A

29/06/2015

CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

New Test Series : Test 2

MM : 720

Time : 3 Hrs.

(for AIPMT-2015 )
Topics Covered :
Physics

Botany

ikni txr

Zoology

ltho txr esa fofokrk II : tUrq&txr lkekU; tkudkjh o dkWMVZs l

~ ( tUrqvksa esa lajpukRed laxBu %
tUrq&rd] tUrq&vkdkfjdh

lery esa xfr] xfr ds fu;e (o`kh; xfr lfgr)

Chemistry : rRoksa dk oxhZdj.k ,oa xq.kksa esa vkofrZrk( jklk;fud cU/ku ,oa vk.kfod lajpuk( inkFkZ dh voLFkk, %
xSlas o nzo

funsZ'k :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)

mi;qDr xksys dks Hkjus ds fy, dsoy ckWy isu dk ;ksx djsAa
fpUg xgjs gksus pkfg, rFkk xksys dks iw.kZr% Hkjk tkuk pkfg,A
R;sd fof"V ds fy, dsoy ,d xksyk HkjsAa
xksys dks dsoy fn, x, LFkku esa gh HkjsAa
mkj iqfLrdk ij jQ dk;Z fcYdqy ugha djuk pkfg, rFkk mkj iqfLrdk ij OgkbVuj ;k jcj dk ;ksx u djsaA
R;sd 'u ds 4 vad gSAa R;sd xyr mkj ds fy, dqy kIrkadksa esa ls ,d vad ?kVk fn;k tk,xkA

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1.

2.

lgh mkj dk p;u dhft;s %

Select wrong statement out of followings

 
 
(1) A + B A + B
 
 
(2) A + B A B
 
 
(3) A B A + B
 
 

(4) For A B = A B , the angle between A

and B must be 180.

1.

fuEu esa ls xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A

 
(1) A + B
 
(2) A + B
 
(3) A B
 
(4) A B

dks.k
2.

Which of the following is an axial vector?

 
A+B
 
AB
 
A+B
 
= AB

180


A

rFkk

gksxk

fuEu es ls dkSulk ,d v{kh; lfnk gS\

(1) Force

(1)

cy

(2) Velocity

(2)

osx

(3) Acceleration

(3)

Roj.k

(4) Angular acceleration

(4)

dks.kh; Roj.k

(1)

ds fy,]


B

ds e/;

Test-2 (Code A)

3.

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

For motion of a particle between two positions

3.

(1) Path length is always greater than magnitude of

displacement
(2) Path length is always equal to magnitude of
displacement
(3)

Path length
1
Displacement

Which of the following statement is wrong?

4.

(1) 5 (5 m/s east) = 25 m/s east

(2) 5 (5 m/s east) = 25 m/s west
(3) 5 s (5 m/s east) = 25 m east
(4) All of these
5.

iFk yEckbZ
1
foLFkkiu
iFk yEckbZ
1
(4)
foLFkkiu
fuEu esa ls xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) 5 (5 m/s iwoZ) = 25 m/s iwoZ
(2) 5 (5 m/s iwoZ) = 25 m/s ifpe
(3) 5 s (5 m/s iwoZ) = 25 m iwoZ
(4) buesa ls lHkh
fn, x, fp= ds fy,] lgh lfnk lEcU/k gS
(3)

Path length
(4) Displacement 1

4.

nks fLFkfr;ksa ds e/; ,d d.k dh xfr ds fy,

(1) iFk yEckbZ foLFkkiu ds ifjek.k ls lnSo vf/kd
gksrh gS
(2) iFk yEckbZ foLFkkiu ds ifjek.k ds lnSo cjkcj
gksrh gS

For the given diagram correct vector relation is

5.

C
A

D
D





(1) A + B + C = D


(1) A

(2) A

(3) A

(4) A





(2) A + C + D = B




(3) A + B + D = C


 
(4) A + B + C + D = 0

6.



If velocity of rain is v R and velocity of wind is vW ,
then to a person at rest, magnitude of velocity of
rain, is

(1) v R

(3)
7.

2
v R2 vW

(2)

6.

5m


+ C

+ D

+ D

+ C


= D

= B

= C

+D= 0

osx v R gS rFkk

7.

(2) 2 5 m

8.

2
v R2 vW

(2)

2
v R2 + vW

(4) vR vW

,d d.k t = 0 ij fn, x, y-v{k ds vuqfnk 2 m/s2

ds fu;r Roj.k ls xy lery esa xfr djrk gSA d.k
ewy fcUnq ij gS rFkk bldk osx x-v{k ds vuqfnk
4 m/s gSA rc t = 2 s ij d.k dk foLFkkiu gS
(1)

(4) 20 m

A river is flowing with velocity v R while a swimmer

swims with velocity v S in river, then velocity of
swimmer relative to ground is




(2) v S v R
(1) v S + v R


(3) v R v S
(4) v S + v R

;fn ckfjk dk
ok;q dk osx vW gS] rc
fojke esa fLFkr ,d O;fDr ds fy,] ckfjk ds osx dk
ifjek.k gS

(3)

(4) vR vW

(3) 4 5 m

8.


+ B

+ C

+ B

+ B


(1) v R

2
v R2 + vW

A particle moves in x-y plane with constant

acceleration of 2 m/s2 along y axis given at t = 0.
Particle is at origin and its velocity is 4 m/s along
x axis. Then displacement of particle at t = 2 s is
(1)

5m

(3) 4 5 m

,d unh v R osx

unh esa v S osx ls

(2) 2 5 m
(4) 20 m

ls izokfgr gks jgh gS tcfd rSjkd

rSjrk gS] rc /kjkry ds lkis{k rSjkd

dk osx gS


(1) v S + v R


(3) v R v S

(2)



(2) v S v R

(4) v S + v R

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

9.

Test-2 (Code A)

Time of flight of projectile independent of

9.

(1) Horizontal component of velocity of projection

(2) Vertical component of velocity of projection
(3) Acceleration due to gravity
(4) All of these
10. In projectile motion in presence of air resistance as
compared to absence of air resistance

10.

(1) Time of flight is large

(2) Range is large
(3) Maximum height attained is large
(4) Angle of arrival is large
11. From given force (F) - time graph, the impulse
acting on particle in the interval 0 to 0.2 s is
F

11.

iz{ksI; dk mM~M;u dky Lora= gksrk gS

(1) iz{ksi.k ds osx ds {kSfrt ?kVd ls
(2) iz{ksi.k ds osx ds /okZ/kj ?kVd ls
(3) xq:Roh; Roj.k ls
(4) buesa ls lHkh
iz{ksI; xfr es]a ok;q izfrjks/k dh vuqifLFkfr dh rqyuk
esa ok;q izfrjks/k dh mifLFkfr esa
(1) mM~M;u dky vf/kd gksrk gS
(2) ijkl vf/kd gksrh gS
(3) izkIr vf/kdre pkbZ vf/kd gksrh gS
(4) igqp
a dk dks.k vf/kd gksrk gS
fn, x, cy (F) ≤ xzkQ ls] vUrjky 0 ls 0.2 s
esa d.k ij f;kkhy vkosx gS
F

200 N

200 N

0.1

0.2 time (s)

(1) 10 Ns

(2) 20 Ns

(3) 30 Ns

(4) 40 Ns

0.1
(1) 10 Ns
(3) 30 Ns
12.

12. Which of the following statement is incorrect about

force of friction?
(1) Frictional force opposes motion
(2) Frictional force opposes relative motion
(3) Static friction opposes impending relative
motion
(4) Kinetic friction opposes actual relative motion
13. A 10 kg block is placed on horizontal rough surface.
It is acted upon by horizontal force of 20 N. Then
force of friction between block and surface is
(S = 0.3) (K = 0.25)
(1) 10 N

(2) 20 N

(3) 30 N

(4) Zero

13.

14.

14. A box of mass 20 kg is placed over truck. If

coefficient of friction between box and surface of
truck is 0.2, then maximum acceleration of truck for
which block remains at rest over truck is
(1) 2 m/s2

(2) 3 m/s2

(3) 4 m/s2

(4) 5 m/s2
15.

15. A car takes a turn first in horizontal road and then

in banked road of same radius and same nature. Its
maximum possible speed in horizontal road is vH
and for banked road is vB, then
(1) vH > vB

(2) vH < vB

(3) vH = vB

(4) vH = 2vB

le; (s)

(2) 20 Ns
(4) 40 Ns

?kkZ.k cy ds ckjs esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS?

(1) ?kkZ.k cy xfr dk fojks/k djrk gS
(2) ?kkZ.k cy lkisf{kd xfr dk fojks/k djrk gS
(3) LFkS f rd ?kkZ . k leq i fLFkr lkis f {kd xfr dk
fojks/k djrk gS
(4) xfrt ?kkZ.k okLrfod lkisf{kd xfr dk fojks/k
djrk gS
10 kg CykWd dks {kSfrt [kqjnjh lrg ij j[kk tkrk
gSA bl ij {kSfrt cy 20 N f;kkhy gSA rc CykWd
rFkk lrg ds e; ?kkZ.k cy gS (S = 0.3) (K = 0.25)
(1) 10 N

(2) 20 N

(3) 30 N

(4)

(1) 2 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2

(2) 3 m/s2
(4) 5 m/s2

kwU;
20 kg nzO;eku ds ,d cDls dks Vd ds ij j[kk
tkrk gSA ;fn cDls rFkk Vd dh lrg ds e; ?k"kZ.k
xq.kkad 0.2 gS] rc Vd dk vf/kdre Roj.k ftlds
fy, CykWd Vd ij fojke esa jgrk gS] gS

,d dkj igys {kSfrt lM+d esa rFkk fQj leku f=T;k

rFkk leku izdf` r dh cafdr lM+d esa eqMrh gSA {kSfrt
lM+d esa bldh vf/kdre lEHko pky vH gS rFkk cafdr
lM+d esa vB gS] rc
(1) vH > vB
(3) vH = vB

(3)

0.2

(2) vH < vB
(4) vH = 2vB

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

16. When a car moves in circular road of angle of

banking , then optimum speed of car to avoid wear
and tear on its tyres is

16.

(1) v = s Rg

tc ,d dkj cadu dks.k dh o`kh; lM+d esa xfr

djrh gS] rc blds Vk;jksa dks dVus rFkk QVus ls
cpkus ds fy, dkj dh bVre pky gS
(1) v = s Rg

s + tan
(2) v = Rg 1 tan
s

s + tan
(2) v = Rg 1 tan
s

(3) v = Rg tan

(3) v = Rg tan

(4) v max = Rg tan

(4) v max = Rg tan

17. The maximum speed with which a car can move on

a dry circular path is 10 m/s. If due to rain road
becomes wet, then maximum speed of car can be
(given dry road= 0.4, wet road = 0.1)
(1) 3 m/s

(2) 5 m/s

(3) 4 m/s

(4) 2 m/s

17.

18. Which of the following statement is related to

Aristotles Fallacy?

18.

(1) No external force is required to keep a body in

motion
(2) An external force is required to keep a body in
motion
(3) Every body continues to be in its state of rest
or uniform motion in straight line until unless
compelled by some external force
(4) To every action, there is always an equal and
opposite reaction
19.

19. A ball of mass 5 kg is projected vertically upward

with 3 m/s, then magnitude of change in
momentum, when it returns to ground is
(1) Zero

(2) 15 kg m/s

(3) 30 kg m/s

(4) 20 kg m/s

vf/kdre pky ftlls dkj lw[ks o`kh; iFk esa xfr

dj ldrh gS] 10 m/s gSA ;fn ckfjk ds dkj.k lM+d
xhyh gksrh gS] rc dkj dh vf/kdre pky gks ldrh gS
(fn;k gS lw[kh lM+d= 0.4, xhyh lM+d = 0.1)
(1) 3 m/s

(2) 5 m/s

(3) 4 m/s

(4) 2 m/s

fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku vjLrq Hkzkedrk ls lEcfU/kr gS?

(1) ,d oLrq dks xfrkhy j[kus ds fy, dksbZ ckg~;
cy vko;d ugha gksrk gS
(2) ,d oLrq dks xfrkhy j[kus ds fy, ckg~; cy
vko;d gksrk gS
(3) izR;sd oLrq yxkrkj viuh fojkekoLFkk ;k ljy
js[kk esa ,dleku xfr esa gksrh gS tc rd fd
dksbZ ckg~; cy f;kkhy u gks
(4) izR;sd f;k ds fy,] lnSo leku rFkk foijhr
izfrf;k gksrh gS
5 kg nzO;eku dh ,d xsn
a dks 3 m/s ls /okZ/kj ij
dh vksj iz{ksfir fd;k tkrk gS] rc laox
s esa ifjorZu
dk ifjek.k tc ;g /kjkry rd ykSVrh gS] gS
(1) kwU;
(2) 15 kg m/s
(3) 30 kg m/s

20.

20. Which of the following statement is wrong about

Newtons second law of motion?
(1) Acceleration of a particle depends upon current
forces acting on particle but not on history of
motion
(2) Second law of motion is most general and we
can deduce first and third law from it
(3) Same force for the same time acting on
different particle at rest causes different change
in linear momentum
(4) Second law of motion is defined only for
external force but not for internal force
(4)

(4) 20 kg m/s

U;wVu dh xfr ds f}rh; fu;e ds ckjs esa fuEu esa ls

dkSulk dFku xyr gS\
(1) ,d d.k dk Roj.k d.k ij f;kkhy orZeku cyksa
ij fuHkZj djrk gS ysfdu xfr ds bfrgkl ij
ugha
(2) xfr dk f}rh; fu;e vfr lkekU; gksrk gS rFkk ge
blls izFke rFkk r`rh; fu;e fuxfer dj ldrs gSa
(3) fojke esa fLFkr fHkUu&fHkUu d.k ij leku le;
ds fy, f;kkhy leku cy js[kh; laosx esa
fHkUu&fHkUu ifjorZu mRiUu djrs gaS
(4) xfr dk f}rh; fu;e dsoy ckg~; cy ds fy,
ifjHkkfkr gS ysfdu vkUrfjd cy ds fy, ugha

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

Test-2 (Code A)

21. Which of following statement about equilibrium is

wrong?

21.

lkE;koLFkk ds ckjs esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS\

(1)

lkE;koLFkk esa ,d d.k fojkekoLFkk ;k ,dleku

xfr esa gks ldrk gS

(2)

d.k ij f;kkhy lHkh cyksa dk lfnk ;ksx kwU;

gksxk

(3) All forces acting on particle can be represented

by a sides of polygon taken in same order

(3)

d.k ij f;kkhy lHkh cyksa dks leku e esa yh

xbZ cgqHkqt dh Hkqtkvksa }kjk iznfkZr fd;k tk ldrk gS

(4) A particle in uniform circular motion is in state

of equilibrium

(4)

,dleku o`kh; xfr esa ,d d.k lkE;koLFkk esa

gksrk gS

(1) A particle in equilibrium can be in state of rest

or uniform motion
(2) Vector sum of all forces acting on particle must
be zero

22. The ratio of angular speeds of seconds hand and

hour hand of a watch is
(1) 6 : 1

(2) 12 : 1

(3) 720 : 1

(4) 60 : 1

22.

23. A body is moving on a circle of radius 50 m with

speed 10 m/s, which is increasing at the rate of
2 m/s2 at an instant. Then acceleration of particle at
that instant is
(1) 2 m/s2

23.

(4) 2 2

(1) 6 : 1

(2) 12 : 1

(3) 720 : 1

(4) 60 : 1

,d oLrq 10 m/s pky ls 50 m f=T;k ds o`k esa

xfrkhy gS] pky ,d {k.k ij 2 m/s2 dh nj ij c<+
jgh gSA bl {k.k ij d.k dk Roj.k gS
(1) 2 m/s2

(2) 4 m/s2

(3) Zero

,d ?kM+h dh lsd.M dh lqbZ rFkk ?k.Vs dh lqbZ dh

dks.kh; pky dk vuqikr gS

(2) 4 m/s2

kwU;
(4) 2 2 m/s2
nks oLrqvksa ds ,d fudk; dks 4 m/s2 Roj.k ls ij
dh vksj [khapk tkrk gSA nksuksa oLrqvksa dks la;ksftr
djus okyh jLlh esa ruko gksxk (g = 10 m/s2)
(3)

m/s2

24.

24. A system of two bodies is pulled up with an

acceleration of 4 m/s 2 . Then tension in string
connecting two bodies will be (g = 10 m/s2)

2 kg

2 kg

a = 4 m/s

a = 4 m/s

4 kg

4 kg
(1) 20 N

(2) 24 N

(3) 56 N

(4) 80 N

(1) 20 N
(3) 56 N
25.

25. Two particles are revolving in circular path of radii

3 m and 4 m respectively with same speed, the
ratio of their angular velocities is
(1) 3 : 4

(2) 4 : 3

(3) 1 : 1

(4) 9 : 16

(1) 10 m

(2) 20 m

(3) 30 m

(4) 40 m

26.

(2) 90

(3) 135

(4) 180

27.

(2) 20 m
(4) 40 m

iz{ksI; xfr ds iz{ksi&iFk ds fk[kj ij] xq:Ro ds dkj.k

osx rFkk Roj.k ds e/; dks.k gS
(1) 0
(3) 135

(5)

(2) 4 : 3
(4) 9 : 16

,d oLrq dks 20 m/s osx ls [kqjnjs {kSfrt ry ds

vuqfnk iz{ksfir fd;k tkrk gSA ;fn = 0.5, rc :dus
ls igys oLrq }kjk r; nwjh gS
(1) 10 m
(3) 30 m

27. At the top of the trajectory of a projectile motion,

angle between velocity and acceleration due to
gravity is
(1) 0

nks d.k leku pky ls ek% 3 m rFkk 4 m f=T;k ds

o`kh; iFk esa ?kw.kZu dj jgs gS]a buds dks.kh; osx dk
vuqikr gS
(1) 3 : 4
(3) 1 : 1

26. A body is projected along rough horizontal plane

with velocity 20 m/s. If = 0.5, then distance
covered by body before stop, is

(2) 24 N
(4) 80 N

(2) 90
(4) 180

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

28. If sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector then angle

between them is
(1) 60

(2) 120

(3) 90

(4) Zero

28.

29. The position of particle at any time t is given as


S = (3t i + 4t 2 j + 5k ) metre, then magnitude of
acceleration after time t = 2 s is
(1) 4 m/s2

(2) 8 m/s2

(3) 5 m/s2

(4) 3 m/s2

29.

30.

30. Two balls are projected with same speed at angles

of projection 30 and 60 with horizontal
respectively, then ratio of their ranges is

;fn nks bdkbZ lfnkksa dk ;ksx bdkbZ lfnk gS] rc

buds e/; dks.k gS
(1) 60

(2) 120

(3) 90

(4)

(1) 4 m/s2

(2) 8 m/s2

(3) 5 m/s2

(4) 3 m/s2

kwU;

fdlh le; t ij ,d d.k dh fLFkfr S = (3t i + 4t 2 j + 5k )
ehVj }kjk nh tkrh gS] rc t = 2 s ckn Roj.k dk ifjek.k gS

nks xsnksa dks {kSfrt ls ek% 30 rFkk 60 iz{ksi.k dks.kksa

ij leku pky ls iz{ksfir fd;k tkrk gS] rc budh
ijkl dk vuqikr gS

(1) 1 : 1

(2) 1 :

(1) 1 : 1

(3)

(4) 2 :

(3)

3 :1


31. In the given diagram angle between vector A and
B is

31.

(2) 1 :

3 :1

fn, x, fp= es]a lfnk

(4) 2 : 3


A rFkk B ds

e/; dks.k gS

60
60

60

60

C
60

60

A
(1) 60

(2) 120

(3) 90

(4) 135

32.

32. A body moves on a flat, horizontal and circular path

of radius 12 m. If coefficient of friction is 0.3, then
maximum angular speed of body without slipping (in
radian per second)

(1) 60

(2) 120

(3) 90

(4) 135

,d oLrq 12 m f=T;k ds likV] {kSfrt rFkk o`kh;

iFk ij xfr djrh gSA ;fn ?kkZ.k xq.kkad 0.3 gS] rc
fcuk fQlys oLrq dh vf/kdre dks.kh; pky ( izfr
lsd.M jsfM;u esa) gS

(1) 0.5

(2) 1

(1) 0.5

(2) 1

(3) 1.5

(4) 2

(3) 1.5

(4) 2

33. A projectile is projected at an angle 45 with

horizontal, then ratio of maximum height attained
and range of projectile is
(1) 1 : 1

(2) 1 : 2

(3) 1 : 4

(4) 4 : 1

33.

34. If a body is projected along rough horizontal plane

with velocity 20 m/s. If the body comes to rest after
time t = 4 s, then coefficient of friction is
(1) 0.2

(2) 0.3

(3) 0.4

(4) 0.5

34.

35. A rocket with a lift off mass 10,000 kg is blasted

upwards with a net initial acceleration of 2 m/s2,
then initial thrust (force) of the blast is
(g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 1.2
(3) 105 N

104

(2) 1.2

105

35.

