LI_N_a_m_e___~.I_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ ___,_ _. . JI_. .:~.: .:d~:_O: x_JI'-----'-'.

c:~=~~I-: ~_j

Multiple Choice Questions (40 marks)

Answer all questions.

DUNMAN HIGH SCHOOL

SENIOR HIGH

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the polysaccharides starch,

glycogen, cellulose, and chitin?

2010 PRELIMINARY EXAMINATIONS

General Certificate of Education Advanced ,Level
YEAR SIX H2 BIOLOGY (9648)

BIOLOGY
PAPER 1 Multiple Choice

9648/01
28 September 10 Tuesday

1 hour 15 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.
Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, civics group and index number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
There are forty questions in this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four
possible answers, A, 8, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in the soft pencil on separate
Answer Sheet [optical answer sheet (OTAS)] provided.

All have a, 1--+4 linkages.

Starch is built from a different monomer than are the others.

Each is built from a single type of monomer.

Chitin and cellulose differ from each other only in the extent of their branching.

All of the following statements about the fluid mosaic model of biolpgical
meffil?ranes are true EXCEPT
,
A

Lipid molecules in the membrane readily undergo lateral diffusion .

Lipid molecules in the membrane readily undergo transverse (flip-flop) diffusion

Integral membrane proteins can undergo lateral diffusion

The transition temperature of a membrane is sensitive to the composition of

the lipid molecules in the membrane.

Membrane carrier proteins differ from membrane channel proteins by which of the
following characteristics?

Read the Instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Carrier prot~ins are glycoproteins , while channel proteins are lipoproteins.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer. Any
rough working should be done in this booklet.
Calculators may be used.

Carrier proteins can mediale active transport, while channel proteins cannot.

Carrier proteins do not bind to the material transported, while channel proteins
do.

Carrier proteins transport molecules down their electrochemical 'gradient, while

channel proteins transport molecules against their electrochemical gradient.

Do not open this booklet until you are told to do so.

This question paper consists of .1l printed pages and 1 blank pages. (including this cover page)
[Turn over

Drugs that either stabilize or depolymerize microtubules can be used in cancer

chemotherapy.

Which of the following is correct concerning such drugs?

When DNA replicates semi-conservatively, enzymes are used separate the DNA
double helix and to synthesize the new strands.
Which of the following BEST describe the functions of the enzymes involve in this
process?

They prevent movement of tumor cells into other tissues.

They prevent chromatin condensation.

They interfere with endocytosis.

They interfere with mitosis .

unwinding of the
DNA molecules

assembly of the
leading strand

polymerase

ligase

filling in of gaps
between new
DNA fragments
polymerase

fusing together of
new DNA
fragments
helicase

helicase

polymerase

polymerase

ligase

ligase

polymerase

helicase

polymerase

helicase

polymerase

ligase

polymerase

- ---

In an investigation to determine the effect of temperature on the activity of an

enzyme, the time for all the substrate to disappear from a standard solution was
recorded.
7

Which of the following statements about !RNA is CORRECT?

Which graph shows the results of this investigation?

time~~ tim'~
temperature

temperature

timeM timli
temperature

temperature

(i)

Hydrogen bonds between bases temporarily hold !RNA against mRNA.

(ii)

The base sequences in the !RNA molecules are the same as the base
sequences in the DNA that is being translated .

(iii)

!RNA translates the base sequence in DNA into the amino acid sequence
in a protein.

(iv)

The specificity of a !RNA molecule depends on the specificity of the

enzyme that loads it with an amino acid.

(i) , (ii) and (iii)

(i), (iii) and (iv)

(ii), (iii) and (iv)

All of the above .

The table shows the mRNA codons for 11 different amino acids.
amino acid
Ala
Glu
Gly
His
Arq
Pro
Leu

mRNA codon
GCG
GAG
GGA
CAC
CGC

am ino acid
Val
Phe
Lvs
Thr

mRNA codon
GUG

uuc

AAG
ACU

ccu
cue

CUG

The first seven DNA triplets coding for a protein are shown below. These are DN A
triplets from the coding strand, complementary to the mRNA.

10 In Escherichia coli, the synthesis of tryptophan is controlled by the tryptophan

operon that is repressed in the presence of excessive tryptophan. When a mutant
strain that has lost the regulatory gene of the tryptophan operon is placed in s:
medium that contains all nutrients the cells need to grow except tryptophan , which
of the following will occur? _ _ __
A

The cells will grow until excessive tryptophan arrests the expression of the
operon.

