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cash
The binary tree describing a riskless The evolution of a riskless bonds price
bond, shown at right, is degenerate:
return
whether the stock moves up or
up
down, the bond produces a guaran1 + rt
teed return (1 + rt), as shown at
down
right. The returns of the riskless
bond have zero volatility. By adding
t
a riskless bond with zero volatility
to the stock of volatility and
expected return , you commensurately reduce both the risk and return of your
investment.
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up
w ( t + t ) + ( 1 w )rt
0.5
w * stock + (1 - w) * cash
0.5
w ( t t ) + ( 1 w )rt
down
Eq.2.1
Assuming our invariance principle, all stocks or portfolios of stocks must have
the same Sharpe ratio , and so
r =
Eq.2.2
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Eq.2.3
1. Spelled out in more detail in Section 2 of The Perception of Time, Risk and
Return During Periods of Speculation, Quantitative Finance Vol 2 (2002)
282296, or http://www.ederman.com/new/docs/qf-market_bubbles.pdf
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If you know the price of a simple stock, whose payoff is linear, what is the value of the nonlinear
option? What is the value of curvature?
S
$100
1 + rt
1 + rt
u and d .
CU
C
CD
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call
call S + K
call S
is same as a put
collar
LB
UB
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Generalized payoffs:
Suppose you can approximate the payoff at a fixed single time in the future as
a piecewise-linear payoff function of the terminal stock price S that is defined
by its intercept and successive slopes as in the following payoff diagram:
payoff F(S)
slope
0
intercept I
0
K0
K1
K2
ZCB ( I ) + 0 S + ( 1 0 )C ( K 0 ) + ( 2 1 )C ( K 1 ) + ...
and the value of this generalized payoff is the value of the bond and the calls in
the market.
You can check that, for example, between K1 and K2, the payoff of the portfolio above is
I + 0 S + ( 1 0 ) ( S K0 ) + ( 2 1 ) ( S K1 )
= I + 0 K0 + 1 ( K1 K0 ) + 2 ( S K1 )
which is the correct intercept and the correct slope.
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classes of scenarios for the stock price paths: scenario 1 in which the barrier is
avoided and the option finishes in-the-money; and scenario 2 in which the barrier is hit before expiration and the option expires worthless. These are shown
in Figure 2.1 below.
FIGURE 2.1. A down-and-out European call option with B = K.
scenario 1:
barrier avoided
value = S - K
stock
price
B=K
knockout barrier
scenario 2 :
barrier hit
value = 0
expiration
time
In scenario 1 the call pays out S' K , where S' is the unknown value of the stock
price at expiration. This is the same as the payoff of a forward contract with
delivery price K. This forward has a theoretical value F = Se dt Ke rt ,
where d is the continuously paid dividend yield of the stock. You can replicate
the down-and-out call under all stock price paths in scenario 1 with a long
position in the forward.
For paths in scenario 2, where the stock price hits the barrier at any time t'
before expiration, the down-and-out call immediately expires with zero value.
In that case, the above forward F that replicates the barrier-avoiding scenarios
of type 1 is worth Ke dt' Ke rt' . This matches the option value for all barrierstriking times t' only if r = d. So, if the riskless interest rate equals the dividend
yield (that is, the stock forward is close to spot1), a forward with delivery price
K will exactly replicate a down-and-out call with barrier and strike at the same
level K, no matter what.
When the stock hits the barrier you must sell the forward to end the trade.
1. In late 1993, for example, the S&P dividend yield was close in value to the short-term
interest rate, and so this hedge might have been applicable to short-term down-and-out
S&P options
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2.4.1 The (assumed) stochastic behavior of stock prices: geometric Brownian motion
S + S t
volatility of returns
dS
------ = dZ
S
S S t
t
Therefore, over a small instant of time t, a stock with volatility will generate a move S = S t .
A stock S is a primitive, linear underlying security If you own a stock
worth S, you profit if it goes up, lose if it goes down. You have a linear position
in S.
If you are long an option, you
can profit no matter whether
the stock goes up or down!
Look at a call with the payoff
on the right. The call has curvature, or convexity.
call option
C
S
stock price
You profit on an up-move, lose nothing on a down move. What is the fair price
for C(S,K,t,T)?
