Tcs Talent Test 001

TCS TALENT TEST 001
PART I
For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the word
that is closest in meaning:
(1)
CONJECTURE:
(A) magic (B)guess (C)position (D)form (E)place
(2)
CONNOISSEUR
(A) gourmand (B)lover of art (C)humidor (D)delinquent (E)interpreter
(3)
CONSANGUINITY
(A) kinship (B)friendship (C)bloodletting (D)relief (E)understanding
(4)
CONSENSUS
(A) general agreement (B)project (C)insignificance (D)sheaf (E)crevice
(5)
CONSTRUE
(A) explain (B)promote (C)reserve (D)erect (E)block
(6)
CONTAMINATE
(A) arrest (B)prepare (C)pollute (D)beam (E)inform
(7)
CONTENTIOUS
(A) squealing (B)surprising (C)quarrelsome (D)smug (E)creative
(8)
CONTINENCE
(A) humanity (B)research (C)embryology (D)bodies of land (E)self-restraint
(9)
CONTRABAND
(A) purpose (B)rogue (C)rascality (D)difficulty (E)smuggling
(10) CONTRITE
(A) smart (B)penitent (C)restful (D)recognized (E)perspiring
For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the closest
word that has the opposite meaning:
(11) MOURNFUL
(A) informal (B) sympathetic (C) private (D)appropriate (E)joyous
(12)
SCAD
(A) parsimony (B)allocation (C)dearth (D)restraint (E)provision
(13)
GRANDIOSE
(A) docile (B)unlikely to occur (C)symbol and unimposing (D)light in weight
(E)uncommunicative
(14)
ENTRENCH
(A) defy (B)oust (C)extinguish (D)squander (E)intercede
(15)
LACKLUSTER
(A) superficial (B)courteous (C)vibrant (D)complex (E)abundant
(16)
CENSURE
(A) augment (B)irradicate (C)enthrall (D)commend (E)reform
(17)
TRANSIENCE
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(A) slowness (B)permanence (C)lack of caution (D)desire for perfection

(E)original nature
(18)
DESICCATE
(A) lengthen
(B)hollow
(C)exonerate (D)saturate (E)anesthetize
(19)
PROTRUSION
(A)deep recess (B)strong dislike (C) growing scarcity (D)illusion (E)chaos
(20)
ENTICE
(A)repel (B)authorize
(C) baffle (D)misplace (E)diminish
Read the following text. The passage contains some blank spaces. Choose the
sentence from the list A I, which best fit in each of the blank spaces. The numbers
in brackets refer to Question numbers.
Desertification in the arid United states is flagrant.______21_______. Whole river
systems have dried up; others are choked with sediment washed from denuded land.
Hundreds of thousands of acres of previously irrigated cropland have been abandoned to
wind or weeds. ______22_________. All told, about 225 million acres of land are
undergoing severe desertification.
Federal subsides encourage the exploitation of arid land resources.____23_______.
Federal disaster relief and commodity programs encourage arid land farmers to plow up
natural grassland to plant crops such as wheat and, especially, cotton. _____24______.
The market, too, provides powerful incentives to exploit arid land resources beyond their
carrying capacity. When commodity prices are high relative to the farmers or ranchers
operating costs, the return on a production enhancing investment is invariably greater
than the return on conservation investment. ___25______
If the United States is, as it appears, well on its way toward overdrawing the arid land
resources ____26______ when productive benefits from arid-land resources have been
both realized and largely terminated.
A. Federal grazing fees that are well below the free market price encourage
overgrazing of the commons
B. And when commodity prices are relatively low, arid-land ranchers and farmers
often have to use all their available financial resources to stay solvent
C. Government Programs provide irrigation and water delivery system
D. Then the policy choice is simply to pay now for the appropriate remedies or pay
far more later
E. Several million acres of natural grassland are eroding at unnaturally high rates as
a result of cultivation or overgrazing.
F. Policies help the farmers to obtain loans for their crops
G. Groundwater supplies beneath vast stretches of land are dropping precipitously.
H. Low interest loans for irrigation and other water delivery systems encourage
farmers, industry, and municipalities to mine groundwater.
It is still the case that those who ultimately benefit from affirmative action.
I. Federal subsides that are provided encourage the exploration of untapped land
resources
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The history of mammals dates back at least to the Triassic times. Development was
retarded, however, until the sudden acceleration of evolutional change that occurred in
the oldest Paleocene. This led in the Eocene times to an increase in average size, larger
mental capacity, and special adaptations for different modes of life. In the Oligocene
Epoch, there was further improvement, with appearance of some new lines extinction of
others. Miocene and Pliocene time was marked by the culmination of several groups and
a continued approach toward modern characters. The peak of the career of the mammals
in variety and average large size was attained in the Miocene.
The adaptation of mammals to almost all possible modes of life parallels that of
the reptiles in Mesozoic times, and except for greater intelligence, the mammals do not
seem to have done much better than corresponding reptilian forms. The bat is doubtlessly
a better flying animal than the pterosaur, but the dolphin and whale are hardly more fish
like, than the ichthyosaur. Many swiftrunning mammals excel any of the dinosaurs. The
tyrannosaur was a more ponderous and powerful carnivore than any flesh-eating
mammal, but the lion or tiger is probably more efficient and dangerous beast of prey
because of a superior brain. The significant point to observe is that different branches of
mammals gradually fitted themselves to all sorts of life, grazing on the plains and able to
run swiftly (horse, deer, bison), living in rivers and swamps ( hippopotamus, beaver),
dwelling in trees(sloth, monkey), digging underground(mole, rodent), feeding on flesh in
the forest(tiger) and on the plain (wolf), swimming in the sea(dolphin, whale, seal) and
flying in the air(bat). Man is able by mechanical means to conquer the physical world and
to adapt himself to almost any set of conditions.
This adaptation produces gradual changes of form and structure. It is biologically
characteristic of the youthful, plastic stage of a group. Early in its career, an animal
assemblage seems to possess capacity for change, which, as the unit becomes old and
fixed, disappears. The generalized types of organisms retain longest the ability to make
adjustments when required, and it is from them that new, fecund stocks take origincertainly not from any specialized end products. So, in the mammals, we witness the
birth, plastic spread in many directions, increasing specialization, and in some branches
the extinction, which we have learned from observation of the geologic record of life, is a
characteristic of the evolution of life.
(27) Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?
(A) From Dinosaur to Man
(B) Adaptation and Extinction
(C) The Superiority of Mammals
(D) The Geologic Life Span
(E) Man, Conqueror of the Physical World.
(28) It can be inferred from the passage that the chronological order of the geologic
period is
(A) Paleocene, Miocene, Triassic, Mesozoic
(B) Paleocene, Triassic, Mesozoic, Miocene
(C) Miocene, Paleocene, Triassic, Mesozoic
(D) Mesozoic, Oligocene, Paleocene, Miocene
(E) Mesozoic, Paleocene, Eocene, Miocene
(29) It can be inferred from the passage that the pterosaur
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(A) resembled the bat

(B) was a Mesozoic mammal
(C) was a flying reptile
(D) lived in the sea
(E) evolved during the Miocene period
(30) According to the passage, the greatest number of forms of mammalian life are found
in the
(A) Triassic period
(B) Eocene period
(C) Oligocene epoch
(D) Pliocene period
(E) Miocene period
(31) Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the statement made by the
author
(A) Tyrannosaur had been found to have a larger brain than what was previously
thought
(B) Mammals will become extinct within the next thousand years.
(C) Forms of flying ichthyosaurs have recently been discovered.
(D) The tiger has been proved to be more powerful than carnivorous reptiles
(E) Computers have been developed that can double human mental capacity
(32) It can be inferred from the passage that the evidence the author uses in discussing
the life of the past time periods.
(A) Was developed by Charges Darwin.
(B) Was uncovered by the author
(C) Had been negated by more recent evidence
(D) Was never definitely established
(E) Is based on fossil remains.
PART II
Q1.
Q2.
Q3.
Q4.
Q5.
Fill in the missing number in the sequence

3
5
9
??
33
65
(a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 17 (d) 23 (e)37
In the following series, how many Ws are there such that each W is followed by a
C next to it, if the C is not followed by a R next to it.
W C W R Q M W C R M C W C C W Q M W
W C Q W C R C W A M C W C M
(a) 5 (b)6 (c)7 (d)4 (e)3
If CYRNFR is coded as PLEASE how will TNVA be coded?
(a)MIND
(b) FAIL
(c) GAIN
(d) BRAVE (e) MORE
Suppose the first and second letters in the word CONSTITUTIONAL were
interchanged, also the third and fourth letters, the fifth and sixth etc., print the
letter that would then be the twelfth letter counting from the right.
(a) T
(b) S
(c) N
(d) O
(e) U
In which number system would 1342 represent the decimal number 520?
(a) Base - 6 (b) Base - 8 (c) Base - 7 (d) Base - 5 (e) Base - 9
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Q6.
Q7.
Q8.
Q9.
Q10.
Q11.
Q12.
Q13.
What is the largest prime number that can be stored in an 8-bit word computer?
(a) 199
(b) 251
(c) 201
(d) 233
(e) 257
If n = 10 x 18 x 22, which of the following is NOT an integer?
(a)
n / 55
(b)
n / 132
(c)
n / 45
(d)
n / 78
(e)
n / 20
Which of the following is a power of 3?
a.
2672
b.
2187
c.
2735
d.
2898
e.
2414
Pick the odd one out
(a)
ORACLE
(b)
UNIX
(c)
INGRESS
(d)
DB2
(e)
SYBASE
(a)
SMTP
(b)
HTTP
(c)
WAP
(d)
SAP
(e)
ARP
The three numbers in brackets represent the length of the sides of a triangle.
Which of these does not represent a proper triangle?
(a)
(2m, 3m, 4m) (b)
(1m, 3m, 5m) (c)
(3m, 4m, 5m)
(d)
(3m, 3m, 3m) (e) (5m, 3m, 5m)
The three numbers in brackets in each of the following options represents the
number of vertices, the number of edges and the number of faces respectively.
Find out which of these represents a solid planar cube?
(a) (4,8,6)
(b) (8,6,12) (c) (8,12,6) (d) (6,6,6) (e) (12,6,8)
Which set of data exhibits a higher Standard Deviation?
(a)
7, 0, -7, 7, 0, -7
(b)
7, -7, 7, -7, 7, -7 (c) -7, -7, -7, -7, -7, -7
(d)
7, 7, 7, 7, 7, 7
(e)
7, 7, 7, 0, 7, 7
The three circles below represent the number of people speaking Bengali, Hindi
and English. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
14
49
45
Hindi
English
12
16
13
51
Bengali
Q14.
How many more (or less) people speak English than people who speak Hindi?
(a)2 (b)3 (c)1 (d)5 (e)6
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Q15.
What percentage of people speaking Bengali can also speak Hindi but not
English?
(a) 15 (b) 12 (c) 17.4 (d)16 (e)18
Q16. What percentage of total people can speak all three languages?
(a)4 (b)6 (c)5 (d)7 (e)8
The figure on the left represents status of manpower and the figure on the right depicts
qualification wise distribution for 1998
140
120
Others
12%
100
Strength (in "00s)
Ph.Ds
8%
80
60
B.Techs
55%
M.Techs
25%
40
20
0
Q17.
Q18.
Q19
Q20.
1996
1997
1998
1999
Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth?

(a) 1998
(b) 1994
(c) 1996
(d) 1686
(e) 1888
What is the average number of people for 1995-1999?
(a) 7700
(b) 6800
(c) 4800
(d) 8800
(e) 7800
If 10% of people on the rolls in 1998 left the Company, how many fresh hires
were made in 1999?
(a) 4500
(b) 4600
(c) 5400
(d) 4400
(e) 4900
A hypothetical physical quantity is defined as:
(Force X Distance)
(Velocity X Velocity)
Q21.
1995
In what fundamental units would this quantity be expressed?

(a)Time
(b) Velocity (c) Mass
(d) Distance (e) None
A can do a piece of work in 15 days and B in 20 days. With the help of C, they
finish the work in 5 days. How long will it take C to finish the work?
(a)30 (b)12 (c)10 (d)30 (e) None
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Q22.
Which of these matrices is singular

12
A=
6
Q23.
Q24.
Q25.
Q26.
33 -5
B=
6 -1
Q28.
Q29.
10
12
D=
1
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) None

Match the following relationships:
(i)
Mammal Cow
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
Basmati Wheat
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Snake Reptile
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Roof Building
(4)
Superset of
(a) i-3,ii-1,iii-4,iv-2 (b) i-4,ii-1,iii-3,iv-2 (c)i-4,ii-1,iii-2,iv-3
(d) i-3,ii-2,iii-1,iv-4 (e) i-1,ii-4,iii-3,iv-2
If $ stands for change of sign and # stands for tripling what is the value of
# $ # (7) - $ # $ (7)?
(a)89 (b)84 (c) -84 (d)87 (e)85
A sequence is defined recursively as
f(0) = -1;
f(1) = 1
f(n) = f(n-1) - f(n-2)
What will be the value of f(6)?
(a)-2 (b)-1 (c)1 (d)2 (e)3
What curve best suits the following data:
0.99
10.04
99.98
1000
9990
Q27.
1
C=
Y
0.00001
1.02
1.997
3.0
4.004
(a) y = logn x (b) y = log10 x (c) y = ex (d) y = -log10 x (e) y = - ex

A Two-dimensional array X(7,9) is stored linearly row-wise in a computer's
memory. Each element requires 4 bytes for storage of the value. If the first byte
address of X(1,1) is 3000, what would be the last byte address of X(5, 8)?
(a) 3225
(b)3455
(c)3175
(d)3245
(e)3155
Of the four vectors A,B,C,D find out which pair forms an orthogonal set
A = 2i-3j, B = -7i+j, C = 3i+2j, D = i+j
(a)AC (b) AD (c) BC (d) BD (e) AB
Evaluate the expression :
M(373,7) + R(3.4) + T(7.7) - R(5.8) where
M stands for Modulo arithmetic, R stands for Round-off operation and T stands
for Truncation Operation
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Q30.
Q31.
Q32.
(a)5 (b)7 (c) 6 (d)8 (e)9

Three independent strategies A, B and C have been initiated for cost cutting in a
company producing respectively 30%, 20% and 40% savings. Assuming that they
operate independently, what is the net saving achieved?
(a)58%
(b)64%
(c)66.4%
(d) 69%
(e) 54%
The scores in the class exams and final exams of 2 students are given as below:
Class exam
Final exam
3
1.4
3.5
1.65
Find the Class exam score of a student who has scored 6 in the Final exam.
(a) 12.2
(b) 13
(c) 10.1
(d) 10.2
(e) 12.5
What equation best describes the curve shown below:
Q33.
Q34.
Q35.
(a) x + y = 0 (b) y + 3 = x (c) y = tan x (d) y = Cos x (e) y = ex

The temperature at Kochi is given by the function: -t2/6+4t+12 where t is the
elapsed time since midnight. What is the percentage rise (or fall) in temperature
between 6.00 PM and 9.00 PM?
(a)13%
(b)15%
(c)20%
(d)-25%
(e) 30%
o
o
An aircraft takes off from A (12 N Lat, 60 E Long) at 2.00 AM local time to B
(32o N Lat, 60o W Long). If the flying time is 10 hours what is the local time of
landing at B?
(a) 5.40 AM (b) 6.40 AM (c) 4.00 AM (d) 7.00AM (e) 8.00AM
Fill in the last row of the following Truth Table:
A
B
C
(A B ) C
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0
0
0
0
0
1
0
1
0
0
1
1
1
0
0
1
0
1
1
1
0
1
1
1
Interpret the resulting bit pattern as an integer in an 8-bit computer and write the
decimal value.
(a) 98 (b) 96 (c) 92 (d) 93 (e) 91
Q36.
Q37.
Q38.
A file is transferred from one location to another in 'buckets'. The size of the
bucket is 10 kilobytes. The bucket gets filled at the rate of 0.0001 kilobytes per
millisecond. The transmission time from sender to receiver is 10 milliseconds per
bucket. After the receipt of the bucket the receiver sends an acknowledgement
that reaches sender in 100 milliseconds. Assuming no error during transmission,
write a formula to calculate the time taken in seconds to successfully complete the
transfer of a file of size N kilobytes.
(a)11.01 N
(b)10.11 N
(c)10.011 N (d)11.011 N (e)10.101 N
The memory used by a program is given by the function P(N) = 4000 N, where
N is the size of the program. Find the percentage change in memory usage if the
size of the program is increased by 1%.
(a) 0.5%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 0.75%
(d) 1%
(e) 2%
A telephone cable is to be run from a junction point on the bank of a river 900
meters wide to an office that is located 3000 meters downstream on the opposite
bank. If the cost of laying cable under water is Rs. 5 per meter and that of laying
the overhead on land is Rs. 4 per meter, find the point downstream where the
cable is to cut across the river.
(a) 450
(b) 3900
(c) 2700
(d) 2100
(e) 1800
PART III
Read the following passages and answer questions under each passage
(1) For a motorist there are 3 ways of going from City A to City C. By way of a bridge the
distance is 20 miles and the toll is 70 cents. A tunnel between the 2 cities is a distance of 10
miles and the toll is $ 1.00 for the vehicle and the driver and 10 cents for the passenger.
A tow-lane highway without tolls goes east for 30 miles to City B and then 20 miles in a
northwest direction to city C.
1. Which of the following is the shortest route from City B to City C?
A. Directly on the toll-free highway to city C
B. The bridge
C. The tunnel
D. The tunnel or the bridge
E. The bridge only if traffic is heavy on the toll free highway
2. The most economical way of going from City A to City B, in terms of tolls and distance,
is to use the:
A. Tunnel
B. Bridge
C. Bridge or tunnel
D. Toll free highway
E. Bridge and highway.
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3. Martin usually drives form City C to City A every working day. His firm deducts a
percentage of employee pay for lateness. Which factor would most probably influence his
choice of the bridge or the tunnel?
A. Whether his wife goes with him
B. Scenic interest of each route
C. Traffic conditions on the bridge, road and tunnel
D. Savings of 25 cents in tolls
E. Price of gasoline consumed in covering the 10 additional miles on the bridge.
4. In choosing between the use of the bridge and the tunnel, the chief factor(s) would be :
I. Traffic and road conditions
II. Number of passengers in the car
III. Location of ones home in the center or outskirts of one of the cities.
IV. Desire to save 25 cents
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. III and IV only
E. I and II only
(2) A project to consolidate the programs of a large university and a small college is set up.
It is agreed that the representative work in small committees of three, with 2 representatives
of the large university. It was also agreed that no committee be represented by faculty
members of the same subject area.
The large university was represented by the following professors: J, who teaches English
literature, K, who is chairman of the Mathematics Department and L who is in the
Department of Natural Sciences. The small college appointed the following: M, who
teaches mathematics, N, who is a Latin teacher, and O and P who teach English literature.
1. Which of the following represents a committee well composed?
A. K, L, N
B. K, L, M
C. J, K, L
D. J, O, N
E. J, K, M
2. Which of the following may serve with P?
A. K and M
B. K and L
C. K and O
D. J and K
E. M and N
3. Which of the following must be true?
I. If J serves on a committee, P must be assigned to that committee.
II. If J cannot serve on a committee, and then M cannot be assigned to that committee.
III. If J cannot serve on a committee, and then L must serve on that committee.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
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E. II and III only

4. If L is not available for service, which of the following must be on that committee?
A. M and J
B. O and J
C. N and J
D. N and O
E. P and J
(3) In a certain society, there are 2 marriage groups, Red and Brown. No marriage is
permitted within a group. On marriage, males become part of their wifes group; women
remain in their own group. Children belong to the same group as their parents.
Widowers and divorced males revert to the group of their birth. Marriage to more than one
person at the same time and marriage to a direct descendant are forbidden.
1. A Brown female could have had:
I. A grandfather born Red.
II. A grandmother born Red.
III. Two grandfathers born Brown
A. I only
B. III only
IV.
I and II only
A. II and III only
B. I, II and III only
2. A male born into the Brown group may have:
A. an uncle in either group
B. a Brown daughter
C. a Brown son
D. a son-in-law born into the Red group
E. a daughter-in-law in the Red group.
3. Which of the following is not permitted under the rules as stated?
A. A Brown male marrying his fathers sister
B. A Red female marrying her mothers brother
C. A man born Red, who is now a widower, marrying his brothers widow
D. A widower marrying his wifes sister
E. A widow marrying her divorced daughters ex-husband.
4 If widowers and divorced males retained the group they had upon marrying, which
of the following would be permissible?
A. A woman marrying her dead sisters husband.
B. A woman marrying her divorced daughters ex-husband
C. A widower marrying his brothers daughter.
D. A woman marrying her mothers brother, who is a widower
E. A divorced male marrying his ex-wifes divorced sister
END OF PART III
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11
V.
TCS TALENT TEST 002
PART I
For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the word that is
closest in meaning:
(11) CONTROVERT
(A) turn over (B)contradict
(C)mind
(D)explain
(E)swing
(12) CONVENE
(A) propose (B)restore
(C)question
(D)gather (E)motivate
(13) CONVERSANT
(A) ignorant
(B)speaking
(C)incorporated
(D)familiar (E)pedantic
(14) COPIOUS
(A) plentiful
(B)cheating
(C)dishonorable
(D)adventurous (E)inspired
(15) CORPULENT
(A) regenerate
(B)obese
(C)different
(D)hungry (E)bloody
(16) DECIMATE
(A) kill (B)disgrace (C)search
(D)collide (E)deride
(17) DECLIVITY
(A)trap
(B)quadrangle
(C)quarter
(D)activity (E)downward slope
(18) DECOLLETE
(A) flavoured
(B)demure
(C)flowery
(D)low-necked (E)sweet
(19) DECOROUS
(A) momentary
(B)emotional
(C)suppressed
(D)proper
(E)unexpected
(20) DECREPITUDE
(A) feebleness
(B) disease (C)coolness
(D)melee
(E)crowd
(21) ORTHODOXY
(A)renown (B)trepidation (C) unconventionality (D)inquisitiveness (E)remoteness
(22) SUMPTOUS
(A)dank
(B)frequent (C)partial (D)restrained (E)open
(23) DISSOLUTION
(A)retribution (B)compliance(C) futility (D)persuasion (E)establishment
(24) IRK
(A)pry (B)tinge (C)beguile (D)convince (E)soothe
(25) LIMBER
(A)sturdy
(B)orderly
(C)durable (D)stiff (E)gloomy
(26) OBLIQUITY
(A) praise
(B)straightforwardness (C)conformity (D)self-righteousness
E)depreciation
(27) SLUR
(A) sensitivity (B)sacrifice (C)understatement (D)challenge (E)commendation
(28) APOTHEOSIS
(A) departure form tradition (B)impatience with stupidity (C)demotion from glory
(D)surrender to impulse (E)cause for grief
(29) ENERVATE
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(A) narrate (B)enrage (C)accomplish (D)invigorate (E)acquiesce

(30) PARSIMONIOUS
(A) appropriate (B)generous (C)complete (D)radiant (E)ongoing
sentence from the list A I, that best fits in each of the blank spaces. The numbers
systems have dried up; others are choked with sediment washed from denuded
land. Hundreds of thousands of acres of previously irrigated cropland have been
abandoned to wind or weeds. ______22_________. All told, about 225 million
acres of land are undergoing severe desertification.
Federal disaster relief and commodity programs encourage arid land farmers to
plow up natural grassland to plant crops such as wheat and, especially, cotton.
_____24______. The market, too, provides powerful incentives to exploit arid
land resources beyond their carrying capacity. When commodity prices are high
relative to the farmers or ranchers operating costs, the return on a production
enhancing investment is invariably greater than the return on conservation
investment. ___25______
resources ____26______ when productive benefits from arid-land resources have
been both realized and largely terminated.
I. Federal grazing fees that are well below the free market price encourage
J. And when commodity prices are relatively low, arid-land ranchers and farmers
K. Government Programs provide irrigation and water delivery system
L. Then the policy choice is simply to pay now for the appropriate remedies or pay
far moir later
M. Several million acres of natural grassland are eroding at unnaturally high rates as
N. Policies help the farmers to obtain loans for their crops
O. Groundwater supplies beneath vast stretches of land are dropping precipitously.
P. Low interest loans for irrigation and other water delivery systems encourage
I. It is still the case that those who ultimately benefit from affirmative action.
Plato who may have understood better what forms the mind of man than do some of our
contemporaries, who what their children exposed only to real people and
everyday events- knew what intellectual experiences make for true humanity. He
suggested that the future citizens of this ideal republic begin their literary
education with the telling of myths, rather than with mere facts or so-called
rational teachings. Even Aristotle, master of pure reason, said: The friend of
wisdom is also a friend of myth.
Modern thinkers who have studied myths and fairy tales from a philosophical or
psychological viewpoint arrive at the same conclusion, regardless of their original
persuasion. Marcia Elide, for one, describes these stories as models for human behavior
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13
that, by that very fact, give meaning and value to life. Drawing one anthropological
parallel, he and others suggest that myths and fairy tales were derived from, or give
symbolic expressions to, initiation rites or rites of passage- such as metaphoric death of
an old, inadequate self in order to be reborn on a higher plane of existence. He feels that
this is why these tales meet a strongly felt need and are carriers of such deep meaning.
Other investigators with a depth-psychological orientation, emphasize the similarities
between the fantastic events in myths and fairy tales and those in adult dreams and
daydreams- the fulfillments of wishes, the winning out over all competitors, and the
destruction of enemies- and conclude that one attraction of this literature is its expression
of that which is normally prevented from coming to awareness.
There are, of course, very significant differences between fairy tales and dreams. For
example, in dreams more often than not the wish fulfillment is disguised, while in
fairy tales much of it is openly expressed. To a considerable degree, dreams are
the result of inner pressures which have found no relief, of problems which beset
a person to which he knows no solution and to which the dream finds none. The
fairy tale does the opposite: it projects the relief of all pressures and not only
offers ways to solve problems but promises that a happy solution will be found.
We cannot control what goes on in our dreams. Although our inner censorship
influences what we may dream, such control occurs in an unconscious level. The fairy
tale, on the other hand, is very much the result of common conscious and unconscious
content that have been shaped by the conscious mind, not of one particular person, but
the consensus of many in regard to what they view as universal human problems and
what they accept as desirable solutions. If all these elements were not present in a fairy
tale, it would not be retold generation after generation. Only if a fairy tale met the
conscious and unconscious requirements of many people was it repeatedly retold, and
listened to with great interest. No dream of a person could arouse such persistent interest
unless it was worked into a myth, as was the story of the pharaohs dream as interpreted
by Joseph in the Bible.
(27) It can be inferred from the passage that the authors interest in fairy tales centers
chiefly on their
A. Literary qualities.
B. Historical background
C. Factual accuracy
D. Psychological relevance
E. Ethical weakness
(28) According to the passage, fairy tales differ from dreams in which of the following
characteristics?
I.
The communal nature of their creation.
II.
Their convention of a happy ending.
III.
Their enduring general appeal
(A) I only.
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I,II, and III
(29) It can be inferred from the passage that Mircea Eliade is most likely
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14
(A) a writer of childrens literature

(B) a student physical anthropology.
(C) A twentieth- century philosopher
(D) An advocate of practical education.
(E) a contemporary of Plato.
(30) Which of the following best describes the authors attitude toward fairy tales?
(A) Reluctant fascination
(B) Wary skepticism
(C) Scornful disapprobation
(D) Indulgent tolerance
(E) Open approval
(31) The author quotes Plato and Aristotle primarily in order to
(A) define the nature of myth.
(B) Contrast their opposing points of view.
(C) Support the point that myths are valuable.
(D) Prove that myths originated in ancient times.
(E) Give an example of depth psychology.
(32) The author mentions all of the following as reasons for reading fairy tales EXCEPT
(A) emotional catharsis,
(B) behavioral paradigm
(C) uniqueness of experience
(D) sublimation of aggression
(E) symbolic satisfaction.
PART II
Q1.
7
8
9
11
13
??
19
26
(a) 24 (b) 21 (c) 17 (d) 15 (e) 18
Q2.
In the following series, how many Us are there such that each U is followed by an
G next to it if the G is not followed by a S next to it.
U G U S Q M U G S M G U G G U Q M U
U G Q U G S G U A M G U G M
(a)2 (b)3 (c)5 (d)4 (e)6
Q3.
If FLPMXQHO is coded as COMPUTER how will GFVMOXB be coded?
(a) PROCESS (b) CENTRAL (c) PLEASE (d) SURMISE (e) DISPLAY
Q4.
Suppose the first and second letters in the word CONSEQUENCES were
interchanged, also the third and fourth letters, the fifth and sixth etc. Print the
letter that would then be the eighth letter counting from the right.
(a) C
(b) E
(c) N
(d) Q (e) S
Q5.
How would the decimal number 362 be represented in a base -6 number System?
(a) 1234
(b) 1342
(c) 1362
(d) 1544
(e) 1645
Q6.
What is the largest prime number that can be stored in a 7-bit word computer?
(a) 123
(b) 129
(c) 121
(d) 127
(e) 119
Q7.
a.
n / 15
b.
n / 21
c.
n / 64
d.
n / 35
e.
n / 78
Q8.
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15
Q9.
Q10.
Q11.
Q12.
Q13.
a.
2148
b.
2096
c.
2048
d.
2444
e.
2198
Pick the odd one out:
(a)
ORACLE
(b)
SYBASE
(c)
SMTP
(d)
DB2
(e)
INGRESS
Pick the odd one out:
(a)
UNIX
(b)
WINDOWS NT
(c)
LINUX
(d)
MVS
(e)
C++
(a)
(5m,3m,4m) (b)
(4m,5m,4m) (c)
(4m,6m,8m)
(d)
(6m,2m,2m) (e)
(12m,6m,8m)
number of edges ,the number of vertices and the number of faces respectively.
(a) (4,8,12) (b) (12,8,6) (c) (8,6,12) (d) (8,8,8) (e) (12,6,8)
(a)
3, -3, 3, -3, 3, -3
(b)
3, 0, -3, 3, 0, -3 (c) 3, 3, 3, 0, 3, 3
(d)
3, 3, 3, 3, 3, 3
(e)
-3, -3, -3, -3, -3, -3
The three circles below represent the number of people speaking French, German
14
49
45
German
English
12
16
13
51
French
Q14.
Q15.
Q16.
How many more (or less) people speak English than people who speak German?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 5 (e) 6
What percentage of people speaking French can also speak German but not
English?
(a) 16 (b) 14 (c) 17.4 (d) 15 (e) 13
What percentage of people can totally speak all three languages?
(a) 4
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(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) 8
16
The figure on the left represents number of members in a Club and the figure on
the right depicts profession wise distribution for 1998
140
Executives
12%
120
100
Others
8%
80
Members (in "00s)
Businessmen
60
55%
Doctors
25%
40
20
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Q17.
Q18.
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.
Q23.
Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth in members?

(a) 1996
(b) 1998
(c) 1994
(d) 1686
(e) 1888
What are the average members for 1995-1999?
(a) 7700
(b) 8800
(c)6800
(d)4800
(e) 7800
If 10% of members in 1998 left the Club, how many fresh members were made in
1999?
(a)4500
(b) 4900
(c)4600
(d) 4400
(e) 5400
A hypothetical physical quantity is defined as
(Energy X Time X Time)
(Mass X Distance)
(a)Time (b) Distance (c) Velocity (d) Mass (e) None
A, B and C together can finish a piece of work in 4 days; A alone can do it in 12
days and B alone can do it in 18 days. How many days will be taken by C to do it
alone?
(a)21 (b)27 (c)9 (d)6 (e)8
8
6
-1 7
3 2
0 3
A=
B=
C=
D=
4
3
0 6
5 9
3
0
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D (e) None
(i)
Animal
Lion
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
Television Conveyance
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Square Polygon
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Piston Engine
(4)
Superset of
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17
Q24.
Q25.
Q26.

If @ stands for squaring and + stands for square root what is the value of
@ @ + (25) - + + @ (36)?
(a) 625
(b) 631
(c) 619
(d) -619
(e) 627
g(0) = -1;
g(1) = 1
g(n) = g(n-1) + g(n-2)
What will be the value of g(5)?
(a)1 (b)-2 (c)3 (d)2 (e)5
VI.
0.99
10.04
99.98
1000
9990
Q27.
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
Q31.

A Two-dimensional array X (9,7) is stored linearly column-wise in a computer's
address of X (1,1) is 3000, what would be the last byte address of X (8,5)?
(a) 3241
(b)3541
(c)3431
(d)3556
(e)3224
Of the four straight lines A,B,C,D find out which pair forms an orthogonal set
A: 3x+4y-7 = 0, B: y = -x , C: y = 7x+3, D: 4x = 3y+5
(a)AD (b)AC (c)BC (d)BD (e)AB
Evaluate the expression
M(843,5) + R(5.8) + T(7.7) - R(3.4) where
M stands for Modular arithmetic, R stands for Round-off operation and T stands
(a)12 (b)11 (c) 13 (d)14 (e)15
(a) 45%
(b) 49.6%
(c) 54%
(d) 56%
(e) 48%
The log values of two numbers to the base 10 are given as below:
X
log10X
3.142
0.4972061807
3.143
0.4973443810
Find log103.141.
(a) 0.49706
Q32.
Y
0.00001
1.02
1.997
3.0
4.004
(b) 0.59720
(c) 0.49110
(d) 0.49420
(e) 0.49440
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18
Y
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
X
-2
(a)y = tan x (b) y + 3 = x (c)y + x = 0 (d) y = ex

(e) y = Cos x
Q33. The temperature at Kochi is given by the function: -t2/6+4t+12 where t is the
elapsed time since noon. What is the percentage rise (or fall) in temperature
(a) 15%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 10%
(e) 10.5%
Q34. An aircraft takes off from A (72o N Lat, 40o E Long) at 2.00 AM local time to B
landing at B?
(a)5.40 AM (b) 3.00 AM (c) 4.00 AM (d) 5.00AM (e) 8.00AM
Q35. Fill in the last row of the following Truth Table:
A
0
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
B
0
0
1
1
0
0
1
1
C
0
1
0
1
0
1
0
1
(A B ) C
decimal value.
(a) 127 (b)129 (c)128 (d) 131(e)122
Q36.
(a) 10.11 N (b) 10.011 N (c) 11.01 N (d)11.011 N (e)10.101 N
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19
Q37.
Q38.
The productivity of a group of workers is given by the function

P(N) = 4000 N, where N is the total strength. Find the percentage change in
productivity if the strength of the group is increased by 1%.
(a) 0.75%
(b) 0.5%
(c) 0.25%
(d) 1%
(e) 2%
A power cable is to be run from a power plant on the bank of a river 900 meters
wide to a factory that is located 3000 meters downstream on the opposite bank. If
the cost of laying cable under water is Rs. 5 per meter and that of laying overhead
on land is Rs. 4 per meter, find the point downstream where the cable is to cut
across the river.
(a) 450
(b) 3900
(c) 1800
(d) 2100
(e) 2700
PART III
(1) The letters A, B, C, D, E, F and G not necessarily in that order, stand for seven
consecutive integers from 1 to 10.
D is less than A
B is the middle term
F is as much less than B as C is greater than D
G is greater than F
1. A is much greater than F, as which integer is less than G?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) E
2. If A = 7, the sum of E and G is:
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14
(E) 16
3. An integer T is as much greater than C as C is greater than E. T can be written
as A+E. What is D?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) cannot be determined
4. The greatest possible value of C is how much greater than the smallest possible
value of D?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
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20
(2) In country X, the Conservative, Democratic and Justice parties have fought 3 civil
wars in 20 years. To restore stability, an agreement is reached to rotate the top officesPresident, Prime Minister and Chief of Army Staff among the parties, so that each
party controls one and only one office at all times.
The 3 top office holders must have each 2 deputies, one from each pf the other parties.
Each deputy must choose a staff composed equally of members of his or her chiefs
party and members of the third party.
1. When the Justice party holds one of the top offices, which of the following cannot
be true?
A. Some of the staff members within that office are Justice party members.
B. Some of the staff members within that office are Democratic Party members
C. Two of the deputies within the other offices are Justice party members.
D. Two of the deputies within the other offices are Conservative Party members
E. Some of the staff members within the other offices are Justice party
members.
2. When the Democratic party holds the presidency, the staffs of the Prime Ministers
deputies are composed.
I.
one fourth of Democratic party members
II.
one half of Justice Party members, one fourth of Conservative party members
III.
one half of Conservative party members, one fourth of Justice party members
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III, but not both
D. I and II or I and III
E. Neither I, II, Nor III
3. Which of the following is allowable under the rules as stated?
A. More than half of the staff within a given office belonging to a single party
B. Half the staff members within a given office belonging to a single party
C. Any person having a member of the same party as his or her immediate
superior
D. Half the total number of the staff members in all three offices are belonging
to a single party.
E. Half the staff members within a given office belonging to a parties different
from the party of the top office holder in that office
4. The office of the Chief of Army Staff passes from the Conservative to the justice
party. Which of the following must be fired?
A. The Democratic deputy and all staff members belonging to the justice party.
B. The Justice party deputy and all his or her staff members
C. The Justice party deputy and half of the Conservative staff members in the chief of
staff office
D. The Conservative deputy and all of his or her staff members belonging to the
Conservative Party
E. No deputies, and all staff members belonging to the Conservative Party
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21
(3) Tom wishes to enroll in Latin, Sanskrit, Armenian Literature and Celtic Literature.
Latin meets five days a week, either from 9 to 11 am or from 2 to 4 p.m.
Sanskrit meets either on Tuesday or Thursday from 12 noon to 3 p.m. or Monday,
Wednesday and Friday from 10 am to 12 noon
Armenian Literature meets Monday, Wednesday and Friday from 12:30 to 2 p.m. and
Thursday from 10:30 am to 12:30 p.m.
Celtic Literature meets by arrangement with the instructor, the only requirement being that
it meet for one four hour session or two two hour sessions per week, between 9am and 4
p.m. from Monday to Friday, beginning on the hour
1. Which combination is impossible for Tom?
A. Latin in the morning, Sanskrit on Tuesday and Armenian Literature on Monday,
Wednesday and Friday.
B. Latin in the afternoon and Sanskrit and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday
and Friday.
C. Latin in the afternoon, Sanskrit on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday and
Armenian Literature on Tuesday and Thursday.
D. Latin in the afternoon and Sanskrit and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday
and Friday
E. Latin in the morning, Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday and Friday and
Celtic Literature on Tuesday.
2. Which of the following gives the greatest number of alternatives for scheduling Celtic
Literature, assuming that all other courses are scheduled without conflicts?
A. Latin in the afternoon and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday and Friday
B. Sanskrit on Tuesday and Thursday and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday
and Friday.
C. Latin in the afternoon and Armenian Literature on Tuesday and Thursday.
D. Latin in the morning and Sanskrit on Tuesday and Thursday
E. Sanskrit on Monday, Wednesday and Friday and Armenian Literature on Tuesday and
Thursday.
3. If the Celtic instructor insists on holding at least one session on Friday in which of the
following can Tom enroll?
Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday
Sanskrit on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. I or II but not both
E. Neither I nor II
4. Which of the following additional courses, meeting as indicated can Tom take?
A. Old Church Slavonic- Monday, Wednesday, and Friday from 10 am to 12 noon
B. Intermediary Aramaic- Monday, Wednesday, and Friday form 11 am to 12:30 p.m.
C. Introductory Arcadian Tuesday and Thursday from 2 to 4 p.m.
D. Fundamentals of Basque- Tuesday and Thursday from 1 to 3 p.m.
E. Old- Norse Icelandic- Monday only from 12 to 3 p.m.
TCS TALENT TEST 003
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22
PART I
(31) DEFAULT
(A) failure to act (B)tendency to err (C)desire to remedy (D)debt
(E)misunderstanding
(32) DEFECTION
(A) determination
(B)desertion
(C)invitation
(D)affection
(E)reservation
(33) DEFILE
(A) manicure
(B)ride
(C)pollute
(D)assemble
(E)order
(34) DEGRADED
(A) surprise (B)lowered
(C)ascended
(D) learned
(E)prejudged
(35) DELETERIOUS
(A) delaying (B)experimental
(C)harmful
(D)graduating
(E)glorious
(36) DELUGE
(A) confusion
(B)deception
(C)flood
(D)mountain
(E)weapon
(37) DENIGRATE
(A) refuse (B)blacken
(C)terrify
(D)admit
(E)review
(38) DENOUMENT
(A) action
(B)scenery
(C)resort
(D)character
(E)solution
(39) DEPRAVITY
(A) wickedness (B) sadness (C)heaviness (D)tidiness
(E)seriousness
(40) DERANGED
(A) insane (B)systematic
(C)neighbourly
(D)alphabetical
(E)surrounded
(41) HEDGE
(A) act on impulse (B)refuse to represent (C)stake without qualification (D)make a
foolish comment (E)establish a connection
(42) ABROGATE
(A) transgress (B)signify (C)alleviate (D)question (E)ratify
(43) INDUSTRY
(A) cleanliness (B) pragmatism (C) sloth (D) promptness (E) abasement
(44) SPUNK
(A) success (B)timidity
(C) growing awareness (D) lack of intelligence (E) loss
of prestige
(45) SAGE
(A) zealot (B)miser (C)braggart (D)fool (E)tyrant
(46) ADMONITION
(A) premonition (B) hallucination (C) escape (D) commendation (E) trepidation
(47) CHARY
(A) lugubrious(B) brash (C) indifferent (D) graceful (E) scornful
(48) STUPEFY
(A) lie (B)bend (C) enliven (D) talk nonsense (E) consider thoughtfully
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(49) COGENT
(A) contemplate (B) unpersuasive (C) expository (D) stable (E) inconceivable
(50) FICKLE
(A) spotless (B) industrious (C) welcome (D) urgent (E)loyal
_____24______. The marker, too, provides powerful incentives to exploit arid
Q. Federal grazing fees that are well below the free market price encourage
R. And when commodity prices are relatively low, arid-land ranchers and farmers
S. Government Programs provide irrigation and water delivery system
T. Then the policy choice is simply to pay now for the appropriate remedies or pay
far moir later
U. Several million acres of natural grassland are eroding at unnaturally high rates as
V. Policies help the farmers to obtain loans for their crops
W. Groundwater supplies beneath vast stretches of land are dropping precipitously.
X. Low interest loans for irrigation and other water delivery systems encourage
Of the 197 millions square miles making up the surface of the globe, 71 percent
covered by the interconnecting bodies of marine water; the Pacific Ocean alone covers
half of the Earth and averages nearly 14,000 feet in depth. The continents- Eurasia,
Africa, North America, South America, Australia, and Antarctica- are the portions of the
continental masses rising above sea level. The submerged borders of the continental
masses are the continental shelves, beyond which lie the deep-sea basins.
The oceans attain their greatest depths not in their central parts, but in certain
elongated furrows, or long narrow troughs called deeps. These profound troughs have a
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24
peripheral arrangement, notably around the borders of the Pacific and Indian Oceans. The
position of the deeps near the continental masses suggests that the deeps, like the highest
mountains, are of recent origin, since otherwise they would have been filled with waste
from lands. This suggestion is strengthened by the fact that the deeps are frequently the
sites of world-shaking earthquakes. For example the tidal wave that in April, 1946,
caused widespread destruction along Pacific coasts resulted from a strong earthquake on
the floor of the Aleutian Deep.
The topography of the ocean floors is none too well known, since in great areas the
available soundings are hundreds or even thousands of miles apart. However, the floor of
the Atlantic is becoming fairy well known as a result of special surveys since 1920. A
broad, well defined ridge- the Mid Atlantic ridge- runs north and the south between
Africa and the two Americas, and numerous other major irregularities diversify the
Atlantic floor. Closely spaced soundings show that many parts of the oceanic floors are as
rugged as mountainous regions of the continents. Use of the recently perfected methods
of echo sounding is rapidly enlarging our knowledge of submarine topography. During
World War II great strides were made in mapping submarine surfaces, particularly in
many parts of the vast Pacific basin.
The continents stand on the average 2870 feet-slightly more than the half a mileabove sea level. North America averages 2300 feet: Europe averages only 1150 feet; and
Asia, the highest of the larger continental sub divisions, averages 3200 feet. The highest
point on the globe. Mount Everest in the Himalayas, is 29,000 feet above the sea; and as
the greatest known depth in the sea is over 35,000 feet, the maximum relief( that is, the
difference in altitude between the lowest and highest points) exceeds 64,000 feet, or
exceeds 12 miles. The continental masses and the deep-sea basins are relief features of
the first order; the deeps, ridges, and volcanic cones that diversify the sea floor as well as
the plains, plateaus, and mountains of the continents, are relief features of the second
order. The lands are unendingly subject to a complex of activities summarized in the term
erosion, which first sculptures them in great details and then tends to reduce them
ultimately to sea level. The modeling of the landscape by weather, running water and
other agents is apparent to the keenly observant eye and causes thinking people to
speculate on what must be the final result of the ceaseless wearing down of the lands.
Long before there was a science of geology, Shakespeare wrote the revolution of the
times makes mountains level.
(27) Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?
(A) Features of the Earths Surface.
(B) Marine Topography
(C) The Causes of Earthquakes.
(D) Primary Geologic Considerations.
(E) How to prevent Erosion.
(28) It can be inferred from the passage that the largest ocean is the
(A) Atlantic
(B) Pacific
(C) Indian
(D) Antarctic
(E) Arctic
(29) The revolution of the times as used in the final sentence means.
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25
(A) The passage of years

(B) The current rebellion
(C) The science of geology.
(D) The action of the ocean floor
(E) The overthrow of natural forces.
(30) According to the passage, the peripheral furrows or deeps are found.
(A) Only in the Pacific and Indian oceans
(B) Near earthquakes
(C) Near the shore
(D) In the center of the ocean
(E) To be 14,000 feet in depths in the Pacific,
(31) The passage contains information that would answer which of the following
questions?
I. What is the highest point on North America?
II. Which continental subdivision is, on the average, 1150 feet above the sea level?
III. How deep is the deepest part of the ocean?
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) II and III only
(32) From this passage, it can be inferred that earthquakes
(A) Occur only in the peripheral furrows.
(B) Occurs more frequently in newly formed land or sea formations
(C) Are a prime cause of soil erosion
(D) Will ultimately make mountain level
(E) Are caused by the weight of the water.
PART II
Q1.
26
19
17
13
11
??
8
7
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d)10 (e)12
Q2.
In the following series, how many Bs are there such that each B is followed by an
K next to it if the K is not followed by a S next to it.
B K B S Q M B K S M K B K K B Q M B B
K Q B K S K B A M K B K M
(a) 2 (b)3 (c)5 (d)4 (e)6
Q3.
If DSPXE is coded as CROWD how will BMBSN be coded?
(a) SHEET
(b) TRIAL
(c) ALARM (d)MIND
(e) CIGAR
Q4.
Suppose the first and second letters in the word DESTABLISATION were
(a) T
(b) I
(c) N
(d) S
(e) A
Q5.
(a) Base - 7 (b) Base - 8 (c) Base - 5 (d) Base - 6 (e) Base 9
Q6.
318737514.doc
26
Q7.
Q8.
(a) 133
(b) 119
(c) 121
(d) 127
(e) 139
(a)
n / 65
(b)
n / 156
(c)
n / 90
(d)
n / 76
(e)
n / 20
a.
4148
b.
4196
c.
4198
d.
4096
e.
4248

Q9.
(a)
ORACLE
(b)
SYBASE
(c)
INGRESS
(d)
DB2
(e)
C++
Q10. (a)
UNIX
(b)
WINDOWS NT
(c)
JAVA
(d)
MVS
(e)
LINUX
Q11. The three numbers in brackets represent the angles of a triangle. Which of these
does not represent a proper triangle?
(a)
(30,71,79) (b)
(60,90,30) (c)
(73,67,40)
(d)
(110,60,20) (e)
(70,55,55)
Q12. The three numbers in brackets in each of the following options represents the
(a) (4,8,6)
(b) (8,6,12) (c) (8,4,6)
(d) (6,6,6) (e) (12,8,6)
Q13. Which set of data exhibits a higher Standard Deviation?
(a)
-6, -6, -6, -6, -6, -6
(b)
6, -6, 6, -6, 6, -6 (c) 6, 0, -6, 6, 0, -6
(d)
6, 6, 6, 6, 6, 6
(e)
6, 6, 6, 0, 6, 6
The three circles below represent the number of people who play CRICKET,
FOOTBALL, HOCKEY. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
14
49
45
CRICKET
HOCKEY
12
16
13
51
FOOTBALL
Q14.
How many more (or less) people who play HOCKEY than people who play
CRICKET?
(a)2 (b)3 (c)4 (d)5 (e) 1
318737514.doc
27
Q15.
Q16.
What percentage of people playing FOOTBALL also play CRICKET but not
HOCKEY?
(a)24 (b) 17.4
(c)16 (d)19 (e)21
What percentage of total people play all three games?
(a)2 (b)3 (c)7 (d)9 (e) 6
The figure on the left represents number of members in a Social Group and the figure on
140
Executives
12%
120
100
Members (in "00s)
Others
8%
80
Businessmen
60
55%
Doctors
25%
40
20
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Q17.
Q18.
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.