The cells will continue to grow even though excess tryptophan is synthesized.

The cells will never grow unless tryptophan is added to the medium.

The cells will not grow until enough tryptophan has been synthesized to
activate the corepressor.

CACGAGGCGAAGGGACACCGC
The mutation occurs when the tenth nucleotide in the DNA sequence is changed to
a G. What is the amino acid sequence for the mutated section of DNA?

His Glu Ala Lys Gly His Arg

His Glu Ala Glu Gly His Arg

Val Leu Arg Leu Pro Val Ala

Val Leu Arg Phe Pro Val Ala

Temperate bacteriophage differs from other bacteriophages in that temperate

bacteriophages _ _ __
A

reproduce at moderate temperatures

inhibit synthesis of host-cell proteins

can lysogenize the host cell

can lyse the host cell

11 Which of the following sequences of events occurs when E. coli are released from
catabolite repression by transfer to low-glucose medium?
A

cAMP levels fall, cAMP is removed from CAP, CAP complex binds to a site on
DNA and activates transcription.

cAMP levels rise, cAMP binds to CAP , cAMP-CAP complex binds to a site on
DNA and activates transcription .

cAMP levels rise, cAMP binds to CAP, cAMP-CAP complex is removed from a
site on DNA and activates transcription.

cAMP levels rise, cAMP binds to CAP, cAMP-CAP complex binds to a site on
DNA and represses transcription.

14 Which of the following describes proto-oncogenes?

12 Which of the following statements about the control elements in the eukaryotic
genome are CORRECT?
(i)

Attachment of RNA polymerase to TATAAT sequence at the -10 position

help in the formation of transcription initiation complex.

(ii)

All upstream regulatory elements increase the basal activit')! of promoter.

(iii)

A gene may have multiple enhancers, each active at a different time or in

They repair mistakes in DNA.

They cause programmed cell death.

The most commonly mutated proto-oncogene gene is the p53 gene .

They are genes that codes for signal transduction molecules that are
associated with the cell membrane and regulate cell growth and division.

different cell type or locations in the organism.

rat~

(iv)

Binding of repressors to silencer can prevent a high

(v)

Repressors bind to operator and effectively block the formation of

transcription Initiation complex.

of transcription.
15 In Drosophilia, the male is the heterogametic sex. The allele for white eyes is
recessive and sex-linked.
A female which is heterozygous at this gene locus was mated with a normal male.

(i) and (ii)

White eyes will be present i n - - - - - - - - A

all the offspring

all the male offspring but none of the female offspring

none of the female offspring and 50% of the male offspring

none of the male offspring and 50% of the female offspring

(ii) and (iii)

(iii) and (iv)

(iv) and (v)

13 The processing of pre-mRNA involves the following steps to produce functional

mRNA.
\,,_

addition of GTP at the 3' cap

2

gene amplification

polyadenylation

splicing

1 and 2

2 and 3

3 and 4

1 and 4

16 A linkage group is composed of genes w h i c h - - - - - -

A

segregate at mitosis

associate durig prophase I

affect the same characteristic

are situated on the same chromosome

17 In mice, the gene for "dappled" coat (D) and its recessive allele for "plain" coat (d),
are located on the X chromosome. The gene for "straight" whiskers (W) and it!:'
recessive allele for "bent" whiskers (w) , are autosomal.

19 Treatment of intact mitochondria with an uncoupler, such as 2, 4-dinitrophenol in the

presence of ADP, P1, succinate and oxygen would have which of the following
effects on the rates of electron transport and ATP synthesis?
(+ = stimulation; o =no effect; - = inhibition)

A male mouse with plain coat and bent whiskers was mated on several occa sions to
the same female and the large number of offspring consisted of males and females
in equal numbers in all possible combinations of phenotypes,

'
What is the genotype of the female parent?

