A340 TECHNICAL TRAINING MANUAL

TRAINING & FLIGHT OPERA TIONS SUPPORT DIVISION

AIRBUS INDUSTRIE

22 - AUTOFLIGHT

SELF EXAMINATION

The pilots interface with the autopilot system :

a. via the FCU for long-term action
b. via the MCDU for long-term action
c. via the MCDU for short-term action

What parameters does the FE part of the FMGEC acquire and monitor ?
a. Alphafloor signal and positions of the control surfaces from ECPCs.
b. windshear signal from FCPC.
c. characteristic speeds such as such as F, S, VMAN , Vmin ,Vmax

What is the right relation between AP/FD modes and A/THR modes ?
a. the A/THR modes are fully independent on the AP/FD modes
b. the A/THR modes are dependent on the AP/FD modes
c. the A/THR modes are dependent on the longitudinal AP/FD modes

When is the ADF frequency autotuned ?

a. In any area , if the To waypoint in the F-PLN is an NDB (Non Directional Beacon).
b. in any circumstances .
c. never

Which are the FCPC inputs required from FMS ?

a. Landing field elevation , flight level , time information , QFE / QNH / STD selection .
b. inputs provided by the crew on take-off (i.e. inputs from engine thrust levers if they are set
to take-off power).
c. Cabin vertical speed , landing field elevation , flight level .

What happen in case of FCPC failure ?

a. in case of one FCPC and two FCSC failure , AP / FD and A / THR are lost
b. in case of two FCPC and one FCSC failures , there is no effect on AP / FD and A / THR
functions.
c. in case of third FCPC failure , there is total loss of AP / FD and A / THR.

When does the FE part select FE weight and FE CG ?

a. if both FCMCs are lost .
b. if FCPCs are valid but one FCMC is lost .
c. if both FCMCs are valid but all FCPCs lost

What are the characterstic speeds computed by the FE part ?

a. VS , VLS , F,S , Vmax.
b. V prot , Vmax OP , VC TREND , VFE NEXT .
c. V3 , V4 , VMAN, VLS .

Which criteria are used by the FE part to determine the A/C configuration ?
a. ground / flight conditions from the ECU and slat / flap configuration from the SFCC
b. engine data from the ECU and slat / flap configuration from the SFCC
c. ground / flight conditions from the LGCIU and engine data from the ECU.

A340 TECHNICAL TRAINING MANUAL

TRAINING & FLIGHT OPERA TIONS SUPPORT DIVISION

AIRBUS INDUSTRIE

22 - AUTOFLIGHT

SELF EXAMINATION

10

Which are the consequences after windshear and aft CG detections ?

a. the windshear detection has full authority on the autothrust and the aft CG detection triggers
a warning .
b. the aft CG detection and the windshear detection trigger warnings
c. the windshear detection triggers a warning on PFD and an audio message but there is no aft
CG warning .

11

What are the main Flight Guidance functions ?

a. the engagement logics , the mode logics and the control laws
b. the thrust command , the landing capability computation and the AP-FD-A/THR modes.
c. autopilot , flight director and autothrust.

12

What is the correct statement about speed reference choice ?

a. if the pilot selects the speed on the FCU , we call it " preset speed"
b. if the speed reference is computed by the FMGEC , we call it " managed speed".
c. the speed reference can only be " selected "

13

How does the AFS react to the alphafloor detection ?

a. the FMGEC has no action . the ECUs recive the signal from the FCPC and set the max
thrust
b. the A / THR function protects the A/C by setting the thrust to maximum thrust
c. the FG part receives the Alphafloor signal computed by the FE part and sets the thrust to the
GA limit speed

14

To which control surfaces does the AP send its orders through FCPCs?
a. to the spoiler and aileron for roll axis , to the elevator and THS for yaw axis , and to the
rudder for yaw axis .
b. to the spoiler for roll axis , to the rudder and THS for yaw axis , to the flaps for pitch axis.
c. to the aileron and spoiler for roll axis , to the slats and flaps for pitch axis , to the rudder for
yaw axis.

15

What are the NAV DATA BASE characteristics ?

a. worldwide coverage ; updating every 28 days ; data base cross load capability
b. updating by pilot during cockpit preparation ; world wide coverage
c. fixed data loaded by the manufacturer and updated by the airline every 48 days

16

The FM system enables the flight cost to be minimized . but according to which parameters ?
a. predictions along the flight plan such as optimum and maximum altitude , fuel
consumption , time to arrival , .
b. constraint when overflying each waypoint.
c. optimization of speed , thrust , fuel planing and time.