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C
t
t +
S, t
C
S
S +
S, t
C
S
2
S, t
( S )
-------------- + . .
2
Eq.2.4
This is a quadratic function of S. The linear term behaves like the stock price
itself, the quadratic terms increases no matter what the sign of the move in S.
If you were long the call C, you could hedge away the linear term in S if you
C
C
by shorting that many shares of the stock. ( =
is
S
S
dimensionless, a number.) The the resultant profit and loss of the hedged
option position looks like this:
knew the derivative
long call
C(S)
short stock
C
=
S
S
long a call and short shares of stock
produces a curved hedged payout.
1
2
P&L --- ( S )
2
positive
curvature
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2 2
( S ) = S t .
1
1
2
2 2
Change in value from the movement in stock price --- ( S ) = --- ( S t )
2
2
Change in value from passage of time = ( t ) where =
C
t
Then, from Equation 2.4, the total change in value of the hedged position is
1
2 2
dP&L = d ( C S ) = --- ( S t ) + ( t )
2
There is nothing stochastic about this; all dependence on the uncertain moves
of S have cancelled out to leading order in the Taylor series. If we think we
know the future volatility , then we know exactly how far the stock will move
over time t, even though we dont know its direction. The potential profit and
loss is completely deterministic, irrespective of the direction of the stock price
move.
Since the hedged portfolio is riskless, an investment in it behaves exactly like
an investment in a short-term riskless bond. The principle of no riskless arbitrage dictates that hedged portfolio and the riskless bond should have the same
current value. In this example with zero interest rates, the riskless bond generates no interest, so its final value and initial value are identical. Therefore the
final value of the hedged portfolio must be identical to its initial value, and so
1 2 2
+ --- S = 0
2
Eq.2.5
Written out in full, this is the Black-Scholes equation for zero interest rates:
2
C 1 2 2 C
+ --- S
= 0
2
t 2
S
Eq.2.6
The Black-Scholes equation relates the decay of an options value over time to
its curvature and the expected stock volatility S. The solution is:
C BS ( S, K, , t, T ) = SN ( d 1 ) KN ( d 2 )
2
ln ( S K ) 0.5 ( T t )
d 1, 2 = -------------------------------------------------------- Tt
1
N ( z ) = ---------2
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Eq.2.7
y 2
dy
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C BS
= N ( d1 )
S
Eq.2.8
The options tells you how many shares to short of the stock so as to remove
the linear exposure of the option so you can trade its quadratic part.
When the riskless rate r is non-zero, we will show in a subsequent chapter that
2
C
C 1 2 2 C
+ rS + --- S
= rC
2
t
S 2
S
Eq.2.9
1
2
2 2
--- ( )S t .
2
Eq.2.10
1. In these notes we (almost) always use to represent realized volatility and to represent implied volatility.
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P&L
1 2 2
--- S t
2
2 2
2
1
Net P&L = --- S ( )t
2
stock
shift S
1 2 2
--- S t
2
This illustration describes the bet you are making in taking a long position in a
hedged option. To profit, you need the realized volatility to be greater than the
implied volatility. A short position profits when the opposite is true.
Note: Black-Scholes uses a single unique volatility for all strikes K and expirations T, because the volatility, real or implied, is the volatility of the stock, not
the option. If Black-Scholes is correct, then is independent of K, t, T and S.
B(yT,t,T)
B(y1,t,1)
y0
If you hedge the long bonds price by buying a one-year bond with price
B ( y 1, t, 1 ) whose behavior is approximately linear in the yield (because its
short term), then you again have a convex P&L for the hedged portfolio as a
function of yields, assuming they move simultaneously and in parallel, and
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there are somewhat analogous PDEs for bond pricing that follow from the
principle of no riskless arbitrage.
The tricky part which Im ignoring here is that yields dont have to move in
parallel, and so, at the minimum, you need a model which takes account of all
yield moves in a consistent model, for example a one-factor short-rate model
like Ho-Lee or BDT or Vasiek. In these one-factor models all bond prices
depend on the short rate as the only stochastic variable, and you can hedge any
single bond with another bond of a different maturity, or indeed with an option
on a bond. Of course, these models exclude the possibility of more than one
factor, that is, of different bonds moving in independent ways.
rd ( rd ) .