X 0 X0Ww

20

rate of Electron Transport

rate of ATP synthesis

Su_bstrate-level phosphorylation in the citric acid (Krebs) cycle depends directly on

~~~cl

th ioester bond of succinyl GoA.

oxidative decarboxylation of isocitrate to a.-ketoglutarate

FAD-dependent oxidation of succinate to fumarate

phosphoanhydrate bond of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate

18 Six tubes containing preparations from animal tissue were set up as shown in the
tab le.
contents

tube

glucose + homogenized cells

glucose + mitochondria

glucose+ cytoplasm lacking organelles

pyruvic acid + homogenized cells

pyruvic acid + mitochondria

pyruvic acid +cytoplasm lacking organelles

After incubation, in which three tubes would carbon dioxide be produced?

A

21

Which combination
photosynthesis?
site of

1, 4 and 5

3, 5 and 6

light-dependent

ATP

reactions

NADP

granum

ATP __, ADP + P1

reduced

granum

ADP +P1_, ATP

reduced

stroma

ATP-+ ADP + P1

oxidised

stroma

ADP +P1 _, ATP

oxidised

3, 4 and 6

in chloroplast

the

describes

1, 2 and 3

rea~tion

correctly

10

of

22 Which statement ONLY applies to ,carbon fixation in photosynthesis?

25 Which function is carried out by the hormone insulin?
A

GP (PGA) is reduced to carbohydrate.

The reactions are not dependent on temperature.

At low light intensity, these reactions limit the rate of photosynthesis.

A 2-carbon compound is the acceptor for carbon dioxide.

23 Which of the following identifies features of oxidative phosphorylation (OP) and

photophosphorylation (PP)?
'
ATP produced

electron flow

oxygen as final
electron acceptor

can be cyclic

OP and PP

OP and PP

OP only

PP only

OP and PP

OP only

OP and PP

OP only

OP only

PP only

OP only

OP and PP

PP only

OP and PP

PP only

PP only

24 There are various forms of insulin medication available on the market. The table
~e low shows information on three types of insulin medication.
types of Insulin
medication
X

onset of action

peak action

duration

15 min
30 min
4 to 8 hours

30 to 90 min
2 to 4 hours
12 to 18 hours

3 to 5 hours
6 to 8 hours
24 to 28 hours

Insulin breaks down glucose.

Insulin catalysed the condensation of glucose to glycogen.

Insulin facilitates the entry of glucose into cells.

Insulin prevents glucose from being excreted by the kidney.

26 A person has poorly functioning p-cells In the islet of Langerhans. What will be the
concentration of glucose, insulin and glucagon in the blood after that person has
eaten a meal rich in carbohydrates?
glucose

insulin

glucagon

high

low

high

high

low

low

low

high

low

low

high

high

27 Which of the following is a difference between a motor neurone and a sensory

neuron?
A

A motor neurone has a myelin sheath.

A motor neurone has a cell body.

A motor neurone synapse with an effector.

A motor neurone responds to cholinesterase .

Which of the following statement is CORRECT?

A

Type X is good because a high blood glucose level can be reduced quickly.

Type Y is better because it has a longer duration than type Z and hence
requires less injection.

Type Z is the best because it has the longest duration.

Type Z can only be taken after a heavy meal.

11

'

12

31
28 When a stimulus arrives at a nerve ending, the membrane becomes depoiarised.
The events during depolarisation are listed below.

1
2
3

drug
1
2

K+ channels open,Na+ channels close.

Na+ channels open and Na+ floods in.
Potential difference inside the membrane is +40 mV compared to the
outside.
Potential difference inside the membrane is -65 mV compared to the
outside .

3
4

1 and 2

1 and 4

1, 2, 3, 4

1, 3, 2, 4

2 and 3

4, 1, 2, 3

2 and 4

4, 2, 3, 1
32

29 A drug might act as a stimulant of the nervous system if it - -- - - A

makes the membrane permanently impermeable to sodium

increases the release of substances that cause the hyperpolarisation of the

neurons

increases the sensitivity of the pre-synaptic membrane to acetylcholine

increases the sensitivity of the post-synaptic membrane to acetylcholine

The post-synaptic membrane of a nerve may be stimulated by certain

neurotransmitters to permit the influx of negative chloride ions into the cell. Th is
process will result i n - - - - - A

an action potential

membrane depolarization

the production of an IPSP

the production of an EPSP

13

effect
inhibits the enzyme cholinesterase
prevents the release of acetylcholine
competes with acetylcholine at receptor sites
inhibits the enzyme which destroys noradrenaline