(a)1998
(b)1996
(c)1994
(d)1686
(e) 1888
What is the average members for 1995-1999?
(a) 7700
(b) 6800
(c)8800
(d)4800
(e) 7800
If 10% of members in 1998 left the Social Group, how many fresh members were
made in 1999?
(a)4500
(b) 4900
(c)4600
(d) 4400
(e) 5400
(Momentum X Velocity) / ( Force X Time )
(a)Time
(b) Power
(c) Velocity (d) Mass
(e) Distance
A is thrice as good a workman as B and takes 10 days less to do a piece of work
than B takes. The number of days taken by B to finish the work is :
(a)30 (b)15 (c)5 (d)20 (e)10
318737514.doc
28
14
A=
Q23.
Q24.
Q25.
Q26.
0.99
10.04
99.98
1000
9990
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
24
1
C=
10
12
D=
4
3
4
6
1 2
3
4
(i)
Male Boy
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Square Polygon
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Piston Engine
(4)
Superset of
If % stands for reciprocal and # stands for doubling what is the value of
% # % (3) + # % # (2)?
(a)-2 (b)3 (c) 2 (d)4 (e)5
f(0) = 1;
f(1) = -1
f(n) = 2 * f(n-1) 3 * f(n-2), where * stands for multiplication
(a)6 (b)-1 (c)1 (d)2 (e)3
X
Q27.
16
B=
Y
0.00001
1.02
1.997
3.0
4.004

A Two-dimensional array X(7,9) is stored linearly Row-wise in a computer's
address of X(1,1) is 3000, what would be the last byte address of X(2,3)?
(a)3127
(b)3421
(c)3047
(d)3464
(e)3545
A = 5i-4j, B = -7i+j, C = 4i+5j, D = i+j
(a)AC (b)AD (c)BC (d)BD (e)AB
M(373,11) + R(3.4) + T(7.7) - R(5.8) where
(a)12 (b)13 (c) 14 (d)16 (e)17
Three independent mechanisms A,B and C have been incorporated for power
saving in a plant producing respectively 40%, 20% and 10% efficiency. Assuming
that they operate independently, what is the net power efficiency achieved?
(a) 56.8%
(b) 64%
(c) 68%
(d) 59%
(e) 51%
318737514.doc
29
Q31.
The hourly declination of moon for a given day is as follows:

Hour
Declination
2
8o 6 43.5
3
7o 53 6.1
Find the declination of the moon at hour 4.
(a) 8o 22 13.5 (b) 7o 56 54.5 (c) 9o 46 33.5(d) 7o16 12.5 (e) 7o
39 28.7
Q32.
Y
1
0.5
0
X
100
200
-0.5
-1
Q33.
Q34.
Q35.
(a)y = tan x (b) y + 3 = x (c)y + x = 0 (d) y = ex

(e) y = Cos x
The temperature at Chennai is given by the function: -t 2/6+4t+12 where t is the
(a)35%
(b)39%
(c) 24%
(d) -27%
(e) -32.5%
An aircraft takes off from A (89o N Lat, 10o E Long) at 2.00 AM local time to B
landing at B?
A
B
C
(A C ) B
318737514.doc
0
0
0
0
0
1
0
1
0
0
1
1
1
0
0
1
0
1
1
1
0
1
1
1
30
decimal value.
Q36.
Q37.
Q38.
(a)57 (b)54 (c)51 (d)59 (e)56

that reaches the sender in 100 milliseconds. Assuming no error during
transmission, write a formula to calculate the time taken in seconds to
successfully complete the transfer of a file of size N kilobytes.
(a) 10.11 N (b) 11.011 N (c) 11.01 N (d) 10.011 N (e)10.101 N
The size of bucket required is given by the function P(N) = 4000 N, where N is
the volume of water. Find the percentage change in size of bucket if the volume of
water is increased by 1%.
(a) 0.5%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 0.75%
(d) 1%
(e) 2%
An optical cable is to be run from a junction point on the bank of a river 900
theoverhead on land is Rs. 4 per meter, find the point downstream where the cable
is to cut across the river.
(a) 450
(b) 3900
(c) 2100
(d) 1800
(e) 2700
PART III
(1) Joe, Larry, Ned, Mary, Paul, Willy, Crystal, Albert, Bob, Frank, Ellen, and Rick all live
in the same 6-floor building. There are 2 apartments per floor. No more than 2 persons live
in any apartment.Some apartments may be empty.
Larry and his roommate live 2 floors above Albert and his room mate Crystal.
Joe lives alone, 3 floors below Willy and 2 floors below Ellen.
Mary lives one floor below Albert and Crystal
Ned lives three floors above the floor on which Bob and Frank have single apartments
Rick and Paul live in single apartments, 2 floors below Mary
1. Which of the following lists the persons named in the correct order, going from the
bottom floor to the top?
A. Rick, Bob, Mary, Albert, Larry, Ned
B. Rick, Frank, Ned, Ellen, Larry, Crystal
C. Paul, Bob, Joe, Crystal, Ned, Larry
D. Larry, Ellen, Albert, Mary, Frank, Rick
E. Larry, Joe, Mary, Albert, Bob, Rick
2. Which of the following pairs must live on the same floor?
I.
Ned, Ellen
II.
Joe, Mary
III.
Albert, Larry
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
318737514.doc
31
D.
E.
3.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
4.
II and III only

I, II and III
Rick lives on the
First floor below Bob and Frank
Second floor, below Joe or Albert and Crystal
Third floor, above Mary and Ellen
Fourth floor, opposite Albert and Crystal
Sixth floor, opposite, Larry and his roommate.
Joe arranges to move into an apartment two floors down, whose occupant moves into
an apartment one floor up. The occupant of this apartment moves into one 3 floors up,
whose occupant takes Joes old apartment. The new occupant of Joes old apartment is:
Bob or Frank
Ned or Ellen
Mary
Rick
Paul
(2) Eight varsity baseball players (G,H, J, K, L, M, N, O) are to be honored at a special
ceremony. Three of these players (H, M and O ) are also varsity football players.
Two of them (K and N) are also basketball players on the varsity team.
In arranging the seats it was decided that no athlete in 2 sports should be seated next to
another 2 sport athlete.
1. Which of the following combinations is possible in order to have the arrangement of
seat assignments as planned?
HGKJ
HKJL
JKMN
JLHK
LKNJ
2. Which of the following cannot sit next to M?
A. G
B. J
C. G and J
D. K
E. L
3. Before all the athletes are seated, there are two vacant either side of N. Which two
athletes may occupy these seats?
A. G and K
B. G and L
C. J and H
D. L and O
E. M and J
4. To have the proper seating arrangement, K should sit between:
A. G and H
B. J and M
C. L and N
318737514.doc
32
D. J and N
E. J and L
(3). To obtain a visa for the Republic of Nimrod, an applicant must appear in person at the
Nimrodian Consulate and show a U.S. birth certificate or naturalization papers, a certificate
of vaccination for swamp fever and a notarized bank statement showing a balance in excess
of $ 1,000. Bank statements are available during normal business hours (Monday through
Friday, 9am to 3 p.m. at most banks, which also have a notary on staff).
Vaccinations are routinely performed at Alabaster Hospital, adjacent to the Nimrodian
Consulate, on Wednesday s form noon to 5 p.m. They are performed at Beryl clinic, an
hours travel away from the consulate, on Mondays and Thursdays from 9 am to noon and
on Fridays from 4 to 5 p.m. Copies of U.S. birth certificates are issued on Mondays and
Thursdays from 9 to 5 and copies of naturalization papers are issued on Tuesdays and
Fridays from 9 to 5. The Nimrodian Consulate is open on Mondays, Wednesdays and
Fridays and from noon to 4 p.m.
1. Which of the following can complete the entire application procedure in the shortest
time?
A. A native born U.S. citizen starting Monday
B. A naturalized U.S. citizen starting Tuesday morning
C. A native born U.S. citizen starting Wednesday morning
D. A naturalized U.S. citizen starting Thursday
E. A native born U.S. citizen starting Friday
2. If a native born U.S. citizen begins the application procedure by going for a copy of
her birth certificate at noon on Thursday, the earliest she can finish will be:
A. Friday morning
B. Friday afternoon
C. The following Monday afternoon
D. The following Tuesday afternoon
E. The following Wednesday afternoon
3. Mr. Niktos bank, situated in the suburbs one hours travel form any other office that
must be visited, issues statements only Tuesdays form 4 to 5 p.m. If Mr. Nikto completes
the entire application procedure within 3 hours, he is
A. A naturalized U.S. citizen who began by getting vaccinated.
B. A native born U.S. citizen who began by getting a bank statement
C. A naturalized U.S. citizen who began by getting naturalization papers
D. A native born U.S. citizen who began by getting a birth certificate
E. A naturalized U.S. citizen who began by getting a bank statement
4. Alabaster Hospital closes because of cuts in government funding. Thereafter, a
naturalized U.S. citizen who begins the application procedure at noon on Tuesday can
complete it no sooner than
A. Tuesday
B. Wednesday
C. Thursday
D. Friday
E. Monday
TCS TALENT TEST 004
318737514.doc
33
PART I
(51) FLORID
(A) ruddy
(B)rusty
(C)ruined
(D)patient (E)poetic
(52) FOIL
(A) bury
(B)frustrate
(C)shield
(D)desire
(E)gain
(53) FOMENT
(A) spoil (B)instigate
(C)interrogate
(D)spray
(E)maintain
(54) FOOLHARDY
(A) strong
(B)unwise
(C)brave (D)futile (E)erudite
(55) FOPPISH
(A) scanty
(B)radical
(C)orthodox
(D)dandyish
(E)magnificent
(56) FORAY
(A) excursion
(B)contest
(C)ranger
(D)intuition (E)fish
(57) FORMIDABLE
(A) dangerous (B)outlandish (C)grandiloquent (D)impenetrable (E)venerable
(58) FOSTER
(A) accelerate (B)fondle (C)become infected (D)raise (E)roll
(59) FRANCHISE
(A) subway (B)discount (C)license (D)reason (E)fashion
(60) FRITTER
(A) sour (B)chafe (C)dissipate (D)cancel (E)abuse
(61) COMPLY
(A) simplify (B)strive (C)rebel (D)unite (E)appreciate
(62) CREDIT
(A) believe false (B)treat as equal (C) make more difficult (D)underemphasize
(E)forget
(63) STILTED
(A) informal (B)verbose (C)secretive (D)senseless (E)tentative
(64) UNGAINLY
(A) slender (B)graceful (C)restrained (D)inaccurate (E)unnoticed
(65) QUIXOTIC
(A) slow (B)abstemious (C)pragmatic (D)benevolent (E)grave
(66) DISPARITY
(A) timidity (B)complacency (C)bigotry (D)likeness (E)influence
(67) CRITICAL
(A) unimportant (B)uncertain (C)silent (D)coherent (E)destructive
(68) SOBRIETY
(A) influence (B)nonchalance (C)holiness (D)civility (E)mirth
(69) RESTIVENESS
(A) completeness (B)conviction (C)concern (D)docility (E)petulance
(70) HALLOW
(A) keep silence (B)prove incorrect (C)accuse openly (D)desecrate (E)instigate
318737514.doc
34
_____24______. The marker, too, provides powerful incentives to exploit arid
Y. Federal grazing fees that are well below the free market price encourage
Z. And when commodity prices are relatively low, arid-land ranchers and farmers
AA.
Government Programs provide irrigation and water delivery system
BB.
Then the policy choice is simply to pay now for the appropriate remedies
or pay far moir later
CC.
Several million acres of natural grassland are eroding at unnaturally high
rates as a result of cultivation or overgrazing.
DD.
Policies help the farmers to obtain loans for their crops
EE.Groundwater supplies beneath vast stretches of land are dropping precipitously.
FF. Low interest loans for irrigation and other water delivery systems encourage
Like her white friends, Eleanor Roosevelt and Aubrey Williams, Mary Bethune
believed in the fundamental commitment of the New Deal to assist the black Americans
struggle and in the need for blacks to assume responsibilities to help win that struggle,
Unlike those of her white liberal associates, however, Bethunes ideas had evolved out of
a long experience as a race leader. Founder of a small black college in Florida, she had
become widely known by 1935 as an organizer of black womens groups and as a civil
and political rights activist. Deeply religious, certain of her own capabilities, she held a
relatively uncluttered view of what she felt were the New Deals and her own peoples
obligations to the cause of racial justice. Unafraid to speak her mind to powerful whites
including the President, or to differing black factions, she combined faith in the ultimate
318737514.doc
35
willingness of whites to discard their prejudice and bigotry with a strong sense of racial
pride and commitment to Negro self-help.
More than her liberal white friends, Bethune argued for a strong and direct black
voice in initiating and shaping government policy. She pursued this is her conversations
with President Roosevelt, in numerous memoranda to Aubrey Williams, and in her
administrative work as head of the National Youth Administrations Office of Negro
Affairs. With the assistance of Williams, she was successful in having blacks selected to
NYA posts at the national, state and local levels. But she also wanted a black leaders in
demanding appointments to the selective service Board and to the Department of the
Army; and she was instrumental in 1941 in securing Earl Dickersons membership on the
fair Employment Practices committee. By 1944, she was still making appeals for black
representation in all public programs, federal, state, and local, and in policy-making
posts as well as rank and file jobs.
Though recognizing the weakness in the Roosevelt administrations response to Negro
needs, Mary Bethune remained in essence a black partisan champion of the New
Deal during the 1930s and 1940s. Here strong advocacy of administration policies
and programs was predicated on a number of factors: her assessment of the low
status of black Americans during the Depression; her faith in the willingness of
some liberal whites to work for the inclusion of blacks in the governments reform
and recovery measures; her conviction that only massive federal aid could elevate
the Negro economically; and her belief that the thirties and forties were producing
a more self-aware and self-assured black population. Like a number of her white
friends in government, Bethune assumed that the preservation of democracy and
black peoples full integration into the benefits and the responsibilities of
American life were inextricably tied together. She was convinced that, with the
help of a friendly government, a militant, aggressive New Negro would emerge
out of the devastation of depression and was, a New Negro who would save
America from itself, who would lead America toward the full realization of its
democratic ideas
(27) The authors main purpose in this passage is to
(A) Criticize Mary Bethune for adhering too closely to New Deal Policies
(B) Argue that Mary Bethune was too optimistic in her assessment of race
relations
(C) Demonstrate Mary Bethunes influence on black progress during the
Roosevelt years.
(D) Point out the weaknesses of the white liberal approach to black needs
(E) Summarize the attainment of blacks under the auspices of Roosevelts New
Deal.
(28)
It can be inferred from the passage that Aubrey Williams was which of the
following?
I.
A man with influence in the National Youth Administration
II.
A white liberal
III.
A man of strong religious convictions
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
318737514.doc
36
(D) II and III only

(F) I,II, and III
(29)The author mentions Earl Dickersons primarily in order to
(A) Cite an instanced of Bethunes political impact.
(B) Contrast his carrier with that of Bethune.
(C) Introduce the subject of a subsequent paragraph
(D) Provide an example of Bethunes New Negro
(E) Show that Dickerson was a leader of his fellow blacks
(30)It can be inferred from the passage that Bethune believed the New Negro
would save America from itself
(A) Joining the army and helping America over through its Fascist enemies
(B) Helping America accomplish its egalitarian ideals
(C) Voting for administration antipoverty programs
(D) Electing other blacks to government office
(E) Expressing a belief in racial pride
(31)
One of the authors discussion of Bethune is best described as
(A) deprecatory
(B) sentimental
(C) ironic
(D) objective
(E) recriminatory
(32) The author uses all the following techniques in the passage EXCEPT
(A) Comparison and contrast
(B) Development of an extended analogy
(C) Direct quotation
(D) General statement and concrete examples
(E) Reiteration of central ideas
PART II
Q1.
9
10
11
13
15
??
21
28
(a) 17 (b) 20 (c) 19 (d) 18 (e) 16
Q2.
In the following series, how many Vs are there such that each V is followed by
an L next to it if the L is not followed by a D next to it.
V L V D Q M V L D M L V L L V Q M V V
L Q V L D L V A M L V L M
(a)2 (b)3 (c)1 (d)4 (e)5
Q3.
If FURZG is coded as CROWD how will DODUP be coded?
(a)MIND
(b)ALERT
(c) ALARM (d) BRAVE (e) GAIN
Q4.
Suppose the first and second letters in the word DESTABLISATION were
letter that would then be the tenth letter counting from the right.
(a) T
(b) I
(c) B
(d) S
(e) A
Q5.
(a) 1234
(b) 1432
(c) 1342
(d) 1456
(e)1664
Q6.
318737514.doc
37
(a) 507
(b) 511
(c) 513
(d) 509
(e) 489
Q7.
(a)
n / 130
(b)
n / 78
(c)
n / 90
(d)
n / 66
(e)
n / 40
Q8.
a.
4148
b.
4196
c.
4096
d.
4244
e.
4248
Q9.
(a)
ORACLE
(b)
C++
(c)
INGRESS
(d)
DB2
(e)
SYBASE
Q10.
Q11.
Q12.
Q13.
(a)
JAVA
(b)
WINDOWS NT
(c)
UNIX
(d)
MVS
(e)
LINUX
The three numbers in brackets represent the angles of a triangle. Which of these
(a)
(60,51,79) (b)
(60,90,30) (c)
(73,67,40)
(d)
(100,60,20) (e)
(70,55,55)
(a) (4,8,8) (b) (8,12,12) (c) (12,8,6) (d) (4,4,6) (e) (12,6,4)
(a)
6, 0, -6, 6, 0, -6
(b)
6, 6, 6, 0, 6, 6 (c)
-6, -6, -6, -6, -6, -6
(d)
6, 6, 6, 6, 6, 6
(e)
6, -6, 6, -6, 6, -6
The three circles below represent the number of people eating Indian,Chinese and
Continental. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
14
49
45
Indian
16
13
51
Q14.
Q15.
Q16.
Chinese
12
Continental
How many more (or less) people eat Chinese than people who eat Indian?
(a)2 (b)3 (c)1 (d)4 (e)5
What percentage of people eating Continental also eat Indian but not Chinese.
(a) 17.4
(b)16 (c) 18 (d) 21
(e) 24
What percentage of total people eat all three items.
(a)4 (b)5 (c)6 (d)7 (e)8
318737514.doc
38
The figure on the left represents number of members in a Social Group and the figure on
140
Executives
12%
120
100
Members (in "00s)
Others
8%
80
Businessmen
60
Q17.
Q18.
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.
20

(a)1998 0
(b)1686
(c)1994
(d)1996
(e) 1888
What is the average
members
for
1995-1999?
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
(a) 7700
(b) 6800
(c)8800
(d)4800
(e) 7800
made in 1999?
(a)4500
(b) 4600
(c)4400
(d) 4900
(e) 5400
(a)Time
(b) Distance (c) Velocity (d)Mass
(e) None
A is thrice as good a workman as B and takes 10 days less to do a piece of work
than B takes. The number of days taken by B to finish the work is :
(a)15 (b)5 (c)20 (d)12 (e)30
14
A=
Q24.
Q25.
12
B=
4
Q23.
55%
Doctors
25%
40
C=
6
10
12
D=
1

(i)
Male Boy
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
Mushroom Vegetable
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Snake Reptile
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Sentence Paragraph
(4)
Superset of
If * stands for squaring and > stands for change of sign what is the value of
* > * (5) - > * > (5)?
(a)675 (b)625 (c) 650 (d)-650
(e)600
f(0) = 1;
f(1) = -1
318737514.doc
39
Q26.
f(n) = 3 * f(n-1) 2 * f(n-2), where * stands for multiplication

(a)-29 (b)29 (c)27 (d)19 (e)24
VII. X
Y
0.99
0.00001
10.04
1.02
99.98
1.997
1000
3.0
9990
4.004
Q27.
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
Q31.
Q32.
A Two-dimensional array X(7,9) is stored linearly column-wise in a computer's

(a)3123
(b)3433
(c)3063
(d)3544
(e)3564
A = i+j, B = 5i+4j, C = -7i+j, D = 4i-5j
(a)BD (b)BC (c)AB (d)AD (e)AC
M(373,11) + R(5.8) + T(7.7) - R(3.4) where
(a)18 (b)15 (c) 20 (d)24 (e)27
(a) 51%
(b) 56.8%
(c) 64%
(d) 68%
(e) 45%
Hour
Declination
3
7o 59 54.8
4
7o 53 6.1
(a) 8o 6 Y
43.5 (b) 7o 56 54.5 (c) 9o 46 33.5 (d) 7o16 12.5 (e) 8o 39 28.7
1
0.5
0
X
100
200
-0.5
318737514.doc
-1
40
(a)y = Cosx
Q33.
Q34.
Q35.
(b) y + 3 = x (c)y + x = 0
(d) y = Tan x (e) y = ex
The temperature at Kolkata is given by the function: -t2/6+4t+12 where t is the

(a)64 %
(b) 55%
(c)58.6%
(d) 69%
(e) 51%
o
o
landing at B?
(a)5.40 AM (b) 4.00 AM (c) 6.40 AM (d) 7.00AM (e) 7.40 AM
A
B
C
(A C ) B
0
0
0
0
0
1
0
1
0
0
1
1
1
0
0
1
0
1
1
1
0
1
1
1
decimal value.
Q36.
Q37
(a)51 (b) 59 (c)63 (d)68 (e)55

(a) 10.11 N (b) 11.011 N (c) 11.01 N (d) 10.011 N (e)10.101 N
(a) 0.75%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 1% (d) 0.5%
(e) 2%
Q38.
An optical cable is to be run from a junction point on the bank of a river
900 meters wide to an office that is located 3000 meters downstream on the opposite
318737514.doc
41
overhead on land is Rs. 4 per meter, find the point downstream where the cable is to
cut across the river.
(a) 450
(b) 3900
(c) 2100
(d) 1800
(e) 2700
VIII. PART III

(1). The organiser of local 58 of the hospital workers is forming a 5-person team to leaflet
a nearby hospital. The team must contain 2 persons to distribute leaflets, one speaker to
address the workers who stop, and a 2-person defense squad.
A, B, and C are possible leafletters; C, D and E are possible speakers; F, G and H are
possible members of the defense guard. A and C prefer to work with each other on the
same team. E prefers to work only if F works.
1. Which is a possible team if all preferences are respected.
(A) A, B, C, D, F
(B) A, C, D, E, F
(C) A, B, C, F, G
(D) A, C, E, G, H
(E) B, C, D, F, G
2. Which choice of personnel is impossible if all preferences are respected?
(A) A and B as leafletters, C as a speaker
(B) B and C as leafletters
(C) A and C as leafletters, F and H on defense
(D) Either D or E as speaker, with F on defense
(E) G and H on defense
3. If A and B are leafletters and all preferences are respected, which is/ are true?
I.
C is the speaker
II.
F is on defense
III.
Either F or G is on defense
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I and III only
4. How many different possible teams can the organizer assemble, if all preferences are
respected?
(A)
5
(B)
8
(C)
9
(D)
13
(E)
15
(2) Delegations from Wallachia and Rumelia are meeting to discuss military, trade and
diplomatic problems. Each delegation consists of a chairperson, 2 military attachs and 2
trade experts. The Wallachian delegation consists of A, B, C, D and E ; the Rumelian
delegation of F, G, H, I and J.
Each chairperson is to occupy a rectangular table. The two delegations sit on opposite sides
of the rectangular table.
1) A insists on being seated at the opposite end of the table from B
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2) G, who is deaf in his right ear, must be at the right end if the table.
3) Neither D nor F is a chairperson
4) The Wallachian military attachs, one of whom is B, are seated together, and neither is
opposite either of the Rumelian military attachs, neither of whom is G.
5) C, a trade expert, is seated opposite H.
1. F may be a:
A. trade expert seated next to I
B. military attach seated next to I
C. military attach seated next to J
D. trade expert seated next to H
E. trade expert seated opposite B
2. About which of the following do the stated conditions provide the least information?
A. The identity of the Wallachian chairperson
B. The identity of the Rumelian chairperson
C. The identities and the positions of the Wallachian military attaches
D. Which delegate is immediately to the right of the Wallachian chairperson?
E. Which delegate is immediately to the right of the Rumelian chairperson?
3. If J is a military attach, which of the following must be true?
I. The Rumelian chairperson is I
II F a trade expert
III I is a trade expert
A.I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I or III but not both
E. II or III but not both
4. Which of the following can be deduced form the introductory paragraph plus
statements ( 1), (2), (4), (5) only?
The identities of the Rumelian trade experts

The identifies of the Wallachian military attachs
The identity of the Wallachian chairperson
Which two delegates are seated between G and H ?
Which two delegates are seated betweenB and C ?
(3) Byram and Adoniram are code clerks at the Pentagon. They are also secret agents for
foreign governments. One is in the pay of the Sulgravians and the other is in the pay of the
Carolingians. If a document is stolen, it will take four days to reach the Sulgravian
government and 5 days to reach the Carolingian government
Byram is given top secret documents to encode on October 19 and 22.
Adroninan is given a top-secret document to encode on October 21.
Byram and Adoniram have lunch together on October 20.
Agents of foreign governments do not transmit documents directly to governments that do
not employ them, but may sell documents to an agent of another government. An agent
who transmits a document always does so on the day he receives it.
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1. If Adroninan is working for the Sulgravians, the Sulgravian government may receive
documents on :
I. October 24
II. October 25
III. October 26
(A)
I only
(B)
III only
(C)
I and II only
(D)
II and III only
(E)
I, II, and III
2. A top secret document is received by thee Carolingians on October25. It could have
been:
(A)
stolen and transmitted by Byram
(B)
stolen and transmitted by Adoniram
(C)
stolen by Adoniram and sold to Byram , who transmitted it
(D)
stolen by Byram and sold to Adoniram, who transmitted it
(E)
stolen by either Byram or Adoniram and sold to the other , who transmitted it.
3. If Adoniram is working for the Carolingians, which must be true?
(A)
The Sulgravians may receive documents only on October 23
(B)
The Carolingians may receive documents only on October 26
(C)
The Sulgravians may receive documents only on October 24, 26, and 27.
(D)
The Carolingians may receive documents only on October 24, 25 and 26
(E)
No documents received by the Sulgravians can have been bought at Byram and
Adonirams lunchtime meeting.
4.Which of the following is /are possible given the conditions as stated?
I. Documents are received by one of the governments, 2 days in a row.
II. Documents are received by both the governments, 2 days in a row
Documents are received by one of the governments, 3 days in a row.
(A)
I only
(B)
III only
(C)
I and III only
(D)
I, II and III
(E)
Neither I, II nor III
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TCS TALENT TEST 005

PART I
(71) FRUGALITY
(A) foolishness (B)extremity (C)indifference (D)enthusiasm (E)economy
(72) FULMINATE
(A) fulfill (B)contemplate (C)talk nonsense (D)protest loudly (E)meander
(73) FUROR
(A) excitement (B)worry (C)flux (D)anteroom (E)lover
(74) FURTIVE
(A) underhanded (B)coy (C)brilliant (D)quick (E)abortive
(75) GADFLY
(A) humourist (B)nuisance (C)scholar (D)bum (E)thief
(76) GALLEON
(A) liquid measure (B)ship (C)armada (D)company (E)printers proof
(77) GARISH
(A) sordid (B)flashy (C)prominent (D)lusty (E)thoughtful
(78) GARNER
(A) prevent (B)assist (C)collect (D)compute (E)consult
(79) GARNISH
(A) paint (B)garner (C)adorn (D)abuse (E)banish
(80) GARRULITY
(A) credulity (B)senility (C)loquaciousness (D)speciousness (E)artistry
(81) HARBINGER
(A) ascetic (B)miser (C)counsellor (D)follower (E)braggart
(82) SPUR
(A) embitter (B)discourage (C) impress (D)mislead (E)ignore
(83) DISJOINTED
(A) responsible (B)connected (C)implied (D)useful (E)imprecise
(84) MEALYMOUTHED
(A) hungry (B)indefinite (C)tightlipped (D)sincere (E)apathetic
(85) PREVARICATE
(A) postulate (B)emphasize (C)support in theory (D)consider thoughtfully (E)state
truthfully
(86) LUMINARY
(A) impostor (B)non entity (C)pilgrim (D)braggart (E)mutineer
(87) TESTY
(A) erroneous (B)uncommunicative (C) even-tempered (D)quick-witted (E)industrious
(88) NEFARIOUS
(A) lackadaisical (B)eccentric (C)exemplary (D)corrigible (E)hypocritical
(89) BEGRUDGE
(A) mourn silently (B)grant freely (C)hunger for (D)advance rapidly (E)fight back
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45
(90) BILK
(A) reduce in size
(B)make famous
(C)roughen (D)renovate (E)pay in full
In the art of Middle Ages, we never encounter the personality of the artist as an
individual; rather it is diffused through the artistic genius of centuries embodied in the
rules of religious art. __21_____. The circular halo placed vertically behind the head
signifies sainthood, while the halo impressed with a cross signifies divinity. By bare feet,
we recognize God, the angles, Jesus Christ and the apostles, but for an artist to have
depicted the Virgin Mary with bare feet would have been tantamount to heresy.
___22____. A tree, which is to say a single stalk with two or three stylized leaves,
informs is that the scene is laid on earth. _23_____; and should an angel be watching
from the battlements, that city is thereby identified as Jerusalem. Saint Peter is always
depicted with curly hair, a short beard and a tonsure, __24_____.
Through this system, even the most mediocre talent was elevated by the genius of the
centuries.__25____. When they are not outstanding, they are scarcely able to
avoid insignificance and banality in their religious works; and even when they are
great __26___.
A. An artist who faithfully followed the rules of religious at was not recognized
during his lifetime
B. Art of the Middle Ages is a sacred script, the symbols and meaning of which were
settled
C. They are no more than the equal of the old masters who passively followed the
sacred rules.
D. Religious art has greater value than the secular art of the Renaissance
E. while Saint Paul always has a bald head and along beard.
F. Several concentric, wavy lines represent the sky, while parallel lines represent
water or the sea.
G. If there were no unemployment compensation, artists could be induced to accept
such unstable works
H. A tower with a window indicates a village.
I. The artists of the early Renaissance broke with tradition at their own peril.
The atmosphere is a mixture of several gases. There are about ten chemical
elements, which remain permanently in gaseous form in the atmosphere under all natural
conditions. Of these permanent gases, oxygen makes up about 21 percent and nitrogen
about 78 percent. Several other gases, such as argon, carbon dioxide, hydrogen, neon,
krypton, and Xenon, comprise the remaining 1 percent of the volume of dry air. The
amount of water vapor and its variations in amount and distribution are of extraordinary
importance in weather changes. Atmospheric gases hold in suspension great quantities of
dust, pollen, smoke, and other impurities, which are always present in considerable, but
variable amounts.
The atmosphere had no definite upper limits but gradually thins until it becomes
imperceptible. Until recently it was assumed that the air above the first few miles
gradually grew thinner and colder at a constant rate. It was also assumed that upper air
had little influence on weather changes. Recent studies of the upper atmosphere, currently
318737514.doc
46
being conducted by earth satellites and missile probing, have shown these assumptions to
be incorrect. The atmosphere has three well-defined strata.
The layer of the air next to the earth, which extends upward for about 10 miles, is
known as the troposphere. On the while, it makes up about 75 percent of all the weight of
the atmosphere. It is the warmest part of the atmosphere because most of the solar
radiation is absorbed by the earths surface, which warms the air immediately
surrounding it. A steady decrease of temperature with increasing elevation is a most
striking characteristic. The upper layers colder because of their greater distance from the
earths surface and rapid radiation of heat into space. The temperatures within the
troposphere decrease about 3.5 degrees per 1,000-foot increase in altitude. Within the
troposphere, winds and air current distribute heat and moisture. Strong winds called jet
streams, are located at the upper levels of the troposphere. These jet streams are both
complex and widespread in occurrence. They normally show a wave shaped pattern and
move from west to east at velocities of 150mpj. But velocities as high as 400 mph have
been noted. The influences of changing locations and strengths of jet streams upon
weather conditions and patterns or no doubt considerable. Current intensive research
may eventually reveal their true significance.
Above the troposphere to a height of about 50 miles is a zone called the
stratosphere. The stratosphere is separated from the troposphere by a zone of uniform
temperatures called the tropopause. Within the lower portions of the stratosphere is a
layer of ozone gases, which filters out most of the ultraviolet rays from the sun. The
ozone layer varies with air pressure. If this Zone were not there, the full blast of the suns
ultraviolet light would burn our skins, blind our eyes, and eventually result in our
destruction. Within the stratosphere the temperature and the atmospheric composition are
relatively uniform.
The layer upward of about 50 miles is the most fascinating but the least known of
these three strata. It is called the ionosphere because it consists of electrically charged
particles called ions, thrown from the sun. The northern lights(aurora borealis) originate
within this highly charged portion of the atmosphere. Its effect upon weather conditions,
if any, is as yet unknown.
(27) Which of the following titles best summarizes the content of the passage?
A. News Methods for Calculating the Composition of the Atmosphere.
B. New Evidence concerning the Stratification of the Atmosphere.
C. The Atmosphere: its nature and Importance to our Weather
D. The underlying causes of Atmosphere turbulence
E. Stratosphere, Troposphere, Ionosphere: Three Similar Zones.
(28) The passage supplies information that would answer which of the following
questions?
I. How do the troposphere and stratosphere differ?
II. How does the ionosphere affect the weather?
III. How do earth satellites study the atmosphere?
(A) I Only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I,II, and III
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(29) According to the passage, life as we know it exists on the earth because the
atmosphere.
(A) Contains a layer of ozone gases.
(B) Contains electrically charged particles
(C) Is warmest at the bottom
(D) Carries the ultraviolet rays of the sun
(E) Provides the changes in weather
(30) It can be inferred from the passage that a jet plane will unusually have its best
average rate of speed on its run from
(A) New York to San Francisco
(B) Los Angels to New York
(C) Boston to Miami
(D) Bermuda to New York
(E) London to Washington, D.C
(31) It can be inferred from the passage that at the top of Jungfrau, which is 12,000
feet above the town of Interlaken in Switzerland, the temperature is usually
A. below freezing
B. about 42 degrees colder than on the ground
C. warmer then in Interlaken
D. affected by the ionosphere
E. about 75 degrees colder than in Interlaken
(32) The passage states that the troposphere is the warmest part of the atmosphere
because it
A. is closest to the sun.
B. contains electrically charges particles
C. radiates heat into space
D. had winds and air current that distribute the heath is warmed by the earths heat.
PART II
Q1.
17
16
13
12
10
??
8
7
(a) 13 (b)6 (c) 9 (d)11 (e)3
Q2.
In the following series, how many Ys are there such that each Y is followed by
an D next to it if the D is not followed by a P next to it.
Y D Y P Q M Y D P M D Y D D Y Q M Y
Y D Q Y D P D Y A M D Y D M
(a)2 (b)3 (c)5 (d)4 (e)6
Q3.
If TIFMUFS is coded as SHELTER how will NJOE be coded?
(a) TRIAL
(b)ALERT
(c) MIND
(d) BRAVE (e) GAIN
Q4.
Suppose the first and second letters in the word PROPORTIONAL were
(a) T
(b) I
(c) N
(d) O
(e) P
Q5.
Q6.
(a) 121
(b) 123
(c) 111
(d) 127
(e) 129
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48
Q7.

(a)
n / 95
(b)
n / 78
(c)
n / 90
(d)
n / 76
(e)
n / 40
Q8.
a.
4148
b.
4048
c.
4198
d.
4244
e.
4096
Q9.
(a)
UNIX
(b)
WINDOWS NT
(c)
INGRESS
(d)
MVS
(e)
LINUX
Q10. (a)
SMTP
(b)
HTTP
(c)
WAP
(d)
BAAN
(e)
ARP
(a)
(50,51,79) (b)
(60,90,30) (c)
(73,67,40)
(d)
(100,60,20) (e)
(70,54,66)
number of edges , the number of faces and the number of vertices respectively.
(a) (12,6,8) (b) (8,6,12)
(c) (8,12,4) (d) (6,8,6) (e) (4,6,8)
(a)
-8, -8, -8, -8, -8, -8
(b)
8, -8, 8, -8, 8, -8 (c) 8, 0, -8, 8, 0, -8
(d)
8, 8, 8, 8, 8, 8
(e)
8, 8, 8, 0, 8, 8
The three circles below represent the number of people eating Indian, Chinese and
Continental. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
14
49
45
Indian
16
13
51
Q14.
Q15.
Q16.
Chinese
12
Continental
How many more (or less) people eat Chinese than people who eat Indian?
(a)2 (b)3 (c)4 (d) 1 (e)5
What percentage of people eating Continental also eat Indian but not Chinese.
(a)16 (b)12 (c)14 (d)18 (e) 17.4
What percentage of total people eats all three items.
(a)5 (b) 6 (c)7 (d)8 (e)9
318737514.doc
49
The figure on the left represents number of distributors for a Company and the figure on
the right depicts region-wise distribution for 1998
140
120
North
12%
100
Distributors (in "00s)
East
8%
80
60
Sout
h 55%
West
25%
40
20
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Q17.
Q18.
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.
Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth in distributors?

(a)1998
(b)1994
(c)1996
(d)1686
(e) 1888
What is the average number of distributors for 1995-1999?
(a) 7700
(b) 8800
(c)6800
(d)4800
(e) 7800
If 10% of distributors in 1998 left the Company, how many fresh distributors were
made in 1999?
(a)4500
(b) 4600
(c)4400
(d) 4900
(e) 5400
(a) Distance (b) Power
(c) Velocity (d) Time
(e) None
A does half as much work as B in three fourth of the time. If together they take 18
days to complete the work, how many days will B take to do it ?
(a)9 (b)30 (c)24 (d)15 (e)18
Which of these matrices is singular?
12
A=
Q23.
-4
B=
C=

(i)
Male Boy
(1)
(ii)
Oven Building
(2)
(iii)
Beagle Dog
(3)
318737514.doc
18
12
D=
Not a type of
Part of
A type of
50
Q24.
Q25.
Q26.
(iv)
Oxygen Water
(4)
Superset of
* > * (3) - > * > (3)?
(a)78 (b)94 (c) 90 (d)96 (e)88
f(0) = 1
f(n) = f(n-1) * n2, where * stands for multiplication
(a)676 (b)356 (c)568 (d)576 (e)522
IX.
0.99
10.04
99.98
1000
9990
Q27.
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
Q31.
Q32.
Y
0.00001
1.02
1.997
3.0
4.004

(a)3123
(b)3333
(c)3023
(d)3443
(e)3554
A = 5i+4j, B = i+j , C = 4i-5j, D = -7i+j
M(735,11) + R(3.4) + T(7.7) - R(5.8) where
(a)12 (b)11 (c) 13 (d)18 (e)16
Three independent mechanisms A, B and C have been incorporated for power
(a) 64%
(b) 55%
(c) 56.8%
(d) 68%
(e) 78%
Hour
Declination
3
7o 53 6.1
4
7o 39 28.7
(a) 8o 6 43.5 (b) 7o 56 54.5 (c) 9o 46 33.5 (d) 7o16 12.5 (e) 8o 39 28.7
318737514.doc
51
Y
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
X
2
-0.2
-0.4
-0.6
-0.8
Q33.
Q34.
Q35.
(a)y = tan x (b) y + 3 = x (c) y = log10 x(d) y = Cos x (e) y + x = 0

(a)64.6%
(b) 58.6%
(c)66%
(d)68%
(e)55%
landing at B?
A
B
C
(A C ) B
0
0
0
0
0
1
0
1
0
0
1
1
1
0
0
1
0
1
1
1
0
1
1
1
decimal value.
Q36.
(a)15 (b)16 (c)18 (d)19 (e)21

(a) 10.11 N (b) 11.011 N (c) 11.01 N (d) 10.101 N (e) 10.011 N
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52
Q37.
(a) 0.75%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 2% (d) 1%
(e) 0.5%
Q38.
A optical cable is to be run from a junction point on the bank of a river
(a) 450
(b) 1800
(c) 3900
(d) 2100
(e) 2700
PART III
(1) Ashland is north of East Liverpool and west of Coshocton
Bowling Green is north of Ashland and west of Fredricktown
Dover is south and east of Ashland
East Liverpool is north of Fredricktown and east of Dover
Fredricktown is north of Dover and west of Ashland
Coshocton is south of Fredricktown and west of Dover.
1. Which of the towns mentioned is furtherest to the northwest?
(A) Ashland
(B) Bowling Green
(C) Coshocton
(D) East Liverpool
(E) Fredricktown
2. Which of the following must be both north and east of Fredricktown
I. Ashland
II. Coshocton
III. East Liverpool
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II
(E) I and III
3. Which of the following towns must be situated both south and west of at least one other
town?
(A) Ashland only
(B) Ashland and Fredricktown
(C) Dover and Fredricktown
(D) Dover, Coshocton and Fredricktown
(E) Coshocton, Dover and East Liverpool.
4.Which of the following statements, if true, would make the information in the numbered
statements more specific?
(A) Coshocton is north of Dover
(B) East Liverpool is north of Denver
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53
(C) Ashland is east of Bowling Green

(D) Coshocton is east of Fredricktown
(E) Bowling Green is north of Fredricktown
(2) Spelunkers International offers exploring tours in eight caves: Abbott, Benny, Caeser,
Dangerfield, Ewell, Fields, Guinness and Hope.
1) Class 1 spelunkers may not attempt cave Ewell, Fields or Hope
2) Class 2 spelunkers may not attempt cave Hope
3) Class3 spelunkers may not attempt any cave
4) Cave Caesar may not be attempted only by spelunkers who have previously explored
cave Benny
5) Cave Fields may be attempted only by spelunkers who have previously explored cave
Ewell.
6) Only two caves Benny, Caesar, Ewell , Fields and Hope may be attempted by any
explorer in a single tour.
1. Which tour is allowed for a class 2 spelunker who has never explored any of the eight
caves before, if the caves are attempted in the order listed?
(A)
Abbott, Fields, Ewell, Benny
(B)
Dangerfield, Guinness, Caesar, Benny
(C)
Guiness, Ewell, Dangerfield, Benny, Abbott
(D)
Dangerfield, Ewell, Fields, Abbott, Caesar
(E)
Guinness, Ewell, Fields, Dangerfield, Benny.
2. A class 2 spelunker who has previously explored cave Ewell may be restricted in
choosing a tour by which rule(s)?
I. Rule 4
II. Rule 5
Rule 6
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
I and III only
(D)
II and III only
(E)
I, II and III
3. In how many different ways may a class 1 spelunker who has never explored any of the
eight caves before set up a tour of 3 caves, if she wishes to explore caves Abbott and
Caesar?
(A)
2
(B)
3
(C)
4
(D)
5
(E)
6
4. What is the maximum number of caves that a class spelunker who has previously
explored only cave Benny mat include in a single tour?
(A)
4
(B)
5
(C)
6
(D)
7
(E)
8
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(3) Mr. Pesth , foreman for Buda Construction company is hiring 5 persons to do plumbing
and wiring on a site. He must have a minimum of 2 electricians. 9 persons are sent by the
union hiring hall: Mike, Nick and Olive are electricians , while Rich, Steve, Tom, Ulysses,
Vic and Wassily are plumbers.
Pesth is unwilling to hire Ulysses and Vic together, because he knows from past experience
that they fight all the time.
Steve and Tom are buddies and will only work together.
Olive wont work with Rich.
1. If Mike, Nick and Olive are hired, the team of plumbers can consist of
(A)
Steve and Tom only
(B)
Steve and Tom or Ulysses and Vic together.
(C)
Ulysses and Wassily or Vic and Wassily
(D)
Steve and Tom or Ulysses and Wassily or Vic and Wassily
(E)
Steve and Tom and either Ulysses, Vic or Wassily
2. Pesth has the greatest number of choices for hiring as plumbers if the electricians he
chooses are
(A)
Mike, Nick and Olive
(B)
Mike and Nick
(C)
Mike and Olive
(D)
Nick and Olive
(E)
Either Mike or Nick plus Olive
3. If Rich is hired, the other persons hired must be:
(A)
Mike, Nick, Steve and Tom
(B)
Mike , Nick, Olive and either Ulysses, Vic or Wassily
(C)
Mike and Nick, together with either Steve and Tom or Ulysses and Vic or Vic and
Wassily
(D)
Mike and Nick, together with either Ulysses and Vic or Vic and Wassily.
(E)
Mike and
Nick, together with either Steve and Tom, Ulysses and Wassily, or
Vic and Wassily.
4. Which of the following statements is true?
I. If only 2 electricians are hired, the plumbers must include Steve and Tom
II. If Olive is not hired, Rich must be hired.
III. If either Mike or Nick is not hired, Steve and Tom must be hired.
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
III only
(D)
I and III only
(E)
II and III only
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TCS TALENT TEST 006
PART I
(91) GARRULOUS
(A) arid (B)hasty (C)sociable (D)quaint (E)talkative
(92) GAUCHE
(A) rigid (B)swift (C)awkward (D)taciturn (E)needy
(93) GAUDY
(A) holy (B)showy (C)sentimental (D)mild (E)whimsical
(94) GAUNT
(A) victorious (B)tiny (C)stylish (D)haggard (E)nervous
(95) GENUFLECT
(A) falsify (B)trick (C)project (D)bend the knee (E)pronounce correctly
(96) GERMANE
(A) bacteriological (B)middle-European (C)prominent (D)war-like (E)relevant
(97) GERMINAL
(A) creative (B)excused (C)sterilized (D)primitive (E)strategic
(98) GIST
(A) chaff (B)summary (C)expostulation (D)expiation (E)chore
(99) GLIB
(A) slippery (B)fashionable (C)antiquated (D)articulate (E)anticlimactic
(100) GNOME
(A)fury (B)giant (C)dwarf (D)native (E)alien
(101) COMPOSE
(A) disturb (B)reveal (C)strengthen (D)isolate (E)prevent
(102) OCCLUDE
(A) determine (B)transcend (C)surround (D)open (E)regulate
(103) AMBIGUITY
(A) extent (B)success(C)clarity (D) normality (E)expression
(104) AMELIORATION
(A) prevention (B)aggravation (C)distraction (D)indifference (E)dissuasion
(105) CAVIL
(A) discern (B)disclose (C)introduce (D)flatter (E)commend
(106) SKEPTICAL
(A) theoretical (B)indifferent (C)ready to believe (D)eager for change (E)lost in
thought
(107) FLEDGLING
(A) experienced person (B)shy onlooker (C) social outcast (D)fugitive (E)adversary
(108) CRASS
(A) boastful (B)temporary (C) cheerful (D)refined (E)extensive
(109) RECALCITRANT
(A) tractable (B)erratic (C)intuitive (D)vigorous (E)rambling
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(110) PROTRACT
(A) defy (B)supplement (C)postpone (D)shorten (E)design
individual; rather it is diffused through the artistic genius of centuries embodied in
the
we recognize God, the angels, Jesus Christ and the apostles, but for an artist to have
informs us that the scene is laid on earth. _23_____; and should an angel be watching
great __26___.
J. An artist who faithfully followed the rules of religious obligation and was not
recognized during his lifetime.
K. Art of the Middle Ages is a sacred script, the symbols and meaning of which were
settled.
L. They are no more than the equal of the old masters who passively followed the
sacred rules.
M. Religious art has greater value than the secular art of the Renaissance.
N. While Saint Paul always has a baldhead and along beard.
O. Several concentric, wavy lines represent the sky, while parallel lines represent
water or the sea.
P. If there were no unemployment compensation, artists could be induced to accept
such unstable works
Q. A tower with a window indicates a village.
R. The artists of the early Renaissance broke with tradition at their own peril.
Yet, while Darwinian theory extends its domain, some of its cherished postulates are
slipping, or atleast losing their generality. The modern synthesis, the contemporary
version of Darwinism that has reigned for thirty years, took the model of adaptive gene
substitution within local populations as an adequate account, by accumulation and
extension, of lifes entire history. The model may work well in its empirical domain of
minor, local, adaptive adjustment; populations of the moth Biston betularia did turn
black, by substitution of a single gene, as a selected response for decreased visibility on
trees that had been blackened by industrial soot. But is the origin of new species simply
this process extended to more genes and greater effect? Are larger evolutionary trends
within major lineages just a further accumulation of sequential adaptive changes?
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57
Many evolutionists (myself included) are beginning to challenge this synthesis and to
assert the hierarchical view that different levels of evolutionary change often
reflect different kinds of causes.
Minor adjustment within populations may be sequential and adaptive. But speciation may
occur by major chromosomal changes that establish sterility with other species for
reasons unrelated to adaptation. Evolutionary trends may represent a kind of
higher-level selection upon essentially static species themselves, not the slow and
steady alteration of a single large population through untold ages.
Before the modern synthesis, many biologists (see Bateson, 1922, in bibliography)
expressed confusion and depression because the proposed mechanisms of
evolution at different levels seemed contradictory enough to preclude a unified
science. After the modern synthesis, the notion spread (amounting almost to a
dogma among its less thoughtful lieutenants) that all evolution could be reduced
to the basic Darwinism of gradual, adaptive change within local populations. I
think that we are now pursuing a fruitful path between the anarchy of Batesonss
day and the restrictions of view imposed by the modern synthesis. The modern
synthesis work in its appropriate arena, but the same Darwinian processes of
mutation and selection may operate in strikingly different ways at higher domains
in a hierarchy of evolutionary levels. I think that we may hope for uniformity of
causal agents hence a single, general theory with a Darwinian core. But we must
reckon, with a multiplicity of mechanisms, that preclude the explanation of higher
level phenomena by the model of adaptive gene substitution favored for the
lowest level.
At the basis of all this ferment lies natures irreducible complexity. Organisms are not
billiard balls, propelled by simple and measurable external forces to predictable
new positions on lifes pool table. Sufficiently complex systems have greater
richness. Organisms have a history that constrains their future in myriad, subtle
ways. Their complexity of form entails a host of functions incidental to whatever
pressures of natural selection superintended the initial construction, their intricate
and largely unknown pathways of embryonic development guarantee that simple
inputs(minor changes)in timing, for example) may be translated into marked and
surprising changes in output( the adult organism)
Charles Darwin chose to close his great book with a striking comparison that expresses
this richness. He contrasted the simpler system of planetary motion, and its result
of endless, static cycling, with the complexity of life and its wondrous and
unpredictable change through the ages:
There us grandeur in this view of life, with its several powers, having been originally
breathed into a few forms or into one; and that, whilst this planet has gone cycling
on according to the fixed law of gravity, from so simple a beginning endless
forms most beautiful and most wonderful have been, and are being, evolved.
(27) According to the author, many contemporary evolutionists find the Darwinian
synthesis
(A) Wholly unfounded
(B) Overly restrictive
(C) Essentially contradictory
(D) Sadly confusing
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(E) Strikingly productive

(28) In asserting the complexity of nature, the author refers to billiard balls on lifes
pool table
(A) an illustration of the unpredictable changes of nature
(B) an instance of confusion and mobility
(C) an example of a relatively uncomplicated system
(D) an application of the fixed law of gravity
(E) an accurate model of genetic change.
(29)
(30)
(31)
(32)
Q1.
It can be inferred that the paragraph immediately preceding this passage most
likely discussed
(A) the absence of a unified theory of evolution
(B) individuals challenging the Darwinian synthesis
(C) the expansion of evolutionary theory into new realms
(D) experimental methods of genetic substitution
(E) the place of genetics in the study of natural history.
With which of the following statements regarding Charles Darwin would the
author be most likely to agree.
I.
Darwin left his early successors in some confusion as to the
universal applicability of his evolutionary theory.
II
Darwin experienced a period of despondency caused by the
thoughtlessness of his lieutenants
III
Darwin contrasted the simplicity and cal-culpability of planetary
cycles favorably to the diversity and unpredictability of living
creatures.
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I,II, and III
The author does all of the following EXCEPT
(A) Denounce an adversary
(B) Pose a question
(C) Provide an example
(D) Use a metaphor
(E) Refer to an authority
Which of the following phrases from the passage nest categorizes the
Transformation undergone by certain members of Biston betularia ?
(A) Larger evolutionary trends within major lineages
(B) minor adjustment within populations
(C) irreducible complexity
(D) endless, static cycling
PART II
7
9
13
??
27
37
(a) 15 (b) 21 (c) 19 (d) 18 (e)24
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59
Q2.
In the following series, how many Ys are there such that each Y is followed by an
L next to it if the L is not followed by a P next to it.
Y L Y P Q M Y L P M L Y L L Y Q M Y
Y L Q Y L P L Y A M L Y L M
(a)3 (b)2 (c)1 (d)4 (e)6
Q3.
If VKHOWHU is coded as SHELTER how will PLQG be coded?
(a) TRIAL
(b) ALERT (c) MIND
(d) BRAVE (e) GAIN
Q4.
Suppose the first and second letters in the word PROPORTIONAL were
(a) T
(b) I
(c) R
(d) O
(e) P
Q5.
(a) 1234
(b) 1542
(c) 1432
(d)1654
(e)1876
Q6.
(a) 509
(b) 511
(c) 519
(d) 409
(e) 479
Q7.
(a)
n / 95
(b)
n / 156
(c)
n / 45
(d)
n / 76
(e)
n / 40
Q8.
a.
3125
b.
3575
c.
3225
d.
3525
e.
3625
Q9.
(a)
UNIX
(b)
WINDOWS NT
(c)
ORACLE
(d)
MVS
(e)
LINUX
Q10. (a)
BAAN
(b)
HTTP
(c)
WAP
(d)
SMTP
(e)
ARP
(a)
(50,51,79) (b)
(60,90,30) (c)
(73,67,40)
(d)
(100,60,20) (e)
(70,34,56)
(a) (12,8,6) (b) (8,6,12)
(c) (8,12,4) (d) (8,6,8) (e) (12,6,8)
(a)
8, 0, -8, 8, 0, -8
(b)
8, 8, 8, 0, 8, 8 (c)
-8, -8, -8, -8, -8, -8
(d)
8, 8, 8, 8, 8, 8
(e)
8, -8, 8, -8, 8, -8
The three circles below represent the number of students passing in Physics, Math
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60
14
49
45
English
Physics
12
16
13
51
Math
Q14.
How many more (or less) students passed in Physics than students who passed in
English?
(a)2 (b)3 (c)1 (d)4 (e)5
Q15. What percentage of students passing in Math also pass in English but not in
Physics.
(a)16 (b)18 (c)17.4 (d)20 (e)15
Q16. What percentage of total passed in all three subjects.
(a)4 (b)5 (c)6 (d)8 (e)9
The figure on the left represents number of distributors for a Company and the
figure on the right depicts region-wise distribution for 1998
140
120
North
12%
100
East
8%
80
Distributors (in "00s) 60
Sout
h 55%
West
25%
40
20
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Q17.
Q18.

(a)1998
(b)1996
(c)1994
(d)1686
(e) 1888
(a) 7700
(b) 6800
(c)8800
(d)4800
(e) 7800
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61
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.
made in 1999?
(a) 4500
(b) 4900
(c) 4600
(d) 4400
(e) 5400
(Energy X Velocity)
(Mass X Acceleration)
(a)Time
(b) Power
(c) Distance (d) Velocity (e) None
A work twice as fast as B . If B can complete a piece of work independently in 12
days, then the number of days taken by A and B together to finish the work is :
(a)6 (b)4 (c)8 (d)12 (e)16
12
A=
9
(a)A
Q23.
Q24.
Q25.
Q26.
B=
(b)B
-4
(c)C
C=
(d)D
21
15
D=
0
(e) None

(i)
Female Girl
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
Basmati Wheat
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Snake Reptile
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Roof Building
(4)
Superset of
* > * (4) - > * > (4)?
(a)260 (b)278 (c) 272 (d)264 (e)268
g(0) = 1
g(n) = g(n-1) * n2, where * stands for multiplication
(a)546 (b)576 (c)564 (d)588 (e)512
X.
0.99
10.04
99.98
1000
9990
Y
0.00001
1.02
1.997
3.0
4.004
318737514.doc
62
Q27.
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
Q31.
Q32.

