Академический Документы
Профессиональный Документы
Культура Документы
a. Depersonalization; derealization
b. Derealization; somatization
c. Derealization; depersonalization
d. Somatization; derealization
15. The disorder in DSM IV-TR with a symptomatology closest to functional neurological disorder of
DSM 5 is
a. malingering
b. body dysmorphic disorder
c. somatization disorder
d. conversion disorder
16. Michaels wife, Jennifer, reported him missing to the police in 1998. Two years later she saw
Michael in an airport. He lived two states away from Jennifer, was married to another woman, and had
two children with her. Michael told Jennifer that his name was Danny, not Michael, and that he had
never met her before. Michaels presentation is consistent with:
a. multiple personality disorder
b. dissociative trance disorder
c. dissociative identity disorder
d. dissociative fugue
17. The different identities or personalities in dissociative identity disorder are called ______, whereas
the change from one personality to another is called a ______.
a. masks; transition
b. faces; switch
c. faades; transition
d. alters; switch
18. An individual who is experiencing an elevated mood, a decreased need for sleep, and distractibility
is most likely experiencing:
a. panic disorder
b. mania
c. depersonalization
d. hallucinations
19. What is the general agreement among mental health professionals about the relationship between
bereavement and depression?
a. Bereavement is less severe than depression in all cases.
b. Depression can lead to bereavement in many cases.
c. Bereavement can lead to depression in many cases.
d. Symptoms of bereavement and depression rarely overlap.
20. Bipolar I disorder is characterized by ______, whereas bipolar II is characterized by ______.
a. full manic episodes; hypomanic episodes
b. hypomanic episodes; full manic episodes
c. both depressive and manic episodes; full manic episodes
d. full manic episodes; both depressive and manic episodes
21. Which statement best characterizes the relationship between anxiety and depression?
c. psycho-oncology
d. oncosociology
29. Which of the following is a risk factor for coronary heart disease?
a. anger that is part of the type A behavior pattern
b. belligerence that is part of the type B behavior pattern
c. competitive drive that is part of the type B behavior pattern
d. carefree disregard for deadlines that is part of the type A behavior pattern
30. Biofeedback can be used to teach people how to:
a. reduce their competitive drive and sense of urgency
b. consciously control physiological functions that are outside awareness
c. develop more supportive social support networks
d. control their facial expressions to control their mood
31. Which of the following accurately characterizes the effects of denial as a coping strategy?
a. Individuals who undergo coronary artery bypass surgery return to normal activities more rapidly if
they deny their pain.
b. Denial may have damaging short-term consequences in terms of the stress response, but it seems
to be helpful to rehabilitation in the long term.
c. People who deny their disease may not notice meaningful variations in their symptoms.
d. Denial appears to have exclusively negative consequences on health and adaptation.
32. Which three behaviors, all of which can be modified, put people at the most risk for physical
problems?
a. unhealthy diet, lack of exercise, smoking
b. pollution, unhealthy diet, lack of exercise
c. lack of exercise, smoking, reckless driving
d. smoking, alcohol use, road rage
33. Dr. Thompson sees a patient with a chubby face, calluses on her fingers, and small scars on the
back of her hand. Tests indicate that the patient weighs slightly more than her expected weight and that
she has an electrolyte imbalance. The patient reports that she is having persistent constipation and that
she feels as if her heart has been skipping beats. These symptoms are consistent with:
a. depression
b. anxiety
c. anorexia nervosa
d. bulimia nervosa
34. Research on bulimia nervosa suggests that it most often co-occurs with:
a. anxiety disorders
b. mood disorders
c. psychotic disorders
d. substance use disorders
35. In a study by Fallon and Rozin, female undergraduates:
a. rated their current body size the same as the ideal body size
b. rated the ideal body size smaller than the attractive body size
c. rated the ideal body size heavier than the attractive body size
d. rated their current body size smaller than the ideal body size
36. While sleeping, Michael, a 55-year-old overweight male, experiences a cessation in his breathing
for short periods. Michaels wife reports that he snores continuously and never feels rested. Michaels
symptoms are consistent with:
a. narcolepsy
b. sleep apnea
c. sleepwake schedule disorder
d. cataplexy
37. The primary difference between sleep terrors and nightmares is:
a. sleep terrors usually begin with a scream and stiffening of arms and legs
b. children do not remember nightmares
c. sleep terrors occur during NREM sleep, thus, less likely to be remembered
d. sleep terrors are more prevalent in the population
38. Statistics about sexual activity have suggested that:
a. more people engage in oral intercourse than vaginal intercourse
b. the majority of people engage in heterosexual, vaginal intercourse in the context of a
relationship with one partner
c. 60% to 75% of the population has exclusively homosexual sex
d. in the 1990s, people were more likely to be having sex with multiple partners than they were to be in
a monogamous sexual relationship
39. The most common form of treatment for gender identity disorder is:
a. exposure therapy
b. antidepressant medication
c. cognitivebehavioral therapy
d. sexual reassignment surgery
40. In which phase of the sexual response cycle can men experience difficulty attaining or maintaining
erections?