Which two drugs would prevent synaptic transmission to a skeletal muscle?

Which is the CORRECT order of events?

30

Certain drugs act at synapses and affect the action of neurotransmitter substances.
The table shows the effects of four different drugs.

33

Many signal transduction pathways use second messengers to _ _ _ __

A

amplify the message by phosphorylating proteins

relay a signal from the outside to the inside of the cell

relay a signal from the inside of the membrane throughout the cytoplasm

transport a signal through the plasma membrane

From an evolutionary point of view, plant tendrils derived from leaves and those
derived from stems are examples of _ _ _ __
A

analogous structures resulting from convergence only

homologous structures resulting from convergence only

analogo~s structures resulting from divergence only

homologous structures resulting from divergence only

14

34 Charles Darwin discussed all ofthe' following EXCEPT _ _ _ __

37
A

Organisms tend to produce more offspring than can survive in each

generation.

Individuals in a population compete with one another for limited resources.

Gene mutations are the source of variation for evolution .

Individuals within species exhibit variability in form and function .

Restriction mapping of small DNA molecules is an important technique of modern

biology . An example of the mapping of a circular plasmid (pBR322) DNA is
described in this test. Purified samples of plasmid DNA were digested with the
restriction enzymes Ace! , Ava! , BamHI, EeoRI or Pvu!l, or with various combinations
of these enzymes, and the reaction mixtures were fractionated by agarose gel
electrophoresis. Bands of DNA fragments were visualized by staining with ethidium
bromide.
The image of the gel is displayed in Fig . 37.1, and the cleavage sites on the circular
DNA are shown in Fig . 37.2. Using the information in Fig . 37 .1, determine the
cleavage sites of the enzymes. (An EeoRI site is already shown in Fig . 37.2) .
No

35 RFLP analysis is a techn ique that _ _ __

is used to determine whether a gene is transcribed in specific cells

measures the transfer frequency of genes during conjugation

is used to detect genetic variation at the protein level

uses hybridization to detect specific DNA restriction fragments in genomic DNA

Ava!

<nzym<

BantHT

EcoRJ

Ace/

Ar.cl

Ace!

EcoRI .lal

.ke f

EcoRI

Pvull Pvull

I II-+ III -+

ITI

-.
36 A microarray is a large collection of specific DNA oligonucleotides spotted in a
defined pattern on a microscope slide . What is the most useful experiment that can
be done with such a tool?
A

Predicting the presence of specific metabolites in a cell.

Comparing newly synthesized nuclear RNA with cytoplasmic RNA to locate

introns .

Comparing RNA produced under two different physiological conditions to

understand patterns of gene expression .

Comparing proteins produced under two different physiological conditions to

understand their function .

Fig. 37.1 Fractionation of the products of restriction endonuclease digestions by

agarose gel electrophoresis. (Undigested circular DNAs are usually present in the
sample in three forms : closed , superhelical circular DNA /II, relaxed circular DNA /Ill
or linear DNA liiii ; see sample 1. The arrow on the right side indicates the direction
of electrophoresis.)
Fig. 37 .2. The map of plasmid pBR322.
(The numbers indicate restriction sites to be identified on the basis of Figure 37.1)
The two enzymes 'that cut at site 1 and 3 are - - - -

15

Ace! and BamHI

Ava! and BamHI

Avai and Pvull

Ace! and EeoRI

16

38 Wh ich of the following statements are TRUE about all stem cells?

1
2

3
4
A
B

C
D

Stem cells can be induced to differentiate by environmental sign als.

Stem cells are easily isolated and propagated.
Stem cells are able to develop into who le organisms if implanted into
the womb.
Stem ceils make more stem cells under appropriate conditions.

1 and 4
2 and 3
1, 3 and 4
1, 2, 3 and 4

39 A patient suffers from SCID. It is the result of an autosomal recessive mu tation

which causes adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency. The bone marrow
lymphoblasts cannot replicate to generate immunocompetent lymphocytes .
Which of the following treatments could permanently cure the patient?
A

Germ-line gene therapy to replace one ADA gene copy.

Germ-line gene therapy to replace both ADA gene copies .

Somatic cell gene therapy to replace both ADA gene copies in circulating