(a)3211
(b)3451
(c)3031
(d)3241
(e)3445
Of the four straight lines A, B, C,D find out which pair forms an orthogonal set?
A: 5x+4y-7 = 0, B: y = -x, C: 4x = 5y+5, D: y = 7x+3
(a)AC (b) AD (c) BC (d) BD (e)AB
Evaluate the expression:
M(735,11) + R(5.8) + T(7.7) - R(3.4) where
(a)15 (b)17 (c) 19 (d)12 (e)14
(a) 56%
(b) 64%
(c) 62.2%
(d) 68%
(e) 61%
Hour
Declination
2
8o 6 43.5
3
7o 59 54.8
(a) 7o 53 6.1 (b) 7o 56 54.5 (c) 9o 46 33.5 (d) 7o16 12.5 (e) 8o 39 28.7
Y
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
-0.2
X
2
-0.4
-0.6
-0.8
(a)y = tan x
318737514.doc
(b) y + 3 = x (c)y + x = 0
(d) y = log10 x (e) y = Cos x
63

(a) 53%
(b) 52%
(c) 48%
(d) 50%
(e) 58.6%
landing at B?
A
0
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
B
0
0
1
1
0
0
1
1
C
0
1
0
1
0
1
0
1
(A C ) B
decimal value.
Q33.
Q36.
Q37.
(a)12 (b)15 (c)17 (d)18 (e) 19

(a) 10.11 N (b) 11.011 N (c) 11.01 N (d) 10.101 N (e) 10.011 N
The productivity of a team of engineers is given by the function
P (N) = 4000 N, where N is the total strength. Find the percentage change in
productivity if the strength of the team is increased by 1%.
(a) 0.5%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 0.75%
(d) 1%
(e) 2%
Q38. An optical cable is to be run from a junction point on the bank of a river 900
(a) 450
(b) 1800
(c) 3900
(d) 2100
(e) 2700
PART III
(1) John is undecided which of the 4 popular novels to buy. He is considering a spy thriller,
a murder mystery, a Gothis romance and a science fiction novel. The books are written by
Rothko, Gorky, Burchfield and Hopper, not necessarily in that order and published by
Heron, Pigeon, Bluejay and Sparrow, not necessarily in that order.
1. The book by Rothko is published by Sparrow.
2. The spy thriller is published by Herono
3. The science fiction novel is by Buchfield and is not published by Bluejay
4. The Gothic romance is by Hopper.
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64
1. Pigeon publishes:
(A)
The murder mystery
(B)
The science fiction novel
(C)
The spy thriller
(D)
The Gothic romance
(E)
The novel by Rothko
2. The novel by Gorky is:
(A)
A science fiction novel published by Bluejay
(B)
A Gothic romance published by Bluejay
(C)
published by Heron and is a murder mystery
(D)
published by Pigeon and is a Gothic romance
(E)
published by Heron and is a spy thriller
3. John purchases books by the 2 authors whose names come first and third in alphabetical
order. He does not buy:
(A)
the murder mystery
(B)
the book published by Pigeon
(C)
A science fiction novel
(D)
the book published by Bluejay
(E)
the Gothic romance
4. On the basis of the first paragraphs and statements (2), (3), and (4) only , it is possible
to deduce that
Rothko wrote the murder mystery or the spy thriller
Sparrow published the murder mystery or the spy thriller
The book by Burchfield is published by Sparrow or Pigeon
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
III only
(D)
I and III only
(E)
I, II and III
(2) On Sunday, December 23, four ships were berthed at the New York City Municipal Pier
at West 55 Street. All four ships were beginning their series of winter cruises to various
ports in the Atlantic and the Caribbean.
Ship W left at 4 p.m. on Sunday, December 23, for a series of 8 day cruises to Bermuda and
Nassau.
Ship X left at 4:30 p.m. on Sunday, December 23, for a series of alternating 11 and 13 day
cruises.
Ship Y sailed at 5 p.m. on Sunday, December 23, for a series of 5 day cruises to Bermuda
Ship Z sailed on Monday, December 24, for a series of 7 day cruises to Nassau.
Each cruise officially begins on the day after the departure. Each ship is scheduled to return
to New York City early in the morning after the last day of the cruise and leave again late in
the afternoon of the same day.
1. On December 31, which ships will be sailing from New York on a New Years Eve
cruise?
(A) W and X
(B) X and Y
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(C) W and Z
(D) X and Z
(E) X, Y and Z
2. On how many occasions between Dec. 24 and Feb. 28 will 3 ships be moored at the pier?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 4
3. On which day of the week will these four ships make most of their departures?
(A) Sunday
(B) Monday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Thursday
(E) Saturday
4.On which days of the week in the period between Dec.24 and Feb. 28 will the pier be
least crowded?
(A) Tuesday and Friday
(B) Tuesday and Thursday
(C) Friday and Saturday
(D) Wednesday and Thursday
(E) Thursday and Saturday
(3) Observance of Memorial Day, which falls on Saturday this year will be as follows for
the tristate area (New Albion, New Shetland, New Wales):
Banks and government departments which are normally open on Saturdays will close.
Those normally closed on Saturdays will close as follows:
Banks will close Friday in Wales and Monday in New Shetland.
State government offices will close Friday in New Albion and New Shetland.
Sanitation pick up in Monday-Wednesday-Friday pick up areas will be cancelled Friday in
New Albion and New Shetland, and Monday in New Wales; pick up in Tuesday-ThursdaySaturday in all three states.
The post office and other federal offices, normally open Monday through Saturday, will be
closed Saturday but open Friday and Monday in all three states.
(Banks are normally open Saturday only in New Albion; state government offices are
normally open Saturday only in Wales.
1. Which is not available Friday, Saturday, or Monday in New Wales?
(A)
Banking services
(B)
State government office services
(C)
Sanitation pickup in some areas
(D)
Postal services
(E)
Federal government office services.
2. Mrs. Semkow goes to the post office, the bank and the state income tax bureau on
Monday. She mat live in:
I. New Albion
II. New Shetland
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66
New Wales
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
I and III only
(D)
II and III only
(E)
I, II or III
3. Mr. Rudolph find all but one of the listed services available Friday. He lives in:
(A)
New Albion or New Shetland
(B)
A Monday-Wednesday-Friday pick up area in New Wales
(C)
Any new area in New Albion or New Wales
(D)
A Tuesday-Thursday-Saturday pick up area in any of the other three states
(E)
A Monday-Wednesday-Friday area in New Albion
4. In which area(s) is there no deviation from normal service on Monday for any of the
services listed?
(A)
All of New Albion
(B)
Monday-Wednesday-Friday pick up areas in New Albion and New Wales
(C)
Tuesday-Thursday-Saturday pick up areas in New Shetland and New Wales
(D)
All of New Wales
(E)
Monday-Wednesday-Friday areas in New Shetland
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67
TCS TALENT TEST 007

PART I
(111) INCLEMENT
(A) unfavourable (B)abandoned (C)kindly (D)selfish (E)active
(112) INCOMPATIBLE
(A) capable (B)reasonable (C)faulty (D)indifferent (E)alienated
(113) INCONSEQUENTIAL
(A) disorderly (B) insignificant (C)subsequent (D)insufficient (E)preceding
(114) INCONTINENT
(A) insular (B)complaisant (C)grass (D)wanton (E)faults
(115) INCORRIGIBLE
(A) narrow (B)straight (C)inconceivable (D)unreliable (E)unreformable
(116) INCRIMINATE
(A) exacerbate (B)involve (C)intimidate (D)lacerate (E)prevaricate
(117) INCULCATE
(A) exculpate (B)educate (C)exonerate (D)prepare (E)embarrass
(118) INDIGENT
(A) lazy (B)pusillanimous (C)penurious (D)affluent (E)contrary
(119) INDIGNITY
(A) pomposity (B)bombast (C)obeisance (D)insult (E)message
(120) INDOLENCE
(A) sloth (B)poverty (C)latitude (D) aptitude (E)anger
(121) PRIM
(A) rare (B)careful (C)unnecessary (D)improper (E)decisive
(122) REPUGNANCE
(A) attraction (B)lethargy (C)blame (D)virtue (E)awe
(123) NETTLE
(A) disentangle (B)mollify (C)magnify (D)muffle (E)recompense
(124) REPLETE
(A) unwrinkled (B)devoid (C)vulgar (D)matchless (E)unsympathetic
(125) UNASSUAGED
(A) presumed (B)deceptive (C)singular (D)faulty (E)soothed
(126) PALTRY
(A) munificent(B)improvident (C)random (D)cautious (E)obsolete
(127) CONCLUSIVE
(A) difficult to express (B)bringing bad luck (C)easy to solve (D)lacking merit (E)open
to question
(128) RESOURCEFULNESS
(A) wealth
(B)gratitude (C)melancholy (D)incompetence (E)frustration
(129) DISSUADE
(A) extol (B)exhort (C)intensify (D)complicate (E)precede
(130) SPLENETIC
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68
(A) lackluster (B)heartless
(C)diffident (D)constant (E)cordial
we recognize God, the angels, Jesus Christ and the apostles, but for an artist to have
informs us that the scene is laid on earth. _23_____; and should an angel be watching
great __26___.
S. An artist who faithfully followed the rules of religious obligation and was not
recognized during his lifetime
T. Art of the Middle Ages is a sacred script, the symbols and meaning of which were
settled
U. They are no more than the equal of the old masters who passively followed the
sacred rules.
V. Religious art has greater value than the secular art of the Renaissance
W. While Saint Paul always has a bald head and along beard.
X. Several concentric, wavy lines represent the sky, while parallel lines represent
water or the sea.
Y. If there were no unemployment compensation, artists could be induced to accept
such unstable works
Z. A tower with a window indicates a village.
AA.
The artists of the early Renaissance broke with tradition at their own peril.
As the works of dozen of women writers have been rescued from what E.P.
Thompson calls the enormous condescension of posterity, and considered in relation to
each other the lost continent of the female tradition has risen like Atlantis from the sea of
English literature. It is now becoming clear that, contrary to Mills theory, women have
had a literature of their own all along. The women novelist, according to Vineta Colby,
was really neither single nor anomalous, but she was also more than a register and
spokesman for her age. She was part of a tradition that had its origins before her age, and
had carried on through our own.
Many literary historians have begun to reinterpret and revise the study of women
writes. Ellen Moers sees womens literature as an international movement, apart from,
but hardly subordinate to the mainstream: an undercurrent, rapid and powerful. This
movement began in the late eighteenth century, was multinational, and produced some
of the greatest literary works of two centuries, as well as most of the lucrative potboilers.
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69
Patricia Meyer Specks, in The Female Imagination, finds that for readily discernible
historical reasons, women have characteristically concerned themselves with matters
more or less peripheral to male concerns, or at least slightly skewed from them. The
differences between traditional female preoccupations and roles and the male ones make
a difference in female writing. Many other critics are beginning to agree that when we
look at women writers collectively we can see an imaginative continuum, the recurrence
of certain patterns, themes, problems, and images from generation to generation.
This book is an effort to describe the female literary tradition in the English novel
from the generation of the Brontes to the present day, and to show how the development
of this tradition is similar to the development of any literary subculture. Women have
generally been regarded as Sociological chameleons, taking on the class, lifestyle, and
culture of their male relatives. It can, however be argued that women themselves have
constituted a subculture within the frame work of larger society, and have been unified by
values, conventions, experiences, and behaviors impinging on each individual. It is
important to see the female literary tradition in these broad terms in relation to the wider
evolution of womens self-awareness and to the ways any minority group finds its
direction of self-expression relative to a dominant society, because we cannot show a
pattern of deliberate progress and accumulation.
It is true, as Ellen Moers writes, women studies with a special closeness the
works written by their own sex ; in terms of influences, borrowings, and affinities, the
tradition is strongly marked. But it is also full of holes and hiatuses, because of what
Germaine Greer calls the phenomenon of the transience of female literary fame;
almost uninterruptedly since the Interregnum, a small group of women have enjoyed
dazzling literary prestige during their own lifetimes, only to vanish without trace from
the records of posterity. Thus each generation of women written has found itself, in a
sense, without a history, forced to rediscover the past a new, forgiving again and again the
consciousness of their sex. Given this perpetual disruption, and also the self-hatred that
has alienated women writers from a sense of collective identity, it does not seem possible
to speak of a movement.
(27) The author of this passage implies that a significant element furthering the woman
writers awareness of a female literary tradition is her
(A) vulnerability to male deprecation
(B) assimilation of the values of her subculture
(C) rejection of monetary gain as an acceptable goal
(D) ability to adopt the culture of the dominant society
(E) sense that fame and prestige are evanescent.
(28) In the second paragraph of the passage the authors attitude towards the literary
critics cited can best be described as one of:
(A) Irony
(B) Ambivalence
(C) Disparagement
(D) Receptiveness
(E) Awe
(29) The passage supplies information for answering which of the following
questions?
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(30)
(31)
(32)
Q1.
Q2.
Q3.
Q4.
Q5.
(A) Does the author believe the female literary tradition to be richer in depth than
its masculine counterpart?
(B) Are women psychological as well as sociological chameleons?
(C) Does Moers share Greers concern over the ephemeral nature of female
literary renown?
(D) What patterns, themes, images, and problems recur sufficiently in the work of
women writers to belong to the female imaginative continuum?
(E) Did Mills acknowledge the existence of a separate female literary tradition?
The passage suggests that is might be possible to speak of an actual female
literary movement were it not for
(A) masculine suppression of feminist criticism
(B) female lack of artistic autonomy
(C) the ephemeral nature of female literary renowned
(D) the absence of proper contemporary role models
(E) Female rejection of disruptive male influences
In the first paragraph the other makes use of all of the following techniques
except:
(A) extended metaphor
(B) enumeration and classification
(C) classical allusion
(D) direct quotation
(E) comparison and contrast
Which of the following words could best be substituted for forging without
substantially changing the authors meaning
(A) Counterfeiting
(B) Creating
(C) Exploring
(D) Diverting
(E) Straining
PART II
9
11
15
??
29
39
(a) 19 (b) 18 (c) 21 (d) 24 (e) 28
F next to it if the F is not followed by a D next to it.
Y F Y D Q M Y F D M F Y F F Y Q M Y
Y F Q Y F D F Y A M F Y F M
(a)3 (b)2 (c)1 (d)4 (e)5
If TUBUJPO is coded as STATION how will GJMUFS be coded?
(a) DISPLAY (b) CENTRAL (c) FILTER (d) SURMISE (e) DISPLAY
Suppose the first and second letters in the word PROCASTINATION were
(a) T
(b) I
(c) A
(d) O
(e) C
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71
Q6.
(a) 509
(b) 511
(c) 519
(d) 409
(e) 479
Q7.
(a)
n / 190
(b)
n / 76
(c)
n / 90
(d)
n / 78 (e)
n / 20
Q8.
a.
3625
b.
3575
c.
3225
d.
3525
e.
3125
Q9.
(a)
UNIX
(b)
WINDOWS NT
(c)
DB2
(d)
MVS
(e)
LINUX
Q10. (a)
SMTP
(b)
HTTP
(c)
WAP
(d)
ARP
(e)
SAP
(a)
(50,51,79) (b)
(60,90,30) (c)
(73,67,40)
(d)
(80,60,20) (e)
(60,54,66)
number of edges, the number of faces and the number of vertices respectively.
(a) (8,8,6)
(b) (8,6,4) (c) (12,6,8) (d) (6,6,6) (e) (4,6,8)
(a)
-9, -9, -9, -9, -9, -9
(b)
9, -9, 9, -9, 9, -9 (c) 9, 0, -9, 9, 0, -9
(d)
9, 9, 9, 9, 9, 9
(e)
9, 9, 9, 0, 9, 9
The three circles below represent the number of students passing in Physics, Math
14
49
45
English
16
13
51
Q14.
Physics
12
Math
How many more (or less) students passed in Physics than students who passed in
English?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c)3 (d)4 (e)5
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72
Q15.
What percentage of students is passing in Math also pass in English but not in
Physics.
(a)16 (b)15 (c)14 (d)19 (e) 17.4
Q16. What percentage of total passed in all three subjects.
(a)5 (b)4 (c)8 (d) 6 (e)9
The figure on the left represents number of distributors for a Company and the figure on
the right depicts region-wise distribution for 1998
140
120
North
12%
100
East
8%
80
Distributors (in "00s
60
Sout
h 55%
West
25%
40
20
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Q17.
Q18.
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.

(a) 1998
(b) 1994
(c) 1996
(d) 1686
(e) 1888
(a) 7700
(b) 6800
(c) 4800
(d) 8800
(e) 7800
made in 1999?
(a) 4500
(b) 4600
(c) 4700
(d) 4400
(e) 4900
(Energy X Velocity)
(a)Time
(b) Distance (c) Velocity (d) Mass
(e) None
A alone can finish a work in 10 days and B alone can do it in 15 days. If they
work together and finish it, then out of total wages of Rs.225, the amount (in
rupees) that A will get, is :
(a)175 (b)135 (c)200 (d)250 (e)145
Which of these matrices is singular?
12
318737514.doc
15
25
73
A=
B=
9
Q23.
Q24.
Q25.
Q26.
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
Q31.
-4

(i)
Female Girl
(1)
(ii)
Oven Building
(2)
(iii)
Square Polygon
(3)
(iv)
Word Sentence
(4)
(a) i-3,ii-1,iii-4,iv-2 (b) i-4,ii-1,iii-3,iv-2
D=
0
Not a type of
Part of
A type of
Superset of
(c)i-4,ii-1,iii-2,iv-3
* > * (4) - > * > (4)?
(a)260 (b)268 (c) 270 (d)272 (e)278
f(0) = f(1) = 1
f(n) = f(n-1) + f(n-2). What will be the value of f(6)?
(a)15 (b)11 (c)12 (d)13 (e)17
XI.
0.99
10.04
99.98
1000
9990
Q27.
C=
Y
0.00001
1.02
1.997
3.0
4.004

(a)3125
(b)3455
(c)3095
(d)3654
(e)3126
Of the four straight lines A, B, C, D find out which pair forms an orthogonal set
A: 5x+4y-7 = 0, B: x+y = 0 , C: 5y-4x+5 = 0, D: y = 7x+3
M(843,11) + R(3.4) + T(7.7) - R(5.8) where
(a)8 (b)9 (c) 11 (d)12 (e)15
Three independent mechanisms A,B and C have been incorporated for fuel saving
in a car producing respectively 30%, 40% and 10% efficiency. Assuming that
they operate independently, what is the net fuel efficiency achieved?
(a) 61%
(b) 64%
(c) 68%
(d) 62.2%
(e) 54%
The scores in class exams and final exam of 2 students are given as below:
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74
Class exam
Final exam
3
1.2
3.5
1.45
Find the Final exam score of a student who has scored zero in the Class exam.
(a) -0.3
(b) 0.1
(c) -0.1
(d) -0.2
(e) 0.5
Q32.
Y
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
X
2
-0.2
-0.4
-0.6
-0.8
(a)y = tan x
Q33.
Q34.
Q35.
(b) y + 3 = x (c)y + x = 0
(d) y = Cos x (e) y = log10 x

(a) 34%
(b) 39%
(c)37.9%
(d) 32%
(e) 21%
o
o
landing at B?
A
B
C
(A C ) B
318737514.doc
0
0
0
0
0
1
0
1
0
0
1
1
1
0
0
1
0
1
1
1
0
1
1
1
75
decimal value.
Q36.
Q37.
Q38.
(a)56 (b)58 (c)52 (d)55 (e)54

(a) 10.11 N (b) 11.011 N (c) 11.01 N (d) 10.101 N (e) 10.011 N
(a) 0.75%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 0.5%
(d) 1%
(e) 2%
A optical cable is to be run from a junction point on the bank of a river 900 meters
wide to an office that is located 3000 meters downstream on the opposite bank. If
the cost of laying cable under water is Rs. 5 per meter and that of laying overhead
on land is Rs. 4 per meter, find the point downstream where the cable is to cut
across the river.
(a) 450
(b) 3900
(c) 2700
(d) 2100
(e) 1800
PART III
(1) An Airedale, a bower, a collie and a Doberman win the top four prizes in the Kennel
Show. Their owners are Mr. Edwards, Mr. Foster, Mr. Grossman and Ms. Huntley, not
necessarily in that order. Their dogs names are Jack, Kelly, Lad and Max, not
necessarily in that order.
Mr. Grossmans dog wins neither first nor second prize.
The collie wins first prize
Max wins second prize
The Airedale is Jack
Mr. Fosters dog, the Doberman, wins fourth prize
Ms. Huntleys dog is Kelly
1. First prize is won by
(A)
Mr. Edwards dog
(B)
Ms. Huntleys dog
(C)
Max
(D)
Jack
(E)
Lad
2. Mr. Grossmans dog
(A)
is the collie
(B)
is the boxer
(C)
is the Airedale
(D)
wins second prize
(E)
is Kelly
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76
3. In which of the following statements are the dogs correctly listed in the descending order
of their prizes?
I. Kelly; the Airedale; Mr. Edwards dog
II.The boxer; Mr. Grossmans dog; Jack
Mr. Edwards dog; the Airedale; Lad

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
4.Lad
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
I only
II only
III only
I and III only
II and III only
Is owned by Mr. Foster
Is owned by Mr. Edwards
is the boxer
is the collie
wins third prize
(2) All Gs are Hs

All Gs are Js or Ks
All Js and Ks are Gs
All Ls are Ks
All Ns are Ms
No Ms are Gs
1. If no Ps are Ks, which of the following must be true?
(A)
All Ps are Js
(B)
No P is a G
(C)
No P is an H
(D)
If any P is an H it is a G
(E)
If any P is a G it is a J
2. Which of the following can be logically deduced form the conditions stated?
(A)
No Ms are Hs
(B)
No Ms that are not Ns are Hs
(C)
No Hs are Ms
(D)
Some Ms are Hs
(E)
No Ns are Gs
3. Which of the following is inconsistent with on or more of the conditions?
(A)
All Hs are Gs
(B)
All Hs that are not Gs are Ms
(C)
Some Hs are both Ms and Gs
(D)
No Ms are Hs
(E)
All Ms are Hs
4. The statement No Ls are Js is
I.
logically deducible form the conditions stated
II.
consistent with but not deducible from the conditions stated
III.
deducible from the stated conditions together with the additional statement No Js
are Ks
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77
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
III only
(D)
II and III only
(E)
(3) At a formal dinner for, the host and the hostess are seated at opposite end of a
rectangular table, with 3 persons along each of the opposite sides. Each man must be seated
next to atleast one woman and vice-versa.
Allan is opposite Diane who is not the hostess. George has a woman on his right and is
opposite a woman.
Helga is at the hostess right, next to Frank. One person is seated between Belinda and
Carol.
1. Eric is the eight person present. Eric must be:
I.
the host
II.
seated to Dianes right
III.
seated opposite Carol
(A)
I only
(B)
III only
(C)
I and II only
(D)
II and III only
(E)
I, II and III
2. If each person is placed directly opposite his or her spouse, which of the following pairs
must be married?
(A) George and Helga
(B) Belinda and Frank
(C) Carol and Frank
(D) George and Belinda
(E) Eric and Helga
3. Which person cannot be seated next to a person of the same sex?
(A)
Allan
(B)
Belinda
(C)
Carol
(D)
Diane
(E)
Eric
4. George is bothered by the cigarette smoke of his neighbor and exchanged seats with
the person 4 places to his left. Which of the following must be true following the
exchange?
I.
No one is seated between two persons of the opposite sex.
II.
One side of the table consists entirely of persons of the same sex
III.
Either the host or the hostess has changed seats
(A)
I only
(B)
III only
(C)
I and II only
(D)
II and III only
(E)
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78
TCS TALENT TEST 008

PART I
(131) INDUBITABLY
(A) flagrantly (B)doubtfully (C)carefully (D)carelessly (E)certainly
(132) INEBRIETY
(A) revelation (B)drunkenness (C)felony (D)starvation (E)gluttony
(133) INEPT
(A) outward (B)spiritual (C)foolish (D)clumsy (E)abundant
(134) INFALLIBLE
(A)final (B)unbelievable (C)perfect (D)inaccurate (E)inquisitive
(135) INFIRMITY
(A) disability (B)age (C)inoculation (D)hospital (E)unity
(136) INGENUOUS
(A) clever (B)stimulating (C)naive (D)worried (E)cautious
(137) INIMICAL
(A) antagonistic (B) anonymous (C)fanciful (D)accurate (E)atypical
(138) INNOCUOUS
(A) not capable (B)not dangerous (C)not eager (D)not frank (E)not peaceful
(139) INSINUATE
(A) resist (B)suggest (C)report (D)rectify (E)lecture
(140) INSIPID
(A) witty (B)flat (C) wily (D) talkative (E)lucid
(141) VIRULENCE
(A) pallor (B)orderliness (C)femininity (D)harmlessness (E)cowardice
(142) ADHERENT
(A) fugitive (B)dissembler (C)opponent (D)educator (E)witness
(143) OSCILLATE
(A) entreat
(B)intensify (C) remain fixed (D)expand gradually (E)wither away
(144) ASPERITY
(A) gentility (B)superiority (C)kindness (D)clarity (E)vagueness
(145) UNSCATHED
(A) honest (B)gathered
(C)injured (D)cleansed (E)forgiven
(146) FETTER
(A) diminish (B)enervate (C)liberate (D) return (E)cure
(147) AUTONOMY
(A) dependence (B)animation(C)renown (D)altruism (E)antipathy
(148) SLACK
(A) rough (B)active (C)liberal (D)dependent (E)familiar
(149) RECOIL
(A) plunge forward (B)cease firing(C) skirt an issue (D)facilitate (E)surrender
(150) ENCUMBER(A) disburden (B)perform easily
(C)challenge boldly
(D)observe with care (E)suppress
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79
we recognize God, the angles, Jesus Christ and the apostles, but for an artist to have
informs is that the scene is laid on earth. _23_____; and should an angel be watching
great __26___.
BB.
An artist who faithfully followed the rules of religious at was not
recognized during his lifetime
CC.
Art of the Middle Ages is a sacred script, the symbols and meaning of
which were settled
DD.
They are no more than the equal of the old masters who passively
followed the sacred rules.
EE. Religious art has greater value than the secular art of the Renaissance
FF. while Saint Paul always has a bald head and along beard.
GG.
Several concentric, wavy lines represent the sky, while parallel lines
represent water or the sea.
HH.
If there were no unemployment compensation, artists could be induced to
accept such unstable works
II. A tower with a window indicates a village.
JJ. The artists of the early Renaissance broke with tradition at their own peril.
The curtain rises; the cardinal and Daniel de Bosala enter from the right. In appearance,
the cardinal is something between an EI Greco cardinal and a Van Dyke noble lord. He
has the tall spare form the elongated hands and features of the former; the trim pointed
beard, the imperial repose, and the commanding authority of the latter. But the EI Greco
features are not really those of asceticism or inner mystic spirituality. They are the index
to cold, refined but ruthless cruelty in a highly civilized controlled form. Neither is the
imperial repose an aloof mood of proud detachment. It is a refined expression of satanic
pride of place and talent.
To a degree, the cardinals coldness is artificially cultivated. He had defined
himself against his younger bother Duke Ferdinand and is the opposite to the
overwrought emotionality of the latter. But the Cardinals aloof mood is not one of bland
detachment. It is the deliberate detachment of a methodical man who collects his thoughts
and emotions into the most compact and formidable shape-that when he strikes, he may
strike with the more efficient and devastating force. His easy movements are those of the
318737514.doc
80
slowly circling eagle just before the swift descent with the exposed talons. Above all else,
he is a man who never for a movement doubts his destined authority as a governor. He
derisively and sharply rebukes his brother, the Duke, as easily and readily as be mocks
his mistress Julia. If he has betrayed his hireling Bosola, he used his brother as the tool to
win back his familiar. His court dress is a long brilliant scarlet cardinals gown with
white cuffs and a white collar turned back over the red, both collar and cuffs being
elaborately scalloped and embroidered. He wears a small cape reaching only to the
elbows. His cassock is buttoned to the ground, giving a Richelieu would have adored his
neatly trimmed beard. A richly jeweled and ornamented cross lies on his breast,
suspended from his neck by a goal chain.
Bosala, for his part, is the Renaissance familiar dressed conventionally in
somber black with a white collar. He wears a chain about his neck, a suspended
ornament, and a sword. Although a bravo, he must not be thought of as a leatherjacketed, heavy-booted tough, squat and swarthy. Still less is he a sneering, leering,
melodramatic villain of the Victorian gas light tradition. Like his black-and-white clothes
he is a colorful contradiction, a scholar assassin, a humanist-hangman; introverted and
introspective, yet ruthless in action; moody and reluctant, yet violent. He is a man of
scholarly taste and subtle intellectual discrimination doing the work of a hired ruffian. In
general effect, his impersonator must achieve suppleness and subtlety of nature, a highly
complex, compressed, yet well-restrained intensity of temperament. Like Duke
Ferdinand, he is inwardly tormented, but not by undiluted passion. His dominant emotion
is an intellectualized one: that of disgust at a world filled with knavery and folly, but in
which he must play a part and that a lowly, despicable one. He is the kind of rarity that
Browning loved to depict in his Renaissance monologues.
(27) The primary purpose of the passage appears to be to
(A) Provide historical background on the Renaissance church
(B) Describe ecclesiastical costuming and pageantry
(C) Analyze the appearances and moral natures of two dramatic figures
(D) Compare and contrast the subjects of two historical paintings
(E) Denounce the corruption of the nobility in Renaissance Italy
(28) It can be inferred from the passage that the Cardinal and Bosola
(A) are feuding brothers
(B) are noble lords
(C) together govern the church
(D) are characters in a play
(E) resemble one another in looks.
(29) The author most likely umpires the movements of the cardinal to those of a
circling eagle in order to emphasize his
A. Flightiness
B. Love of freedom
C. Eminence
D. Sense of spirituality
E. Mercilessness
(30) As used the word bravo most nearly means
A. a shout of approbation
B. a medallion
318737514.doc
81
C. a clergyman
D. a humanist
E. a mercenary killer
(31) The author of this passage assumes that the reader is
A. Familiar with the paintings of EI Greco and Van Dyke
B. Disgusted with a world filled with cruelty and folly
C. Ignorant of the history of the Roman Catholic church
D. Uninterested in psychological distinctions
E. Unacquainted with the writing of Browning
(32) Which of the following best characterizes the authors attitude toward the
Cardinal?
A. He deprecates his inability to sustain warm familial relationships
B. He esteems him for his spiritual; and emotional control
C. He admires his grace in movement and sure sense of personal
authority
D. He finds him formidable both as an opponent and as dramatic
character
E. He is perturbed by his inconsistencies in behavior
PART II
Q1.
37
27
19
??
9
7
(a) 15 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 18 (e) 10
Q2.
F next to it if the F is not followed by a P next to it.
B F B P Q M B F P M F B F F B Q M B B
F Q B F P F B A M F B F M
(a)3 (b)2 (c)5 (d)4 (e)6
Q3.
If VWDWLRQ is coded as STATION how will ILOWHU be coded?
(a) DISPLAY (b) CENTRAL (c) FILTER (d) SURMISE (e) DISPLAY
Q4.
Suppose the first and second letters in the word PROCASTINATION were
(a) T
(b) S
(c) A
(d) O
(e) C
Q5.
(a) 1342
(b) 1674
(c) 1234
(d) 1634
(e) 1324
Q6.
(a) 511
(b) 513
(c) 517
(d) 509
(e) 469
Q7.
(a)
n / 95
(b)
n / 90
(c)
n / 40
(d)
n / 76
(e)
n / 39
Q8.
a.
3225
b.
3575
c.
3125
d.
3625
e.
3525
Q9.
(a)
UNIX
(b)
WINDOWS NT
(c)
SYBASE
(d)
MVS
(e)
LINUX
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82
Q10.
Q11.
Q12.
Q13.
(a)
SMTP
(b)
HTTP
(c)
WAP
(d)
SAP
(e)
ARP
(a)
(50,51,79) (b)
(60,90,30) (c)
(73,67,40)
(d)
(40,60,50) (e)
(60,54,66)
number of edges, the number of faces and the number of vertices respectively.
(a) (4,8,6) (b) (8,6,12) (c) (8,4,6)
(d) (6,6,6) (e) (12, 6,8)
(a)
9, 0, -9, 9, 0, -9
(b)
9, 9, 9, 0, 9, 9 (c)
-9, -9, -9, -9, -9, -9
(d)
9, 9, 9, 9, 9, 9
(e)
9, -9, 9, -9, 9, -9
The three circles below represent the number of students passing in Science,
Hindi and History. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
14
49
45
History
16
13
51
Q14.
Q15.
Q16.
Science
12
English
How many more (or less) students passed in Science than students who passed in
History?
(a)2 (b)3 (c)1 (d)4 (e)5
What percentage of students is passing in English also pass in History but not in
Science.
(a)16 (b)18 (c)19 (d)12 (e) 17.4
What percentage of total passed in all three subjects.
(a)4 (b)5 (c)7 (d) 6 (e)8
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83
140
120
North
12%
100
East
8%
80
60
Sout
h 55%
West
25%
40
20
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Q17.

(a) 1998
(b) 1886
(c) 1994
(d) 1686
(e) 1996
Q18.

(a) 7700
(b) 6800
(c) 4800
(d) 8800
(e) 7800
made in 1999?
(a) 4500
(b) 4600
(c) 4900
(d) 4400
(e) 5400
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.
(Energy X Velocity)
(a)Time
(b) Power
(e) Distance
A certain job was assigned to a group of men to do it in 20 days. But, 12 men did
not turn up for the job and the remaining men did the job in 32 days. The original
number of men in the group was:
(a) 20 (b) 32 (c) 10 (d) 24 (e) 16
12
A=
9
Q23.
B=
2
-4

(i)
Female Girl
(1)
(ii)
Bug Reptile
(2)
(iii)
Beagle Dog
(3)
(iv)
Piston Engine
(4)
318737514.doc
C=
15
D=
0
Not a type of
Part of
A type of
Superset of
84
Q24.
Q25.
Q26.

* > * (2) - > * > (2)?
(a)24 (b)-20 (c) 20 (d)28 (e)21
g(0) = g(1) = 1
g(n) = g(n-1) + g(n-2).What will be the value of g(6)?
(a)18 (b)16 (c)13 (d)9 (e)5
XII. X
0.99
10.04
99.98
1000
9990
Q27.
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
Q31.
Y
0.00001
1.02
1.997
3.0
4.004

(a) 3247
(b) 3567
(c) 3127
(d) 3225
(e) 3765
A: 5x+4y-7 = 0, B: y = -x , C: y = 7x+3, D: 4x = 5y+5
(a)AD (b) AC (c) BC (d) BD (e)AB
M(843,11) + R(5.8) + T(7.7) - R(3.4) where
(a)15 (b)13 (c) 17 (d)16 (e)12
(a) 62.2%
(b) 68%
(c) 61%
(d) 64%
(e) 56%
X
log10X
3.141
0.4970612341
3.142
0.4972061807
Find log103.143.
(a) 0. 49734 (b) 0.59720 (c) 0.49110 (d) 0.49420 (e) 0.49440
318737514.doc
85
Q32.
Y
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
X
2
-0.2
-0.4
-0.6
-0.8
Q33.
Q34.
Q35.
(a) y = log10 x
(b) y + 3 = x (c)y + x = 0 (d) y = Cos x (e) y = tan x
(a) 37.9%
(b) 32.9%
(c) 36%
(d) 39%
(e) 30%
o
o
landing at B?
A
B
C
(A C ) B
0
0
0
0
0
1
0
1
0
0
1
1
1
0
0
1
0
1
1
1
0
1
1
1
decimal value.
Q36.
(a)53 (b)51 (c)65 (d)59 (e) 55

318737514.doc
86
Q37.

(a) 10.11 N (b) 11.011 N (c) 11.01 N (d) 10.101 N (e) 10.011 N
(a) 0.75%
(b) 0.5%
(c) 0.25%
(d) 1%
(e) 2%
Q38.
(a) 450
(b) 3900
(c) 2700
(d) 2100
(e) 1800
PART III
(1) For a panel of professors to assess the State of Union message on public TV, the
producer must choose two Republicans and Democrats. Atleast one professor must be an
economist and at least one must be a military expert. Available Republicans are Abbott,
Bartlett, Catlett, Dorset, and Everett; available Democrats are Fawcett, Ganlet, Heflet and
Insett.
Catlett, Fawcett and Gantlet are economists, Dorset and Insett are military experts,
Fawcett will not sit in the same room as Catlett and will take part only if Abbott is on the
panel. Dorset refuses to take part with Gantlet, and Everett refuses to take part with
Insett.
1. Which of the following is not an acceptable panel?
(A)
Fawcett, Helfet, Abbott, Dorsett
(B)
Fawcett, Insett, Abbott, Dorsett
(C)
Gantlet, Heflet, Abbott, Catlett,
(D)
Gantlet, Insett, Abbott, Catlett,
(E)
Heflet, Insett, Bartlett, Catlett,
2. If Abbott and Bartlett are chosen as the Republicans, who can be chosen as the
Democrats?
(A)
Fawcett and Insett only
(B)
Fawcett and Insett or Gantlet and Insett only
(C)
Fawcett and Gantlet or Gantlet and Helfet only
(D)
Fawcett and Insett, Gantlet and Insett or Helfet and Insett
(E)
Gantlet and Helfet, Gantlet and Insett, or Helfet and Insett
3. If Gantlet is chosen, which of the following must be true?
I.
Any acceptable panel must contain Insett
II.
Any acceptable panel must contain Abbott
III.
There is no acceptable panel which contains Bartlett
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
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87
(C)
I and II only
(D)
II and III only
(E)
I, II and III
4.How many acceptable panels can the producer put together?
(A)
6
(B)
7
(C)
8
(D)
9
(E)
10
(2) The Hotel Miramar has two wings, the Eats Wing and the West Wing.
Some East Wing rooms, but not all, have an ocean view. All West Wing rooms have a
harbor view. The charge for all rooms is identical, except as follows:
There is an extra charge for all harbor view rooms on or above the third floor.
There is an extra charge for all ocean view rooms, except for those without a balcony
Some harbour view rooms on the first two floors and some East Wing rooms without ocean
view have kitchen facilities, for which there is an extra charge.
Only the ocean and harbour view rooms have balconies.
1. A guest may avoid an extra charge by requesting
(A)
a West Wing room one of the first two floors
(B)
a West Wing room on the fourth floor without balcony
(C)
an East Wing room without an ocean view.
(D)
an East Wing room without a balcony.
(E)
Any room without kitchen facilities.
2. Which of the following must be true if all conditions are as stated?
(A)
All rooms above the third floor involve an extra charge
(B)
No room without ocean or harbour view or kitchen facilities involves an extra
charge.
(C)
There is no extra charge for any East Wing room without an ocean view.
(D)
There is no extra charge for any room without kitchen facilities.
(E)
There is an extra charge for all rooms with an ocean or harbour view.
3. Which of the following must be false if all conditions are as stated?
(A)
Some ocean view rooms do not involve an extra charge
(B)
All rooms with kitchen facilities involve an extra charge
(C)
Some West Wing rooms above the second floor do not involve an extra charge
(D)
Some harbour view rooms do not involve an extra charge.
(E)
Some rooms without balcony or kitchen facilities involve an extra charge.
4. Which of the following cannot be determined on the basis of the information given?
I.
Whether there are any rooms without a balcony for which an extra charge is
imposed
II.
Whether any room without a kitchen or a view involves an extra charge
III.
Whether two extra charges are imposed for any room.
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
I and III only
(D)
II and III only
(E)
I, II and III
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(3) In order to conduct the work of a mail order concern it is necessary to have a minimum
of three workers each day. The staff consists of 5 persons who work on a part time basis.
Alice can work on Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays. Betty cannot report for work on
Wednesdays.
Carol can report for work on Tuesdays and Wednesdays only. Dorothy cannot work on
Fridays. Edith is available anytime except on the first Monday and Thursday of the month.
1. Which three are available on any Monday?
(A)
Dorothy, Batty and Alice
(B)
Alice, Edith and Carol
(C)
Betty, Edith and Carol
(D)
Edith, Carol and Dorothy
(E)
Betty, Carol and Dorothy
2. Which three would you count on to report for work on Friday?
(A)
Alice, Betty and Dorothy
(B)
Alice, Carol and Dorothy
(C)
Betty, Carol and Edith
(D)
Carol, Betty and Alice
(E)
Alice, Betty and Edith
3. During which day of the week might it be impossible to obtain a full complement of
workers?
(A)
Monday
(B)
Tuesday
(C)
Wednesday
(D)
Thursday
(E)
Friday
4. During which day of the week might it be impossible to obtain a full complement of
workers?
Monday
(A)
Tuesday
(B)
Wednesday
(C)
Thursday
(D)
Friday
TCS TALENT TEST 8
XIII. Part I
1.E 2.B 3.D 4.C 5.A 6.C 7.A 8.B 9.B 10.B 11.D 12.C 13.C 14.C 15.C 16.C 17.A 18.B
19.A 20.A 21.B 22.F 23.H 24.E 25.I 26.C 27 C 28 D 29 E 30 E 31 A 32 D
Part II
1.C 2.D 3.C 4.B 5.C 6.D 7.E 8.C 9.C 10.D 11.D 12.E 13.E 14.C 15.E 16.D 17.E 18.D
19.C 20.E 21.B 22.D 23.C 24.C 25.C 26.B 27.C 28.A 29.C 30.A 31.A 32.A 33.A 34.C
35.E 36.E 37.B 38.E
PART III
1. (1)C
2. (1)D
3. (1)A
318737514.doc
(2)B
(2)B
(2)E
(3)A
(3)C
(3)D
(4)D
(4)A
(4)E
89
TCS TALENT TEST 009

PART I
(151) INTEGRATE
(A) tolerate (B)unite (C)flow (D)copy (E)assume
(152) INTER
(A) bury (B)amuse (C)relate (D)frequent (E)abandon
(153) INTERDICT
(A) acclaim (B)dispute (C)prohibit (D)decide (E)fret
(154) INTERMITTENT
(A) heavy (B)fleet (C)occasional (D)fearless (E)responding
(155) INTRACTABLE
(A) culpable (B)flexible (C) unruly (D)efficient (E)base
(156) INTRANSIGENCE
(A) lack of training (B)stubbornness (C)novelty (D)timidity (E)cupidity
(157) INTREPID
(A) cold (B)hot (C)understood (D) callow (E)courageous
(158) INTRINSIC
(A) extrinsic (B)abnormal (C)above (D)abandoned (E)basic
(159) INUNDATE
(A) abuse (B)deny (C)swallow (D)treat (E)flood
(160) INVEIGH
(A)speak violently (B)orate (C)disturb (D)apply (E)whisper
(161) OPACITY
(A) iridescence (B)firmness (C) transparence (D)poverty (E)slum
(162) PREDILECTION
(A) postponement (B)afterthought (C) lamentation (D)reoccurrence (E)aversion
(163) SEEDY
(A) elegant (B)intricate (C)tranquil (D)irregular (E)slow
(164) BOGGLE
(A) disentangle (B)repudiate (C)ascertain (D)remain unruffled (E)lack planning
(165) HIDEBOUND
(A) strong-willed (B)open-minded (C)thin-skinned (D) tenderhearted
(E)scatterbrained
(166) CASTIGATE
(A) diminish (B)imitate (C) compare (D) reward (E)misjudge
(167) GAMBOL
(A) dodge (B)masquerade (C) digress (D)plod (E) vex
(168) RAUCOUS
(A) orderly (B)absorbent (C)mellifluous (D)contentious (E)buoyant
(169) TAPER
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(A) emphasize (B)restore (C)split (D) broaden (E) modify

(170) HIGH-HANDED
(A) dejected (B)reasonable (C)hard-handed (D)short-handed (E)dynamic
In a sense the university had failed. It has stores great quantities of knowledge; it teaches
more people; and despite its failures, it teaches them better.__21___ . Of the great
branches of knowledge- the sciences the social sciences and humanities- the
science are applied. Strenuous and occasionally successful efforts are made to
apply the social sciences, not almost never are the humanities well applied. We do
not use philosophy in defining our conduct. __22____. The great task of the
university in the next generation is to learn to use the knowledge we have for the
questions that come before us. __23___ The difference between a primary
problem and a secondary or even tertiary problem is that primary problems tend
to be around for a long time, whereas the less important ones get solved.
One primary problem is that of interfering with biological development. ___24____.
Obviously, there are benefits both to individuals and to society from eliminating, or at
least improving, mentally and physically deformed persons. On the other hand, there
could be very serious consequences if this knowledge were used with premeditation to
produce superior and subordinate classes, each genetically prepared to carry out a
predetermined mission. __25___, Here we have a primary problem that will still exist
when we are all dead. Of course, the traditional faculty members would say. __26____.
And certainly they would not learn, but they would learn some other things.
A. The next generation, and perhaps this one, will be able to interfere chemically
with the actual development of an individual and perhaps biologically by
interfering with an individuals genes.
B. This can be done, but what happens to free will and he rights of the individual
C. But the students wont learn enough to go to graduate school
D. It is in the application of this knowledge that the failure has come.
E. We do not use literature as a source of real and vicarious experience.
F. The university should organize should organize courses around primary problems
G. The universities greatest shortcoming is not to help students see the relevance of
humanities to real problems.
H. It is difficult for modern students, accustomed to the minute of film, to appreciate
opera.
I. It is necessary students to require to include in their curricula liberal arts courses.
During the 1930s, the National Association for the Advancement of colored people
(NAACP) attorneys Charles H, Houston, William Hastiem James M. Nabrit, Leon
Ransom and Thurgood Marshall charted a legal strategy designed to end segregation in
education. They developed a series of legal cases challenging segregation in graduate and
professional schools. Houston believed that the battle against segregation has to begin at
the highest academic level in order to mitigate fear of race mixing that could create
greater hostility and reluctance on the part of white judges. After establishing a series of
favorable legal precedents in higher education, NAACP attorneys planned to launch an
all-out attack on the separate but equal doctrine in primary and secondary schools. The
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91
strategy proved successful. In four major United States Supreme Court decisions,
precedents were established that would enable the NAACP to construct a solid legal
foundation upon which the Brown case could rest: Missouri ex rel. Gaines v, Canada,
Registrar of the University of Missouri (1938); Sipuel v. Board of Regents of the
University of Oklahoma(1948); McLaurin v. Oklahoma State Regents for Higher
Education(1950); and sweat v. Painter(1950).
In the Oklahoma case, the Supreme Court held that the plaintiff was entitled to
enroll in the university. The Oklahoma Regents responded by separating black and white
students in cafeterias and classrooms. The 1950 McLaurin decision rules that such
internal separation was unconstitutional. In the Sweatt ruling, delivered on the same day,
the Supreme Court held that the maintenance of separate law schools for whites and
blacks was unconstitutional. A year after Herman Sweatt entered the University of Texas
law school, desegregation cases were fields in the states of Kansas, South Carolina,
Virginia, and Delaware, and in the District of Columbia asking the courts to apply the
qualitative test of the Sweatt case to the elementary and secondary schools and to declare
the separate-but-equal doctrine invalid in the area of public education.
The 1954 Brown v. Board of Education decision declared that a classification
based solely on race violated the 14 th Amendment of the United States Constitution. The
decision reversed the 1896 Plessy.v.Ferguson ruling, which had established the separate
but equal doctrine. The Brown decision more than any other case launched the
equalitarian revolution in American jurisprudence and signaled the merging primacy of
equality as a guide to constitutional decisions; nevertheless, the decision did not end state
sanctioned segregation. Indeed, the second Brown decision, known as Brown II and
delivered a year later, played a decisive role in limiting the effectiveness and impact of
the 1954 case by providing southern states with the opportunity to delay the
implementation of desegregation.
The intervention of the federal government and the deployment of the National
Guard in 1954 Little Rock crisis, and again in 1963 when the enrollment of James
Meredith desegregated the University of Mississippi, highlight the role of federal power
in promoting social change during this era. While black local and national leaders
organized and orchestrated the legal struggles, and students joined in freedom rides and
staged sit-ins, another equally important dimension of the rights quest took shape: the
battle between federal and state authority and the evolution of the doctrine of federalism.
The fact remains that the United States Supreme Court lacked the power to enforce its
decisions. President Dwight D. Eisenhowers use of federal troops in Little Rock was a
major departure from the reluctance of past presidents to display federal power in the
south, especially to protect the lives and rights of black citizens.
(27) According to the passage, Houston aimed his legislative challenge at the graduate
and profession school level on the basis of the assumption that
A. The greatest inequities existed at the highest academic and
professional level
B. The separate but-equal doctrine applied solely to the highest
academic level.
C. There were clear precedents for reforms in existence at the graduate
school level
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(28)
(29)
(30)
(31)
(32)
D. The judiciary would feel less apprehension at desegregation on the

graduate level
E. The consequences of desegregation would become immediately
apparent at the graduate school level.
The passage suggests that the reaction of the Oklahoma Regents to the 1948
Sipuel decision was one of
A. Resigned tolerance
B. Avowed uncertainty
C. Moderate amusement
D. Distinct displeasure
E. Unquestioning approbation
Which of the following best describes the relationship between the McLaurin
decision and the 1954 Brown v. Board Education decision?\
A. The McLaurin decision superseded the Brown decision
B. The Brown decision provided a precedent for the McLaurin
decision
C. The Brown decision reversed the McLaurin decision
D. The McLaurin decision limited the application of the Brown
decision
E. The McLaurin decision proved legal authority for the Brown
decision
To the claim that judicial decisions without executive intervention would have
assured desegregation in education , the author would most probably respond with
which of the following?
A. Marked disagreement
B. Grudging acquiescence
C. Studied neutrality
D. Complete indifference
E. Unqualified enthusiasm.
the passage suggests the Brown v. Board of Education might have had an even
more significant impact on segregation if it had not been for which of the
following ?
A. The deployment of National Guard
B. The Plessy.v Ferguson decision
C. The 1955 Brown II decision
D. James Merediths enrollment in Mississippi
E. The Sweatt v. Painter decision
Which of the following titles best describes the content of the passage?
A. Executive Intervention if the Fight against Segregated
Education
B. The Brown Decision and the Equalitarian Revolution
C. A Long War: The Struggle to Desegregate America Education
D. The Emergence of Federalism and the Civil Rights Movements
E. Education Reform and the Role of the NAACP
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PART II
Q1.

7
9
13
??
27
37
(a) 15 (b) 18 (c) 19 (d) 24 (e) 20
Q2.
U next to it if the U is not followed by a R next to it.
Y U Y R Q M Y U R M U Y U U Y Q M Y Y
U Q Y U R U Y A M U Y U M
(a)3 (b)2 (c)5 (d)4 (e)6
Q3.
If SURFVV is coded as PROCESS how will VKHHW be coded?
(a) COVER (b)TRIAL
(c) SHEET
(d)MIND
(e)CIGAR
Q4.
Suppose the first and second letters in the word PRESENTATION were
(a) E
(b) I
(c) N
(d) O
(e) S
Q5.
(a) 1342
(b) 1434
(c) 1234
(d) 1654
(e)1445
Q6.
(a) 509
(b) 513
(c) 511
(d) 409
(e) 459
Q7.
(a)
n / 95
(b)
n / 66
(c)
n / 45
(d)
n / 152
(e)
n / 40
Q8.
a.
3525
b.
3275
c.
3225
d.
3125
e.
3625
Q9.
(a)
ORACLE
(b)
SYBASE
(c)
INGRESS
(d)
DB2
(e)
LINUX
Q10. (a)
SMTP
(b)
HTTP
(c)
WAP
(d)
ARP
(e)
SAP
(a)
(50,51,79) (b)
(60,90,30) (c)
(73,67,40)
(d)
(80,70,50) (e)
(60,54,66)
(a) (4,8,8) (b) (8,12,12) (c) (12, 6,8) (d) (4,4,6) (e) (12,6,4)
(a)
9, -9, 9, -9, 9, -9
(b)
9, 0, -9, 9, 0, -9 (c) 9, 9, 9, 0, 9, 9
(d)
9, 9, 9, 9, 9, 9
(e)
-9, -9, -9, -9, -9, -9
318737514.doc
94
The three circles below represent the number of people proficient in C, COBOL,
JAVA. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
14
49
45
COBOL
12
16
13
51
JAVA
Q14.
Q15.
Q16.
How many more (or less) people are proficient in COBOL than people who are
proficient in C?
(a)2 (b)3 (c)1 (d)5 (e)6
What percentages of people proficient in JAVA are also proficient in C but not in
COBOL?
(a)16 (b)19 (c)17.4 (d)12 (e)9
What percentages of total people are proficient in all three languages?
(a)9 (b)6 (c)5 (d)7 (e)8

140
120
100
Strength (in "00s) 8
0
6
0
4
0
2
0
0
Others
12%
Ph.Ds
8
%
B.Techs
55%
M.Techs
25%
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Q17.
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95
Q18.
Q19
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.
Q23.
Q24.
Q25.
Q26.
(a) 1998
(b) 1996
(c) 1994
(d) 1686
(a) 7700
(b) 6800
(c) 7800
(d)4800
(e) 1888
(e) 8800
were made in 1999
(a) 4500
(b) 4600
(c) 4400
(d) 4900
(e) 5400
(Energy x Velocity)
(Mass x Acceleration)
(e) None
A certain number of men complete a piece of work in 60 days. If there were 8
men more, the work could be finished in 10 days less. How many men were
originally there?
(a)30 (b)40 (c)15 (d)20 (e)25
12 3
2
3
4 0
8
12
A=
B=
C=
D=
9
2
-4
6
0 4
4
6
(i)
Female Girl
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
Mushroom Vegetable
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Panda Bear
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Oxygen Water
(4)
Superset of
* > * (2) - > * > (2)?
(a)12 (b)16 (c)18 (d)20 (e)24
g(0) = g(1) = 1
g(n) = g(n-1) + g(n-2).What will be the value of g(6)?
(a)13 (b)14 (c)15 (d)-13 (e)18
XIV. X
0.99
10.04
99.98
1000
9990
Y
0.00001
1.02
1.997
3.0
4.004
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Q27.
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
Q31.
Q32.

(a) 3457
(b) 3241
(c) 3891
(d) 3127
(e) 3762
A: 5x+4y-7 = 0, B: y = -x , C: y = 7x+3, D: 4x = 5y+5
(a)BD (b)AD (c)AC (d)BC (e)CD
M (737,7) + R (3.4) + T (7.7) - R (5.8) where
(a)5 (b)4 (c) 6 (d)7 (e)8
(a) 66.4%
(b) 62 %
(c) 68%
(d) 69%
(e) 61%
Class exam
Final exam
3
1.4
3.5
1.65
Find the Class exam score of a student who has scored zero in the Final exam.
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.1 (c) 0.2 (d) -0.2 (e) 0.5
Y
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
-0.2
X
2
-0.4
-0.6
-0.8
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(a)y = tan x
(b) ) y = log10 x
(c)y + x = 0
(d) y = Cos x (e) y + 3 = x
The temperature at Mumbai is given by the function: -t 2/6+4t+12 where t is the

(a)25 %
(b) 27%
(c) -20.5%
(d) 32%
(e) 21%
landing at B?
A
0
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
B
0
0
1
1
0
0
1
1
C
0
1
0
1
0
1
0
1
(A B ) C
decimal value.
Q33.
(a)98
(b)95 (c)99 (d)91 (e) 93
Q36.
(a)11.01 N
(b)10.11 N
(c)10.011 N (d)11.011 N (e)10.101 N
Q37. The memory used by a program is given by the function P(N) = 4000 N, where
N is the size of the program. Find the percentage change in memory usage if the
size of the program is increased by 1%.
(a) 0.75%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 0.5%
(d) 1%
(e) 2%
Q38.
A telephone cable is to be run from a junction point on the bank of a river
(a) 1800
(b) 3900
(c) 2800
(d) 2100
(e) 2700
END OF PART II
PART III
(1) Each word in a horizontal row must begin with a successive letter.
Each word in a vertical column must begin with a different letter.
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Each word in a horizontal row must have the same number of letters
Each word in a vertical column must have a different number of letters
Each word in a vertical column must be the same part of speech.
(NOTE: Many English words are more than one part of speech; for example, cry is both a
noun and a verb)
I
II
III
IV
V
1) Endear
Filter
Garish
Hotter
Intake
2) Chatter
Destiny
Endless
Fester
Gradual
3) Bend
Calf
Death
Edge
Flow
4) Dread
Elbow
Fetid
Greed
Heave
5) Ask
Bet
Coy
Dam
Ebb
1. Word 3 in column III would satisfy all rules if it were changed to:
(A)
deter
(B)
dirty
(C)
deaf
(D)
dash
(E)
dry
2. How many rows and columns satisfy all rules for rows and columns, respectively?
(A)
Four rows and three columns
(B)
Four rows and two columns
(C)
Three rows and two columns
(D)
Three rows and four columns
(E)
Two rows and two columns
3. How many rules are not violated by any row or column in the grid?
(A)
2
(B)
3
(C)
4
(D)
5
(E)
6
4. What is the minimum number of words that must be changed for the grid to satisfy all
rules?
(A)
2
(B)
3
(C)
4
(D)
5
(E)
6
(2) On July 4, the Pops Orchestra will perform ten works by nine U.S. composers.
Beachs Quintet will be heard immediately after Della Joios Fantasies
Ives Fourth of July will be heard later than the Della Joio. It will be followed immediately
by Fosters Summer Longings.
The third selection following Coplands Lincoln Portrait will be Ellingtons New World AComing ; the next will be an aria from Hansons Merry Mount. Gottschalks Grand
Tarantelle will be heard earlier than the Della Joio. Antes Trio is the second work
following the Hanson, and does not end the programme.
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1. Which of the following lists the composers mentioned in the order in which their
works are heard?
(A)
Foster, Ives, Antes, Beach, Ellington
(B)
Copland, Della Joio, Beach, Ellington, Hanson, Foster
(C)
Gottschalk, Della Joio, Beach, Foster, Antes, Ives
(D)
Copland, Gottschalk, Della Joio, Beach, Ellington, Hanson
(E)
Beach, Ellington, Hanson, Foster, Ives, Antes
2. The number of works to be heard between the Beach and the Foster is:
(A)
1
(B)
2
(C)
3
(D)
4
(E)
5
3. The soloist who will perform during the Antes, the Gottschalk and the Ellington must
begin tuning up just prior to the start of her first performance. She will begin tuning up:
(A)
during the fourth work on the programme
(B)
during the Della Joio
(C)
during the sixth work on the programme
(D)
during the Hanson
(E)
before the start of the programme
4. If the total number of works played were eleven instead of ten, which of the following
would be possible without violating the stated conditions?
I.
The Copland Lincoln Portrait being played first
II.
The Antes Trio being played after Fosters Summer Longings
III.
The Antes Trio being played before Gottschalks Grand Tarantelle
(A)
I only
(B)
III only
(C)
I and II only
(D)
II and III only
(E)
I, II and III
(3) A, B, C or W may cause D.
B, C or W may cause E.
W or X may cause F.
D or E may cause G or H only if D and E are caused by B or C ; D or E may cause I only if
D and E are caused by C.
Only E and F together may cause M or N
F may be cause H only if it is caused by W or X.
1. Which can result from the largest number of immediately preceding events?
(A)
D
(B)
E
(C)
F
(D)
M
(E)
N
2. Which can result in the smallest number of subsequent events, counting both those that
follow immediately and those that follow after another event?
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(A)
A
(B)
B
(C)
C
(D)
W
(E)
X
3. How many different events or combinations of events may cause H?
(A)
5
(B)
6
(C)
7
(D)
8
(E)
9
4. Which may be a result of the smallest number of different combinations of events?
(A)
G
(B)
H
(C)
I
(D)
M
(E)
N
TCS TALENT TEST 9

Part I
1.B 2.A 3.C 4.C 5.C 6.B 7.E 8.E 9.E 10.A 11.C 12.E 13.A 14.D 15.B 16.D 17.D 18.C
19.D 20.B 21.D 22.E 23.F 24.A 25.B 26.C 27 D 28 D 29 E 30 A 31 C 32 C
Part II
1.C 2.D 3.C 4.E 5.C 6.A 7.B 8.D 9.E 10.E 11.D 12.C 13.A 14.C 15.C 16.B 17.B 18.E
19.D 20.A 21.B 22.D 23.C 24.D 25.A 26.B 27.D 28.B 29.C 30.A 31.C 32.B 33.C 34.C
35.E 36.C 37.C 38.A
XV. PART III
1. (1)C
(2)C (3)A (4)C
2. (1)B
(2)E (3)E (4)C
3. (1)A
(2)A (3)B (4)C
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TCS TALENT TEST 010

PART I
(1)
MAWKISH
(A) sentimental (B)true (C) certain (D)devious (E)carefree
(2)
MEDIOCRE
(A) average (B)bitter (C)medieval (D)industrial (E)agricultural
(3)
MELEE
(A) heat (B)brawl (C)attempt (D)weapon (E)choice
(4)
MELLIFLUOUS
(A) porous (B)honey comb (C)strong (D)smooth (E)viscous
(5)
MENIAL
(A) intellectual (B)clairvoyant (C)servile (D)arrogant (E)laudatory
(6)
MENTOR
(A) guide (B)genius (C)talker (D)philosopher (E)stylist
(7)
MESMERIZE
(A) remember (B)hypnotize (C)delay (D)bore (E)analyze
(8)
METICULOUS
(A) steadfast (B)recent (C)quaint (D)painstaking (E)overt
(9)
MIASMA
(A) dream (B)noxious fumes (C)scenario (D)quantity (E)total
(10)
MILITANT
(A) combative (B)dramatic (C)religious (D)quaint (E)paternal
(11)
DIMINUTION
(A) measurement (B)proximity (C)augmentation (D)orderliness (E)inclination
(12)
DISTEND
(A) tell the truth (B)respond as expected (C)approximate (D)collect (E)shrink
(13)
EMBROIL
(A) disengage (B)remonstrate (C)refute thoroughly (D)answer hypothetically (E) consider genuinely
(14)
VOUCHSAFE
(A) postpone (B)dissemble (C)endanger (D)prohibit (E)justify
(15)
JETTISON
(A) salvage (B)decelerate (C)muffle (D) distract (E)anchor
(16)
STOIC
(A) savant (B)herald (C)whiner (D) victor (E) bystander
(17)
GAMELY
(A) fearfully (B) diligently (C)clumsily (D)gloomily (E)respectfully
(18)
CRESTFALLEN
(A) haughty (B)impolite (C)frivolous (D)tentative (E)rough
(19)
DESULTORY
(A) apologetic (B)independent (C)laudatory (D)questionable (E)methodical
(20)
PULCHRITUDE
(A) antipathy (B)unsightliness (C)inexperience (D)languor (E)rancor
Read the following text. The passage contains some blank spaces. Choose the sentence from the
list A I, that best fits in each of the blank spaces. The numbers in brackets refer to Question
numbers.
In a sense the university had failed. It has stored great quantities of knowledge; it teaches
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branches of knowledge- the sciences the social sciences and humanities- the
apply the social sciences, nut almost never are the humanities well applied. We do
not use philosophy in defining our conduct. __22____. The great task of the
A. The next generation, and perhaps this one, will be able to interfere chemically with the actual
development of an individual and perhaps biologically by interfering with an individuals genes.
B. This can be done, but what happens to free will and he rights of the individual
C. But the students wont learn enough to go to graduate school
D. It is in the application of this knowledge that the failure has come.
E. We do not use literature as a source of real and vicarious experience.
F. The university should organize should organize courses around primary problems
G. The universities greatest shortcoming is not to help students see the relevance of humanities to real
problems.
H. It is difficult for modern students, accustomed to the minute of film, to appreciate opera.
I. It is necessary students to require to include in their curricula liberal arts courses.
In weighting the importance of learning versus instinct in higher animal behavior psychologists
tend to gravitate toward one of the two schools of thought: behaviorism( behaviorist psychology) or
ethology. Classical behaviorism chiefly concerns itself with the study of learning under strictly controlled
conditions. Its proponents typically consider instinct irrelevant to learning, and feel it possible to sort the
majority of higher animal responses into two kind of learning: classical conditioning and operant
conditioning.
Classical conditioning dates to the pioneering experiment of the Russian Physiologist

Ivan Pavlov. In Pavlovs celebrated experiment with dogs, he demonstrated that if one
regularly rings a bell right before one gives a dog food, over time the dog will learn to
salivate when it hears the bell. According to the Pavlovian world view, three major
factors rule most animal behavior: these are the unconditioned stimulus (the innately
recognized cue, in this instance, food), the unconditioned response (the innately triggered
behavioral act, in this instance, salivation), and the conditioned stimulus (the stimulus the
animal is conditioned to respond to, in this case, the sound of the bell). Initially,
Pavlovian behaviorists maintained that they could turn any stimulus an animal could
sense into a conditional stimulus, linking it to any unconditioned response.
Operant conditioning is the other principal variety of learning that most
behaviorists accept. According to this theory, animals learn a particular behavior pattern
by undertaking trial-and error experiments in order to gain a reward or escape a
punishment. The classic example of operant conditioning involves an experiment in
which a rat learns to press a level to get food. Here the rats behavior is conditioned to
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become increasingly precise until the experimenter finally obtains the wanted response.
At first the experimenter rewards the rat for even an incomplete performance of the
wanted response: in the experiments initial stages, the rat might receive a reward merely
for moving toward the section of the care in which the lever is located. Later, to receive
its reward, the rat must come closer to the lever, even tough it, until finally the response
is perfected and the rat presses the lever top obtain its food. Initially, behaviorists
maintained that, by means of operant conditioning, they could teach an animal to respond
to any cue or situation with any behavior the animal was physically able to perform.
The ethologists view of the world differs markedly from that of the behaviorist
psychologist. Pioneered by the biologist-naturalists Konard Lorenz, Nikolaas Tinbergen,
and karl Frisch, ethology essentially can be described as the study of instinct. To the
ethologist, four factors regulate most animal behavior: these are drive (governing
motivational impulses), sign stimuli (cues grasped instinctively, the equivalent of the
behaviorists unconditioned stimulus), motor programs (inborn responses to cues, the
equivalent of the behaviorists unconditioned response), and imprinting (a limited,
apparently anomalous kind of learning).
One commonly cited example of instinctive behavior is the egg-rolling response in geese, a
behavior studied by Lorenz and Tinbergen. Geese hatch their eggs by brooding over heaped-up nests set on
the ground. Occasionally, a brooding goose accidentally knocks an egg out of the nest. Once this has
occurred, an extraordinary behavior eventually ensues. Some time after returning to the nest, the goose
perceives the stray egg. In response, the goose proceeds to stretch out its neck, focusing its eyes on the
eggs; it then stands and, using its bill, gently rolls the egg back into the nest. To the casual observer, this
behavior might appear deliberate, a logical response to a difficulty. In actuality, it is unpremeditated and
innate. A convex object of any color and almost any size can trigger the egg-rolling response; amusingly
enough, beer bottles are especially effective in promoting this response.
How does this example of instinctive behavior illustrate the elements governing
animal behavior? The egg-rolling response in geese is governed by a drive that surfaces
approximately two weeks before the goose lays its eggs and remains active until
approximately two weeks after the eggs hatch. The sign stimuli are the features that
trigger the egg-rolling behavior. The ethologistss motor program is the egg-rolling
response itself. Imprinting is also present in geese: who can forget the image of the trail
of newly-hatched gooslings following the retreating naturalist, whose call of Kum-kum
they instinctively recognize and whom they thenceforth regard as their parent.
(27) The passage is chiefly concerned with
A. Comparing the effectiveness of ethology with that of other behavioral theories
B. Presenting a new theory to replace ethology and behaviorist psychology
C. Discussing how tow differing schools explain behavioral processes
D. Disputing the hypotheses of Pavlov and other classical behaviorists
E. Explaining the processes that control innate behavior
(28)
According to the passage, behaviorist learning theories take into account which of the following
characteristics of animals?
I.
Their unconditioned response to certain fundamental stimuli , such as food
II.
Their ability to learn through being imprinted at an early age.
III.
Their tendency to shun negative stimuli
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. I and III only
(29)
According to the passage, the experimental nature of operant conditioning necessarily involves
A. the exposure to punishment of the subject of the experiment
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104
(30)
(31)
(32)
B. the introduction of increasingly greater rewards by the experimenter

C. an increasing refinement of behavior o n the part of the experimental animal
D. the use of increasingly subtle cues to trigger the behavioral pattern
E. an unwillingness to accept marginal execution of the wanted behavior
The author cities Lorenz, Tinbergen, and Frisch for their:
A. Studies of the egg-rolling response in geese
B. Trailblazing work studying instinctual behavior
C. Rejection of imprinting as a form of leaning
D. Use of stringently controlled laboratory settings
E. Invalidation of the behaviorist approach
It can be inferred that the gooses behavior in replacing the egg is extraordinary because it
A. Appears purposeful and intelligent
B. Is triggered by the egg
C. Refutes current ethological theories
D. Is a response to sing stimuli
E. Lasts for only four weeks
The tone of the authors discussion of the egg-rolling response as an example of instinct is one of
A. Derision
B. Condescension
C. Neutrality
D. Exasperation
E. Enthusiasm
PART II
Q1.