2
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Eq.2.11
If different options imply different implied volatilities, then the implied BlackScholes volatility of a vanilla call or put can in general be a function
( S, t, K, T ) where K is the strike and T the expiration of the option when the
underlyer value is S at time t. If in fact the market prices of vanilla calls and
puts are such that does vary with strike, then we have a volatility smile and
the Black-Scholes model is inconsistent with market prices.
One way to think of implied volatility is as the markets guess at future average
volatility, perhaps modified by a fear factor, supply and demand, and an understanding of how the Black-Scholes model fails to capture all the features of
realized stock returns and their volatility. Implied volatility is often merely a
quoting convention that incorporates into one number everything you need to
know to get the dollar price from the Black-Scholes formula, and is closely
linked to but not equal to expectations about realized volatility.
The value of a call option in the Black-Scholes model can never be worth more
than the stock. If it were, an initial long position in the call and a short position
in one share of stock requires a positive outlay of cash. However, at expiration,
the long-call/short-stock position always has a negative payoff.) As long as a
call price C is worth less than the current stock price S, there always exists a
unique Black-Scholes implied volatility , because C in the Black-Scholes
model is a monotonic function of whose derivative given by
2
d1
-------2
(T t)
C
Se
= --------------------------------
2
Eq.2.12
C 1 2 2 C
+ --- S
= 0
2
2
S
where = T t is the options time to expiration.
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1 2 C
--- S
= 0
2
2
( ) 2 S
so that, since the partial differential equation depends on time only through
2
the variable ,
2 2
C
C
2 C
= 2
= S
2
2
( )
S
You can differentiate Equation 2.8 easily to show that the RHS of the equation
is equal to the RHS of Equation 2.12.
If the riskless rate r is non-zero, you can change variables in the Black-Scholes
partial differential equation Equation 2.9 by writing the solution C as
C = exp [ r ( T t ) ] X ( F, K, t, T, ) where F = S exp [ r ( T t ) ] .
In terms of these variables, Equation 2.9 reduces to
2 2
X 1 2 2 X
+ --- F
= 0
2
2
F
and so the derivative with respect to is similarly related to the derivative with
2
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No bid-ask spreads.
No transactions costs.
Consider at time t a stock price St, a riskless bond Bt that earns interest rate rt,
and an option price Ct.
The stochastic evolution of the stock and bond prices are given by
dS t = S S t dt + t S t dZ t
Eq.2.13
dB t = B t r t dt
The option price is a function C ( S t, t ) whose evolution is given by
2
C t
C t
1 Ct
2
dC t =
dt +
dS t + --- 2 ( t S t ) dt
S
t
2S
2
C t
C t C t
1 Ct
2
=
+
S S t + --- 2 ( t S t ) dt +
S dZ
S t t t
S
2 S
t
C C t dt + C C t dZ t
where by definition
2
1 C t C t
1 Ct
2
= -----
+
S + --( S )
Ct t
S S t 2 S 2 t t
C
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Eq.2.14
1 C t
= -----
S
C t S t t
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Eq.2.15
= ( S S t + C C t )dt + ( t S t + C C t )dZ t
That the portfolio be riskless necessitates
C C
= ----------S S
Eq.2.16
That no riskless arbitrage is allowed means that a riskless portfolio must earn
the riskless rate, so that d = rdt . From Equation 2.15 this leads to
S S + C C = ( S + C )r
Rearranging the terms we obtain
S ( S r ) = C ( C r )
Substituting for from Equation 2.16 leads to the relation
C r
S r
--------------- = -------------C
S
Eq.2.17
Only if the stock and the option have equal Sharpe ratios, that is equal expected
returns per unit of volatility, will the option and the stock allow no arbitrage.
This is the argument by which Black originally derived the Black-Scholes
equation.
Substituting from Equation 2.14 into Equation 2.17 for C and C we obtain
2
1 Ct
2
1 C t C t
-----
+
S S t + --- 2 ( t S t ) r
S
2S
Ct t
S r
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- = -------------S
1 C t
-----
S t
Ct S t
which leads to
2
C
C 1 2 2 C
+ rS + --- S
= rC
2
t
S 2
S
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Black-Scholes equation
Eq.2.18
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Note how the terms involving S cancelled out of the equation, so that there is
no dependence on the drift of the stock price.