,d iz{ksI; dks {kSfrt ls 45 dks.k ij iz{ksfir fd;k

tkrk gS] rc iz{ksI; }kjk izkIr vf/kdre pkbZ rFkk
bldh ijkl dk vuqikr gS
(1) 1 : 1

(2) 1 : 2

(3) 1 : 4

(4) 4 : 1

;fn ,d oLrq dks 20 m/s osx ls [kqjnjs {kSfrt ry

ds vuqfn'k iz{ksfir fd;k tkrk gSA ;fn oLrq t = 4 s
ckn fojke esa vkrh gS] rc ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad gS
(1) 0.2

(2) 0.3

(3) 0.4

(4) 0.5

mRFkkid nzO;eku 10,000 kg okys ,d jkWdVs dks 2 m/s2

ds usV izkjfEHkd Roj.k ls ij dh vksj foLQksfVr fd;k
tkrk gS ] rc foLQks V dk iz k jfEHkd iz . kks n (cy ) gS
(g = 10 m/s2)

(4) 106 N
(6)

(1) 1.2 104 N

(2) 1.2 105 N

(3) 105 N

(4) 106 N

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

Test-2 (Code A)

36. Two bodies of masses 5 kg and 6 kg are kept on

smooth horizontal surface are connected by light
string. If 6 kg body is pulled by force of 220 N, then
tension in string connecting the two bodies will be

36.

F = 220 N
6 kg

fpduh {kSfrt lrg ij j[kh 5 kg rFkk 6 kg nzO;eku

dh nks oLrqvksa dks gYdh jLlh }kjk la;ksftr fd;k
tkrk gSA ;fn 6 kg dh oLrq dks 220 N cy ls [khapk
tkrk gS] rc nksuksa oLrqvksa dks la;ksftr djus okyh
jLlh esa ruko gksxk

5 kg

F = 220 N
6 kg

(1) 100 N

(2) 120 N

(3) 160 N

(4) 180 N

37. A box of mass 20 kg suspended with help of three

strings as shown in figure is in equilibrium. Then

37.

T1
ratio of tensions T will be
2

T1 30 60

(1)
(3)

1
3
3

5 kg

(1) 100 N

(2) 120 N

(3) 160 N

(4) 180 N

fp= esa n'kkZ, vuqlkj rhu jfLl;ksa dh lgk;rk ls

yVdk 20 kg nzO;eku dk ,d cDlk lkE;koLFkk esa gSA
rc ruko dk vuqikr

T2

T1
T2

gksxk

T1 30 60

T3

T3

20 kg

20 kg

(2)
(4)

(1)

3
3
2

(3)

(2) 45 N

(3) 60 N

(4) 65 N

3
3

(2)
(4)

2
3
3
2

38. 30 kg

nzO;eku ds ,d cDls dks Vd ds ij j[kk

tkrk gSA cDls rFkk Vd dh lrg ds e/; ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad
0.2 gSA vc ;fn Vd 1.5 m/s2 ls Rofjr gksrk gS] rc
cDls rFkk Vd ds e/; ?k"kZ.k cy gS

38. A box of mass 30 kg is placed over truck.

Coefficient of friction between box and surface of
truck is 0.2. Now if truck accelerate with 1.5 m/s2
then force of friction between box and truck is
(1) 30 N

T2

39. Arrange the following in increasing order of force of

friction; Limiting friction (Fs), Sliding friction (Fk),
Rolling friction (Fr)

39.

(1) 30 N

(2) 45 N

(3) 60 N

(4) 65 N

?k"kZ.k cy] lhekUr ?k"kZ.k (Fs); fQlyu ?k"kZ.k (Fk), yksVuh

?k"kZ.k (Fr) dks o/kZeku e esa O;ofLFkr dhft,A
(1) Fs, Fk, Fr

(1) Fs, Fk, Fr

(2) Fk, Fs, Fr

(2) Fk, Fs, Fr

(3) Fr, Fs, Fk

(3) Fr, Fs, Fk

(4) Fr, Fk, Fs

(4) Fr, Fk, Fs

40.

40. A cyclist is riding with speed of 10 m/s, when he

takes a circular turn of radius 25 m. He applies
brakes and reduces his speed at constant rate of
3 m/s2, then net acceleration of cyclist will be
(1) 3 m/s2

(2) 5 m/s2

(3) 7 m/s2

(4) 1 m/s2
(7)

tc ,d lkbZfdy pkyd 25 m f=T;k ds o`kh; eksM+

esa eqMrk gS] rc og 10 m/s pky ls xfr djrk gSA
og czd
s yxkrk gS rFkk 3 m/s2 dh fu;r nj ij mldh
pky ?kVkrk gS] rc lkbZfdy pkyd dk usV Roj.k
gksxk
(1) 3 m/s2

(2) 5 m/s2

(3) 7 m/s2

(4) 1 m/s2

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

41. Which of the following statement is wrong about

Newtons laws of motion?

41.

(1) 1 m/s

(2) 3 m/s

U;wVu dh xfr ds fu;eksa ds ckjs esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk

dFku xyr gS\
(1) xfr dk izFke fu;e tM+Ro dh ifjHkk"kk nsrk gS]
ysfdu tM+Ro dk fu;e xSfyfy;ks }kjk fn;k x;k gS
(2) izFke fu;e cy dh xq.kkRed ifjHkk"kk nsrk gS
(3) f}rh; fu;e cy dh ek=kRed ifjHkk"kk nsrk gS
(4) r`rh; fu;e vfr lkekU; gksrk gS D;ksfa d blls
izFke rFkk f}rh; fu;e dks O;qRiUu fd;k tk ldrk gS
2 kg rFkk 3 kg nzO;eku dh nks xan
s e'k% 10 m/s
rFkk 5 m/s pky ls leku ljy js[kk ds vuqfn'k ,d
nwljs dh vksj xfr'khy gSAa ;fn ;s Vdjkrh gSa rFkk
,d lkFk fpidrh gaS] rc la;Dq r fudk; dh pky gS

(3) 5 m/s

(4) 7 m/s

(1) 1 m/s

(2) 3 m/s

(3) 5 m/s

(4) 7 m/s

(1) First law of motion gives definition of inertia, but

law of inertia was given by Galileo
(2) First law gives qualitative definition of force
(3) Second law gives quantitative definition of force
(4) Third law is most general because first and
second law can be derived from it
42. Two balls of masses 2 kg and 3 kg are moving
towards each other along same straight line with
speeds 10 m/s and 5 m/s respectively. If they collide
and stick together, then speed of combined system is

42.

43. Acceleration of 5 kg block is 2 m/s 2 . Then

acceleration of 8 kg block at same instant will be
(All surfaces are smooth)

CykWd dk Roj.k 2 m/s2 gS] rc leku {k.k ij

kg CykWd dk Roj.k gksxk (lHkh lrgsa fpduh gSa)

43. 5 kg

8kg

2 m/s
20 N
5kg

8kg

(1) 2.50 m/s2

(2) 3.25 m/s2

(1) 2.50 m/s2

(3) 2.00 m/s2

(4) 1.25 m/s2

(3) 2.00 m/s2

44. A particle of mass 4 kg is moving with velocity


v = 3i 2 j + bk , if linear momentum of particle is
15 kg m/s, then value of b is nearly

44. 4 kg

2 m/s
20 N
5kg

(2) 3.25 m/s2

(4) 1.25 m/s2
d.k v = 3i 2 j + bk

nzO;eku dk ,d
osx ls
xfr'khy gS] ;fn d.k dk js[kh; laox
s 15 kg m/s gS]
rc b dk eku yxHkx gS

(1) 1

(2) 2

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

(3) 3

(4) 4

45. 10 kg

nzO;eku dh ,d oLrq dks fyV ds Q'kZ ij

j[kk tkrk gSA ;fn fyV 12 m/s2 ij fxjuk izkjEHk
djrh gS] rc Q'kZ }kjk oLrq ij vfHkyEc izfrf;k gS

45. A body of mass 10 kg is kept on the floor of a lift.

If the lift starts falling at 12 m/s 2, then normal
reaction on the body by the floor is
(1) 20 N

(2) 20 N

(1) 20 N

(2) 20 N

(3) 220 N

(4) Zero

(3) 220 N

(4)

'kwU;

CHEMISTRY
46.

46. Which of the following is correct regarding the order

of their ionisation energy?

fuEu esa ls budh vk;uu tkZ ds lanHkZ esa dkSulk

e lgh gS\

(1) N > O > F

(1) N > O > F

(2) N < O < F

(2) N < O < F

(3) N > O < F

(3) N > O < F

(4) N < O > F

(4) N < O > F

47.

47. Which out of the following represents most

electropositive element?

fuEu esa ls dkSu vR;f/kd fo|qr/kuh rRo dks iznf'kZr

djrk gS\

(1) [He]2s1

(2) [He]2s2

(1) [He]2s1

(2) [He]2s2

(3) [Xe]6s1

(4) [Xe]6s2

(3) [Xe]6s1

(4) [Xe]6s2

(8)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

Test-2 (Code A)

48. Electronic configuration of four elements A, B, C

and D are given below

48.

pkj rRoksa A, B, C rFkk D ds bysDVkWuh; foU;kl uhps

fn, x, gSa

A. 1s22s22p6

B. 1s22s22p4

A. 1s22s22p6

B. 1s22s22p4

C. 1s22s22p63s1

D. 1s22s22p5

C. 1s22s22p63s1

D. 1s22s22p5

Which of the following is the correct order of

increasing tendency to gain electron?

fuEu esa ls bysDVkWu xzg.k djus dh c<+rh izof` k dk

lgh e dkSulk gS\

(1) A < C < B < D

(2) A < B < C < D

(1) A < C < B < D

(2) A < B < C < D

(3) D < C < B < A

(4) C < D < A < B

(3) D < C < B < A

(4) C < D < A < B

49.

49. The elements in which electrons are progressively

filled in 4f-subshell are called
(1) Actinoids

(2) Lanthanoids

(3) Transition elements (4) Halogens

50. The statement which is not correct for periodic
classification of elements is

50.

(1) The properties of elements are periodic function

of their atomic numbers
(2) Non-metallic elements are less in number than
metallic
(3) For transition elements, the 3d-orbitals are filled
with electrons after 3p-orbital and before 4sorbital
(4) The I.E. of elements generally increases with
increase in atomic number as we go along a
period
51. Among the following, the pair in which the species
are not isostructural is
(1) BH4 and NH4+

(2) PF6 and SF6

(3) SiF4 and SF4

(4) IO3 and XeO3

51.

52. On the basis of dipole moments, which of the

following arrangement is correct?

52.

(1) BF3 > NF3 > NH3

rRo ftuesa bysDVkWu fed :i ls 4f-midks'k esa Hkjs

tkrs gS]a os dgykrs gSa
(1) ,fDVukWbM
(2) ySUFksukWbM
(3) lae.k rRo
(4) gSykstu
rRoksa ds vkorhZ oxhZdj.k ds fy, dkSulk dFku lgh
ugha gS\
(1) rRoksa ds xq.k buds ijek.kq ekad ds vkorhZ Qyu
gksrs gSa
(2) v/kkfRod rRoksa dh la[;k /kkfRod rRoksa ls de
gksrh gS
(3) lae.k rRoksa ds fy,] 3p-d{kd ds ckn o 4sd{kd ls igys 3d-d{kd esa bysDVkWu Hkjs tkrs gSa
(4) tc ge ,d vkorZ ds vuqfn'k pyrs gSa rks ijek.kq
ekad esa o`f) ds lkFk rRoksa dh vk;uu tkZ
lkekU;r% c<+rh gS
fuEu esa ls fdl ;qXe dh Lih'kht lelajpukRed
ugha gSa\
(1) BH4 rFkk NH4+
(2) PF6 rFkk SF6
(3) SiF4 rFkk SF4
(4) IO3 rFkk XeO3
f}/kzoq vk?kw.kZ ds vk/kkj ij fuEu esa ls dkSulk foU;kl
lgh gS\
(1) BF3 > NF3 > NH3

(2) NF3 > BF3 > NH3

(2) NF3 > BF3 > NH3

(3) NH3 > BF3 > NF3

(3) NH3 > BF3 > NF3

(4) NH3 > NF3 > BF3

(4) NH3 > NF3 > BF3

53.

53. The number of and bonds present in

HC C CH2 HC = CH2
(1) 10, 3

(1) 10, 3
(3) 4, 9

(2) 3, 10

(3) 4, 9

(4) 9, 4

NO2

NH2

54. Amongst BF 3 ,
,
hybridised central atom is in

and H 2 O, the

HC C CH2 HC = CH2

esa mifLFkr

rFkk cUkksa

dh la[;k gS
(2) 3, 10
(4) 9, 4

54. BF3, NO2 , NH2

sp 2

ijek.kq

sp2

rFkk H2O es a ls fdles a ds U nz h ;

ladfjr gS\

rFkk

NO2

(1) BF3 and NO2

(1) BF3

(2) NO2 and NH2

(2) NO2

rFkk

NH2

(3) NH2 and H2O

(3) NH2

rFkk

H2O

(4) NO2 and H2O

(4) NO2

rFkk

H2O

(9)

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

55. Which of the following is linear in shape?

55.

NO2+

(1) SO2

(2)

(3) O3

(4) NO2

56. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the

following is correct regarding their increasing bond
order?
(1) N2 < N22 < N2

(2) N2 < N2 < N22

(3) N22 < N2 < N2

(4) N2 < N22 < N2

57. The pair of species of oxygen and their magnetic

behaviour are given below. Which of them
represents correct relationship?

56.

57.

(1) O2 , O22 (Both diamagnetic)

(2) O22 , O2+ (Both paramagnetic)
(3) O2+ , O2 (Both paramagnetic)
(4) O2 , O22 (Both paramagnetic)
58. In which of the following, the double bond consists
of only bonds?
(1) O2
(2) C2
(3) Be2
(4) S2
59. The bond order of N O bonds in NO3 is
(1) 1.33
(2) 0.33
(3) 1.50
(4) 1.00
60. The polarity of the covalent bond is maximum in
(1) F F
(2) O F
(3) N F
(4) C F
61. How many hydrogen bonded water molecules are
associated with CuSO4.5H2O?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
62. Equal volumes of two gases A and B diffuse
through a porous pot in 20 and 10 s respectively.
If the molar mass of A is 80, then molar mass of B
is
(1) 30 g/mol
(2) 25 g/mol
(3) 20 g/mol
(4) 40 g/mol
63. At 27C and one atm pressure, a gas has volume
V. Its volume at 177C and a pressure of 1.5 atm
would be
(1) 2 V
(2) 4 V
(3) V
(4) 3 V
64. The density of a gas is found to be 3.43 g/L at
300 K and 1 atm pressure. The molar mass of the
gas is
(1) 84.5 g/mol
(2) 34.5 g/mol
(3) 90 g/mol
(4) 55.5 g/mol
65. Which of the gas always show positive deviation
from ideal gas behaviour?
(2) CO2
(1) H2
(3) NH3
(4) CH4
(10)

58.

fuEu esa ls fdldh vkd`fr js[kh; gS\

(1) SO2

(2) NO2+

(3) O3

(4) NO2

v.kq d{kd fl)kUr ds vuqlkj c<+rs cUk e ds lanHkZ

esa dkSulk e lgh gS\
(1) N2 < N22 < N2

(2) N2 < N2 < N22

(3) N22 < N2 < N2

(4) N2 < N22 < N2

vkWDlhtu dh Lih'kht ds ;qXe rFkk buds pqEcdh;

O;ogkj dks uhps fn;k x;k gSA fuEu esa ls dkSu lgh
lEcU/k dks iznf'kZr djrk gS\
(1) O2 , O22 nksuksa izfrpqEcdh;
(2) O22 , O2+ nksuksa vuqpqEcdh;
(3) O2+ , O2 nksuksa vuqpqEcdh;
(4) O2 , O22 nksuksa vuqpqEcdh;
fuEu esa ls fdlesa f}cU/k dsoy cU/kksa }kjk fufeZr gS\
(1) O2
(3) Be2

59. NO3

esa

(2) C2
(4) S2
NO

(1) 1.33
(3) 1.50
60.

cU/kksa dk cU/k e gS
(2) 0.33
(4) 1.00

fuEu esa ls fdlesa lgla;kstd cU/k dh /kzoq rk vf/kdre gS\

(1) F F
(3) N F

61. CuSO 4.5H 2O

(2) O F
(4) C F

es a ty ds fdrus v.kq gkbM k s t u

cfUkr gSa\
(1) 1
(3) 3
62.

(2) 2
(4) 4

nks xSlksa A o B ds rqY; vk;ru ,d fNfnzr ik= ls

e'k% 20 rFkk 10 s esa folfjr gksrs gSAa ;fn A dk
eksyj nzO;eku 80 gS] rks B dk eksyj nzO;eku gS
(1) 30 g/mol
(3) 20 g/mol

(2) 25 g/mol
(4) 40 g/mol

63. 27C rFkk 1 atm nkc ij] ,d

gSA 177C rFkk 1.5 atm nkc ij

xSl dk vk;ru V
bldk vk;ru gksxk

(1) 2 V

(2) 4 V

(3) V

(4) 3 V

64. 300 K

rFkk 1 atm nkc ij ,d xS l dk ?kuRo

3.43 g/L ik;k x;kA xSl dk eksyj nzO;eku gS

65.

(1) 84.5 g/mol

(2) 34.5 g/mol

(3) 90 g/mol

(4) 55.5 g/mol

dkSulh xSl] vkn'kZ xSl O;ogkj ls lnSo kukRed

fopyu n'kkZrh gS\
(1) H2

(2) CO2

(3) NH3

(4) CH4

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

66. Boyle-temperature and inversion temperature are

related as
(1) Ti = Tb

(2) 2Ti = Tb

(3) Ti = 2Tb

(4) Ti = Tb

Test-2 (Code A)

66.

67.

67. A real gas acts as an ideal gas under which

condition?
(1) High temperature, low pressure
(2) High temperature, high pressure
(3) Low temperature, high pressure
(4) Low temperature, low pressure
68. The correct order of 1st ionisation potentials among
the following elements i.e. Be, B, C, N and O is

68.

69.

70.

71.

(4) All of these

(3) d block

(4) f block

73. Which of the following oxide is likely to react with

NaOH readily?

(4) Ti = Tb

,d okLrfod xSl dkSulh ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa vkn'kZ xSl

ds leku O;ogkj djrh gS\
(1) mPp rki] fuEu nkc
(2) mPp rki] mPp nkc
(3) fuEu rki] mPp nkc
(4) fuEu rki] fuEu nkc
fuEu rRoksa vFkkZr~ Be, B, C, N rFkk O esa izFke vk;uu
foHko dk lgh e gS

(4) N > O > C > B > Be

(3) B and Si

(2) p block

(3) Ti = 2Tb

(3) O > N > C > Be > B

(2) Be and Al

(1) s block

(2) 2Ti = Tb

(2) O > N > C > B > Be

(1) Li and Mg

72. The element with atomic number 51 exists in

(1) Ti = Tb

(1) N > O > C > Be > B

(1) N > O > C > Be > B

(2) O > N > C > B > Be
(3) O > N > C > Be > B
(4) N > O > C > B > Be
69. Element having atomic number 120, if discovered
will have its group number, period number and
IUPAC name to be
(1) 2, 8, Ubn
(2) 2, 7, Ubn
(3) 2, 8, Bbn
(4) 1, 7, Ubn
70. Out of the following arrangements given below the
order is not according to the property indicated
against it?
(1) Li < Na < K < Rb
Increasing metallic
character
(2) B < C < N < O
Increasing 1st
ionization energy
(3) I < Br < F < Cl
Increasing electron
gain enthalpy (with
ve sign)
3+
2+
+

(4) Al < Mg < Na < F Increasing ionic size

71. The elements which do not belong to the same
group but resembles chemically many properties

ckW;y rki rFkk O;qRe.k rki esa lEcU/k gS

72.

73.

(1) Na2O

;fn ijek.kq ekad 120 okys rRo dh [kkst gks tk,

rks bldh oxZ la[;k] vkorZ la[;k rFkk IUPAC uke
gksxk
(1) 2, 8, Ubn

(2) 2, 7, Ubn

(3) 2, 8, Bbn

(4) 1, 7, Ubn

uhps fn, x, foU;kl esa dkSulk foU;kl buds vkxs

fufnZ"V xq.k ds vuq:i ugha gS\
(1) Li < Na < K < Rb
c<+rs /kkfRod y{k.k
(2) B < C < N < O
c<+rh izFke vk;uu tkZ
(3) I < Br < F < Cl
c<+ r h bys D V k W u yfCk
,UFkSYih (ve fpUg lfgr)
3+
2+
+

(4) Al < Mg < Na < F c<+rk vk;fud vkdkj

fuEu esa ls dkSuls rRo ,d gh oxZ ls lEcfUkr ugha
gSa ysfdu dbZ xq.kksa esa jklk;fud :i ls leku gS\a
(1) Li rFkk Mg
(2) Be rFkk Al
(3) B rFkk Si
(4) buesa ls lHkh
ijek.kq ekad 51 okyk rRo mifLFkr gS
(1) s CykWd esa
(2) p CykWd esa
(3) d CykWd esa
(4) f CykWd esa
fuEu esa ls dkSulk vkWDlkbM NaOH ds lkFk laHkor%
'kh?kzrk ls f;k djrk gS\
(1) Na2O

(2) CaO

(2) CaO

(3) SO2

(3) SO2

(4) Cl2O7

(4) Cl2O7
(11)

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

74. Which of the following is a non-polar molecule?

(1) BF3

(2) ClF3

(3) PCl3

(4) SO2

74.

fuEu esa ls v/kzoq h; v.kq dkSulk gS\

(1) BF3
(3) PCl3

75. XeF4

75. Shape of XeF4 is

(1) Spherical
(2) Trigonal bipyramidal
(3) Square planar
(4) Tetrahedral
76. Which of the following has maximum dipole moment?