5
7
11
??
35
67
(a) 24 (b) 33 (c) 19 (d) 18 (e) 25
Q2.
In the following series, how many Ws are there such that each W is followed by an C next to it if
the C is not followed by a S next to it?
W C W S Q M W C S M C W C C W Q M W
W C Q W C S C W A M C W C M
(a)3
(b)
5(c)6 (d)4
(e)7
Q3.
If QMFBTF is coded as PLEASE how will HBJO be coded?
(a)MIND
(b)ALERT
(c)TRIAL
(d) GAIN
(e) BRAVE
Q4.
Suppose the first and second letters in the word CONSTITUTIONAL were interchanged, also the
third and fourth letters, the fifth and sixth etc. Print the letter that would then be the tenth letter
counting from the right.
(a) T
(b) I
(c) N
(d) O
(e) U
Q5.
(a) 1564
(b) 1234
(c) 1342
(d) 1562
(e) 1672
Q6.
(a) 199
(b) 251
(c) 201
(d) 233
(e) 257
Q7.
(a)
n / 132
(b)
n / 55
(c)
n / 45
(d)
n / 20
(e)
n / 78
Q8.
a.
2672
b.
2898
c.
2735
d.
2187
e.
2413
Q9.
(a)
ORACLE
(b)
INGRESS
(c)
UNIX
(d)
DB2
(e)
SYBASE
Q10.
(a)
SAP
(b)
HTTP
(c)
WAP
(d)
SMTP
(e)
ARP
Q11.
The three numbers in brackets represent the length of the sides of a triangle. Which of these does
not represent a proper triangle?
318737514.doc
105
Q12.
Q13.
(a)
(2m,3m,4m)
(b)
(1m,2m,4m)
(c)
(3m,4m,5m)
(d)
(3m,3m,3m) (e)
(5m,3m,5m)
The three numbers in brackets in each of the following options represents the number of vertices,
the number of edges and the number of faces respectively. Find out which of these represents a
solid planar cube?
(a) (4,8,12)
(b) (8,12,6)
(c) (8,6,12)
(d) (8,8,8) (e) (12,6,8)
(a)
7, 0, -7, 7, 0, -7 (b)
-7, -7, -7, -7, -7, -7 (c)
7, -7, 7, -7, 7, -7
(d)
7, 7, 7, 7, 7, 7
(e)
7, 7, 7, 0, 7, 7
The three circles below represent the number of people speaking Bengali, Hindi and English.
Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
14
49
45
Hindi
English
12
16
13
51
Bengali
Q14.
Q15.
Q16.
(a)2
(b)3
(c)4
(d)5
(e) 1
What percentage of people speaking Bengali can also speak Hindi but not English?
(a)13 (b) 17.4 (c)16 (d)18 (e)21
What percentage of total people can speak all three languages?
(a)4
(b)5
(c)7
(d) 6
(e)9
140
120
100
Others
12%
Ph.Ds
Strength (in "00s)
8
8
%
0
6
0
M.Techs
4
25%
0
2
0
Q17.
0
(a)1996 (b)1998 (c)1994 (d)1686 (e) 1888
B.Techs
55%
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999

318737514.doc
106
Q18.
Q19
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.

(a) 7700 (b) 6800 (c)8800 (d)4800 (e) 7800
If 10% of people on the rolls in 1998 left the Company, how many fresh hires were made in 1999
(a)4900 (b) 4600 (c)4700 (d) 4400 (e) 5400
(Force X Distance)
(a) Mass (b) Time (c) Velocity
(d) Distance
(e) None
Ram can do a piece of work in 15 days and Shyam in 20 days. With the help of Dinesh, they finish
the work in 5 days. How long will it take Dinesh to finish the work?
(a)18 (b)24 (c)12 (d)10 (e)15
9
15
A=
3
Q23.
Q24.
Q25.
Q26.
0.99
10.04
99.98
1000
9990
(a) y = logn x
Q28.
Q29.
C=
6 -1
10
12
D=
1
(a)A
(b)B
(c)C
(d)D
(e) None
(i)
Mammal Cow
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
Oven Building
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Square Polygon
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Word Sentence
(4)
Superset of
(a) i-3,ii-1,iii-4,iv-2
(b) i-4,ii-1,iii-3,iv-2
(d) i-3,ii-2,iii-1,iv-4
(e) i-1,ii-4,iii-3,iv-2
# $ # (9) - $ # $ (9)?
(a)98 (b)108 (c) -108 (d)99 (e)102
f(0) = -1;
f(1) = 1
f(n) = f(n-1) - f(n-2)
(a)2
(b)3
(c)-2
(d)1
(e)4
XVI. X
Q27.
33 -5
B=
Y
0.00001
1.02
1.997
3.0
4.004
(b) y = log10 x (c) y = ex (d) y = -log10 x (e) y = - ex
A Two-dimensional array X(7,9) is stored linearly column-wise in a computer's memory. Each

element requires 4 bytes for storage of the value. If the first byte address of X(1,1) is 3000, what
would be the last byte address of X(5, 8)?
(a)3245 (b)3445 (c)3215 (d)3655 (e)3125
A = i+j, B = 3i+2j, C = -7i+j, D = 2i-3j
(a)BD (b)AD (c)BC (d)AC (e)AB
M (373,7) + R (5.8) + T (7.7) - R(3.4) where
318737514.doc
107
Q30.
Q31.
Q32.
M stands for Modulo arithmetic, R stands for Round-off operation and T stands for Truncation
Operation
(a)13 (b)16 (c) 12 (d)19 (e)21
Three independent mechanisms A, B and C have been incorporated for fuel saving in a car
producing respectively 30%, 20% and 40% efficiency. Assuming that they operate independently,
what is the net fuel efficiency achieved?
(a)61 % (b) 64% (c) 62% (d) 66.4%
(e) 69%
Class exam
Final exam
3
1.4
3.5
1.65
(a)12.2 (b) 13 (c)10.1 (d)10.2 (e)12.5
(a)y = tan x
Q33.
Q34.
Q35.
(b) y + x = 0
(c) y + 3 = x
(d) y = Cos x
(e) y = ex
The temperature at Kochi is given by the function: -t2/6+4t+12 where t is the elapsed time since
midnight. What is the percentage rise (or fall) in temperature between 6.00 PM and 9.00 PM?
(a) 35% (b) 25 %(c) -25%(d) 29% (e) 20%
An aircraft takes off from A (0 o N Lat, 60o E Long) at 2.00 AM local time to B (32 o N Lat, 60o W
Long). If the flying time is 8 hours what is the local time of landing at B?
(a) 5.40 AM
(b) 4.00 AM
(c) 2.00 AM
(d) 3.00AM
(e) 8.00AM
A
B
C
(A B ) C
0
0
0
0
0
1
0
1
0
0
1
1
1
0
0
1
0
1
1
1
0
1
1
1
decimal value.
(a)96
Q36.
(b) 93 (c)98 (d)95 (e)91
A file is transferred from one location to another in 'buckets'. The size of the bucket is 10
kilobytes. The bucket gets filled at the rate of 0.0001 kilobytes per millisecond. The transmission
time from sender to receiver is 10 milliseconds per bucket. After the receipt of the bucket the
receiver sends an acknowledgement that reaches sender in 100 milliseconds. Assuming no error
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Q37.
during transmission, write a formula to calculate the time taken in seconds to successfully
complete the transfer of a file of size N kilobytes.
(a)11.01 N
(b)10.11 N
(c)10.011 N
(d)11.011 N
(e)10.101 N
The memory used by a program is given by the function P(N) = 4000 N, where N is the size of
the program. Find the percentage change in memory usage if the size of the program is increased
by 1%.
(a) 0.75%
(b) 0.5%(c) 0.25%
(d) 1% (e) 2%
Q38.
(a) 450
(b) 3900
(c) 2700
(d) 2100
(e) 1800
END OF PART II
PART III
(1) 6 school board members Allenby, Broome, Chatsworth, Doggettt, Edson and Fream
are seated at a conference table in the auditorium of Westfield High School, to run a
community budget meeting. They take six seats, numbered 1 through 6 from left to right
on the same side of the table. However, there has been some tension among the board
members during the crisis and this affects the seating.
Allenby has openly clashed with Broome over staff cuts, and cannot be seated immediately to the left or
immediately to the right of Broome. Dogget knows about, and so must be immediately to the left of Doggett.
Fream knows that the angry head of a tax group will be seated on the right side of the auditorium, so he will
not occupy seat 6 at the table.
1. Which of the following board members cannot be seated in seat 1?
(A) Allenby
(B) Broome
(C) Chatsworth
(D) Dogget
(E) Fream
1. If Dogget is seated in seat 3, Chatsworth must be seated in seat:
(A)
1
(B)
2
(C)
4
(D)
5
(E)
6
3. If Allenby is seated in seat 5, which of the remaining board members must be seated in
seat 6?
(A)
Broome
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Chatsworth
Dogget
Edson
Fream
4. If Fream is seated in seat 3, immediately to the right of Doggett, which of the remaining board members
must be seated in seat 5?
(A)
Allenby
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(B)
Broome
(C)
Chatsworth
(D)
Doggett
(E)
Edson
(2) 5 executives of a European corporation hold a conference in Rome:
Mr. A converses in Spanish and Italian
XVII. Mr. B converses in Spanish and English

Mr. C converses in English and Italian
Mr. D converses in French and Spanish
Mr. E, a native Italian, can also converse in French
1. Which of the following can act as interpreter when Mr. C and Mr. D wish to confer?
(A)
Only Mr. A
(B)
Only Mr. B
(C)
Only Mr. E
(D)
Mr. A and Mr. B
(E)
Any of the other 3 executives
2. Which of the following cannot converse without an interpreter?
(A)
Mr. B and Mr. E
(B)
Mr. A and Mr. B
(C)
Mr. A and Mr. C
(D)
Mr. B and Mr. D
(E)
Mr. A and Mr. E
3. Besides Mr. E, which of the following can converse with Mr. D without an interpreter?
(A)
Only Mr. A
(B)
Only Mr. B
(C)
Only Mr. C
(D)
Messrs. A and B
(E)
Messrs. A, B and C
4. If a sixth executive is brought in, to be understood by the maximum number of the original five, he should
be fluent in
(A)
English and French
(B)
Italian and English
(C)
French and Italian
(D)
Italian and Spanish
(E)
English and Spanish
(3) All As, Bs, Cs, Ds, Es, and Fs are Qs.
All As are Bs.
No B that is not an A is an F.
Some Cs are As. All Ds are Cs.
Some Cs are not Bs.
No D is an A.
All Qs and only Qs that are neither Bs not Cs are Es.
1. Which of the following can be deduced from the information given?
(A)
All Fs are As.
(B)
Some Fs are As.
(C)
Some Fs are Es.
(D)
Some Fs are Cs.
(E)
All Fs are As, Cs, or Es.
2. Which must be false if the information given is true ?
(A)
No Ds are Bs.
(B)
Some Bs are Ds.
(C)
Some Fs are both Bs are Cs.
(D)
Some Qs are neither Bs nor Es.
(E)
Some Fs are Ds.
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3. Which cannot be shown to be true or false on the basis of the information given?
1. No B or C in E.
2. Some Cs are Bs but not As.
3. No B is both an A and a D.
(A)
1 Only.
(B)
2 Only
(C)
3 Only
(D)
1 and 2
(E)
2 and 3
4. P is not a B. Which of the following must be true?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
P is an E.
If P is a C, it is neither an A nor a D.
If P is a Q, it is an E or a C.
If P is not an E, it is a C.
If P is a Q, it may be a C or an A, but not both.
TCS TALENT TEST 10

Part I
1.A 2.A 3.B 4.D 5.C 6.A 7.B 8.D 9.B 10.A 11.C 12.E 13.A 14.D 15.A 16.C 17.A 18.A 19.E 20.B 21.D 22.E
23.F 24.A 25.B 26.C 27 C 28 E 29 C 30 B 31 A 32 C
Part II
1.C 2.D 3.D 4.B 5.C 6.B 7.E 8.D 9.C 10.A 11.B 12.B 13.C 14.E 15.B 16.D 17.A 18.C 19.A 20.A 21.C 22.A
23.C 24.C 25.C 26.B 27.C 28.A 29.C 30.D 31.A 32.B 33.C 34.C
35.B 36.C 37.B 38.E
XVIII. PART III

1.
2.
3.
(1)D
(1)E(2)A
(1)E(2)D
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(2)B
(3)D
(3)B
(3)D
(4)D
(4)C
(4)E
111
TCS TALENT TEST 011
PART I
(21) MINION
(A) monster (B)quorum (C) majority (D) host (E)dependent
(22) MIRAGE
(A) dessert (B)illusion (C)water (D)mirror (E)statement
(23)
MISANTHROPE
(A) benefactor (B)philanderer (C)man-hater (D)aesthete (E)epicure
(24) MISCHANCE
(A) gamble (B)ordinance (C)aperture (D) anecdote (E)adversity
(25)
MISDEMEANOUR
(A) felony (B)peccadillo (C)indignity (D)fiat (E)illiteracy
(26)
MODISH
(A) sentimental (B) stylish (C)vacillating (D)contrary (E)adorned
(27) MOLLIFY
(A) avenge (B)attenuate (C)attribute (D)mortify (E)appease
(28)
MONETARY
(A) boring (B)fascinating (C)fiscal (D)stationary (E)scrupulous
(29) MORATORIUM
(A) burial (B)gathering (C) delay (D)refusal (E)suspicion
(30) MORDANT
(A) dying (B) trenchant (C) fabricating (D)controlling (E)avenging
(31) DISREGARD
(A) admit (B)evade (C)heed (D)improve (E)prevent
(32) VERACITY
(A) uncertainty (B)mendacity (C)plausibility (D)intuition (E) opposition
(33) BEDECK
(A) erect (B)awake (C)isolate (D)cleanse (E)strip
(34) ESTRANGE
(A) reconcile (B)feign (C)perplex (D)arbitrate (E)commiserate
(35) SPURIOUS
(A) cautious (B)fantastic (C)modest (D)genuine (E)pertinent
(36) PROVIDENT
(A) manifest (B)prodigal (C)thankful (D)tidy (E)refuted
(37) CAPITULATE
(A) initiate (B)defame (C)exonerate (D)resist (E)repeat
(38) INDIGENOUS
(A) affluent (B)parochial (C)alien (D)serene (E)inimical
(39) SALUBRITY
(A) unwholesomeness (B)insolvency (C)dissatisfaction (D)diffidence (E)rigidity
(40) QUAI
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(A) hover (B)tolerate (C)arouse enmity (D)become resolute (E)abstain from action
In a sense the university had failed. It has stores great quantities of knowledge; it
teaches more people; and despite its failures, it teaches them better.__21___ . Of the great
branches of knowledge- the sciences the social sciences and humanities- the science are
applied. Strenuous and occasionally successful efforts are made to apply the social
sciences, but almost never are the humanities well applied. We do not use philosophy in
defining our conduct. __22____. The great task of the university in the next generation is
to learn to use the knowledge we have for the questions that come before us. __23___
The difference between a primary problem and a secondary or even tertiary problem is
that primary problems tend to be around for a long time, whereas the less important ones
get solved.
J. The next generation, and perhaps this one, will be able to interfere chemically
K. This can be done, but what happens to the free will and the rights of the individual
L. But the students wont learn enough to go to graduate school
M. It is in the application of this knowledge that the failure has come.
N. We do not use literature as a source of real and vicarious experience.
O. The university should organize courses around primary problems
P. The universities greatest shortcoming is not to help students see the relevance of
Q. It is difficult for modern students, accustomed to the minute of film, to appreciate
opera.
R. It is necessary students to require to include in their curricula liberal arts courses.
There can be no doubt that the emergence of the Negro writer in the post-war
period stemmed, in part, from the fact that he was inclined to exploit the opportunity to
write about himself. It was more than that, however. The movement that has variously
been called the Harlem Renaissance, the Black Renaissance, and the New Negro
Movement is essentially a part of the growing interest of American literary circles in the
immediate and pressing social and economic problems. This growing interest coincided
with two developments in Negro life that fostered the growth of the New Negro
movement. These two factors, the Keener realization of injustice and the improvement of
the capacity for expression, produced a crop of Negro writers who constituted the
Harlem Renaissance.
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The literature of the Harlem Renaissance was, for the most part, the work of a
race-conscious group. Through poetry, prose, and song, the writers cried out against
social and economic wrongs. They protested against segregation and lynching. They
demanded higher wages with shorter hours, and better conditions of work. They stood for
full social equality and first class citizenship. The new vision of social and economic
freedom, which they had, did not force them to embrace the several foreign ideologies
that sought to sink their roots in some American groups during the period.
The writers of the Harlem Renaissance, bitter and cynical as some of them were,
gave little attention to the propaganda of the socialists and communists. The editor of the
Messenger ventured the opinion that the New Negro was the product of the same world
wide forces that have brought into being the great liberal and radical movements that are
now seizing the reins of power in all the civilized countries of the world. Such forces
may have produced the New Negro, but the more articulate of the group did not resort to
advocating the type of political action, that would have subverted Americas
constitutional government. Indeed, the writers of the Harlem Renaissance were not so
much revolting against the system as they were protesting its inefficient operation. In this
approach they proved as characteristically American as any writers of the period. Like his
contemporaries, the Negro writer was merely becoming more aware of Americas
pressing problems; and like the others, he was willing to use his art, not only to contribute
to the great body of American culture but also to improve the culture of which he was
part.
It seems possible, moreover, for the historian to assign to the Negro writer a role
that he did not assume. There were doubtlessly many who were not immediately
concerned with the injustices heaped on Negros. Some contrived their poems, novels,
and songs merely for the sake of art, while others took up their pens to escape the sordid
aspects of their existence. If there is an element of race in their writings, it is because the
writings flow out of their individual and group experiences. This is not to say that such
writings were not effective as protest literature, but rather that not all the authors were
conscious crusaders for a better world. As a matter of fact, it was this detachment, this
objectivity, that made it possible for many of the writers of the Harlem Renaissance to
achieve a nobility of expression and poignancy of feeling in their writings that placed
them among the maters of recent Americans literature.
(27) The author is primarily concerned with
A. Arguing that the literature of the Harlem renaissance arose from
the willingness of black writers to portray their own lives
B. Depicting the part played by socially conscious black writers in a
world wide ideological and literary crusade
C. Providing examples of the injustices protested by the writers of the
Harlem renaissance
D. Describing the social and political background that led to the
blossoming of the Harlem Renaissance
E. Analyzing stages in the development of the New Negro Movement
into the Harlem renaissance
(28) In reference to the achievements of the Harlem renaissance, the passage conveys
primarily a sense of
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A. Protest
B. Betrayal
C. Nostalgia
D. Urgency
E. Admiration
(29) Which of the following is implied by the statement that the writers of the Harlem
Renaissance were not so much revolting against the system as they were
protesting its inefficient operation
A. Black writers played only a minor part in protesting the injustices
of the period
B. Left to itself, the system was sure to operate efficiently
C. Black writers in general were not opposed to the system as such
D. In order for the system to operate efficiently blacks must seize the
reins of power in America
E. Black writers were too caught up in aesthetic philosophy to
identify the true nature of the conflict.
(30) With which of the following statements regarding the writers of the Harlem
Renaissance would the author most likely agree?
A. They needed to increase their commitment to international
solidarity.
B. Their awareness of oppression caused them to reject American
society.
C. They transformed their increasing social and political
consciousness into art.
D. Their art suffered from their over involvement in political
crusades.
E. Their detachment from their subject matter lessened the impact of
their works.
(31) The information in the passage suggests that the author is most likely
A. A historian concerned with presenting socially conscious black writers of the
period as loyal Americans.
B. A literary critic who questions the conclusions of the historians about the Harlem
Renaissance.
C. An educator involved in fostering creative writing projects for minority youths.
D. A black writer of fiction interested in discovering new facts about his literary roots
E. A researcher with questions about the validity of his sources.
(32) Which of the following statements best describes the organization of the passage
( the writers constitutional government)?
A. The author cites an authority supporting a previous statement and then qualifies the
original statement to clarify its implications.
B. The author makes a point, quotes an observation apparently contradicting that
point, and then resolves the inconsistency by limiting the application of his
original statement.
C. The author makes a negative comment and then modifies it, first by quoting a
statement that qualifies its impact and then by rephrasing his original comment to
eliminate its negative connotations.
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D. The author summarizes an argument, quotes an observation in support of that

argument, and then advances an alternative hypothesis to explain potential
contradictions in that argument.
E. The author states a thesis, quotes a statement relevant to that thesis, and then
presents two cases, both of which corroborate the point of the original statement.
PART II
Q1.
5
7
11
??
35
67
(a) 15 (b)32 (c) 19 (d) 18 (e) 24
Q2.
In the following series, how many Ws are there such that each W is followed by
an F next to it if the F is not followed by a S next to it?
W F W S Q M W F S M F W F F W Q M W
W F Q W F S F W A M F W F M
(a)3 (b)2 (c)1 (d)4 (e)6
Q3.
If SOHDVH is coded as PLEASE how will JDLQ be coded?
(a) MIND
(b) ALERT (c) TRIAL
(d) BRAVE (e) GAIN
Q4.
Suppose the first and second letters in the word ORGANISATIONAL were
(a) T
(b) I
(c) G
(d) O
(e) A
Q5.
Q6.
(a) 197
(b) 221
(c) 251
(d) 231
(e) 257
Q7.
(a)
n / 132
(b)
n / 39
(c)
n / 55
(d)
n / 40
(e)
n / 45
Q8.
a.
2187
b.
2672
c.
2739
d.
2898
e.
2414
Q9.
(a)
UNIX
(b)
WINDOWS NT
(c)
LINUX
(d)
MVS
(e)
SQL SERVER
Q10. (a)
SAP
(b)
HTTP
(c)
WAP
(d)
SMTP
(e)
ARP
Q11. The three numbers in brackets represent the length of the sides of a triangle.
(a)
(2m,3m,6m) (b)
(3m,2m,4m) (c)
(3m,4m,5m)
(d)
(3m,3m,3m) (e)
(5m,3m,5m)
(a) (4,8,6)
(b) (8,12,6) (c) (8,4,6) (d) (4,4,4) (e) (6,12,8)
(a)
7, -7, 7, -7, 7, -7
(b)
-7, -7, -7, -7, -7, -7 (c) 7, 0, -7, 7, 0, -7
(d)
7, 7, 7, 7, 7, 7
(e)
7, 7, 7, 0, 7, 7
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The three circles below represent the number of students passing in Science,
Hindi and History. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
14
49
45
History
Science
12
16
13
51
Q14.
Q15.
Q16.
English
How many more (or less) students passed in Science than students who passed in
History?
(a) 1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4 (e)6
What percentage of students passing in English also pass in History but not in
Science?
(a)13 (b) 17.4
(c)16 (d)18 (e) 19
What percentage of total passed in all three subjects?
(a)3 (b)2 (c) 6 (d)5 (e)4
140
120
North
12%
100
East
8%
80
60
Sout
h 55%
West
25%
40
20
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Q17.

(a) 1998
(b) 1995
(c) 1996
(d) 1686
(e) 1888
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Q18.
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.

(a) 7700
(b) 6800
(c) 4800
(d) 8800
(e) 7800
made in 1999?
(a) 4500
(b) 4900
(c) 4800
(d) 4400
(e) 5400
(Force X Distance)
(a)Time
(b) Power
(c) Velocity (d) Distance (e) Mass
A and B together can do a piece of work in 14 days. If A does twice as much work
as B in a given time, find how long A alone would take to do the work?
(a) 24 (b) 21 (c) 28 (d) 14 (e) 7
21
15
A=
Q23.
Q24.
Q25.
Q26.
33 -5
B=
C=
6 -1
10
12
D=

(i)
Mammal Cow
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
Bug Reptile
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Beagle Dog
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Piston Engine
(4)
Superset of
# $ # (8) - $ # $ (8)?
(a)-89 (b)87 (c) -96 (d)92 (e)67
g(0) = -1;
g(1) = 1
g(n) = g(n-1) - g(n-2)
(a)3 (b)-2 (c)-1 (d)1 (e)2
XIX. X
0.99
10.04
99.98
1000
9990
Y
0.00001
1.02
1.997
3.0
4.004
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118
Q27.
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
Q31.
Q32.

(a)3127
(b)3427
(c)3087
(d)3421
(e)3651
A = 3i+2j, B = i+j , C = 2i-3j, D = -7i+j
(a)AC (b)AB (c)AD (d)BC (e)BD
M(843,11) + R(5.8) + T(7.7) - R(3.4) where
(a)16 (b)17 (c)15 (d)14 (e)12
(a) 68%
(b) 62.2%
(c) 64%
(d) 65.2%
(e) 63.2%
Class exam
Final exam
3
1.4
3.5
1.65
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.1 (c)-0.1 (d)-0.2
(e) 0.5
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119
Q33.
Q34.
Q35.
(a) y = tan x (b) y + 3 = x (c)y + x = 0 (d) y = Cos x (e) y = ex

(a) 34.7%
(b) 34%
(c) 35%
(d) 37.9%
(e) 39%
o
o
landing at B?
A
B
C
(A C ) B
0
0
0
0
0
1
0
1
0
0
1
1
1
0
0
1
0
1
1
1
0
1
1
1
decimal value.
Q36.
Q37.
(a) 55 (b) 45 (c) 54 (d) 57 (e) 58

(a) 10.11 N (b) 11.011 N (c) 11.01 N (d) 10.101 N (e) 10.011 N
P (N) = 4000 N, where N is the total strength. Find the percentage change in
(a) 0.75%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 1% (d) 0.5%
(e) 2%
Q38. A optical cable is to be run from a junction point on the bank of a river 900
(a) 1800
(b) 3900
(c) 2800
(d) 2100
(e) 2700
XX. PART III

(1) At a congress of the Progressive Federal party, the seven top party leaders, who are all
cabinet ministers, are seated on the platform in the order of rank. The Prime minister, the
party leader, is in the center. The closer a person is to the Prime minister, the higher is his
or her rank, with a person on the Prime ministers right out ranking one equidistant from
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the Prime Minister on her left. The seven leaders are Arning, Brenner, Civili, Dorner,
Eckland, Fentz, and Grell.
Fentz is four places to the left of the Minister of Agriculture, who is two places to the right
of Civili. Brenners neighbors are Arning and the Minister of Agriculture. Grell is two
places to the left of Dorner. The Ministers of Education, Mining, and Culture are seated
together, in that order, from left to right. The remaining ministers are those of Social
Welfare and Defense.
1. The Minister of Culture is
(A)
Arning
(B)
Brenner
(C)
Civili
(D)
Dorner
(E)
Eckland
2. The fifth ranking person in the party hierarchy is
(A)
Grell, the Minister of Mining
(B)
Fentz, the Minister of Culture
(C)
Doorner, the Prime Minister
(D)
Eckland, the Minister of Defense
(E)
Arning, the Minister of Education
3. The Minister of Social Welfare
1. Outranks the Minister of Defense
2. Is outranked by the Minister of Mining
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
1 and 2 only
(D)
1 or 2, but not both
(E)
Neither 1 or 2
4. How many of the seven party leaders outrank the Minister of Education?
(A)
2
(B)
3
(C)
4
(D)
5
(E)
6
(2) Mrs. F, official hostess of New York City, has invited several wives of delegates of the
United Nations for an informal luncheon. She plans to seat her eleven guests so the each
lady will be converse with at least the person directly to her right or left. She has prepared
the following list.
Mrs. F speaks English only.
Mrs. G speaks English and French.
Mrs. H speaks English and Russian.
Mrs. J speaks Russian only.
Mrs. K speaks English only.
Mrs. L speaks French only.
Mrs. M speaks French and German.
Mrs. N speaks English and German.
Mrs. O speaks English and French.
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Mrs. P speaks German and Russian.

Mrs. Q speaks French and German.
Mrs. R speaks English only.
1. Which of the following arrangements will meet Mrs. Fs requirement?
I.
FOLMPJHKGQNR
II.
FRNLPKHJGMQO
III.
FRGJHOLMQPKN
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
III only
(D)
I and II only
(E)
I and III only
2. If the ladies seated to the right of Mrs. P are respectively, MGHKFO, who must sit at
Mrs. Ps left hand?
(A)
J
(B)
L
(C)
N
(D)
Q
(E)
R
3. If seven of the ladies have seated themselves in the following order: NGFROMQ, who
must be the next lady seated?
(A)
H
(B)
J
(C)
K
(D)
L
(E)
P
4. Mrs. F has decided upon the following seating arrangement:
RKGQNFOLMPJH
At the last minute, Mrs. H and Mrs. P inform the hostess that they will not be able to
attend. Which of the following adjustments will allow Mrs. Fs seating requirements to be
met?
I.
Seat Mrs. J between Mrs. K and Mrs. G
II.
Seat Mrs. J between Mrs. Q and Mrs. F
III.
Seat Mrs. J to the right of Mrs. N
(A)
I only
(B)
III only
(C)
I or II only
(D)
II or III only
(E)
Neither I, II, not III
(3) The Homer Museum of American Art is open daily except Monday from 11 A.M. to 5
P.M. Tuesday and Thursdays museum remains open until 8 P.M.
The spring special exhibition are:
Albert Pinkham Ryder, A Retrospective, which is on view from Friday, April 24, through
Sunday, May 31, in the Pollock Wing; Precursors of Thomas Eakins, from Friday, May
8, through Sunday, July 6, in the Third Floor Gallery; and The Hudson River School, in
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the John Twachtman Gallery, which is closed Tuesdays, from Friday, May 1, through
Sunday, May 24 only.
The Pollock wing is closed Thursdays during May.
1. If Dan can visit the museum only after 5 p.m., or on Saturday and does not wish to view
more than 1 special exhibition in a day, he can see all 3 special exhibitions in the briefest
time by starting with:
(A)
The Hudson River School on a Thursday
(B)
The Ryder Retrospective on a Saturday
(C)
Precursors of Eakins or the Ryder Retrospective on a Tuesday
(D)
Precursors of Eakins on a Thursday
(E)
Any exhibition on a Saturday
2. Ellen wishes to visit the special exhibitions on successive Thursdays. This is possible
only if she visits
I.
The Ryder Retrospective in April
II.
The Hudson River School second
III.
Precursors of Eakins immediately following the Ryder Retrospective
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
I and II only
(D)
II and III only
(E)
I, II and III
3. Ralph can visit all three special exhibitions on one day if he goes on
I.
Every Saturday in May
II.
The second, third, fourth Saturday in May
III.
Any Tuesday or Friday between May 5 and May 22
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
III only
(D)
I and III only
(E)
II and III only
4. Terry visits the museum on an afternoon 6 days after the opening of The Hudson River
School. Which of the special exhibitions may he visit.
I.
The Ryder Retrospective
II.
Precursors of Eakins
III. The Hudson River School
(A)
I only
(B)
III only
(C)
I and II only
(D)
II and III only
(E)
I, II and III
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TCS TALENT TEST 012

PART I
(41) MORIBUND
(A) dying (B) appropriate (C)leather-bound (D)answering (E)undertaking
(42) MOTLEY
(A) active (B)disguised (C) variegated (D)somber (E)sick
(43) MUGGY
(A) attacking (B)fascinating (C)humid (D)characteristic (E)gelid
(44) MULCT
(A) swindle (B)hold (C)record (D)print (E)fertilize
(45) MULTI-LINGUAL
(A) variegated (B)polyglot (C)multilateral (D)polyandrous (E)multiply
(46) MUNDANE
(A) global (B)futile (C)spatial (D)heretic (E)worldly
(47) MUNIFICENT
(A) grandiose (B)puny (C)philantrophy (D)poor (E)gracious
(48) MUSTY
(A) flat (B)necessary (C)indifferent (D)nonchalant (E)vivid
(49) MYOPIC
(A) visionary (B)nearsighted (C)moral (D)glassy (E)blind
(50) NASCENT
(A) incipient (B) ignorant (C)loyal (D)treacherous (E)unnamed
(51) TANTAMOUNT
(A) not negotiable (B)not equivalent (C)not ambitious (D)not evident (E)not
relevant
(52) RECTIFY
(A) apologize (B)sanctify (C) make worse (D)rule illegal (E)rebuke
(53) APEX
(A) smallest amount (B)clearest view (C)lowest point (D)broad plateau (E)bright
colour
(54) PROSAIC
(A) imaginative (B) contradictory (C)hesitant (D)redundant (E)disorderly
(55) DISSONANCE
(A) amalgamation (B)harmony (C) neutrality (D)resolution (E)proximity
(56) DOLTISH
(A) immature (B)coarse (C)clever (D)stable (E)genial
(57) CHAGRIN
(A) frown (B)disguise (C)make different (D)make aware (E)please
(58) DISINGEOUS
(A) naive (B)accurate (C)hostile (D)witty (E)polite
(59) RECALCITRANCE
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(A) dependability (B)submissiveness (C)apathy (D)incongruity (E)eloquence

(60) FECUNDICITY
(A) consideration (B)comprehensibility (C)barrenness (D)gravity (E)sanity
In a sense the university had failed. It has stores great quantities of knowledge; it teaches
branches of knowledge- the sciences, the social sciences and humanities - the
apply the social sciences, but almost never are the humanities well applied . We
do not use philosophy in defining our conduct. __22____. The great task of the
predetermined mission. __25___, here we have a primary problem that will still exist
S. The next generation, and perhaps this one, will be able to interfere chemically
T. This can be done, but what happens to free will and the rights of the individual
U. But the students wont learn enough to go to graduate school
V. It is in the application of this knowledge that the failure has come.
W. We do not use literature as a source of real and vicarious experience.
X. The university should organize should organize courses around primary problems
Y. The universities greatest shortcoming is not to help students see the relevance of
Z. It is difficult for modern students, accustomed to the minute of film, to appreciate
opera.
AA.
It is necessary that students require to include in their curricula liberal arts
courses.
No one can be great thinker who does not realize that as a thinker, it is her first duty
to follow her intellect to whatever conclusions it may lead. Truth gains more even by the
errors of one who, with due study and preparation, thinks for herself, than by the true
opinions of those who only hold them because they do not suffer themselves to think. Not
that it is solely, or chiefly, to form greater thinkers that freedom of thinking is required.
On the contrary, it is much or even more indispensable to enable average human beings to
attain the mental stature, which they are capable of. There have been, and may again be,
great individual thinkers in a general atmosphere of mental slavery. But there never has
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been, nor ever will be, in that atmosphere an intellectually active person. Where any
person has made a temporary approach to such character, it has been because the dread of
heterodox speculation was for a time suspended. Where there is a tacit convention that
principles are not to be disputed; where the discussion of the greatest questions which can
occupy humanity is considered to be closed, we cannot hope to find that generally high
scale of mental activity which has made some period of history so remarkable. Never
when controversy avoided the subjects which are large and important enough and kindle
enthusiasm was the mind of people stirred up from its foundations and the impulse given
which raised even persons of the most ordinary intellect to something of the dignity of
thinking beings.
She who knows only her own side of the case knows little of that, her reason may be
good, and no one may have been able to refute them. But if she is equally unable
to refute the reason of the opposite side; if she does not so much as know what
they are, she has no ground for preferring either opinion. The rational position for
her would be suspension of judgment, and unless she contents herself with that,
she is either led by authority, or adopts, like the generality of the world the side to
which she feels the most inclination. Nor is it enough that she should hear the
arguments of adversaries from her own teachers, presented as they state them, and
accompanied by what they offer as refutations. That is not the way to do justice to
the arguments, or bring them into real contact with her own mind. She must be
able to hear them from persons who actually believe them; who defend them in
earnest, and do their very utmost for them. She must know then, in the most
plausible and persuasive form: she must feel the whole force of the difficulty
which the true view of the subject has an encounter and dispose of; else she will
never really posses herself of the portion of truth which meets and removes the
difficulty. Ninety-nine in a hundred of what are called educated persons are in this
condition; even of those who can argue fluently for their opinions. Their
conclusion may be true, but it might be false for anything they know: they have
never thrown themselves into the mental position of those who think differently
from them and considered what such persons may have to say ; and consequently
they do doctrines which they themselves profess. They do not know those parts
of the doctrine which explain and justify the remainder, the consideration which
show that a fact which seemingly conflicts with another is reconcilable with it, or
that , of two apparently strong reasons, one and not the other ought to be
preferred.
(27) According to the author, it always advisable to
A. have opinion which cannot be refuted
B. adopt the point of view to which one feels the most inclination
C. Be acquainted with the arguments favouring the point of view with which one
disagrees.
D. Suspend heterodox speculation in favor of doctrinaire approaches
E. Ignore the accepted opinion of the vast majority
(28)
According to the author, in a great period such as the Renaissance we may except
to find
A. acceptance of truth
B. controversy over principles
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(29)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
(30)
(31)
(32)
Q1.
Q2.
Q3.
Q4.
Q5.
C. inordinate enthusiasm
D. a dread of heterodox speculation
E. a suspension of judgment
According to the author, which of the following statements is true?
Most educated people study both sides of a question
Heterodox speculations will lead to many unnecessary errors of thinking
In debatable issues,. We should rely on the opinions of the experts for guidance
It is wise to hear both sides of a debatable issue from ones teachers
The majority of those who argue eloquently truly know only one side of an issue.
As it is used in line of the passage, the work suffer most nearly means
A. endure
B. undergo
C. permit
D. support
E. force
It can be inferred from the passage that a person who knows only her own side of
an issue is regarded by the author as:
A. timorous
B. opinionated
C. heterodox
D. educated
E. rational
According to the author, the person who holds orthodox beliefs without
examination may be described in all of the following ways EXCEPT as
A. enslaved by tradition
B. less than fully rational
C. determined on controversy
D. having a closed mind
E. unwilling to adopt new ideas
PART II
65
33
17
??
5
3
(a) 11 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 12 (e)15
In the following series, how many Vs are there such that each V is followed by an
C next to it if the C is not followed by a Z next to it.
V C V Z Q M V C Z M C V C C V Q M V V
C Q V C Z C V A M C V C M
(a)3 (b)2 (c)1 (d)4 (e)6
If OENIR is coded as BRAVE how will CYRNFR be coded?
(a) DISPLAY (b) CENTRAL (c) PLEASE (d) SURMISE (e) DISPLAY
Suppose the first and second letters in the word ORGANISATIONAL were
(a) T
(b) I
(c) G
(d) O
(e) A
(a) 1432
(b) 1542
(c) 1362
(d) 1642
(e) 1672
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127
Q6.
(a) 193
(b) 237
(c) 231
(d) 241
(e) 251
Q7.

(a)
n / 110
(b)
n / 66
(c)
n / 45
(d)
n / 39
(e)
n / 20
Q8.
(a)
2424
(b)
2672
(c)
2739
(d)
2898
(e)
2187
Q9.
(a)
ORACLE
(b)
SYBASE
(c)
INGRESS
(d)
LINUX
(e)
DB2
Q10. (a)
SMTP
(b)
HTTP
(c)
WAP
(d)
BAAN
(e)
ARP
(a)
(2m, 3m, 4m) (b)
(1m, 2m, 5m) (c)
(3m, 4m, 5m)
(d)
(3m, 3m, 3m) (e) (5m, 3m, 5m)
(a) (4,8,6)
(b) (6,8,12) (c) (8,12,6) (d) (6,6,6) (e) (12,6,8)
(a)
-1, -1, -1, -1, -1, -1
(b)
1, -1, 1, -1, 1, -1 (c) 1, 0, -1, 1, 0, -1
(d)
1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1
(e)
1, 1, 1, 0, 1, 1
14
49
45
COBOL
12
16
13
51
JAVA
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Q14.
proficient in C?
(a)2 (b)3 (c)4 (d) 1 (e)6
Q15.
What percentage of people proficient in JAVA are also proficient in C but not in
COBOL?
(a)12 (b)16 (c) 18 (d) 17.4 (e) 19
What percentage of total people are proficient in all three languages?
Q16.
(a)5 (b)4 (c)7 (d)8 (e) 6

140
120
Strength (in "00s)
Others
12%
100
Ph.Ds
8
%
8
0
6
0
4
0
2
0
0
B.Techs
55%
M.Techs
25%
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Q17.
Q18.
Q19
Q20.
Q21.

(a) 1998
(b) 1996
(c) 1994
(d) 1686
(e) 1888
(a) 7700
(b) 8800
(c) 6800
(d) 4800
(e) 7800
were made in 1999?
(a) 4500
(b) 4600
(c) 4900
(d) 4400
(e) 5400
(Force X Distance)
(a)Time
(b) Mass
(c) Velocity (d) Distance (e) None
Ram and Shyam together can do a piece of work in 14 days. If Ram does twice as
much work as Shyam in a given time, find how long Ram alone would take to do
the work?
(a)24 (b)16 (c)21 (d)18 (e)28
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129
Q22.
Q23.
Q24.
Q25.
Q26.
Q27.
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
Q31.