lymphocytes .

Somatic cell gene therapy to replace one ADA gene copies in bone marrow
lymphoblasts.

40 Which of the following reasons supports why liposome is used to introduce the
corrective gene into respiratory epidermal cells instead of adenovirus?
1
2
3
4
A
B

C
D

Liposome is cheaper.
Adenovirus may cause an immune response .
Adenovirus will integrate its genome into the host cell.
Patient may develope immunity against adenovirus
1 and 2
2 and 4
3 and 4
1 and 4

THE END
17

Index
No.

Name

Civics
Group

2010 PRELIMINARY EXAMINATIONS

General Certificate of Education Advanced Level

YEAR SIX H2 BIOLOGY (9648)

9648/02

BIOLOGY
PAPER 2 Core Paper

15 September 10 Wednesday
2 hour

READ TH ESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST.

Write your name, civics group and index number on all the work you hand in.
W rite in dark blue or black pen .
FOR EXAMINER'S USE
You may use a soft pencil for any diagrams, graphs or rough
working.
1
/10
Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction
2
/10
fluid.
Sectio n A:
Consists of~ Structured Questions
Answer all questions.
W rite your answers in the space provided on the question

Section A

pc~f>C'

SeL:tion B :
Consists of .f. Essay Questions
Answer any one question.
W riie your answers on the separate writing papers provided.
At the end of the examination, fasten all your work securely
together. The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the
end of each question or part question.

Section B

/10

/5

/10

/10

/10

/10

/5

1/2

/20

Total

Do not open this booklet until you are told to do so.

This question paper consists of 24 printed pages and Q blank page. (including this cover page)
[Turn over

Section A: Structured Questions (80 marks)

Answer all questions in this section.

Question 1
In the search for new biofuels, research has been done into the digestion of wood
waste by fungi. The cellulase enzymes produced by the fungi break cellulose into
sugars. These sugars can then be converted into ethanol, a biofuel.
Fig. 1.1 shows the stages in this digestion process.

', 0 q ~o~o/
0~

OH

cellulose

/ A

OH

OH

"o~p~o~o,,

enzyme1

disaccharide

enzyme 2

CH20 H

H""" l -o, /OH

OH~H
H

OH

Fig.1.1
(a)

(i)

Name bonds A and 8 shown in Fig . 1.1. [2]

For .
Examiner's

use

(ii)

State how bond B is broken in the digestion of the dfsaccharide. [1]

(b) Explain why different enzymes are involved in each stage of the digestion

process. [2]

/
(

(c) Fig. 1.2 shows diagrams of two different stages of meiosis in cells taken from
the testis of a grasshopper, Chorthippus brunneus. The stages are labelled P
and Q .
cell membrane
centriole

s
T

Fig.1.2
Name the two stages. [1]

p
Q

(d)

Name the structures labelled on the two diagrams. [2]

s
T

v
-----------------

(e)

State the ways in which meiosis can lead to genetic variation. [2]

.. ------

..----

........ ,.________________________________

~---

-- ..............................................

Total: [10]

For
Examiner's
4

use

Question 2
Fig. 2 shows the synthesis of macromolecule in eukaryotic cells.

&!!JfWM DNA
IV!JI!'> RNA
-

Promotor

;~

Anfisenss{templafe)

/
a

s
. ..

Antisense(fempJele)
, / Fig. 2
(a)

Name the process shown in Fig. 2 and explain your answer. [2]

(bp With reference to Fig. 2, describe the characteristic of a template strand. [3]

- -- - -- - - ---- ----------------------

- - - - - -- - - - -
- - - - ---

{c)

Name the macromolecule that fs produced in this process. [1]

{d) Describe in detail how this process is initiated. [4]

Total: [10]

For
Examiner's
use

Question 3
Lambda

is

bacteriophage

that

uses

E.

coli

as

its

host

cell.

Figure 3. 1A is an electron micrograph (EM) of a wild-type bacteriophage lambda .

Figure 3.1B is an EM of a laboratory-cultured lambda.

Fig. 3.1
(a} 1 he actual diameter, X- Y is 50 nm.
Calculate the magnification of the bacteriophage lambda, shown in Figure 3.1A.
Show your working . [2]

Answer= x .................... ...... .. ....... .... .. .

(b)

State the main difference, visible in Fig 3.1, between the wild-type and the
laboratory-cultured bacteriophage lambda. [1]

{c)

Suggest how laboratory-cultured bacteriophage lambda binds to cells of its

host, E. coli. [1]

- - -- ----------------- - - - -

(d}

Explain why it is sometimes difficult to distinguish between a plasmid and the

DNA of bacteriophage lambda inside an E. coli cell when viewed using an
electron microscope. [1]