76.

dh vkd`fr gS
(1) xksyh;
(2) f=Hkqth; f}fijSfeMh;
(3) oxZ leryh;
(4) prq"Qydh;
fuEu esa ls fdldk f}/kzoq vk?kw.kZ vf/kdre gS\

Cl

Cl

(2) ClF3
(4) SO2

(2)

(1)

Cl

Cl

Cl

Cl

(1)

(2)

Cl

Cl

Cl

Cl

Cl

(3)

(3)

(4)

Cl

Cl

Cl

77. In
ion, the number of bond pair and lone pair
of electrons associated with nitrogen atom are
(1) 2, 2

(2) 3, 1

(3) 1, 3

(4) 4, 0
4

77.

78.

vk;u esa ukbVkt

s u ijek.kq ls lEcfU/kr vkca/k
bysDVkWu ;qXe rFkk ,dkadh bysDVkWu ;qXe dh la[;k gS

(1)

(3) sp,

sp3,

sp

sp2

(2)

sp2,

sp,

dkcZu

(4) sp, sp2, sp3

(1)

(3) B2

79.

(2) Be2
(4) Li2

80.

80. Which of the following has high lattice energy?

(1) LiF

(2) MgF2

(3) CaO

(4) AlN
(2) Square pyramidal

(3) T-shape

(4) Bent

82.

(1) Collisions are always inelastic

(2) There is no intermolecular force of attraction
between gas molecules
(3) All the molecules have very high velocity
(4) Between collisions, the molecules move in
curved lines with different velocities
(12)

(2) sp2, sp, sp3

(4) sp, sp2, sp3

(1) H3O+

(2) Be2

(3) B2

(4) Li2

fuEu esa ls fdldh tkyd tkZ mPp gS\

81. BrF5

82. According to kinetic theory of gases,

o 5 dh ladj.k voLFkk dk e gS

lkekU; ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa fuEu esa ls fdl Lih'kht dk

vfLrRo ugha gksrk gS\

(1) LiF
(3) CaO

81. The shape of BrF5 is

(1) Square planar

1, 3

(1) sp3, sp2, sp

(3) sp, sp3, sp2

sp3

79. Which of the following species does not exist under

normal conditions?
H3O+

CH3 CH = CH CH2 C CH

the hybridization state of carbon 1, 3 & 5 are in the

sequence of
sp2,

(2) 3, 1
(4) 4, 0

fn, x, gkbMkd
s kcZu es]a

CH3 CH = CH CH2 C CH

sp3,

Cl

Cl

NO3

(1) 2, 2
(3) 1, 3

78. In the hydrocarbon given below,

5

(4)

Cl

NO3

Cl

(2) MgF2
(4) AlN

dh vkd`fr gS
(1) oxZ leryh;
(2) oxZ fijSfeMh;
(3) T-vkd`fr
(4) cafdr
xSlksa ds v.kqxfr fl)kar ds vuqlkj
(1) VDdj lnSo vizR;kLFk gksrh gS
(2) xSl v.kqvksa ds e; vUrjvk.kfod vkd"kZ.k cy
ugha gksrk
(3) lHkh v.kqvksa dk osx cgqr mPp gksrk gS
(4) VDdjksa es]a v.kq fofHkUu osxksa ls ofr js[kkvksa esa
xfr djrs gSa

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

Test-2 (Code A)

83. The ratio of the masses of SO 3 and O 2 gases

confined in a vessel is 1 : 1. Calculate the ratio of
partial pressure
(1) 5 : 2

(2) 2 : 5

(3) 2 : 1

(4) 1 : 2

84. At what temperature, the rms velocity of a gas

shown at 50C will be doubled?
(1) 200C

(2) 1000C

(3) 508C

(4) 1019C

85. 0.5 mole of each H2, SO2 and CH4 are kept in a
container. A hole was made in the container. After
3 hour, the order of partial pressures in container
will be

83.

(1) 5 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
84.

85.

50C

(2) 1000C
(4) 1019C

,d ik= esa H2, SO2 rFkk CH4 izR;sd ds 0.5 eksy

fy;s x;s gSaA ik= esa ,d fNnz cuk;k tkrk gSA
3 ?k.Vs ds ckn] ik= esa vkaf'kd nkcksa dk e gS
(1) pSO2 > pCH4 > pH2

(2) pH2 > pSO2 > pCH4

(2) pH2 > pSO2 > pCH4

(3) pH2 > pCH4 > pSO2

(3) pH2 > pCH4 > pSO2

(4) pSO2 > pH2 > pCH4

86. In order to increase the volume of a gas by 10%
the pressure of the gas should be
(1) Decrease by 1%

(2) Decrease by 5%

(3) Decrease by 9%

(4) Decrease by 10%

87. The value of compressibility factor for a real gas at

critical conditions is

(3)

(2) 2 : 5
(4) 1 : 2

fdl rki ij ,d xSl dk oxZ ek; ewy osx

ij oxZ ek; ewy osx dk nqxuk gksxk\
(1) 200C
(3) 508C

(1) pSO2 > pCH4 > pH2

(1)

,d ik= esa ifjc) SO3 rFkk O2 xSlksa ds nzO;ekuksa

dk vuqikr 1 : 1 gSA buds vkaf'kd nkcksa ds vuqikr
dh x.kuk dhft,A

8
3

(2)

27
8

(4)

(4) pSO2 > pH2 > pCH4

86.

87.

3
8

8
27

88. If a gas expands at constant temperature, it

indicates that

88.

(1) Kinetic energy of the molecules increases

(2) Pressure of the gas increases
(3) Kinetic energy of the molecules remains the same
(4) Number of molecules of the gas increases
89. Pressure of mixture of 4 g of O2 and 2 g of H2
confined in a bulb of 1 litre at 0C is
(1) 25.21 atm

(2) 45.21 atm

(3) 35.21 atm

(4) 15.21 atm

90. Containers A and B have same gas. If pressure,

volume and temperature of A are all twice those of
B, then the ratio of number of molecules of A to that
of B are

89.

,d xSl dk vk;ru 10% c<+kus ds fy, xSl ds nkc

esa gksuh pkfg,
(1) 1% dh deh
(2) 5% dh deh
(3) 9% dh deh
(4) 10% dh deh
kfUrd ifjfLFkfr;ksa ij ,d okLrfod xSl ds fy,
laihM~;rk xq.kkad dk eku gS
(1)

8
3

(2)

3
8

(3)

27
8

(4)

8
27

;fn ,d xSl fu;r rki ij izlkfjr gksrh gS rks ;g

izfs {kr gksrk gS fd
(1) v.kqvksa dh xfrt tkZ c<+rh gS
(2) xSl dk nkc c<+rk gS
(3) v.kqvksa dh xfrt tkZ leku jgrh gS
(4) xSl ds v.kqvksa dh la[;k c<+rh gS
0C ij 1 yhVj ds cYc es a Hkjs 4 g O 2 rFkk
2 g H2 ds feJ.k dk nkc gS
(1) 25.21 atm
(3) 35.21 atm

90.

(1) 1 : 2

ik= A rFkk B esa leku xSl gSA ;fn A ds nkc]

vk;ru rFkk rki lHkh ds eku B dh vis{kk nqxus
gks]a rks A o B ds v.kqvksa dh la[;k dk vuqikr gS
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

(2) 1 : 4
(3) 4 : 3
(4) 2 : 1
(13)

(2) 45.21 atm

(4) 15.21 atm

1
1
4
2

:
:
:
:

2
4
3
1

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

BOTANY
91. The system of classification which had separated
closely related species as they were based on a
few characteristics is

91.

(1) Phylogenetic system

(2) Artificial system
(3) Natural system
(4) More than one option is correct

92.

92. In numerical taxonomy

(1) All characters are given equal weightage
(2) Chemical constituents of plants are given prime
importance
(3) Statistical analysis of data is avoided
(4) Number and codes are not assigned to
characters
93. Phaeophyceae does not include

93.

(1) Filamentous forms

(2) Large massive forms
(3) Unicellular forms
(4) Parenchymatous forms

94.

94. The mentioned features in the given box are related

with the class of algae, examplified by

oxhZdj.k dh og i)fr ftlus dqN vfHky{k.kksa ds vk/kkj

ij fudV lEcfU/kr tkfr;ksa dks i`Fkd fd;k gS] dkSulh gS\
(1) tkfro`kh; i)fr
(2) f=e i)fr
(3) kfrd i)fr
(4) ,d ls vf/kd fodYi lgh gSa
la[;kRed oxdh esa
(1) lh y{k.kksa dks leku egRo fn;k x;k gS
(2) ikniksa ds jklk;fud ?kVdksa dks vf/kd egRo fn;k
x;k gS
(3) vkdM+kas ds lakf[;dh; fo'ysk.k ij /;ku ugha fn;k
x;k gS
(4) la[;k o dwV y{k.kksa ls lEcfU/kr ugha gksrs gSa
fQ;ksQkblh esa lfEefyr ugha gSa
(1) rUrqy izk:i
(2) nh?kZ LFkwy izk:i
(3) ,ddksfkdh; izk:i
(4) e`nw kdh izk:i
ckWDl esa nh xbZ fokskrk, kSokyksa ds ftl oxZ ls
lEcfU/kr gS]a mlds mnkgj.kksa dk p;u dhft,

lafpr kstu ds :i esa LVkpZ] led'kkfHkd

rFkk 'kh"kZ d'kkHkU;kl

Starch as stored food, isokont and apical flagellation

(1) Sargassum, Laminaria

(1)

(2) Ectocarpus, Porphyra

(3) Ulothrix, Chlamydomonas
(4) Porphyra, Polysiphonia
95. Floridean starch is very similar to _____ in structure
and found in ______ .

95.

(1) Amylopectin, Gracilaria

(2) Amylopectin, Laminaria
(3) Glycogen, Volvox
(4) Glucose, Sargassum
96.

96. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. hydrocolloids

(1) It is present in the cell wall of both red algae
and brown algae
(2) Carrageen is produced by brown algae
(3) Algin is produced by brown algae
(4) Agar is one such commercial product obtained
from Gelidium
(14)

lkjxSle] ysfeusfj;k
(2) ,DVksdkiZl] ikWjQkbjk
(3) ;wyksfFkzDl] DysekbMkseksukl
(4) ikWjQkbjk] iksyhlkbQksfu;k
yksfjMh;u LVkpZ lajpuk esa _____ ds vR;f/kd leku
gksrk gS rFkk ______ esa ik;k tkrk gSA
(1) ,ek;yksifs DVu] xzfs lysfj;k
(2) ,ek;yksifs DVu] ysfeusfj;k
(3) Xykbdkstu] okWYokWDl
(4) Xywdkst] lkjxSle
gkbMkd
s kWykbZMl
~ ds lUnHkZ esa xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,
(1) ;g yky rFkk wjs nksuksa kSokyksa dh dksfkdk fHkfk
esa mifLFkr gksrk gS
(2) dkjkxhu wjs kSokyksa ds }kjk mRikfnr gksrk gS
(3) ,fYtu wjs kSokyksa ds }kjk mRikfnr gksrk gS
(4) vxkj] ftyhfM;e ls kIr gks u s okyk ,d
O;olkf;d mRikn gS

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

97. If the number of chromosomes in the spore mother

cell of a bryophyte is 12, the number of
chromosomes in its protonema, rhizoid and foot of
sporophyte respectively would be

Test-2 (Code A)

97.

(1) 6, 12, 12

(1) 6, 12, 12

(2) 6, 6, 12

(2) 6, 6, 12

(3) 12, 12, 6

(3) 12, 12, 6

(4) 6, 12, 6
98. Choose the correct option w.r.t. importance of
moss.

(4) 6, 12, 6
98.

(1) Trans-shipment of materials

(2) Prevention of soil erosion
(3) Resists forest fires
(4) More than one option is correct
99. Gemmae of Marchantia

;fn czk;ksQkbV dh ,d chtk.kq ekr` dksfkdk esa

xq.klw=ksa dh la[;k 12 gS] rks blds chtk.kqn~fHkn ds
izFkerUrq] ewykHkkl rFkk ikn esa xq.klw=ksa dh la[;k
ek% fdruh gksx
a h\

99.

ekWl ds egRo ds lanHkZ esa lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,

(1)

inkFkks dk ukSdkUrj.k

(2)

e`nk vijnu ls cpko

(3)

oU;&vkx ds izfr izfrjks/kh

(4)

,d ls vf/kd fodYi lgh gSa

ekdsZfUl;k ds eqdqy

(1) Are green and unicellular

(1)

gjs rFkk ,ddksfkdh; gksrs gSa

(2) Become detached from the parent body and

germinate to form new individuals

(2)

tud 'kjhj ls i` F kd gks tkrs gS a rFkk u;s

O;fDrxrksa ds fuekZ.k ds fy, vadqfjr gksrs gSa

(3) Are diploid and brown in colour

(3)

f}xqf.kr rFkk wjs jax ds gksrs gSa

(4) Develop in large receptacles

(4)

cM+h /kkfu;ksa esa ifjo/kr gksrs gSa

100. Plants which act as soil binders and also frequently

grown as ornamentals are

100.

(1) Vascular cryptogams

os ikni tks e`nk ca/kudkfj;ksa ds :i esa dk;Z djrs

gSa rFkk ltkoVh ikniksa ds :i esa fujUrj o`f) djrs
gS]a gksrs gSa

(2) Non-embryophytes

(1)

laoguh fIVksxSEl

(3) Non-vascular archegoniates

(2)

vHkwz.kksn~fn

(3)

vlaoguh L=h/kkuh;qDr

(4)

'kSoky

(4) Algae
101. Zygote produces a multicellular well differentiated
independent sporophyte in

101.

(1) Polytrichum and Selaginella

(2) Ectocarpus and Funaria
(3) Selaginella and Lycopodium
(4) Cycas and Funaria
102. Which of the following feature(s) is/are necessary
for seed formation?

102.

;q X eut ls ,d cgq d ks f 'kdh;] lq f oHks f nr] Lora =

chtk.kqnf~ Hkn dk mRiknu gksrk gS
(1)

ikWyhVkbde o flySftusyk esa

(2)

,DVksdkiZl o ;wufs j;k esa

(3)

flySftusyk o ykbdksiksfM;e esa

(4)

lkbdl o ;wufs j;k esa

cht fuekZ . k ds fy, fuEu es a ls dkS u lh

fo'ks"krk@fo'ks"krk, vko';d gksrh gS@gS\a

(1) Integumented megasporangium

(1)

v;koj.k ;qDr xq:chtk.kq/kkuh

(2) Development of zygotes into young embryos

within female gametophytes

(2)

eknk ;qXedksnf~ Hknksa ds hrj r:.k Hkw.z kksa esa ;qXeutksa

dk ifjo/kZu

(3) Heterospory

(3)

fo"kechtk.kqrk

(4) More than one option is correct

(4)

,d ls vf/kd fodYi lgh gSa

(15)

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

103. Which of the following pair is incorrectly matched?

(1) Psilopsida

Psilotum

(2) Lycopsida

Lycopodium

(3) Sphenopsida

Selaginella

(4) Pteropsida

Dryopteris

104. In the mentioned features, how many are not

related with gymnosperms?

103.

fuEu esa ls dkSulk feyku vlqesfyr ;qXe gS\

(1) flyksfIlMk
flyksVe
(2) ykbdksfIlMk ykbdksiksfM;e
(3) LQhuksfIlMk flySftusyk
(4) VsjksfIlMk
Mk;ksIVsfjl
104. nh xbZ fo'ks"krkvksa esa ls fdruh fo'ks"krk, vuko`kchft;ksa
ls lEcfU/kr ugha gS\a

yks,e] fo"kechtk.kqrk] chtk.kqi.kZ] cht]

L=h/kkuh] chtk.M] v.Mk'k;

Phloem, Heterospory, Sporophylls,

Seed, Archegonia, Ovule, Ovary
(1) Two

(2) One

(3) Three

(4) Four

(1)

105. Nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria is associated with

(1) Mycorrhizal roots of Pinus
(2) Coralloid roots of Cycas
(3) Roots of Selaginella
(4) Roots of Sequoia
106. Mark the incorrect match (w.r.t. ploidy level)
(1) Gemma cell in Marchantia Haploid
(2) Meristem of dicot

Diploid

(3) Ovum of a liverwort

Haploid

(4) Synergid

Diploid

107. Which of the following cells degenerate after

fertilisation in flowering plants?
(1) Synergids
(2) Polar nuclei
(3) Antipodals
(4) More than one option is correct
108. W.r.t. the following mentioned organisms, how many
of them have haplontic, diplontic and haplo-diplontic
life cycle respectively?

nks
(2) ,d
(3) rhu
(4) pkj
105. ukbVkt
s u fLFkjhdkjh lk;uksthok.kq lEcfU/kr gksrs gSa
(1) ikbul dh dodewyh; tM+kas ls
(2) lkbdl dh okyk tM+kas ls
(3) flySftusyk dh tM+kas ls
(4) fldqvk dh tM+kas ls
106. xyr feyku dk p;u dhft, lw=xqf.krk Lrj ds
lUnHkZ esa
(1) ekdsZfUl;k esa eqdqy dksf'kdk vxqf.kr
(2) f}chti=h esa foHkT;ksrd
f}xqf.kr
(3) fyojoVZ dk chtk.M
vxqf.kr
(4) lgk; dksf'kdk
f}xqf.kr
107. iq"ih; ikniksa esa fuEu esa ls dkSulh dksf'kdk, fu"kspu
ds i'pkr~ u"V gks tkrh gS\a
(1) lgk; dksf'kdk,
(2) /kzqoh; dsUnzdh
(3) frO;klkar dksf'kdk,
(4) ,d ls vf/kd fodYi lgh gSa
108. fuEu fn;s x;s thoksa esa ls e'k% fdrus thoksa esa
vxqf.kr] f}xqf.kr rFkk vxqf.kr&f}xqf.krdh thou p
ik;k tkrk gS\

Spirogyra, Polysiphonia, Ectocarpus

Sphagnum, Chlamydomonas, Ficus, Cycas

(1) 2, 3, 2

(2) 3, 2, 2

(3) 2, 2, 3

(4) 1, 4, 2

(1) 2, 3, 2
(3) 2, 2, 3

109. Mark the odd one (w.r.t triple fusion)

109.

(1) Eucalyptus
(2) Wolfia
(3) Mangifera
(4) Cedrus
(16)

(2) 3, 2, 2
(4) 1, 4, 2

fo"ke fodYi dk p;u dhft, f=lay;u ds lUnHkZ esa

(1) ;wdsfyIVl
(2) okWfYQ;k
(3) eSUthQsjk
(4) lhMl

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

Test-2 (Code A)

110. Zygote, ovule and ovary in angiosperms form

______ respectively.

110.

(1) Embryo, seed and fruit

(2) Fruit, cotyledon, seed
(3) Embryo, fruit, seed
(4) Embryo, fruit, cotyledons
111. Which branch of taxonomy is based on chromosome
number, structure and behaviour?

111.

(1) Numerical taxonomy

(2) Cytotaxonomy
(3) Chemotaxonomy
(4) Phylogeny
112. Zoospores are
commonly found in

spores which are

a
b

112.

vko`kchft;ksa esa ;qXeut] chtk.M rFkk v.Mk'k; e'k%

______ dk fuekZ.k djrs gSa
(1)

w.z k] cht rFkk Qy

(2)

Qy] chti= rFkk cht

(3)

Hkw.z k] Qy rFkk cht

(4)

w.z k] Qy rFkk chti=

oxdh dh dkSulh 'kk[kk xq.klw= la[;k] lajpuk rFkk

O;ogkj ij vk/kkfjr gksrh gS\
(1)

la[;kRed oxdh

(2)

dksf'kdk&oxdh

(3)

jlk;u&oxdh

(4)

tkfro`k

pychtk.kq __a__ chtk.kq gksrs gS]a tks lkekU;r%

esa ik;s tkrs gSAa

(1) a Asexual, b Algae

(1) a

vySfa xd, b 'kSoky

(2) a Sexual, b Fungi

(2) a

ySfa xd, b dod

(3) a Asexual, b Bryophytes

(3) a

vySfa xd, b czk;ksQkbV~l

(4) a Sexual, b Cyanophyceae

(4) a

ySfa xd, b lk;uksQkblh

113. Bentham and Hooker system of classification of

plants is based on

113.