12
9
33 -5
1 0
10 12
A=
B=
C=
D=
4
3
6 -1
1 2
3
4
(i)
Mammal Cow
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
Mushroom Vegetable
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Panda Bear
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Oxygen Water
(4)
Superset of
# $ # (6) - $ # $ (6)?
(a)60 (b)69 (c) -72 (d)75 (e)87
g(0) = -1;
g(1) = 1
g(n) = g(n-1) - g(n-2)
(a)2 (b)3 (c)1 (d)-2 (e)-1
XXI. X
Y
0.99
0.00001
10.04
1.02
99.98
1.997
1000
3.0
9990
4.004
address of X (1,1) is 3000, what would be the last byte address of X (5, 8)?
(a)3241
(b)3214
(c)3107
(d) 3247
(e) 3457
A: 3x+2y-7 = 0, B: y = -x , C: 2x = 3y+5, D: y = 7x+3
(a)AC (b)AD (c)BC (d)BD (e)Cd
M(737,7) + R(5.8) + T(7.7) - R(3.4) where
(a)8 (b)9 (c) 12 (d)16 (e)15
Three independent strategies A,B and C have been initiated for cost cutting in a
(a)58%
(b) 66.4%
(c) 64%
(d) 65%
(e) 60%
Class exam
Final exam
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130
Q32.
3
1.2
3.5
1.45
(a) -0.3
(b) 0.1
(c) -0.1
(d) -0.2
(e) 0.5
Q33.
Q34.
Q35.
(a)y = tan x (b) y + 3 = x (c) y = Cos x (d) y + x = 0 (e) y = ex

(a)20%
(b)25 %
(c) 21%
(d) -20.5%
(e) 29%
landing at B?
A
0
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
B
0
0
1
1
0
0
1
1
C
0
1
0
1
0
1
0
1
(A B ) C
decimal value.
(a)24
Q36.
(b)26 (c)22 (d)21 (e)23
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131
Q37.
(a)11.01 N
(b)10.11 N
(c)10.011 N (d)11.011 N (e)10.101 N
The productivity of a team of programmers is given by the function
(a) 0.5%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 0.75%
(d) 1%
(e) 2%
Q38. A telephone cable is to be run from a junction point on the bank of a river 900
overhead on land is Rs. 4 per meter, find the point downstream where the cable is
to cut across the river.
(a) 1800
(b) 3900
(c) 2800
(d) 2100
(e) 2700
XXII. PART III

(1) At a Symposium on the possible dangers of the individual chemical PMX, three proindustry spokespersons are to be seated to the left of the moderator and three critics of
PBX to the right of the moderator. The speakers are Drs. Albert, Burris, Durand, Ettis and
Felsentein.
(1)
The person delivering the paper Epidemiological Aspects of PBX is seated

immediately between Dr. Albert and Dr. Durand.
(2)
The persons delivering Public Health and PBX and Radiological Aspects of
PBX are close friends and insist on sitting together.
(3)
Felsenstein is placed two seats to the left of the moderator.
(4)
As heavy smoking is repugnant to the moderator, she insists that the person
delivering PBX: Benign or Malignant, a heavy smoker, be seated at one end of the
table.
(5)
Cathode, delivering The Impact of PBX on the Environment, is seated to the left
of Felsenstein.
(6)
Albert, a critic of PBX, is seated to the left of Ettis.
1. The person seated immediately to the left of the moderator is
(A)
Albert
(B)
Burris
(C)
Cathode
(D)
Durand
(E)
Ettis
2. Given the seating rules as stated, which of the numbered statements are logically
sufficient to establish the position of Dr. Ettis and the title of the paper she delivers?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1, 3
1, 6
1, 3, 6
1, 4, 5, 6
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(E)
1, 3, 4, 5
3. The symposium is expanded to include a seventh speaker. If she is seated exactly
midway between Cathode and the moderator, he will sit:
(A)
to the left of the author of Radiological Aspects of PBX
(B)
one seat to the right of the moderator
(C)
two seats to the right of Durand
(D)
three seats to the left of Albert
(E)
four seats to the left of the author of PBX: Benign or Malignant
I.
The author of Public Health and PBX
II.
III.
The title of the paper delivered by Durand
The identity of the two friends who insist on being together

(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
III only
(D)
I and II only
(E)
II and III only
(2) A is the father of two children, B and D, who are of different sexes.
C is Bs spouse
E is the same sex as D
B and C have two children: F, who is married to L, is the sister of Ds mother, M.
E and Es spouse, I , have two children, J and K who are the same sex as I
No person has married more than once, and no children have been born out of wedlock.
The only restrictions on marriage are that marriage to a sibling, to a direct descendant, to
a person of the same sex, or to more than one person at the same time is forbidden.
1. F is :
(A)
Gs brother
(B)
Gs sister
(C)
Bs daughter
(D)
Ds niece or nephew
(E)
The same sex as H
2. According to the rules, D can marry
(A)
F only
(B)
G only
(C)
J only
(D)
J or K only
(E)
F, J or K
3. If L and H are divorced, H could marry
I.
D only
II.
F only
III.
D or G
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
III only
(D)
I or II, but not both
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(E)
II or III, but not both
4. If the generations of F and Ks parents and their siblings contains more females than
males, which of the following must be true?
(A)
There are more females in F and Ks generations
(B)
J is a male
(C)
A is the same sex as D
(D)
K and G are the same sex
(E)
D is Hs nephew
(3) In a certain society only two forms of marriage are recognized. In Prahtu marriage
several brothers marry a single woman, while in Brihtu marriage several sisters marry a
single man. All members of a given married group are regarded as the parents of any
children of the marriage. Marriage between male and female children of the same parents
if forbidden.
E is a son of A
G is a daughter of B
Fi s a daughter of C
E, F, M and N have a daughter, H
E and F have the same paternal grandmother, Q
A and B are the only grandfathers of H, C, J, K, and L are the only grandmothers of H
No one has married more than once; all children were born in wedlock
1. G is a sister of:
(A)
N only
(B)
M only
(C)
E
(D)
F
(E)
E or F, but not both.
2. N is a sibling of
I.
M only
II.
M and E
III.
M and F
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
III only
(D)
(E)
3. One of Qs children may be
(A)
A
(B)
C
(C)
J
(D)
K
(E)
M
4. Which of the following is an offspring of a Brihtu marriage
(A)
H
(B)
E
(C)
A
(D) B
(E) J
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TCS TALENT TEST 013

PART I
(61) PHLEGMAPIC
(A) calm (B)cryptic (C) practical (D) salivary (E)dishonest
(62) PHYSIOGNOMY
(A) posture (B) head (C)physique (D)face (E)size
(63) PIEBALD
(A) motley (B) coltish (C) hairless (D)thoroughbred (E)delicious
(64) PILLAGE
(A) hoard (B) plunder (C) versify (D)denigrate (E)confide
(65) PINION
(A) express (B)report (C)reveal (D)submit (E)restrain
(66) PINNACLE
(A) foot-hills (B)card game (C) pass (D)taunt (E)peak
(67) PIOUS
(A) historic (B)devout (C)multiple (D) fortunate (E)authoritative
(68) PIQUE
(A) pyramid (B)revolt (C)resentment (D)struggle (E)inventory
(69) PLACATE
(A) determine (B)transmit (C)pacify (D) allow (E)defying
(70) PLAGIARISM
(A) theft of funds (B)theft of ideas (C)belief in God (D)arson (E)ethical theory
(71) LUGUBRIOUS
(A) transparent (B)sedulous (C)soporific (D)jocose (E)querulous
(72) ANIMUS
(A) hospitality (B)probity (C)anonymity (D)amity (E)insularity
(73) FLUSTER
(A) soothe (B)diminish (C)strengthen (D)divert (E)allow
(74) DELETION
(A) injury (B)delay (C)insertion (D)permission (E)pollution
(75) DISPARAGE
(A) resemble (B)eulogize (C)vacillate (D)annoy (E)appear
(76) BALEFUL
(A) meager (B) beneficent (C) indifferent (D) uncomfortable (E)original
(77) SERVILITY
(A) resilience (B)wickedness (C)independence (D)righteousness (E)humility
(78) FELICITOUS
(A) inappropriate (B)ineffable (C)irrational (D)atypical (E)uncertain
(79) PRECIPITIOUS
(A) cooperative (B)cautious (C)inaccurate (D)formal (E)simplistic
(80) ASSUAGE
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(A) wane (B) belie (C)worsen (D) intervene (E)presume

At the present time, 98 percent of the world energy consumption comes from stores
sources, such as fossil fuels or nuclear fuel. ___21____ Discovery of large
additional fossil fuel reserves, solution of the nuclear safety and waste disposal
problems, or the development of controlled thermonuclear fusion will provide
only a short-term solution to the worlds energy crisis. Within about 100 years, the
thermal pollution resulting from our increased energy consumption will make
solar energy a necessity at any cost.
Mans energy consumption is currently about one part in ten thousand that of the energy
we receive from the sun. ___22___. If this growth continues, within 100 years our
energy consumption will be about 1 percent of the absorbed solar, enough to
increase the average temperature of the earth by about one degree centigrade if
stored energy continues to be our predominant source. This will be the point at
which there will be significant effects in our climate, including the melting of the
polar ice caps. A phenomenon which will raise the level of the oceans and flood
parts of our major cities. ___23____. As the ice caps begin to melt, the reflectivity
will decrease, thus heating the earth still further.
It is often stated that the growth rate will decline or that energy conservation measures
will preclude any long-range problem. Instead, this only postpones the problem
by a few years. Conservation by a factor of two together with a maintenance of
the 5 percent growth rate delays the problem by only 14 years. ___24___; in
addition, the inequalities in standards of living throughout the world will provide
pressure toward an increase in growth rate, particularly if cheap energy is
available. The problem of changing climate will not be evident until perhaps ten
years before it becomes critical due to the nature of an exponential growth rate
together with the normal annual weather variations. ___25____.
The only practical means of avoiding the problem of thermal pollution appears to be the
use of solar energy. (Schemes to air-condition the earth do not appear to be
feasible before the twenty-second century). ______26_________. The cost of
solar energy is extremely favourable now, particularly when compared to the cost
of relocating many of our major cities.
A. However, it is growing at a 5 percent rate, of which about 2 percent represents a
population growth and 3 percent a per capita energy increase.
B. The primary concern is isolating an ambiguity and clarify by definition
C. There is positive feedback associated with this process, since the polar ice cap
contributes to the partial reflectivity of the energy arriving form the sun:
D. Only hydroelectric and wood energy represent completely renewable sources on
ordinary time scales.
E. Reduction of the growth rate to 4 percent postpones the problem by only 25 years;
F. The melting of polar ice caps will accelerate the transition to solar energy
G. This may be too short a period to circumvent the problem by converting to other
energy sources, so advance planning is a necessity.
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H. It is proposed to utilize the hydroelectric and wood energy to replace nonconventional energy sources such as nuclear energy
I. Using the solar energy before it is dissipated to heat does not increase the earths
energy balance.
Given the widespread acceptance of the image of the ocean depths as serene and
undisturbed, it is unsurprising that researchers initially greeted the evidence for powerful
deep sea storms and dynamic currents with disbelief. The earliest arguments in sport of
the existence of such powerful deep-sea currents were based on models of ocean
circulation derived from hydrodynamic theory. Because the density of cold water is
greater than that of warm water, cold water tends to sink. Thus near the poles, the chilly
water sinks; in theory, this sinking should create powerful, regular deep-sea currents
flowing from the poles toward the warm equatorial regions. Over time, investigators have
gathered sufficient evidence to confirm the accuracy of this theory. Oceanographic
studies have verified that deep-sea currents exist and have demonstrated that, on the
western side of the great ocean basins, periodic underwater storms transporting masses of
fine sediment that scour the sea floor. Corroborating these studies, photographs of the
seafloor have disclosed the existence of vast graded beds suggesting the active transport
of large volumes of silt and clay. Further corroboration had come from an experimental
program known as the High _energy Benthic Boundary- Layer Experiment (HEBBLE).
Rather than immediately reporting on findings of the HEBBLE program, let is first
take a moment to examine both the sources of deep-sea sediments and the forces that
create and energize the global systems of ocean circulation. Two main types of sediments
are eventually deposited on the deep-sea floor. The first consist of disintegrated rock
fragments, the detritus created by the weathering of rocks on the continents and islands.
Borne by river current to the edge of a continent, this rocky debris, mingled with
disintegrating vegetable matter, floats out onto the continental shelf, where marine
currents carry it further seaward. Once at the edge of the shelf the detritus drifts down,
eventually reaching the base of the continental rise. In the subtropics, additional
continental material reaches the sea, blown there by strong desert winds. Of the roughly
15 billion tons of terrestrial material carried seaward each year, be far the bulk travels no
further than the outlets of rivers and streams. Barely a few billion tons goes beyond the
continental shelves to escape into the deep sea.
The second type of sediment deposited on the deep sea floor is composed of shells
and skeletons of dead microscopic organisms that exist in the sunlit upper reaches of the
worlds oceans. This biological matter adds around three billion tons to the total amount
of deep-sea sediment deposited each year. The rate at which biological matter
accumulates in the deep depends on the rate at which biological matter is produced; this
in turn depends partly on movements of the surface current. Two surface current meet or
converge at a so called zone of convergence. Likewise two surface currents part or
diverge at a so-called zone of divergence, which allows nutrient-rich water from the
depths to outcrop or rise to the sunlit upper reaches. There photosynthesis can take
place, and microscopic organisms flourish. Thus, a zone of divergence is a region of high
productivity and high rates of accumulation; such zones normally are found along the
edges of major currents (e.g. The Gulf stream off New England) and close to the major
oceanic fronts (e.g. the region around the Antarctic)
(27) The primary purpose of the passage is to
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(28)
A. contrast surface currents with marine currents

B. question the methods of earlier investigators
C. demonstrate the benefits of the HEBBLE program
D. describe a replicable laboratory experiment
E. summarize evidence supporting oceanic circulation
Which of the following best describes the attitude of many scientists when they
first encountered the theory that strong currents are at work in the deep sea?
A. somber resignation
B. Measured approbation
C. Marked skepticism
D. Academic detachment
E. Active espousal
(29) According to the passage, the initial data supporting the idea that the sea depths
were turbulent rather than placid came from
A. underwater photographic surveys
B. the activities of the HEBBLE program
C. analysis of North America sea-bed sediments
D. direct measurements of undersea currents
E. models showing how hot and cold water interact
(30) This passage most likely would be of particular interest to
A. navigators of sailing vessels
B. students of global weather patterns
C. current passengers on ocean liners
D. designers of sea-floor structures
E. researchers of sea floor structure
(31) As defined in the passage, the second type of deep sea sediment consist of which
Of the following?
I.
Minute particles of rock
II.
Fragmentary shells
III.
Wind-blown soil
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
(32) In the passage the author does all of the following EXCEPT
A. approximate an amount
B. refer to a model
C. given a concrete example
D. propose a solution
E. support a theory
PART II
Q1.
3
8
15
??
35
48
(a) 30 (b) 18 (c) 24 (d) 26 (e)32
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Q2.
In the following series, how many Us are there such that each U is followed by
an C next to it if the C is not followed by a Z next to it.
U C U Z Q M U C Z M C U C C U Q M U U
C Q U C Z C U A M C U C M
(a)3 (b)2 (c)1 (d)4 (e)6
Q3.
If CSBWF is coded as BRAVE how will QMFBTF be coded?
(a) PLEASE (b) CENTRAL (c) DISPLAY (d) SURMISE (e) DISPLAY
Q4.
Suppose the first and second letters in the word MEASUREMENTS were
(a) E
(b) A
(c) S
(d) M
(e) N
Q5.
Q6.
(a) 211
(b) 251
(c) 241
(d) 223
(e) 247
Q7.
(a)
n / 132
(b)
n / 110
(c)
n / 45
(d)
n / 20
(e)
n / 49
Q8.
a.
6245
b.
6762
c.
6561
d.
6178
e.
6074
Q9.
(a)
ORACLE
(b)
MVS
(c)
INGRESS
(d)
DB2
(e)
SYBASE
Q10. (a)
SMTP
(b)
BAAN
(c)
WAP
(d)
HTTP
(e)
ARP
(a)
(2m,3m,4m) (b)
(4m,5m,4m) (c)
(3m,4m,5m)
(d)
(3m,3m,3m) (e)
(2m,2m,5m)
(a) (12,8,6) (b) (8,6,12) (c) (8,12,6) (d) (6,6,6) (e) (8,6,8)
(a)
1, 0, -1, 1, 0, -1
(b)
1, 1, 1, 0, 1, 1 (c)
-1, -1, -1, -1, -1, -1
(d)
1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1
(e)
1, -1, 1, -1, 1, -1
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14
49
45
COBOL
12
16
13
51
JAVA
Q14.
Q15.
Q16.
proficient in C?
(a) 1 (b)4 (c)3 (d)5 (e)2
COBOL?
(a) 17.4 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 18 (e) 20
What percentages of total people are proficient in all three languages?
(a)3 (b)6 (c)5 (d)7 (e)8

140
120
Others
12%
100
Strength (in "00s)
Q17.
8
0
6
0
4
0
2
0
0
Ph.Ds
8
%
B.Techs
55%
M.Techs
25%
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999

(a) 1998
(b) 1886
(c) 1994
(d) 1996
(e) 1888
318737514.doc
140
Q18.
Q19
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.
Q23.
Q24.
Q25.
Q26.

(a) 7700
(b) 6800
(c) 8800
(d) 4800
(e) 7800
were made in 1999
(a) 4500
(b) 4900
(c) 4600
(d) 4400
(e) 5400
(Power X Time) / (Velocity X Velocity)
(a)Time
(b) Power
A can copy 50 pages in 10 hours, while A and B together can copy 70 pages in 10
hours. In what time B can copy 26 pages?
(a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 15 (d) 26 (e) 39
8
6
33 -5
1 0
10 12
A=
B=
C=
D=
4
3
6 -1
1 2
3
4
(i)
Mammal Cow
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Square Polygon
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Piston Engine
(4)
Superset of
If & stands for doubling and % stands for change of sign what is the value of
& % & (5) - % & % (5)?
(a)30 (b)25 (c) -30 (d)36 (e)27
f(0) = 1;
f(1) = -1
f(n) = f(n-1) - f(n-2)
(a)-1 (b)1 (c)2 (d)3 (e)4
XXIII. X
Y
0.99
0.00001
10.04
1.02
99.98
1.997
1000
3.0
9990
4.004
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141
Q27.
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
Q31.
Q32.

(a)3241
(b)3441
(c)3351
(d)3631
(e)3321
A: 3x+2y-7 = 0, B: x+y = 0 , C: 3y-2x+5 = 0, D: y = 7x+3
(a)AC (b)AD (c)BC (d)BD (e)CD
M(843,7) + R(3.4) + T(7.7) - R(5.8) where
(a)5 (b)6 (c) 7 (d)8 (e)3
(a) 34%
(b) 48%
(c) 46%
(d) 54%
(e) 41%
Class exam
Final exam
3
1.2
3.5
1.45
(a)12.6 (b) 13 (c)10.1 (d)10.6 (e)12.5
318737514.doc
142
Q33.
Q34.
Q35.
(a)y = tan x (b) y + 3 = x (c) y = ex

(d) y = Cos x (e) x + y = 0
(a) -20.5%
(b) 32 %
(c) 21%
(d) 26%
(e) 28%
o
o
landing at B?
A
B
C
(A B ) C
0
0
0
0
0
1
0
1
0
0
1
1
1
0
0
1
0
1
1
1
0
1
1
1
decimal value.
(a)12
Q36.
Q37.
(b)18 (c)16 (d)24 (e) 21
(a)11.01 N
(b)10.11 N
(c)10.011 N (d)11.011 N (e)10.101 N
(a) 0.75%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 0.5%
(d) 1% (e) 2%
Q38. A telephone cable is to be run from a junction point on the bank of a river 900
(a) 450
(b) 1800
(c) 2800
(d) 2100
(e) 2700
PART III
(1) Seven varsity basketball players are to be honoured at a special luncheon. The players
will be seated on the dais along one side of a single rectangular table.
Adams and Goldberg have to leave the luncheon early and so must be seated at the
extreme right end of the table, which is closest to the exit.
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Baker will receive the most valuable players trophy and so must be in the center chair to
facilitate the presentation.
Cooper and D Amato, who were bitter rivals for the position of center during the basket
ball season, dislike one another and should be seated as far apart as is convenient.
Edwards and Farley are best friends and want to sit together.
1.
Which of the following may not be seated at either end of the table?
(A)
Cooper
(B)
DAmato
(C)
Goldeberg
(D)
Farly
(E)
Adams
2. Which of the following pairs may not be seated together?
(A)
Cooper and Farley
(B)
Baker and DAmato
(C)
Edward and Adams
(D)
Goldeberg and DAmato
(E)
Edwards and Cooper
3. Which of the following pairs may not occupy the seats on either side of Baker?
(A)
Farley and DAmato
(B)
DAmato and Edwards
(C)
Edwards and Goldberg
(D)
Farley and Cooper
(E)
Edwards and Cooper
4. If neither Edwards nor DAmato is seated next to Baker, how many different seating
arrangements are possible?
(A)
1
(B)
2
(C)
3
(D)
4
(E)
5
(2) Number series questions provide psychologists with a means of testing a persons
ability to determine quantitative patterns. Below are seven number series:
(I)
4, 64, 5, 125, 6, x
(II)
6, 37, 7, 50, 8, 65, 9, x
(III)
5, 25, 125, 7, 49, 343, 9, 81, x
(IV)
9, -7, 18, -18, 31, x
(V)
4, 16, 80, 480, 3360, x
(VI)
25, 24, 22, 19, 15, 10, x
(VII)
100, 81, 64, 49, 36, x
1. In which of the above number series is the third power of a number the determining
factor?
(A)
I and III
(B)
I, IV and V
(C)
I, III and VII
(D)
II, III and VI
(E)
I, III, IV and VII
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2. In which of the above number series is it necessary to consider a pattern of three

elements?
(A)
I
(B)
II
(C)
III
(D)
IV
(E)
V
3. In which of the above number series is the use of powers of a number NOT a
determining factor?
(A)
I
(B)
II
(C)
IV
(D)
V
(E)
VII
4. In which of the above number series is the determining factor the addition and the
subtraction of squares?
(A)
II
(B)
IV
(C)
VI
(D)
VII
(E)
None
(3) Mr. Pict must accommodate seven tour group passengers in two four-person cabins on
the S.S. Gallia. Each passenger in a cabin must be able to converse with atleast one other
passenger, though not necessarily in the same language
A, an Etruscan, also speaks Gothic and Hittite
B and F are Hittites and speak only that language.
C, an Etruscan, also speaks Gothic
D and G are Goths and speak only Hittite
E, an Etruscan, also speaks Hittite
Hittites are to share rooms with Goths.
1. Which combination of passengers in one of the cabins will result in a rooming
arrangement that satisfies all conditions for both cabins?
(A)
B, C, F
(B)
D, E, G
(C)
A, D, E, G
(D)
C, D, E, G
(E)
A, B, C, F
2. Which CANNOT be true, given the conditions as stated?
I.
C cannot room with A
II.
Ant cabin containing three persons must include A
III.
E must always room with a Hittite
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
I and III only
(D)
II and III only
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(E)
I, II and III
3. How many combinations of cabin mates satisfy all conditions?
(A)
2
(B)
3
(C)
4
(D)
5
(E)
6
4. If E objects to sharing a cabin with A, with whom can Mr. Pict place him in order to
arrive at an arrangement that satisfies all conditions?
I.
D and G, with no fourth cabin mate
II.
B and F with no fourth cabin mate
III.
C, D and G
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
I and III only
(D)
II and II only
(E)
TCS TALENT TEST 014
PART I
(81) PLAINTIVE
(A) mournful (B)senseless (C)persistent (D)rural (E)evasive
(82) PLATITUDE
(A) fatness (B)bravery (C)dimension (D)trite remark (E)strong belief
(83) POLEMIC
(A) blankness (B)lighting (C) magnetism (D)controversy (E)grimace
(84) PONDEROUS
(A) contemplative (B)moist (C)rambling (D) bulky (E)erect
(85)
PRECARIOUS
(A) priceless (B)premature (C) primitive (D)hazardous (E)unwelcome
(86) REFRACTORY
(A) articulate (B)sinkable (C)vaunted (D)useless (E)unmanageable
(87) REGAL
(A) oppressive (B)royal (C) major (D) basic (E)entertain
(88) REITERITE
(A) gainsay (B)revive (C)revenge (D)repeat (E)return
(89) RELISH
(A) desire (B)nibble (C)savour (D)vindicate (E)avail
(90) REMISS
(A) lax (B)lost (C)foolish (D) violating (E)ambitious
(91) LATENT
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A) prior (B)tardy (C)devious (D)manifest (E)astronomical

(92) BROACH
(A) seal off (B)vie with (C)unsettle (D)stint (E)enhance
(93) ENCOMIUM
(A) prodigality (B)denunciation (C) sacrifice (D)disability (E)abbreviation
(94) AMELIORATION
(A) cancellation (B)worsening (C)forgetfulness (D)bribe (E)consideration
(95) DISARRAY
(A) neaten (B)empower (C)combine (D)oscillate (E)select
(96) DISPUTATOUS
(A) repugnant (B)coy (C)conciliatory (D)infamous (E)composed
(97) INUNDATE
(A) uproot (B)channel (C)wallow (D)embroil (E)drain
(98) RETICENCE
(A) irascibility (B)loquaciousness (C)quiescence (D)patience (E)surrender
(99) INCONGUOUS
(A) geometric (B)prudent (C)legitimate (D)harmonious (E)efficacious
(100) APOSTATE
(A) laggard (B)loyalist (C)martinet (D)predecessor (E)skeptic
Read the following text. The passage contains some blank spaces. Choose the sentence
from the list A I, that best fits in each of the blank spaces. The numbers in
brackets refer to Question numbers.
sources, such as fossil fuels or nuclear fuel. ___21____ Discovery of large additional
fossil fuel reserves, solution of the nuclear safety and waste disposal problems, or the
development of controlled thermonuclear fusion will provide only a short-term solution
to the worlds energy crisis. Within about 100 years, the thermal pollution resulting from
our increased energy consumption will make solar energy a necessity at any cost.
Mans energy consumption is currently about one part in ten thousand that of the
energy we receive from the sun. ___22___. If this growth continues, within 100 years our
energy consumption will be about 1 percent of the absorbed solar energy of the absorbed
solar energy, enough to increase the average temperature of the earth by about one degree
centigrade if stored energy continues to be our predominant source. This will be the point
at which there will be significant effects in our climate, including the melting of the polar
ice caps. A phenomenon, which will raise the level of the oceans and flood parts of our
major cities. ___23____. As the ice caps begin to melt, the reflectivity will decrease, thus
heating the earth still further.
It is often stated that the growth rate will decline or that energy conservation
measures will preclude any long-range problem. Instead, this only postpones the problem
by a few years. Conservation by a facto9r of two together with maintenance of the 5
percent growth rate delays the problem by only 14 years. ___24___; in addition, the
inequalities in standards of living throughout the world will provide pressure towards an
increase in growth rate, particularly if cheap energy is available. The problem of
changing climate will not be evident until perhaps ten years before it becomes critical
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due to the nature of an exponential growth rate together with the normal annual weather
variations. ___25____.
The only practical means of avoiding the problem of thermal pollution appears to be
the use of solar energy. (Schemes to air-condition the earth do not appear to be feasible
before the twenty-second century). ______26_________. The cost of solar energy is
extremely favorable now, particularly when compared to the cost of relocating many of
our major cities.
J. However, it is growing at a 5 percent rate, of which about 2 percent represents a
K. The primary concern is isolating an ambiguity and clarify by definition
L. There is positive feedbacks associated with this process, since the polar ice cap
contributes to the partial reflectivity of the energy arriving form the sun:
M. Only hydroelectric and wood energy represents completely renewable sources on
N. Reduction of the growth rate to 4 percent postpones the problem by only 25
year5s;
O. The melting of polar ice caps will accelerate the transition to solar energy
P. This may be too short period to circumvent the problem by converting to other
Q. It is proposed to utilize the hydroelectric and wood energy to replace nonconventional energy sources such as nuclear energy
R. Using the solar energy before it is dissipated to heat does not increase the earths
energy balance.
Paralleling the growth of interest among professional historians during the early
1960s was a simultaneous groundswell of popular interest in the Afro-American past that
was directly stimulated by the drama of the protest movement. Sensing the Negro
Mood, the journalist Lerone Bennett wrote a series of articles on Afro-American history
for Ebony and soon after brought them together in his popular volume, Before the
Mayflower(1962). As the nonviolent direct action movement attained its crest in 1963-64,
movement activists introduced black history units into the curricula of the freedom
schools that accompanied the school integration boycotts. Meanwhile, boards of
education began to address themselves to the racial imbalance and neutralism of
pusillanimous textbooks designed to appeal to Southern as well as Northern school
adoption committees. In 1964 New York citys school board published The Negro in
American History; Detroits social studies teachers produced The struggle for Freedom
and rights: Basic Facts about the Negro in American History. Franklin, surveying the
activities among publishers, teachers, and school boards, called these beginnings of
curriculum revision one of the most significant by products of the current Civil Rights
Revolution.
The relationship between these developments at the grass roots level and what
was occurring in the scholarly world is of course, indirect. Yet given the context of social
change in the early 1960s, Negro history was now the object of unprecedented attention
among wide segments of the American population, black and white. In academe, nothing
demonstrated this growing legitimacy of black history better than the way in which
certain scholars of both races, who had previously been ambivalent about being identified
as specialists in the field, now reversed themselves.
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Thus Frenise Logan, returning to an academic career, decided to attempt to

publish his doctoral dissertation on blacks in late nineteenth-century North Carolina. A
1960 award encouraged him to do further research, and his expanded The Negro in North
Carolina, 1876-1894 appeared in 1964. It is true that as late as 1963 a white professor
advised John W. Blassingame to avoid black history if he wanted to have a future in the
historical profession. Yet more indicative of how things were going was that 1964-65
marked a turning point for two of Kenneth Stampps former students- Nathan Huggins
and Leon Litwack. The changing intellectual milieu seems to have permitted Huggins,
whose original intention of specializing in African and Afro-Americans history had been
overruled by practical concerns, to move into what become his long range commitment to
the field. By 1965 when his interest in intellectual history found expression in the idea of
doing a book on the Harlem Renaissance, the factors that earlier would have discouraged
him from such a study had dissipated. For Litwack the return to Negro history was an
especially vivid experience , and he recalls the day he spoke at the university of
Rechester, lecturing on Jacksonian democracy. Some students in the audience, sensing
that his heart was just not in that topic, urged him to undertake research once again in the
field to which he had already contributed so significantly. He settled on the study that
became Been in the storm so Long (1979). In short, both Huggins and Litwack now felt
able to dismiss the professional considerations that had loomed so large in their earlier
decision to work in other specialists and to identify themselves with what had hitherto
been a marginal field of inquiry.
(27) The author indicates that the growth of scholarly involvement in the study of
black history was
B. Unappreciated in academic circles.
C. Encouraged by the civil rights movement
D. Systematically organized
E. Unaffected by current events
F. Motivated by purely financial concerns
(28) The authors account is based on all of the following EXCEPT
A. personal anecdotes
B. magazine articles
C. curricular materials
D. public opinion polls
E. scholarly publications
(29) The author cites Logan, Huggins, and Litwack for their
A. Work on curriculum reform in the public schools
B. Participation in the Freedom Summer in Mississippi
C. Return to the field of Afro-American history
D. Research on blacks in nineteenth century North Carolina
E. Identification with non violent direct action
(30) The author suggests that the advice given to John W. Blassingame was
A. meant maliciously
B. inappropriate to the times
C. acted on in good faith
D. vital to his career
E. verified by research
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149
(31)
(32)
Q1.
Q2.
Q3.
Q4.
Q5.
Q6.
Q7.
Which of the following best describes the purposes of the passage?

A. To document the sacrifices made by black and white scholars in the f
field
B. To define the validity of black history as a legitimate scholarly pursuit
C. To investigate the origins of Afro-American studies in American
universities
D. To encourage the return to the study of black history at the grass roots l
level
E. To describe black historys coming of age as an academically
respectable field
The passage suggests that Bennetts work was similar to Logans work in which
of the following ways?
I.
Both Bennetts and Logans books recorded a then relatively unfamiliar
aspect of Afro-American history
II.
Both Bennetts and Logans work were designed to appeal to a
primarily academic audience
III.
Both Bennetts and Logans work were published in a variety of formats
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. II and III only
PART II
7
26
63
??
215
342
(a) 123 (b) 126 (c) 124 (d) 128 (e) 125
G next to it if the G is not followed by a K next to it.
B G B K Q M B G K M G B G G B Q M B
B G Q B G K G B A M G B G M
(a)3 (b)2 (c)5 (d)4 (e)6
If EUDYH is coded as BRAVE how will SOHDVH be coded?
(a) DISPLAY (b) PLEASE (c) CENTRAL(d) SURMISE (e) DISPLAY
Suppose the first and second letters in the word MEASUREMENTS were
(a) E
(b) A
(c) S
(d) M
(e) N
(a) 1342
(b) 1234
(c) 1432
(d) 1564
(e)1646
(a) 251
(b) 217
(c) 261
(d) 243
(e) 257
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(a)
n / 102
(b)
n / 72
(c)
n / 153
(d)
n / 244
(e)
n / 136
Q8.
a.
6561
b.
6762
c.
6345
d.
6179
e.
6174
Q9.
(a)
MVS
(b)
ORACLE
(c)
INGRESS
(d)
DB2
(e)
SYBASE
Q10. (a)
SMTP
(b)
HTTP
(c)
BAAN
(d)
WAP
(e)
ARP
(a)
(2m,3m,4m) (b)
(4m,5m,4m) (c)
(3m,4m,8m)
(d)
(3m,3m,3m) (e)
(2m,4m,5m)
(a) (8,12,6) (b) (8,6,12)
(c) (8,12,4) (d) (6,8,6) (e) (4,6,8)
(a)
1, -1, 1, -1, 1, -1
(b)
1, 0, -1, 1, 0, -1 (c) 1, 1, 1, 0, 1, 1
(d)
1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1
(e)
-1, -1, -1, -1, -1, -1
14
49
45
COBOL
12
16
13
51
JAVA
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Q14.
proficient in C?
(a)2 (b)3 (c)4 (d)5 (e) 1
Q15.
COBOL?
(a)23 (b) 17.4 (c) 15(d) 18 (e) 14
Q16.
What percentage of total people are proficient in all three languages?

(a) 6 (b)5 (c)4 (d)8 (e)7
The figure on the left represents number of dealers for a Company and the figure
on the right depicts region-wise distribution for 1998
140
120
North
12%
100
Dealers (in "00s)
East
8%
80
60
Sout
h 55%
West
25%
40
20
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Q17.
Q18.
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.
Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth in dealers?

(a)1998
(b)1996
(c)1994
(d)1686
(e) 1888
What is the average number of dealers for 1995-1999?
(a) 7700
(b) 6800
(c) 8800
(d) 4800
(e) 7800
If 10% of dealers in 1998 left the Company, how many fresh dealers were made in
1999?
(a) 4500
(b) 4600
(c) 4700
(d) 4900
(e) 5400
(a) Time
(b) Power
(c) Mass
Ram can copy 50 pages in 10 hours, while Ram and Shyam together can copy 70
pages in 10 hours. In what time Shyam can copy 26 pages?
(a)12 (b)16 (c)13 (d)18 (e)39
12 3
15 25
1 0
10 12
A=
B=
C=
D=
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9
Q23.
Q24.
Q25.
Q26.

(i)
Mammal Cow
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
Mushroom Vegetable
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Snake Reptile
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Sentence Paragraph
(4)
Superset of
& % & (7) - % & % (7)?
(a)44 (b)42 (c) -42 (d)45 (e)46
f(0) = 1;
f(1) = -1
f(n) = f(n-1) - f(n-2)
(a)4 (b)5 (c)2 (d)3 (e)1
XXIV. X
0.99
10.04
99.98
1000
9990
Y
0.00001
1.02
1.997
3.0
4.004

Q27.
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
Q31.

(a)3231
(b)3552
(c)3431
(d)3541
(e)3251
A: 3x+2y-7 = 0, B: y = -x , C: y = 7x+3, D: 2x = 3y+5
(a)AD (b) AC (c)BC (d)BD (e)CD
M(843,7) + R(5.8) + T(7.7) - R(3.4) where
(a)12 (b)11 (c) 13 (d)9 (e)10
Three independent mechanisms A,B and C have been incorporated for fuel saving
in a car producing respectively 25%, 20% and 10% efficiency. Assuming that
they operate independently, what is the net fuel efficiency achieved?
(a)34%
(b) 44%
(c) 48%
(d) 46%
(e) 42%
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Q32.
Class exam
Final exam
3
1.2
3.5
1.45
(a)0.6 (b) 1 (c)0.1 (d)0.2 (e)0.5
8
6
4
2
X
Q33.
Q34.
Q35.
(a) y = x + 3 (b) y + 3 = x (c)y + x = 0 (d) y = Cos x (e) y = tan x

elapsed time since Noon. What is the percentage rise (or fall) in temperature
(a) 33%
(b) 34%
(c)36.2%
(d) 35%
(e) 31%
landing at B?
A
B
C
(A B ) C
0
0
0
0
0
1
0
1
0
0
1
1
1
0
0
1
0
1
1
1
0
1
1
1
decimal value.
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(a)24
Q36.
Q37.
(b) 21 (c)18 (d)16 (e)22
(a) 10.011 N (b)10.11 N
(c) 11.01 N (d)11.011 N (e)10.101 N
(a) 0.75%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 1% (d) 0.5%
(e) 2%
Q38.
(a) 450
(b) 1800
(c) 2800
(d) 2100
(e) 2700
XXV. PART III

(1) In the days of sailing ships fresh food was not available and at the end of long trips
many sailors came down with scurvy. Many attempts were made to seek a cure for this
condition.
John Hall cured several cases of scurvy by administering an acidic brew made of a
certain grass and watercress.
William Harvey suggested that the sailors take lemon juice to prevent scurvy. He
thought the specific acid (citric acid) in lemon juice would prevent the disease.
James Lind experimented with 12 sick sailors to find out whether the acid was
responsible for the cure. Each was given the same diet except that four of the men
were given small amounts of diluted sulphuric acid.
Four others were given vinegar (acetic acid) and the remaining four were given
lemons. Only those given lemons recovered from the scurvy.
1. How many controls did James Lind use?
(A)
One
(B)
Two
(C)
Three
(D)
Four
(E)
None
2. A possible cause of scurvy is:
(A)
lack of watercress
(B)
lack of acidity
(C)
lack of fresh food
(D)
lengthy sea voyages
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(E)
lack of lemon juice
3. The hypothesis tested by Lind was that:
(A)
lemons contain some substance not present in vinegar
(B)
the citric acid of lemons is effective in treating scurvy
(C)
lemons contain some unknown acid that cures scurvy
(D)
the substance ton cure scurvy is found only in lemons
(E)
some specific substance rather than acids in general, is needed to cure scurvy
4. Which question did Linds experiment NOT answer?
(A)
Will lemons cure scurvy?
(B)
Will either sulphuric acid or vinegar cure scurvy?
(C)
Will citric acid alone cure scurvy?
(D)
Are lemons more effective than either sulphuric acid or vinegar in the treatment of
scurvy?
(E)
Are all substances that contain acids equally effective as treatments for scurvy?
(2) O, P, Q or W may cause R
P, Q, or W may cause S
W or X may cause T
R or S may cause U or V, only if R and S are caused by P or Q.
R or S may cause Z only if R and S are caused by Q.
Only S and T together may cause M or N.
T may cause H only if it is caused by W or X.
1. Which can result form the largest number of immediately preceding events?
(A)
R
(B)
S
(C)
T
(D)
M
(E)
N
2. Which can result in the smallest number of subsequent events, counting both those that
follow immediately and those that follow after another event?
(A)
O
(B)
P
(C)
Q
(D)
W
(E)
X
3. How many different events or combinations of events may cause V?
(A)
5
(B)
6
(C)
7
(D)
8
(E)
9
4.Which may be a result of the smallest number of different combinations of events?
(A)
U
(B)
V
(C)
Z
(D)
M
(E)
N
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(3) Six school Board Members Ram, Shyam, Anil, Vijay, Sanjeev and Swami are
seated at a conference table in the auditorium of Bloomingdale High School, to run a
community budget meeting. They take 6 seats, numbered 1 through 6 from left to
right, on the same side of the table. However, there has been some tension among the
Board Members during the current Budget crisis and this affects the city.
Ram has openly clashed with Shyam over staff cuts, and cannot be seated immediately to
the left or immediately to the right of Shyam.
Anil has a hearing impairment that only Vijay knows about, and so must be immediately
to the left of Vijay.
Swami knows that the angry head of a tax group will be seated on the right side of the
auditorium, so he will not occupy seat 6 at the table.
1. Which of the following Board members cannot be seated in seat 1:
(A)
Ram
(B)
Shyam
(C)
Anil
(D)
Vijay
(E)
Swami
2. If Vijay is seated in seta three, Anil must be seated in seat:
(A)
1
(B)
2
(C)
4
(D)
5
(E)
6
3. If Ram is seated in seat 5, which of the remaining Board members must be seated in
seat 6?
(A)
Shyam
(B)
Anil
(C)
Vijay
(D)
Sanjeev
(E)
Swami
4. If Swami is seated in seat 3, immediately to the right of Vijay, which of the remaining
Board members must be seated in seta 5?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Ram
Shyam
Anil
Vijay
Sanjeev
TCS TALENT TEST 015
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PART I
(101) REMONSTRATE
(A) display (B)restate (C)protest (D)resign (E)reiterate
(102) REPARTEE
(A) witty retort (B)willful departure (C) spectator (D)monologue (E)sacrifice
(103) REPELLENT
(A) propulsive (B)unattractive (C)porous (D)stiff (E)elastic
(104) REPERCUSSION
(A) reaction (B)restitution (C) resistance (D) magnificence (E)acceptance
(105) REPLENISH
(A) polish (B)repeat (C)reinstate (D)refill (E)refuse
(106) REPLICA
(A) museum piece (B)famous site (C)battle emblem (D)facsimile (E)replacement
(107) REPRISAL
(A) reevaluation (B)assessment (C)loss (D)retaliation (E)nonsense
(108) REPROVE
(A) prevail (B)rebuke (C)ascertain (D)true faults (E)draw back
(109) REPUDIATE
(A) besmirch (B)appropriate (C)annoy (D)reject (E)avow
(110) REPUGNANCE
(A) belligerence (B)tenacity (C)renewal (D)pity (E)loathing
(111) TOPICAL
(A)general (B)disinterested (C)chronological (D)fallacious (E)imperceptible
(112) FULMINATE
(A) authorize (B)dominate (C)edify (D)illuminate (E)praise
(113) TURBID
(A) vigorous (B)limpid (C)turgid (D)viscous (E)rancid
(114) TYRO
(A) zealot (B)prodigal (C)braggart (D)expert (E)nihilist
(115) ADULTERATED
(A) solid (B)immature (C)exalted (D)pure (E)virtuous
(116) DISTEND
(A) deflate (B)prolong (C)commence (D)forecast (E)prevent
(117) TRANSIENT
(A) permanent (B)desultory (C)spontaneous (D)subterranean (E)obsequious
(118) REVILE
(A)compose (B)awake (C)deaden (D)praise (E)secrete
(119) ELATED
(A) crestfallen (B)inebriated (C)punctual (D)insulted (E)lamented
(120) PROPITIOUS
(A) adjacent (B) clandestine (C)contentious (D)unfavourable (E)coy
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sources, such as fossil fuels or nuclear fuel. ___21____ Discovery of large additional
fossil fuel reserves, solution of the nuclear safety and waste disposal problems, or the
development of controlled thermonuclear fusion will provide only a short-term solution
to the worlds energy crisis. Within about 100 years, the thermal pollution resulting from
our increased energy consumption will make solar energy a necessity at any cost.
Mans energy consumption is currently about one part in ten thousand that of the
energy we receive from the sun. ___22___. If this growth continues, within 100 years our
energy consumption will be about 1 percent of the absorbed solar energy, enough to
increase the average temperature of the earth by about one degree centigrade if stored
energy continues to be our predominant source. This will be the point at which there will
be significant effects in our climate, including the melting of the polar ice caps. A
phenomenon, which will raise the level of the oceans and flood parts of our major cities.
___23____. As the ice caps begin to melt, the reflectivity will decrease, thus heating the
earth still further.
solar energy is extremely favorable now, particularly when compared to the cost
S. However, it is growing at a 5 percent rate, of which about 2 percent represents a
T. The primary concern is isolating an ambiguity and clarifying by definition
U. There is positive feedback that associates with this process, since the polar ice
cap contributes to the partial reflectivity of the energy arriving form the sun:
V. Only hydroelectric and wood energy represents completely renewable sources on
W. Reduction of the growth rate to 4 percent postpones the problem by only 25 years;
X. The melting of polar ice caps will accelerate the transition to solar energy
Y. This may be too short period to circumvent the problem by converting to other
Z. It is proposed to utilize the hydroelectric and wood energy to replace nonconventional energy sources such as nuclear energy
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AA.
Using the solar energy before it is dissipated to heat does not increase the
earths energy balance.
Reverse discrimination, minority recruitment, racial quotes and more generally
affirmative action are phrases that carry powerful emotional charges. But why should
affirmative action, of all government policies, be so controversial? In a sense, affirmative
action is like other governmental programs, e.g. defense, conservation, and public
schools. Affirmative action programs are designed to achieve legitimate government
objectives such as improved economic efficiency, reduced social tension, and general
betterment of the public welfare. While it cannot be denied that there is no guarantee that
affirmative action will achieve these results, neither can it be denied that there are
plausible, even powerful, sociological and economic arguments pointing to its likely
success.
Government programs, however, entail a cost, that is the expenditure of social or
economic resources. Setting aside cases in which the specific user is charged a fee for
service (toll road and tuition at state institutions) the burdens and benefits of publicly
funded or mandated programs are widely shared.
When an individual benefits personally from a government program, it is only
because she or he is one member of a larger beneficiary class, e.g., a farmer; and most
government revenue is obtained through a scheme of general taxation to which all are
subject.
Affirmative action programs are exceptions to this general rule, though not, as might
at first seem because the beneficiaries of the programs are specific individuals. It is still
the case that those who ultimately benefit from affirmative action do so only by virtue of
their status as members of a larger group, a particular minority Rather, the difference is
the location of the burden. In affirmative action, the burden of funding the program is
not shared universally, and that is inherent in the nature of the case, as can be seen clearly
in the case of affirmative action in employment. Often job promotions are allocated
along a single dimension, seniority; and when an employer promotes a less senior worker
from a minority group the person disadvantaged by the move in easily identified; the
worker with greatest seniority on a combined minority non-minority list passed over for
promotion.
Now we are confronted with two competing moral sentiments. On the one hand,
there is the idea that those who have been unfairly disadvantaged by past discriminatory
practices are entitled to some kind of assistance. On the other, there is the feeling that no
person ought to be deprived of what is rightfully his or hers, even for the worthwhile
service of fellow human. In this respect disability due to past racial discrimination, at
least insofar as there is no connection to the passed-over worker, is like a natural evil.
When a villainous man willfully and without provocation strikes and injures another,
there is not only the feeling that the injured person ought to be compensated but there is
consensus that the appropriate party to bear the cost is the one who inflicted the injury.
Yet, if the same innocent man stumbled and injured himself, it would be surprising to
hear someone argue that the villainous man ought to be taxed for the injury simply
because he might have tripped the victim had he been given the opportunity. There may
very well be agreement that he should be aided in his recovery with money and personal
assistance, and many will give willingly; but there is also agreement that no one
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individual ought to be singled out and forced to do what must ultimately be considered an
act of charity.
(27) The passage is primarily concerned with
A. Comparing affirmative action programs to other government
programs.
B. Arguing that affirmative action programs are morally justified.
C. Analyzing the basis for moral judgments about affirmative action
programs.
D. Introducing the reader to the importance of affirmative action as a
social issue.
E. Describing the benefits that can be obtained through affirmative
action programs.
(28) The author mentions toll road and tuition at state institutions in order to
A. Anticipate a possible objection based on counter examples.
B. Avoid a contradiction between moral sentiments.
C. Provide illustrations of common government programs.
D. Voice doubts about the social and economic value of affirmative action.
E. Offer examples of government programs that are too costly.
(29) With which of the following statements would the author most likely agree?
A. Affirmative action programs should be discontinued because they place an
unfair burden on nonminority persons who bear the cost of the program.
B. Affirmative action programs may be able to achieve legitimate social and
economic goals such as improved
C. Affirmative action programs are justified because they are the only way of
correcting injustices created by past discrimination.
D. Affirmative action programs must be redesigned so that society as a whole
rather than particular individual bears the cost of the programs
E. Affirmative action programs should be abandoned because they serve no
useful social function and place unfair burdens on particular individuals.
(30) The author most likely places the word funding in quotation marks in order to
remind the reader that
A. Affirmative action programs are costly in terms of government revenues.
B. Particular individuals may bear a disproportionate share of the burden of
affirmative action.
C. The cost of most government programs is shared by society at large.
D. The beneficiaries of affirmative action are members of larger groups.
E. The cost of affirmative action is not only a monetary expenditure.
(31) The Villainous man discussed functions primarily as
A. an illustration
B. a counterexample
C. an authority
D. an analogy
E. a disclaimer
(32)
According to the passage, affirmative action programs are different from most
other government programs in which of the following ways
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I.
II.
III.
The goals the programs are designed to achieve

The ways in which cost of the programs are distributed
The way in which benefits of the programs allocated
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III only
E. I,II, and III
PART II
Q1.
2
5
11
??
32
47
(a) 24 (b) 30 (c) 20 (d) 18 (e) 16
Q2.
In the following series, how many Bs are there such that each B is followed by a
G next to it if the G is not followed by a S next to it.
B G B S Q M B G S M G B G G B Q M B
B G Q B G S G B A M G B G M
(a)3 (b)2 (c)1 (d)4 (e)5
Q3.
If VXUPLVH is coded as SURMISE how will SHDUO be coded?
(a) SHEET
(b) TRIAL
(c) COVER (d) PEARL (e) CIGAR
Q4.
Suppose the first and second letters in the word SENSATIONALY were
(a) T
(b) L
(c) N
(d) S
(e) A
Q5.
Q6.
(a) 71
(b) 63
(c) 61
(d) 57
(e) 65
Q7.
(a)
n / 204
(b)
n / 122
(c)
n / 153
(d)
n / 136
(e)
n / 72
Q8.
a.
6245
b.
6762
c.
6133
d.
6178
e.
6561
Q9.
(a)
ORACLE
(b)
WINDOWS NT
(c)
INGRESS
(d)
DB2
(e)
SYBASE
Q10. (a)
SMTP
(b)
PEOPLE SOFT
(c)
WAP
(d)
HTTP
(e)
ARP
(a)
(2m, 3m, 4m) (b)
(4m, 5m, 4m) (c)
(4m, 4m, 8m)
(d)
(3m, 3m, 3m) (e) (2m, 4m, 5m)
(a) (8,12,6) (b) (8,6,12)
(c) (8,12,4) (d) (8,6,8) (e) (12,6,8)
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Q13.

(a)
2, 0, -2, 2, 0, -2
(b)
2, -2, 2, -2, 2, -2 (c) -2, -2, -2, -2, -2, -2
(d)
2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2
(e)
2, 2, 2, 0, 2, 2
The three circles below represent the number of people speaking Bengali, Hindi and
English. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
14
49
45
Hindi
English
12
16
13
51
Bengali
Q14.
Q15.
Q16.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5
What percentage of people speaking Bengali can also speak Hindi but not
English?
(a) 12.6
(b) 13.6
(c) 14.6
(d) 17.4
(e) 16
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 (e) 6
140
120
100
Dealers (in "00s)
80
North
12%
East
8%
60
40
Sout
h 55%
West
25%
20
Q17.
Q18.

0
(a) 1998
(b) 1886
(c) 1994
(d) 1686
(e) 1996
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
(a) 7700
(b) 6800
(c) 7800
(d) 4800
(e) 8800
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163
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.
Q23.
Q24.
Q25.
Q26.
1999?
(a) 4500
(b) 4600
(c) 4400
(d) 4900
(e) 5400
(a) Time
(b) Mass
A man, a woman and a boy can together finish a piece of work in 6 days. If a man
can do it in 10 days and a woman in 24 days, how long will the boy take to do it?
(a) 24 (b) 40 (c) 36 (d) 44 (e) 12
12 3
18 12
1 0
10 12
A=
B=
C=
D=
9
2
6 4
0 1
3 4
(i)
Mammal Cow
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
Oven Building
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Beagle Dog
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Oxygen Water
(4)
Superset of
& % & (8) - % & % (8)?
(a)46 (b)48 (c) -48 (d)54 (e)-43
g(0) = 1;
g(1) = -1
g(n) = g(n-1) - g(n-2)
What will be the value of g (6)?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 4 (e) 5
XXVI. X
0.99
10.04
99.98
1000
9990
Q27.
Q28.
Y
0.00001
1.02
1.997
3.0
4.004

A Two-dimensional array X (9,7) is stored linearly Row-wise in a computer's
(a) 3215
(b) 3465
(c) 3175
(d) 3244
(e) 3216
Of the four vectors A, B, C, D find out which pair forms an orthogonal set
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Q29.
Q30.
Q31.
Q32.
A = 4i-3j, B = -7i+j, C = 3i+4j, D = i+j

(a) AC (b) AD (c) BC (d) BD (e) AB
M (373,5) + R(3.4) + T(7.7) - R(5.8) where
(a)3 (b)4 (c) 7 (d)6 (e)8
(a) 46%
(b) 48%
(c) 44%
(d) 42%
(e) 41%
Hour
Declination
2
8o 6 43.5
4
7o 39 28.7
(a) 7o 53 6.1 (b) 7o 56 54.5 (c) 9o 46 33.5 (d) 7o16 12.5 (e) 8o 39 28.7
8
6
4
2
0
Q33.
(a)y = tan x (b) y = x + 3 (c)y + x = 0 (d) y = Cos x (e) y + 3 = x

(a)34%
(b) 36.2%
(c) 34.2%
(d) 38%
(e) 39%
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165
Q34.
Q35.
landing at B?
A
B
C
(A (B - C)
0
0
0
0
0
1
0
1
0
0
1
1
1
0
0
1
0
1
1
1
0
1
1
1
decimal value.
(a) 44
(b) 46 (c) 43 (d) 47 (e) 41
Q36.
Q37.
Q38.
(a) 10.011 N (b) 10.11 N (c) 11.01 N (d) 11.011 N (e) 10.101 N
The data storage space required is given by the function P (N) = 4000 N, where
N is the number of data elements used. Find the percentage change in storage if
the number of data elements is increased by 1%.
(a) 0.5%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 0.75%
(d) 1%
(e) 2%
A telephone cable is to be run from a junction point on the bank of a river 900
overhead on land is Rs. 4 per meter, find the point downstream where the cable is
to cut across the river.
(a) 450
(b) 3900
(c) 1800
(d) 2100
(e) 2700
PART III
(1) Five executives of an Indian corporation, hold a conference in Lonavala
Mr. A converses in Hindi and Telugu
Mr. B converses in Hindi and Malayalam
Mr. C converses in Malayalam and Telugu
Mr. D converses in Oriya and Hindi
Mr. E, a native of Andhra Pradesh can also converse in Oriya
1. Which of the following can act as interpreter when Mr. C and Mr. D wish to confer?
(A)
Only Mr. A
(B)
Only Mr. B
(C)
Only Mr. E
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(D)
Mr. A or Mr. B
(E)
Any of the other 3 executives
2. Which of the following cannot converse without an interpreter?
(A)
Mr. B and Mr. E
(B)
Mr. A and Mr. B
(C)
Mr. A and Mr. C
(D)
Mr. B and Mr. D
(E)
Mr. A and Mr. E
3. Besides Mr. E which of the following can converse with Mr. D without an interpreter?
(A)
Only Mr. A
(B)
Only Mr. B
(C)
Only Mr. C
(D)
Messrs. A and B
(E)
Messrs. A, B and C
4. If a sixth executive is brought in, to be understood by the maximum number of the
original 5, he should be fluent in
(A)
Malayalam and Oriya
(B)
Telugu and Malayalam
(C)
Oriya and Telugu
(D)
Telugu and Hindi
(E)
Malayalam and Hindi
(2) At a Congress of the Democratic Party, the seven top party leaders, who are cabinet
ministers, are seated on the plat form in order of rank. The Prime Minister, the Party
leader is in the center. The closer a person is to the Prime Minister, the higher is his or her
rank, with a person on the Prime Ministers right out-left. The seven leaders are Alan,
Bill, Clayton, Denzil, Edwin, Frank and George.
Frank is 4 places to the left of the Minister of Agriculture, who is 2 places to the right of
Clayton.
Bills neighbours are Alan and the Minster of Agriculture.
George is two places to the left of Denzil
The Minister of Education, Mining and Culture are seated together, in that order from the
left to the right.
The remaining Ministers are those of Social Welfare and Defense
1. The Minster of Culture is:
(A)
Alan
(B)
Bill
(C)
Clayton
(D)
Denzil
(E)
Edwin
2. The fifth ranking person in the party hierarchy is
(A)
George, the Minister of Mining
(B)
Frank, the Minster of Culture
(C)
Denzil, the Prime Minister
(D)
Edwin, the Minister of Defense
(E)
Alan, the Minister of Education
3. The Minister of Social Welfare
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outranks the minister of Defense

is outranked by the Minister of Mining
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
I and II only
(D)
(E)
Neither I nor II
4.How many of the seven party leaders out rank the Minister of Education?
(A)
2
(B)
3
(C)
4
(D)
5
(E)
6
(3) R is the father of 2 children, S and U, who are of different sexes. T is Ss spouse. B is
the same sex as U. S and T have 2 children, W who is the same sex as S, and X, who is
the same sex as T
Vs mother, Y, who is married to L, is the sister of Us mother, M.
V and Vs spouse, I, have 2 children, J and K, who are the same sex as I.
No persons have married more than once, and no children have been born out of wed
lock. The only restrictions on marriage are that marriage to a sibling, to a direct
descendant, to a person of the same sex, or to more than one person at the same time is
forbidden.
1. W is
(A)
Xs brother
(B)
Xs sister
(C)
Ss daughter
(D)
Us niece or nephew
(E)
The same sex as Y
2. According to the rules, U can marry:
(A)
W only
(B)
W only
(C)
J only
(D)
J or K only
(E)
W, J or K
3. If L and Y are divorced, Y could marry
I.
U only
II.
W
III.
U or X
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
I and II only
(D)
(E)
4.If the generation of W and Ks parents and their siblings contains more females than
males, which of the following must be true:
(A)
There are more females than males in W and Ks generation
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(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
J is a male
R is the same sex as U
K and X are the same sex
U is Ys nephew
TCS TALENT TEST 016
PART I
(121) TARRY
(A) polish (B)restrain (C)surpass (D)linger (E)disturb
(122) TAUTOLOGY
(A) memory (B)repetition (C) tension (D)simile (E)lack of logic
(123) TAWDRY
(A) orderly (B)meretricious (C)reclaimed (D)filtered (E)proper
(124) TEMERITY
(A) timidity (B)resourcefulness (C)boldness (D)tremulousness (E)caution
(125) TEMPORAL
(A) priestly (B)scholarly (C)secular (D)sleepy (E)sporadic
(126) TENACIOUS
(A) fast-running (B)intention (C)obnoxious (D) holding fast (E)collective
(127) TENACITY
(A) splendour (B)perseverance (C)tendency (D)ingratitude (E)decimation
(128) TENDENTIOUS
(A) biased (B)likely (C)absurd (D)festive (E)literary
(129) TENTATIVE
(A) prevalent (B)portable (C)mocking (D) wry (E)experiment
(130) TENUOUS
(A) vital (B) thin (C) careful (D)dangerous (E)necessary
(131) ENSUE
(A) litigate (B)precede (C)arbitrate (D)accentuate (E)delay
(132) RETROSPECTION
(A) introversion (B)deliberation (C)anticipation (D)gregariousness (E)equivocation
(133) REGRESS
(A) deviation (B)entrance (C)approbation (D)dilemma (E)renown
(134) MAUNDER
(A) speak purposefully (B) maintain silence (C) appear unaware (D)evade entanglement
(E)seek consensus
(135) HUBRIS
(A) impiety (B)insouciance (C) apathy (D)mendacity (E)humility
(136) HAMPER
(A) feed (B)animate (C) facilitate (D) treat lightly (E)caution tactfully
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(137) URBANE
(A) civic (B)remote (C)deceptive (D)conventional (E)nave
(138) DEMISE
(A) integrity (B)irritation (C)birth (D)excess (E)surmise
(139) PARIAH
(A) miser (B)nomad (C)servant (D)idol (E)renegade
(140) PROSTRATE
(A) divert (B)strengthen (C)depreciate (D)scrutinize (E)reassure
sources, such as fossil fuels or nuclear fuel. ___21____ Discovery of large
additional fossil fuel reserves, solution of the nuclear safety and waste disposal
problems, or the development of controlled thermonuclear fusion will provide
only a short-term solution to the worlds energy crisis. Within about 100 years, the
thermal pollution resulting from our increased energy consumption will make
solar energy a necessity at any cost.
Mans energy consumption is currently about one part in ten thousand that of the energy
we receive from the sun. ___22___. If this growth continues, within 100 years our
energy consumption will be about 1 percent of the absorbed solar, enough to
increase the average temperature of the earth by about one degree centigrade if
stored energy continues to be our predominant source. This will be the point at
which there will be significant effects in our climate, including the melting of the
polar ice caps. A phenomenon which will raise the level of the oceans and flood
parts of our major cities. ___23____. As the ice caps begin to melt, the reflectivity
will decrease, thus heating the earth still further.
solar energy is extremely favourable now, particularly when compared to the cost
BB.
However, it is growing at a 5 percent rate, of which about 2 percent
represents a population growth and 3 percent a per capita energy increase.
CC.
The primary concern is isolation an ambiguity and clarify by definition
DD.
There is positive feedbacks associates with this process, since the polar
ice cap contributes to the partial reflectivity of the energy arriving form the sun:
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EE.Only hydroelectric and wood energy represent completely renewable sources on

FF. Reduction of the growth rate to 4 percent postpones the problem by only 25 years;
GG.
The melting of polar ice caps will accelerate the transition to solar energy
HH.
This may be too short period to circumvent the problem by converting to
other energy sources, so advance planning is a necessity.
II. It is proposed to utilize the hydroelectric and wood energy to replace nonconventional energy sources such as nuclear energy
JJ. Using the solar energy before it is dissipated to heat does not increase the earths
energy balance.
The most damning thing that can be said about the worlds best-endowed and
richest country is that is not only the leader in health status, but that it is a so low in the
ranks of other nations. The United States ranks 18th among nations of the world in male
life expectancy at birth. 9th in the female life expectancy at birth, and 12 th in infant
mortality. More importantly huge variations are evident in the health status in the United
States from one place to the next and from one group to the next.
The forces that effect health can be aggregated into four groupings that lend
themselves to the analysis of all health problems. Clearly the largest aggregate of forces
resides in the persons environment. His own behavior, in part derived from his
experiences with his environment, is the next greatest force affecting his health. Medical
care services, treated as separate from other environmental factors because of the special
interest we have in them, make a modest contribution to health status. Finally, the
contributions of heredity to health are difficult to judge. We are team plated at conception
as to our basic weakness and strengths; but many hereditary attributes never become
manifest because of environmental and behavioral forces that act before the genetic
forces come to maturity, and other hereditary attributes are increasingly being palliated
by medical care.
No other country spends what we do per capita for medical care. The care available is
among the best technically, even if used too lavishly and thus dangerously, but none of
the countries that stand above us in health status have such a high proportion of medically
disenfranchised persons. Given the evidence that medical care is not that valuable and
access to care not that bad, it seems most unlikely that our bad showing is caused by the
significant proportion who are poorly served. Other hypotheses have greater explanatory
power: excessive poverty, both actual and relative, and excessive affluence.
Excessive poverty is probably more prevalent in the U.S than in any of the
courtiers that have a better infant mortality rate and female life expectancy at birth. This
is probably true also for all but four or five of the countries with a longer male life
expectancy. In the notably poor countries that exceed us in male survival, difficult living
conditions are a more accepted way of life and in several of them, a good basic diet, basic
medical care and basic education, and lifelong employment opportunity are an everyday
fact of life. In the U.S., a national unemployment level of 10 percent may be 40 percent
in the ghetto while less than 4 percent may elsewhere. The countries that have surpassed
us in health do not have such severe or entrenched problems. Nor are such high
proportions of their people involved in them.
Excessive affluence is not so obvious a cause of ill health, but at least until recently,
few other nations could afford such unhealthful ways of living. Excessive intake of
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animal protein and fasts, dangerous imbibing of alcohol and is of tobacco and drugs
(prescribed and proscribed), and dangerous recreational sports and driving habits are all
possible only because of affluence. Our heritage, desires, opportunities, and our
machismo, combined with the relatively low cost of bad foods and speedy vehicles, make
us particularly vulnerable to our affluence. And those who are not affluent try harder. Our
unacceptable health status, then, will not be improved appreciably by expanded medical
resources nor by their redistribution so much as by general attempt to improve the quality
of life for all.
(27) Which of the following would be the most logical continuation of the passage?
A. Suggestions for specific proposal to improve the quality of life in America
B. A listing of the most common causes of death among make and female adults
C. An explanation of the causes of poverty in America, both absolute and relative
D. A proposal to ensure that residents of central cities receive more and better
medical care.
F.A study of the overcrowding in urban hospitals serving primarily the poor
(28) All the following are mentioned in the passage as factors affecting the health of
the population EXCEPT
A. the availability of medical care services
B. the genetic endowment of individuals
C. overall environmental factors
D. the nations relative position in health status
E. an individual own behavior
(29) The author is primarily concerned with
A. Condemning the U.S for its failure to provide better medical care to the poor.
B. Evaluating the relative significance of factors contributing to the poor health
status in the U.S.
C. Providing information the reader can use to improve his or her personal health.
D. Comparing the general health of the U.S population with world averages.
E. Advocating specific measures designed to improve the health of the U.S
population.
(30) The passage best supports which of the following conclusion about the
relationship
between per capita expenditure for medical care and the health of a population?
A. The per capita expenditure for medical care has relatively little effect on the
total amount of medical care available to a population
B. The genetic makeup of a population is a more powerful determinant of the health
of a population than the per capita expenditures for medical care.
C. A population may have very high per capita expenditures for medical care and yet
have a lower health status than other population with lower per capita
expenditures
D. The higher the per capita expenditure on medical care, the more advanced is the
medical technology; and the more advanced the technology, the better is the
health of the population.
E. Per capita outlays for medical care devoted to adults are likely to have a greater
effect on the status of the population than outlays devoted to infants.
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(31)
(32)
Q1.
Q2.
Q3.
Q4.
Q5.
Q6.
Q7.
Q8.
The author refers to the excessive intake of alcohol and tobacco and drug use in
order to
A. Show that some health problems cannot be attacked by better
medical care.
B. Demonstrate that use of tobacco and intoxicants is detriment to
health.
C. Cite examples of individual behavior that have adverse
consequences for health status.
D. Refute the contention that poor health is related to access to
medical care.
E. Illustrate ways in which affluence may contribute to poor health
status.
The passage provides information to answer which if the following questions:
A. What is the most powerful influence on the health status of
population?
B. Which nation in the world leads in health status?
C. Is the life expectancy of males in the U.S longer than that of
females?
D. What are the most important genetic factors influencing the health
of an individual?
E. How can the U.S reduce the incidence of unemployment in the
ghetto?
PART II
5
8
14
??
35
50
(a) 18 (b) 16 (c) 23 (d) 24 (e) 32
C next to it if the C is not followed by a D next to it?
B C B D Q M B C D M C B C C B Q M B
B C Q B C D C B A M C B C M
(a)2 (b)3 (c)5 (d)4 (e)6
If TVSNJTF is coded as SURMISE how will QFBSM be coded?
(a) SHEET
(b) TRIAL
(c) COVER (d) MIND
(e) PEARL
Suppose the first and second letters in the word SENSATIONALY were
(a) T
(b) L
(c) N
(d) S
(e) E
(a) 1342
(b) 1432
(c) 1234
(d) 1546
(e) 1765
(a) 61
(b) 63
(c) 69
(d) 67
(e) 65
(a)
n / 102
(b)
n / 72
(c)
n / 153
(d)
n / 122
(e)
n / 136
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a.
6245
d.
6178
Q9.
(a)
ORACLE
(d)
DB2
Q10.
Q11.
Q12.
Q13.
b.
e.
6762
6124
c.
6561
(b)
(e)
INGRESS
SYBASE
(c)
WINDOWS NT
(a)
SMTP
(b)
HTTP
(c)
WAP
(d)
PEOPLE SOFT
(e)
ARP
(a)
(2m, 3m, 4m) (b)
(4m, 5m, 4m) (c)
(4m, 6m, 8m)
(d)
(3m, 3m, 3m) (e) (12m, 6m, 5m)
(a) (8,8,6)
(b) (8,6,4) (c) (8,12,6) (d) (6,6,6) (e) (4,6,8)
(a)
2, 0, -2, 2, 0, -2
(b)
2, 2, 2, 0, 2, 2
(c) -2, -2, -2, -2, -2, -2
(d)
2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2
(e)
2, -2, 2, -2, 2, -2
TENNIS, and HOCKEY. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
14
49
45
CRICKET
TENNIS
12
16
13
51
HOCKEY
Q14.
Q15.
Q16.
How many more (or less) people who play TENNIS than people who play
CRICKET?
(a)2 (b)3 (c)1 (d)4 (e)5
140
What percentage
of people playing HOCKEY also play CRICKET but not
TENNIS?
120
North
(a)23 (b)12
(c)15 (d)16.6(e) 17.4
12%
What percentage
100 of total people play all three games?
East
(a)5 (b)7 (c)6 (d)8 (e)9
8%
The figure on
and the figure
80the left represents number of dealers for a Company
60
Sout
h 55%
West
25%
40
20
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174
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Dealers (in "00s)
Q17.
Q18.
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.
Q23.
Q24.
Q25.