Well look at this solution and its derivatives in more details in subsequent lectures. Its good to get very familiar with manipulating this solution, its derivatives or Greeks, and the approximations to it via Taylor expansions when the
option is close to at-the money (i.e. S K ). The solution, the Black-Scholes
formula and its implied volatility, is the quoting currency for trading prices of
vanilla options. You can get a great deal of insight into more complex models
by regarding them as perturbations or mixtures of different Black-Scholes
solutions.
C ( S, K, t, T, r, ) = e
r ( T t )
SF = e
[ S F N ( d 1 ) KN ( d 2 ) ]
r(T t )
S
2
d 1, 2
ln ( S F K ) 0.5 ( T t )
= --------------------------------------------------------- Tt
1
N ( z ) = ---------2
Eq.2.19
y 2
dy
Notice that except for the r ( T t ) term, time to expiration and volatility
2
always appear together in the combination ( T t ) . If you rewrite the formula in terms of the prices of traded securities the present value of the bond
K PV and the stock price S then indeed time and volatility always appear
together:
C ( S, K, t, T, ) = [ SN ( d 1 ) K PV N ( d 2 ) ]
K PV = e
r ( T t )
K
2
d 1, 2
ln ( S K PV ) 0.5 ( T t )
= ------------------------------------------------------------ Tt
1
N ( z ) = ---------2
Eq.2.20
y 2
dy
Note that the time to expiration appears in the formulas in two different combi2
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Comment: Options traders get very familiar with the behavior of vanilla
option prices and hedge ratios because they watch their movement and deltas
all day long, and so get a feel for how prices vary. Theorists have to do the
same, i.e. get familiar and gain intuition, but they have to do it by playing with
the formula, manipulating, understanding and approximating it.
x 2
e
N' ( x ) = -------------2
SF ( T t )
ln ----- ---------------------1
K
2
N' ( d 1, 2 ) = ---------- exp --------------------------------------------------2
2
2 ( T t )
S 2
ln -----F
2
ln ( S F K )
K
1
( T t )
exp
-----------------------= ---------- exp -----------------------exp
----------------------+
2
8
2
2
2 ( T t )
SF
N' ( d 2 ) = N' ( d 1 ) exp [ ln ( S F K ) ] = -----N' ( d 1 )
K
d 1, 2
1
= ----------------------K
K T t
d 1, 2
SF
1
(T t)
= ------------------------- ln ----- -------------------2
K
2
(T t)
2
d1
-------2
C
Se
(T t)
= --------------------------------
2
C
r ( T t )
= e
N ( d2 )
K
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C ( S, t ) = e
= e
R ( T t )
( E [ S K ]+ )
R ( T t )
{ Se
(T t )
N ( d 1 ) KN ( d 2 ) }
Eq.2.21
where R is the appropriate but unknown discount rate, still unspecified, and
is the unknown expected growth rate for the stock.
The analogous formula for a put P is given by
P ( S, t ) = e
= e
R ( T t )
R ( T t )
( E [ K S ]+ )
{ KN ( d 2 ) Se
(T t)
N ( d1 ) }
Eq.2.22
where
(T t)
(T t)
Se
ln --------------------- ---------------------2
K
= ------------------------------------------------------ Tt
2
d 1, 2
Eq.2.23
We have forced the discount rate R to be identical for both puts and calls,
because we are taking the viewpoint of a dealer or market-maker who, for
practical reasons, wants to use a single average discount rate for all securities
in his portfolio with the same expiration.
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A dealer or market-maker in options, however, has additional consistency constraints. As a manufacturer rather than a consumer of options, the marketmaker must make prices consistent with the value of his raw supplies. He must
notice that a portfolio F = C P consisting of a long position in a call and a
short position in a put with the same strike K has exactly the same payoff as a
forward contract with expiration time T and delivery price K whose fair current
value is
F = S Ke
r ( T t )
Eq.2.24
F = CP = e
R ( T t )
{ Se
(T t )
K}
Eq.2.25
The requirement that Equation 2.24 and Equation 2.25 be consistent dictates
the appropriate average discount rate R in the options formula be the zero-coupon discount rate r and that the unknown expected growth rate for the stock
be equated to the same value.