(1) Few morphological characters

(2) Natural affinities among the organisms
(3) Evolutionary relationships
(4) Number, structure
chromosomes only

and

behaviour

of

114. Unicellular algae rich in proteins are

114.

ikniksa ds oxhZdj.k dh csUFke o gwdj i)fr vk/kkfjr

Fkh
(1)

dqN vkdkfjdh y{k.kksa ij

(2)

thoksa ds chp kfrd lEcU/kksa ij

(3)

fodklkRed lEcU/kksa ij

(4)

dsoy xq.klw=ksa dh la[;k] lajpuk o O;ogkj ij

ksVhu ls pqj ,ddksf'kdh; 'kSoky gksrs gSa

(1) Spirulina and Ulothrix

(1)

Likb:fyuk o ;wyksfFkzDl

(2) Spirogyra and Fucus

(2)

Likbjksxkbjk o ;wdl

(3) Chlorella and Spirulina

(3)

Dyksjy
s k o Likb:fyuk

(4) Dictyota and Chlorella

(4)

fMfDV;ksVk o Dyksjy
s k

115. Red algae reproduce sexually and asexually

respectively by

115.

yky 'kSoky ySfa xd o vySfa xd tuu e'k% fdlds

}kjk djrs gS\a

(1) Motile gametes and non-motile spores

(1)

py ;qXed o vpy chtk.kq

(2) Motile spores and non-motile gametes

(2)

py chtk.kq o vpy ;qXed

(3) Non-motile spores and non-motile gametes

(3)

vpy chtk.kq o vpy ;qXed

(4) Non-motile gametes and non-motile spores

(4)

vpy ;qXed o vpy chtk.kq

(17)

__b__

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

116. Select the incorrect match

116.

(1)

Green algae, presence of

pyrenoids, starch is the
reserve food

(2)

Red algae, presence of

phycoerythrin pigment

(3)

(4)

Green algae, Fucoxanthin

pigment,
sulphated
phycocolloids

Brown algae, two flagella

in zoospore

xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,

(1)

gjs 'kSoky] ik;jsukWbM~l dh

mifLFkfr] lafpr Hkkstu ds
:i esa LVkpZ

(2)

yky 'kSoky] QkbdksbfjfFkzu

o.kZd dh mifLFkfr

(3)

gjs 'kS o ky] ;w d ks t S f UFku

o.kZ d ] lYQs V ;q D r
QkbdksdkWykbZM

(4)

wjs 'kSoky] pychtk.kq esa nks

d'kk

117. Read the following statements w.r.t. bryophytes

A. The plant body is more differentiated than
pteridophytes.

117.

B. They produce biflagellate antherozoids.

C. Zygote does not undergo meiotic division
immediately.
D. Spores represent the first cell of sporophytic
generation.
(1) A & D are incorrect (2) Only A in incorrect
(3) All are correct

(4) Only D is incorrect

118. In bryophytes meiosis takes place in

118.

(1) Sex organs

(2) Zygote
(3) Capsule of sporophyte
(4) Protonema
119. Bryophytes differ from algae in
(1) Presence of a well developed independent
sporophyte
(2) Presence of an embryo stage
(3) Absence of archegonia
(4) Absence of vascular tissue
(18)

119.

czk;ksQkbV~l ds lUnHkZ esa fuEu dFkuksa dks if<+;s

A. ikni 'kjhj VsfjMksQkbV~l dh rqyuk esa vf/kd
fosfnr gksrk gSA
B. ;s f}d'kkfd iqe.kqvksa dk mRiknu djrs gSA
a
C. ;qXeut esa rqjUr v)Zl=
w h foktu ugha gksrk gSA
D. chtk.kq] chtk.kqnf~ n ih<+h dh Fke dksf'kdk dks
n'kkZrs gSAa
(1) A o D xyr gSa
(2) dsoy A xyr gS
(3) lh lgh gSa
(4) dsoy D xyr gS
czk;ksQkbV~l esa v)Zl=
w h foktu gksrk gS
(1) tuukaxksa esa
(2) ;qXeut esa
(3) chtk.kqnf~ Hkn ds lEiqV esa
(4) FkerUrq esa
czk;ksQkbV~l] 'kSokyksa ls fHkUu gksrs gSa
(1) ,d lqfodflr Lora= chtk.kqnf~ Hkn dh mifLFkfr esa
(2) Hkw.z kh; voLFkk dh mifLFkfr esa
(3) L=h/kkuh dh vuqifLFkfr esa
(4) laogu rd dh vuqifLFkfr esa

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

Test-2 (Code A)

120. Which of the following statements is not a feature

of the given plant?

120.

fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku fn;s x;s ikni dh ,d

fo'ks"krk ugha gS\

Capsule

lEiqV

Seta

LQksfVdko`ar

Leaves

ifk;k

Main axis

eq[; v{k
ewykHkkl

Rhizoids

(1) The first stage is the protonema stage which

develops from a spore
(2) It has multicellular unbranched rhizoids
(3) They have an elaborate mechanism of spore
dispersal
(4) The sporophyte consists of foot, seta and
capsule
121. The main plant body of bryophyte is
produces B
hence is also called as
(1) A Diploid

A
C

. It

B Spores

C Sporophyte
(2) A Diploid

B Gametes

C Sporophyte
(3) A Haploid

B Gametes

C Gametophyte
(4) A Haploid

B Spores

C Gametophyte
122. Which of the following is a non-vascular
archegoniate?
(1) Polytrichum

(2) Equisetum

(3) Cedrus

(4) Eucalyptus

123. The living pteridophytes are restricted to narrow

geographical regions because
(1) Sporophytic plant body in not well adapted to
grow in terrestrial region
(2) Gametophytes require cool, damp and shady
places to grow
(3) They are homosporous
(4) More than one option is correct

(1)

FkerUrq voLFkk Fke voLFkk gksrh gS] tks ,d

chtk.kq ls ifjo/kr gksrk gS
(2) ;g cgqdksf'kdh;] v'kkf[kr ewykHkkl ;qDr gksrk gS
(3) buesa chtk.kq dh.kZu dh ,d foLr`r f;kfof/k
gksrh gS
(4) chtk.kqnf~ Hkn ikn] LQksfVdko`Ur o lEiqV ;qDr gksrk gS
121. czk;ksQkbV dk eq[; ikni 'kjhj
A
gksrk gSA
dk mRiknu djrk gS] blfy, C
;g B
h dgykrk gSA
(1) A f}xqf.kr
B chtk.kq
C chtk.kqnf~ Hkn
(2) A f}xqf.kr
B ;qXed
C chtk.kqnf~ Hkn
(3) A vxqf.kr
B ;qXed
C ;qXedksn~fHkn
(4) A vxqf.kr
B chtk.kq
C ;qXedksn~fHkn
122. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d vlaoguh L=h/kkuh;qDr gksrk gS\
(1) ikWyhVkbde
(2) bDohlhVe
(3) lhMl
(4) ;wdsfyIVl
123. ltho VsfjMksQkbV~l ladh.kZ kSxksfyd {ks=ksa rd lhfer
gksrs gS]a D;ksfa d
(1) chtk.kqnf~ n ikni 'kjhj LFkyh; {ks=ksa esa o`f) djus
ds fy, lqvuqdfw yr ugha gksrk gS
(2) ;qXedksn~fnksa dks o`f) djus ds fy, B.Ms] vknzZ
rFkk Nk;knkj LFkkuksa dh vko';drk gksrh gS
(3) ;s lechtk.kqd gksrs gSa
(4) ,d ls vf/kd fodYi lgh gSa
(19)

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

124. Choose the correct option w.r.t. heterosporous

pteridophytes

124.

fo"kechtk.kqd VsfjMksQkbV~l ds lUnHkZ esa lgh fodYi

dk p;u dhft,

(1) Dryopteris, Selaginella

(1)

Mk;ksIVsfjl] flySftusyk

(2) Selaginella, Equisetum

(2)

flySftusyk] bDohlhVe

(3) Salvinia, Selaginella

(3)

lkfYofu;k, flySftusyk

(4) Salvinia, Cycas

(4)

lkfYofu;k, lkbdl

125. Which of the following is a feature of Selaginella but

not that of Pinus?

125.

fuEu esa ls dkSulh fo'ks"krk flySftusyk dh gksrh gS]

ijUrq ikbul dh ugha\

(1) Heterospory

(1)

fo"kechtk.kqrk

(2) Presence of xylem

(2)

tkbye dh mifLFkfr

(3) Need water for fertilization

(3)

fu"kspu ds fy, ty dh vko';drk

(4) Presence of archegonia

(4)

L=h/kkuh dh mifLFkfr

126. Select the most appropriate option w.r.t. the

following figure

(1) Aquatic fern

(2) Terrestrial fern

(3) Seeded plant

(4) Non-vascular fern

126.

fuEu fp= ds lUnHkZ esa lokZf/kd mi;qDr fodYi dk

p;u dhft,

(1)

127. Which of the following is not a feature of Cycas?

(1) Naked seeded plant
(2) Unbranched stem
(3) Needle like leaves
(4) Pinnately compound leaves
128. The reduced male gametophyte in gymnosperm is
called
(1) Microsporangia
(2) Pollen grain
(3) Microsporophyll
(4) Male cone
129. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. conifers
(1) Presence of heterospory
(2) Presence of thick cuticle and sunken stomata
(3) Development of free living gametophytes
(4) Presence of secondary growth
(20)

tyh; QuZ
(2) LFkyh; QuZ
(3) chth ikni
(4) vlaoguh QuZ
127. fuEu esa ls dkSulh lkbdl dh ,d fo'ks"krk ugha gS\
(1) uXu chth ikni
(2) v'kkf[kr ruk
(3) lwP;kdkj i.kZ
(4) fiPNkdkj la;D
q r i.kZ
128. vuko`kchft;ksa esa kflr uj ;qXedksnf~ Hkn dgykrk gS
(1) y?kqchtk.kq/kkuh
(2) ijkx d.k
(3) y?kqchtk.kqi.kZ
(4) uj 'kadq
129. 'kadqo`{kksa ds lUnHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,
(1) fo"kechtk.kqrk dh mifLFkfr
(2) eksVh miRopk rFkk xrd jaU/kzkas dh mifLFkfr
(3) eqDr thoh ;qXedksn
~ nksa dk ifjo/kZu
(4) f}rh;d o`f) dh mifLFkfr

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

Test-2 (Code A)

130. Match Column I with Column II

Column I

130.

dkWye I dk dkWye II ls feyku dhft;s

Column II

dkWye I

dkWye II

a. Ovule

(i) Female gametophyte

a.

chtk.M

(i)

eknk ;qXedksnf~ Hkn

b. Pollen grain

(ii) Megasporangium

b.

ijkx d.k

(ii)

xq:chtk.kq/kkuh

c.

(iii) Microspore

c.

Hkwz.kdks"k

(iii)

y?kqchtk.kq

(iv) Endosperm

d. PEN

(iv)

Hkwz.kiks"k

Embryo sac

d. PEN

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)

(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)

131. Which of the plant (options 14) do not exhibit the

following life cycle?

131.

dkSuls ikni (fodYi 14) fuEu thou p ugha n'kkZrs gS\a

chtk.kqn~fHkn
;qXed
lay;
u

(1)

(1) Selaginella, Sphagnum

(2) Polytrichum, Pteris
(3) Pinus, Ficus
(4) Lycopodium, Adiantum
132. Haplontic life cycle in Chlamydomonas
(1) Exhibits zygotic meiosis
(2) Form spores by mitosis
(3) Sporophytic generation represented by zygote
(4) More than one option is correct
133. Diplontic type life cycle pattern is present in
(1) Spirogyra

(2) Ectocarpus

(3) Cycas

(4) Polysiphonia

134. A. Most algal genera show haplontic life cycle.

B. Asexually reproducing plants exhibit alternation
of generation.
C. All bryophytes have totally or partially
dependent sporophyte.
D. All seed bearing plants have diplontic life cycle.
(1) Only C is incorrect
(2) B & D are incorrect
(3) All are correct, except B
(4) A & C are incorrect

flySftusyk] LQsXue
(2) iksyhVkbde] Vsfjl
(3) ikbul] Qkbdl
(4) ykbdksiksfM;e] ,fM,UVe
132. DysekbMkseksukl esa vxqf.kr thou p
(1) ;qXeuth v)Zl=
w h foHkktu n'kkZrk gS
(2) lelw=h foktu ds }kjk chtk.kqvksa dk fuekZ.k
djrk gS
(3) ;qXeut ds }kjk chtk.kqnf~ Hkn ih<+h n'kkZ;h tkrh gS
(4) ,d ls vf/kd fodYi lgh gSa
133. f}xqf.krdh dkj dk thou p k:i mifLFkr gksrk gS
(1) Likbjksxkbjk esa
(2) ,DVksdkiZl esa
(3) lkbdl esa
(4) iksyhlkbQksfu;k esa
134. A. vf/kdka'k 'kSokyh; oa'k vxqf.krdh thou p n'kkZrs gSAa
B. vySfa xd tuu djus okys ikni ih<+h ,dkUrj.k n'kkZrs gSAa
C. lHkh cz k ;ks Q kbV~ l iw . kZ ;k va k f'kd :i ls
chtk.kqnf~ Hkn ij fuZj djrs gSAa
D. cht ogu djus okys lh ikni f}xqf.krdh thou
p ;qDr gksrs gSAa
(1) dsoy C xyr gS
(2) B o D xyr gSa
(3) B ds vfrfjDr vU; lh lgh gSa
(4) A o C xyr gSa
(21)

Test-2 (Code A)

135. Gametes are

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

and sexual reproduction is of

135.

type in Spirogyra.

Likbjksxkbjk esa ;qXed a gksrs gSa rFkk ySfa xd tuu

b dkj dk gksrk gSA

(1) a

Non-motile

(1) a

Oogamous

(2) a

(3) a

(2) a
b
(3) a
b

Motile
Isogamous
Motile
Anisogamous

(4) a

Non-motile

(4) a

Isogamous

vpy
fo"ke;qXedh
py
le;qXedh
py
vle;qXedh
vpy
le;qXedh

ZOOLOGY
136. Mark the incorrect statement about the members
of the class cyclostomata

136.

(1) They have an elongated body bearing 6-15

pairs of gill slits

lkbDyksLVkseVs k oxZ ds lnL;ksa ds fy, xyr dFku

dk p;u dhft;s
(1)

budk 'kjhj nh?kZ gksrk gS ftlesa 6-15 tksMh+ Dykse

njkjsa gksrh gSa

(2)

eq[k tcM+s jfgr pw"kd o o`rkdkj gksrk gS

(3)

'kjhj esa 'kYdksa o v;qfXer i[kuksa dk vHkko gksrk gS

(4)

can izdkj dk ifjlapj.k gksrk gS

(2) Have a sucking and circular mouth without jaws

(3) Body devoid of scales and unpaired fins
(4) Circulation is of closed type
137. Match the following vertebrates with their
characteristic features
Column I
a.

Column II

137.

fuEu d'ks#dh thoksa dk feyku buds vfHky{k.k ls

dhft;s
dkWye I

(i) Prehensile tail present

a.

dkWye II
(i)

ifjxzkgh iwN mifLFkr

gksrh gS

b.

(ii) Migrate for spawning

to fresh water

c.

(iii) In male pelvic fins

bear claspers and
they are viviparous

d.

(iv) Long serrated snout

is present, fertilisation
internal

b.

(ii)

Liksfuax ds fy, LoPN

ty esa izokl djrk gS

c.

(iii)

uj esa Jksf.k i[kuksa esa

vkfyaxd gksrs gSa vkSj ;s
tjk;qt gksrs gSa

d.

(iv)

yEch nankusnkj FkwFku

mifLFkr] vkUrfjd
fu"kspu gksrk gS

(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

(3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)

(3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(22)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

138. Frog is an amphibian. Its alimentary canal, urinary and

reproductive tract open into a common chamber called
(1) Anus

(2) Vulva

(3) Ventricle

(4) Cloaca

139. Out of the following statements which is not correct

w.r.t. reptiles?
(1) Snakes and lizards shed their scales as skin
cast
(2) In Chelone body is protected dorsally by
carapace and ventrally by plastron
(3) Chameleon is viviparous and development is
indirect
(4) They do not have external ear openings
140. The characteristic features of Aves is the presence
of feathers and most of them can fly, except

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

141. In birds how many chambered heart is present?

(1) Completely four chambered
(2) Incompletely four chambered
(3) Three chambered
(4) Two chambered
142. The skin of mammals is unique in possessing
(1) Claw

(2) Ear pinna

(3) Hair

(4) Scales

143. In mammals limbs are adapted for walking, running,

climbing, burrowing, swimming or flying. The only
flying mammal is
(1) Draco

(2) Rhacophorus

(3) Exocoetus

(4) Pteropus

144. Mark the correct statement w.r.t. Balaenoptera

(1) It is the largest mammal and shows filter
feeding nutrition due to presence of baleen
(2) It is oviparous and the development is direct
(3) It lays the eggs near the ice
(4) Forelimbs and hind limbs are well developed

Test-2 (Code A)

138.

es<a d mHk;pj gSA blesa vkgkjuky] ew=h; Hkkx o tuu

Hkkx mHk;fu"B d{k esa [kqyrs gS]a bls dgrs gSa
(1) xqnk
(2) Hkx
(3) fuy;
(4) voLdj
139. ljhl`iksa ds fy, dkSulk dFku lgh ugha gS\
(1) liZ o fNidyh dsapqyh ds :i esa 'kYdksa dks
>M+krs gSa
(2) dhyksu dk 'kjhj i`"B esa dSjkisl vkSj vkj esa
IySLVkus ls lqjf{kr jgrk gS
(3) dsfEyvksu tjk;qt gksrk gS vkSj blesa vizR;{k
ifjokZu gksrk gS
(4) ck d.kZ fN ugha gksrs gSa
140. i{kh oxZ esa ijksa dh mifLFkfr budk vfHkyk{kf.kd y{k.k
gS vkSj vfkdka'k i{kh mM+ ldrs gS]a flok;

141.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

if{k;ksa esa fdrus d{k dk n; ik;k tkrk gS\

(1) iw.kZr% pkj d{k dk
(2) viw.kZ pkj d{k dk
(3) rhu d{k dk
(4) nks d{k dk
142. Lrfu;ksa dh Ropk fdldh mifLFkfr ls vf}rh; gksrh gS\
(1) iatk
(2) d.kZ iYyo
(3) jkse
(4) 'kYd
143. Lrfu;ksa ds ikn pyus] nkSMu
+ ]s vkjksg.k] fcy cukus] rSjus
;k mM+us ds fy, vuqdfw yr gksrs gSAa buesa ls dsoy
mM+u Lruh gS
(1) Msdks
(2) jsdksQksjl
(3) ,DlkslhVl
(4) Vsjksil
144. csyu
s ksIVsjk ds lanHkZ esa lgh dFku dks fpfUgr dhft;s
(1) ;g lcls cM+k Lruh gS vkSj csyhu dh mifLFkfr
ds dkj.k fuLian Hkksth iks"k.k n'kkZrk gS
(2) v.Mt o izR;{k ifjokZu gksrk gS
(3) ;g cQZ ds lehi v.Ms nsrk gS
(4) vxzikn o i'pikn lqfodflr gksrs gSa
(23)

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

145. Which of the following epithelial tissues help in

secretion and absorption?

145.

dkSulk midyk rd L=o.k o vo'kks"k.k esa lgk;d gS\

A.

A.

lw{ejalkdqj okyh ?ku

leku dksf'kdk

Cube-like cell
with microvilli

B.

B.

piVh dksf'kdk

Flattened cell

(1) Only B

(1)

(2) A & C only

(2)

(3) Both B & C

(3)

(4) All of these

(4)

A or
B cells get specialised
146. Some of the
for secretion and are called glandular epithelium

146.

dsoy B
dsoy A o C
B o C nksuksa
buesa ls lHkh

B
dqN A ;k
dksf'kdk;sa L=o.k ds fy,
fof'k"V cu tkrh gS budks xzfa Fky midyk dgrs gSa
(1) A

'kYdh

B Columnar

LrEHkh

(2) A Columnar

(2) A

LrEHkh

(1) A Squamous
,

lw{ejlkadqj okyh
yEch dksf'kdk

C.

Tall cell with

microvilli

C.

