry up. So, (d) is also incorrect.

IA
S

Learning: Sandy soils have high proportion of sand and little clay. Also known as
light soils, these soils drain quickly after rain or watering, are easy to cultivate and
work. They warm up more quickly in spring than clay soils. But on the downside,
they dry out quickly and are low in plant nutrients, which are quickly washed out by
rain. Sandy soils are often very acidic.
Q Source: Chapter 15: Page 207: 9th Science NCERT

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29 United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) Fellini


Medal is awarded for
A. Extraordinary work of courage in preservation of natural heritages
B. Publishing scientific literature of value to better conserve ancient heritages
C. Artists who have created cultural work of astounding value to humanity
D. Rewarding notable efforts to boost the art of film
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

Learning: The Federico Fellini Gold Medal was created by UNESCO in 1995 to
pay tribute to major figures in the film industry, and to notable efforts to boost the
art of film.

IN

SI

International Film Festival India (IFFI) 2015 in collaboration with the International
Council for Film, Television and Audiovisual Communication (ICFT), Paris will
present a special ICFT prize consisting of the UNESCO Fellini Medal, awarded to a
film, which reflects the ideals promoted by UNESCO.
Five Indian films have been shortlisted from the official selection of IFFI following
the recommendations of the Film Preview Committee constituted by the Directorate
of the Film Festivals. This award will be given at IFFI for the first time.
Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/mbErel.aspx?relid=131991
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/mumbai/UnescoFellini-award-to-be-presente
d-at-IFFI-this-year/articleshow/49952872.cms

30 Consider the following about the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban
Transformation (AMRUT) scheme

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1. The scheme can be implemented with public private partnership model (PPP)
model.
2. It will be funded jointly by the Centre and States.
3. Projects will be executed by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs).
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

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Learning: In case the ULBs do not have adequate capacity to handle projects, the
State Government may recommend in State Action Plan (SAAP), upon a Resolution
passed by the ULB, for the execution of the projects by specialized parastatal
agencies of the State or Central Governments.
Public Private Partnerships (PPP), which should be the preferred execution model.
The PPP should include appropriate Service Level Agreements (SLAs) with strong
citizen feedback built into it. This will lead to the People Public Private Partnership
(PPPP) model.

To know the focus areas of the scheme, you can refer to

SI

Q Source: :
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/amrut-to-roll-out-on-a-smaller-scale/
article7868200.ece

IN

31 Apart from bacteria, which of the following living species may be involved in the
nitrogen cycle in our atmosphere?
1. Animals
2. Green plants
3. Humans
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :

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Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification & Learning: Plants generally take up nitrates and nitrites and convert
them into amino acids which are used to make proteins.

IA
S

These proteins and other complex compounds are subsequently consumed by


animals.

Once the animal or the plant dies, other bacteria in the soil convert the various
compounds of nitrogen back into nitrates and nitrites. A different type of bacteria
converts the nitrates and nitrites into elemental nitrogen.

H
TS

Thus, there is a nitrogen-cycle in nature in which nitrogen passes from its elemental
form in the atmosphere into simple molecules in the soil and water, which get
converted to more complex molecules in living beings and back again to the simple
nitrogen molecule in the atmosphere.
Q Source: Chapter 14: Page 198: 9th Science NCERT

SI

32 Why Ozone does not contribute to warming of atmosphere near to Earth's surface?
A. It is not stable near Earth's surface.
B. It can contribute to warming only where weather phenomenon is absent.
C. Sun's rays near earth's surface do not contain ultraviolet rays
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

IN

Justification & Learning The oxygen we find in our atmosphere is made up of two
oxygen atoms (O2). Because of its chemical formulation, a single atom of oxygen
(O) is unstable. That is, it wants to combine with something else. That is why
oxygen is almost always found in pairs, in its (diatomic) form, where it is more
stable. O3 is less stable than O2, because it wants to return to the diatomic state by
giving up an oxygen atom.
When enough ozone molecules are present, it forms a pale blue gas. It is an unstable
molecule that readily combines with other atoms. So, (a) is correct.
Ozone has the same chemical structure whether it is found in the stratosphere or the
troposphere, and so has the same warming potential. Option (b) is thus wrong.

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Ultraviolet rays do not cause warming, infrared does. So, (c) is also wrong.
Q Source Chapter 14: Page 200: 9th Science NCERT

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IA
S

33 What is Advance Pricing Agreements (APAs) signed recently between Indian


authorities and several MNCs?
A. An agreement to regulate futures trading by the MNCs
B. An agreement to restrict the involvement of MNCs in security markets and
speculation
C. An agreement for appropriating transfer pricing methodology.
D. An agreement to restrict upwards revision of price of sensitive commodities
in India
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Justification: The concept of APA is related with that of transfer pricing. It has
been covered in the last test. We repeat it here again.

In the past, several Multi-National Companies (MNCs) operating in India were often
accused of misusing the transfer pricing system. MNCs like Vodafone, Shell, WNS
and Nokia were mainly involved in this issue by misusing the system for
transferring profits to their subsidiaries in countries having low tax rates.

SI

By signing APAs, Government is seeking to foster an environment of co-operation


in matters of taxation through predictability of laws and reducing litigation cases in
future. It is considered as a major push towards providing certainty to foreign
investors in the arena of transfer pricing.

IN

Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=131961

34 You are verbally communicating with your friend who is separated from you by a large
space which can be filled with any one of the following at a time.
1. Distilled Water
2. Hydrogen
3. Sea water
Your friend is likely to hear you earliest and latest in which mediums respectively?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 2

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D. 1 and 3
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

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Justification Speed of sound depends on the density of the medium. Here the speed
of sound is highest in sea water, followed by distilled water and hydrogen.
So, your friend will hear you earliest through Sea water medium and latest in
Hydrogen filled medium. So, (c) is correct.

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Learning: The speed of sound in a medium depends also on temperature and


pressure of the medium. The speed of sound decreases when we go from solid to
gaseous state. In any medium as we increase the temperature the speed of sound
increases.
For example, the speed of sound in air is 331 m/s at 0 degrees Celsius and 344 m/s
at 22 degrees Celsius.
Q Source: Chapter 12: Page 167: 9th Science NCERT

IN

SI

35 Apart from vehicles, Bharat stage (BS) norms are emission standards for
1. Industrial chimneys
2. Mining corporations
3. Natural gas exploration companies
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification: Bharat stage (BS) norms are emission standards decided by the
government to regulate the amount of air pollutants from vehicles.
They are not imposed on any industry as such. So, all statements are wrong.
Learning: They were adopted in line with European regulation standard 'Euro
norms' in 2000. So far, 4 states of Bharat stage (BS) norms have been issued by

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government. In each stage certain limit is specified on the released pollutants and in
the succeeding higher stages, the BS norms reduces the limit of pollutant emission
Union Government has recently decided to advance the date for implementation of
Bharat Stage (BS) V and BS VI emission norms for four-wheelers in order to reduce
vehicular air pollution from road transport sector.

IA
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Q SourceQ Source:
http://www.business-standard.com/article/pti-stories/govt-advances-roll-out-of-bs-vand-bs-vi-norms-for-4-wheelers-115112800399_1.html

H
TS

36 Which of the following factors did NOT contribute/propel the Vietnam War?
A. Anti-communist agenda
B. Fight against colonialism
C. North Korean acquisition of Vietnam
D. Coup in Vietnam government
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

Justification: It started as a fight against French colonial capture. So, (b) is a factor.

Japan has acquired some territories of Indo-China by force, not North Korea. In fact,
the latter was a supporter of communist forces in Vietnam. So, (c) is incorrect.

SI

USA's cold war policy of containment of communism was a major factor in fuelling
the Vietnam War. So, (a) is a factor.
Ousting and assassination of Ng

IN

Ousting and assassination of Ng ?nh Di?m also insued political instability in


Vietnam, destabilized the region and fuelled the war further. So, (d) was a factor.
Q Source: 10th NCERT World History

37 Under the Global Initiative of Academic Networks (GIAN) Scheme


1. Public institutions will be subsidized to engage in cutting edge research with global
universities.
2. New Indian institutions will be established abroad in collaboration with high level
international research organs.

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Which of the above is/are correct?


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

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Justification: There is no provision of subsidy as such.

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GIAN Scheme aims at improving the quality of higher education in the country
through international collaboration. Facilitate participation of high quality
international academicians for delivering short-term courses and programs in Indian
institutions.
Initially 500 international faculties will be engaged in conducting courses and later
in subsequent years 1000 faculties would be engaged under GIAN throughout India.
So, both 1 and 2 are wrong. They do not come under the ambit of GIAN scheme.