a. resolution
b. orgasm
c. arousal
d. plateau
41. Simone and her partner have sexual intercourse about once a month. Simone says she wants to have
sex but cant seem to achieve adequate lubrication to make sex enjoyable. Simones symptoms are most
consistent with:
a. impotence
b. sexual aversion disorder
c. sexual arousal disorder
d. vaginismus
42. Which component is essential to the diagnosis of female orgasmic disorder?
a. orgasms occur less frequently than desired
b. a 20% to 30% reduction in the frequency of orgasms in the last 6 months
c. a 70% to 80% reduction in the frequency of orgasms in the last year
c. schizoaffective disorder
d. bipolar disorder
64. Which sibling of an individual with schizophrenia is most likely to develop schizophrenia?
a. monozygotic twin raised in the same home
b. monozygotic twin raised in a different home
c. dizygotic twin raised in the same home
d. dizygotic twin raised in a different home
65. Which two psychosocial interventions appear to be most helpful for people with schizophrenia?
a. hypnosis and psychosurgery
b. ECT and social skills training
c. psychoanalytic psychotherapy and expressed emotion management
d. family therapy and education and vocational rehabilitation (halfway houses)
66. According to the DSM-5, the two symptoms that are characteristic of ADHD are:
a. inattention and hyperactivity
b. echolalia and impulsivity
c. hallucinations and delusions
d. obsessions and compulsions
67. Echolalia is characterized by which of the following behaviors?
a. continuously reading the same sentence or words
b. repeating the speech of others
c. mimicking the movements of others
d. staring ahead without blinking for long periods
68. Behavioral techniques are often used to address communication problems that occur with autism.
______ involves rewarding the child for progressive approximations of speech, and ______ involves
rewarding the child for making sounds that the teacher requests.
a. Shaping; discrimination training
b. Modeling; syntax training
c. Imitating; expression training
d. Processing; academic training
69. Research has shown that ADHD in children is associated with:
a. chronic neglect
b. having an alcoholic father
c. maternal smoking during pregnancy
d. death of a parent in early childhood
70. ______ is a form of intellectual disability caused by the presence of an extra 21st chromosome.
a. Down syndrome
b. Fragile X syndrome
c. PKU syndrome
d. Fetal alcohol syndrome
71. ______ is characterized by acute confusion and disorientation; whereas ______ is marked by
deterioration in a broad range of cognitive abilities.
a. Delirium; amnesia
b. Amnesia; delirium
c. Dementia; delirium
d. Delirium; dementia
72. Which is an indicator of abnormal behavior?
I. dysfunction
II. distress
III. atypical response or not culturally accepted
a. I
b. I, II
c. I, III
d. I, II, III
73. People who study psychopathology are scientists because of following which order of the practice
of science?