B Cuboidal

?kukdkj

(3) A Cuboidal

(3) A

?kukdkj

B Ciliated

jksekfHk

(4) A Ciliated

(4) A

jksekfHk

'kYdh

B Squamous
147. Compound epithelium is made-up of more than one
layer of cells, which form the

147.

la;Dq r midyk ,d ls vfkd dksf'kdkvksa dh ijr ls

cuh gksrh gS]a tks cukrh gSa

(1) Dry surface of skin

(1)

Ropk dh 'kq"d lrg

(2) Moist surface of buccal cavity

(2)

eq[k xqgk dh ue lrg

(3) Inner lining of ducts of salivary glands

(3)

ykj xafz Fk;ksa dh okfguh dk vkUrfjd Lrj

(4) All of these

(4)

buesa ls lHkh

148. In the following figures of dense connective tissue

mark A, B and C

148.

l?ku la;ksth rdksa ds fp= esa A, B o C dks fpfUgr

dhft;s

(24)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

Test-2 (Code A)

(1) A Fibroblast

(1) A

B Dense irregular fibres

C Dense regular fibres
(2) A Dense irregular fibres
B Fibroblast
C Dense regular fibres
(3) A Fibroblast
B Dense regular fibres
C Dense irregular fibres
(4) A Dense regular fibres
B Dense irregular fibres
C Fibroblast
149. Intercalated discs are characteristic feature of which
muscle tissue?
(1) Cardiac muscle

(2) Striped muscle

(3) Smooth muscle

(4) Visceral muscle

150. In female cockroach which sternum is large and

boat shaped?
(1) 7th

(2) 6th

(3) 5th

(4) 8th

151. Heart of cockroach is made up of elongated

muscular tube which is made up of
(1) 12 chambers

(2) 13 chambers

(3) 2 chambers

(4) 4 chambers

152. In cockroach excretion is performed by malpighian

X and
tubules. Each tubule is lined by
Z cells
(1) X Glandular, Z Cuboidal
(2) X Excretory, Z Squamous
(3) X Glandular, Z Ciliated
(4) X Excretory, Z Cuboidal
153. In P. americana how many times the nymph moults
to reach the adult form?
(1) 13 times

(2) 6 times

(3) 4 times

(4) 2 times

154. In cockroach mosaic vision is found, it is with

(1) More sensitivity but less resolution
(2) Less sensitivity and less resolution
(3) More sensitivity and more resolution
(4) Less sensitivity and more resolution

QkbczkCs ykLV
l?ku vfu;fer rarq

l?ku fu;fer rarq

(2) A l?ku vfu;fer rarq
B QkbczkCs ykLV
C l?ku fu;fer rarq
(3) A QkbczkCs ykLV
B l?ku fu;fer rarq
C l?ku vfu;fer rarq
(4) A l?ku fu;fer rarq
B l?ku vfu;fer rarq
C QkbczkCs ykLV
149. dkSuls is'kh rd esa vUrfoZ"V ifV~V;k gksuk budk
vfHkyk{kf.kd y{k.k gS\
(1) n; isf'k;k
(2) jsf[kr isf'k;k
(3) fpduh isf'k;k
(4) vkUrjkax isf'k;k
150. eknk dkWdjksp esa dkSulk LVjue cM+k o ukSdkdkj gksrk gS\

151.

(1) 7th

(2) 6th

(3) 5th

(4) 8th

dkWdjksp dk n; nh?kZ is'kh; uyh ls cuk gksrk gS

blesa d{k gksrs gSa
(1) 12 d{k
(2) 13 d{k
(3) 2 d{k
(4) 4 d{k
152. dkWdjksp esa eSYihxh ufydkvksa ls mRltZu gksrk gSA
Z dksf'kdkvksa ls jsf[kr
X o
izR;sd ufydk
gksrh gS
(1) X xzfa Fky]
Z ?kukdkj
(2) X mRlthZ,
Z 'kYdh
(3) X xzfa Fky,
Z jksekfHk
(4) X mRlthZ,
Z ?kukdkj
153. ih- vesfjdkuk esa fuEQ esa fdruh ckj fueksp
Z u ls o;Ld
voLFkk curh gS\
(1) 13 ckj
(2) 6 ckj
(3) 4 ckj
(4) 2 ckj
154. dkWdjksp esa ekStd
s n`f"V ik;h tkrh gS] tks
(1) vfkd laon
s h ysfdu de foHksnh gksrh gS
(2) de laon
s h vkSj de foHksnh gksrh gS
(3) vfkd laon
s h vkSj vfkd foHksnh gksrh gS
(4) de laon
s h vkSj vfkd foHksnh gksrh gS
(25)

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

155. On an average, how many oothecae are produced

by female cockroach?

155.

eknk dkWdjksp esa vkSlru fdruh v.Mkoj curh gS\

(1) 2

(1) 2

(2) 1-2

(2) 1-2 lakh

(3)

(3) 2-3 crore

yk[k
2-3 djksM+

(4) 9-10

(4) 9-10

156.

156. In tunicates, normally which fundamental character

is found only in larval stage and that is absent in
adult stage?
(1) Dorsal solid nerve cord
(2) Paired pharyngeal gill slits
(3) Notochord
(4) Both (1) & (2)
157. Mark the incorrect statement for cephalochordates
(1) They are often referred to as protochordates
(2) They are exclusively marine animals
(3) In them notochord extends from head to tail
(4) Notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or
bony vertebral column in the adults
158. Petromyzon commonly called lamprey is the
member of the class Cyclostomata because
(1) They lack paired fin
(2) They are without jaw
(3) Scaleless body
(4) All of these
159. In the following figure of Catla which character
represents that it is the member of the class
Osteichthyes?

(1) They have four pair of gills which are covered

by an operculum on each side
(2) They have internal fertilization and many of
them are viviparous
(3) Teeth are modified scales which are backwardly
directed
(4) Notochord is persistent throughout life
160. Carcharodon is commonly known as
(1) Fighting fish
(2) Angel fish
(3) Great white shark
(4) Magur
(26)

V~;fw udsVl
~ esa lkekU;r% dkSulk ewyHkwr vfHky{k.k dsoy
ykokZ voLFkk esa ik;k tkrk gS ysfdu ;g y{k.k o;Ld
voLFkk esa ugha gksrk gS\
(1) i`"Bh; Bksl raf=dk jTtq
(2) ;qfXer xzluh; Dykse njkjsa
(3) i`"BjTtq
(4) (1) o (2) nksuksa
157. flQSyksdkWMV
Zs l
~ ds fy, xyr dFku dks fpfUgr dhft;s
(1) vDlj budks izkV
s ksdkWMVZs l
~ dgrs gSa
(2) ;s dsoy leqnhz tUrq gSa
(3) i`"BjTtq flj ls iwN rd QSyk gksrk gS
(4) o;Ld esa i`"BjTtq mikLFkh; ;k vfLFke; d'ks#d
n.M esa izfrLFkkfir gks tkrk gS
158. is V k s e kbtks u dks lkekU;r% yS E iz s dgrs gS a tks
lkbDyksLVkseVs k oxZ dk lnL; gS D;ksfa d blesa
(1) ;qfXer i[kus ugha gksrs gSa
(2) ;s tcM+s jfgr gksrs gSa
(3) 'kYd jfgr 'kjhj gksrk gS
(4) buesa ls lHkh
159. fuEu dVyk ds fp= esa dkSulk y{k.k ;g n'kkZrk gS
fd ;g vksLVkbDFkht oxZ dk lnL; gS\

(1)

buesa pkj tksMh+ Dykse gksrs gSa tks izR;sd rjQ

ls Dykse<kiu ls vkofjr gksrs gSa
(2) buesa vkUrfjd fu"kspu gksrk gS vkSj vfkdka'k tUrq
tjk;qt gksrs gSa
(3) nkar #ikUrfjr 'kYd gksrs gSa tks ihNs dh rjQ
eqMs+ gksrs gSa
(4) i`"BjTtq thouHkj LFkk;h cuk jgrk gS
160. dkjdsjksMkWu dks lkekU;r% dgk tkrk gS
(1) yMkdw eNyh
(2) ,afty fQ'k
(3) xzV
s OgkbV 'kkdZ
(4) exwj

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

Test-2 (Code A)

161. Illustrated below are the figures of two amphibians.

A.

161.

B.

uhps nks mHk;pj tUrqvksa ds fp= fn;s x;s gSa

A.

Identify the correct statement for the animals

illustrated

B.

bu tUrqvksa ds fy, lgh dFku dks igpkfu;s

(1) A esa

us= ij us=iydsa gksrh gSa tcfd

ugha gksrh gSa

(1) In A, eyes have eyelids while in B, eyelids are

absent
(2) A is studied under the class Caudata while B in
Apoda

(2) A

(3) In both, tympanum represents the ear

(3)

nksuksa esa fVEiSue d.kZ dks n'kkZrk gS

(4) All of these

(4)

buesa ls lHkh

162. Match the reptiles depicted in column I with their

characters illustrated in column II
Column I

dk v;;u oxZ dkWMVs k esa vkSj

,iksMk esa djrs gSa

162.

Column II

b.

us=iydsa

dk v;;u

dkWye I esa fn;s x;s ljhl`iksa dk feyku dkWye

fn;s x;s buds vfHky{k.kksa ls dhft;s
dkWye I

a.

B esa

II

esa

dkWye II

(i) Long sticky tongue

and prehensile tail is
present

a.

(i)

yEch fpifpih ftok

vkS j ifjxz k gh iw N
mifLFkr gksrh gS

(ii) Body is covered by

epidermal scutes and
have thecodont teeth

b.

(ii)

'kjhj ,sfiMeZy iz'kYdksa

ls vkofjr gksrk gS vkSj
xrZnUrh nkr gksrs gSa

c.

(iii) Bifurcated tongue and

syringe like teeth
called fangs are
present

c.

(iii)

f}'kkf[kr ftok vkSj

flfjUt leku nk r
fo"knUr mifLFkr gksrs gSa

d.

(iv) Teeth absent but body

protected by armature

d.

(iv)

nkr ugha gksrs gSa ysfdu

'kjhj dop ls vkofjr
gksrk gS

(1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)

(1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)

(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

(4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)

(4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)

(27)

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

163. Which of the following is a poisonous snake?

(1) Bungarus

(2) Python

(3) Hemidactylus

(4) Alligator

163.

164. In birds hindlimb are modified for

(1) Walking
(2) Swimming
(3) Clasping the tree branches
(4) All of these
165. The most unique mammalian characteristic is the
presence of
(1) Ear pinna

(2) Mammary glands

(3) Placenta

(4) Teeth

166. Development of mammalian embryo occurs in body

so they give birth to young ones i.e. they are
viviparous, except
(1) Macropus

(2) Camelus

(3) Ornithorhynchus

(4) Delphinus

167. Following figure represents the columnar ciliated cells

These cells are mainly present in the inner surface

of hollow organs like
(1) Stomach
(2) Ileum of small intestine
(3) Urinary bladder
(4) Fallopian tubes
168. The epithelium of proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) of
nephron in the human kidney is composed of
_______
(1) Cuboidal cells

(2) Ciliated cells

(3) Squamous cells

(4) All of these

169. Some epithelial cells are held together through tight

junctions which help to
(1) Stop substances from leaking across a tissue
(2) Perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells
together
(3) Transfer ions, small molecules and sometimes
big molecules
(4) All of these
(28)

fo"kSyk liZ gS
(1) caxsjl
(2) ikbFku
(3) gsehMsDVkbyl
(4) ,sfyxsVj
164. if{k;ksa esa i'pikn fdlesa :ikUrfjr gksrs gS\
a
(1) pyus esa
(2) rSjus esa
(3) o`{k dh 'kk[kkvksa dks idM+us esa
(4) buesa ls lHkh
165. Lruh dk lcls vf}rh; vfHky{k.k fdldh mifLFkfr
ds gksus ls gS\
(1) d.kZ iYyo
(2) Lru xzfa Fk;k
(3) vijk
(4) nkr
166. Lruh Hkz.w k dk ifjo/kZu 'kjhj esa gksrk gS vr% ;s cPps
iSnk djrs gSa vkSj tjk;qt gksrs gS]a flok;
(1) esksil
(2) dsehyl
(3) vkWfuZFkksfjaDl
(4) MsfYQul
167. fuEu fp= LrEHkh jksekfHk dksf'kdkvksa dks n'kkZrk gS

;s dksf'kdk;sa eq[;r% [kks[kys vaxksa dh vkarfjd lrg

esa mifLFkr gksrh gSa tSls
(1) vkek'k;
(2) NksVh vkr dh bfy;e
(3) ew=k'k;
(4) xHkkZ'k;h ufydk;sa
168. ekuo ds o`Dd esa usksu dh lehiLFk dq.Mfyr ufydk
(PCT) dh midyk _______ dh cuh gksrh gS
(1) ?kukdkj dksf'kdkvksa (2) jksekfHk dksf'kdkvksa
(3) 'kYdh dksf'kdkvksa
(4) buesa ls lHkh
169. dqN midyk dksf'kdk;sa ,d nwljs ls n`<+ lafk;ksa ls
,d lkFk tqMh+ jgrh gS tks lgk;d gS
(1) rdksa ls inkFkZ ds fjlko dks jksdus esa
(2) lehiLFk dksf'kdkvksa dks ,d nwljs ls tksMu
+ s esa
(3) vk;u] NksVs v.kq o dHkh&dHkh cM+s v.kqvksa ds
LFkkukUrj.k djus esa
(4) buesa ls lHkh

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

Test-2 (Code A)

170. In the following figure of loose connective tissue A,

B, C and D are

170.

<hys la;ksth rd ds fuEu fp= esa A, B, C o D gS

A

B
(1) A Collagen fibres, B Fibroblast,
C Mast cell,
(2) A Mast cell,
C Macrophage,
(3) A Macrophage,
C Fibroblast,
(4) A Fibroblast,
C Mast cell,

D Macrophage
B Fibroblast,
D Collagen fibres
B Mast cell,
D Collagen fibres
B Macrophage,
D Collagen fibres

171. The bone cells present in the spaces called as

lacunae are _______
(1) Osteocytes

(2) Osteoblast

(3) Fibroblast

(4) Erythroblast

172. Biceps muscles are a type of

(1) Skeletal muscle
(2) Smooth muscle
(3) Visceral muscle
(4) Cardiac muscle
173. Mark the correct statement for smooth muscle
tissue
(1) Fibres taper at both ends
(2) Do not show striations
(3) Their functioning cannot be directly controlled
(4) All of these
174. In cockroach exoskeleton has hardened plates
called sclerites that are joined to each other by
(1) Ligament

(2) Tendon

(3) Arthrodial membrane(4) Muscle

175. In cockroach the mouth parts are of ______ type
(1) Sponging

(2) Sucking and piercing

(3) Siphoning

(4) Biting and chewing

B
(1) A

dksyStu rar]q
B QkbczkCs ykLV
C ekLV dksf'kdk] D esksQt
s
(2) A ekLV dksf'kdk]
B QkbczkCs ykLV,
C esksQt
s ,
D dksyStu rarq
(3) A esksQt
s ,
B ekLV dksf'kdk]
C QkbczkCs ykLV,
D dksyStu rarq
(4) A QkbczkCs ykLV,
B esksQt
s ,
C ekLV dksf'kdk] D dksyStu rarq
171. vfLFk dksf'kdk;sa tks ysD;wuh LFkku esa mifLFkr gksrh
gS ;s dksf'kdk;sa _______ dgykrh gS
(1) vkWfLVvkslkbV
(2) vkWfLVvksCykLV
(3) QkbczkCs ykLV
(4) bfjFkzkCs ykLV
172. ckblsIl isf'k;k fdldk izdkj gS\
(1) dadkyh; is'kh dk
(2) fpduh is'kh dk
(3) vkarjkax is'kh dk
(4) n; is'kh dk
173. fpdus is'kh rd ds fy, lgh dFku dks fpfUgr
dhft;s
(1) rarq nksuksa Nksj ls irys gksrs gSa
(2) /kkfj;k ugha gksrh gSa
(3) buds dk;ksZ dks izR;{k :i ls fu;af=r ugha fd;k
tk ldrk gS
(4) buesa ls lHkh
174. dkWdjksp esa ck;dadky esa l[r IysV gksrh gSA budks
LDyhjkbV dgrs gSa ;s fdlds }kjk ,d nwljs ls tqMh+
gksrh gS\
(1) Luk;q
(2) d.Mjk
(3) lafkdyk
(4) is'kh
175. dkWdjksp esa eq[kkax ______ izdkj ds gksrs gSa
(1) Liaftax
(2) pw"kd o Hksnus okys
(3) lkbQfuax
(4) dkVus o pckus okys
(29)

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

176. Identify the following structures w.r.t. cockroach

176.

dkWdjksp esa fuEu lajpukvksa dks igpkfu;s

Gizzard

is"k.kh
B

nkr

Teeth

Midgut

e;ka=

xzkluyh

Oesophagus

bfy;e

Ileum

(1) A Crop
C Malpighian tubule

B Mandible

(2) A Maxillae

B Labrum

C Crop

D Midgut

(3) A Hepatic caecae

C Malpighian tubule
(4) A Intestinal caecae
C Malpighian tubule

(1) A

D Hepatic caecae

C
(2) A
C

B Mandible

(3) A

D Crop

B Labium

(4) A

D Stomach

177. How many pairs of alary muscles are found in

cockroach?

177.

(1) 12 pairs
(2) 13 pairs
(3) 11 pairs
(4) 10 pairs
178. In cockroach exchange of gases takes place at the
A by
B

178.

(30)

yscez

vUuiqV

e;ka=

fgiSfVd lhdk

eS.Mhcy

eSYihxh ufydk

vUuiqV

vka=h; lhdk

ysfc;e

eSYihxh ufydk;sa

vkek'k;

(4) 10

tksMh+

dkWdjksp esa xSlksa dk fofue;

gksrk gS

B Diffusion

tksMh+

(4) A

(4) A Alveoli

esfDlyh

(3) 11

B Diffusion

fgiSfVd lhdk

tksMh+

(3) A

(3) A Tracheoles

(2) 13

B Osmosis

eSYihxh ufydk;sa

tksMh+

(2) A

(2) A Bronchi

eSUMhcy

(1) 12

B Osmosis

dkWdjksp esa ,syjs h isf'k;k fdruh tksMh+ esa gksrh gS\a

(1) A

(1) A Trachea

vUuiqV

'okluky
ijklj.k
'oluh
ijklj.k
VsfdvksYl
folj.k
ok;q&dwfidkvksa
folj.k

esa

}kjk

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

Test-2 (Code A)

179. On the basis of excretory nitrogenous wastes

cockroach is

179.

dkWdjksp mRlthZ ukbVkt

s uh vif'k"V inkFkZ ds vkkkj
ij gksrk gS
(1) ;wfjdksVsfyd
(2) ;wfjvksVsfyd
(3) veksuksVfs yd
(4) lnhZ esa ;wfjdksVsfyd vkSj o"kkZ ds ekSle
esa
veksuksVfs yd
180. uj dkWdjksp dk tuu ra= ,d tksMh+ o`"k.kksa ls cuk
gksrk gS tks ______ mnjh; [k.Mksa dh izR;sd ik'oZ vksj
,d&,d gksrs gaS
(1) 4th ls 6th
(2) 2nd ls 4th
(3) 6th ls 8th
(4) 8th rFkk 9th

(1) Uricotelic
(2) Ureotelic
(3) Ammonotelic
(4) Uricotelic in winter and in rainy season
ammonotelic
180. Male reproductive system of cockroach consists of
a pair of testis lying one on each lateral side in the
______ abdominal segments
(1) 4th to 6th
(2) 2nd to 4th
(3) 6th to 8th
(4) 8th and 9th

(31)

29/06/2015

CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

New Test Series : Test 2

MM : 720

Time : 3 Hrs.

(for AIPMT - 2015 )

ANSWERS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.

(4)
(4)
(4)
(2)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(2)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(1)

37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.

(3)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(4)
(1)
(4)
(1)
(4)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(2)
(1)
(4)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(4)
(2)

73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.

(4)
(1)
(3)
(1)
(4)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(2)
(2)
(4)
(1)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(1)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(4)
(4)
(3)

(32)

109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.

(4)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(1)
(3)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(1)
(4)
(3)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(4)
(1)

145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.

(2)
(2)
(4)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(3)
(4)
(4)
(1)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(4)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(1)
(3)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(1)
(3)
(1)
(1)

29/06/2015

CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

New Test Series : Test 2

MM : 720

Time : 3 Hrs.

(for AIPMT - 2015 )

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1.

Answer (4)

1.

Magnitude of sum of two sides is equal to or more

than the 3rd side of triangle.

f=Hkqt dh nks Hkqtkvksa ds ;ksx dk ifjek.k bldh rhljh

Hkqtk ds cjkcj ;k blls vf/kd gksrk gSA

Magnitude of difference of two sides is equal to or

less than the 3rd side.
2.
3.

2.

Answer (2)
5 (5 m/s east)

3.

4.

mkj (2)
5 (5 m/s
= 25 m/s

Answer (2)
Law of polygon

mkj (4)
nks fcUnq ds e/; U;wure nwjh foLFkkiu gSA

= 25 m/s east
5.

mkj (4)
dks.kh; Roj.k

Answer (4)
Minimum separation between two point is displacement.

4.

nks Hkqtkvksa ds vUrj dk ifjek.k rhljh Hkqtk ds cjkcj

;k blls de gksrk gSA

Answer (4)
Angular acceleration.

mkj (4)

5.

cgqHkqt dk fu;e

Answer (2)

7.

Answer (3)

6.

mkj (2)

x=42=8m

7.

mkj (3)
x=42=8m

1
2
y = 2 2 = 4 m
2

y=

r = x 2 + y 2 = 82 + 4 2 = 4 5 m
Answer (1)



v S = v SG v R

Answer (1)

T =

1
2 22 = 4 m
2

r = x 2 + y 2 = 82 + 4 2 = 4 5 m
8.

mkj (1)



v S = v SG v R



v SG = v S + v R




v SG = v S + v R

9.

iwoZ

mkj (2)

6.

8.

iwoZ)

9.

2u sin
g

mkj (1)
T =

(33)

2u sin
g

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

10. Answer (4)

10.

mkj (4)
rF;kRed

11.

mkj (2)

Fact.
11. Answer (2)

1
I = 0.2 200
2

1
0.2 200
2
I = 20 Ns.

I=

I = 20 Ns.
12. Answer (1)

12.