Q Source:
http://news.niticentral.com/2015/11/30/smriti-irani-launches-the-global-initiative-ofacademic-networks-gian/

IN

SI

38 Consider the following about the force of gravity.


1. It plays an important role in formation of tides.
2. It is applicable to massless particles.
3. It is an important factor in deciding the shape of a minor planet.
Select the correct answer using the cods below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification: Gravity acts only on particles having some mass. So, 2 is incorrect.
Tides are caused due to the gravitational forces of the sun and moon. So, 1 is

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correct.
Gravity is the dominant force at the macroscopic scale, which is the cause of the
formation, shape, and trajectory (orbit) of astronomical bodies, including those of
asteroids, comets, planets, stars, and galaxies. So, 3 is correct.

IA
S

Learning: You can refer to Test-3 where the concept of gravity was covered.
Q Source: Chapter 10: Page 131: 9th Science NCERT

H
TS

39 Which of the following tiers of government is constitutionally authorized to issue


ordinances on Municipalities?
A. Central government
B. State government
C. Zila Parishad
D. Any of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

Justification: Local bodies like PRIs, municipalities fall under the State List. It
contains subjects of State and local importance such as police, trade, commerce,
agriculture and irrigation.

SI

The State Governments alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in
the State List.

IN

However, this does not stop the Parliament to amend the constitution with the
consent of majority of state government with regard to local bodies, as it did in the
73rd and 74th amendment.
Q Source: Chapter 2: Page 17: 10th NCERT Polity

40 In a federal structure, power is usually divided across which of the following


categories?
1. Legislative
2. Financial
3. Administrative
4. National military
5. Diplomatic

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Select the correct answer using the codes below.


A. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 5 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification: Take the example of India.

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Legislative power is divided by 7th schedule of constitution- Union list, State list,
Concurrent List and Residuary list.

H
TS

Administrative powers are divided by several articles such as A256, 355 etc.
Financial powers are divided in A245-293 (e.g. A280 Finance Commission).
Diplomatic powers are divided in the 7th schedule itself. Only Central government
has the power to enter into international conventions etc.
The same goes for military, which is shared exclusively with the Centre.

Q Source: Chapter 2: 10th NCERT Polity

IN

SI

41 The 'Keynesian revolution' is related to


A. A critic of the free market economic system
B. Dynamic role of agriculture in industrial development
C. The theory of mercantilism which advocates increasing wealth by more
exports
D. Development of a centrally planned economic system
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification Option (c) was popular even prior to Adam Smith gave his laissez
fairez theory.
The role of agriculture in industrial development had been recognized only recently.
So, (b) is wrong.

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Centrally planned economic system was the socialistic prescription of the Soviet
Era. Keynes did not advocate central planning; he instead advocated appropriate
fiscal and monetary policies by government which could stabilize an economy in
case of a shock.

IA
S

He argued that free market system does not always lead to full employment,
economic stability and welfare of citizens. So, (d) is incorrect and (a) is correct.
Q Source: Chapter 4: Page 97: 10th NCERT World History

H
TS

42 Consider the following about the National Highways Authority of India.


1. It has been established by an act of Parliament.
2. It is an autonomous agency of the Government of India.
3. Only NHAI has the authority to approve PPP projects for national highways.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

SI

Justification: NHAI was created through the promulgation of the National


Highways Authority of India Act, 1988. In February 1995, the Authority was
formally made an autonomous body.

IN

It is also a nodal agency of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. So, 1 and
2 both are correct.
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approves large PPP projects
in highways. NHAI implements them. So, 3 is incorrect.
Q Source: Improvisation: Yojana November 2015Page 27

43 ASW Corvette Kadmatt of the Indian Navy is


A. A sophisticated RADAR system fitted near lighthouses to detect pirate
activities
B. A fleet of ships tied together technologically to act as first defence against a
costal attack

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C. A submarine that generates in-house nuclear power and can stay for long
periods near sea beds
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Learning: The second Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) Corvette INS Kadmatt has
been formally handed over to Indian Navy. It is an indigenous anti-submarine
warship.
INS Kadmatt is super-sophisticated frontline ship having following features.

H
TS

It has been equipped with total atmospheric control ventilation system which
makes warship fully capable to fight in nuclear, biological and chemical
warfare environments. Ship's main role:
It will protect nation's maritime interests against possible submarine attack.
Provide potent platform for neutralising the enemy submarines using
deployed weapons like torpedoes, rocket launchers and helicopter.

Q Source:
http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/indian-navy-gets-second-indige
nous-anti-submarine-warship-kadmatt/articleshow/49936650.cms

IN

SI

44 Which of the following developments could be causal factors behind World War-I?
1. Pan-Slav movement
2. Race for colonies amongst European empires
3. Truman Doctrine
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification: Truman doctrine is the USA cold war policy of communism
containment. It is not related to the World War I. So, 3 is incorrect.
Race for colonies and European domination took the following forms- competition

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to control declining Ottoman Empire e.g. Secret pacts like Sykes Picot Agreement
1916 entered b/w britain and Russia for dividing Ottoman Empire etc. So, 2 is
correct.

IA
S

Pan Slav movement - All slave countries wanted to Unite - like unification of
Germany, Italy, but Austria resisted it. It was a major factor behind WW-I. So, 1 is
correct.
Q Source: 10th NCERT World History & Contemporary events (2014 marked 100
years of WW-I)

H
TS

45 Fungi can be used for


1. Therapeutic purposes
2. Pest control in agricultural fields
3. Bioremediation
4. Improving the photosynthetic efficiency of crops
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

SI

Justification & Learning: Justification & Learning:

IN

This chemical communication changes plant gene expression and provides a range
of benefits to plant performance.
They induce systemic resistance to disease, they increase substantially to resistance
to abiotic stress, and they improve the efficiency of nitrogen use. They also
frequently increase plant growth and deep rooting.
All of these processes require energy, and these fungi induce improved
photosynthetic efficiency in plants. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Statement 1: Certain mushrooms enjoy usage as therapeutics in folk medicines, such
as Traditional Chinese medicine. So, 1 is correct.
Statement 2: In agriculture, fungi may be useful if they actively compete for

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nutrients and space with pathogenic microorganisms such as bacteria or other fungi.
For example, certain fungi may be used to eliminate or suppress the growth of
harmful plant pathogens, such as insects, mites, weeds, nematodes. So, 2 is correct.

IA
S

Statement 3: Certain fungi, in particular "white rot" fungi, can degrade insecticides,
herbicides, pentachlorophenol, creosote, coal tars, and heavy fuels and turn them
into carbon dioxide, water, and basic elements. Fungi have been shown to
biomineralize uranium oxides, suggesting they may have application in the
bioremediation of radioactively polluted sites. So, 3 is correct.
Q Source Chapter 7: Page 87: 9th Science NCERT

SI

H
TS

46 Which of the following schemes has/have been subsumed under 'Swachha Bharat
Abhiyaan'?
1. JNNURM
2. Slum Development Scheme
3. National Service Scheme
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

Justification: JNNURM was subsumed under other urban development schemes of


Smart Cities, AMRUT etc. So, 1 is incorrect.

IN

Slum development scheme (Rajiv Gandhi) is not a part of Swachha Bharat


Abhiyaan (see objectives below). So, 2 is incorrect.
NSS is about voluntary service. People participate for any social cause under NSS. It
has not been subsumed. The scheme remains intact. So, 3 is incorrect.
Learning This campaign aims to accomplish the vision of a 'Clean India' by 2
October 2019, the 150th birthday of Mahatma Gandhi. Specific objectives are:
Eliminate open defecation by constructing toilets for households,
communities
Eradicate manual scavenging

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introduce modern and scientific municipal solid waste management practices


Enable private sector participation in the sanitation sector
Change people's attitudes to sanitation and create awareness
The program plans to construct 12 crore toilets in rural India by October
2019, at a projected cost of ?1.96 lakh crore

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Q Source: Yojana November 201 5 Page 66

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47 Apart from carbon dioxide, which of the following gases is required/produced/absorbed


by plants in the process of photosynthesis?
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Oxygen
3. Nitrogen dioxide
4. Hydrogen
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

SI

Justification: In order to carry on photosynthesis, green plants need a supply of


carbon dioxide and a means of disposing of oxygen. Oxygen and glucose is
produced in photosynthesis, when CO2 and water combine in the presence of
sunlight and chlorophyll. So, only 2 is correct.