A340 TECHNICAL TRAINING MANUAL

TRAINING & FLIGHT OPERA TIONS SUPPORT DIVISION

AIRBUS INDUSTRIE

22 - AUTOFLIGHT

SELF EXAMINATION

17

Where is the FM data displayed ?

a. on MCDU (flight plan , constraints , navaids , .) , on ND in ROSE - NAV , ARC or PLAN
mode (flight plan ).
b. on PFD for guidance information , on ND for F-PLN related data (flight plan , weight and
CG , performance data,)
c. on FCU (flight plan ,characteristic speeds,), on PFD (flight director,constraints ,)

18

Concerning the interface between FIDS and BITE, which of the following is true?
a. the FIDS detects, isolates and records the faults at LRU level. It transmits the result to the
BITE.
b. the BITE requests the FIDS to execute the test and transmits the results to the CMC.
c. the FIDS stores all analysis results coming from the BITE and performs its own analysis if
they are not sufficient.

19

When is FD engaged?
a. as soon as at least one AP is engaged.
b. as soon as A / THR is engaged.
c. as soon as electrical power is available.

20

Concerning AP engagement , which of the following is true?

a. both APs can be engaged whatever the flight phase.
b. during the approach phase , it is recommended to engage the second AP.
c. both APs can never be engaged at the same time (last in , last engaged).

21

Which function has a full authority on the Autothrust ?

a. windshear detection.
b. alphafloor detection.
c. aft CG detection.

22

From which computer(s) is the alphafloor signal computed and detected?

a. from the FE part of the FMGEC .
b. from the FCPCs .
c. A and B.

23

When is the alphafloor detection available?

a. In clean configuration and above 20,000ft.
b. Between 50 ft AGL and 1300 ft AGL.
c. From take-off to 100 ft RA before landing.

24

Which are the maneuvering speeds ?

a. F speed , S speed and VMAN.
b. S speed , VMAX and GREEN DOT.
c. VCTREND , F speed and VMAN.

A340 TECHNICAL TRAINING MANUAL

TRAINING & FLIGHT OPERA TIONS SUPPORT DIVISION

AIRBUS INDUSTRIE

22 - AUTOFLIGHT

SELF EXAMINATION

25

How is VMAXOP represented ?

a. By the lower end of a red and black strip along the speed scale.
b. By two amber dashes at the top of the speed scale.
c. It is not displayed on the speed scale.

26

Why does the FE part compute the lower selectable speed (VLS) ?
a. It is used by the AFS in order to prevent speed undershoot.
b. It is used by the AFS in order to prevent excessive speed.
c. It is the optimum speed in the event of one engine failure.

27

TBD :In which case are the FE and FG functions lost ?

a. In case of dual failure such as loss of IR OWN and IR 03.
b. In case of dual failure such as loss of IR OWN and IR OPP.
c. In case of dual failure such as loss of IR OPP and IR 03.

28

TBD :What happens when ADR OWN or ADR 03 is lost ?

a. There is no effect on the landing category.
b. The landing category is downgraded.
c. The FE and FG function are lost.

29

Concerning the passivator,what happens if the amplitude of the first entry is not within the
range made by the second and third inputs ?
a. The output is replaced by a zero value.
b. The output is limited to the maximum or the minimum value of the range.
c. The output value keeps the same input amplitude associated with a tolerance.

30

Which configuration of slats / flaps is used in the computation in case of a dual SFCC failure ?
a. The configuration obtained from LGCIU according to the landing gear configuration.
b. By default, the clear configuration.
c. By default, the flap and slat fully extended configuration.

31

Which is the MASTER FMGEC with no FD engaged and AP2 engaged ?

a. FMGEC1.
b. FMGEC2.
c. Either FMGEC 1 or FMGEC 2 , independently of AP-FD-A / THR engagement status.

32

AP1 is engaged , FDs are engaged , A / THR1 is engaged. How do the FMGECs work in
normal conditions ?
a. Each FMGEC drives its own FD symbols, FMGEC 1 supplies both FMAs, controls the
flight controls & engines.
b. The master FMGEC drives FD symbols on both PFDs, supplies both FMAs, controls the
flight controls & engines.
c. FMGEC 1 drives FD symbols on Capt PFD, supplies FMA on Capt PFD & controls the
flight controls. FMGEC 2 controls the engines.

A340 TECHNICAL TRAINING MANUAL

TRAINING & FLIGHT OPERA TIONS SUPPORT DIVISION

AIRBUS INDUSTRIE

22 - AUTOFLIGHT

SELF EXAMINATION

33

Channel B has failed. Which other channel performs the AFS Function
a. Channel A.
b. Channel A but with a partial function.
c. Channel C.

34

When a reference selector knob ( such as Speed / Mach, Altitude, HDG TRK or V/S FPA ) is
pulled, what happens to the reference parameter ?
a. The reference parameter is managed.
b. The reference parameter is selected.
c. The reference parameter is changed.

35

Before capture, during approach phase, what can happen to the LOCalizer mode?
a. It can be disengaged by pressing the LOC pushbutton off.
b. It can be disarmed by pressing the LOC pushbutton off.
c. It can't be disarmed.