Fact.

rF;kRed

13. Answer (2)

13.

Fex. < fs(max)

blfy,] fs = Fext. = 20 N.

14. Answer (1)

14.

fmax = ma

40 = 20 a

a = 2 m/s2.

a = 2 m/s2.

15. Answer (2)

15.

Fact.

mkj (2)
rF;kRed

16. Answer (3)

16.

N cos

mkj (3)
N sin
mv 2
=
N cos Rmg

N sin

v
Rg

mkj (1)
fmax = ma

40 = 20 a

N sin
mv 2
=
N cos Rmg

mkj (2)
Fex. < fs(max)

So, fs = Fext. = 20 N.

tan =

mkj (1)

v = Rg tan

tan =

mg
17.

10 = 0.4 10R
10 = 4R

(1)

V = R

(2)

N sin

v
Rg

v = Rg tan

17. Answer (2)

mg

mkj (2)
10 = 0.4 10R
10 = 4R

(1)

V = R

(2)

Eq. (2) eq. (1)

lehdj.k (2) lehdj.k (1)

V
1
=
10 2

V
1
=
10 2

V = 5 m/s

V = 5 m/s

18. Answer (2)

18.

Fact.

mkj (2)
rF;kRed

19. Answer (3)


p = MVf mVi

19.

mkj (3)

p = MVf mVi

= 5(3) 5 3

= 5(3) 5 3

p = 30 kg m/s


p = 30 kg m/s

20. Answer (2)

20.

Fact.

mkj (2)
rF;kRed

(34)

N cos

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

21. Answer (4)

Test-2 (Code A)

21.

Fact.

mkj (4)
rF;kRed

22. Answer (3)

22.

mkj (3)

Ws =

2
rad./s
60

Ws =

2
rad./s
60

Wn =

2
rad/s
12 3600

Wn =

2
rad/s
12 3600

Ws 12 3600
=
= 720
60
Wn
23. Answer (4)

at2

a=

Ws 12 3600
=
= 720
60
Wn

23.

+ ac2

a = at2 + ac2

102
a = 22 +

50

102
a = 22 +

50

a = 2 2 m/s2

24. Answer (3)

T 40 = 4 4

a = 2 2 m/s2

24.

T = 40 + 16

T = 56 N

T = 56 N

25. Answer (2)

25.

1
W
R
W1 : W2 = R2 : R1

26. Answer (4)

1
R
W1 : W2 = R2 : R1
W

26.

U
2g

mkj

(4)

S=

U2
2g

202
400
=
= 40 M
2 0.5 10
10

27. Answer (2)

=
27.

Fact.
28. Answer (2)
R = 2 A cos

28.

= cos
2
2

29. Answer (2)

d2
dt

202
400
=
= 40 M
2 0.5 10
10

mkj (2)
rF;kRed
mkj (2)
R = 2 A cos

= 120

a=

mkj (2)

mkj (3)
T 40 = 4 4

T = 40 + 16

S=

mkj (4)

1
= cos
2
2

= 120
29.

(3ti + 4t 2 j + 5k )

mkj (2)
a=

a = 8 m/s2.

d2
dt 2

(3ti + 4t 2 j + 5k )

a = 8 m/s2.
(35)

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

30. Answer (1)

R1 =

30.

U 2 sin 2(30)
g

U 2 sin 60
R1 =
g
U 2 sin(60) U 2 sin120
R2 =
=
g
g

(i)

(ii)

U 2 sin 2(30)
g

R1 =

U 2 sin 60
g

(i)

R2 =

U 2 sin(60) U 2 sin120
=
g
g

(ii)

R2 sin120
=
R1
sin60 = 1

R2 sin120
=
R1
sin60 = 1

31.

31. Answer (2)

32. Answer (1)

mkj (2)
nks lfn'kksa ds e/; dks.k nks lgizkjfEHkd lfn'kksa ds
e/; dks.k ls NksVk gksrk gSA

Angle between two vectors is smaller angle between two coinitial vectors.
32.

gR
R

R1 =

lehdj.k (i) rFkk (ii) ls

From equation (i) & (ii), we get

W =

mkj (1)

mkj (1)
W =

0.3 10
= 0.5
12

gR
R

33. Answer (3)

33.

0.3 10
= 0.5
12

mkj (3)

Rtan = 4H

Rtan = 4H

H tan 45 1
=
=
R
4
4

H tan 45 1
=
=
R
4
4

34. Answer (4)

a=

34.

U 20
=
=5
t
4

mkj (4)
a=

mg = ma

U 20
=
=5
t
4

mg = ma

a
g

a
g

5
10

5
10

35. Answer (2)

35.

F mg = ma

F mg = ma

F = m(g + a)
F = 10,000(10 + 2)= 120,000 = 1.2

mkj (2)
F = m(g + a)

105

F = 10,000(10 + 2) = 120,000 = 1.2 105 N

36. Answer (1)

36.

mkj (1)

220 = 11 a

220 = 11 a

a = 20 m/s

a = 20 m/s

T=ma

T=ma

= 5 20

= 5 20

T = 100 N

T = 100 N
(36)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

37. Answer (3)

Test-2 (Code A)

37.

T1 sin30 = T2 sin60

mkj (3)
T1 sin30 = T2 sin60

T1 = T2 3

(i)

T1 = T2 3

(i)

T1 cos30 + T2 cos60 = 200

T1 cos30 + T2 cos60 = 200

T1
T
3 + 2 = 200
2
2

T1
T
3 + 2 = 200
2
2

T1 3 + T2 = 400

T1 3 + T2 = 400

(ii)

(ii)

leh- (i) o (ii) dks gy djus ij

On solving equation (i) & (ii), we get

T1
= 3
T2

T1
= 3
T2
38.

38. Answer (2)

mkj (2)
F = 30 1.5 = 45 N

F = 30 1.5 = 45 N
39.

39. Answer (4)

Fact.

mkj (4)
rF;kRed

40. Answer (2)

40.

a = ac2 + at2 =

42 + 32

mkj (2)
a = ac2 + at2 =

a = 5 m/s

42 + 32

a = 5 m/s

41. Answer (4)

41.

Fact.

mkj (4)
rF;kRed

42. Answer (1)




M1V1 + M2V2 = (M1 + M2 )V

42.

mkj (1)



M1V1 + M2V2 = (M1 + M2 )V

2 10 + 3 (5) = 5 V

2 10 + 3 (5) = 5 V

20 15 = 5V

20 15 = 5V

V = 1 m/s

V = 1 m/s

43. Answer (4)

43.

mkj (4)

a = 2 m/s

a = 2 m/s

5 kg

kx

20 N

5 kg

kx

20 kx = 5 2

20 kx = 5 2

kx = 10 N

kx = 10 N

a
8 kg

a
kx

8 kg

kx = 8 a

kx = 8 a

10 = 8 a

10 = 8 a

a=

20 N

5
= 1.25 m/s2
4

a=
(37)

5
= 1.25 m/s2
4

kx

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

44. Answer (1)

44.

mkj (1)



p = mv = 4(3i 2 j + bk )



p = mv = 4(3i 2 j + bk )


mv = 12i 8 j + 4bk


mv = 12i 8 j + 4bk


| p | = 144 + 64 + 16b2


| p | = 144 + 64 + 16b2

225 = 208 + 16b2

225 = 208 + 16b2

225 208 = 16b2

225 208 = 16b2

b2 =

17
,
16

17
b=
1
16
45.

45. Answer (4)

N=0

b2 =

17
,
16

b=

17
1
16

mkj (4)
N = 0 (vfHkyEc

(Normal reaction can not be negative)

46.

46. Answer (3)

mkj

(3)

la;ksth dks'k foU;kl fuEu gSa:

The valence shell configuration are:

N 2s2 2p3

N 2s2 2p3

O 2s2 2p4

O 2s2 2p4
F

F 2s2 2p5

2s2 2p5

v)Z iwfjr midks'k] vkaf'kd Hkjs midks'k dh rqyuk

esa vf/kd LFkk;h gksrs gSAa vk;uu tkZ dk e fuEu
gksuk pkfg,:-

The half filled sub-shell being more stable as

compared to the partially filled subshell, the order of
ionisation energy should be:-

O<N<F

O<N<F
47.

47. Answer (3)

48. Answer (1)

mkj

49.

,d fn, x, vkorZ esa cka,s ls nka,s pyus ij bysDVkWu

xzg.k djus dh izof` k c<+rh gS vFkok vf/kd fo|qr_.kh
rRoksa esa bysDVkWu xzg.k djus dh izof` k mPp gksrh gSA
mkj (2)
rF;kRed
mkj (3)
midks'kksa ds Hkjus dk lgh e fuEu gS

Fact.
50.

50. Answer (3)

(3)

48.

In a given period electron gaining tendency increases from left to right or the more electronegative element has higher electron accepting tendency
in general.
49. Answer (2)

mkj

o`gnre~ vkdkj gksus ds dkj.k [Xe]6s1 vR;f/kd

fo|qr/kuh rRo gSA vFkkZr~ ;g vius la;ksth dks'k ds
bysDVkWu vR;f/kd vklkuh ls R;kx ldrk gSA

Being the largest size [Xe]6s1 is the most electropositive element i.e., it can lose its valence shell
electron most easily.

The correct order of filling of subshells is

(1)

3p < 4s < 3d

3p < 4s < 3d
(n + l)

izfrf;k _.kkRed ugha gks ldrh gS)

(n + l)

5
51.

51. Answer (3)

mkj

(3)

SiF4 has sp3 hybridisation and is tetrahedral.

SiF4

esa sp3 ladj.k gS rFkk ;g prq"Qydh; gS

SF4 has sp3d hybridisation having shape see-saw.

SF4

esa sp3d ladj.k gS o bldh lh-lkW vkd`fr gSA

(38)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

Test-2 (Code A)

52. Answer (4)

52.

mkj

(4)

Triangular planar, = 0

N
F

N
H

HC

vFkkZr~,
53.

54.

NO2 : sp2
NH2 : sp3
H2O : sp3

55.

55. Answer (2)

O=N=O

N
O

56. Answer (3)

N2 : Total e = 15 i.e., Bond order = 2.5
57. Answer (3)
O2, O2, O2+ are paramagnetic but O22 is diamagnetic.
58. Answer (2)

57.
58.

Based on molecular orbital configuration C2 has

only -bonds.
59.

59. Answer (1)

C=
C

mkj

(2)
(+)

mkj

O=N=O

N
O

O
N
O

Number of bonds
Number of resonating structures

cU/k e =

4
= 1.33
3

=
(39)

dqy e = 14 vFkkZr~, cU/k e = 3

N2 : dqy e = 15 vFkkZr~, cU/k e = 2.5
N22 : dqy e = 16 vFkkZr~, cU/k e = 2.0
mkj (3)
O2, O2, O2+ vuqpEq cdh; gS tcfd O22 izfrpqEcdh; gSA
mkj (2)
vk.kfod d{kd foU;kl ds vk/kkj ij C2 esa dsoy
-cU/k gksrs gSA
a
mkj (1)

Bond order =

(3)

N2 :

N2 : Total e = 14 i.e., Bond order = 3

N22 : Total e = 16 i.e., Bond order = 2.0

CC

H
(1)
BF3 : sp2
NO2 : sp2
NH2 : sp3
H2O : sp3

56.

mkj

(1)

HC

BF3 : sp2

mkj

C=
C

(+)

NF3 < NH3

CC

H
54. Answer (1)

F
F

53. Answer (1)

i.e., NF3 < NH3

lery f=Hkqth;] = 0

cUkkas dh l[a;k
vuuqknh ljapukvkas dh l[a;k
4
= 1.33
3

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

60. Answer (4)

60.

Electronegativites of F, O, N and C are respectively

4, 3.5, 3.0 and 2.5. i.e., maximum electronegativity
difference in C F bond.
61. Answer (1)

tA
MA
i.e., t = M
B
B

62.
t2
M2
( v1 = v2 and t = M )
1
1

63.

P1V1 P2 V2
=
T1
T2

V2 =

( V2 = V)

450 V
=V
300 1.5

64.

dRT
P

t2
M2
=
t1
M1 )

20
80
10 = M
B

mkj

(3)

1 V 1.5 V2
=
300
450

V2 =

mkj

( V2 = V)

450 V
=V
300 1.5

(1)

dRT
P
3.43 0.0821 300
=
= 84.5 g/mol
1
65. mkj (1)
M=

3.43 0.0821 300

= 84.5 g/mol
1

rFkk

P1V1 P2 V2
=
T1
T2

64. Answer (1)

M=

( v1 = v2

MB = 20 g/mol

63. Answer (3)

(3)

tA
MA
i.e., t = M
B
B

MB = 20 g/mol

1 V 1.5 V2
=
300
450

mkj

v1 /t1
M2
=
v 2 /t 2
M1

20
80
10 = M
B

rFkk C dh fo|qr_.krk,a e'k% 4, 3.5, 3.0

gSaA vFkkZr~] C F cU/k esa fo|qr_.krk esa
vUrj vfkdre gSA
mkj (1)
[Cu(H2O)4]SO4.H2O

62. Answer (3)

v1 /t1
M2
=
v 2 /t 2
M1

(4)

F, O, N
rFkk 2.5
61.

[Cu(H2O)4]SO4.H2O

mkj

65. Answer (1)

Fact.

66.

66. Answer (3)

Fact.

67.

67. Answer (1)

On increasing temperature and decreasing pressure
distance between the gas molecules increases and
thus the volume correction term can be neglected
and also kinetic energy increases with increase in
temperature so, pressure correction term can also
be neglected in the van der Waals equation.

68.

68. Answer (1)

Decrease in size increases the ionisation potential
and also half filled and full filled sub-shells are
relatively more stable.
69. Answer (1)

69.

Fact.
70. Answer (2)

70.

The correct order of 1st ionisation energy is

rF;kRedA
mkj (3)
rF;kRedA
mkj (1)
rki c<+kus ij rFkk nkc ?kVkus ij xSl v.kqvksa ds e;
nwjh c<+rh gS rFkk bl izdkj ok.Mj oky lehdj.k
esa vk;ru la'kks/ku in ux.; gks ldrk gS vkSj rki
c<+kus ij xfrt tkZ Hkh c<+rh gS blfy, nkc
la'kksku in Hkh ux.; gks ldrk gSA
mkj (1)
vkdkj esa deh gksus ij vk;uu foHko esa o`f) gksrh
gS rFkk v)Zifw jr o iw.kZifw jr midks'k vis{kkd`r vf/kd
LFkk;h gksrs gSAa
mkj (1)
rF;kRedA
mkj (2)
izFke vk;uu tkZ dk lgh e fuEu gS
B<C<O<N

B<C<O<N
(40)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

Test-2 (Code A)

71. Answer (4)

71.

Due to diagonal relationship.

72. Answer (2)

72.

Fact.
73. Answer (4)

73.

Cl2O7 is highly acidic oxide.

74. Answer (1)

74.

mkj (4)
fod.kZ lEcU/k ds dkj.kA
mkj (2)
rF;kRedA
mkj (4)
Cl2O7 vR;Ur vEyh; vkWDlkbM gSA
mkj (1)

B
F

Cl
Cl

Cl

Cl
Cl

S
O

75. Answer (3)

75.

(3)

mkj

Xe

Xe
F

76. Answer (1)

76.

= A 2 + B2 + 2ABcos and = 60
77. Answer (4)

(1)

mkj

= A 2 + B2 + 2ABcos
77.

(4)

mkj

N
O

78.

Fact.
79. Answer (2)

79.

Be2 has bond order zero.

80. Answer (4)

80.

Maximum charge.
81. Answer (2)

81.

mkj (3)
rF;kRedA
mkj (2)
Be2 dk cU/k e 'kwU; gksrk gSA
mkj (4)
vf/kdre vkos'k
mkj (2)
F

Br
F

F
Br

F
82. Answer (2)

78. Answer (3)

F
F

82.

Fact.
(41)

rFkk = 60

mkj (2)
rF;kRedA

Cl

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

83. Answer (2)

PSO3
PO2

83.

PSO3

1/80 32 2
=
=
1/32 80 5

PO2

84.

84. Answer (4)

Vrms =

V50
3RT
=
, i.e.,
2 V50
M

1 323
=
4
T

323
T

V50
3RT
=
, i.e.,
2 V50
M

323
T

( T = 1292 K)

vFkkZr~, T = 1019C
85.

85. Answer (1)

mkj

(1)

fulfjr gksus dh izof` k

1
M

86.

86. Answer (3)

mkj

1
M

(3)

P1V1 = P2V2

P1V1 = P2V2

100 100 = P2 110

100 100 = P2 110

P2 =

100 100
= 90.9 91
110

100 100
= 90.9 91
110

Percentage decrease in pressure = 9%

87.

87. Answer (2)

Fact.

88.

88. Answer (3)

89.

89. Answer (1)

P=

(4)

1 323
=
4
T

i.e., T = 1019C

P2 =

mkj

(2)
1/80 32 2
=
=
=
1/32 80 5

Vrms =

( T = 1292 K)

Escaping tendency

mkj

nkc esa izfr'kr deh = 9%

mkj (2)
rF;kRedA
mkj (3)
mkj (1)
P=

nRT
V
4 2
+ 0.0821 273

32 2
=
= 25.21 atm
1

90.

90. Answer (4)

nRT
V
4 2
+ 0.0821 273

32 2
=
= 25.21 atm
1

mkj

(4)

PA .VA PB .VB
=
nA .TA nB .TB

PA .VA PB .VB
=
nA .TA nB .TB

2 PB 2 VB PB VB
=
nA 2TB
nB TB

2 PB 2 VB PB VB
=
nA 2TB
nB TB

nA 2
=
nB 1

nA 2
=
nB 1

91.

91. Answer (2)

Artificial system : Based on only gross superficial
morphological characters such as habit, colour
number and shape of leaves etc. They seperated
closely related species since they were based on a
few characteristics.
Natural system : Based on natural affinities among
the organisms and considers not only the external
features, but also internal features, like ultra structure anatomy, embryology and phytochemistry.
(42)

mkj (2)
f=e i)fr : O;ogkj] jax] la[;k rFkk ifk;ksa ds
vkdkj bR;kfn tSls dsoy lexz ckgjh vkdkfjdh y{k.kksa
ij vk/kkfjr gaAS ;s dqN vfHky{k.kksa ij vk/kkfjr fudV
lEcU/kh tkfr;ksa dks i`Fkd djrh gSAa
kfrd i)fr : thoksa ds chp kfrd lEcU/kksa ij
vk/kkfjr gksrh gS rFkk u dsoy ck fo'ks"krkvksa ij
cfYd vkUrfjd fo'ks"krkvksa ij h fopkj djrh gS]
tSl&
s ijklajpuk] 'kkjhfjdh] Hkw.z kfoKku rFkk iknijlk;uA

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

Phytogenetic system : Based on evolutionary relationships between the various organisms. This
assumes that organisms belonging to same taxa
have a common ancestor.
92. Answer (1)

Test-2 (Code A)

92.

Numerical Taxonomy (Phenetics/Adansonian

taxonomy)

Based on all observable characters.

Carried out using computers

Number and codes are assigned to all the characters and then data are processed.

Uses statistical and mathematical analysis

Each character is given equal importance and

at the same time hundreds of characters can
be considered.

Chemotaxonomy : Classification is based on

chemical constituents of plants.
93. Answer (3)

93.

Phaeophyceae :

Brown algae

Unicellular forms are absent in brown algae

Filamentous forms e.g. Ectocarpus

Large massive forms e.g. kelps - Macrocystis

Parenchymatous forms e.g. Sargassum,

Laminaria

94.

94. Answer (3)

Chlorophyceae : Green algae stored food - Starch;
Flagella - Isokont and apical.
Example : Ulothrix, Chlamydomonas
Phaeophyceae : Brown algae stored food - Laminarin and mannitol; Flagella - Heterokont and lateral.
Example : Sargassum, Laminaria, Ectocarpus
Rhodophyceae : Red algae stored food - Floridean
starch; Flagella - absent.
Example : Porphyra, Polysiphonia

95.

95. Answer (1)

Floridean starch is very similar to amylopectin in
structure and is found in red algae like Gracilaria
96. Answer (2)

96.