IN

Learning: In order to carry on cellular respiration, plant cells need oxygen and a
means of disposing of carbon dioxide.
Q Source: Chapter 6: Page 72: 9th Science NCERT

48 What do you understand by the term 'Captive power plant'?


A. Privately managed power plants that are subsidized by government in
national interest
B. Power plants established near sea ports and harbours
C. A power plant set up by an individual or an industry generally for private use
D. A power plant that is connected to all grids in the country
User Answer :

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Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Justification & Learning: A captive power plant is a facility that is dedicated to
providing a localised source of power to an energy user.

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These are typically industrial facilities or large offices. The plants may operate in
grid parallel mode with the ability to export surplus power to the local electricity
distribution network.
Alternatively they may have the ability to operate in island mode; i.e. independently
of the local electricity distribution system.

H
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Since the announcement of private power policy of the Government of India in


1991, a number of proposals, including a large number of proposals from foreign
promoters, have been received through Independent Power Producer (IPP) route.
Q Source Improvisation: Yojana November 2015 Page 59

IN

SI

49 Which of the following have a bearing on environmental conservation in India?


1. DPSP
2. Fundamental Rights
3. 73rd amendment
4. 74th amendment
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 only
B. 1, 3 ad 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification: DPSP: Article 48A : Protection and improvement of environment and
safeguarding of forests and wild life
FR: Article 21A: Right to Clean environment
73rd amendment: Land improvement, implementation of land reforms, land
consolidation and soil conservation; Fuel and fodder; Social forestry and farm
forestry; Maintenance of community assets. Etc can be devolved to PRIs.

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74th amendment: Public health, sanitation, conservancy and solid waste


management; Urban forestry, protection of the environment and promotion of
ecological aspects etc. can be devolved to ULBs.
Q Source: HLC report Nov 2014 MoEF

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http://envfor.nic.in/sites/default/files/press-releases/Final_Report_of_HLC.pdf

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50 Which of the following about G-77, a coalition of developing nations, is correct?


A. India and China are the co-founders of G-77.
B. It founded the Non-Alignment movement (NAM), 1961.
C. Being an informal grouping, it is officially not recognized by bodies of
United Nations.
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification China was not a co-founder of G77. So, (a) is incorrect.
NAM was founded by a group of five nations India, Egypt, Indonesia, Ghana and
Yogoslavia. So, (b) is incorrect.

SI

There are Chapters of the Group of 77 in Rome (FAO), Vienna (UNIDO), Paris
(UNESCO), Nairobi (UNEP) and the Group of 24 in Washington, D.C.
(International Monetary Fund and World Bank). So, (c) is incorrect.

IN

Learning: It was designed to promote its members' collective economic interests


(such as climate change) and create an enhanced joint negotiating capacity in the
United Nations. There were 77 founding members of the organization, but by 2013
the organization had since expanded to 134 member countries.
South Africa holds the Chairmanship for 2015.
Q Source: Chapter 4: Page 100: 10th NCERT World History

51 which of the following treaties have NOT been ratified by India?


1. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
2. Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety
3. Rotterdam Convention
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

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A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 3 only
D. All have been ratified.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Learning:The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological
Diversity is an international agreement on biosafety, as a
supplement to the Convention on Biological Diversity. The Biosafety Protocol seeks
to protect biological diversity from the potential risks posed by genetically modified
organisms resulting from modern biotechnology.

H
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The Biosafety Protocol makes clear that products from new technologies must be
based on the precautionary principle and allow developing nations to balance public
health against economic benefits.
Visithttp://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/treaties/international-treaties.html for
a list of important treaties.

IN

SI

52 which of the following statements about the League of Nations is INCORRECT?


A. It was the first international organisation whose principal mission was to
maintain world peace.
B. It aimed at collective security and disarmament.
C. USA did not join the league.
D. Its membership was open only to industrially developed nations.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification: The need for maintaining world peace was visibly felt after WW-I.
Hence, the LoN came into existence in 1920 as a result of the Paris Peace
Conference that ended the First World War. So, (a) is correct.
Its primary goals, as stated in its Covenant, included preventing wars through
collective security and disarmament and settling international disputes through
negotiation and arbitration. So, (b) is correct.
Many developing nations like Ecuador, Paraguay joined the league. So, (d) is

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incorrect.
It was dissolved in 1946 to form United Nations.
Q Source:10th NCERT World History

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53 which of the following can produce infrasound?


1. Earthquakes
2. Avalanches
3. Tsunamis
4. Volcanoes
5. Diesel engines
6. Aurorae
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 4, 5 and 6 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

Justification & Learning:Infrasound can result from both natural and human
sources:

SI

It sometimes results naturally from severe weather, surf, lee waves, avalanches,
earthquakes, volcanoes, bolides, waterfalls, calving of icebergs, aurorae, meteors,
lightning and upper-atmospheric lightning.

IN

Infrasound can be generated by human processes such as sonic booms and


explosions (both chemical and nuclear), or by machinery such as diesel engines,
wind turbines and specially designed mechanical transducers (industrial vibration
tables). Certain specialized loudspeaker designs are also able to reproduce extremely
low frequencies
Scientists have picked up infrasounds from two tsunamis during 2006 in the pacific
ocean. To study the phenomena systematically the researchers have recently set up a
tsunami infrasound project in Hawaii. The scientists hope to learn how the giant
waves produce infrasound, which is currently a mystery.
Rhinoceroses communicate using infrasound of frequency as low as 5 Hz. Whales

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and elephants produce sound in the infrasound range. It is observed that some
animals get disturbed before earthquakes.
Q Source:Chapter 12: Page 170: 9th Science NCERT

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54 Ecomark Scheme of India is related with


1. Marking densely forested regions with GPS for better space monitoring
2. Creating eco sensitive areas (ESAs) around biosphere reserves
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

Justification: Ecomark is a certification mark issued by the Bureau of Indian


Standards (the national standards organization of India) to products conforming to a
set of standards aimed at the least impact on the ecosystem.

The marking scheme was started in 1991. One of the purposes of the mark is
increasing awareness among the consumers towards reducing environment impact.

SI

The mark is issued to various product categories and the development of standards
for more products is in progress.

IN

Q
Source:http://www.moef.nic.in/public-information/national-action-programme-com
bat-desertification-0

55 United Kingdom (UK) consists of which of the following regions?


1. Greenland
2. Wales
3. Northern Ireland
4. Scandinavia
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only

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D. 2 and 3 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

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Learning: UK has been in news for a variety of reasons (PM's visit; demand for
Ireland autonomy, monarchical system issues etc.)
The United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, commonly known as
the United Kingdom (UK) or Britain, is a sovereign state in Europe.
The UK consists of four countries: England, Scotland, Wales, and Northern Ireland.
The latter three have devolved administrations, each with varying powers,

H
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The nearby Isle of Man, Bailiwick of Guernsey and Bailiwick of Jersey are not part
of the United Kingdom, being Crown dependencies with the British Government
responsible for defence and international representation.
Q Source: 10th NCERT World History & Contemporary events

IN

SI

56 The provision for equal wage to man and woman for equal work is given in
1. Fundamental Duties
2. Directive Principles of State policy
3. The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Justification:The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 provides that equal wages should
be paid to equal work for men and women. It was enacted in pursuance of the DPSP.
Article 39: "The State shall in particular, direct its policy towards securing that the citizen, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means
of
livelihood.

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that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are
so
distributed as best to subserve the common good.
that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration
of
wealth and means of production to the common detriment.
that there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 4: 10th NCERT Polity

H
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57 Balkanization' is a term that is often used in political discourse. It means


A. Fragmentation of a state into smaller units that can be hostile with one
another
B. Excessive centralization of authority away from satellite states of a nation
C. A stage in the development of certain feudal states
D. Segregation within a nation that may emerge from economic displacements
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

Justification:Option (d) is known as'social or national polarization' and is a general


term. Hence not appropriate here.
Option (c) is known as feudal fragmentation, hence incorrect.

SI

Option (b) may be a cause of balkanization, but is not known as balkanization.


Hence, incorrect.