a. evaluate science create science consume science
b. consume science evaluate science create science
c. create science evaluate science consume science
d. consume science create science evaluate science
74. The prevalence of a psychological disorder refers to
a. number of people in the population that have this
b. number of cases in a given time period
c. types of disorder connect with assessment and treatment
d. pattern of occurrence of the disorder
75. The lifetime prevalence of phobias for females is 16%. This means
I. 16% of the female population will have this at some point in their life
II. A female has a 16% chance of having this at some point in her life
III. females are 16 times more likely to have a phobia than males
a. II
b. I
c. I, III
d. I, II
76. The primitive act of drilling a hole into the skull to release the demon in the brain is called
a. humoral surgery
b. ECT
c. trephining
d. maleficarum
77. This STD was believed to be capable of making the person have delusions of persecution because
of the bacterial organisms ability to enter the brain
a. Chlamydia
b. AIDS
c. Syphilis
d. Vaginal yeast
78. A cognitive explanation to phobia are explained in the following statements except:
I. Attend to negative stimuli
II. Interpret ambiguous stimuli as threatening
III. Believe that negative events are more likely to
a. III
b. II
c. I
d. II, III
79. Which statement is true for flooding, a behavioral treatment for phobia?
a. It is just as effective as systematic desensitization
b. This is used as a last resort, when gradual exposure has failed
c. It is similar to social skills training in a way that both requires role-play
d. In flooding, fearful patients are exposed to demonstrations of other persons interacting fearlessly
with the phobic object
80. Albert is experiencing a panic attack. Which is Albert least likely experiencing?
a. Labored breathing
b. Palpitations
c. Nausea
d. Abdominal pains
81. Bea was in the work place, in the same environment and doing the same task for thirty minutes
when she had a panic attack. When she calmed down, she was asked if there was any concern that came
up to her head, she couldnt recall any. Beas panic attach was
a. cued
b. uncued
c. situationally predisposed
d. exclusive
82. Panic attack is noted in other cultures with its own name. In Puerto Rico, for example, it is called
a. hysteria
b. kayak angst
c. ataque de nervios
d. ataque de panico
83. Carlo is diagnosed with panic disorder. He may also have (comorbid)
a. Illness Anxiety Disorder
b. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
c. Major depression
d. Narcotic addiction
84. He is know for legitimizing the practice of hypnosis
a. Jean-Martin Charcot
b. Anton Mesmer
c. Sigmund Freud
d. Josef Breuer
85. This model of explaining the etiology of disorder suggests that it is not about being predisposed to a
disorder, but to being predisposed to certain factors and behaviors that would lead to stressful events,
and consequentially, a disorder.
a. Diathesis-stress model
b. Reciprocal gene-environment model
c. Nongenomic theory
d. Epigeneric theory
86. This is the action by which a neurotransmitter is quickly drawn back into the discharging neuron
after being released into a synaptic cleft
a. agonization
b. vesicle suction
c. reuptake
d. activation
87. This therapy is known as re-writing the brain
a. Interpersonal therapy
b. Reality-testing
c. Psychoanalysis
d. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
88. The principle of ______ reminds us that we must consider the various paths to a particular
outcome, not just the result
a. social effects
b. unique determinism
c. personalization
d. equifinality
89. Elsa is careful in undergoing neuropsychological meeting without the use of CT Scan, PET Scan of
MRI. She is having second thoughts because there is a high risk of false positive, which means
a. she might be diagnosed with a disorder with a disorder comorbid with what she truly has
b. she might be concluded into not having a brain abnormality when really does have it
c. she might be concluded into having a brain abnormality when she really does not have it
d. she might only be diagnosed with a disorder based on a brain abnormality
90. This is the research method which examines the prevalence, distribution, and consequences of
disorders in population
a. nosology
b. epidemiology
c. etiology
d. survey
91. Clinical significance, as opposed to statistical significance, tries to stay away from the seeing
patients more as more similar than they are, a phenomenon called
a. patient uniformity myth
b. false positive
c. false negative
d. patient similarity myth
d. a person with this disorder is preoccupied with getting rid of primary and secondarysex
characteristics
100. Sex reassignment has prerequisites. Which of the following is not one of these prerequisites?
a. Above average score in an IQ test
b. Reasonable emotional stability
c. Successful adaptation in the new role for at least one year prior to surgery
d. Adequate understanding of the limitations and consequences of surgery