Hydrocolloids
Red algae :

Agar : Obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria

Carrageen obtained from Chondrus

Brown algae :

Algin : Obtained from Laminaria, Macrocystis,

Fucus Nerocystis, Sargassum, etc.
(43)

tkfro`kh; i)fr : fofHkUu thoksa ds chp fodklkRed

lEcU/kksa ij vk/kkfjr gksrh gSA blesa ekuk tkrk gS fd
leku oxZ ls lEcfU/kr thoksa dk mHk;fu"B iwot
Z gksrk gSA
mkj (1)
la[;kRed oxdh y{k.koxdh@,Mulksfu;u oxdh
lHkh voyksduh; y{k.kksa ij vk/kkfjrA
dEI;wVjksa ds mi;ksx ds }kjk f;kfUor gksrh gSA
la[;k rFkk dwV lHkh y{k.kksa ls rFkk rRi'pkr~
lalkf/kr vkdM+kas ls lEcfU/kr gksrs gSAa
lakf[;dh; rFkk xf.krh; fo'ys"k.kksa dk mi;ksx djrh gSA
R;sd y{k.k dks leku egRo fn;k x;k gSA rFkk
lkFk gh ,d gh le; ij lSd
a M+kas y{k.kksa ij fopkj
fd;k tk ldrk gSA
jlk;u&oxdh : oxhZdj.k ikniksa ds jklk;fud ?kVdksa
ij vk/kkfjr gksrk gSA
mkj (3)
fQ;ksQkblh :
wjs 'kSoky
Hkwjs 'kSokyksa esa ,ddksf'kdh; k:i vuqifLFkr gksrs gSA
a
rUrqy k:i] mnkgj.k&,DVksdkiZl
nh?kZ LFkwy k:i] mnkgj.k&dSYi - esksflfLVl
e`nw kdh k:i] mnkgj.k&lkjxSle] ysfeusfj;k
mkj (3)
Dyks j ks Q kblh : gjs 'kS o ky] la f pr Hkks t u&LVkpZ ;
d'kk&led'kkfd rFkk 'kh"kZLFkA
mnkgj.k : ;wyksfFkzDl] DysekbMkseksukl
fQ;ksQkblh : Hkwjs 'kSoky] lafpr Hkkstu&ysfeusfju rFkk
esfuVksy; d'kkHk&fo"ked'kkfHkd rFkk ik'ohZ;A
mnkgj.k : lkjxSle] ysfeusfj;k] ,DVksdkiZlA
jksMksQkblh : yky 'kSoky] lafpr kstu&yksfjfM;u
LVkpZ; d'kkHk&vuqifLFkrA
mnkgj.k : iksjQkbjk] iksyhlkbQksfu;k
mkj (1)
yksfjMh;u LVkpZ lajpuk esa ,ek;yksifs DVu ds vR;f/kd
leku gksrk gS rFkk yky 'kSokyksa esa ik;k tkrk gS]
tSls &xzfs lysfj;k
mkj (2)
gkbMksdkWykbZM
yky 'kSoky :
vxkj : ftyhfM;e o xzfs lysfj;k ls kIr gksrk gSA
dkjkxhu % dkW.Ml ls kIr gksrk gSA
Hkwjs 'kSoky :
,fYtu : ys f eus f j;k] es ks f lfLVl] ;w d l]
usjksflfLVl] lkxSle vkfn ls kIr gksrk gSA

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

97. Answer (2)

97.

In bryophytes main plant body is gametophyte (n)

and it alternates with sporophyte (2n)

Parts of gametophyte ; Contains 6 chromosome : Protonema and rhizoids therefore.

Parts of sporophyte ; Contains 12 chromosome

: Spore mother cell and foot therefore.

98. Answer (4)

Moss are responsible for:

Trans-shipment of materials.

Prevention of soil erosion.

Peat formed by Sphagnum moss is used as fuel.

99. Answer (2)

Gemmae of marchantia are

Green and Multicellular.

Haploid, stalked asexual buds.

Develop in small receptacles called gemma

cups.

Detached from the parent body and germinate to

form new individuals.

100. Answer (1)

Pteridophytes are vascular cryptogams.

They are vascular archegoniates.

Algae are non-embryophytes.

Bryophytes are non-vascular archegoniates.

101. Answer (3)

Zygote
(2n)

Give rise
to

Multicellular well
differentiated,
independent sporophyte

Pteridophytes,
e.g. Selaginella,
Lycopodium

mkj (2)

czk;ksQkbV~l esa eq[; ikni 'kjhj ;qXedksnf~ Hkn (n) gksrk gS

rFkk ;g chtk.kqnf~ Hkn (2n) ds lkFk ,dkUrfjr gksrk gSA
;qXedksn~fHkn ds Hkkx ; 6 xq.klw= ;qDr FkerUrq
o ewykHkkl gksrs gSAa
chtk.kqn~fHkn ds Hkkx ; 12 xq.klw= ;qDr chtk.kq
ekr` dksf'kdk rFkk ikn gksrs gSAa
98. mkj (4)
ekWl fuEu ds fy, mkjnk;h gksrs gS:a inkFkks dk ukSdkUrj.kA
e`nk vijnu ls cpkoA
LQsXue ekWl ds }kjk fuer ihV b/ku ds :i
esa ;qDr gksrk gSA
99. mkj (2)
ekUdsZfUl;k ds eqdqy gksrs gSa gjs rFkk cgqdksf'kdh;A
vxqf.kr] o`Urh; vySfa xd dfydk,A
tsek di dgykus okyh y?kq /kkfu;ksa esa ifjo/kr
gksrs gSAa
tud 'kjhj ls i`Fkd gksdj u;s O;fDrxrksa ds
fuekZ.k ds fy, vadqfjr gksrs gSAa
100. mkj (1)
VsfjMksQkbV~l laoguh fIVksxSEl gksrs gSA
a
;s laoguh L=h/kkuh;qDr gksrs gSA
a
'kSoky vHkwz.kksn~fHkn gksrs gSA
a
czk;ksQkbV~l vlaoguh L=h/kkuh;qDr gksrs gSA
a
101. mkj (3)
;qXeut
(2n)

(2n)

o`f) nku cgqdksf'kdh;]

djrk gS
lqfoHksfnr]

mnkgj.k

Lora= chtk.kqn~fHkn
(2n)

Rest options : Polytrichum, Funaria - Bryophyte

Ectocarpus - Algae; Cycas - Gymnosperms
102. Answer (4)
Requirement for seed formation are:

Heterospory

Integumented megasporangium (ovule)

Precocious development of male and female

gametophyte

Development of zygote into young embryos

within female gametophytes.
(44)

'ks"k fodYi : iksyhVkbde] ;wufs j;k&czk;ksQkbV

,DVksdkiZl - 'kSoky; lkbdl - vuko`kchth
102. mkj (4)
cht fuekZ.k ds fy, fuEu vko';d gksrs gS%a
fo"kechtk.kqrk
v;koj.kh; xq:chtk.kq/kkuh (chtk.M)
uj o eknk ;qXedskn~fHkn dk dkyiwohZ ifjo/kZu
eknk ;qXedksnf~ Hkn ds hrj r:.k Hkw.z kksa esa ;qXeut
dk ifjo/kZu

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

103. Answer (3)

Class
Psilopsida

Test-2 (Code A)

103.

Examples
Psilotum

Lycopsida

Lycopodium & Selaginella

Sphenopsida

Equisetum

Pteropsida

Dryopteris, Adiantum, Pteris

104. Answer (2)

Gymnosperms are naked seeded plants i.e., in
them seeds are not covered by fruits as ovary is
absent.
In angiosperms seeds are covered by fruits as
ovules are enclosed in ovary.
105. Answer (2)
Coralloid roots of Cycas has symbiotic association
with cyanobacteria Anabaena.
Mycorrhizal roots of Pinus has symbiotic association
with fungi Boletus
106. Answer (4)
Synergid is a haploid cell of embryo sac in
angiosperm
Gemma cell in Marchantia - Haploid
Ovum of a liverwort - Haploid
Meristem of dicot - diploid
107. Answer (4)
In angiosperms, synergids and antipodal cells
degenerate after fertilisation polar nuclei after
fertilisation form primary endosperm nucleus (PEN).
108. Answer (3)
Haplontic life cycle : Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas
Diplontic life cycle : Ficus, Cycas
Haplo-diplontic life cycle : Polysiphonia, Ectocarpus,
Sphagnum.
109. Answer (4)
Triple fusion ie., fusion polar nuclei with male gamete, is characteristic feature of angiosperm.
Example : Eucalyptus, Wolfia and Mangifera
110. Answer (1)

mkj (3)
oxZ
mnkgj.k

flyksVe
flyksfIlMk

ykbdksiksfM;e o flySftusyk
ykbdksfIlMk

bDohlhVe
LQhuksfIlMk
VsjksfIlMk

Mk;ksIVsfjl] ,fM,UVe] Vsfjl

104. mkj (2)
vuko`kchth ikni uXuchth ikni gksrs gS]a vFkkZr~ buesa
cht Qyksa ls vkofjr ugha gksrs gS]a blfy, v.Mk'k;
vuqifLFkr gksrk gSA
vko`kchft;ksa esa cht Qyksa ds }kjk vkofjr gksrs gS]a
blfy, chtk.M v.Mk'k; esa ifjc) jgrs gSAa
105. mkj (2)
lkbdl dh okyk tM+kas dk lk;uksthok.kq ,ukchuk
ls lgthoh lEcU/k gksrk gSA
ikbul dh dodewyh; tM+ksa dk dod cksysVl ls
lgthoh lEcU/k gksrk gSA
106. mkj (4)
vko`kchft;ksa esa lgk; dksf'kdk Hkwz.kdks"k dh ,d
vxqf.kr dksf'kdk gksrh gSA
ekdsZfUl;k esa eqdqy dksf'kdk- vxqf.kr
fyojoVZ dk chtk.M - vxqf.kr
f}chti=h dk foT;ksrd - f}xqf.kr
107. mkj (4)
vko`kchft;ksa esa lgk; dksf'kdk, rFkk frO;klkar dksf'kdk,
kflr gks tkrh gS]a /kqoz h; dsUnzdh fu"kspu ds i'pkr~
kFkfed Hkwz.kiks"k dsUnzd (PEN) dk fuekZ.k djrk gSA
108. mkj (3)
vxqf.krdh thou p : Likbjksxkbjk] DysekbMkseksukl
f}xqf.krdh thou p : Qkbdl] lkbdl
vxqf.kr&f}xqf.krdh thou p : ikWyhlkbQksfu;k]
,DVksdkiZl] LQsXueA
109. mkj (4)
f=lay;u vFkkZr~ /kqoz h; dsUnzdh dk uj ;qXed ds lkFk
la;Xq eu vko`kchft;ksa dh ,d vfHkyk{kf.kd fo'ks"krk gSA
mnkgj.k : ;wdfs yIVl] okWfYQ;k rFkk eSUthQsjk
110. mkj (1)
vko`kchft;ksa esa

In angiosperms

fuekZ.k
; Xqeut
Hkz.wk
djrk gS

Forms
Zygote
Embryo

fuekZ.k
chtk.M
cht

Forms
Ovule
Seed

djrk gS

fuekZ.k
v.Mk'k;
Qy

Forms
Ovary
Fruit

djrk gS

(45)

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

111. Answer (2)

mkj (2)
xq.klw= la[;k] lajpuk o O;ogkj ij vk/kkfjr oxdh
dh 'kk[kk dksf'kdk oxdh gSA
ikniksa esa mifLFkr jlk;uksa ij vk/kkfjr oxdh dh
'kk[kk jlk;u&oxdh gSA
oxdh dh og 'kk[kk tks dEI;wVjksa rFkk xf.krh;
fo'ys"k.k ds }kjk v;;u fd;s tk ldus okys dbZ
voyksduh; y{k.kksa ij vk/kkfjr gS] la[;kRed oxdh
dgykrh gSA
thoksa ds fodklkRed bfrgkl dk v;;u tkfro`kh;
gksrk gSA
112. mkj (1)
'kSokyksa esa lkekU;r% ik;s tkus okys pychtk.kq py
fr ds gksrs gSAa ;s vySfa xd chtk.kq pychtk.kq rFkk
ekbVkschtk.kq gksrs gSAa
113. mkj (2)
oxhZdj.k dh csUFke o gwdj i)fr izkd`frd i)fr gSA
oxhZdj.k dh yhfu;l i)fr (ySafxd i)fr) d`f=e
i)fr gSA
oxhZdj.k dh vkbdyj i)fr( ,axyj o izUs Vy i)fr
tkfro`kh; i)fr gSA
114. mkj (3)
Dyksjy
s k o Likb:fyuk : SCP (,dy dksf'kdk izkVs hu)
115. mkj (4)
yky 'kSokyksa (jksMksQkblh) esa ySfa xd o vySfa xd nksuksa
tuu vpy lajpukvksa ds }kjk gksrk gS] D;ksfa d buds
lEiw.kZ thou p esa d'kkHk vuqifLFkr gksrs gSa
116. mkj (3)
111.

The branch of taxonomy based on chromosome

number structure and behaviour is Cytotaxonomy.
The branch of taxonomy based on chemicals
present in plants is Chemotaxonomy.
Branch of taxonomy based on many observable
characters which can be studied by computers and
mathematical analysis is numerical taxonomy.
Study of evolutionary history of an organism is
phylogeny.
112. Answer (1)
Zoospores are motile spores commonly found in
algae. They are asexual spores (Planospores and
mitospores).
113. Answer (2)
Bentham and Hooker system of classification Natural system.
Linnaeus system (sexual system) of classification Artificial system.
Eichler system; Engler and Prantl system of
classification - Phytogenetic system.
114. Answer (3)
Chlorella and Spirulina : SCP (Single cell protein)
115. Answer (4)
In red algae (Rhodophyceae) both sexual and
asexual reproduction occurs by non-motile
structures as flagella is absent throughout life cycle.
116. Answer (3)

Chara (Green algae)

Polysiphonia (Red algae)

dkjk (gjs

(46)

'kSoky)

ikWyhlkbQksfu;k (yky 'kSoky)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

Test-2 (Code A)

ok;q vk'k;
i.kZ

e; f'kjk

Fucus (Brown algae)

;wdl (Hkwjs

'kSoky)

LFkkiukax

izi.kZ

Dictyota (Brown algae)

fMfDV;ksVk (Hkwjs

'kSoky)

o`ra
117. Answer (1)
The plant body of bryophytes is less differentiated
than plant body of pteridophytes.
Spores (n) represent the first cell
gametophytic (n) generation in bryophyte.

of

118. Answer (3)

In bryophyte meiosis occurs in spore mother cell
(2n) which are present inside capsule of sporophyte
(2n).
119. Answer (2)
Bryophytes differ from algae in presence of embryo
stage and archegonia.
Bryophytes are similar to algae in absence of well
developed independent sporophyte and vascular
tissue.
120. Answer (2)
Give plant is Sphagnum (bryophyte) rhizoid of a
mass is multicellular and branched.
121. Answer (3)
Main plant body of bryophyte : Gametophyte (n)
It produces gametes by mitosis
122. Answer (1)
Archegoniate plants : Bryophyte, Pteridophyte and
Gymnosperms
Vascular plants : Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms
and Angiosperms.
123. Answer (2)
The living pteridophytes are restricted to narrow
geographical regions because their gametophytes
require cool, damp and shady places to grow. They
are dependent on water for fertilisation.

mkj (1)
czk;ksQkbV~l dk ikni 'kjhj VsfjMksQkbV~l dh rqyuk esa
de foHksfnr gksrk gSA
czk;ksQkbV~l esa chtk.kq (n) ;qXedksn~fHkn (n) ih<+h dh izFke
dksf'kdk dks n'kkZrk gSA
118. mkj (3)
czk;ksQkbV~l esa v)Zl=
w h foHkktu chtk.kq ekr` dksf'kdk
(2n) esa gksrk gS] tks chtk.kqnf~ Hkn (2n) ds lEiqV esa mifLFkr
gksrh gSAa
119. mkj (2)
czk;ksQkbV~l] 'kSokyksa ls Hkz.w kkoLFkk o L=h/kkuh dh mifLFkfr
eas fHkUu gksrs gSAa
czk;ksQkbV~l] 'kSokyksa ls lqfodflr] Lora= chtk.kqnf~ Hkn
o laogu rd dh mifLFkfr esa lekurk n'kkZrs gSAa
120. mkj (2)
fn;k x;k ikni LQsXue (czk;ksQkbV) gS] lagfr dk
ewykHkkl cgqdksf'kdh; o 'kkf[kr gksrs gSAa
121. mkj (3)
czk;ksQkbV dk eq[; ikni 'kjhj : ;qXedksn~fHkn (n)
;g lelw=h foHkktu ds }kjk ;qXedksa dk fuekZ.k djrk gSA
122. mkj (1)
L=h/kkuh;qDr ikni : czk;ksQkbV] VsfjMksQkbV o vuko`kchth
laoguh ikni : VsfjMksQkbV~l] vuko`kchth o vko`kchthA
123. mkj (2)
ltho VsfjMksQkbV~l ladh.kZ HkkSxksfyd {ks=ksa rd lhfer
gksrs gS]a D;ksfa d buds ;qXedksn~fHknksa dks o`f) ds fy,
B.Ms] vknzZ o Nk;knkj LFkkuksa dh vko';drk gksrh gSA ;s
fu"kspu ds fy, ty ij fuHkZj djrs gSAa

117.

(47)

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

124. Answer (3)

mkj (3)
os VsfjMksQkbV~l tks nh?kZ o y?kq nks izdkj ds chtk.kqvksa
dk mRiknu djrs gS]a fo"kechtk.kqd ekus tkrs gSAa
mnkgj.k : lkfYofu;k o flySftusykA
fo"kechtk.kqd VsfjMksQkbV~l : Mk;ksIVsfjl o bDohlhVeA
125. mkj (3)
flySftusyk (VsfjMksQkbV), ikbul (vuko`kchth) ls
fu"kspu ds fy, ty dh vko';drk esa fHkUu gksrs gS]a
D;ksfa d ;s py uj ;qXed ;qDr gksrs gSAa
mHk;fu"B fo'ks"krk, : fo"kechtk.kqrk] tkbye rd rFkk
L=h/kkuhA
126. mkj (1)
fn;k x;k fp= lkfYofu;k (tyh; QuZ ) dk gS A
VsfjMksQkbV~l (QuZ) cht&jfgr laoguh ikni gksrs gSAa
127. mkj (3)
lkbdl : v'kkf[kr rus o la;Dq r fiPNdh i.kZ ;qDr
,d vuko`kchthA
ikbul : 'kkf[kr rus o lwP;kdkj i.kZ ;qDr ,d
vuko`kchthA
128. mkj (2)
vuko`kchth dk kflr uj ;qXed ijkxd.k dgykrk
gSA ;g dqN dksf'kdk ;qDr gksrk gS rFkk bldk
ifjo/kZu y?kqchtk.kq/kkuh ijkxdks"kksa esa kjE gksrk gSA
;g ok;q ok;qijkx.k }kjk dh.kr gksrk gS rFkk ;g
chtk.M ds ijkx dks"k ij fxjrk gSA
129. mkj (3)
'kadoq {` kksa vuko`kchft;ksa esa uj rFkk eknk ;qXedskn~fHkn
kflr gksrs gSa rFkk eqDr thoh ;k Lora= vfLrRo ugha
n'kkZrs gSAa
;s fo"kechtk.kqrk] eksVh miRopk o lwP;kdkj i.kZ ij
xrd jU/kz rFkk f}rh;d o`f) ,/kk dh mifLFkfr ds
dkj.k n'kkZrs gSAa
130. mkj (2)
vko`kchft;ksa esa:
chtk.M] xq:chtk.kq/kkuh Hkh dgykrk gSA
ijkx d.k] y?kqchtk.kq ls lelw=h foHkktu ds }kjk
ifjo/kr gksrk gSA
Hkwz.kdks"k] eknk ;qXedksn~fHkn gksrk gSA
PEN (kFkfed Hkwz.kiks"k dsUnzd), PEC (kFkfed
Hkz.w kiks"k dksf'kdk) ds Hkhrj mifLFkr gksrk gS] tks
Hkw.z kiks"k dk fuekZ.k djrk gSA
124.

The pteridophytes which produce two types of

spores macro and micro are considered as
heterosporous.
Example : Salvinia and Selaginella
Homosporous pteridophytes : Dryopteris and
Equisetum.
125. Answer (3)
Selaginella (pteridophyte) differs from Pinus
(gymnosperm) in need of water for fertilisation as it
has motile male gametes.
Common features : Heterospory, Xylem tissue and
Archegonia.
126. Answer (1)
The given diagram is of Salvinia (aquatic fern).
Pteridophytes (ferns) are non-seeded vascular
plants.
127. Answer (3)
Cycas : A gymnosperm with unbranched stem and
pinnately compound leaves.
Pinus : A gymnosperm with branched stem and
needle like leaves.
128. Answer (2)
The reduced male gametophyte of gymnosperm is
called pollen grain. It is few celled and its
development begins in microsporangia (pollen
sacs). It is dispersed by wind (anemophily) and it
lands in the pollen chamber of ovule.
129. Answer (3)
In conifers (gymnosperms) male and female
gametophytes are reduced and do not show free
living or independent existance.
They show heterospory, thick cuticle and sunken
stomata on needle leaf and secondary grow (due to
presence of cambium).
130. Answer (2)
In angiosperms:

Ovule is also known as megasporangium.

Pollen grain develops from microspore by

mitosis.

Embryo sac is female gametophyte.

PEN (primary endosperm nucleus) is present

inside PEC (primary endosperm cell) which
forms endosperm.
(48)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

Test-2 (Code A)

131. Answer (3)

131.

The given lifecycle is haplodiplontic life cycle

e.g., Bryophytes- e.g., Sphagnum and Polytrichum.
e.g., Pteredophytes- e.g., Selaginella, Pteris,
Lycopodium and Adiantum.

Pinus

(Gymnosperm)

and

Ficus

(Angiosperm)

: Show diplontic life

cycle.
132. Answer (4)
Chlamydomonas (green algae) slows:

Zygotic meiosis

Sporophytic generation represented by single

celled zygote.