IN

Leaning:The term refers to the division of the Balkan peninsula, formerly ruled
almost entirely by the Ottoman Empire, into a number of smaller states between
1817 and 1912.
In India, the term is often employed to discuss the implications of extreme
regionoalism in the NE and some other parts of the country. Refer to the article
below to understand it.
http://www.asianews.it/news-en/Balkanization-of-India:-a-roadmap-of-Beijing-1611
3.html
Q Source:10th NCERT World History & Contemporary events

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58 When a gun is fired, it exerts a forward force on the bullet. But, the pace at which the
gun recoils is much lesser than that of bullet. What can be the reason for this?
A. The bullet is being shot from the barrel of the Gun, which is its source.
B. The Gun extends even behind the bullet in position, so it recoils lesser.
C. Bullet is made from frictionless material and then shot, whereas the Gun is
held in hand
D. Gun has larger mass than the bullet
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

H
TS

Justification & Learning:The third law of motion states that when one object
exerts a force on another object, the second object instantaneously exerts a force
back on the first. These two forces are always equal in magnitude but opposite in
direction.
It is important to note that even though the action and reaction forces are always
equal in magnitude, these forces may not produce accelerations of equal magnitudes.
This is because each force acts on a different object that may have a different mass.

When a gun is fired, it exerts a forward force on the bullet. The bullet exerts an
equal and opposite reaction force on the gun. This results in the recoil of the gun.
Since the gun has a much greater mass than the bullet, the acceleration of the gun is
much less than the acceleration of the bullet.

SI

Hence, (d) is correct.

IN

Q Source: Chapter 9: Page 122: 9th Science NCERT

59 Apart from China and India, trade on the Silk Road was a significant factor in the
development of the civilizations of
1. Europe
2. Horn of Africa
3. Scandinavia
4. West Africa
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. None of the above

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User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification:Below is the map of the Silk Road. We are emphasizing on Silk road
as it is important for Prelims, due to China's One road One belt initiative.

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The road connected civilizations across Europe, Asia (including Persia, Arabia) and
Africa (only the horn part).
The disappearance of the Silk Road following the end of the Mongols' reign was one
of the main factors that stimulated the Europeans to reach the prosperous Chinese
empire through another route, especially by sea.

IN

SI

H
TS

The direct ocean route from Europe to the East was finally opened by the
expeditions of Bartolomeu Dias (1488), and Vasco da Gama (1497-1499), by the
Atlantic and the Indian oceans.

Q Source:10th NCERT World History & Contemporary events

60 Which of the following could NOT have contributed to Great Depression of 1930s?
1. Agricultural over-production
2. Credit contraction by USA
3. Fragile post-World War I economy

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Select the correct answer using the codes below.


A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. All factors could have contributed.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

H
TS

Justification: Statement 1: During the war time, most of the wheat exports went to
war zones. Moreover, production in Eastern Europe had declined. After the war,
when production in Eastern Europe resumed, it led to over-supply and falling prices.
Thus income of farmers declined and this led to an overall decline in the demand,
investment and production.
Statement 2: In the 1920s, most countries financed their investments by borrowing
from the US. US overseas lenders panicked at the economic slowdown, and
withdrew most loans from the market. This withdrawal of credit affected Europe as
its banks collapsed and major currencies depreciated greatly. Moreover, US hiked
import duties to save its economy. All this dealt a severe blow to the global
economy.

SI

Statement 3: Fragile post-war economy: war goods during the FWW had created
most of the production boom. With the war ending, this production declined, leading
to job losses, decline in income and further decline in demand of goods. It created a
vicious cycle of low demand, low investment and unemployment.
Q Source:Chapter 4: Page 95: 10th NCERT World History

IN

61 Ports in India are classified as Major and Minor Ports according to


A. Jurisdiction of Central or State government
B. Whether they are located in a major or minor town
C. The tariffs charged at the ports
D. The destinations both domestic and international that they serve
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification & Learning:Ports in India are classified as Major and Minor Ports
according to the jurisdiction of the Central and State government as defined under
the Indian Ports Act, 1908. So, (a) is correct.

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Major Ports are under the Union list of the Indian Constitution and are
administered under the Indian Ports Act 1908 and the Major Port Trust Act,
1963. Each major port is governed by a Board of Trustees appointed by the
Government of India.
The tariffs for major ports are fixed by the Tariff Authority for Major Ports
(TAMP).
Minor operates are managed at the State level by the department in charge of
ports or the State Maritime Board, if created, as is the case in Gujarat,
Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
The functions of the State maritime boards are similar to those of port trusts,
and also include the authority to set tariffs. They also focus on attracting
private investment by awarding concession contracts, providing incentives,
exclusivity rights and assuring land acquisition.

H
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Q Source:Yojana November 2015 Page 19

IN

SI

62 How was the Jute industry affected after partition in India?


1. All the jute mills went to Eastern Pakistan.
2. Majority of jute growing areas in India went to Eastern Pakistan.
3. No marketing system for Jute existed in India thereafter and had to be created
afresh.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 2 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification & Learning:Due to Partition an articial barrier between jute supplydemand in India as 81% of existing jute cultivation was in what became East
Pakistan, while all of the mills were in West Bengal.
Moreover, East Pakistan imposed export duties on raw jute, and selectively reduced
the quality of jute shipped to India. Most of the Jute Industrialist started to evacuate
India, leaving behind the industrial setup of the Jute Industry. The twin results were
a sharp decline in the supply of raw jute to Indian mills, and a subsequent increase in
the price of raw jute until 1950 (remaining near WWII price levels).

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Hence, there was a reduction of the quality of the finished product in India. India's
textile export decreased as the result of these developments.
Q Source: Chapter 3: 10th NCERT World History

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63 Multinational corporations (MNCs) are those entities which


A. invest in security markets of a nation abroad
B. invest in sovereign bonds of at least two or more nations
C. are allowed to raise funding from abroad
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

H
TS

Justification:Even a retail investor (a common man) can invest in security markets


abroad. Also, several stock brokerage firms (operating within only one nation) can
invest all over the World. They are not called MNCs. So, (a) is wrong.
Similar to the reasoning mentioned above, (b) is wrong.

It is possible for even a domestic firm to raise capital from abroad. It becomes an
MNC only when it operates in more than one nation. So, (c) is wrong.

SI

Learning:The first MNCs were established in the 1920s. Many more came up in the
1950s and 1960s as US businesses expanded worldwide and Western Europe and
Japan also recovered to become powerful industrial economies.

IN

The worldwide spread of MNCs was a notable feature of the 1950s and 1960s. This
was partly because high import tariffs imposed by different governments forced
MNCs to locate their manufacturing operations and become'domestic producers' in
as many countries as possible.
Q Source: Chapter 4: Page 100: 10th NCERT World History

64 Which of the following provisions ensure that the federal structure of a polity is
maintained?
1. Constitution cannot be amended completely/fundamentally by any one level of
2. government.
3. There is an independent judiciary which resolves disputes between the federal
organs.

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Which of the above is/are correct?


A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

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Justification:Statement 1: The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be


unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent
of both the levels of government. For e.g. Central govt. In India cannot usurp all
powers of the states in the state list of the 7th schedule.

H
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Statement 2: Suppose, if any one government resolved the disputes between federal
constituents, there will be a violation of natural justice. So, an independent judiciary
is needed.
Q Source: Chapter 2: Page 15: 10th NCERT Polity

IN

SI

65 Gomasthas' in pre-independent India referred to


A. An Indian agent of the British East India Company employed to sign
agreements with local labour
B. The local zamindars responsible for collection of revenue for the British
treasury
C. Earliest Indian entrepreneurs that lobbied for'Discriminating Protection' by
the British
D. A union of merchants that financed the earliest Indian cotton industries
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Learning:In the 18th century, the East India Company had established itself in
India. Indian cotton and silk fabrics were in great demand worldwide and hence
were of special interest to them.
It proceeded to develop a system of management and control that would eliminate
competition, control costs, and ensure regular supplies of cotton and silk goods.
Given the small number of Englishmen, and their unfamiliarity with the local
language and society, the Company turned to local intermediaries, and gave them
legal authority to enforce contracts.

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The Company tried to eliminate the existing traders and brokers connected with the
cloth trade, and establish a more direct control over
the weaver. For this purpose they appointed paid servants called the gomasthas were
employed who would obtain goods and from local weavers and fix their prices.

IA
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The prices fixed were 15 per cent lower than market price and in extreme cases,
even 40 per cent lower than the market price.
They would also supervise weavers, collect supplies, and examine the quality of
cloth. They also prevented Company weavers from dealing with other buyers.
Q Source: Chapter 5: Page 126: 10th NCERT World History

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66 The Temperance movement of 19th century Britain and America was a middleclass-led
social reform movement against the social evil of alcoholism. It draws a parallel in India
with the popular
A. Sarvodaya campaign against alcohol of 1960s
B. Chhattisgarh Mukti Morcha (CMM) rally of 1980s
C. Unmoolan Andolan in West Bengal 1970s
D. Peoples Action for Rural Awakening (PARA) 1980s
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

SI

Justification:Taking care of innocent children is one of the prime concerns of


PARA. So, (d) is wrong.
CMM rally was about miner's rights and welfare. So, (b) is also wrong.