(a) 1998
(b) 1996
(c) 1994
(d) 1686
(e) 1888
(a) 7700
(b) 8800
(c) 6800
(d) 4800
(e) 7800
1999?
(a)4500
(b) 4600
(c)4900
(d) 4400
(e) 5400
(a)Time
(b) Power
(e) None
Fifteen men could finish a piece of work in 210 days. But at the end of 10 days
fifteen additional men are employed, in how many days will the work take to
finish now?
(a) 112 (b) 110 (c) 124 (d) 136(e) 164
12 3
4 3
1 0
10 12
A=
B=
C=
D=
9
2
12 9
0 1
3 4
(i)
Animal
Lion
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
Basmati Wheat
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Snake Reptile
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Roof Building
(4)
Superset of
& % & (6) - % & % (6)?
(a)34 (b)37 (c) -36 (d)39 (e)43
g(0) = 1;
g(1) = -1
g(n) = g(n-1) - g(n-2)
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Q26.

(a)1 (b)3 (c)4 (d)2 (e)6
XXVII.
X
0.99
10.04
99.98
1000
9990
Q27.
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
Q31.
Y
0.00001
1.02
1.997
3.0
4.004

(a) 3245
(b) 3225
(c) 3215
(d) 3335
(e) 3452
A = i+j, B = 3i+4j, C = -7i+j, D = 4i-3j
(a)BD (b) BC (c) AD (d) AB (e) AC
M (373,5) + R (5.8) + T (7.7) - R (3.4) where
(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 13 (d) 11 (e) 14
(a) 54%
(b) 46%
(c) 48%
(d) 44%
(e) 55%
Class exam
Final exam
3
1.4
3.5
1.65
Y
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.1 (c)-0.1 (d)-0.2
(e) 0.5
8
6
Q32.
4
2
318737514.doc
176
X
(a)y = tan x
Q33.
Q34.
Q35.
(b) y + 3 = x (c) y = x + 3
(d) y = Cos x (e) y + x = 0

(a) 23%
(b) 34%
(c) 32%
(d) 34.2%
(e) 36.2%
o
o
landing at B?
A
0
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
B
0
0
1
1
0
0
1
1
C
0
1
0
1
0
1
0
1
(A (B - C)
decimal value.
(a) 45
(b) 54 (c) 47 (d) 48 (e) 38
Q36.
(a) 10.011 N (b) 10.11 N (c) 11.01 N (d) 11.011 N (e) 10.101 N
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Q37.
The data storage space required is given by the function P (N) = 4000 N, where
(a) 0.75%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 2% (d) 1%
(e) 0.5%
Q38.
(a) 450
(b) 3900
(c) 2100
(d) 1800
(e) 2700
PART III
(1) Delegations from London and Paris are meeting to discuss military, trade and
diplomatic problems. Each delegation consists of a chairperson, 2 military attachs and 2
trade experts. The English delegation consists of Alan, Bill, Chuck, Dennis and Edwin; the
French delegation of Fiona, Giselle, Hillary, Irina and Janice.
6) Alan insists on being seated at the opposite end of the table from Bill
7) Giselle, who is deaf in his right ear, must be at the right end if the table.
8) Neither Dennis nor Fiona is a chairperson
9) The English military attachs, one of whom is Bill, are seated together, and neither is
opposite either of the French military attachs, neither of whom is Giselle.
10) Chuck, a trade expert, is seated opposite Hillary.
1. Fiona may be a:
(A)
trade expert seated next to Irina
(B)
military attach seated next to Irina
(C)
military attach seated next to Janice
(D)
trade expert seated next to Hillary
(E)
trade expert seated opposite Bill
(A)
The identity of the English chairperson
(B)
The identity of the French chairperson
(C)
The identities and the positions of the English military attaches
(D)
Which delegate is immediately to the right of the English chairperson?
(E)
Which delegate is immediately to the right of the French chairperson?
3. If Janice is a military attach, which of the following must be true?
I. The French chairperson is I
II Fiona is a trade expert
III Irina is a trade expert
A.I only
B. II only
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C. I and II only
4.Which of the following can be deduced form the introductory paragraph plus statements
(1), (2), (4), (5) only?
A The identities of the French trade experts
B The identifies of the English military attachs
C The identity of the English chairperson
D Which two delegates are seated between Giselle and Hillary?
E Which two delegates are seated between Bill and Chuck?
(2) A is north of E and west of C
XXVIII.
B is north of A and west of F
D is south and east of A
E is north of F and east of D
F is north of D and west of A
C is south of F and west of D.
1. Which of the towns mentioned is furthermost to the northwest?
(A)
A
(B)
B
(C)
C
(D)
E
(E)
F
2. Which of the following must be both north and east of F
I. A
II. C
III. E
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
III only
(D)
I and II
(E)
I and III
town?
(A)
A only
(B)
A and F
(C)
D and F
(D)
D, C and F
(E)
C, D and E.
(A)
C is north of D
(B)
E is north of D
(C)
A is east of B
(D)
C is east of F
(E)
B is north of F
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(15). Mr. Pestonji, foreman for Ahuja Construction company is hiring 5 persons to do
plumbing and wiring on a site. He must have a minimum of 2 electricians. 9 persons are
sent by the union hiring hall: Mihir, Nishant and Olive are electricians, while Raina,
Satyam, Tarun, Umedh, Varun and Wasim are plumbers.
Pestonji is unwilling to hire Umedh and Varun together, because he knows from past
expereince that they fight all the time.
Satyam and Tarun are buddies and will only work together.
Olive wont work with Raina.
1. If Mihir, Nishant and Olive are hired, the team of plumbers can consist of
(F)
Satyam and Tarun only
(G)
Satyam and Tarun or Umedh and Varun together.
(H)
Umedh and Wasim or Varun and Wasim
(I)
Satyam and Tarun or Umedh and Wasim or Varun and Wasim
(J)
Satyam and Tarun and either Umedh, Varun or Wasim.
2. Pestonji has the greatest number of choices for hiring as plumbers if the electricians he
chooses are
(F)
Mihir, Nishant and Olive
(G)
Mihir and Nishant
(H)
Mihir and Olive
(I)
Nishant and Olive
(J)
Either Mihir or Nishant plus Olive
3. If Raina is hired, the other persons hired must be:
(F)
Mihir, Nishant, Satyam and Tarun
(G)
Mihir , Nishant, Olive and either Umedh, Varun or Wasim
(H)
Mihir and Nishant, together with either Satyam and Tarun or Umedh and Varun
or Varun and Wasim
(I)
Mike and Nick, together with either Ulysses and Varun or Varun and Wasim.
(J)
Mike and Nick, together with either Steve and Tom, Ulysses and Wasim, or Varun
and Wasim.
4.Which of the following statements are true?
I.
If only 2 electricians are hired, the plumbers must include Satyam and Tarun
II.
If Olive is not hired, Raina must be hired.
III.
If either Mihir or Nishant is not hired, Satyam and Tarun must be hired.
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
III only
(D)
I and III only
(E)
II and III only
TCS TALENT TEST 017
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PART I
(141) TEPID
(A) boiling (B)luke-warm (C) freezing (D)gaseous (E)cold
(142) TERSE
(A) brief in speech (B)bold in manner (C) under strain (D) without honour (E) beyond
fear
(143) TESSELATED
(A) striped (B) made of mosaics (C) pie-bald (D) uniform (E) trimmed
(144) THESPIAN
(A) foreigner (B) skeptic (C) day dreamer (D)magician (E) actor
(145) TITILLATE
(A) hasten
(B)fasten
(C)stimulate (D) incorporate (E) enlarge
(146) VOLUBLE
(A) worthwhile
(B)serious
(C) terminal (D) loquacious (E) circular
(147) VORACIOUS
(A) ravenous (B) spacious (C) truthful (D) pacific (E) tenacious
(148) VOUCHSAFE
(A) borrow (B) grand
(C) punish (D) desire (E) qualify
(149) WAIF
(A) soldier
(B) urchin
(C) surrender (D) breeze (E) spouse
(150) WANTON
(A) needy
(B) passive (C) rumoured (D) oriental (E) unchaste
(151) CONTENTIOUS
(A) amenable (B) inactive (C) dispassionate (D) callow (E) severe
(152) DEBACLE
(A) effort (B) success (C) drought (D) transience (E) dominance
(153) HAPLESS
(A) fortuitous (B) fortunate (C) fortified (D)forbidden (E)forestalled
(154) EXACERBATE
(A) alleviate (B)bewilder (C)contemplate (D)intimidate (E)economize
(155) PROBITY
(A) fallacy (B)improbability (C)conviction (D)depravity (E)avidity
(156) BANEFUL
(A) susceptible (B)incongruous (C)impulsive (D)salubrious (E)desultory
(157) CONDONE
(A) denounce (B)endure (C) imagine (D)remember (E)grieve
(158) ANTITHETICAL
(A) qualitative (B) unnatural (C)deceptive (D)supportive (E)noncommittal
(159) OMNISCIENCE
(A) power (B)extravagance (C) magnanimity (D)conscience (E)ignorance
(160) MOLLIFY
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(A) acquit (B)forbid (C)embarrass (D)provoke (E)demolish

Observe the dilemma of the fungus; it is a plant, but is possesses no chlorophyll. While
all other plants put the suns energy to work for them combining the nutrients of
ground and air into the body structure the chlorophyll ___21_____ . It finds it in
those other plants which, having received their energy free from the sun,
relinquish it ____22____.
In this search for energy the fungus has become the earths major source of rot and
decay. Wherever you see mold forming on a piece of bread, or a pile of leaves
turning to compost, or a bloom down tree becoming pulp on the ground,
----23-----. With the fungus action the earth would be poled high with
____24_____.
In fact, certain plants which contain resigns that are ___25____ specimen of the redwood,
for the instance, can still be found ___26____
A. You are watching a fungus eating
B. Resting on the forest floor centuries after having been brown down,
C. Responsible for the decomposition of much plant life
D. Fungus must look else where form an energy supply
E. Cannot produce their own store of energy.
F. The dead plant life of past centuries
G. At some point in their cycle either to animal or to fungi
H. Fungus is vastly different from other plants.
I. Toxic to fungi will last indefinitely.
It would be enormously convenient to have a single, generally accepted index of the
economic and social welfare of the people of the United States. A glance at it would tell
us how much better or worse off we had become each year, and we would judge the
desirability of any proposed action by asking whether it would raise or lower this index.
Some recent discussion implies that such an index could be constructed. Articles in the
popular press even criticize the Gross National Product (GNP) because it is not such a
complete index welfare, ignoring, on the one hand, that it was never intended to be, and
suggesting, on the other, that with appropriate changes it could be converted into one.
The Output available to satisfy our wants and needs is one important determinant
of welfare. Whatever want, need, or social problem engages our attention, we ordinarily
can more easily find resources to deal with it when output is larger and growing then
when it is not. GNP measures output fairly well, but to evaluate welfare we could need
additional measures, which would be far more difficult to construct. We would need an
index of real costs incurred in production, because we are better off if we get the same
output at less cost. Use of just man-hours for welfare evaluation would unreasonably
imply that to increase total hours by raising the hours of eight women from 60 to 65 a
week. A measure of real cost of labor would also have to consider working conditions.
Most of us spend almost half our waking hours on the job and our welfare is vitally
affected by the circumstances in which we spend those hours.
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To measure welfare we would need a measure of changes in the need our output
must satisfy. One aspect population change, is now handled by converting output to a per
capita basis on the assumption that, other things equal, twice as many people need twice
as many goods and services to be equally well off. But an index of needs would also
account for differences in the requirement for living as the population becomes more
urbanized and suburbanized; for the changes in national defense requirements; and for
changes in the effect of weather on our needs. The index would have to tell us the cost of
meeting them equally well under the circumstances prevailing in every other year.
Measures of needs shade into measures of the human and physical environment in
which we live. We all are enormously effected by the people around us. Can we go where
we like without fear of attack? We are also affected by the physical environment-purity of
water and air, accessibility of parkland and other conditions. To measure this requires
accurate data, but such data are generally deficient. Moreover, weighting is required: to
combine robberies and murders in a crime index; to combine pollution of the Potomac
and Pollution of Lake Erie into a water pollution index; and then to combine crime and
water pollution into some general index. But there is no basis for weighting these beyond
individual preference.
There are further problems. To measure welfare we would need an index of the
goodness of the distribution of the income. There is surely consensus that given the
same total income and output, a distribution with fewer families in poverty would be the
better, but what is the ideal distribution? Even if we could construct indexes of output,
real costs, needs, and state of the environment we could not compute a welfare index
because we have no system of weights to combine them.
(27) The authors primary concern is to
A. refute arguments for a position
B. make a proposal and defend it
C. attack the sincerity of an opponent
D. show defects in a proposal
E. review literature relevant to a problem
(28) The author implies that man-hours is not an appropriate measure of real cost
because it
A. Ignores the conditions under which the output is generated.
B. Fails to take into consideration the environmental costs of production.
C. Overemphasizes the output of real goods as opposed to services.
D. Is not an effective method for reducing unemployment.
E. Was never intended to be general measure of welfare.
(29) It can be inferred from the passage that the most important reason a single index
of welfare cannot be designed is
A. The cost associated with producing the index would be prohibitive.
B. Considerable empirical research would have to be done regarding output and
needs.
C. Any weighting of various measures into a general index would be inherently
subjective and arbitrary
D. Production of the relevant data would require time thus, the index would be
only a reflection of past welfare
E. Accurate statistics on crime and pollution are not yet available
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(30)
The author regards the idea of a general index of welfare as

A. an unrealistic dream
B. a scientific reality
C. an important contribution
D. a future necessity
E. a desirable change
(31)
According to the passage, the GNP is
A. a fairy accurate measure of output
B. a reliable estimate of needs
C. an accurate forecaster of welfare
D. a precise measure of welfare
E. a potential measure of general welfare
(32) According to the passage, an adequate measure of need must take into account all
of the following EXCEPT
A. changing size of the population
B. changing effects on people of the weather
C. difference in needs of urban and suburban populations
D. changing requirement for governmental program such as defense
E. accessibility of park land and other amenities
PART II
Q1.
50
35
23
??
8
5
(a) 24 (b) 18 (c) 14 (d) 9 (e)12
Q2.
F next to it if the F is not followed by a D next to it?
B F B D Q M B F D M F B F F B Q M B B
F Q B F D F B A M F B F M
(a)3 (b)2 (c)1 (d)4 (e)5
Q3.
If DDOSSZM is coded as CENTRAL how will RTJBL be coded?
(a)SHEET
(b) QUICK (c) COVER (d)MIND
(e)CIGAR
Q4.
Suppose the first and second letters in the word TOTALITARIAN were
(a) T
(b) I
(c) N
(d) O
(e) A
Q5.
Q6.
(a) 71
(b) 69
(c) 61
(d) 57
(e) 55
Q7.
(a)
n / 102
(b)
n / 144
(c)
n / 153
(d)
n / 136
(e)
n / 76
Q8.
a.
2048
b.
2096
c.
2148
d.
2444
e.
2136
Q9.
(a)
ORACLE
(b)
JAVA
(c)
INGRESS
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184
Q10.
Q11.
Q12.
Q13.
(d)
DB2
(e)
SYBASE
(a)
SMTP
(b)
HTTP
(c)
WAP
(d)
ARP
(e)
PEOPLE SOFT
(a)
(2m, 3m, 4m) (b)
(4m, 5m, 4m) (c)
(4m, 6m, 8m)
(d)
(3m, 3m, 3m) (e) (12m, 6m, 6m)
(a) (4,8,6)
(b) (8,6,12) (c) (8,4,6)
(d) (6,6,6) (e) (8,12,6)
(a)
2, 0, -2, 2, 0, -2
(b)
-2, -2, -2, -2, -2, -2 (c) 2,-2,2,-2,2,-2
(d)
2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2
(e)
2, 2, 2, 0, 2, 2
TENNIS, and HOCKEY. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
14
49
45
CRICKET
TENNIS
12
16
13
51
HOCKEY
Q14. How many more (or less) people who play TENNIS than people who play
CRICKET? (a)2 (b)3 (c)4 (d)5 (e) 1
Q15. What percentage of people playing HOCKEY also plays CRICKET but not
TENNIS?
(a) 17.4
(b) 12 (c) 16.6
(d) 18 (e) 15
Q16. What percentage of total people plays all three games?
(a)7 (b) 6 (c)8 (d)9 (e)4
140
120
North
12%
100
East
8%
80
Dealers (in "00s) 60
Sout
h 55%
West
25%
40
20
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185
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Q17.
Q18.
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.
Q23.
Q24.
Q25.
Q26.

(a) 1998
(b) 1996
(c) 1994
(d) 1686
(e) 1888
(a) 7700
(b) 8800
(c) 6800
(d) 4800
(e) 7800
1999?
(a) 4500
(b) 4600
(c) 4900
(d) 4400
(e) 5400
(Energy X Time X Time) / (Mass X Distance)
(a)Time
(b) Power
A can do a job in 6 days and A an B can do it together in 2 days .How many days
will be taken by B to do the job alone?
(a)4 (b)3 (c)6 (d)8 (e)9
12 3
21 15
1 0
10 12
A=
B=
C=
D=
9
2
7
5
0 1
3 4
(i)
Animal
Lion
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
Oven Building
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Square Polygon
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Word Sentence
(4)
Superset of
(a) I-3,ii-1,iii-4,iv-2 (b) i-4,ii-1,iii-3,iv-2 (c)i-4,ii-1,iii-2,iv-3
(d) I-3,ii-2,iii-1,iv-4 (e) i-1,ii-4,iii-3,iv-2
& % & (9) - % & % (9)?
(a)45 (b)54 (c) -54 (d)56 (e)58
f(0) = -1;
f(1) = 1
f(n) = f(n-1) + f(n-2)
(a)2 (b)3 (c)4 (d)5 (e)6
XXIX.
Y
X
0.99
0.00001
10.04
1.02
99.98
1.997
1000
3.0
9990
4.004
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Q27.
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
Q31.
Q32.
A Two-dimensional array X (9,7) is stored linearly row-wise in a computer's

address of X (1,1) is 3000, what would be the last byte address of X(8,5)?
(a) 3125
(b) 3245
(c) 3107
(d) 3109
(e) 3213
A = 3i+4j, B = i+j , C = 4i-3j, D = -7i+j
(a)AC (b) AD (c)AB (d)BC (e) BD
M(737,5) + R(3.4) + T(7.7) - R(5.8) where
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 8 (e) 9
(a) 44%
(b) 54%
(c) 49.6%
(d) 55%
(e) 36%
Class exam
Final exam
3
1.2
3.5
1.45
(a)12.6 (b) 13 (c)10.1 (d)10.6 (e)12.5
8
6
4
2
X
(a)y = tan x
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(b) y + 3 = x (c)y + x = 0
(d) y = x + 3 (e) y = Cos x
187

(a) -33%
(b) 32%
(c)-34.7%
(d) 31%
(e) 24%
landing at B?
A
0
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
B
0
0
1
1
0
0
1
1
C
0
1
0
1
0
1
0
1
(A B ) C
decimal value.
Q33.
(a)84
Q36.
Q37.
(b)85 (c)88 (d)87 (e).78
(a) 10.011 N (b)10.11 N
(c) 11.01 N (d)11.011 N (e)10.101 N
The data storage space required is given by the function P(N) = 4000 N, where
(a) 0.75%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 0.5%
(d) 1%
(e) 2%
Q38. A power cable is to be run from a power plant on the bank of a river 900 meters wide
to a factory that is located 3000 meters downstream on the opposite bank. If the cost
of laying cable under water is Rs. 5 per meter and that of laying overhead on land is
Rs. 4 per meter, find the point downstream where the cable is to cut across the river.
(a) 450
(b) 1800
(c) 3900
(d) 2100
(e) 2700
PART III
(1) For a motorist there are 3 ways of going from Atlanta to California. By way of a bridge
the distance is 20 miles and the toll is 70 cents. A tunnel between the 2 cities is a
distance of 10 miles and the toll is $ 1.00 for the vehicle and the driver and 10cents for
the passenger.
A tow-lane highway without tolls goes east for 30 miles to Burkely and then 20 miles in a
1. Which of the following is the shortest route from Burkley to California?
(A)
Directly on the toll-free highway to city California
(B)
The bridge
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(C)
The tunnel
(D)
The tunnel or the bridge
(E)
The bridge only if traffic is heavy on the toll free highway
2. The most economical way of going from Atlanta to Burkley, in terms of tolls and
distance, is to use the:
(A)
Tunnel
(B)
Bridge
(C)
Bridge or tunnel
(D)
Toll free highway
(E)
Bridge and highway.
3. Martin usually drives form California to Atlanta every working day. His firm deducts a
(A)
Whether his wife goes with him
(B)
Scenic interest of each route
(C)
Traffic conditions on the bridge, road and tunnel
(D)
Savings of 25 cents in tolls
(E)
Price of gasoline consumed in covering the 10 additional miles on the bridge.
4. In choosing between the use of the bridge and the tunnel, the chief factor(s) would be:
V. Traffic and road conditions
VI. Number of passengers in the car
VII. Location of ones home in the center or outskirts of one of the cities.
VIII. Desire to save 25 cents
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
II and III only
(D)
III and IV only
(E)
I and II only
(2) Harvard University has decided consolidate the programs of a small college with that of
its own. A decision has been arrived at that the representatives work in small committees of
3, with 2 representatives coming in from Harvard. It was also agreed that no committee be
represented by faculty members of the same subject area.
Harvard was represented by the following professors: John, who teaches English literature,
Karen, who is chairman of the Mathematics Department and Lydia who is in the
Department of Natural Sciences. The small college appointed the following: Manmohan,
who teaches mathematics, Nick, who is a Latin teacher, and Ogikawa and Pamela who
teach English literature.
(A)
Karen, Lydia, Nick
(B)
Karen, Lydia, Manmohan
(C)
John, Karen, Lydia
(D)
John, Ogikawa, Nick
(E)
John, Karen, Manmohan
6. Which of the following may serve with Pamela?
(A)
Karen and Manmohan
(B)
Karen and Lydia
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(C)
(D)
(E)
Karen and Ogikawa

John and Karen
Manmohan and Nick
I. If John serves on a committee, Pamela must be assigned to that committee.
II. If John cannot serve on a committee, then Manmohan cannot be assigned to that
committee.
III. If John cannot serve on a committee, then Lydia must serve on that committee.
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
III only
(D)
I and II only
(E)
II and III only
8. If Lydia is not available for service, which of the following must be on that
committee?
(A)
Manmohan and John
(B)
Ogikawa and John
(C)
Nick and John
(D)
Nick and Ogikawa
(E)
Pamela and John
(3) In the days of expeditions fresh food was not available and at the end of distant
journeys and many sailors came down with jaundice. A lot of researchers and alchemists
attempted to seek a cure for this condition.
1. Rangaswamy cured several cases of jaundice by administering an acidic brew made
of a certain grass and watercress.
2. Jai Shankar suggested that the sailors take lemon juice to prevent jaundice. He
thought the specific acid (citric acid) in lemon juice would prevent the disease.
3. Mohammad Vazir Sultan Ahmed experimented with 12 sick sailors to find out
whether the acid was responsible for the cure. Each was given the same diet except
that four of the men were given small amounts of diluted sulphuric acid.
Four others were given vinegar (acetic acid) and the remaining four were given lemons. Only those given lemons recovered from the
jaundice.
1. How many controls did Mohammad Vazir Sultan Ahmed use?

(A)
One
(B)
Two
(C)
Three
(D)
Four
(E)
None
2. A possible cause of jaundice is:
(A)
lack of watercress
(B)
lack of acidity
(C)
lack of fresh food
(D)
lengthy sea voyages
(E)
lack of lemon juice
3. The hypothesis tested by Mohammad Vazir Sultan Ahmed was that:
(A)
lemons contain some substance not present in vinegar
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(B)
(C)
the citric acid of lemons is effective in treating jaundice

lemons contain some unknown acid that cures jaundice the substance to cure
scurvy is found only in lemons
(D)
some specific substance rather than acids in general, is needed to cure jaundice
(E)
rather than acids in general, is needed to cure scurvy
4.Which question did Mohammad Vazir Sultan Ahmed experiment NOT answer?
(A)
Will lemons cure jaundice?
(B)
Will either sulphuric acid or vinegar cure jaundice?
(C)
Will citric acid alone cure jaundice?
(D)
Are lemons more effective than either sulphuric acid or vinegar in the treatment of
jaundice?
(E)
Are all substances that contain acids equally effective as treatments for jaundice?
TCS TALENT TEST 018
PART I
1. GAUCHE
(A) grotesque (B)tactful (C) rightful (D)fashionable (E)inane
2. DIATRIBE
(A) medley (B)dilemma (C)afterthought (D)rebuttal (E)praise
3. GAINSAY
(A) estimate (B)corroborate (C)forfeit (D) expend (E)neglect
4. PROLIXITY
(A) proximity (B) disinclination (C) circuitousness (D)extremity (E)terseness
5. AVID
(A) veracious (B)forgetful (C)insignificant (D)turgid (E)loath
6. REPINE
(A) endure grudgingly (B)maintain composure (C) express satisfaction (D)arouse
hostility (E) attract attention
7. SALIENCE
(A) insipidity (B)immutability (C)incongruity (D)intransigence (E)inconspicuousness
8. SEDATE
(A) unify (B)immunize (C)recuperate (D)stimulate (E)injure
9. APATHETIC
(A) healthy (B)sincere (C)enthusiastic (D)untroubled (E)hasty
10. DISLODGE
(A) restore (B)secure (C)wander (D)transport (E)anticipate
(11) REPUDIATE
(A) hesitant (B) neutrality (C) admit (D) polite (E) incongruity
(12)
PRISTINE
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(A) genial (B) sullied (C) evident (D) imaginative (E) proximity
(13)
CONCEDE
(A) please (B) apathy (C) withstand (D) considerate (E) disguise
(14)
PLACATE
(A) enrage (B) administer (C) record (D) variegated (E) fertilize
(15)
POPULAR
(A) treacherous (B) glossy (C) vivid (D) multiply (E) uncommon
(16)
FELICITOUS
(A) necessary (B) muggy (C) spatial (D) inopportune (E) unnamed
(17)
AUSTERE
(A) swindle (B) lavish (C) global (D) myopic (E) nascent
(18)
WASTREL
(A) proximity (B) hesitant (C) dottish (D) miser (E) apathy
(19)
TEMPERATE
(A) inordinate (B) resolution (C) ambitious (D) apologize (E) heat
(20)
NEBULOUS
(A) restore (B) distinct (C) wander (D) transport (E) anticipate
Observe the dilemma of the fungus; it is a plant, but it is a plant, but is possesses no
chlorophyll. While all other plants put the suns energy to work for them
combining the nutrients of ground and air into the body structure the chlorophyll
___21_____ . It finds it in those other plants which, having received their energy
free from the sun, relinquish it ____22____.
In, this search for energy the fungus has become the earths major source of rot and
decay. Wherever you see mold forming on a piece of bread, or a pile of leaves
turning to compost, or a bloom down tree becoming pulp on the ground,
----23-----. With the fungus action the earth would be poled high with
____24_____.
J. You are watching a fungus eating
K. Resting on the forest floor centuries after having been brown down,
L. Responsible for the decomposition of much plant life
M. Fungus must look else where form an energy supply
N. Cannot produce their own store of energy.
O. The dead plant life of past centuries
P. At some point in their cycle either to animal or to fungi
Q. Fungus is vastly different from other plants.
R. Toxic fungi will last indefinitely.
The mental health movement in the United States began with a period of
considerable enlightenment. Dorothea Dix was chocked to find the mentally ill in jails
and almshouses and crusaded for the establishment of asylums in which people could
receive humane care in hospital-like environment and treatment, which might help restore
them to sanity. Bu the mid 1800s, 20 states had established asylums, but during the late
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1800s and early 1900s, in the face of economic depression, legislatures were unable to
appropriate sufficient funds for decent care. Asylums became overcrowded and prisonlike. Additionally, patients were more resistant to treatment than the pioneers in the
mental health field had anticipated patients and other. Mental institutions became
frightening and depressing places in which the rights of patients were all but forgotten.
These conditions continued until after World War II. At that time, new treatments
were discovered for some major mental illnesses therefore considered untreatable
(Penicillin for syphilis of the brain and insulin treatment for schizophrenia and
depressions), and a succession of books, motion pictures and newspaper exposes called
attention to the plight of the mentally ill. Improvements were made, and Dr. David Vails
Humane Practices. Program is a beacon for today. But changes were slow in coming until
the early 1960s at that time, the Civil Rights movement led lawyers to investigate
Americas prisons, which were disproportionately populated by blacks, and they in turn
followed prisoners into the only institution that were worse than the prisons-the hospital
for the criminally insane. The prisons were filled with angry young men who
encouraged by legal support, were quick to demand their rights. The hospitals for the
criminally insane, by contrast, were populated with people who were considered crazy
and who were often kept obediently in their place through the use of server bodily
restraints and large doses of major tranquilizers. The young cadre of public interest
lawyers liked their role in the mental hospitals. The lawyers found population that was
both passive and easy to champion. These were, after all, people who, unlike criminals,
had done nothing wrong. And in many states, they were being kept in horrendous
institutions, an injustice, which once exposed, was bound to shock the public and,
particularly, the judicial conscience. Patients rights groups successfully encouraged
reform by lobbying in state legislatures.
Judicial interventions have had some definite positive effects, but there is growing
awareness that courts cannot provide the standards and the review mechanisms that
assure good patient care. The details of providing day-to day care simply cannot be
mandated by a court, so it is time to take from the courts the responsibility for delivery
of mental health care and assurance of patient right and return it to the state mental health
administrators to whom the mandate was originally given. Though it is difficult task,
administrators must undertake to write rules and standards and to provide the training and
surveillance to assure that treatment is given and patient rights are respected.
(27) The main purpose of the passage is to
A. discuss the influences of Dorothea Dix on the mental health movement
B. provide an historical perspective on problems of mental health care
C. increase public awareness of the plight of the mentally ill
D. shock the reader with vivid descriptions of asylums
E. describe the invention of new treatments of mental illness
(28) According to the passage, which of the following contributed to the deterioration
of the asylum system
I. Lack of funds to maintain the asylums
II. Influx of more patients than the system was designed to handle
III. Lack of effective treatments for many mental illnesses.
A. I only
B. III only
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(29).
(30)
(31)
(32)
Q1.
C. I and II only
D. I an III only
E. I, II and III
It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following factors contributed
to post-was reform of state mental institutions?
I Heightened public awareness of the unacceptable conditions in the institutions
II. Discovery of effective treatments for illnesses previously considered
untreatable
III. Attempts by state legislatures to improve conditions in mental institutions
A.I only
B.III only
C.I and II only
D.II an III only
E.I,II and III
The authors attitude towards people who are patients in state institutions can best
be described as
A. inflexible and insensitive
B. detached and neutral
C. understanding and sympathetic
D. enthusiastic and supportive
E. uncaring and unemotional
The passage provides information that would help answer all of the following
questions EXCEPT
A. Who are some people who have had an important influence on the public
health movement in the United States?
B. What were some of mental illness that were considered untreatable until the
1950s?
C. What were some of the new treatments for mental illness that were adopted in
1950s?
D. What were some of the most important legal cases that contributed to the new
concern for patients rights?
E. What effect did the Civil Rights movement has on the rights of prisoners?
It can be inferred from the passage that, had the Civil Rights movement not
prompted an investigation of prison conditions.
A. States would never have established asylums for the mentally ill.
B. New treatments for major mental illness would have likely remained untested
C. The Civil Rights movement in America would have been politically
ineffective
D. Conditions in mental hospitals might have escaped judicial scrutiny
E. Many mentally ill prisoners would have been transferred from hospitals back
to prisons
PART II
1
2
5
??
27
58
(a) 25 (b) 21 (c) 12 (d) 15 (e) 18
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Q2.
In the following series, how many Ws are there such that each W is followed by
an F next to it if the F is not followed by a D next to it?
W F W D Q M W F D M F W F F W Q M W W
F Q W F D F W A M F W F M
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 4 (e) 8
Q3.
If FHQWUDO is coded as CENTRAL how will TXLFN be coded?
(a) SHEET
(b) TRIAL
(c) QUICK (d) MIND
(e)CIGAR
Q4.
Suppose the first and second letters in the word TOTALITARIAN were
(a) T
(b) I
(c) N
(d) O
(e) A
Q5.
(a) 1234
(b) 1433
(c) 1342
(d) 1542
(e) 1654
Q6.
(a) 51
(b) 61
(c) 65
(d) 57
(e) 67
Q7.
(a)
n / 152
(b)
n / 144
(c)
n / 153
(d)
n / 136
(e)
n / 102
Q8.
a.
2096
b.
2048
c.
2188
d.
2444
e.
2136
Q9.
(a)
ORACLE
(b)
SYBASE
(c)
INGRESS
(d)
DB2
(e)
JAVA
Q10. (a)
PEOPLE SOFT
(b)
HTTP
(c)
WAP
(d)
SMTP
(e)
ARP
(a)
(7m, 3m, 4m) (b)
(4m, 5m, 4m) (c)
(4m, 6m, 8m)
(d)
(3m, 3m, 3m) (e) (12m, 6m, 8m)
(a) (4,8,8)
(b) (8,12,12) (c) (8,12,6) (d) (4,4,6) (e) (12,6,4)
(a)
-3, -3, -3, -3, -3, -3
(b)
3, -3, 3, -3, 3, -3 (c) 3, 0, -3, 3, 0, -3
(d)
3, 3, 3, 3, 3, 3
(e)
3, 3, 3, 0, 3, 3
The three circles below represent the number of people eating Rice, Wheat and
Corn. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
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14
49
45
Rice
Wheat
12
16
13
51
Q14.
Q15.
Q16.
Corn
How many more (or less) people eat Wheat than people who eat Rice?
(a)2 (b)3 (c)1 (d)4 (e)5
What percentage of people eating Corn also eats Rice but not Wheat?
(a)12.8 (b) 17.4
(c)16.6 (d)18.6(e)16
What percentage of total people eats all three items?
(a)9 (b)3 (c)4 (d)5 (e) 6
The figure on the left represents number of dealers for a Company and the figure on the
right depicts region-wise distribution for 1998
140
120
North
12%
100
Dealers (in "00s)
East
8%
80
60
Sout
h 55%
West
25%
40
20
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Q17.
Q18.

(a) 1998
(b) 1666
(c) 1994
(d) 1996
(e) 1888
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196
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.
Q23.
Q24.
Q25.
Q26.
Q27.
Q28.
(a) 7700
(b) 6800
(c) 8800
(d) 4800
(e) 7800
1999?
(a) 4500
(b) 4900
(c) 4600
(d) 4400
(e) 5400
(a)Time
(b) Power
A can do a job in 6 days and A an B can do it together in 2 days .How many days
will be taken by B to do the job alone?
(a)4 (b)6 (c)8 (d)3 (e)2
12 3
3
5
1 0
10 12
A=
B=
C=
D=
9
2
9 15
0 1
3 4
(i)
Animal
Lion
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
Bug Reptile
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Beagle Dog
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Piston Engine
(4)
Superset of
@ @ + (25) - + + @ (16)?
(a)622 (b)623 (c) 621 (d)629 (e)631
f(0) = -1;
f(1) = 1
f(n) = f(n-1) + f(n-2)
(a)4 (b)5 (c)2 (d)3 (e)1
XXX.
Y
X
0.99
0.00001
10.04
1.02
99.98
1.997
1000
3.0
9990
4.004
(a) 3243
(b) 3543
(c) 3087
(d) 3452
(e) 4321
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Q29.
Q30.
Q31.
Q32.
A: 3x+4y-7 = 0, B: y = -x, C: 4x = 3y+5, D: y = 7x+3

(a) AC (b) AD (c) BC (d) AB (e)BD
M (737,5) + R (5.8) + T (7.7) - R (3.4) where
(a) 11 (b)13 (c) 12 (d)15 (e)16
Three independent mechanisms A, B and C have been incorporated for fuel
saving in a car producing respectively 30%, 20% and 10% efficiency. Assuming
that they operate independently, what is the net fuel efficiency achieved?
(a) 45%
(b) 54%
(c) 64%
(d) 49.6%
(e) 44%
Hour
Declination
2
8o 6 43.5
3
7o 53 6.1
(a) 8o 22 13.5 (b) 7o 56 54.5 (c) 9o 46 33.5(d) 7o16 12.5 (e) 7o 39 28.7
8
6
4
2
0
Q33.
Q34.
(a)y = tan x (b) y + 3 = x (c)y + x = 0 (d) y = Cos x (e) y = x + 3

(a)28 %
(b) 33%
(c) -43%
(d) -34.7%
(e) -44%
o
o
landing at B?
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A
0
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
B
0
0
1
1
0
0
1
1
C
0
1
0
1
0
1
0
1
(A B ) C
decimal value.
(a) 88
Q36.
Q37.
(b) 87 (c) 86 (d) 89 (e) 76
(a) 10.011 N (b) 10.11 N (c) 11.01 N (d) 11.011 N (e) 10.101 N
(a) 0.5%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 0.75%
(d) 1% (e) 2%
(a) 450
(b) 1800
(c) 2800
(d) 2100
(e) 2700
PART III
(1) Mr. Ramachandran must accommodate seven tour group passengers in two fourperson cabins on the luxury liner The Southern Princess. Each passenger in a cabin
must be able to converse with at least one other passenger, though not necessarily in the
same language
A, a Tamilian, also speaks Kannada and Malayalam
B and F are Malayalam and speak only that language.
C, a Tamilian, also speaks Kannada
XXXI. D and G are Kannadigas and speak only Malayalam
E, a Tamilian, also speaks Malayalam
Malayalis are to share rooms with Kannadigas
1. Which combination of passengers in one of the cabins will result in a rooming
arrangement that satisfies all conditions for both cabins?
(A)
B, C, F
(B)
D, E, G
(C)
A, D, E, G
(D)
C, D, E, G
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(E)
A, B, C, F
2. Which CANNOT be true, given the conditions as stated?
(I) C cannot room with A
(II) A cabin containing three persons must include A
(III) E must always room with a Malayali
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
I and III only
(D)
II and III only
(E)
I, II and III
3. How many combinations of cabin mates satisfy all conditions?
(A)
2
(B)
3
(C)
4
(D)
5
(E)
6
4. If E objects to sharing a cabin with A, with whom can Mr. Ramachandran place him
in order to arrive at an arrangement that satisfies all conditions?
(I) D and G, with no fourth cabin mate
(II) B and F with no fourth cabin mate
(III) C, D and G
(A)
I only
(B)
II only
(C)
I and III only
(D)
II and II only
(E)
(2) Seven kabbadi players are to be awarded their titles for winning a Inter-University
kabbadi match at a special dinner. The players will be seated on the dais along one side of
a single rectangular table.
Amit and Gurcharan have to leave the luncheon early and so must be seated at the
extreme right end of the table, which is closest to the exit.
Bhaskar will receive the most valuable kabbadi players trophy and so must be in the center
chair to facilitate the presentation.
Chandrashekhar and Dilip, who were bitter rivals for the position of center during the
entire kabbadi season, dislike one another and should be seated as far apart as is
convenient.
Ebrahim and Feroze are best friends and want to sit together.
1. Which of the following may not be seated at either end of the table?
(A)
Chandrashekhar
(B)
Dilip
(C)
Gurcharan
(D)
Feroze
(E)
Amit
2. Which of the following pairs may not be seated together?
(A)
Chandrashekhar and Feroze
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(B)
Bhaskar and Dilip
(C)
Ebrahim and Amit
(D)
Gurcharan and Dilip
(E)
Ebrahim and Chandrashekhar
3. Which of the following pairs may not occupy the seats on either side of Bhaskar?
(A)
Feroze and Dilip
(B)
Dilip and Ebrahim
(C)
Ebrahim and Gurcharan
(D)
Feroze and Chandrashekhar
(E)
Ebrahim and Chandrashekhar
4. If neither Ebrahim nor Dilip is seated next to Bhaskar, how many different seating
arrangements are possible?
(A)
1
(B)
2
(C)
3
(D)
4
(E)
5
(3) During the Vedic period, in ancient India, only two forms of marriage were
recognized. In Dhrushtanaya marriages, several brothers marry a single woman, while in
Purdanneva marriages, several sisters marry a single man.
Historical records have revealed that all members of a given married group are regarded
as the parents of any children of the marriage. Marriage between male and female
children of the same parents if forbidden.
Erava is a son of Asurya
Gushni is a daughter of Barade
Furtila s a daughter of Chiri
Erava, Furtila, Munar and Nagru have a daughter, Haravi
Erava and Furtila have the same paternal grandmother, Qurati
Asurya and Barade are the only grandfathers of Harava, Chiri, Jariva, Karava, and Larasik
are the only grandmothers of Harava
No one has married more than once; all children were born in wedlock
1. Gushni is a sister of:
(A)
Nagru only
(B)
Munar only
(C)
Erava
(D)
Furtila
(E)
Erava or Furtila, but not both.
2. Nagru is a sibling of
IV.
Munar only
V.
Munar and Erava
VI.
Munar and Furtila
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
I only
II only
III only
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(E)
3. One of Quratis children may be
(A)
Asurya
(B)
Chiri
(C)
Jariva
(D)
Karava
(E)
Munar
4. Which of the following is an offspring of a Purdanneva marriage
(A)
Haravi
(B)
Erava
(C)
Asurya
(D)
Barade
(E)
Jariva
TCS TALENT TEST 019
PART I
11. CELIBACY
(A) informality (B)promiscuity (C)gluttony (D)garrulity (E)anticipate
12. FLEDGLING
(A) experienced (B)shy (C)cautious (D)pedestrian (E)fleeting
13. INSIPIDNESS
(A) wisdom (B)cowardice (C)lividity (D)savoriness (E)tentativeness
14. SEQUESTER
(A) precede in sequence (B) permit to mingle (C) alter in composition (D) free from
doubt (E) attempt to better
15. EQUANIMITY
(A) clamour (B)disparity (C)agitation (D)propensity (E)indivisibility
16. ANATHEMATIZE
(A) appraise (B)reciprocate (C)patronize (D)insinuate (E)bless
17. MORIBUND
(A) mortal (B)vital (C)transient (D)precarious (E)tangential
18. DISTILL
(A) provoke (B)subordinate (C)adulterate (D)conjure (E)deflate
19. SMART
(A) soothe (B)tickle (C)support (D)shorten (E)question
20. LUCID
(A) ornate (B)arrogant (C)embroiled (D)hapless (E)obscure
(11) MITE
(A) informality (B) promiscuity (C) gluttony (D) garrulity (E) bulk
(12)
FIDELITY
(A) committed (B) shy (C) cautious (D) pedestrian (E) fleeting
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(13)
SUPERNAL
(A) wisdom (B) infernal (C) lividity (D) savoriness (E) tentativeness
(14)
REPROBATE
(A) precede in sequence (B) permit to mingle (C) can be elevated (D) free from doubt
(E) attempt to better
(15)
SPECIOUS
(A) genuine (B) disparity (C) agitation (D) propensity (E) indivisibility
(16)
EFFETE
(A) appraise (B) reciprocate (C) proper (D) insinuate (E) bless
(17)
RABBLE
(A) mortal (B) vital (C) transient (D) union (E) tangential
(18)
PROTEAN
(A) provoke (B) subordinate (C) adulterate (D) conjure (E) unchanging
(19)
PARVENU
(A) knot (B) tickle (C) resolve (D) wallflower (E) question
(20)
VERTIGINOUS
(A) constant (B) arrogant (C) embroiled (D) hapless (E)obscure
chlorophyll. While all other plants put the suns energy to work for them combining the
nutrients of ground and air into the body structure the chlorophyll ___21_____ . It finds it
in those other plants which, having received their energy free from the sun, relinquish it
____22____.
In this search for energy, the fungus has become the earths major source of rot and
decay. Wherever you see mold forming on a piece of bread, or a pile of leaves turning to
compost, or a bloom down tree becoming pulp on the ground, ----23-----. With the fungus
action the earth would be poled high with ____24_____.
S. You are watching a fungus eating
T. Resting on the forest floor centuries after having been brown down,
U. Responsible for the decomposition of much plant life
V. Fungus must look else where form an energy supply
W. Cannot produce their own store of energy.
X. The dead plant life of past centuries
Y. At some point in their cycle either to animal or to fungi
Z. Fungus is vastly different from other plants.
AA.
Toxic to fungi will last indefinitely.
The beginning of what was to become the United States was characterized by
inconsistencies in the values and behavior of its population, inconsistencies that were
reflected by its spokesman, who took conflicting stance sin many areas; but on the
subject of race, the conflicts were particularly vivid. The idea that the Caucasian race and
European civilization were superior was well entrenched in the culture of the colonists at
the very time that the egalitarian republic was founded. Voluminous historical evidence
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indicates that, in the mind of the average colonists, the African was a heathen, he was
black, and he was different in crucial philosophical ways. As time progressed, he was also
increasingly captive, adding to the conception of deviance. The African, therefore, could
be justifiably (and even philanthropically) treated as property according to the reasoning
of slave traders and slaveholders.
Although slaves were treated as objects, bountiful evidence suggests that they did
not view themselves similarly. There are many published autobiographies of slaves;
African-American scholars are beginning to know enough about West African culture to
appreciate the existential climate in which the early captives were raised and which
therefore could not be totally destroyed by the enslavement experience. This was a
climate that defined individuality in collective terms. Individuals were members of a
tribe within which, they had prescribed roles determined by the history of their family
within the tribe. Individuals were inherently a part of the natural elements on which they
depended, and they were actively related to those tribal members who once lived and to
those not yet born.
The colonial plantation system which was established and into which Africans were
trust did virtually eliminate tribal affiliations. Individuals were separated from kin;
interrelationships among kin kept together were often transient because of slaves. A new
identification with those slaves working and living together in a given place could satisfy
what was undoubtedly a natural tendency to be a member of a group. New family units
became the most important attachments of individual slaves. Thus, as the system of
slavery was gradually institutionalized, West African affiliation tendencies adapted to it.
This exceedingly complex dual influence is still reflected in black community life,
and the double consciousness of black Americans is the major characteristics of AfricanAmerican mentality. Dubois articulated this divided consciousness as follows:
The history of the American Negro is the history of this strife-this longing to
attain self-conscious manhood, to merge his double self into a better and truer self. In this
morning, he wishes neither of the older selves to be best.
Several black political movements have looked upon this duality as destructively
confliction and have variously urged its reconciliation. Thus, the integrationists and the
black nationalists, to be crudely general, have both been concerned with resolving the
conflict, but in opposite directions.
(27) Which if the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?
A. The History of Black People in the United States
B. West African Tribal Relations
C. The origin of Modern African-American Consciousness
D. Slavery: A Democratic Anomaly
E. The Legacy of Slavery: A Modern Nation Divided.
(28) The author states which of the following about the Africans who were brought to
America?
I. In Africa they had acquired a sense of intertribal unity in which all were
regarded as belonging to the same group.
II. They did not regard themselves as objects of someone elses ownership.
III. They formed new groups to replace the tribal associations that had been
destroyed.
A.I only
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(29)
(30)
(31)
(32)
Q1.
Q2.
Q3.
B.II only
C.III only
D.I and II only
E.II and III only
Which of the following can be inferred about the viewpoint expressed in the
second paragraph of the passage?
A. It is a reinterpretation of slave life based on new research done by AfricanAmerican scholars
B. It is based entirely on recently published descriptions of slave life written by
slaves themselves
C. It is biased and overly sympathetic to the views of white, colonial
slaveholders.
D. It is highly speculative and supported by little actual historical evidence.
E. It is supported by descriptions of slave life written by early Americans who
actually owned slaves
The author puts the word egalitarian on quotation marks to:
A. emphasize his admiration for the early Americans
B. ridicule the idea of democracy
C. remind the reader of the principles of the new nation
D. underscore the fact that equality did not extend to everyone
E. express his surprise that slavery could have existed in America
The tone of the passage could best be described as
A. informed and anecdotal
B. critical and argumentative
C. impassioned and angry
D. analytical and objective
E. caustic and humorous
It can be inferred that which of the following parts are the two elements of the
dual influence mentioned?
A. slavery and West African culture
B. tribal affiliations in West Africa and family affiliations in West Africa
C. a sense of individuality and a sense of tribal identification
D. the history of West Africa and modern black political movements
E. integrationism and black nationalism.
PART II
58
27
12
??
2
1
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 5 (d) 9 (e) 11
In the following series, how many Us are there such that each U is followed by
an L next to it if the L is not followed by a D next to it.
U L U D Q M U L D M L U L L U Q M U
U L Q U L D L U A M L U L M
(a)2 (b)3 (c)5 (d)4 (e)8
If DFOUSBM is coded as CENTRAL how will RVJDL be coded?
(a) SHEET
(b) TRIAL
(c) COVER (d) QUICK (e) CIGAR
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Q4.
Suppose the first and second letters in the word CONSEQUENCES were
(a) C
(b) E
(c) N
(d) O
(e) S
Q5.
Q6.
(a) 73
(b) 69
(c) 61
(d) 57
(e) 65
Q7.
a.
n / 15
b.
n / 32
c.
n / 21
d.
n / 35
e.
n / 39
Q8.
a.
2148
b.
2096
c.
2198
d.
2444
e.
2048
Q9.
(a)
ORACLE
(b)
SYBASE
(c)
INGRESS
(d)
DB2
(e)
SMTP
Q10. (a)
UNIX
(b)
WINDOWS NT
(c)
C++
(d)
MVS
(e)
LINUX
(a)
(5m, 3m, 4m) (b)
(4m, 5m, 4m) (c)
(4m, 6m, 8m)
(d)
(1m, 3m, 2m) (e)
(12m, 6m, 8m)
number of edges, the number of vertices and the number of faces respectively.
(a) (4,8,6)
(b) (8,6,12) (c) (12,8,6) (d) (6,6,6) (e) (12,6,8)
(a)
3, 0, -3, 3, 0, -3
(b)
3, 3, 3, 0, 3, 3 (c)
-3, -3, -3, -3, -3, -3
(d)
3, 3, 3, 3, 3, 3
(e)
3, -3, 3, -3, 3, -3
The three circles below represent the number of people eating Rice, Wheat and
Corn. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
14
49
45
Rice
16
13
51
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Wheat
12
Corn
206
Q14.
Q15.
Q16.
How many more (or less) people eat Wheat than people who eat Rice?
(a)2 (b)3 (c)4 (d) 1 (e)5
What percentage of people eating Corn also eat Rice but not Wheat.
(a)21 (b)12 (c)14 (d) 17.4
(e)15.6
What percentage of total people eat all three items?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 (e) 3
140
Executives
12%
120
100
Others
8%
Members (in "00s) 80
Businessmen
60
55%
Doctors
25%
40
20
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Q17.
Q18.
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.