In this way the Black-Scholes options formula results from an assumed future
volatility plus an expected- average-discounted-value approach to valuation,
combined with the requirement that valuation be consistent with the static replication of forward contracts by portfolios of options.
A similar interpolation argument can be used to derive the values of more complex derivatives (quantos for example) that are dependent on a larger number
of underlyers by requiring consistency with the values of all tradeable forwards
contracts on those underlyers.
We now proceed to examining the behavior of the profit and loss of dynamic
hedging strategies.
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Hedging
action
Buy C0,
t2,S2
Share
Value
Dollars Received
From Shares Traded
0 S0
0 S0
none
0 S1
0 S0 e
get short 1
shares by
shorting
1 0
shares
1 S1
none
short 0
shares
t1,S1
No.
Shares
n = ( S n, t n ) .
C0
rt
0 S0 e
rt
C1 0 S1 + 0 S0 e
rt
C1 1 S1 + 0 S0 e
rt
+ ( 1 0 )S 1
1 S2
0 S0 e
get short 2
shares by
shorting
2 1
shares
get short n
shares by
shorting
n n 1
shares
2 S2
0 S0 e
+ ( 1 0 )S 1
2rt
+ ( 1 0 )S 1 e
t2,S2
C2 1 S2 + 0 S0 e
rt
2rt
+ ( 1 0 )S 1 e
+ ( 1 0 )S 1 e
C2 2 S2 + 0 S0 e
rt
+ ( 2 1 )S 2
( 1 0 )S 1 e
2rt
rt
2rt
rt
+ ( 2 1 )S 2
etc.
tn,Sn
2/1/10
n Sn
0 S0 e
nrt
Cn n Sn + 0 S0 e
nrt
+ ( 1 0 )S 1 e
( n 1 )rt
+ ( 1 0 )S 1 e
( n 1 )rt
+ ( 2 1 )S 2 e
( n 2 )rt
+ ( 2 1 )S 2 e
( n 2 )rt
... + ( n n 1 )S n
... + ( n n 1 )S n
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Looking at the last line of the above table, you can see that the result of buying
the initial call at a price C0, shorting stock to hedge it and then investing the
money in an interest-bearing account leads, after n steps of size t , where
T t = nt , to a final fair value
CT T ST + 0 S0 e
r(T t)
+ e
r(T )
S [ d ] b
where the subscript b at the end of the formula denotes a backwards Ito integral, and the initial value of the hedged portfolio was C 0 . This amount could
have been invested at the riskless interest and would have grown to C 0 e
r(T t)
r(T t )
C0 = CT T ST + 0 S0 e
r(T t )
+ e
r(T )
S [ d ] b
Eq.2.26
r(T t)
= ( CT T ST ) + e
r(T )
S [ d ] b
Finally, you can integrate Equation 2.26 by parts using the relation
e
r(T )
S [ d ] b = d [ e
r(T )
S ] + re
r(T )
S d e
r(T )
dS
to obtain
T
C0 = CT e
r ( T t )
( S , ) [ dS S r d ]e
r ( T )
Eq.2.27
Eq.2.26 and Eq.2.27 provide a way to calculate the value of the call in terms of
its final payoff and the hedging strategy.
If you hedge perfectly and continuously, Black-Scholes tells you that this value
will be independent of the path the stock takes to expiration.
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2.8
Page 29 of 41
Eq.2.28
where is not the riskless rate r, and the stock S pays a continuous dividend
yield D.
The Black-Scholes hedge ratio for a realized volatility r is given by
1. Ahmad, R. and Paul Wilmott, Which Free Lunch Would You Like Today, Sir?: Delta
hedging, volatility arbitrage and optimal positions. Wilmott Magazine.
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1
N ( x ) = ---------2
y 2
Page 30 of 41
dy
SF r ( T t )
ln ----- -----------------------K
2
d 1, 2 = ----------------------------------------- Tt
= N ( d1 )
Here S F = S exp [ ( r D )t ] is the forward price of the stock, and depends on
the riskless interest rate r and the dividend yield D rather than .
In the table below we use the symbol V for a security with value V. Lets now
figure out our moment-to-moment P&L over time when we borrow money to
finance a long position in the security V and hedge it using the (assumed
known) realized volatility, and show that we eventually capture V r V i .