133. Answer (3)

Diplontic life cycle : e.g., Cycas

Main plant body is sporophyte (2n).

Gametophyte (n) is represented by one to few

cells.

Haplontic life cycle : e.g. Spirogyra

Main plant body is gametophyte (n)

Sporophyte (2n) is represented by single celled

zygote.

Haplodiplontic life cycle : e.g., Ectocarpus and

Polysiphonia.

Both sporophyte and gametophyte are

multicellular.

134. Answer (3)

Only sexually reproducing plants exhibit alternation
of generation Alternation of generation involves two
events syngamy and meiosis.

mkj (3)
fn;k x;k thou p] vxqf.kr&f}xqf.krdh thou p gSA
mnkgj.k&czk;ksQkbV~l&mnkgj.k&LQsXue o ikWyhVkbde
mnkgj.k&VsfjMksQkbV~l&mnkgj.k&flySftusyk] Vsfjl]
ykbdksiksfM;e o ,fM,UVeA
ikbul rFkk Qkbdl : f}xq f .krdh thou

( vuko`kchth )

p n'kkZrs gSAa
132. mkj (4)
DysekbMkseksukl gjk 'kSoky n'kkZrk gS:
w h foHkktu
;qXeuth v)Zl=
chtk.kqnf~ Hkn ih<+h ,dydksf'kdh; ;qXeut ds }kjk
n'kr dh tkrh gSA
133. mkj (3)
f}xqf.krdh thou p : mnkgj.k&lkbdl
eq[; ikni 'kjhj ;qXedksnf~ Hkn (2n) gksrk gSA
,d ls dqN dksf'kdkvksa rd ds }kjk ;qXedksnf~ Hkn (n)
n'kkZ;k tkrk gSA
vxqf.kr thou p : mnkgj.k&LikbjksxkbjkA
eq[; ikni 'kjhj ;qXedksnf~ Hkn (n) gksrk gSA
chtk.kqnf~ Hkn (2n) ,dy dksf'kdh; ;qXeut ds }kjk
n'kr fd;k tkrk gSA
vxqf.kr&f}xqf.krdh thou p : mnkgj.k&,DVksdkiZl
o ikWyhlkbQksfu;kA
chtk.kqnf~ Hkn o ;qXedksnf~ Hkn nksuksa gh cgqdksf'kdh;
gksrs gSAa
134. mkj (3)
dsoy ySfa xd tuu djus okys ikni ih<+h ,dkUrj.k
n'kkZrs gS]a ftlesa ;qXedlay;u o v)Zl=
w h foHkktu nks
?kVuk;sa lfEefyr gksrh gSAa

(2n)

Meiosis
Sporophyte (2n)

( vko`kchth )

(n)

Gametophyte (n)
135.

Syngamy
135. Answer (4)
In Spirogyra (green algae) gametes are non-motile.
The sexual reproduction is isogamous.
i.e., Gametes are non-flagellate but similar in size.
136. Answer (3)
The body of cyclostomes is devoid of scales and
paired fins. But unpaired fins are present.

mkj (4)

Likbjksxkbjk gjk 'kSoky esa ;qXed vpy gksrs gSaA

ySfa xd tuu le;qXedh gksrk gSA
mnkgj.k&;qXed vd'kkfHkd gksrs gS]a ijUrq vkdkj esa
leku gksrs gSAa
136. mkj (3)
lkbDyksLVksEl ds 'kjhj esa 'kYdksa o ;qfXer i[kuksa dk
vHkko gksrk gSA ysfdu v;qfXer i[kus mifLFkr gksrs gSAa
(49)

Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

137. Answer (1)

mkj (1)
(a) ffLVl lkW fQ'k : dkWf.MDFkht oxZ dk lnL;
gS ftlesa vkjh ds leku yEck nankusnkj eq[k gksrk
gSA vkSj blesa vkUrfjd fu"kspu gksrk gSA
(b) leqnhz ?kksMk+ : blesa ifjxzkgh iwN ;k dq.Mfyr iwN
gksrh gSA vkSj ;g vkWLVkbDFkht oxZ dk lnL; gSA
(c) ysEs : lkbDyksLVkseV
s k oxZ dk lnL; gS tks Liksfuax
ds fy, LoPN ty es a okl djrk gS vkS j
leqnkz ixkeh okl n'kkZrk gSA
(d) LdksfyvksMkWu : dkWf.MDFkht oxZ dk lnL; gS tks
ySafxd f}:irk n'kkZrk gSA uj esa Jksf.k i[kuksa
ij uj vkfyaxd gksrs gSAa blesa vkUrfjd fu"kspu
gksrk gSA ;g tjk;qt gksrk gSA
138. mkj (4)
m;pjksa esa vkgkjuky] tufud Hkkx o ew=h; kx
mHk;fu"B d{k voLdj esa [kqyrs gSAa
139. mkj (3)
dsfEyvksu ljhl`i gSA ljhl`iksa esa R;{k ifjo/kZu gksrk
gSA ykokZ voLFkk ugha curh gSA
140. mkj (2)
LV:fFkvks vkWfLVp : mM+kujfgr i{kh gSA
141. mkj (1)
i{kh esa pkj d{k dk n; 2 vkfyUn o 2 fuy; gksrk gSA
142. mkj (3)
Lrfu;ksa esa jkse dh mifLFkfr budk vfHkyk{kf.kd y{k.k gSA
143. mkj (4)
Vsjksil : mM+u ykseM+h mM+u Lruh gS tks dhjksIVsjk x.k
ls lEcfU/kr gSA
144. mkj (1)
csyus ksIVsjk uhyh Ogsy lcls cM+k tUrq gSA blesa csyhu
IysV gksrh gSA ftldh rqyuk pyuh ls dh tkrh gSA
vkSj ;g fuL;an Hkksth ra= gksrk gSA
145. mkj (2)
fn;k x;k rd A ?kukdkj midyk gS vkSj C LrEHkh
midyk gS tks vo'kks"k.k o L=o.k esa lgk;d gS tcfd
B 'kYdh midyk gS tks inkFkks ds fofue; vkSj :f/kj
ds fuL;anu esa lgk;d gSA
146. mkj (2)
?kukdkj ;k LrEHkh midyk :ikUrfjr gksdj xzafFky
midyk cukrh gS tks fofUu dkj ds L=o.k tSls
rsy] ikpd ,atkbe] nw/k] Losn dks L=for djrh gSA
147. mkj (4)
la;Dq r midyk jlk;fud o ;akf=d ruko ls lqj{kk
nsrh gSA ;g Ropk dh 'kq"d lrg] ykj xzfa Fk;ksa dh
okfguh dh vkUrfjd ijr vkSj eq[k xqgk dh ue lrg
esa mifLFkr gksrh gSA

137.

(a) Pristis (Saw fish) : A member of class

chondrichthyes which has long serrated mouth
like saw and has internal fertilisation.
(b) Seahorse : It has prehensile tail or coiled tail
and is a member of class osteichthyes.
(c) Lamprey : A member of class Cyclostomata
which migrates to fresh water for spawning and
show anadromous migration.
(d) Scoliodon : A member of class chondrichthyes
and show sexual dimorphism. In male claspers
are present on pelvic fin and has internal
fertilisation. It is viviparous.
138. Answer (4)
In amphibians, alimentary canal, reproductive tract
and urinary tract open into a common chamber
called cloaca.
139. Answer (3)
Chameleon is a reptile. In reptiles development is
direct i.e., no larval stage is present.
140. Answer (2)
Struthio (Ostrich) : Is a flightless bird.
141. Answer (1)
In bird, four chambered heart (2 atria and 2
ventricles) is present.
142. Answer (3)
Presence of hair is characteristic feature of
mammals.
143. Answer (4)
Pteropus : Flying fox is a flying mammal belongs to
order chiroptera.
144. Answer (1)
Balaenoptera (blue whale) is the largest animal. It
has baleen plate that has been compared to sieve
and is a filter feeder system.
145. Answer (2)
Given tissue A is cuboidal epithelium and C is
columnar epithelium which help in absorption and
secretion while B is squamous epithelium which
helps in exchange of substances, filteration of blood
etc.
146. Answer (2)
Cuboidal or columnar epithelium are modified to
form glandular epithelium which secretes different
secretions like oil, digestive enzymes, milk sweat
etc.
147. Answer (4)
Compound epithelium provides protection against
chemical and mechanical stress and is present in
dry surface of skin, inner lining of duct of salivary
glands and moist surface of buccal cavity.
(50)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

148. Answer (3)

The labelled structures A, B and C in the given
diagram are fibroblast, dense regular fibres, and
dense irregular fibres respectively.
149. Answer (1)
Cardiac muscle fibres are cylindrical, branched and
has intercalated disc.
150. Answer (1)
In female cockroach, the 7th sternum is boat shaped
and together with 8th and 9th sternal form a genital
pouch or brood pouch.
151. Answer (2)
In cockroach, heart lies mid dorsally below the terga
in the pericardial sinus. It consists of 13 contractile
chambers.
152. Answer (3)
In cockroach, malpighian tubules are present at the
junction of mid gut and hindgut and are lined by
glandular and ciliated cells.
153. Answer (1)
In P. americana, the nymph grows by moulting 13
times to reach adult form.
154. Answer (1)
The mosaic image is the image formed by the eye
as a whole consists of several pieces which are put
together to make up the whole picture received by
the eye. This image has more sensitivity but less
resolution.
155. Answer (4)
On an average, a female cockroach produces 9-10
oothecae each containing 14-16 fertilised eggs in
two rows.
156. Answer (3)
Tunicates have retrogressive metamorphosis
because notochord present in larval tail but
degenerate in adult.
157. Answer (4)
In cephalochordates, notochord extends from tail to
head in adult and is persistent through out the life.
158. Answer (4)
Cyclostomes lack jaw, scales and paired fins.
159. Answer (1)
In bony fishes, fertilisation is external, notochord is
replaced by bony vertebral column and 4 pairs of
gills are present which are covered by operculum.

Test-2 (Code A)

mkj (3)
fn;s x;s fp= esa A, B o C ukeakfdr lajpuk;sa e'k%
QkbczkCs ykLV] l?ku fu;fer rUrq o l?ku vfu;fer
rUrq gSAa
149. mkj (1)
n; is'kh rUrq csyukdkj] 'kkf[kr o vUro"V iV~Vh
okys gksrs gSAa
150. mkj (1)
eknk dkWdjksp esa 7th LVjue ukSdkdkj gksrk gS vkSj
8th o 9th LVjuy feydj tuu d{k cukrs gSA
a
151. mkj (2)
dkWdjksp esa n; isfjdkM,y lkbul esa Vjxk ds uhps
q u'khy d{k gksrs gSAa
e; i`"B esa gksrk gSA blesa 13 ladp
152. mkj (3)
dkWdjksp esa eSYihxh ufydk;sa e;ka= o i'pak= dh laf/k
ij gksrh gS tks xzfa Fky o jksekf dksf'kdkvksa ls jsf[kr
gksrh gSA
153. mkj (1)
ih- vesfjdkuk esa fuEQ esa 13 ckj fueksp
Z u ls o;Ld
voLFkk curh gSA
154. mkj (1)
us= ls cuus okys ekStd
s frfcEc esa oLrq ds dbZ kxksa
ds frfcEc ,d lkFk feydj us= esa lEiw.kZ frfcEc
cukrs gSA ;g frfcEc vf/kd laons h ysfdu de fosnh
gksrk gSA
155. mkj (4)
eknk dkWdjksp vkSlru 9-10 v.Mkoj cukrh gS ftlesa
14-16 fu"ksfpr v.Ms nks iafDr;ksa esa gksrs gSA
a
156. mkj (3)
V~;fw udsVl
~ esa i'pxkeh dk;kUrj.k gksrk gS D;ksfa d ykokZ
dh iwN
esa i`"BjTtq gksrk gS ysfdu o;Ld esa vigkzflr
gks tkrk gSA
157. mkj (4)
flQsyksdkWMVZs l
~ esa o;Ld tho esa i`"BjTtq iwN ls flj
rd QSyk gksrk gS vkSj thouj LFkk;h cuk jgrk gSA
158. mkj (4)
lkbDyksLVksEl esa tcM+s o 'kYd o v;qfXer i[kus ugha
gksrs gSAa
159. mkj (1)
vfLFke; eNfy;ksa esa ck fu"kspu gksrk gSA i`"BjTtq
vfLFke; d'ks:d n.M ls frLFkkfir gksrk gS vkSj 4
tksMh+ Dykse gksrs gSA tks Dykse<kiu ls vkofjr gksrs gSAa
148.

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Test-2 (Code A)

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

160. Answer (3)

160.

Carcharodon is commonly known as great white

shark.
Betta is commonly known as fighting fish.
Pterophyllum is commonly known as angel fish.
Clarias is commonly known as Magur.
161. Answer (3)
Given animal A is Salamander and B is Frog. Both
belong to class amphibia in which tympanum
represents ear.
162. Answer (4)
(a) Chameleon (a reptile) has long tongue to
capture insects and prehensile tail.
(b) Cobra : Poisonous snake which has modified
upper incisor called fangs which help in
injecting poison in prey body.
(c) Crocodile (a reptile) has thecodont teeth and
four chambered heart. Body is covered by
epidermal scales or scutes.
(d) Turtle (a reptile) lacks teeth and body is
covered by armature in which dorsal plate is
called carapace and ventral is plastron.
163. Answer (1)
Python : Non-poisonous snake
Alligator : Non-poisonous
Hemidactylus : Wall lizard
Bungarus : Krait (Poisonous snake)
164. Answer (4)
In birds, forelimbs are modified into wings while
hind limb help in walking, swimming and clasping
tree branches.
165. Answer (2)
Presence of mammary gland is the characteristic
feature of all mammals.
166. Answer (3)
All mammals are viviparous except prototherian
mammals like Ornithorhynchus (Duck billed
platypus).
167. Answer (4)
Ciliated epithelium is present in bronchiole and
fallopian tube.
168. Answer (1)
Brush border cuboidal epithelium is present in PCT
of nephron where microvilli increases absorptive
surface area.
169. Answer (1)
Tight junction stop the leakage of substances
across a tissue.
(52)

mkj (3)
dkjdsjkMkWu dks lkekU;r% xzVs OgkbV 'kkdZ dgrs gSAa
chVk dks lkekU;r% yM+kdw eNyh dgrs gSAa
VsjksQkbye dks lkekU;r% ,afty fQ'k dgrs gSAa
Dysfj,l dks lkekU;r% exqj dgrs gSAa
161. mkj (3)
tUrq A lsykeUMj gS vkSj tUrq B esa<d gSA nksuksa
mHk;pj oxZ ls lacfa /kr gS fp= esa fVEiSue d.kZ dks
n'kkZrk gSA
162. mkj (4)
(a) dsfEyvkWu (ljhl`i) esa dhVksa dks idM+us ds fy,
yEch thHk gksrh gS vkSj buesa ifjxzkgh iwN
a gksrh gSA
(b) dkscjk : fo"kSyk liZ ftlds #ikUrfjr ijh d`Urd
fo"knar dgykrs gSa tks f'kdkj ds 'kjhj esa fo"k
Mkyus esa lgk;d gSA
(c) exjePN (ljhl`i) xrZnUrh nkar] pkj d{k dk n;
gksrk gSA 'kjhj ,fiMeZy 'kYd ;k 'kYdks ls <dk
gksrk gSA
(d) VVZy (ljhl`i) nkar ugha gksrs gS vkSj 'kjhj dop
ls <dk gksrk gS i`"Bh; IysV dSjkisl o v/kj IysV
IysLVkus dgykrh gSA
163. mkj (1)
ikbFku : fo"kghu liZ
,sfyxVj : fo"kghu liZ
gsehMsDVkbyl : nhokj dh fNidyh
caxjs l : sr (fo"ksyk liZ)
164. mkj (4)
if{k;ksa esa vxzikn #ikUrfjr gksdj ia[k vkSj i'pikn
pyus] rSjus o o`{k dh 'kk[kkvksa dks idM+us esa lgk;d gSA
165. mkj (2)
lHkh Lrfu;ksa esa Lru xzafFk;ksa dh mifLFkfr budk
vfHkyk{kf.kd y{k.k gSA
166. mkj (3)
iz k s V ks F khfj;u Lruh tS l s vkW f uZ F kks f ja D l (Md fcy
IysVhil) ds vfrfjDr lHkh Lruh tjk;qt gksrs gSA
167. mkj (4)
'olfudkvksa o xHkkZ'k;h ufydk esa jksekfHk midyk
mifLFkr gksrh gSA
168. mkj (1)
usksu dh PCT esa cz'k cksMjZ ?kukdkj midyk mifLFkr
gksrh gS ftlesa lw{e jlkadjq vo'kks"kh i`"Bh; {ks=Qy
dks c<+krs gSAa
169. mkj (1)
n`<+ laf/k;ksa rdks ls inkFkksaZ ds fjlko dks jksdrh gSA

New Test Series for AIPMT - 2015

Test-2 (Code A)

170. Answer (3)

170.

mkj (3)
A esksQt
s (Hk{kdkf.od dksf'kdk)
B ekLV dksf'kdk (fgLVkehu] ghisfju] lsjksVksfuu dks
lzkfor djrh gSa)
C QkbczkCs ykLV (esfVDl lzkfor djrh gS(a rar]q cukrh gS)a
D dks y S t u ra r q ( v'kka f jor ra r q tks c.My es a
O;ofLFkr gksrs gSa)
171. mkj (1)
vfLFk esa: vkWfLVvksCykLV vfLFk fuekZ.k dh dksf'kdk gS
vkWfLVvksDYkkLV vfLFk fouk'k dh dksf'kdk gS
vkWfLVvkslkbV ysD;wuk esa mifLFkr gksrh gS vkSj
,d ysD;wuk es ,d vkWfLVvkslkbV gksrh gSA
172. mkj (1)
ckblsIl isf'k;ka dadkyh; is'kh gS tks ijh Hkqtk esa gksrh gSA
173. mkj (4)
fpduh is'kh rqdZ #ih isf'k;ka gS ftuds Nksj irys gksrs
gSA ;s vjsf[kr isf'k;ka gSa buesa /kkfj;ka ugha gksrh gSA
;s vuSfPNd is'kh gS tks Lok;r raf=dk rarq ls fu;af=r
gksrh gSA
174. mkj (3)
dkWdjksp esa ckg~;dadky esa l[r IysV LdyhjkbV~l
gksrh gS tks laf/kdyk ls tqMh+ gksrh gS ;s yphykiu
iznku djrh gSA
175. mkj (4)
dkWdjksp esa eq[kkax dkVus o pckus okys gksrs gSA
176. mkj (3)
ukaekafdr lajpuk;s gS:
A fgiSfVd ;k tBj lhdk
B es.Mhcy (eq[kkax)
C eSYihxh ufydk (mRlthZ lajpuk)
D vUuiqV
177. mkj (1)
dkWdjksp esa 12 tksMh+ ia[ksuqek ,syjs h isf'k;ka gksrh gSAa
ladp
q u'khy ,syjs h isf'k;ksa dk #f/kj ifjlapj.k esa n;
ls vU; ghekslhfyd lkbul esa #f/kj ds okg esa
egRoiw.kZ dk;Z gksrk gSA
178. mkj (3)
dkWdjksp esa 'okluky foHkkftr gksdj Vfs dvksYl cukrk
gSA folj.k }kjk VsfdvksYl esa xSlks dk foue; gksrk gSA
179. mkj (1)
dkWdjksp ;wfjd vEy mRlftZr djrk gSA
180. mkj (1)
uj dkWdjksp esa 4th ls 6th mnjh; [k.Mksa esa ik'oZ rjQ
,d&tksMh+ rhu ikyh okys o`"k.k gksrs gSAa

A Macrophage (phagocytic cell)

B Mast cell (secretes histamine, heparin and
serotonin)
C Fibroblast (secretes matrix and form fibres)
D Collagen fibres (unbranched fibres arranged
in bundles)
171. Answer (1)
In bone:

Osteoblast is bone forming cell.

Osteoblast is bone destructing cell.

Osteocyte present in lacuna and one lacuna

has only one osteocyte.

172. Answer (1)

Biceps muscles are skeletel muscle present in
upper arm.
173. Answer (4)
Smooth muscle are spindle shaped muscles having
taper ends. These are unstriped muscles and do
not have striation. These are involuntary muscle
and are controlled by autonomic nervous system.
174. Answer (3)
In cockroach, exoskeleton has hardened plates
called sclerites which are connected by articular or
arthrodial membrane, that provide flexibility.
175. Answer (4)
In cockroach mouth parts are biting and chewing
type.
176. Answer (3)
The labelled structures are:
A

Hepatic or gastric caecae

Mandible (mouth part)

Malpighian tubule (excretory structure)

Crop.

177. Answer (1)

There are 12 pairs of fan shaped alary muscles.
The contractile alary muscles play a significant role
in blood flow from the heart to other haemocoelic
sinus in blood circulation of cockroach.
178. Answer (3)
In cockroach trachea divides to form tracheoles.
Exchange of gases takes place at the tracheoles by
diffusion.
179. Answer (1)
Cockroach excretes uric acid.
180. Answer (1)
In male cockroach one pair trilobed testes are
present in lateral sides in the 4th to 6th abdominal
segments.


(53)