(a) 1998
(b) 1994
(c) 1996
(d) 1686
(e) 1888
(a) 7700
(b) 8800
(c) 6800
(d) 4800
(e) 7800
1999?
(a) 4500
(b) 4600
(c) 4400
(d) 4900
(e) 5400
(e) None
A, B and C together can finish a piece of work in 4 days; A alone can do it in 12
days and B alone can do it in 18 days. How many days will be taken by C to do it
alone?
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 16 (e) 18
12
18
-1 7
3 2
0 3
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A=
B=
4
Q23.
Q24.
Q25.
Q26.
Q27.
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
Q31.
C=
0
D=
5

(i)
Animal
Lion
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
Mushroom Vegetable
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Panda Bear
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Oxygen Water
(4)
Superset of
@ @ + (16) - + + @ (25)?
(a) 124 (b) 245(c) 251 (d) 252(e) 253
g(0) = -1;
g(1) = 1
g(n) = g(n-1) + g(n-2)
(a)2 (b)
4(c)3 (d)6 (e)7
XXXII.
Y
X
0.99
0.00001
10.04
1.02
99.98
1.997
1000
3.0
9990
4.004
(a) 1234
(b) 1324
(c) 3351
(d) 3421
(e) 2431
A: 3x+4y-7 = 0, B: x+y = 0, C: 3y-4x+5 = 0, D: y = 7x+3
(a) AC (b) AD (c) BC (d) BD (e)AB
M (843,5) + R (3.4) + T (7.7) - R (5.8) where
(a)5 (b)6 (c) 7 (d)8 (e)9
(a) 49.6%
(b) 54%
(c) 48.8%
(d) 56%
(e) 64%
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Hour
Declination
3
7o 53 6.1
4
7o 39 28.7
(b) 8o 6 43.5 (b) 7o 56 54.5 (c) 9o 46 33.5 (d) 7o16 12.5 (e) 8o 39 28.7
Q32.
Y
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
X
-2
Q33.
Q34.
Q35.
(a)y = tan x (b) y + 3 = x (c) y = ex (d) y = Cos x (e) y + x = 0

(a) 24%
(b) 12%
(c) 15%
(d) 18%
(e) 22%
o
o
landing at B?
A
0
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
B
0
0
1
1
0
0
1
1
C
0
1
0
1
0
1
0
1
(A B ) C
decimal value.
318737514.doc
209
Q36.
Q37.
(a) 123 (b) 134(c) 145 (d) 127(e) 133

(a) 10.11 N (b) 10.011 N (c) 11.01 N (d) 11.011 N (e) 10.101 N
(a) 0.75% (b) 0.25% (c) 1% (d) 0.5%
(e) 2%
(a) 450
(b) 3900
(c) 1800
(d) 2100
(e) 2700
PART III
(1) Annaswamy Naryanasharma is a cloth merchant in a nearby district of Chennai and is
the father of two children, Buradikrishnan and Durashankar , who are of different sexes.
Chunnalaxmi is Buradikrishnans spouse
Ericaswami is the same sex as Durashankar
Buradikrishnan and Chunnalaxmi have two children: Falirukmani, who is married to
Laxmiamma, is the sister of Durashankars mother, Mutthuswami.
Ericaswami and Ericaswamis spouse, Indrarani , have two children, Jayawardane and
Kurriappa who are the same sex as Indrarani
No person has married more than once, and no children have been born out of wedlock.
The only restrictions on marriage are that marriage to a sibling, to a direct descendant, to
a person of the same sex, or to more than one person at the same time is forbidden.
(1)
Falirukmani is :
(A)
Gunnachandrans brother
(B)
Gunnachandrans sister
(C)
Buradikrishnans daughter
(D)
Durashankars niece or nephew
(E)
The same sex as Hariraman
(2)
According to the rules, Durashankar can marry
(A)
Falirukmani only
(B)
Gunnachandran only
(C)
Jayawardane only
(D)
Jayawardane or Kurriappa only
(E)
Falirukmani, Jayawardane or Kurriappa
(3)
If Laxmiamma and Hariraman are divorced, Hariraman could marry
IV.
Durashankar only
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V.
VI.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(4)
Falirukmani only
Durashankar or Gunnachandran
I only
II only
III only
If the generations of Falirukmani and Kurriappas parents and their siblings
contains more females than males, which of the following must be true?
(A)
There are more females in Falirukmani and Kurriappas generations
(B)
Jayawardane is a male
(C)
Annaswamy is the same sex as Durashankar
(D)
Kurriappa and Gunnachandran are the same sex
(E)
Durashankar is Hariramans nephew
(2) At an International Convention on the possible dangers of the individual chemical
Dulconomaxia, three pro-industry spokespersons are to be seated to the left of the
moderator and three critics of Dulconomaxia, to the right of the moderator. The speakers
are Drs. Ahmed Ali, Burdakova, Din Chow Wung, Erriat Mobutu and Fendersberg.
ii
The person delivering the paper Epidemiological Aspects of Dulconomaxia is

seated immediately between Dr. Ahmed Ali and Dr. Din Chow Wung.
iii
The persons delivering Public Health and Dulconomaxia, and Radiological
Aspects of Dulconomaxia, are close friends and insist on sitting together.
iiii
Fendersberg is placed two seats to the left of the moderator.
iiv
As heavy smoking is repugnant to the moderator, she insists that the person
delivering Dulconomaxia: Benign or Malignant, a heavy smoker, be seated at one end
of the table.
iv
Curriappa, delivering The Impact of Dulconomaxia, on the Environment, is
seated to the left of Fendersberg
ivi
Ahmed Ali, a critic of Dulconomaxia,, is seated to the left of Erriat Mobutu.
1. The person seated immediately to the left of the moderator is
(A)
Ahmed Ali
(B)
Burdakova
(C)
Curriappa
(D)
Din Chow Wung
(E)
Erriat Mobutu
2. Given the seating rules as stated, which of the numbered statements are logically
sufficient to establish the position of Dr. Erriat Mobutu and the title of the paper she
delivers?
(A)
1, 3
(B)
1, 6
(C)
1, 3, 6
(D)
1, 4, 5, 6
(E)
1, 3, 4, 5
3. The symposium is expanded to include a seventh speaker. If she is seated exactly
midway between Curriappa and the moderator, he will sit:
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(A)
to the left of the author of Radiological Aspects of Dulconomaxia
(B)
one seat to the right of the moderator
(C)
two seats to the right of Din Chow Wung
(D)
three seats to the left of Ahmed Ali
(E)
four seats to the left of the author of Dulconomaxia: Benign or Malignant
IV. The author of Public Health and Dulconomaxia
V.
VI.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The title of the paper delivered by Din Chow Wung

The identity of the two friends who insist on being together
I only
II only
III only
I and II only (E) II and III only
TCS TALENT TEST 020
PART I
(161) AWRY
(A) recommended
(B)commiserating
(C) startled (D)crooked (E)psychological
(162) BALEFUL
(A) doubtful (B)virtual
(C)deadly (D)conventional (E)virtuous
(163) BALMY
(A) venturesome (B)dedicated (C)mild (D)fanatic (E)memorable
(164) BANAL
(A) philosophical (B)trite (C)dramatic (D)heedless (E)discussed
(165) BANEFUL
(A) intellectual (B)thankful (C) decisive (D)poisonous (E)remorseful
(166) BOISTEROUS
(A) conflicting (B)noisy (C)testimonial (D)grateful (E)adolescent
(167) BOMBASTIC
(A) sensitive (B)pompous (C)rapid (D)sufficient (E)expensive
(168) BOORISH
(A) brave (B)oafish (C)romantic (D)speedy (E)dry
(169) BOUILLON
(A) insight (B)chowder (C)gold (D)clear soup (E)stew
(170) BRACKISH
(A) careful (B)salty (C)chosen (D)tough (E)wet
(171) PERIPHERY
(A) authority (B)distance (C)velocity (D)center (E)sequence
(172) ENIGMATIC
(A) frenetic (B)genuine (C)unambiguous (D)vulnerable (E)antagonistic
(173) REPUDIATE
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212
A) mislead (B)minimize (C)ascertain (D)isolate (E)accept

(174) ALOOFNESS
(A) exaggeration (B)simplicity (C)concern (D)complacency (E)disingenuousness
(175) EXHUME
(A) decay (B) inhale (C) fertilize (D) restrain (E)inter
(176) DESPOTIC
(A) erratic (B)impertinent (C)reflective (D)insouciant (E)humble
(177) OBFUSCATE
(A) insinuate (B)exacerbate (C)protract (D)clarify (E)placate
(178) PAEAN
(A) dirge (B)prologue (C)chorale (D)anthem (E)coda
(179) CONCATENATE
(A) disclaim (B)impede (C)unlink (D)derail (E)vacillate
(180) RECOLLECT
(A) comprise (B)misplace (C)settle (D)forget (E)administer
chlorophyll. While all other plants put the suns energy to work for them combining the
nutrients of ground and air into the body structure the chlorophyll ___21_____ . It finds it
in those other plants which, having received their energy free from the sun, relinquish it
____22____.
In this search for energy the fungus has become the earths major source of rot and
decay. Wherever you see mold forming on a piece of bread, or a pile of leaves turning to
compost, or a bloom down tree becoming pulp on the ground, ----23-----. With the fungus
action the earth would be poled high with ____24_____.
In fact, certain plants which contain resigns that are ___25____ specimen of the
redwood, for the instance, can still be found ___26____
BB.
You are watching a fungus eating.
CC.
Resting on the forest floor centuries after having been brown down,
DD.
Responsible for the decomposition of much plant life.
EE.Fungus must look elsewhere for an energy supply.
FF. Cannot produce their own store of energy.
GG.
The dead plant life of past centuries.
HH.
At some point in their cycle either to animal or to fungi.
II. Fungus is vastly different from other plants.
JJ. Toxic to fungi will last indefinitely.
In the summer of 999, Leif Erikson voyaged to Norway and spent the following winter
with King Olaf Tryggvason. Substantially the same account is given by both the
Saga of Erica and Red and the Flat Island Book. The latter says nothing about
Leifs return voyage to Greenland, but according to the former it was during this
return voyage that Lief discovered America. The Flat Island Book, however, tells
of another and earlier landfall by Biarni, that some prominent man named Heriulf
makes the voyage to the new land by Lief. In brief, like Biarni and his
companions who sight three countries in succession before reaching Greenland,
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come upon each new until Biarni comes to land directly in front of his fathers
house in the last-mentioned country.
This narrative had been rejected by later writers, and they may be justified.
Possibly Biarni was a companion of Lief when he voyaged from Norway to Greenland
via America, or it may be that the entire tale is but a garbled account of that voyage
Brainy another name for Life. It should be noted, however, that the stories of Liefs visit
to King Olaf and Biarnis to that kings predecessor, are in the same narrative in the Flat
Island Book, so there is less likelihood of duplication then if they were from different
sources. Also, Brainy landed on none of the lands he passed, but Lief apparently landed
on one, for he brought back specimens of wheat, vines, and timber. Nor is there any good
reason to believe that the first land visited by Biarni was Wine land. The first land was
level and covered with woods, and there were small hillocks upon it. Of forests, later
writers do not emphasize them particularly in connection with Wine land, though they are
often noted incidentally; and of bills, the Saga says of Wine land only wherever there
was hilly ground, there were vines.
Additionally, if the two narratives were taken from the same source we should expect
closer resemblance of Hell land. The Saga says of it: They found there hellus
(large flat stones). According to the Biarni narrative, however, this land was
high and mountaineous. The intervals of 1,2,3 and 4 doer in both narratives are
suggestive, but mythic formulas of this kind may be introduced into narratives
without altogether destroying their historicity. It is also held against the Biarni
narrative that its hero is made to come upon the coast of Greenland exactly in
front of his fathers home. But it should be recalled that Heriulfsness lay below
two high mountains, which served as landmarks for navigators.
I would give up Biarni more readily were it not that the story of Leifs voyage contained
in the supposedly more reliable Saga is almost as amazing. But Leifs voyage
across the entire width of the North Atlantic is said to be probable because it is
incorporated into the narrative of preferred authority, while Biarnis is
improbable or even impossible because the document containing it has been
condemned.
(27) The authors primary concern is to demonstrate that
A. Leif Erikson did not visit America
B. Biarni might have visited America before Leif Erikson
C. Biarni did not visited Wine land
D. Leif Erikson visited Wine land
E. Leif Erikson was the same person as Biarni
(28) The passage provides information that that defines which of the following terms
I.
Doer
II.
Hellus
III.
Heriulfsness
A.I only
B.II only
C.III only
D.I an II only
E.II and III only
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214
(29) According to the passage, Wine land was characterized by which of the following
geographical features
I.
Woods
II.
Flat rocs
III.
Hills
A.I only
B.III only
C.I and III only
D.II an III only
E.I., II and III
(30) It can be inferred from the passage that scholars who doubt the authenticity of the
Biarni narrative make all of the following objections BUT
A. Biarni might have accompanied Leif Erikson on the voyage to America, and
that is why a separate, erroneous narrative was invented
B. The similarity of the voyages described in the Sage and in the Flat Island
Book indicates that there was but one voyage, not two voyages.
C. It seems very improbable that a ship, having sailed from America to
Greenland, could have found its way to precise point on the coast of
Greenland
D. The historicity of the Saga of Eric the Red is well documented, while the
historicity of the Flat Island Book is very doubtful.
E. Both the Saga Eric and Red and the Flat Island Book make use of mythical
formulas, so it is probable that they were written by the same person
(31)
The author mentions the two high mountains in order to show that it is
A. Reasonable for Biarni to land precisely at this fathers home.
B. Possible to sail from Norway to Greenland without modern navigational
equipment.
C. Likely the Boarni landed on America at least 100 years before Leif Erikson
D. Probable that Leif Erikson followed the same course as Birani
E. Questionable whether Birani required the same length of time to complete this
voyage as Lief Erikson
(32) All of the following are mentioned as similarities between Leif Erikson voyage
and Biarnis voyage EXCEPT
A. Both visited Norway
B. On the return voyage, both visited three different lands
C. Both returned to Greenland
D. Both visited Wine land
E. Both visited Helluland
PART II
Q1.
7
8
9
11
13
??
19
26
(a) 14 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 19 (e) 15
Q2.
In the following series, how many Us are there such that each U is followed by an
F next to it if the F is not followed by a R next to it.
U F U R Q M U F R M F U F F U Q M U
U F Q U F R F U A M F U F M
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(a)3 (b)5 (c)6 (d) 4 (e)7

Q3.
If FROSXWHU is coded as COMPUTER how will GLVSODB be coded?
(a) PROCESS (b) CENTRAL (c) PLEASE (d) DISPLAY (e) SURMISE
Q4.
Suppose the first and second letters in the word SUPERSTITION were
(a) S
(b) I
(c) N
(d) O
(e) U
Q5.
(a)
(b)
(c) Base - 6
(d)
(e)
Q6.
(a) 123
(b) 129
(c) 121
(d) 127
(e) 119
Q7.
a.
n / 70
b.
n / 42
c.
n / 128
d.
n / 15
e.
n / 39
Q8.
a.
4148
b.
4096
c.
4198
d.
4244
e.
4048
Q9.
(a)
ORACLE
(b)
HTTP
(c)
INGRESS
(d)
DB2
(e)
SYBASE
Q10. (a)
C++
(b)
WINDOWS NT
(c)
UNIX
(d)
MVS
(e)
LINUX
(a)
(90, 40, 50) (b)
(60, 90, 30) (c)
(6, 87, 87)
(d)
(70, 60, 50) (e)
(80, 60, 60)
number of edges, the number of vertices and the number of faces respectively.
(a) (4,8,6) (b) (12,8,6) (c) (8,4,6) (d) (4,4,4) (e) (6,12,8)
(a)
-4, -4, -4, -4, -4, -4
(b)
4, -4, 4, -4, 4, -4 (c) 4, 0, -4, 4, 0, -4
(d)
4, 4, 4, 4, 4, 4
(e)
4, 4, 4, 0, 4, 4
The three circles below represent the number of people speaking French, German
14
49
45
German
English
12
16
13
51
French
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216
Q14.
How many more (or less) people speak English than people who speak German?
(a)2 (b)3 (c)4 (d)5 (e) 1
Q15. What percentage of people speaking French can also speak German but not
English?
(a) 13.6 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 17.4 (e)18
Q16.
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c)4
(d)3
(e)2
140
Executives
12%
120
100
Others
8%
Members (in "00s)80
Businessmen
60
55%
Doctors
25%
40
20
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Q17.
Q18.
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.

(a) 1998
(b) 1886
(c) 1994
(d) 1686
(e) 1996
(a) 7700
(b) 6800
(c) 7800
(d) 4800
(e) 8800
1999?
(a) 4500
(b) 4600
(c) 4400
(d) 4900
(e) 5400
(Momentum X Velocity) / (Acceleration X Distance)
(a)Time
(b) Power
(c) Mass
A can do a piece of work in 24 days while B alone can do it in 16 days. With the
Help of C, they finish the work in 8 days. In how many days can alone do the
work?
(a) 48 (b) 46 (c) 54 (d) 36 (e) 24
318737514.doc
217
24
20
A=
Q23.
-1
B=
Q25.
Q26.
Q28.
Q29.
D=

(1)
Not a type of
Part of
A type of
Superset of
@ @ + (9) - + + @ (25)?
(a)79 (b)67 (c) 76 (d)56 (e)45
f(0) = 1;
f(1) = -1
f(n) = f(n-1) + f(n-2)
(a)3 (b)-3 (c)4 (d)5 (e)8
X
0.99
10.04
99.98
1000
9990
Q27.
C=
(i)
Animal
Lion
(ii)
Mushroom Vegetable
(2)
(iii)
Snake Reptile
(3)
(iv)
Sentence Paragraph
(4)
(a) i-3,ii-1,iii-4,iv-2 (b) i-4,ii-1,iii-3,iv-2
Q24.
Y
0.00001
1.02
1.997
3.0
4.004

A Two-dimensional array X (7,9) is stored linearly Row-wise in a computer's
(a) 1342
(b) 1543
(c) 1433
(d) 1653
(e) 1764
A = 5i-3j, B = -7i+j, C = 3i+5j, D = i+j
(a)AC (b) AD (c) AB (d) BD (e) BC
M (373,9) + R (3.4) + T (7.7) - R (5.8) where
(a)7 (b)6 (c) 8 (d)9 (e)4
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218
Q30.
Q31.
Q32.
(a)45%
(b) 64%
(c) 58%
(d) 56%
(e) 54%
X
log10X
3.141
0.4970612341
3.142
0.4972061807
Find log103.143.
(a) 0. 49734 (b) 0.59720 (c) 0.49110 (d) 0.49420
(e) 0.49440
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
X
-2
Q33.
Q34.
Q35.
(a)y = tan x (b) y + 3 = x (c)y + x = 0 (d) y = Cos x (e) y = ex

(a) 25%
(b) 32%
(c) 12%
(d) 15%
(e) 18%
landing at B?
A
0
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
B
0
0
1
1
0
0
1
1
C
0
1
0
1
0
1
0
1
(A B ) C
318737514.doc
219
decimal value.
Q36.
Q37.
(a)3 (b)4 (c)5 (d)1 (e)2

(a) 10.11 N (b) 10.011 N (c) 11.01 N (d) 11.011 N (e) 10.101 N
The electricity used in a device is given by the function P(N) = 4000 N, where N
is the time for which device is used. Find the percentage change in electricity
usage if the time used by the device is increased by 1%.
(a) 0.5%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 0.75%
(d) 1%
(e) 2%
(a) 450
(b) 3900
(c) 2100
(d) 1800
(e) 2700
PART III
(1) For motorists there are 3 ways of going from City A to City C. By way of a bridge the
distance is 20 miles and the toll is 70 cents. A tunnel between the 2 cities is a distance of 10
miles and the toll is $ 1.00 for the vehicle and the driver and 10cents for the passenger.
A tow-lane highway without tolls goes east for 30 miles to City B and then 20m miles in a
1. Which of the following is the shortest route from City B to City C?
E. Directly on the toll-free highway to city C
F. The bridge
G. The tunnel
H. The tunnel or the bridge
E. The bridge only if traffic is heavy on the toll free highway
2. The most economical way of going from City A to City B, in terms of tolls and distance,
is to use the:
F. Tunnel
G. Bridge
H. Bridge or tunnel
I. Toll free highway
J. Bridge and highway.
3. Martin usually drives form City C to City A every working day. His firm deducts a
F. Whether his wife goes with him
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220
G. Scenic interest of each route

H. Traffic conditions on the bridge, road and tunnel
I. Savings of 25 cents in tolls
J. Price of gasoline consumed in covering the 10 additional miles on the bridge.
4. In choosing between the use of the bridge and the tunnel, the chief factor(s) would be :
IX. Traffic and road conditions
X. Number of passengers in the car
XI. Location of ones home in the center or outskirts of one of the cities.
XII. Desire to save 25 cents
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. III and IV only
E. I and II only
(2) A project to consolidate the programs of a large university and a small college is set up.
It is agreed that the representatives work in small committees of three, with 2
representatives of the large university. It was also agreed that no committee be represented
by faculty members of the same subject area.
The large university was represented by the following professors: J, who teaches English
literature, K, who is chairman of the Mathematics Department and L who is in the
Department of Natural Sciences. The small college appointed the following: M, who
teaches mathematics, N, who is a Latin teacher, and O and P who teach English literature.
A. K, L, N
B. K, L, M
C. J, K, L
D. J, O, N
E. J, K, M
10. Which of the following may serve with P?
F. K and M
G. K and L
H. K and O
I. J and K
J. M and N
I. If J serves on a committee, P must be assigned to that committee.
II. If J cannot serve on a committee, then M cannot be assigned to that committee.
III. If J cannot serve on a committee, then L must serve on that committee.
F. I only
G. II only
H. III only
I. I and II only
J. II and III only
12. If L is not available for service, which of the following must be on that committee?
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F. M and J
G. O and J
H. N and J
I. N and O
J. P and J
(3) In a certain society, there are 2 marriage groups, Red and Brown. No marriage is
permitted within a group. On marriage, males become part of their wifes group; women
remain in their own group. Children belong to the same group as their parents.
Widowers and divorced males revert to the group of their birth. Marriage to more than one
person at the same time and marriage to a direct descendant are forbidden.
4. A Brown female could have had:
XXXIII. A grandfather born Red.
XXXIV. A grandmother born Red.
XXXV. Two grandfathers born Brown
A. I only
B. III only
XXXVI.
I and II only
A. II and III only
B. I, II and III only
5. A male born into the Brown group may have:
A. an uncle in either group
B. a Brown daughter
C. a Brown son
D. a son-in-law born into the Red group
E. a daughter-in-law in the Red group.
6. Which of the following is not permitted under the rules as stated?
A. A Brown male marrying his fathers sister
B. A Red female marrying her mothers brother
C. A man born Red, who is now a widower, marrying his brothers widow
D. A widower marrying his wifes sister
E. A widow marrying her divorced daughters ex-husband.
5 If widowers and divorced males retained the group they had upon marrying, which
of the following would be permissible?
F. A woman marrying her dead sisters husband.
G. A woman marrying her divorced daughters ex-husband
H. A widower marrying his brothers daughter.
I. A woman marrying her mothers brother, who is a widower
J. A divorced male marrying his ex-wifes divorced sister
TCS TALENT TEST 021

PART I
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(181) BRAGGADOCIO
(A)weaponry (B)boasting (C)skirmish (D)encounter (E)position
(182) BRAZEN
(A)shameless (B)quick (C)modest (D)pleasant (E)melodramatic
(183) BRINDLED
(A)equine (B)pathetic (C)hasty (D)spotted (E)mild tasting
(184) BROCHURE
(A)opening (B)pamphlet (C)censor (D)bureau (E)pin
(185) BUCOLIC
(A)diseased (B)repulsive (C)rustic (D)twinkling (E)cold
(186) BUXOM
(A)voluminous (B)indecisive (C)convincing (D)plump (E)bookish
(187) CACHE
(A)lock (B)hiding place (C)tide (D)automobile (E)grappling hook
(188) CACOPHONY
(A)discord (B)dance (C)applause (D)type of telephone (E)rooster
(189) CALLOW
(A)youthful (B)holy (C)mild (D)coloured (E)seated
(190) CANDID
(A)vague
(B)outspoken (C)experienced (D)anxious (E)sallow
(191) MISAPPREHENSION
(A)indignation (B)derision (C) intense speculation (D)approximate estimation
(E)correct interpretation
(192) ABIDE
(A)retract an offer (B) refuse to endure (C) shield from harm (D) exonerate (E)welcome
(193) BENEVOLENT
(A)tense (B)intrepid (C)malicious (D)prominent (E)disinterested
(194) PRECIPITATE
(A)intricate (B)devious (C)posthumous (D)dilatory (E)contradictory
(195) ACERBITY
(A) noteworthy (B)hypocrisy (C)mildness in temperament (D) lack of anxiety (E) thirst
for pleasure
(196) APLOMB
(A) discomposure (B)righteousness (C)temerity (D)disapprobation
(E)parsimoniousness
(197) TORTUOUS
(A) merciful (B)direct (C)dangerous (D)legal (E)tawdry
(198) EXTIRPATE
(A) dilate (B)implicate (C) proliferate (D)expostulate (E) incriminate
(199) BEATIFIC
(A) unattractive (B)arrhythmic (C)enormous (D)fiendish (E)radical
(200) ODIUM
(A) fragrance (B)monotony (C)idiosyncrasy (D)veneration (E)vigilance
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The emancipation of women, James Joyce told one of his friends, has caused the
greatest revolution in our time in the most important relationship there is - that between
men and women. Other modernists agreed: Virginia Wolf claming that in about 1910
human character changed, and illustrating ___21_____. Read the Agamemnon, and
see whether your sympathies are not almost entirely with Clytemnestra. D. H. Lawrence
Cosote, Perhaps the deepest fight for 2000 years and more, __22_____
But if modernist writers considered womens revolt _23_____, only recently in
perhaps the past 15 years has literacy criticism begun to catch up with it. Not that the
images of __24_____ have gone un-remarked from it. But what we are able to
__25____ and now that women - enough to make a difference- ______26_________,
the landscapes of literacy history and the features of individual books have begun to
change options for answers.
A. has been the fight for womens independence
B. sexual antagonism that about in modern literature
C. noting instances of hostility between man and women
D. the new balance between the sexes.
E. are reforming canons and interpreting literature
F. see in literacy works depends on the perspectives we bring to them
G. modernist writers and search for equality
H. against mans domination one of their greatest and deepest themes
I. the interest in feminist issues is not now.
There can be nothing simpler than an elementary particle: it is an indivisible share of
matter, without internal structures and without detectable shape or size. One might
expect commensurate simplicity in the theories that describe such particles and
the forces through which they interact; at the least, one might expect the structure
of the world to be explained with a minimum number of particles and forces.
Judged by this criterion of parsimony, a description of nature that has evolved in
the past several years can be accounted a reasonable success. Matter is built out of
just two classes of elementary particles: the leptons, such as the electron, and the
quarks, which are constituents of the proton, the neutron, and many related
particles: four basic forces between the elementary particles. Gravitation and
electromagnetism have long been familiar in the macroscopic world; the weak
force and the strong force are observed only in sub nuclear events. In principle,
this complement of particles and forces could account for the entire observed
hierarchy of material structure, from the nuclei of atoms to stars and galaxies. An
understanding of nature at this level of detail is a remarkable achievement;
nevertheless, it is possible to imagine what a still simpler theory might be like.
The existence of two disparate classes of elementary particles is not fully
satisfying; ideally, one class would suffice. Similarly, the existence of four forces
seems a needless complication; one force might explain all the interactions of
elementary particles. An ambitious new theory now promises at least a partial
unification along these lines. The theory does not embrace gravitation, which is
by far the feeblest of the forces and may be fundamentally different from the
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(27)
(28)
(29)
(30)
others. If gravitation is excluded, however, the theory unifies all elementary

particles and forces. The first step in the construction of the unified theory was the
demonstration that the weak, the strong and the electromagnetic force could all be
described by theories of the same general kind. The three forces remained distinct,
but they could be seen to operate through the same mechanism. In course of this
development a deep connection was discovered between the weak force and
electromagnetism, a connection that hinted at a still grander synthesis. The new
theory is the leading candidate for accomplishing the synthesis. It incorporates the
leptons and the quarks into a single family and provides a means of
transformation one kind of particle into the other. At the same time the weak, the
strong, and the electromagnetic forces are understood as aspects of a single
underlying force. With only one class of particles and one force ( plus gravitation)
, the unified theory is model of frugality.
All of the following are differences between the two theories described by the
author EXCEPT
A. the second theory is simpler than the first
B. the first theory encompasses gravitation while the second does not
C. the second theory includes only one class of elementary particles
D. the first theory accounts for only part of the hierarchy of material
structure
E. the second theory unifies forces that the first theory regards as distinct
The primary purpose of the passage is to
A. Correct a misconception in a currently accepted theory of the nature of
matter
B. Describe efforts to arrive at a simplified theory of elementary particles
and forces.
C. Predict the success of a new effort to unify gravitation with other basic
forces
D. Explain why scientists prefer simpler explanations over more complex
ones
E. Summarize what is known about the basic components of matter.
According to the passage, which of the following are true of quarks?
I.
They are the elementary building blocks for neutrons
II.
Scientist have described them as having no internal structure
III.
Some scientists group them with leptons in a single class of particles.
A.I only
B.III only
C.I and III only
D.II and III only
E.I, II, and III
The author considers which of following in judging the usefulness of theory of
elementary particles
I.
The simplicity of the theory
II.
The ability of the theory to account for the largest possible number of
known phenomena
III.
The possibility of proving or disproving the theory by experiment
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A.I only
B.III only
C.I and III only
D.I and II only
E.II and III only
(31) It can be inferred that the author considers the failure to unify gravitation with
others forces in the theory he describes to be
A. a disqualifying defect
B. an unjustified deviation
C. a needless oversimplification
D. an unfortunate oversight
E. an unavoidable limitation
(32)
The author organizes the passage by
A. enumerating distinctions among different kinds of elementary particles
B. starting a criterion for judging theories of nature, and using it to
evaluate two theories
C. explaining three methods of grouping particles
D. criticizing an inaccurate view of elemental nature and proposing an
alternative approach
E. outlining an assumption about scientific verification, then criticizing
the assumption
PART II
Q1.
Q2.
Q3.
Q4.
Q5.
Q6.
Q7.
Q8.

26
19
17
13
11
??
8
7
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 9 (d) 14 (e) 21
an L next to it if the L is not followed by a W next to it.
V L V W Q M V L W M L V L L V Q M V V
L Q V L W L V A M L V L M
(a)5 (b)6 (c)7 (d)4 (e)8
If DPNQVUFS is coded as COMPUTER how will EJTQMBZ be coded?
(a) DISPLAY (b) CENTRAL (c) PLEASE (d) SURMISE (e) PROCESS
Suppose the first and second letters in the word SUPERSTITION were
(a) T
(b) I
(c) E
(d) P
(e) U
(a) 1234
(b) 1342
(c) 1432
(d) 1546
(e) 1654
(a) 121
(b) 123
(c) 111
(d) 127
(e) 129
a.
n / 38
b.
n / 42
c.
n / 70
d.
n / 30
e.
n / 39
a.
4148
b.
4048
c.
4198
d.
4244
e.
4096
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Q9.
(a)
ORACLE
(b)
SYBASE
(c)
INGRESS
(d)
DB2
(e)
HTTP
Q10. (a)
JAVA
(b)
SMALLTALK (c)
EIFFEL
(d)
LISP
(e)
C++
(a)
(90,40,50) (b)
(60,90,30) (c)
(74,76,40)
(d)
(70,60,50) (e)
(80,60,40)
(a) (4,8,6) (b) (6,8,12) (c) (12,8,6) (d) (6,6,6) (e) (12,6,8)
(a)
4, 0, -4, 4, 0, -4
(b)
4, 4, 4, 0, 4, 4 (c)
-4, -4, -4, -4, -4, -4
(d)
4, 4, 4, 4, 4, 4
(e)
4, -4, 4, -4, 4, -4
The three circles below represent the number of people speaking Japanese,
Chinese and French. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
14
49
45
Japanese
Chinese
12
16
13
51
French
Q14.
How many more (or less) people speak Chinese than people who speak Japanese?
(a)2 140
(b)3 (c)1 (d)4 (e)5
Q15. What percentage of people speaking French can also speak Japanese but not
Chinese?
Executives
120
(a)12 (b)15.6(c)17.4 (d)14 (e)16
12%
Q16. What 100
percentage of total people can speak all three languages?
Others
(a)5 (b)7 (c)6 (d)8 (e)9
8%
The figure on 80
the left represents number of members in a Club and the figure on the right
Businessmen
depicts profession wise distribution for 1998
60
55%
Doctors
25%
40
20
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0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Members (in "00s)
Q17.
Q18.
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.
Q23.
Q24.
Q25.

(a) 1998
(b) 1996
(c) 1994
(d) 1686
(e) 1888
(a) 7700
(b) 6800
(c) 8800
(d) 4800
(e) 7800
1999?
(a) 4500
(b) 4600
(c) 4900
(d) 4400
(e) 5400
(a)Time
(b) Power
(e) None
A can do a piece of work in 24 days while B alone can do it in 16 days. With the
Help of C, they finish the work in 8 days. In how many days can alone do the
work?
(a)36 (b)18 (c)48 (d)24 (e)16
9
15
-1 7
3 2
0 3
A=
B=
C=
D=
3
5
0 6
5 9
3
0
(i)
Animal
Lion
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
Oven Building
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Beagle Dog
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Oxygen Water
(4)
Superset of
@ @ + (25) - + + @ (9)?
(a)655 (b)625 (c) 622 (d)628 (e)654
f(0) = 1;
f(1) = -1
f(n) = f(n-1) + f(n-2)
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Q26.

(a)2 (b)3 (c)-2 (d)-4 (e)4
XXXVII.
X
0.99
10.04
99.98
1000
9990
Y
0.00001
1.02
1.997
3.0
4.004

Q27.
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
Q31.
Q32.

(a)1345
(b) 1675
(c)1473
(d) 1546
(e) 1789
A = i+j, B = 3i+5j, C = -7i+j, D = 5i-3j
(a)BD (b)AD (c)AC (d)BC (e)AB
M(373,9) + R(5.8) + T(7.7) - R(3.4) where
a)12 (b)13 (c) 14 (d)15 (e)16
(a)45%
(b) 55%
(c) 48%
(d) 58%
(e) 46%
Class exam
Final exam
3
1.2
3.5
1.45
Y
(a)0.6 (b) 1 (c)0.1 (d)0.2 (e)0.5
What equation best describes the curve
7 shown below:
6
5
4
3
2
1
X
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229
(a) y = ex
Q33.
Q34.
Q35.
(b) y + 3 = x
(c)y + x = 0
(d) y = Cos x (e) y = tan x

(a) 22%
(b) 35%
(c) 36%
(d) 33.3%
(e) 32%
landing at B?
A
B
C
(A B ) C
0
0
0
0
0
1
0
1
0
0
1
1
1
0
0
1
0
1
1
1
0
1
1
1
decimal value.
Q36.
Q37.
(a)2 (b) 1 (c)3 (d)4 (e)5

(a) 10.11 N (b) 10.011 N (c) 11.01 N (d) 11.011 N (e) 10.101 N
(a) 0.75%
(b) 0.5%
(c) 0.25%
(d) 1%
(e) 2%
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(a) 450
(b) 3900
(c) 2800
(d) 1800
(e) 2700
PART III
(1) The letters A, B, C, D, E, F and G not necessarily in that order, stand for seven
consecutive integers from 1 to 10
D is less than A
B is the middle term
F is as much less than B as C is greater than D
G is greater than F
5. A is much greater than F as which integer is less than G?
(F) A
(G) B
(H) C
(I) D
(J) E
6. If A = 7, the sum of E and G is:
(F) 8
(G) 10
(H) 12
(I) 14
(J) 16
7. An integer T is as much greater than C as C is greater than E. T can be written
as A+E. What is D?
(F) 2
(G) 3
(H) 4
(I) 5
(J) cannot be determined
8. The greatest possible value of C is how much greater than the smallest possible
value of D?
(F) 2
(G)3
(H) 4
(I) 5
(J) 6
(2) In country X, the Conservative, Democratic and Justice parties have fought 3 civil
wars in 20 years. To restore stability, an agreement is reached to rotate the top officesPresident, Prime Minister and Army Chief of Staff among the parties, so that each
party controls one and only one office at all times.
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F.
G.
H.
I.
J.
The 3 top office holders must have each 2 deputies, one from each pf the other parties.
Each deputy must choose a staff composed equally of members of his or her chiefs
party and members of the third party.
5. When the Justice party holds one of the top offices, which of the following cannot
be true?
Some of the staff members within that office are Justice party members.
Some of the staff members within that office are Democratic Party members
Two of the deputies within the other offices are Justice party members.
Two of the deputies within the other offices are Conservative Party members
Some of the staff members within the other offices are Justice party members.
6. When the Democratic Party holds the presidency, the staffs of the Prime Ministers
deputies are composed.
IV.
one fourth of Democratic party members
V.
one half of Justice Party members, one fourth of Conservative party members
VI.
one half of Conservative party members, one fourth of Justice party members
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III, but not both
D. I and II or I and III
E. Neither I, II, Nor III
7. Which of the following is allowable under the rules as stated?

F. More than half of the staff within a given office belonging to a single party
G. Half the staff members within a given office belonging to a single party
H. Any person having a member of the same party as his or her immediate
superior
I. Half the total number of the staff members in all three offices are belonging
to a single party.
J. Half the staff members within a given office belonging to a parties different
from the party of the top office holder in that office
8. the office of the Army Chief of Staff passes from the Conservative to the justice
party. Which of the following must be fired?
F. The Democratic deputy and all staff members belonging to the justice party.
G. The Justice party deputy and all his or her staff members
H. The Justice party deputy and half of the Conservative staff members in the chief of
staff office
I. The Conservative deputy and all of his or her staff members belonging to the
Conservative Party
J. No deputies, and all staff members belonging to the Conservative Party
(3) Tom wishes to enroll in Latin, Sanskrit, Armenian Literature and Celtic Literature.
Latin meets five days a week, either from 9 to 11 am or from 2 to 4 p.m.
Sanskrit meets either Tuesday or Thursday from 12 noon to 3 p.m. or Monday, Wednesday
and Friday from 10 am to 12 noon
Armenian Literature meets Monday, Wednesday and Friday from 12:30 to 2 p.m. and
Thursday from 10:30 am to 12:30 p.m.
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Celtic Literature meets by arrangement with the instructor, the only requirement being that
it meet for one four hour session or two, two hour sessions per week, between 9am and 4
p.m. from Monday to Friday, beginning on the hour
1. Which combination is impossible for Tom?
F. Latin in the morning, Sanskrit on Tuesday and Armenian Literature on Monday,
Wednesday and Friday.
G. Latin in the afternoon and Sanskrit and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday
and Friday.
H. Latin in the afternoon, Sanskrit on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday and
Armenian Literature on Tuesday and Thursday.
I. Latin in the afternoon and Sanskrit and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday
and Friday
J. Latin in the morning, Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday and Friday and
Celtic Literature on Tuesday.
2. Which of the following gives the greatest number of alternatives for scheduling Celtic
Literature, assuming that all other courses are scheduled without conflicts?
F. Latin in the afternoon and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday and Friday
G. Sanskrit on Tuesday and Thursday and Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday
and Friday.
H. Latin in the afternoon and Armenian Literature on Tuesday and Thursday.
I. Latin in the morning and Sanskrit on Tuesday and Thursday
J. Sanskrit on Monday, Wednesday and Friday and Armenian Literature on Tuesday and
Thursday.
3. If the Celtic instructor insists on holding at least one session on Friday in which of the
following can Tom enroll?
Armenian Literature on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday
Sanskrit on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday

F. I only
G. II only
H. Both I and II
I. I or II but not both
J. Neither I nor II
4. Which of the following additional courses, meeting as indicated can Tom take?
F. Old Church Slavonic- Monday, Wednesday, and Friday from 10 am to 12 noon
G. Intermediary Aramaic- Monday, Wednesday, and Friday form 11 am to 12:30 p.m.
H. Introductory Arcadian Tuesday and Thursday from 2 to 4 p.m.
I. Fundamentals of Basque- Tuesday and Thursday from 1 to 3 p.m.
J. Old- Norse Icelandic- Monday only from 12 to 3 p.m.
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TCS TALENT TEST 022

PART I
(201) CHASTE
(A) loyal (B)timid (C)curt (D)pure (E)outspoken
(202) CHIDE
(A) unite (B)fear (C)record (D)skid (E)scold
(203) CHIMERICAL
(A) developing (B)brief (C)distant (D)economical (E)fantastic
(204) CHOLERIC
(A) musical (B)episodic (C)hotheaded (D)global (E)seasonal
(205) CHURLISH
(A) marine (B) economical (C)impolite (D)compact (E)young
(206) CILIATED
(A) foolish (B)swift (C)early (D)constructed (E)hairy
(207) CIRCUITIOUS
(A) indirect (B)complete (C)obvious (D)aware (E)tortured
(208) CITE
(A) galvanize (B)visualize (C)locate (D)quote (E)signal
(209) CLANDESTINE
(A) abortive (B)secret (C)tangible (D)doomed (E)approved
(210) CLAUSTROPHOBIA
(A) lack of confidence
(B)fear of spiders (C)love of books (D)fear of grammar
(E)fear of closed places
(211) LOUTISH
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(A) boisterous (B)provocative (C)calamitous (D)sophisticated (E)insightful

(212) ENIGMATIC
(A) talkative (B)oppressed (C)easily understood (D) easily avoided(E)very common
(213) RECALCITRANT
(A) polished (B)feckless (C)yielding (D)somber (E)miserly
(214) MITIGATE
(A) intensify (B)defend (C)mire (D)frequent (E)coax
(215) TREPIDATION
(A) contempt (B)restlessness (C)rancor (D)vigilance (E)courage
(216) PRECIPITOUS
(A) well-planned (B)gargantuan (C)prolific (D)credence (E)inception
(217) PROCLIVITY
(A) prodigality (B)avoidance (C)credence (D) calumny (E)inception
(218) TENOUS
(A) unseemly (B)inherited (C)substantial (D)forlorn (E)awkward
(219) SALIENT
(A) concealed (B)inclined (C) stagnant (D) blameworthy (E)omnipotent
(220) ENERVATE
(A) invigorate (B)contemplate (C)necessitate (D)evaluate (E)elucidate
__25____ and now that women- enough to make a difference- ______26_________,
J. has been the fight for womens independence
K. sexual antagonism that about in modern literature
L. noting instances of hostility between man and women
M. the new balance between the sexes.
N. are reforming canons and interpreting literature
O. see in literacy works depends on the perspectives we bring to them
P. modernist writers and search for equality
Q. against mans domination one of their greatest and deepest themes
R. the interest in feminist issues is not now.
Whether as result of some mysterious tendency in the national psyche or as a
spontaneous reaction to their turbulent historical experience after the breakup of the
Mycenaean world, the Greeks felt that to live with changing, undefined, unmeasured,
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235
seemingly random impressions - to live, in short, with what was expressed by the Greek
word chaos-was to live in a state of constant anxiety.
In the apparent mutability of the physical world and of the human condition was
a source of pain and bewilderment to the Greeks, the discovery of permanent pattern or
an unchanging sub stream by which apparently chaotic experience could be measures and
explained was a source of satisfaction, even joy, which had something of a religious
nature. For the recognition of order and measure in phenomena did more than simply
satisfy their intellectual curiosity or gratify a desire for tidiness; it also served as the basic
of a spiritual ideal. Measure and commensurability are everywhere identified with
beauty and excellence. Was Platos way of putting it in dialogue in which measure is
identified as a primary characteristic of the ultimate good. Rational definability and
spirituality were never mutually exclusive categories in Greek thought. If the quest for
order and clarity was in essence the search for a kind of spiritual ideal, it was not an ideal
to be perceived in rapturous emotional mysticism but rather one to be arrived at by
patient analysis.
We see this process at work especially in Greek philosophy, which in various
ways was aimed at alleviating the anxiety that is inherent in the more spontaneous
expression of lyric poetry. The Milesian philosophers of the sixth century were interested
above all in discovering a primary substance from which all other phenomena could be
explained. Neat, clear, and sublimely undisturbed by the social world of humanity, which
took shape and dissolved within the natural order of things, it was an austere ideal, an
astringent antidote to the apparent senselessness of life. The persons who contemplated it
deeply could feel a part of a great system that was impersonal but predictable, and, like
Lucretius, who revived the Milesian attitude in a later age, he or she could derive a
peculiar peace from it. As time passed and Greek philosophy developed, the urge to find
order in experience was shifted from physics to the realm of mathematical abstraction by
the Pythagoreans, and to the world of human behavior by various thinkers of the later
fifth century; and, finally, Plato and Aristotle attempted to weave all these foci of interest
into comprehensive pictures of the relationship between human life and the world, as a
whole. But in all these epochs the basic quest- the search for a kosmos-remained the
same.
(27) The authors primary purpose is to
A. evaluate conflicting viewpoints
B. challenge an accepted opinion
C. question philosophical principles
D. enumerate historical facts
E. describe a cultural phenomenon
(28) The author indicates that the discovery of an unchanging substratum served
primarily to
A. alter the Greeks perception of the mutability of existence
B. help eradicate severe social problems
C. alleviate painful memories of national suffering
D. calm a restless intellectual curiosity
E. foster a more mystical understanding of the physical world
(29) It can be inferred from the passage that rational thought and spiritual ideals were
categories of experience that were
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A. unimportant and unfamiliar to most ordinary Greeks

B. advocated by the Milesians and rejected by the Pythagoreans
C. neglected by most philosophers before Plato and Aristotle
D. seen by the Greeks as essentially compatible
E. embraced mainly Greek poets
(30)
All of the following can be inferred about the Greeks anxiety over the possibility
of chaos EXCEPT that it
A. has source sin their national consciousness
B. was reflected in specific aspects of their religion
C. was related to their sense of change in the physical world
D. led to striving for order in their philosophy
E. was expressed in their lyric poetry
(31)
The author implies that the Milesian philosophers of the sixth century sought
relief from worldly anxiety by
A. focusing narrowly on inherently human questions
B. establishing sharp distinctions between spiritual and rational understanding
C. focusing primarily on an impersonal natural order
D. attempting to integrate rational and mystical worldviews
E. withdrawing from the physical world into the realm of mathematical
abstraction.
(32) Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage (For ----Thought)?
A. The author summarizes two view points, cites historical evidence, and then
declines to support either of the viewpoints
B. The author makes an observation, admits to evidence that weakens the view
points and then revises his observation
C. The author specifies two distinct arguments, examines both in details, then
advances a third argument that reconciles the other two
D. The author clarifies a previous statement, offers an example, and then draws a
further conclusions based on these ideas.
E. The author states a thesis, mentions an opposed thesis, and cites evidence
supporting it, and then restates his original thesis.
PART II
Q1.
Q2.
Q3.
Q4.

9
10
11
13
15
??
21
28
(a) 18 (b) 16 (c) 19 (d) 20 (e) 17
Y next to it if the Y is not followed by a U next to it.
V Y V U Q M V Y U M Y V Y Y V Q M V V
Y Q V Y U Y V A M Y V Y M
(a)2 (b)3 (c)5 (d)4 (e) 6
If CSFBUI is coded as BREATH how will DPWFS be coded?
(a) COVER (b)TRIAL
(c) SHEET
(d)MIND
(e)CIGAR
Suppose the first and second letters in the word SIMULTANEOUSLY were
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237
(a) L
(b) I
(c) M
(d) O
(e) U
Q5.
Q6.
(a) 133
(b) 119
(c) 121
(d) 127
(e) 139
Q7.
a.
n / 76
b.
n / 42
c.
n / 35
d.
n / 60
e.
n / 78
Q8.
a.
4148
b.
4196
c.
4198
d.
4096
e.
4248
Q9.
(a)
ORACLE
(b)
ARP
(c)
INGRESS
(d)
DB2
(e)
SYBASE
Q10. (a)
JAVA
(b)
LISP
(c)
EIFFEL
(d)
SMALLTALK (e)
C++
Q11.
Q12.
Q13.
(a)
(90,31,69) (b)
(60,90,30) (c)
(74,66,40)
(d)
(70,60,50) (e)
(80,60,40)
(a) (8,12,6) (b) (8,6,12) (c) (12,8,6) (d) (6,6,6) (e) (8,6,8)
(a)
4, -4, 4, -4, 4, -4
(b)
4, 0, -4, 4, 0, -4 (c) 4, 4, 4, 0, 4, 4
(d)
4, 4, 4, 4, 4, 4
(e)
-4, -4, -4, -4, -4, -4
The three circles below represent the number of people speaking Japanese,
Chinese and French. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
14
49
45
Japanese
Chinese
12
16
13
51
French
Q14.
How many more (or less) people speak Chinese than people who speak Japanese?
(a)2 (b)3 (c)1 (d)4 (e)6
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238
Q15.
Q16.
What percentage of people speaking French can also speak Japanese but not
Chinese?
(a) 12.5
(b) 13.9
(c) 17.4
(d) 16.8
(e) 12
(a)5 (b)4 (c)6 (d)7 (e)8
140
Executives
12%
120
100
Members (in "00s)
80
Others
8%
Businessmen
60
Q17.
Q18.
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.
Q23.
Q24.
55%
Doctors
Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth
25% in members?
(a) 1996
(b)
2004
(c)
1998
(d)
1995
(e) 1992
20
40

(a) 84000
(b) 8800
(c) 8900
(d) 7800
(e) 6600
If 10% of members
in
1998
left
the
Club,
how
many
fresh
members
were made in
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
1999?
(a)4900
(b) 5100
(c) 4600
(d) 4400
(e) 3400
(a)Time
(b) Power
A can do a piece of work in 20 days and B can do it in 12 days. B worked at it for
9 days. In how many days A alone can finish the remaining work?
(a)6 (b)5 (c)8 (d)12 (e)9
21
15
-1 7
3 2
0 3
A=
B=
C=
D=
7
5
0 6
5 9
3
0
(i)
Male Boy
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
Basmati Wheat
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Snake Reptile
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Roof Building
(4)
Superset of
% # % (5) + # % # (2)?
(a)2 (b)4 (c) 3 (d)5 (e)6
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239
Q25.
Q26.

g(0) = 1;
g(1) = -1
g(n) = g(n-1) + g(n-2)
(a)-2 (b)2 (c)-3 (d)4 (e)6
X
0.99
10.04
99.98
1000
9990
Y
0.00001
1.02
1.997
3.0
4.004

Q27.
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
Q31.
Q32.