Table 1: Position Values when Hedging with Realized Volatility
Time
t
t + dt
Vi , Vi
r S , r S
V i ( t + dt, S + dS ) ,
r S , r ( S + dS )
V i + dV i
r S Vi
( r S V i ) ( 1 + rdt )
( V i + dV i r ( S + dS ) )
r DSdt
( r S V i ) ( 1 + rdt )
dividends
paid
interest
received
r DSdt
Eq.2.29
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Eq.2.30
Substituting Equation 2.30 into the RHS of Equation 2.29 we obtain the P&L
generated between times t and t + dt:
dP&L = dV i dV r rdt ( V i V r )
rt
= e d[e
rt
( Vi Vr ) ]
The present value of this profit is obtained by discounting to the initial time t0:
dPV(P&L) = e
r ( t t 0 ) rt
e d[e
rt
rt
( Vi Vr ) ] = e 0 d [ e
rt
( Vi Vr ) ]
Eq.2.31
By expressing the change in the P&L above in terms of total differential makes
it easy to integrate over the total life of the option, which leads to
T
PV(P&L) = e
rt 0
d[e
rt
( Vi Vr ) ]
t0
= 0 ( Vi Vr ) = Vr Vi
Eq.2.32
if T is expiration
where the integrand at time T is zero because at expiration the payoff of the
standard option is independent of volatility.
So we see that the final P&L at the expiration of the option is known and deterministic and equal to the difference in value between the option valued at realized and implied volatility, provided that we know the realized volatility and
that we can hedge continuously.
_____
How is this known P&L realized over time? We show below that the P&L,
while in sum total deterministic, has a stochastic component that vanishes only
as we reach expiration. This is somewhat analogous to the value of bond,
whose final payoff at expiration is known but whose present value varies with
interest rates.
We showed in Equation 2.29 that the change in the P&L after hedging with
implied volatility is given by
dP&L = dV i r dS rdt ( V i r S ) r DSdt
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2 2
1
dP&L = i dt + i dS + --- i S dt r dS rdt ( V i r S ) r DSdt
2
Eq.2.33
1
2 2
= i + --- i S dt + ( i r )dS rdt ( V i r S ) r DSdt
2
But the Black-Scholes equation for the option V valued at the implied volatility can be written as
1
2 2
i = --- i S + rV i ( r D )S i
2
Substituting for i in Equation 2.33, we obtain
1
2 2
2
dP&L = --- i S ( )dt + ( i r ) { ( r + D )Sdt + SdZ }
2
Eq.2.34
Thus, even though the total integrated P&L is deterministic, the increments in
the P&L when you hedge with random volatility have a random component
dZ . (Note that this is the non-discounted P&L, not its present value obtained
by discounting each increment to the P&L by the appropriate discount factor.
The total present value of the P&L should equal the difference in price between
the option valued at implied volatility and valued at realized volatility.
To illustrate this, here is a plot of the cumulative P&L along ten random stock
paths, each generated with a realized volatility different from that of implied
volatility.
r = 0.3
i = 0.2
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The accuracy with which the P&L converges to the known value depends on
how continuous the hedging is, of course. Our example uses 100 hedging steps
to expiration.
The final P&L is almost (but not quite) path-independent almost, because
100 rehedgings per year is not quite the same continuous hedging.
Here is a similar plot of the cumulative P&L when we rehedge 10,000 times,
i.e. almost continuously; then the final P&L is virtually independent of the
stock path.
r ( t t 0 ) rt
e d[ e
rt
rt
( Vi Vr ) ] = e 0 d [ e
rt
( Vi Vr ) ]
We can integrate this from the inception of the position at time t 0 = 0 when
the stock price is S 0 to intermediate time t, stock price S , to obtain
PV ( P&L(t) ) = [ V ( , S, t ) V ( , S, t ) ] e
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rt
+ [ V ( , S 0, 0 ) V ( , S, 0 ) ]
Eq.2.35
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Suppose, as in the figure above, that > . Then the both terms in the square
brackets in Equation 2.35 are positive, because the standard options prices are
monotonic in volatility. Also, the second term is the value at inception, and
independent of the path. Therefore the upper bound occurs when the first term
is zero, which occurs at S = 0 or S = . The upper bound of the P&L is
therefore the constant value [ V ( , S 0, 0 ) V ( , S, 0 ) ] , corresponding roughly
to the heavy dotted blue line in the figure below.