36

What happens when the pilot presses on the ALT pushbutton?

a. The pilot commands an altitude level off from present altitude.
b. Nothing. The pilot must also select the level off altitude in the FCU window to engage ALT
mode.
c. The pilot must also command the level off through V/S FPA mode & with V/S FPA = 0

37

For which reason is the white color used?

a. Active modes.
b. AP, FD, A/THR engaged & A/THR active.
c. AP, FD, A/THR engaged & A/THR not active.

38

What does " 2FD " mean?

a. FD1 is failed, FD2 is engaged.
b. FD2 is engaged on Captain side.
c. FD2 is engaged on F/O side.

39

Where do LAND mode, FLARE mode & ROLL OUT mode appear?
a. In the AP/FD vertical mode zone.
b. In the AP/FD lateral mode zone.
c. In the lateral & vertical common mode zone.

40

What is FLIGHT PLANNING?

a. The function that integrates the routes the aircraft must follow and the constraints a flight
plan.
b. The function that provides the aircraft position and the follow-up of the flight plan.
c. The ratio of cost of time to the cost of fuel.

A340 TECHNICAL TRAINING MANUAL

TRAINING & FLIGHT OPERA TIONS SUPPORT DIVISION

AIRBUS INDUSTRIE

22 - AUTOFLIGHT

SELF EXAMINATION

41

In which mode(s) is (are) the aircraft model represented fixed?

a. Whatever the pilot selection on the FCU (ROSE-NAV, ARC or PLAN modes), the aircraft
model is fixed.
b. The aircraft model is fixed only on the PLAN mode representation.
c. The aircraft model is always fixed except on the PLAN mode representation.

42

What is the purpose of the white FM annunciator lights?

a. A system other than FM, linked to the MCDU, requests the display.
b. The FM has failed.
c. The FM is not active system but it has sent an important message to display.

43

What is the purpose of the amber FM1 (or FM2) annunciator light?
a. The FM1 (or FM2) is detected failed by the MCDU.
b. The MCDU1 (or MCDU2) is successfully reset.
c. The FM1 (or FM2) is successfully reset.

44

What is the function of the brightness knob?

a. It only allows the screen brightness to be adjusted.
b. It allows the screen brightness to be adjusted and the MCDU to be reset.
c. It allows the MCDU and the associated FM to be reset.

45

How do the FMGECs operate in the INDEPENDENT mode?

a. Side 1 and side 2 Flight Guidance functions are independent.
b. Side 1 and side 2 Flight Management functions are independent.
c. One side is inoperative and the remaining FMGEC controls both sides.

46

When the FM SOURCE selector switch is set to "BOTH ON 1" position , what does it
involve?
a. This enables MCDU1 and 2 to work with the same FM1 source, and also makes the DMCs,
feeding both EFIS display , work with the same FM1 source.
b. This enables FM1 and Fm2 to work with MCDU1.
c. This enables MCDU1 and 2 to work with the same FM1 source, but, FM1 supplies PFD1
and ND1, and FM2 supplies PFD 2 and ND 2.

47

What does the filled magenta circle on the PFD represent?

a. Located on the altitude scale, it represents the altitude consraint.
b. Located on the speed scale, it represents the ECON speed target.
c. Located on the altitude scale, it represents the linear vertical deviation.

48

What is the FM information displayed on the ND in ARC, PLAN and ROSE-NAV modes?
a. Flight plan data, A/C present position and wind characteristics.
b. Flight plan data, A/C present position and data selected via the FCU .
c. Flight plan data, Decision Height and crosstrack deviation.

A340 TECHNICAL TRAINING MANUAL

TRAINING & FLIGHT OPERA TIONS SUPPORT DIVISION

AIRBUS INDUSTRIE

22 - AUTOFLIGHT

SELF EXAMINATION

49

Does the loading of the Nav Data Base erase all Nav Data Base information still stored in the
FMGEC?
a. Yes, even if an identical Nav Data Base is loaded.
b. No, it erases the selected Nav Data Base cycle.
c. It only erases the information that is different.

50

How is the Nav Data Base loading done?

a. via FMGEC1 only.
b. via FMGEC2 only.
c. via FMGEC1 or FMGEC2.

51

In which position is the FM source selector set when you activate the CROSSLOAD?
a. Both on FM1.
b. Both on FM2.
c. Normal.

52

What happens during a power interruption of less than 10 ms?

a. The MCDU is cut off.
b. The CRT becomes blank.
c. The CRT momentarily flashes.

53

The FCU power-up test is automatically initiated on the channel concerned when the A/C is on
ground and after:
a. Power Interruption > 5 sec.
b. Power Interruption < 10 MS.
c. 10 MS < Power Interruption < 200 MS.