IN

There is no movement named unmoolan andolan in WB. So, (c) is wrong.


Learning: In independent India, sarvodaya activists campaigned for prohibition. A
mass campaign against liquor sale emerged in Uttarakhand, then part of UP, in the
early 1960s. Vimla and Sunderlal Bahuguna got the government to cancel a contract
to sell liquor in their village.
By 1966, protests spread across the region. Hundreds of picketing women were
jailed. In 1972, the government agreed to impose prohibition in the Uttarakhand
region. Scholars have argued that the anti-liquor movement politically empowered
the region's women, leading to their participation in

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the Chipko movement and, then, the struggle for a separate Uttarakhand state.
Another notable mass movement against liquor was in Andhra Pradesh in the early
1990s.
Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 5: Page 132: 10th NCERT World History

IA
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http://indianexpress.com/article/explained/in-fact-prohibitions-intoxicating-appeal-f
or-politicians/

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67 Plebiscite refers to the process where


A. Citizens of a country can propose legislation for adoption by the legislature
B. Local citizen bodies monitor important government decisions
C. Citizens vote to accept or reject a proposal
D. Citizens can amend the constitution of a nation by a special procedure
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Justification:Option (a) is the like the practice of initiative" present in some
democratic nations like Canada.

Option (b) is akin to PRIs and Urban Local Bodies (ULBs).

SI

Learning: A referendum (in some countries synonymous with plebiscite or a


vote on a ballot question) is a direct vote in which an entire electorate is asked to
vote on a particular proposal. This may result in the adoption of a new law.

IN

For e.g. recently in Greece, the government asked the voter to choose an austerity
package for Greece or choose to exit from European Union.
Q Source: Chapter 1: Page 4: 10th NCERT World History

68 Mahalanobis model of post-independent India stressed upon


A. Promoting economic growth through the production of wage-goods
B. Promoting an export-led growth for the Indian economy
C. Promoting capital (heavy) intensive economic growth
D. Promoting tertiary and agricultural sector over the Industrial sector
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C

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Answer Justification :
Learning:Mahalanobis strategy of development emphasising basic heavy industries
which was adopted first of all in the Second Plan also continued to hold the stage in
Indian planning right up to the Fifth Plan which was terminated by the Janata
Government in March 1978, a year before its full term of five years.

IA
S

In critique of the Mahalanobis heavy industry development strategy, Professors


Vakil and Brahmanand of Bombay University put forward a wage-goods model of
development and suggested a development strategy which accorded a top priority to
agriculture and other wage-goods industries in sharp contrast to the Mahalanobis
heavy industry biased strategy of development.

H
TS

So, the essential pillars of Nehru - Mahalanobis strategy were - (a) high savings rate,
(b) heavy industry bias, (c) protectionist policies and public sector, (d) import
substitution, and (e) socialistic pattern of society.
Q Source:http://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/craving-capital/

SI

69 Akhlaq-i Nasiri is a
A. Part of the overall code of conduct of Akbar's Sulh-i-Kul religion
B. Persian book in philosophical ethics written by Al-Tusi
C. A sufi practice of extreme asceticism followed by penance
D. A group of scholars in Akbar's Ibadat Khana who wrote religious codes
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

IN

Justification:Akbar ruled with a social and religious toleration that was relative, not
absolute, and was based on his concept of sulh-i-kul (for the general good of all
people) which built on his liberal views of religion. This was however not connected
with the book in question. So, (a) is wrong.
Ibadat khana was a place where Akbar used to have religious discussions. (c) is also
wrong.
The book Akhlaq-i Nasiri is divided to three parts: ethics, domestic economy and
politics.
It is considered a medieval treatise on Ismaili Thought.

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Q Source:Chapter 7: Page 154: 10th NCERT World History

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70 Which of the following are NOT the general features of'capitalistic' economies?
1. Competitive markets
2. Centrally planned economy
3. Public ownership of labour and capital
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 only
D. 2 and 3 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

Justification: Statement 2 and 3 are generally features of socialistic pattern of


economy. Hence, wrong.
Capitalistic economies may have monopolistic as well competitive markets.
However, the core idea is that it should be a free market which operates without any
government interference.

Learning:Capitalism is an economic system based on private ownership of the


means of production and the creation of goods and services for profit

SI

Central characteristics of capitalism include private property, capital accumulation,


wage labour and competitive markets.

IN

In a capitalist market economy, investments are determined by private decision and


the parties to a transaction typically determine the prices at which they exchange
assets, goods, and service
Q Source: Chapter 4: 10th NCERT World History

71 Until Independence,'Feudalism' was NOT in practice in India in which of the following


regions/states?
1. Kerala
2. Maharashtra
3. TamilNadu
4. Jharkhand

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Select the correct answer using the codes below


A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. None of (a), (b) or (c) is correct.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

Justification: It was in practice in all these states.

The Jharkhand region (now a state) of India was a hotbed for feudalism. Feudal
lords ruled the region for decades; semi-feudal conditions still exist. So, 4 is correct.

H
TS

There were a number of feudal states in Kerala in the Middle Ages between the end
of Chera dynasty and the British rule. So, 1 is correct.
Several zamindaris were established in the Madras Presidency (present-day Tamil
Nadu and adjoining areas) from 1799 onwards. The zamindari settlement was based
on an a similar settlement established in Bengal. So, 3 is correct.
In Maharashtra, Vidharbha region has feudal lords.

SI

Learning:Use of the term feudalism to describe India applies a concept of medieval


European origin, according to which the landed nobility held lands from the Crown
in exchange for military service, and vassals were in turn tenants of the nobles,
while the peasants (villeins or serfs) were obliged to live on their lord's land and
give him homage, labor, and a share of the produce, notionally in exchange for
military protection.

IN

Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 1: 10th NCERT World History

72 The Vernacular Press Act in British India was concerned with


A. Promoting local language newspapers for generating local employment
B. Providing for licensing and registration of newspapers published by
indigenous tribes
C. Banning all vernacular language publications in India
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

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Learning:The Vernacular Press Act was passed in 1878 under the Governor
Generalship and Viceroyalty of Lord Lytton, for better control of Indian language
newspapers.

IA
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The purpose of the Act was to control the printing and circulation of seditious
material, specifically that which could produce disaffection against the British
Government in India in the minds of the masses. It was passed on the model of irish
press laws.
It provided the government extensive rights to censor report and editorial in
vernacular press.

At the time the Vernacular Press Act was passed, there were thirty five vernacular
papers in Bengal, including the Amrita Bazar Patrika

H
TS

Q Source:Chapter 7: Page 176: 10th NCERT World History

IN

SI

73 In pre-independent India, journal with the name Vande Mataram was started/
published by
1. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
2. Lala Lajpat Rai
3. Bipin Chandra Pal
Select the correct answer using the codes below
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification:Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote the song Vande matram
inspired by which Bipin Chandra Pal decided to start a patriotic journal in August
1906, name vande matram. So, 1 is incorrect and 3 is correct.
Lala Lajpath Rai started an Urdu daily- Vande Mataram from Lahore which
boasted huge circulation.
Its first edition itself was confiscated by police and he had to appeal to the high
court against this. Four editors of this newspaper were sent to jail under the charge
of sedition.

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Q Source:Chapter 8: Page 190: 10th NCERT World History

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74 The recent cabinet approval of signing of Double Taxation Avoidance Convention


(DTAC) between India and Japan will help in
1. Improving the investment climate in India
2. Amending banking laws to give banks legal power for cracking down on money
3. laundering
4. Getting mutual assistance in matters related to collection of revenue
Select the correct answer using the codes below
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Justification & Learning: It includes exchange of banking information between tax
authorities, but it does not involved amending laws as such, or giving greater legal
powers to banks. So, 2 is incorrect.

SI

It aims at avoidance of double taxation and the prevention of fiscal evasion with
respect to taxes on income. The protocol incorporates provisions for an effective
exchange of information and assistance in collection of taxes between tax authorities
of the two countries.