(a)1325
(b) 1455
(c)1345
(d) 1457
(e) 1453
A = 3i+5j, B = i+j , C = 5i-3j, D = -7i+j
M(737,9) + R(3.4) + T(7.7) - R(5.8) where
(a)24 (b)14 (c) 12 (d)18 (e)8
(a) 58%
(b)64%
(c) 46%
(d) 44%
(e) 56%
Class exam
Final exam
Y
3
1.4
3.5
1.65
Find the Class exam score of a student
7 who has scored zero in the Final exam.
(a)0.3 (b)0.1 (c)0.2 (d)-0.2
(e)0.5
6 shown below:
What equation best describes the curve
5
4
3
2
1
X
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240
(a)y = tan x
Q33.
Q34.
Q35.
(b) y = ex
(c)y + x = 0
(d) y = Cos x (e) y + 3 = x

(a)22.5%
(b) 33.3%
(c) 36%
(d) 32%
(e) 28%
landing at B?
A
B
C
A B C)
0
0
0
0
0
1
0
1
0
0
1
1
1
0
0
1
0
1
1
1
0
1
1
1
decimal value.
Q36.
Q37.
(a)4 (b)5 (c)6 (d)2 (e)3

(a) 10.11 N (b) 10.011 N (c) 11.01 N (d)11.011 N (e)10.101 N
(a) 0.75%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 1% (d) 0.5%
(e) 2%
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(a) 450
(b) 3900
(c) 2800
(d) 2100
(e) 1800
PART III
(1) Joe, Larry, Ned, Mary, Paul, Willy, Crystal, Albert, Bob, Frank, Ellen, and Rick all live
in the same 6-floor building. There are 2 apartments per floor. No more than 2 persons live
in any apartment.
Some apartments may be empty.
Larry and his roommate live 2 floors above Albert and his room mate Crystal.
Joe lives alone, 3 floors below Willy and 2 floors below Ellen.
Mary lives one floor below Albert and Crystal
Ned lives three floors above the floor on which Bob and Frank have single apartments
Rick and Paul live in single apartments, 2 floors below Mary
1. Which of the following lists the persons named in the correct order, going from the
bottom floor to the top?
F. Rick, Bob, Mary, Albert, Larry, Ned
G. Rick, Frank, Ned, Ellen, Larry, Crystal
H. Paul, Bob, Joe, Crystal, Ned, Larry
I. Larry, Ellen, Albert, Mary, Frank, Rick
J. Larry, Joe, Mary, Albert, Bob, Rick
2. Which of the following pairs must live on the same floor?
IV.
Ned, Ellen
V.
Joe, Mary
VI.
Albert, Larry
F. I only
G. III only
H. I and II only
I. II and III only
J. I, II and III
5. Rick lives on the
F. First floor below Bob and Frank
G. Second floor, below Joe or Albert and Crystal
H. Third floor, above Mary and Ellen
I. Fourth floor, opposite Albert and Crystal
J. Sixth floor, opposite, Larry and his roommate.
6. Joe arranges to move into an apartment two floors down, whose occupant moves into
an apartment one floor up. The occupant of this apartment moves into one 3 floors up,
whose occupant takes Joes old apartment. The new occupant of Joes old apartment is:
Bob or Frank
Ned or Ellen
Mary
Rick
Paul
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242
(2) Eight varsity baseball players (G,H, J, K, L, M, N, O) are to be honored at a special

ceremony. Three of these players (H, M and O ) are also varsity football players.
Two of them (K and N) are also basketball players on the varsity team.
In arranging the seats it was decided that no athlete in 2 sports should be seated next to
another 2 sport athlete.
1. Which of the following combinations is possible in order to have the arrangement of
seat assignments as planned?
HGKJ
HKJL
JKMN
JLHK
LKNJ
2. Which of the following cannot sit next to M?
F. G
G. J
H. G and J
I. K
J. L
5. Before all the athletes are seated, there are two vacant either side of N. Which two
athletes may occupy these seats?
F. G and K
G. G and L
H. J and H
I. L and O
J. M and J
6. To have the proper seating arrangement, K should sit between:
F. G and H
G. J and M
H. L and N
I. J and N
J. J and L
(3). To obtain a visa for the Republic of Nimrod, an applicant must appear in person at the
Nimrodian Consulate and show a U.S. birth certificate or naturalization papers, a certificate
of vaccination for swamp fever and a notarized bank statement showing a balance in excess
of $ 1,000. Bank statements are available during normal business hours (Monday through
Friday, 9am to 3 p.m. at most banks, which also have a notary on staff).
Vaccinations are routinely performed at Alabaster Hospital, adjacent to the Nimrodian
Consulate, on Wednesday s form noon to 5 p.m. They are performed at Beryl clinic, an
hours travel away from the consulate, on Mondays and Thursdays from 9 am to noon and
on Fridays form 4 to 5 p.m. Copies of U.S. birth certificates are issued on Mondays and
Thursdays form 9 to 5 and copies of naturalization papers are issued on Tuesdays and
Fridays form 9n to 5. The Nimrodian Consulate is open on Mondays, Wednesdays and
Fridays and from noon to 4 p.m.
1. Which of the following can complete the entire application procedure in the shortest
time?
F. A native born U.S. citizen starting Monday
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G. A naturalized U.S. citizen starting Tuesday morning

H. A native born U.S. citizen starting Wednesday morning
I. A naturalized U.S. citizen starting Thursday
J. A native born U.S. citizen starting Friday
2. If a native born U.S. citizen begins the application procedure by going for a copy of
her birth certificate at noon on Thursday, the earliest she can finish will be:
F. Friday morning
G. Friday afternoon
H. The following Monday afternoon
I. The following Tuesday afternoon
J. The following Wednesday afternoon
3. Mr. Niktos bank, situated in the suburbs one hours travel form any other office that
must be visited, issues statements only Tuesdays form 4 to 5 p.m. If Mr. Nikto completes
the entire application procedure within 3 hours, he is
F. A naturalized U.S. citizen who began by getting vaccinated.
G. A native born U.S. citizen who began by getting a bank statement
H. A naturalized U.S. citizen who began by getting naturalization papers
I. A native born U.S. citizen who began by getting a birth certificate
J. A naturalized U.S. citizen who began by getting a bank statement
4. Alabaster Hospital closes because of cuts in government funding. Thereafter, a
naturalized U.S. citizen who begins the application procedure at noon on Tuesday can
complete it no sooner than
F. Tuesday
G. Wednesday
H. Thursday
I. Friday
J. Monday
TCS TALENT TEST 023
PART I
(221) CLEFT
(A) split (B)waterfall (C)assembly (D)adherence (E)surplus
(222) CLICH
(A) increase (B)vehicle (C)morale (D)platitude (E)pique
(223) COERCE
(A) recover (B)begin (C)force (D)license (E)ignore
(224) COGNIZANCE
(A) policy (B)knowledge (C)advance (D)omission (E)examination
(225) COHERE
(A) hold together (B)occur simultaneously (C) recollect (D)materialize (E)understand
(6)
DAZE
(A) to trick (B) lease (C) steal (D)stun (E)clarify
(7)
ATTENUATED
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244
(A) coarse (B) anxious (C) thin (D) eager (E) possibility
(8)
SCATHING
(A) sharp (B)steep (C)stingy (D)scornful (E) generate
(9)
ICON
(A) symbol (B)document (C) portrayal (D) fashionable (E) scent
(10) FRAUGHT
(A) full of (B)manufactured (C)empty (D)bitter
(E)superstition
(11) LAPIDARIAN
(A) inelegant (B) proximity (C) augmentation (D) orderliness (E) inclination
(12) PAGAN
(A) tell the truth (B) respond as expected (C) religious (D) collect (E) shrink
(13) PROSPEROUS
(A) disengage (B) impoverished (C) refute thoroughly (D) answer hypothetically (E)
consider genuinely
(14) SPENDTHRIFT
(A) postpone (B) dissemble (C) miserly (D) prohibit (E) justify
(15) SYNERGY
(A) salvage (B)decelerate (C) confusion (D) distract (E) anchor
(16) DEPENDABILITY
(A) savant (B) unorganized (C) whiner (D) irresponsible (E) capable
(17) HESITANT
(A) confident (B) diligently (C) clumsily (D)gloomily (E) respectfully
(18) DEMONIC
(A) haughty (B) divine (C) frivolous (D) tentative (E) rough
(19) FASCINATE
(A) depressed (B) normality (C) mundane (D) questionable (E) methodical
(20) AMICABLE
(A) antipathy (B) dishonest (C) inexperience (D) languor (E) rancor
see whether your sympathies are not almost entirely with Clytemnestra. D.H.Lawrance
images of __24_____ have gone un-remarked for from it. But what we are able to
S. has been the fight for womens independence
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245
T. sexual antagonism that about in modern literature

U. noting instances of hostility between man and women
V. the new balance between the sexes.
W. are reforming canons and interpreting literature
X. see in literacy works depends on the perspectives we bring to them
Y. modernist writers and search for equality
Z. against mans domination one of their greatest and deepest themes
AA. the interest in feminist issues is not now.
The history of mammals dates back at least to Triassic time. Development was
retarded, however, until the sudden acceleration of evolutional change that occurred in
the oldest Paleocene. This led in Eocene time to increase in an average size, larger mental
capacity, and special adaptations for different modes of life. In the Oligocene Epoch,
there was further improvement, with appearance of some new lines extinction of others.
Miocene and Pliocene time was marked by culmination of several groups and continued
approach toward modern characters. The peak of the career of the mammals in variety
and average large size was attained in the Miocene.
The adaptation of mammals to almost all possible modes of life parallels that of
the reptiles in Mesozoic time, and except for greater intelligence, the mammals do not
seem to have done much better than corresponding reptilian forms. The bat is doubtlessly
a better flying animal than the pterosaur, but the dolphin and whale are hardly more fish
like than the ichthyosaur. Many swiftrunning mammals excel any of the dinosaurs. The
tyrannosaur was a more ponderous and powerful carnivore than any flesh-eating
mammal, but the lion or tiger is probably a more efficient and dangerous beast of prey
because of a superior brain. The significant point to observe is that different branches of
the mammals gradually fitted themselves for all sorts of life, grazing on the plains and
able to run swiftly (horse, deer, bison), living in rivers and swamps ( hippopotamus,
beaver), dwelling in trees(sloth, monkey), digging underground(mole, rodent), feeding on
flesh in the forest(tiger) and on the plain (wolf), swimming in the sea(dolphin, whale,
seal) and flying in the air(bat). Man is able by mechanical means to conquer the physical
world and to adapt himself to almost any set of conditions.
This adaptation produces gradual changes of form and structure. It is biologically
characteristic of the youthful, plastic stage of a group. Early in its career, an animal
assemblage seems to possess capacity for change, which, as the unit becomes old and
fixed, disappears. The generalized types of organisms retain longest the ability to make
adjustments when required, and it is from them that new, fecund stocks take origincertainly not from any specialized end products. So, in the mammals, we witness the
birth, plastic spread in many directions, increasing specialization, and in some branches
the extinction, which we have learned from observation of the geologic record of life is a
characteristic of the evolution of life.
(27)
Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?
(F) From Dinosaur to Man
(G) Adaptation and Extinction
(H) The Superiority of Mammals
(I) The Geologic Life Span
(J) Man, Conqueror of the Physical World.
(28) It can be inferred from the passage that the chronological order of the geologic
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periods is
(F) Paleocene, Miocene, Triassic, Mesozoic
(G) Paleocene, Triassic, Mesozoic, Miocene
(H) Miocene, Paleocene, Triassic, Mesozoic
(I) Mesozoic, Oligocene, Paleocene, Miocene
(J) Mesozoic, Paleocene, Eocene, Miocene
(29)
It can be inferred from the passage that the pterosaur
(F) resembled the bat
(G) was a Mesozoic mammal
(H) was a flying reptile
(I) lived in the sea
(J) evolved during the Miocene period
(30) According to the passage, the greatest number of forms of mammalian life is
found in the
(F) Triassic period
(G) Eocene period
(H) Oligocene epoch
(I) Pliocene period
(J) Miocene period
(31) Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the statement made by the
author?
(F) Tyrannosaur had been found to have a larger brain than was previously though
(G) Mammals will become extinct within the next thousands years.
(H) Forms of flying ichthyosaurs have recently been discovered.
(I) The tiger has been proved to be more powerful than the carnivorous reptiles
(J) Computers have been developed that can double human mental capacity
(32) It can be inferred format he passage that the evidence the author uses in discussing
the life of the past time periods.
(F) Was developed by Charges Darwin.
(G) Was uncovered by the author
(H) Had been negated by more recent evidence
(I) Was never definitely established
(J) Is based on fossil remains.
PART II
Q1.
Q2.
Q3.

8
10
11
12
17
??
26
22
(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 16 (d) 21 (e) 22
K next to it if the K is not followed by a D next to it?
V K V D Q M V K D M K V K K V Q M V
V K Q V K D K V A M K V K M
(a)5 (b)6 (c)7 (d)4 (e)8
If EUHDWK is coded as BREATH how will FRYHU be coded?
(a)SHEET
(b)TRIAL
(c) COVER (d)MIND
(e)CIGAR
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247
Q4.
Suppose the first and second letters in the word SIMULTANEOUSLY were
(a) T
(b) I
(c) M
(d) L
(e) U
Q5.
(a) 1342
(b) 1324
(c) 1234
(d) 1564
(e) 1664
Q6.
(a) 113
(b) 121
(c) 129
(d) 127
(e) 119
Q7.
(a)
n / 130
(b)
n / 156
(c)
n / 45
(d)
n / 33
(e)
n / 20
Q8.
a.
4148
b.
4196
c.
4096
d.
4244
e.
4248
Q9.
(a)
ARP
(b)
ORACLE
(c)
INGRESS
(d)
DB2
(e)
SYBASE
Q10. (a)
JAVA
(b)
SMALLTALK (c)
EIFFEL
(d)
C++
(e)
LISP
(a)
(30,81,79) (b)
(60,90,30) (c)
(74,66,40)
(d)
(70,60,50) (e)
(80,60,40)
(a) (12,8,6) (b) (8,6,12)
(c) (8,12,4) (d) (6,8,6) (e) (4,6,8)
(a)
-5, -5, -5, -5, -5, -5
(b)
5, -5, 5, -5, 5, -5 (c) 5, 0, -5, 5, 0, -5
(d)
5, 5, 5, 5, 5, 5
(e)
5, 5, 5, 0, 5, 5
The three circles below represent the number of people speaking Punjabi, Hindi
and Gujarati. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
14
49
45
Gujarati
Punjabi
12
16
13
51
Hindi
318737514.doc
248
Q14.
Q15.
Q16.
How many more (or less) people speak Punjabi than people who speak Gujarati?
(a)2 (b)3 (c)1 (d)5 (e)6
What percentage of people speaking Hindi can also speak Gujarati but not
Punjabi?
(a)12.4 (b)13.6
(c)17.4 (d)14
(e) 18
(a)3 (b)4 (c)6 (d)8 (e)9
The figure on the left represents number of members in a Social Group and the
figure on the right depicts profession wise distribution for 1998
140
Executives
12%
120
100
Others
8%
80
Businessmen
Members (in "00s)

60
55%
Doctors
25%
40
20
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Q17.
Q18.
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.

(a) 1886
(b) 1996
(c) 1778
(d) 1456
(e) 1608
(a) 2340
(b) 7800
(c) 8800
(d) 7800
(e) 4500
made in 1999?
(a) 8700
(b) 4600
(c) 4400
(d) 4900
(e) 6400
(a) Mass
(b) Power
A can do a piece of work in 24 days. If B is 60% more efficient than A, then the
number of days required by B to do the same piece of work is:
(a)16 (b)15 (c)18 (d)24 (e)12
14 6
36
24
1 0
10 12
A=
B=
C=
D=
4
3
9
6
1 2
3
4
318737514.doc
249
Q23.
Q24.
Q25.
Q26.

(i)
Male Boy
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
Oven Building
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Square Polygon
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Word Sentence
(4)
Superset of
% # % (7) + # % # (2)?
(a)2 (b)3 (c) 4 (d)5 (e)6
g(0) = 1;
g(1) = -1
g(n) = g(n-1) + g(n-2)
(a)3 (b)2 (c)6 (d)-2 (e)5
XXXVIII.
X
0.99
10.04
99.98
1000
9990
Q27.
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
Q31.
Y
0.00001
1.02
1.997
3.0
4.004

(a) 1256
(b) 1345
(c) 1365
(d) 1246
(e) 2314
A: 3x+5y-7 = 0, B: y = -x , C: 5x = 3y+5, D: y = 7x+3
(a)AC (b)AD (c)BC (d)CD (e)DB
M(737,9) + R(5.8) + T(7.7) - R(3.4) where
(a)12 (b)16 (c) 18 (d)17 (e)19
(a)46%
(b) 58%
(c)64%
(d) 48%
(e) 50%
Hour
Declination
2
8o 6 43.5
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4
7o 53 6.1
(a) 7o 59 54.8 (b) 7o 56 54.5 (c) 9o 46 33.5 (d) 7o16 12.5 (e) 8o 39 28.7
Q32.
Y
1
0.5
0
X
100
200
-0.5
-1
Q33.
Q34.
Q35.
(a)y = tan x (b) y = Cos x (c)y + x = 0 (d) y + 3 = x (e) y = ex

(a)20.9%
(b) 34%
(c) -19.8%
(d) 26%
(e) 36%
o
o
landing at B?
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A
B
C
A B C)
0
0
0
0
0
1
0
1
0
0
1
1
1
0
0
1
0
1
1
1
0
1
1
1
decimal value.
Q36.
Q37.
(a)1 (b)3 (c)5 (d)4 (e) 2

(a) 10.11 N (b) 11.011 N (c) 11.01 N (d) 10.011 N (e)10.101 N
The storage space required is given by the function P(N) = 4000 N, where N is
the number of boxes used. Find the percentage change in storage if the number of
boxes is increased by 1%.
(a) 0.5%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 0.75%
(d) 1%
(e) 2%
(a) 1800
(b) 3900
(c) 2800
(d) 2100
(e) 2700
XXXIX.
PART III
(1). The organiser of local 58 of the hospital workers is forming a 5-person team to leaflet
a nearby hospital. The team must contain 2 persons to distribute leaflets, one speaker to
address the workers who stop, and a 2-person defense squad.
A, B, and C are possible leafletters; C, D and E are possible speakers; F, G and H are
possible members of the defense guard. A and C prefer to work with each other on the
same team. E prefers to work only if F works.
1. Which is a possible team if all preferences are respected.
(F) A, B, C, D, F
(G) A, C, D, E, F
(H) A, B, C, F, G
(I) A, C, E, G, H
(J) B, C, D, F, G
2. Which choice of personnel is impossible if all preferences are respected?
(F) A and B as leafletters, C as a speaker
(G) B and C as leafletters
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(H) A and C as leafletters, F and H on defense

(I) Either D or E as speaker, with F on defense
(J) G and H on defense
3. If A and B are leafletters and all prefernces are respected, which is/ are true?
IV.
C is the speaker
V.
F is on defense
VI.
Either F or G is on defense
(F) I only
(G) II only
(H) III only
(I) I and II only
(J) I and III only
4. How many different possible teams can the organizer assemble, if all preferences are
respected?
(F)
5
(G)
8
(H)
9
(I)
13
(J)
15
(2) Delegations from Wallachia and Rumelia are meeting to discuss military, trade and
diplomatic problems. Each delegation consists of a chairperson, , 2 military attachs and 2
trade experts. The Wallachian delegation consists of A, B, C, D and E ; the Rumelian
delegation of F, G, H, I and J.
11) A insists on being seated at the opposite end of the table from B
12) G, who is deaf in his right ear, must be at the right end if the table.
13) Neither D nor F is a chairperson
14) The Wallachian military attachs, one of whom is B, are seated together, and neither is
opposite either of the Rumelian military attachs, neither of whom is G.
15) C, a trade expert, is seated opposite H.
1. F may be a:
F. trade expert seated next to I
G. military attach seated next to I
H. military attach seated next to J
I. trade expert seated next to H
J. trade expert seated opposite B
F. The identity of the Wallachian chairperson
G. The identity of the Rumelian chairperson
H. The identities and the positions of the Wallachian military attaches
I. Which delegate is immediately to the right of the Wallachian chairperson?
J. Which delegate is immediately to the right of the Rumelian chairperson?
5. If J is a military attach, which of the following must be true?
J. The Rumelian chairperson is I
II F a trade expert
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III I is a trade expert

A.I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
6. Which of the following can be deduced form the introductory paragraph plus
statements ( 1), (2), (4), (5) only?
F The identities of the Rumelian trade experts

G The identifies of the Wallachian military attachs
H The identity of the Wallachian chairperson
I Which two delegates are seated between G and H?
J Which two delegates are seated between B and C?
(3) Byram and Adoniram are code clerks at the Pentagon. They are also secret agents for
foreign governments. One is in the pay of the Sulgravians and the other is in the pay of the
Carolingians. If a document is stolen, it will take four days to reach the Sulgravian
government and 5 days to reach the Carolingian government
Byram is given top secret documents to encode on October 19 and 22.
Adroninan is given a top-secret document to encode on October 21.
Byram and Adoniram have lunch together on October 20.
Agents of foreign governments do not transmit documents directly to governments that do
not employ them, but may sell documents to an agent of another government. An agent
who transmits a document always does so on the day he receives it.
1. If Adroninan is working for the Sulgravians, the Sulgravian government may receive
documents on:
I. October 24
II. October 25
III. October 26
(F)
I only
(G)
III only
(H)
I and II only
(I)
II and III only
(J)
I, II, and III
2. A top-secret document is received by thee Carolingians on October25. It could have
been:
(F)
stolen and transmitted by Byram
(G)
stolen and transmitted by Adoniram
(H)
stolen by Adoniram and sold to Byram , who transmitted it
(I)
stolen by Byram and sold to Adoniram, who transmitted it
(J)
stolen by either Byram or Adoniram and sold to the other , who transmitted it.
3. If Adoniram is working for the Carolingians, which must be true?
(F)
The Sulgravians may receive documents only on October 23
(G)
The Carolingians may receive documents only on October 26
(H)
The Sulgravians may receive documents only on October 24, 26, and 27.
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(I)
(J)
The Carolingians may receive documents only on October 24, 25 and 26

No documents received by the Sulgravians can have been bought at Byram and
Adonirams lunchtime meeting.
4.Which of the following is /are possible given the conditions as stated?
J. Documents are received by one of the governments, 2 days in a row.
II. Documents are received by both the governments, 2 days in a row
Documents are received by one of the governments, 3 days in a row.
(F)
I only
(G)
III only
(H)
I and III only
(I)
I, II and III
(J)
TCS TALENT TEST 024
PART I
1. PITHY
(A) ridiculous (B) indecent (Cconcise
(D) determined (E) credence
2. ISOTROPIC
(A) feeling cold (B)being isolated (C)showing warmth (D)having uniformity (E)
creating wealth
XL. 3. AEGIS
(A) protection (B)dramatic poem (C) channel (D)framework (E) creation
4. DOCILE
(A) peaceful (B)submissive (C)amorous (D) ineffectual (E) probability
5. VERACITY
(A) speed (B)beauty (C) truthfulness(D)energy (E) tenacity
6. PARADOX
(A) similarity (B)ambiguity (C)polarity (D)perpetuity (E) troublesome
7. PARLEY
(A) invitation (B) attack (C) defense (D) conversation (E) niche
8.VITIATE
(A) corrupt (B)enlighten (C)strengthen (D)start (E) observe
9. HILARIOUS
(A)glum (B)gay (C)cool (D)angry (E) temperament
10. EXPOUND
(A) ridicule (B) disagree (C) elucidate (D) confuse (E) irritate
(11) ASPERITY
(A) smoothness (B)fabrication (C)duplication (D)indolence (E)intercession
(12)
IGNOMINIOUS
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(A) melancholy (B)cantankerous (C)symmetrical (D)honourable (E)calamitous

(13)
EVANESCENT
(A) indulgent (B)obsequious (C)permanent (D)illimitable (E)serendipitous
(14)
DIFFIDENCE
(A) strong action (B)violent disagreement (C)haughty arrogance (D)grievous error
(E)temporary suspension
(15)
SEDULOUS
(A) tangential (B)rampant (C)esoteric (D)morose (E)indolent
(16)
OBDURATE
(A) ambiguous (B)demoralized (C)vitriolic (D)malleable (E)inimitable
(17)
MUTINOUS
(A) routine (B)clever (C)obedient (D)helpful (E)pitiful
(18)
TEMERITY
(A) fortitude (B) capacity (C)interest (D)caution (E)relevance
(19)
TRACTABLE
(A) incoherent (B)advisable (C)simplistic (D)influential (E)uncooperative
(20)
INSOUCIANT
(A) amiable (B) fretful (C)swift (D)inferior (E)formidable
BB. has been the fight for womens independence
CC. sexual antagonism that about in modern literature
DD. noting instances of hostility between man and women
EE.the new balance between the sexes.
FF. are reforming canons and interpreting literature
GG. see in literacy works depends on the perspectives we bring to them
HH. modernist writers and search for equality
II. against mans domination one of their greatest and deepest themes
JJ. the interest in feminist issues is not now.
Plato who may have understood better what forms the mind of man than do some of
our contemporaries who want their children exposed only to real people and everyday
events- knew what intellectual experiences make for true humanity. He suggested that the
future citizens of this ideal republic begin their literary education with the telling of
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myths, rather than with mere facts or so-called rational teachings. Even Aristotle, master
of pure reason, said: The friend of wisdom is also a friend of myth.
Modern thinkers who have studied myths and fairy tales from a philosophical or
psychological viewpoint arrive at the same conclusion, regardless of their original
persuasion. Marcia Elide, for one, describes these stories as models for human behavior
that, by that very fact, give meaning and value to life. Drawing one anthropological
parallel, he and others suggest that myths and fairy tales were derived from, or give
symbolic expressions to, initiation rites or rites of passage- such as metaphoric death of
an old, inadequate self in order to be reborn on a higher plane of existence. He feels that
this is why these tales meet a strongly felt need and are carriers of such deep meaning.
Other investigators with a depth-psychological orientation emphasize the similarities
between the fantastic events in myths and fairy tales and those in adult dreams and
daydreams- the fulfillments of wishes, the winning out over all competitors, and the
destruction of enemies- and conclude that one attraction of this literature is its expression
of that which is normally prevented from coming to awareness.
There are, of course, very significant differences between fairy tales and dreams. For
example, in dreams more often than not the wish fulfillment is disguised, while in
fairy tales much of it is openly expressed. To a considerable degree, dreams are
the result of inner pressures which have found no relief, of problems which beset
a person to which he knows no solution and to which the dream find none. The
fairy tale does the opposite: it projects the relief of all pressures and not only
offers a way to solve problems but promises that a happy solution will be
found.
We cannot control what goes on in our dreams. Although our inner censorship
influences what we may dream, such control occurs on an unconscious level. The fairy
tale, on the other hand, is very much the result of common conscious and unconscious
content have been shaped by the conscious mind, not of one particular person, but the
consensus of many in regard to what they view as universal human problems and what
they accept as desirable solutions. If all these elements were not present in a fairy tale, it
would not be retold by generation after generation. Only if a fairy tale met the conscious
and unconscious requirements of many people was it repeatedly retold, and listened to
with great interest. No dream of a person could arouse such persistent interest unless it
was worked into a myth, as was the story of the pharaohs dream as interpreted by Joseph
in the Bible.
(27)
It can be inferred from the passage that the authors interest in fairy tales centers
chiefly on their
F. literary qualities.
G. Historical background
H. Factual accuracy
I. Psychological relevance
J. Ethical weakness
(28) According to the passage, fairy tales differ from dreams in which of the following
characteristics?
I.
The communal nature of their creation.
II.
Their convention of a happy ending.
III.
Their enduring general appeal
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(F) I only.
(G) II only
(H) I and II only
(I) II and III only
(J) I,II, and III
(29)
It can be inferred from the passage that Mircea Eliade is most likely
(F) A writer of childrens literature
(G) A student physical anthropology.
(H) A twentieth- century philosopher
(I) An advocate of practical education.
(J) A contemporary of Plato.
(30) Which of the following best describes the authors attitude toward fairy tales?
(F) Reluctant fascination
(G) Wary skepticism
(H) Scornful disapprobation
(I) Indulgent tolerance
(J) Open approval
(31)
The author quotes Plato and Aristotle primarily in order to
(F) Define the nature of myth.
(G) Contrast their opposing points of view.
(H) Support the point that myths are valuable.
(I) Prove that myths originated in ancient times.
(J) Give an example of depth psychology.
(32) The author mentions all of the following as reasons for reading fairy tales
EXCEPT
(F) emotional catharsis,
(G) behavioral paradigm
(H) uniqueness of experience
(I) sublimation of aggression
(J) symbolic satisfaction.
PART II
Q1.
Q2.
Q3.
Q4.
Q5.

7
8
9
10
12
??
16
17
(a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 13 (d) 11 (e) 15
D next to it if the D is not followed by a S next to it.
V D V S Q M V D S M D V D D V Q M V
V D Q V D S D V A M D V D M
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d)4 (e) 3
If AFOJUI is coded as ZENITH how will DPWFS be coded?
(a) COVER (b)TRIAL
(c) SHEET
(d)MIND
(e)CIGAR
Suppose the first and second letters in the word PSYCHIATRIST were
(a) T
(b) P
(c) Y
(d) C
(e) S
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(a)
(b)
(c) Base - 5
(d)
(e)
Q6.
(a) 125
(b) 129
(c) 121
(d) 127
(e) 119
Q7.
(a)
n / 65
(b)
n / 78
(c)
n / 45
(d)
n / 66
(e)
n / 20
Q8.
a.
4148
b.
4096
c.
4198
d.
4244
e.
4048
Q9.
(a)
ORACLE
(b)
WAP
(c)
INGRESS
(d)
DB2
(e)
SYBASE
Q10. (a)
JAVA
(b)
SMALLTALK (c)
LISP
(d)
EIFFEL
(e)
C++
(a)
(30,71,79) (b)
(60,90,30) (c)
(33,67,40)
(d)
(70,60,50) (e)
(80,60,40)
(a) (12,8,6) (b) (8,6,12)
(c) (8,12,4) (d) (8,6,8) (e) (12,6,8)
(a)
5, 0, -5, 5, 0, -5
(b)
5, 5, 5, 0, 5, 5 (c)
-5, -5, -5, -5, -5, -5
(d)
5, 5, 5, 5, 5, 5
(e)
5, -5, 5, -5, 5, -5
The three circles below represent the number of people speaking Punjabi, Hindi
and Gujarati. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
Q14. How many more (or less) people speak Punjabi than people who speak Gujarati?
14
49
45
Gujarati
Punjabi
12
16
13
51
Hindi
Q15.
Q16.
(a)2 (b)3 (c)4 (d) 1 (e)5

What percentage of people speaking Hindi can also speak Gujarati but not
Punjabi?
(a)15.6 (b)13.6(c)14.4 (d)16.4(e) 17.4
(a)5 (b) 6 (c)8 (d)9 (e)12
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The figure on the left represents number of members in a Social Group and the
140
Executives
12%
120
100
Members (in "00s) 80
Others
8%
Businessmen
60
55%
Doctors
25% in members?
Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth
(a) 199620
(b) 1998
(c) 1994
(d) 2006
(e) 1992
40
Q17.
Q18.
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.
Q23.
Q24.
Q25.

(a) 4800 0
(b) 7600
(c) 8800
(d) 7800
(e) 5600
1995
1996
1997
1998
1999
made in 1999?
(a) 4500
(b) 5400
(c) 4800
(d) 5600
(e) 4900
(Momentum x Velocity)
(Force x Time)
(a)Time
(b) Power
A is twice as good a workmen as B and together they finish a piece of work in 14
days. In how many days can A alone finish the work?
(a)24 (b)21 (c)27 (d)34 (e) 32
14 6
18
12
1 0
10 12
A=
B=
C=
D=
4
3
9
6
1 2
3
4
(i)
Male Boy
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
Bug Reptile
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Beagle Dog
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Piston Engine
(4)
Superset of
% # % (9) + # % # (2)?
(a)4 (b)6 (c) 5 (d)8 (e)9
g(0) = 1;
g(1) = -1
g(n) = 2 * g(n-1) 3 * g(n-2), where * stands for multiplication
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Q26.
Q27.
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
Q31.
Q32.

(a)-2 (b)3 (c)4 (d)1 (e)2
XLI. X
Y
0.99
0.00001
10.04
1.02
99.98
1.997
1000
3.0
9990
4.004
address of X (1,1) is 1258, what would be the last byte address of X(5, 8)?
(a)1506
(b) 1405
(c)1609
(d) 1508
(e) 1569
A: 3x+5y-7 = 0, B: x+y = 0 , C: 3y-5x+5 = 0, D: y = 7x+3
(a)AC (b)BC (c) AD (d) DC (e) BD
M(843,9) + R(3.4) + T(7.7) - R(5.8) where
(a)11 (b)12 (c) 10 (d)21 (e) 24
(a) 45.6%
(b) 34.6%
(c) 56.8%
(d) 54.6%
(e) 60%
Hour
Declination
2
8o 6 43.5
4
7o 39 28.7
(a) 7o 53 6.1 (b) 7o 56 54.5 (c) 9o 46 33.5 (d) 7o16 12.5 (e) 8o 39 28.7
Y
1
0.5
0
X
100
200
-0.5
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261
(a)y = tan x
Q33.
Q34.
Q35.
(b) y + 3 = x (c) y = Cos x (d) y + x = 0 (e) y = ex

(a)24%
(b) 29.4%
(c) -20.9 % (d) -19.8%
(e) 23.6%
o
o
landing at B?
A
B
C
(A B ) C
0
0
0
0
0
1
0
1
0
0
1
1
1
0
0
1
0
1
1
1
0
1
1
1
decimal value.
Q36.
Q37.
(a)3 (b)5 (c)6 (d)4 (e)8

(a) 10.11 N (b) 11.011 N (c) 11.01 N (d) 10.011 N (e)10.101 N
(a) 0.75%
(b) 0.5%
(c) 0.25%
(d) 1% (e) 2%
Q38.
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(a) 450
(b) 3900
(c) 1800
(d) 2100
(e) 2700
PART III
(1) Ashland is north of East Liverpool and west of Coshocton
Bowling Green is north of Ashland and west of Fredricktown
Dover is south and east of Ashland
East Liverpool is north of Fredricktown and east of Dover
Fredricktown is north of Dover and west of Ashland
Coshocton is south of Fredricktown and west of Dover.
1. Which of the towns mentioned is furtherest to the northwest?
(F) Ashland
(G) Bowling Green
(H) Coshocton
(I) East Liverpool
(J) Fredricktown
2. Which of the following must be both north and east of Fredricktown
I. Ashland
II. Coshocton
III. East Liverpool
(F) I only
(G) II only
(H) III only
(I) I and II
(J) I and III
town?
(F) Ashland only
(G) Ashland and Fredricktown
(H) Dover and Fredricktown
(I) Dover, Coshocton and Fredricktown
(J) Coshocton, Dover and East Liverpool.
(F) Coshocton is north of Dover
(G) East Liverpool is north of Denver
(H) Ashland is east of Bowling Green
(I) Coshocton is east of Fredricktown
(J) Bowling Green is north of Fredricktown
(2) Spelunkers International offers exploring tours in eight caves: Abbott, Benny, Caeser,
Dangerfield, Ewell, Fields, Guinness and Hope.
7) Class 1 spelunkers may not attempt cave Ewell, Fields or Hope
8) Class 2 spelunkers may not attempt cave Hope
9) Class3 spelunkers may not attempt any cave
10) Cave Caesar may not be attempted only by spelunkers who have previously explored
cave Benny
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11) Cave Fields may be attempted only by spelunkers who have previously explored cave
Ewell.
12) Only two caves Benny, Caesar, Ewell , Fields and Hope may be attempted by any
explorer in a single tour.
1. Which tour is allowed for a class 2 spelunker who has never explored any of the eight
caves before, if the caves are attempted in the order listed?
(F)
Abbott, Fields, Ewell, Benny
(G)
Dangerfield, Guinness, Caesar, Benny
(H)
Guiness, Ewell, Dangerfield, Benny, Abbott
(I)
Dangerfield, Ewell, Fields, Abbott, Caesar
(J)
Guinness, Ewell, Fields, Dangerfield, Benny.
2. A class 2 spelunker who has previously explored cave Ewell may be restricted in
choosing a tour by which rule(s)?
Rule 4
II. Rule 5
Rule 6
(F)
I only
(G)
II only
(H)
I and III only
(I)
II and III only
(J)
I, II and III
3. In how many different ways may a class 1 spelunker who has never explored any of the
eight caves before set up a tour of 3 caves, if she wishes to explore caves Abbott and
Caesar?
(F)
2
(G)
3
(H)
4
(I)
5
(J)
6
4. What is the maximum number of caves that a class spelunker who has previously
explored only cave Benny mat include in a single tour?
(F)
4
(G)
5
(H)
6
(I)
7
(J)
8
(2) Mr. Pesth, foreman for Buda Construction company is hiring 5 persons to do plumbing
and wiring on a site. He must have a minimum of 2 electricians. 9 persons are sent by
the union hiring hall: Mike, Nick and Olive are electricians, while Rich, Steve, Tom,
Ulysses, Vic and Wassily are plumbers.
Pesth is unwilling to hire Ulysses and Vic together, because he knows from past
experience that they fight all the time.
Steve and Tom are buddies and will only work together.
Olive wont work with Rich.
1. If Mike, Nick and Olive are hired, the team of plumbers can consist of
(K)
Steve and Tom only
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(L)
Steve and Tom or Ulysses and Vic together.
(M) Ulysses and Wassily or Vic and Wassily
(N)
Steve and Tom or Ulysses and Wassily or Vic and Wassily
(O)
Steve and Tom and either Ulysses, Vic or Wassily
2. Pesth has the greatest number of choices for hiring as plumbers if the electricians he
chooses are
(K)
Mike, Nick and Olive
(L)
Mike and Nick
(M) Mike and Olive
(N)
Nick and Olive
(O)
Either Mike or Nick plus Olive
3. If Rich is hired, the other persons hired must be:
(K)
Mike, Nick, Steve and Tom
(L)
Mike , Nick, Olive and either Ulysses, Vic or Wassily
(M) Mike and Nick, together with either Steve and Tom or Ulysses and Vic or Vic and
Wassily
(N)
Mike and Nick, together with either Ulysses and Vic or Vic and Wassily.
(O)
Mike and Nick, together with either Steve and Tom, Ulysses and Wassily, or Vic
and Wassily.
4. Which of the following statements is true?
J. If only 2 electricians are hired, the plumbers must include Steve and Tom
II. If Olive is not hired, Rich must be hired.
III. If either Mike or Nick is not hired, Steve and Tom must be hired.
(F)
I only
(G)
II only
(H)
III only
(I)
I and III only
(J)
II and III only
TCS TALENT TEST 025
PART I
(1) RETROGRADE
(A) progressive (B) inclined (C) concentric (D) directive (E)propel
(2)SALIENT
(A) insignificant (B) climatic (C) pure (D) radical (E) time-consuming
(3)TENDER
(A) demote (B) truncate (C) retract (D) soft (E) tumultuous
(4) TRANSIENT
(A) carrying (B) certain (C) permanent (D) removed (E)confiscate
(5) WHIMSICAL
(A) chivalrous
(B) perfect (C) predictable (D) hidden (E) specify
(6) RUPTURE
(A) break (B) continue (C)enthusiasm (D) happiness (E) clarity
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(7) REVOCABLE
(A) alterable (B)awakened (C) final (D) called upon (E) splendour
(8) SLUMP
(A) calm (B) safe (C) prosperous (D) waste (E) mountain
(9) TRANSLUCENT
(A) clear
(B) opaque (C) movement
(D) efficient (E) telepathy
(10) DANGLE
(A) sound (B) ornament (C) small (D) secure (E) detour
(11) INURED
(A) authoritative (B)dissolute (C)bereft (D) sensitive (E)taxing
(12) IRASCIBLE
(A) even-tempered (B)well-informed (C)repetitious (D)motionless (E)synchronous
(13) EXONERATE
(A) testify (B)engender (C)accuse (D)inundate (E)abrogate
(14) ALACRITY
(A) skullduggery (B)reluctance (C)interment (D)bellicosity (E)specificity
(15) REVERE
(A) collide (B)succumb (C)threaten (D)divide (E)despise
(16) BOORISH
(A) juvenile (B)well-mannered (C)weak-minded (D)unique (E)concealed
(17) WHIMSICAL
(A) chivalrous (B)perfect (C)predictable (D) hidden (E)backward
(18) NASCENT
(A) fully developed (B)extremely valuable (C)well-regarded (D)informative
(E)measurable
(19) EXTRANEOUS
(A) outlandish (B)tumultuous (C)impetuous (D)central (E)guarded
(20) RENOWN
(A) suggestiveness (B) superficially (C) anonymity (D)deviousness (E)valour
_____24______. The market, too, provides powerful incentives to exploit arid
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If the United States is, as it appears, well on its way towards overdrawing the arid land
GG.
Federal grazing fees that are well below the free market price encourage
HH.
And when commodity prices are relatively low, arid-land ranchers and
farmers often have to use all their available financial resources to stay solvent
II. Government Programs provide irrigation and water delivery system
JJ. Then the policy choice is simply to pay now for the appropriate remedies or pay
far moir later
KK.
Several million acres of natural grassland are eroding at unnaturally high
rates as a result of cultivation or overgrazing.
LL.Policies help the farmers to obtain loans for their crops
MM.
Groundwater supplies beneath vast stretches of land are dropping
precipitously.
NN.
Low interest loans for irrigation and other water delivery systems
encourage farmers, industry, and municipalities to mine groundwater.
Of the 197 millions square miles making up the surface of the globe, 71 percent
covered by the interconnecting bodies of marine water; the Pacific Ocean alone covers
half of the Earth and averages nearly 14,000 feet in depth. The continents- Eurasia,
Africa, North America, South America, Australia, and Antarctica- are the portions of the
continental masses rising above sea level. The submerged borders of the continental
masses are the continental shelves, beyond which lie the deep-sea basins.
The oceans attain their greatest depths not in their central parts, but in certain
elongated furrows, or long narrow troughs called deeps. These profound troughs have a
peripheral arrangement, notably around the borders of the Pacific and Indian Oceans. The
position of the deeps near the continental masses suggests that the deeps, like the highest
mountains, are of recent origin, since otherwise they would have been filled with waste
from lands. This suggestion is strengthened by the fact that the deeps are frequently the
sites of world-shaking earthquakes. For example the tidal wave that in April, 1946,
caused widespread destruction along Pacific coasts resulted from a strong earthquake on
the floor of the Aleutian Deep.
The topography of the ocean floors is none too well known, since in great areas the
available soundings are hundreds or even thousands of miles apart. However, the floor of
the Atlantic is becoming fairy well known as a result of special surveys since 1920. A
broad, well-defined ridge- the Mid Atlantic ridge- runs north and the south between
Africa and the two Americas, and numerous other major irregularities diversify the
Atlantic floor. Closely spaced surroundings show that many parts of the oceanic floors
are as rugged as mountainous regions of the continents. Use of the recently perfected
methods of echo sounding is rapidly enlarging our knowledge of submarine topography.
During World War II great strides were made in mapping submarine surfaces, particularly
in many parts of the vast Pacific basin.
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The continents stand on the average 2870 feet-slightly more than the half a mileabove sea level. North America averages 2300 feet: Europe averages only 1150 feet; and
Asia, the highest of the larger continental sub divisions, averages 3200 feet. The highest
point on the globe Mount Everest in the Himalayas, is 29,000 feet above the sea; and as
the greatest known depth in the sea is over 35,000 feet, the maximum relief(that is, the
difference in altitude between the lowest and highest points) exceeds 64,000 feet, or
exceeds 12 miles. The continental masses and the deep-sea basins are relief features of
the first order; the deeps, ridges, and volcanic cones that diversify the sea floor as well as
the plains, plateaus, and mountains of the continents, are relief features of the second
order. The lands are unendingly subject to a complex of activities summarized in the term
erosion, which first sculptures them in great details and then tends to reduce them
ultimately to sea level. The modeling of the landscape by weather, running water and
other agents is apparent to the keenly observant eye and causes thinking people to
speculate on what must be the final result of the ceaseless wearing down of the lands.
Long before there was a science of geology, Shakespeare wrote the revolution of the
times makes mountains level.
(27)
Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?
(F) Features of the Earths Surface.
(G) Marine Topography
(H) The Causes of Earthquakes.
(I) Primary Geologic Considerations.
(J) How to prevent Erosion.
(28) It can be inferred from the passage that the largest ocean is the
(F) Atlantic
(G) Pacific
(H) Indian
(I) Antarctic
(J) Arctic
(29)
The revolution of the times as used in the final sentence means.
(F) The passage of years
(G) The current rebellion
(H) The science of geology.
(I) The action of the ocean floor
(J) The overthrow of natural forces.
(30) According to the passage, the peripheral furrows or deeps are found.
(F) Only in the Pacific and Indian oceans
(G) Near earthquakes
(H) Near the shore
(I) In the center of the ocean
(J) To be 14,000 feet in depths in the Pacific,
(31) The passage contains information that would answer which of the following
questions?
I. What is the highest point on North America?
II. Which continental subdivision is, on the average, 1150 feet above the sea level?
III. How deep is the deepest part of the ocean?
(F) I only
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(G) II only
(H) III only
(I) I and II only
(J) II and III only
(32)
From this passage, it can be inferred that earthquakes
(F) Occur only in the peripheral furrows.
(G) Occurs more frequently in newly formed land or sea formations
(H) Are a prime cause of soil erosion
(I) Will ultimately make mountain level
(J) Are caused by the weight of the water.
PART II
Q1.

8
9
10
11
13
??
17
18
a)12 (b) 23 (c) 14 (d)16 (e)25
Q2.
an F next to it if the F is not followed by a S next to it.
V F V S Q M V F S M F V F F V Q M V
V F Q V F S F V A M F V F M
(a)5 (b)6 (c)7 (d)4 (e)3
Q3.
If CHQLWK is coded as ZENITH how will FRYHU be coded?
(a)SHEET
(b)TRIAL
(c) COVER (d)MIND
(e)CIGAR
Q4.
Suppose the first and second letters in the word PSYCHIATRIST were
(a) T
(b) I
(c) Y
(d) C
(e) S
Q5.
(a) 1234
(b) 1324
(c) 1342
(d) 1568
(e) 1452
Q6.
(a) 513
(b) 511
(c) 517
(d) 509
(e) 499
Q7.
(a)
n / 130
(b)
n / 38
(c)
n / 45
(d)
n / 78
(e)
n / 20
Q8.
a.
4148
b.
4048
c.
4198
d.
4244
e.
4096
Q9.
(a)
ORACLE
(b)
INGRESS
(c)
WAP
(d)
DB2
(e)
SYBASE
Q10. (a)
UNIX
(b)
WINDOWS NT
(c)LINUX
(d)
MVS
(e)
JAVA
(a)
(30,71,79) (b)
(60,90,30) (c)
(73,67,40)
(d)
(70,60,50) (e)
(80,55,55)
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Q12.
Q13.
(a) (8,8,6)
(b) (8,6,4) (c) (12,8,6) (d) (6,6,6) (e) (4,6,8)
(a)
5, -5, 5, -5, 5, -5
(b)
5, 0, -5, 5, 0, -5 (c) 5, 5, 5, 0, 5, 5
(d)
5, 5, 5, 5, 5, 5
(e)
-5, -5, -5, -5, -5, -5
FOOTBALL, HOCKEY. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram
14
49
45
CRICKET
HOCKEY
12
16
13
51
FOOTBALL
Q14.
How many more (or less) people who play HOCKEY than people who play
CRICKET?
(a)2 (b)5 (c)1 (d)7 (e)3
Q15.
What percentage of people playing FOOTBALL also play CRICKET but not
HOCKEY?
(a)14 (b)10 (c)12.4 (d) 17.4
(e) 13.6
Q16.
What percentage of total people plays all three games?

(a)8 (b)5 (c)6 (d)9 (e)10
The figure
140 on the left represents number of members in a Social Group and the
Executives
12%
120
100
Others
8%
80
Businessmen
60
55%
Doctors
25%
40
20
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270
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Members (in "00s)
Q17.
Q18.
Q19.
Q20.
Q21.
Q22.
Q23.
Q24.
Q25.
Q26.

(a) 1564
(b) 1996
(c) 1998
(d) 1994
(e) 2004
(a) 7800
(b) 6800
(c) 8800
(d) 5600
(e) 7600
made in 1999?
(a) 3400
(b) 4900
(c) 5600
(d) 6800
(e) 4500
(Momentum X Velocity)
( Force X Time )
(a)Time
(b) Power
A is twice as good a workmen as B and together they finish a piece of work in 14
days. In how many days can A alone finish the work?
(a)22 (b)34 (c)21 (d)14 (e)16
14 6
15
25
1 0
10 12
A=
B=
C=
D=
4
3
3
5
1 2
3
4
(i)
Male Boy
(1)
Not a type of
(ii)
Mushroom Vegetable
(2)
Part of
(iii)
Panda Bear
(3)
A type of
(iv)
Oxygen Water
(4)
Superset of
% # % (11) + # % # (2)?
(a)3 (b)5 (c) 6 (d)7 (e)8
g(0) = 1;
g(1) = -1
g(n) = 3 * g(n-1) 2 * g(n-2), where * stands for multiplication
(a)34 (b)25 (c)-23 (d)-29 (e)-34
318737514.doc
271
Q27.
Q28.
Q29.
Q30.
Q31.
XLII. X
Y
0.99
0.00001
10.04
1.02
99.98
1.997
1000
3.0
9990
4.004
address of X (1,1) is 1258, what would be the last byte address of X(5, 8)?
(a) 1456
(b) 1564
(c) 1689
(d) 1456
(e) 1243
A: 3x+5y-7 = 0, B: y = -x , C: y = 7x+3, D: 5x = 3y+5
(a)AD (b)AC (c)AB (d)BC (e)DB
M(843,9) + R(5.8) + T(7.7) - R(3.4) where
(a)12 (b)18 (c) 16 (d)15 (e)14
(a) 60.2%
(b) 34.6%
(c) 56.4%
(d) 56.8%
(e) 54.6%
X
3.142
3.143
Find log103.141.
(a) 0.49706 (b) 0.59720
Q32.
log10X
0.4972061807
0.4973443810
(c) 0.49110
(d) 0.49420
(e) 0.49440
Y the curve shown below:

What equation best describes
1
0.5
0
X
100
200
-0.5
-1
318737514.doc
272
(a)y = tan x (b) y + 3 = x (c)y + x = 0 (d) y = Cos x (e) y = ex

Q33. The temperature at Chennai is given by the function: -t 2/6+4t+12 where t is the
(a) 23.5%
(b) 33%
(c)-32.5%
(d) 20%
(e) 46%
landing at B?
A
0
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
B
0
0
1
1
0
0
1
1
C
0
1
0
1
0
1
0
1
(A B ) C
decimal value.
Q36.
Q37.
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7 (e) 9

(a) 10.11 N (b) 11.011 N (c) 11.01 N (d) 10.011 N (e)10.101 N
(a) 0.75%
(b) 0.25%
(c) 0.5%
(d) 1%
(e) 2%
Q38.
(a) 450
(b) 3900
(c) 1800
(d) 2100
(e) 2700
PART III
(16) John is undecided which of the 4 popular novels to buy. He is considering a spy
thriller, a murder mystery, a Gothis romance and a science fiction novel. The books are
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273
written by Rothko, Gorky, Burchfield and Hopper, not necessarily in that order and
published by Heron, Pigeon, Bluejay and Sparrow, not necessarily in that order.
5. The book by Rothko is published by Sparrow.
6. The spy thriller is published by Herono
7. The science fiction novel is by Buchfield and is not published by Bluejay
8. The Gothic romance is by Hopper.
1. Pigeon publishes:
(F)
The murder mystery
(G)
The science fiction novel
(H)
The spy thriller
(I)
The Gothic romance
(J)
The novel by Rothko
2. The novel by Gorky is:
(F)
A science fiction novel published by Bluejay
(G)
A Gothic romance published by Bluejay
(H)
published by Heron and is a murder mystery
(I)
published by Pigeon and is a Gothic romance
(J)
published by Heron and is a spy thriller
3. John purchases books by the 2 authors whose names come first and third in alphabetical
order. He does not buy:
(F)
the murder mystery
(G)
the book published by Pigeon
(H)
A science fiction novel
(I)
the book published by Bluejay
(J)
the Gothic romance
5. On the basis of the first paragraphs and statements (2), (3), and (4) only , it is possible
to deduce that
Rothko wrote the murder mystery or the spy thriller
Sparrow published the murder mystery or the spy thriller
The book by Burchfield is published by Sparrow or Pigeon
(F)
I only
(G)
II only
(H)
III only
(I)
I and III only
(J)
I, II and III
(2) On Sunday, December 23, four ships were berthed at the New York City Municipal Pier
at West 55 Street. All four ships were beginning their series of winter cruises to various
ports in the Atlantic and the Caribbean.
Ship W left at 4 p.m. on Sunday, December 23, for a series of 8 day cruises to Bermuda and
Nassau.
Ship X left at 4:30 p.m. on Sunday, December 23, for a series of alternating 11 and 13 day
cruises.
Ship Y sailed at 5 p.m. on Sunday, December 23, for a series of 5 day cruises to Bermuda
Ship Z sailed on Monday, December 24, for a series of 7 day cruises to Nassau.
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Each cruise officially begins on the day after the departure. Each ship is scheduled to return
to New York City early in the morning after the last day of the cruise and leave again late in
the afternoon of the same day.
1. On December 31, which ships will be sailing from New York on a New Years Eve
cruise?
(F) W and X
(G) X and Y
(H) W and Z
(I) X and Z
(J) X, Y and Z
2. On how many occasions between Dec. 24 and Feb. 28 will 3 ships be moored at the pier?
(F) 0
(G) 1
(H) 2
(I) 3
(J) 4
3. On which day of the week will these four ships make most of their departures?
(F) Sunday
(G) Monday
(H) Tuesday
(I) Thursday
(J) Saturday
4.On which days of the week in the period between Dec.24 and Feb. 28 will the pier be
least crowded?
(F) Tuesday and Friday
(G) Tuesday and Thursday
(H) Friday and Saturday
(I) Wednesday and Thursday
(J) Thursday and Saturday
(3) Observance of Memorial Day, which falls on Saturday this year will be as follows for
the tristate area (New Albion, New Shetland, New Wales):
Banks and government departments which are normally open on Saturdays will close.
Those normally closed on Saturdays will close as follows:
Banks will close Friday in Wales and Monday in New Shetland.
State government offices will close Friday in New Albion and New Shetland.
Sanitation pick up in Monday-Wednesday-Friday pick up areas will be cancelled Friday in
New Albion and New Shetland, and Monday in New Wales; pick up in Tuesday-ThursdaySaturday in all three states.
The post office and other federal offices, normally open Monday through Saturday, will be
closed Saturday but open Friday and Monday in all three states.
(Banks are normally open Saturday only in New Albion; state government offices are
normally open Saturday only in Wales.
1. Which is not available Friday, Saturday, or Monday in New Wales?
(F)
Banking services
(G)
State government office services
(H)
Sanitation pickup in some areas
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275
(I)
Postal services
(J)
Federal government office services.
2. Mrs. Semkow goes to the post office, the bank and the state income tax bureau on
Monday. She mat live in:
J. New Albion
II. New Shetland
New Wales
(F)
I only
(G)
II only
(H)
I and III only
(I)
II and III only
(J)
I, II or III
3. Mr. Rudolph find all but one of the listed services available Friday. He lives in:
(F)
New Albion or New Shetland
(G)
A Monday-Wednesday-Friday pick up area in New Wales
(H)
Any new area in New Albion or New Wales
(I)
A Tuesday-Thursday-Saturday pick up area in any of the other three states
(J)
A Monday-Wednesday-Friday area in New Albion
4.In which area(s) is there no deviation from normal service on Monday for any of the
services listed?
(F)
All of New Albion
(G)
Monday-Wednesday-Friday pick up areas in New Albion and New Wales
(H)
Tuesday-Thursday-Saturday pick up areas in New Shetland and New Wales
(I)
All of New Wales
(J)
Monday-Wednesday-Friday areas in New Shetland
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Tcs Talent Test 001

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TCS TALENT TEST 001

(A) slowness (B)permanence (C)lack of caution (D)desire for perfection

(A) resembled the bat

Fill in the missing number in the sequence

Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth?

In what fundamental units would this quantity be expressed?

Which of these matrices is singular

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) None

(a) y = logn x (b) y = log10 x (c) y = ex (d) y = -log10 x (e) y = - ex

(a)5 (b)7 (c) 6 (d)8 (e)9

(a) x + y = 0 (b) y + 3 = x (c) y = tan x (d) y = Cos x (e) y = ex

E. II and III only

TCS TALENT TEST 002

(A) narrate (B)enrage (C)accomplish (D)invigorate (E)acquiesce

(A) a writer of childrens literature

Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth in members?

(d) i-3,ii-2,iii-1,iv-4 (e) i-1,ii-4,iii-3,iv-2

(a) y = logn x (b) y = log10 x (c) y = ex (d) y = -log10 x (e) y = - ex

What equation best describes the curve shown below:

(a)y = tan x (b) y + 3 = x (c)y + x = 0 (d) y = ex

The productivity of a group of workers is given by the function

Sanskrit on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday

(A) The passage of years

Pick the odd one out

Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth in members?

(a) y = logn x (b) y = log10 x (c) y = ex (d) y = -log10 x (e) y = - ex

The hourly declination of moon for a given day is as follows:

What equation best describes the curve shown below:

(a)y = tan x (b) y + 3 = x (c)y + x = 0 (d) y = ex

(a)57 (b)54 (c)51 (d)59 (e)56

II and III only

(D) II and III only

Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth in members?

(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D (e) None

f(n) = 3 * f(n-1) 2 * f(n-2), where * stands for multiplication

A Two-dimensional array X(7,9) is stored linearly column-wise in a computer's

(d) y = Tan x (e) y = ex

The temperature at Kolkata is given by the function: -t2/6+4t+12 where t is the

(a)51 (b) 59 (c)63 (d)68 (e)55

VIII. PART III

The identities of the Rumelian trade experts

TCS TALENT TEST 005

If n = 10 x 18 x 38, which of the following is NOT an integer?

Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth in distributors?

(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D (e) None

(a) y = logn x (b) y = log10 x (c) y = ex (d) y = -log10 x (e) y = - ex

(a)y = tan x (b) y + 3 = x (c) y = log10 x(d) y = Cos x (e) y + x = 0

(a)15 (b)16 (c)18 (d)19 (e)21

(C) Ashland is east of Bowling Green

TCS TALENT TEST 006

(E) Strikingly productive

Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth in distributors?

Match the following relationships:

(a) y = logn x (b) y = log10 x (c) y = ex (d) y = -log10 x (e) y = - ex

A Two-dimensional array X(7,9) is stored linearly column-wise in a computer's

(d) y = log10 x (e) y = Cos x

The temperature at Kolkata is given by the function: -t2/6+4t+12 where t is the

(a)12 (b)15 (c)17 (d)18 (e) 19

TCS TALENT TEST 007

(A) lackluster (B)heartless

(C)diffident (D)constant (E)cordial

Distributors (in "00s

Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth in distributors?