The lower bound to the P&L is given by differentiating Equation 2.35 w.r.t. S
and setting the derivative equal to zero to find the minimum. It occurs at
S = Ke
bound
( r 0.5 ) ( T t )
Ke
r ( T t )
( ) T t
2N --------------------------------- 1 + [ V ( , S 0, 0 ) V ( , S, 0 ) ]
2
That value is represented roughly by the lower dotted blue line on the figure
above.
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t + dt
Vi , Vi
i S
V i , V i + dV i
i S , i ( S + dS )
i S Vi
( i S V i ) ( 1 + rdt )
( V i + dV i i ( S + dS ) )
i DSdt
( i S V i ) ( 1 + rdt )
i DSdt
Eq.2.36
1
2 2
= i + --- i S + ( r D ) i S rV i dt
2
But the Black-Scholes equation for the option valued at implied volatility
states that
1
2 2
i + --- i S + ( r D ) i S rV i = 0
2
Substituting for i from the last equation into the previous one, we obtain
1
2 2
2
dP&L = --- i S ( )dt
2
Eq.2.37
The present value of this profit is obtained by discounting to the initial time t0,
and then integrating, we obtain
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1
2 2
2 r ( t t0 )
P&L = --- i S ( )e
dt
2
Eq.2.38
t0
2
The P&L depends upon the value of i S along the path to expiration, and this
factor, especially i which varies exponentially with ln S K , is highly pathdependent. Although the hedging strategy captures a value proportional to
2
growth = 10%
Here is a similar example where the stock growth rate is much larger (100%);
with this drift the stock price is much more likely to move out of the money,
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with the -factor on average becoming much smaller. The average cumulative
P&L captured is therefore appreciably lower, as displayed on the plot.
growth = 100%
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1 r ( t t0 )
2
2
2
PV ( P&L ) = V h V i + --- e
h S ( r h )dt
2
Eq.2.39
t0
Note that when the hedge volatility h is set equal to either the realized volatility r or the implied volatility i , Equation 2.39 reduces to our previous
results.
SN' ( d 1 )e
S h = -----------------------------h
2
Eq.2.40
where
2
1 d 2
N' ( d 1 ) = ----------e 1
2
and d 1 depends on h .
The maximum occurs when
D
N' ( d 1 )e
SN' ( d 1 )e
d1
2
( S ) = -------------------------- ------------------------------ ---------------- = 0
S
h
h
S h
or
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d1
ln ( S K ) + ( r D ) + h
1
------------- = ---------
----------------------------------------------------------------2
2
h
h
( h ) ( h )
which has the solution
2
S = Ke
( r D h 2 )
Eq.2.41
Ke
S h = ----------------------- h 2
2
Eq.2.42
Taking the path for the evolution of the stock that moves along this value of S ,
we maximize the P&L. By combining Equation 2.39 and Equation 2.42, we
obtain
T
r ( T t )
r ( t t 0 ) Ke
1 2
2
PV ( P&L ) = V h V i + --- ( r h ) e
--------------------------------dt
2
T t 2
t0
2 r ( T t0 )
h )e
Eq.2.43
K ( r
T t0
= V h V i + -------------------------------------------------------------------2 h
1
2 2
2 r ( t t0 )
P&L = --- i S ( )e
dt
2
t0
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paths for an option bought and hedged at an implied volatility of 0.2 when realized volatility is 0.4, for a range of different stock growth rates . The green
line shows the standard deviation of the P&L. You can see, roughly, that the
expected P&L is a maximum when the growth rate is such that the stock is
close to at-the-money at expiration, so that its is largest. From Equation 2.40
2
this occurs when = r D 0.5 i = 0.05 0.5 ( 0.2 ) = 0.03 , which corresponds closely the value of at the maximum in this illustration. The red
line shows the P&L obtained by hedging at realized volatility, and is just equal
to the difference between the price of the option at realized volatility and the
price of the option at implied volatility. This value is fairly close to the maximum expected P&L when the option is hedged at implied volatility.
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