IN

Q
Source:http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/policy/cabinet-nod-for-dtaprotocol-with-japan/article7941954.ece

75 Apart from determination of foetus, which of the following can be the applications of
Ultrasound?
1. To detect cracks and flaws in metal blocks
2. In sonic weapons
3. To deliver drugs directly to the cells
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None of the above

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User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

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Justification:The cracks or holes inside the metal blocks, which are invisible from
outside reduces the strength of the structure. Ultrasonic waves are allowed to pass
through the metal block and detectors are used to detect the transmitted waves. If
there is even a small defect, the ultrasound gets reflected back indicating the
presence of the flaw or defect. So, 1 is correct.
Sonic and ultrasonic weapons (USW) are weapons of various types that use sound to
injure, incapacitate, or kill an opponent. Some sonic weapons are currently in
limited use or in research and development by military and police forces. So, 2 is
correct.

H
TS

High power ultrasound can break up stony deposits or tissue, accelerate the effect of
drugs in a targeted area, but not deliver drugs. Delivering drugs can be possible
through nanotechnology. So, 3 is incorrect.
Q Source:Chapter 12: Page 170: 9th Science NCERT

IN

SI

76 The Sagarmala project of the Government of India focuses on


1. Construction of defence checkposts in Indian Ocean littoral nations
2. Deepening Straits of Malacca to increase frequency of shipping to India
3. Port-led development of coastal areas
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Justification:It is not an attempt to counter China's string of pearls. So, 1 is wrong.
It does not extend to international waters. So, 2 is wrong.
Learning:The Sagarmala initiative will address these challenges by focusing on
three pillars of development, namely (i) Supporting and enabling Port-led
Development through appropriate policy and institutional interventions and

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providing for an institutional framework for ensuring inter-agency and


ministries/departments/states' collaboration for integrated development, (ii) Port
Infrastructure Enhancement, including modernization and setting up of new ports,
and (iii) Efficient Evacuation to and from hinterland.

Q Source:Yojana November 2015 Page 20

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It is essentially an infrastructure-cum-policy initiative. It will allow the central


government to have a say in the development of non-major ports without adopting a
confrontationist approach with the state governments. Necessary institutional
framework will be built for the same.

H
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77 The Green Highways Policy will NOT help in


A. Increasing the forest cover of India
B. Reducing road accidents
C. Cutting down pollution
D. Reducing the land acquisition required for road construction
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

Justification:1% of total highways outlays will be reserved for planting trees along
the highways. It will be counted in the official forest cover. So, (a) is not correct.

SI

Trees along the highways reduce glare coming from vehicle lights and sun light,
which have been a cause for road accidents. So, (b) is not correct.
(c) is obvious as trees will act as carbon sink.

IN

It may actually increase the land acquisition as well as it cost. Land acquisition
related issues are not the focal point of policy. So, (d) is the answer.
Learning:About Rs. 1000 crore per year will be available for plantation purpose.
The policy will generate employment opportunities for about five lakh people from
rural areas.
There will be strong monitoring mechanism in place by using ISRO's Bhuvan and
GAGAN satellite systems. Every planted tree will be counted and auditing will be
done. The agencies performing well will be awarded.
Q Source:Yojana November 2015 Page 26

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78 If you use a spring balance to weigh an object kept in different mediums, it will weigh
least in
A. Ethanol
B. Sea water
C. Lubricating Oil
D. Freshwater lake
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Justification:All objects experience a force of buoyancy upwards when they are
immersed in a fluid. This buoyant force reduces the total pressure/force the object
exerts on a spring balance.

H
TS

The magnitude of this buoyant force depends on the density of the fluid. So, the
denser the liquid, higher is the buoyant force, and lesser is the weight experienced.
Sea water has a density of 1022 kg/cubic metres, fresh water has 1000, ethanol has
786, and lubricating oil has around 900. So, it weighs least in sea water.
Hence, (b) is correct.

Q Source:Chapter 10: Page 140: 9th Science NCERT

IN

SI

79 What is/are the difference(s) between a fixed exchange rate and floating exchange rate?
1. Fixed exchange rate is fixed by the IMF whereas floating rate is left to the markets.
2. Trade of a nation is done based on floating exchange rate whereas foreign
investment is done based on fixed exchange rates.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification:IMF does not peg a currency's level. It was done earlier in the Gold
system where currencies were fixed in value by some authority, for e.g. USA
government fixed it by an agreement for India and other nations. So, 1 is wrong.

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If a nation follows floating system, all its external transactions are based on the
floating system; similar for the fixed system. So, 2 is wrong.
Learning:Exchange rates They link national currencies for purposes of
international trade. There are broadly two kinds of exchange rates: fixed exchange
rate and floating exchange rate

IA
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Fixed exchange rates When exchange rates are fixed and governments intervene
to prevent movements in them
Flexible or floating exchange rates These rates fluctuate depending on demand
and supply of currencies in foreign exchange markets, in principle without
interference by governments.

H
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Q Source:Chapter 4: Page 101: 10th NCERT World History

SI

80 Consider the following about the International Maritime Organization (IMO).


1. It is a specialised agency of the United Nations.
2. It is responsible for regulating shipping in international waters.
3. Most states that are not members of IMO are landlocked countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes below
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

IN

Justification:IMO is governed by an assembly of members and is financially


administered by a council of members elected from the assembly.
The IMO's primary purpose is to develop and maintain a comprehensive regulatory
framework for shipping and its remit today includes safety, environmental concerns,
legal matters, technical co-operation, maritime security and the efficiency of
shipping. So, 2 is correct.
These landlocked countries include Afghanistan, Andorra, Armenia, Belarus,
Bhutan, Botswana etc. So, 3 is correct.
Learning:India has been one of the earliest members of the IMO, having ratified its

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Convention and joined it as a member-state in the year 1959. India has had the
privilege of being elected to and serving the Council of the IMO, ever since it
started functioning, and till date, except for two years for the period 1983-1984.

IA
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IMO Council plays a crucial role to play in deciding various important matters
within the mandate of the IMO, in relation to the global shipping industry, including
its work programme strategy and budget.
Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=131979

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81 Diamond quadrilateral project of Indian railways intends to


A. connect all seven North-eastern states with Eastern nations
B. connect four most important mining regions in the country by way of a
freight network
C. connect four metro cities by high speed rail networks
D. develop rail-road linkages in four farthest corners of the country
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

Justification & Learning:The Diamond Quadrilateral is a project of the Indian


railways to establish high speed rail network in India. This quadrilateral will connect
the four metro cities in India, i.e. Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata.

SI

This project is similar to Golden Quadrilateral which is a roadway project which


connects the four metros by Express Ways. The Golden Quadrilateral falls under
National Highways Development Project which has helped to build better road
transport in India.

IN

India has planned to start Semi-high speed trains on nine corridors and has ambition
to run bullet trains in future. High-speed train on Mumbai-Ahmedabad section will
be the first bullet train corridor to be implemented in the country.
Q Source:Yojana November 2015 Page 67

82 The acoustics of a theatre can be changed by


1. Changing its architecture
2. Changing its building material
3. Reducing or increasing the audience sitting in the place
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

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A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification:You can make the building taller, shorter, wider, flatter, narrower,
circular etc. All of this will have an effect on how sound is transmitted and felt
inside the place. So, 1 is correct.

H
TS

After production, sound is transmitted and reflected throughout the building.


Changing the building material will change the total absorption /reflection of sound.
For e.g. putting more cushion and less metal in the seats will reduce reflection of
sound. So, 2 is also correct.
Audience (people) act as absorbers of sound. If you walk into an empty hall, an echo
can be heard, but rarely in a filled hall. So, 3 is also correct.

Learning: A sound created in a big hall will persist by repeated reflection from the
walls until it is reduced to a value where it is no longer audible. The repeated
reflection that results in this persistence of sound is called reverberation. In an
auditorium or big hall excessive reverberation is highly undesirable.

SI

To reduce reverberation, the roof and walls of the auditorium are generally covered
with sound-absorbent materials like compressed fibreboard, rough plaster or
draperies. The seat materials are also selected on the basis of their sound absorbing
properties.

IN

Q Source:Chapter 12: Page 168: 9th Science NCERT

83 The Long Range Surface-to-Air Missile (LRSAM) co-developed by India and Israel
was recently tested. Consider the following about the missile.
1. It can counter air attacks from drones and anti-ship missiles.
2. It is an active radar seeking missile.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None

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Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

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Learning:LRSAM is also called Barak 8 missile in Israel which in Hebrew


language means Lightning. Barak 8 is an advanced, long-range missile defence and
air defence system.
Its main features are long range, active radar seeker missile, vertical launch and
multiple simultaneous engagements.

For the LRSAM, DRDO has developed dual pulse propulsion system along with
other safety arm mechanisms for Solid Propulsion system.

H
TS

The LRSAM programme consists of Missiles, Weapon Control System, MFSTAR


(Radar), Vertical Launcher unit and two- way data link.
It is capable to counter a wide variety of air-borne threats such as anti-ship missiles,
aircraft, UAVs and drones as well as supersonic cruise missiles.

Q
Source:http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/long-range-missile-flight
-tested-successfully/article7921007.ece

IN

SI

84 Sonic boom is a phenomenon related with


A. Ultrasonic sounds produced by small vertebrates
B. Supersonic sounds produced by moving objects
C. Destruction of sea bed due to SONAR waves
D. Repeated reflection of sound in a closed space that increases its effect
manifold
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Justification:Option (d) is related with Echo.
Option (a) is related with communication in species like bats.
The acoustic frequencies used in sonar systems vary from very low (infrasonic) to
extremely high (ultrasonic). But, SONAR waves do not cause destruction of sea bed.
So, (c) is wrong.

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Learning:When the speed of any object exceeds the speed of sound it is said to be
travelling at supersonic speed. Bullets, jet aircrafts etc. often travel at supersonic
speeds. When a sound, producing source moves with a speed higher than that of
sound, it produces shock waves in air.

IA
S

These shock waves carry a large amount of energy. The air pressure variation
associated with this type of shock waves produces a very sharp and loud sound
called the sonic boom. The shock waves produced by a supersonic aircraft have
enough energy to shatter glass and even damage buildings.
Q Source:Chapter 12: Page 167: 9th Science NCERT

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85 A large gold nail usually sinks in water. What can be done to prevent it from sinking?
A. Increasing its height or length to cover greater area of water for the given
weight
B. Decreasing its width to experience a sideward uplifting pressure from water
C. Increasing its total volume for the given weight
D. Reducing its surface area for the given weight
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

Justification:When a body is immersed fully or partially in a fluid, it experiences an


upward force that is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by it.

SI

The weight of the fluid displaced depends on the volume of the object and its
density.

IN

Basically, density of water * volume of water displaced should be = density of the


object * its volume immersed in water.
If you increase the volume it can displace more water, which will exert greater
upwards force on its preventing it from sinking.
This concept is used in the design of ships and submarines. So, (c) is correct, and
others are wrong, because neither increased surface area nor length helps it.
Q Source: Chapter 10: Page 140: 9th Science NCERT

86 Oxygen is returned to the atmosphere in which of the following processes?

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1. Photosynthesis
2. Formation of Ozone
3. Nitrogen-fixation by legume bacteria
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1 and 3 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

Mark Scored

IN

SI

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Justification:Here is the oxygen cycle.

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If you notice, the only major process returning oxygen is photosynthesis. This is
why afforestation is of even greater importance to tackle climate change and
pollution.
Formation of ozone consumes oxygen. Even the process of nitrogen-fixing by
bacteria does not take place in the presence of oxygen. So, 2 and 3 are incorrect.
Q Source: Chapter 14: Page 200: 9th Science NCERT

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87 The Delhi Right of Citizen to Time Bound Delivery of Services Amendment Bill, 2015
as passed by the Delhi assembly
1. Ensures mandatory and automatic compensation for citizens if government services
are not provided to them in time
2. Imposes penalty on officials for delay in providing services.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

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Learning:Apart from the ones mentioned in the option, key provisions of the Bill
are:

It seeks to make the life of common man hassle free by providing services in
a time bound manner.
It also makes it mandatory for each government department, local body and
public authority will issue a'Citizen's Charter'.
They would set out in detail the time stipulated for provision of citizenrelated services and the officer responsible for providing it. Otherwise, it
Imposes penalty on officials for delay in providing services.

SI

Q
Source:http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/assembly-clears-bill-on-timebo
und-delivery-of-services/article7921122.ece

IN

88 Mixed cropping is the practice of


A. Growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same piece of land
B. Growing crops and rearing livestock simultaneously
C. Growing different crops on a piece of land in a pre-planned succession
D. Growing fodder crops alongwith livestock
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification:Option (b) is mixed FARMING. Note the difference. Option (c) is
crop rotation, where crops are not grown simultaneously.

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Option (d) is also a kind of mixed farming practice, where food is also grown side
by side.
Learning:Different ways of growing crops can be used to give maximum benefit.

IA
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Mixed cropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same piece of
land, for example, wheat + gram, or wheat + mustard, or groundnut + sunflower.
This reduces risk and gives some insurance against failure of one of the crops.
Depending upon the duration, crop rotation is done for different crop combinations.
The availability of moisture and irrigation facilities decide the choice of the crop to
be cultivated after one harvest. If crop rotation is done properly then two or three
crops can be grown in a year with good harvests.

H
TS

Other such practice is inter-cropping which has been covered in an earlier test.
Q Source:Chapter 15: Page 208: 9th Science NCERT

IN

SI

89 Consider the following about the Lalit Kala Akademi or National Academy of Art
1. It is an autonomous organisation.
2. It has the mandate of performing research in the field of arts.
3. Government cannot take the management control of the Akademi.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification:It is funded by the Union Ministry of Culture, and has centres in
Bhubaneswar; Chennai; Garhi, Delhi; Kolkata; Lucknow and Shimla.
In April, 2015, Government of India took over management control of Lalit Kala
Akademi citing several complaints regarding alleged administrative and financial
irregularities in its functioning. So, 3 is incorrect.
This and other Akademis were recently in news due to the returning of Sahitya
Akademi awards.

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You can read the article to understand more about it.


Q
Source:http://indianexpress.com/article/explained/writers-protest-what-returning-sa
hitya-akademi-honour-means/

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90 How are the littoral nations in Indian Ocean of strategic significance to India?
1. They have a significant proportion of Indian diaspora.
2. Littoral nations are being used for building naval and military bases by other
nations.
3. Majority of India's shipping trade passes through these littoral nations.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

Justification:For e.g. India has a major interest in Seychelles. A fair sized (8%)
population of Indian descent, mainly from Tamil Nadu and Gujarat lives there. So, 1
is correct.

IN

SI

Seychelles could be considered as an `unsinkable aircraft carrier` in the Indian


Ocean given its proximity to the oil sea lanes and oil producing nations, quite akin
to the Ascension island in the Atlantic that the British used extensively to launch
attacks against the Argentinean Navy in the Falklands war. In fact, China is using it
for its string of pearls. So, 2 is correct.
Majority of oil tankers pass through these regions, not majority of trade. So, 3 will
be incorrect.
Q
Source:http://www.narendramodi.in/prime-minister-narendra-modis-visit-to-seyche
lles-7316

91 Which of the following are plant macro-nutrients?


1. Iron
2. Copper

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3. Chlorine
4. Nitrogen
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 4 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

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Justification:The mineral nutrients are divided into two groups: macronutrients and
micronutrients.

H
TS

Macronutrients can be broken into two more groups: primary and secondary
nutrients.
The primary nutrients are nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), and potassium (K). These
major nutrients usually are lacking from the soil first because plants use large
amounts for their growth and survival.

The secondary nutrients are calcium (Ca), magnesium (Mg), and sulfur (S). There
are usually enough of these nutrients in the soil so fertilization is not always needed.
Also, large amounts of Calcium and Magnesium are added when lime is applied to
acidic soils.

SI

So, (d) is the answer as all others are micro-nutrients.

IN

Learning:The 13 mineral nutrients, which come from the soil, are dissolved in
water and absorbed through a plant's roots. There are not always enough of these
nutrients in the soil for a plant to grow healthy. This is why many farmers and
gardeners use fertilizers to add the nutrients to the soil.
Q Source:Chapter 15: Page 206: 9th Science NCERT

92 Consider the following about'Nuclear fusion'.


1. It is triggered by fundamental particle neutrinos.
2. Few nuclear reactors operational in India use this technology.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only

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C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

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Justification: Nuclear fusion is a nuclear reaction in which two or more atomic


nuclei come very close and then collide at a very high speed and join to form a new
nucleus.
During this process, matter is not conserved because some of the matter of the
fusing nuclei is converted to photons (energy). So, neutrinos do not have any role to
play as they hardly interact with matter. So, 1 is incorrect.

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All reactors in India use nuclear fission technology. Fusion technology has not been
developed for commercial uses at large scales. So, 2 is incorrect.
Q Source:Xth NCERT

SI

93 Why does the sky appear dark instead of blue to an astronaut?


A. Due to Light pillar effect
B. Due to absence of diffracted interference of light
C. Due to absence of dispersion and diffusion
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

IN

Learning:The molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere have size
smaller than the wavelength of visible light. These are more effective in scattering
light of shorter wavelengths at the blue end than light of longer wavelengths at the
red end. The red light has a wavelength about 1.8 times greater than blue light.
Thus, when sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the fine particles in air scatter
the blue colour (shorter wavelengths) more strongly than red. The scattered blue
light enters our eyes. If the earth had no atmosphere, there would not have been any
scattering. Then, the sky would have looked dark. The sky appears dark to
passengers flying at very high altitudes, as scattering is not prominent at such
heights. So, the answer is (d).
Justification:A light pillar is an atmospheric optical phenomenon in the form of a

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vertical column of light which appears to extend above and/or below a light source.
Diffraction refers to various phenomena which occur when a wave encounters an
obstacle or a slit. In classical physics, the diffraction phenomenon is described as the
interference of waves.

IA
S

Q Source:Xth NCERT

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94 How industrial effluents dumped in water body may be a threat to aquatic life?
1. By increasing the nutrient content of the water
2. Leading to depletion of oxygen levels of the water body
3. Disrupting the aquatic food chain by killing keystone species
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

SI

Justification: Eutrophication is the process by which a body of water acquires a


high concentration of nutrients, especially phosphates and nitrates. These typically
promote excessive growth of algae. As the algae die and decompose, high levels of
organic matter and the decomposing organisms deplete the water of available
oxygen, causing the death of other organisms, such as fish. Eutrophication is a
natural, slow-aging process for a water body, but human activity (industrial effluents
for e.g. ) greatly speeds up the process. So, 1 is correct.

IN

Heated Industrial effluents increase the temperature of the water body and typically
decrease the level of dissolved oxygen of water. This can harm aquatic animals such
as fish, amphibians and other aquatic organisms. So, 2 is correct.
A keystone species is a plant or animal that plays a unique and crucial role in the
way an ecosystem functions (e.g. sea star). Statement 3 follows.
Q Source:Xth NCERT

95 The Central government can legally undertake the development of an inland waterway
for navigation only when

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A. It falls under the major-basins of the country


B. It is connected to a major port of national importance
C. It has been declared as a national waterway
D. It does not border any tribal areas falling under the fifth and sixth schedule
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Justification & Learning:The Union Cabinet recently gave its approval for
enactment of Central legislation for declaring 101 additional Inland Waterways as
National Waterways (NW) for navigation. If a waterway is not declared national
waterways, it cannot be used for development for navigational purposes.

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This will create a logistic supply chain with intermodal (Rail, Road and Waterways)
connectivity and "would positively contribute to the GDP by opening up business
opportunities in the area of dredging, barge construction, barge operation, barge
repair facilities, terminal construction, tourist cruise etc.

On declaration of a waterway as a NW, development and regulation for


shipping and navigation by mechanically propelled vessels come under the
jurisdiction of Central Government.
However, rights over the usage of water, ownership of appurtenant land,
minerals, metals, sand etc continue to be with the State Government.

SI

Q Source:Yojana November 2015 Last Cover Page

IN

96 You can see a full-length image of a tall building/tree in a


A. Concave Mirror
B. Convex Mirror
C. Plane Mirror
D. Hydraulic Mirrors
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Justification: For rays coming from a distance, convex mirrors always give an
erect, though diminished, image. They also have a wider field of view as they are
curved outwards. So, if you wish to obtain a large image in a small mirror, you
should use convex mirrors. So, (b) is correct.
Learning:If you visit the Agra Fort, try to observe the full-length image of a distant,

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tall building/tomb in the wall mirror. To view the tomb distinctly, you should stand
suitably at the terrace adjoining the wall.

Q Source:Xth NCERT

IA
S

Convex mirrors are commonly used as rear-view (wing) mirrors in vehicles. These
mirrors are fitted on the sides of the vehicle, enabling the driver to see traffic behind
him/her to facilitate safe driving. Thus, convex mirrors enable the driver to view
much larger area than would be possible with a plane mirror.

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97 Opium wars' of the mid-19th century are related to


A. Anglo-Chinese disputes over British trade in China and China's sovereignty
B. Conflicts between the Ottoman Empire and European powers joined into a
Holy League
C. A major armed struggle that radically transformed Mexican politics and
society
D. Rights of Christian minorities in Mediterranean, which was controlled by the
Ottoman Empire
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

Justification: Opium wars are an important even in the fight against imperialism,
hence, the question.

SI

Option (b) refers to the Great Turkish war beginning in 1683 and ending with the
signing of the Treaty of Karlowitz in 1699. The war was a defeat for the Ottoman
Empire, which lost large amounts of territory in Central

IN

Europe. The war was also significant in that it marked the first time Russia was
involved in a western European alliance.
Option (c) refers to Mexican Revolution 1910-20.
Option (d) refers to the Crimean War (which was also in news due to the Ukraine
Crisis 2013-14).
Learning:The disputes included the First Opium War (1839 1842) and the
Second Opium War (18561860).
They are important because the wars and events between them weakened the Qing

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dynasty and reduced China's separation from the rest of the world.
Q Source:10th NCERT World History & Contemporary events

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98 Your weight on earth can increase if


1. Earth revolves faster around the Sun.
2. You travel very fast on earth
3. You cross the troposphere and reach stratosphere
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

Justification:Your weight on earth depends on two things: a) gravitation force of


earth; and b) the centrifugal force caused due to earth's rotation, which pushes you
away from earth's surface. The balance of both forces determines your weight.

Your weight will change only if the speed of rotation (and not revolution) changes.
So, 1 is incorrect.

SI

Also, as described above, it really does not matter how fast you are travelling on
earth, because as long as you are on earth's surface, you will experience the same
gravitational force. So, 2 is also incorrect.

IN

Your weight will decrease if you move to greater height in stratosphere. So, 3 is
wrong.
Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 10: Page 131: 9th Science NCERT

99 International Monetary Fund (IMF) has included China's Yuan into its elite reserve
currency basket. What implications can it have on the International reserve asset system?
1. Nations will now prefer holding more Yuan in their forex Reserves.
2. Yuan will now be used for calculation of the value of a SDR.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only

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C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

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Justification & Learning:A reserve currency is one which is being used widely in
international transactions, has a stable value and is freely usable and convertible.
China's Yuan satisfied all these criteria and thus IMF declared it to be an elite
reserve currency.
With this declaration, nations will prefer holding Chinese Yuan as it gives more
liquidity to their forex reserves. This is because the currency is now worldwide
acceptable for settlement of trade payments. Hence, 1 is correct.

H
TS

SDR is neither a currency nor a claim on the IMF. It is a potential claim on the
freely usable currencies of IMF members, which holders of SDRs can
obtain in exchange for their SDRs. Its value is based on the basket of the four major
currencies, which now becomes five including Yuan. So, 2 is correct.

Q
Source:http://indianexpress.com/article/explained/simply-put-dragon-now-in-basket
-how-will-sdr-change/

IN

SI

100 In a spacecraft, it is possible to create "artificial gravity" by


A. Surrounding the spacecraft by heavy water (deuterium)
B. Shooting the spacecraft from the ground at a very high speed
C. Use material in the spacecraft that can shield against the lack of gravity in
space
D. Spinning the spacecraft on its axis
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification:Gravity is omnipresent, and it can never be shielded against. So, (c) is
incorrect.
Irrespective of the material used, gravity would not change inside the spacecraft. So,
(a) is also incorrect.

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Shooting at high speed will not affect the gravity forces. It will only help escape
arth's gravity quickly. So, (b) is also incorrect.

IA
S

Learning:In space, it is possible to create "artificial gravity" by spinning your


spacecraft or space station. When the station spins, centrifugal force acts to pull the
inhabitants to the outside. This process could be used to simulate gravity. It wouldn't
be exactly the same, though, because large Coriolis forces would also be present,
and things would fall in curves instead of straight lines.
This is sort of like the amusement park ride where you get in a big cylinder with a
lot of people and line up against the walls. Then they spin the cylinder, producing a
force that makes you feel pressed up against the

H
TS

sides. Everyone becomes glued to the walls of the chamber, and then they drop the
floor out. No one falls to the ground because they are being held to the edges by a
force due to rotation.

IN

SI

Q Source:Improvisation: Chapter 10: Page 131: 9th Science NCERT

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