--------------------------------------------------- - - - - - -

(e)

The lac operon is an inducible operon in E. coli. It is regulated differently at

different conditions determined by the availabilities of lactose and glucose.
Under what biological conditions is CAP active, and how is this activity
regulated? [2]

------------------------ - - -- -

- - --------------- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - --!

(f)

For each of the following conditions, describe how regulation of lac operon
gene expression will be altered (i.e. - how will it respond to the presence or
absence of lactose).
(i)

A mutation in the repressor gene such that the repressor does not bind
lactose. [1]

(ii)

A mutation in the repressor gene such that once lactose is bound to the
repressor, the lactose is never released. [1]

(iii)

A mutation in the operator region such that lac repressor no longer

recognizes the operator. [1]

Total: (10]

For
9

Examiner's
use

Quest ion 4
Centromere is a specialized structure on the chromosome, appearing during cell
division as the constricted central region where the two chromatids are held together
and form an X shape.

Fig. 4

(a)

Name structure A and B. [1]

A

(b) Describe the structure of centromere . [2]

---------------- - - -- -------- --------------------------

----

(c)

------------------

Describe the roles of centromere. [2]

---------------------------- - - - - - -

Total: [5]

For
10

Examiner's
use .

Question 5
William Bateson and Reginald Punnett were interested in trait inheritance in the
sweet pea plants. They were studying two genes -

the gene for flower colour (P,

purple, and p, red) and the gene affecting the shape of pollen grains (L , long, and I,
round). They crossed the pure lines purple flower I long pollen grain and red flower I
round pollen grain and then self-crossed the F 1 progeny.

According to Mendelian genetics, the expected phenotypes of the F 2 generation

would occur in a 9:3:3:1 ratio. To their surprise , they observed an increased
frequency of purple flower /long pollen grain and red flower I round pollen grain, and
a decreased frequency of purple flower I round pollen grain arid red fiC?~er I long
pollen grain.

pu rpl e flower I long pollen grain

pu rple flower I round pollen
grain
red flower /long pollen grain
red flower I round pollen grain
(a)

Use a

284

216

21

72

21
55

72
24

test to determine if the difference between the observed number and

the expected number is significant. [5]

Degree of freedom
1
2
3

0.1
2.71
4.61
6.25

0.05
3.84
5.99
7.82

Probability, p
0.02
5.41
7.82
9.84

0.01
6.64
9.21
11.35

v=c-1
where

='sum of... '

v = degrees of freedom

= observed 'value'

E = expected 'value'

c = number of classes

11

0.001
10.83
13.82
16.27

Please write your answer in the space provided below.

12

{b) Coat colour in mouse is the result of melanin . Melanin is

synthesi~ed

via

several biochemical steps from the amino acid tyrosine. The control of coat
co lour is complex and involves at least five major interacting genes.

One of these genes, gene C, controls the production of the pigment melanin,
while another gene, gene B, is responsible for whether the colour is black (B)
or brown (b) . In albinism, the homozygous recessive condition, cc, blocks the
expression of coat colour.

Two heterozygotes black mouse are crossed, producing the first generation of
offspring. Construct a genetic diagram to illustrate the outcome of this cross. [5]

Total: [10]

13

Question 6

For
Examiner's

use

Fig. 6 shows an outline diagram of the Krebs cycle. A two carbon acetyl" group
enters the cycle by combining with a molecule of oxaloacetate. A molecule of citrate
is formed which is decarboxylated and dehydrogenated to regenerate the
oxaloacetate.
~ -oxidation

fatty acids

CoA

~ acetyl (2C) c_oA--:::==---:::::-

N~D

reduced
NAD

citrate (6C)

\p

intermediate (5C)

)a

intermediate (4C)

intermediate (4C)

intermediate (4C)

Fig. 6

{a)

Explain the following terms:

(i)

decarboxylation [1]

dehydrogenation [1]

14

{ii)

Describe the steps where decarboxylation takes place (you must state
the step as shown in Fig. 6, the substrate, the product and enzyme
of the steps). [2]

(b) Fig. 6 also shows that fatty acids can be converted into acetyl CoA units by a

process known as 13-oxidation. Both this process and the Krebs cycle require
NAD. The Krebs cycle also requires FAD. The hydrogen atoms rele~~ed in 13oxidation and the breakdown of acetyl CoA in the Krebs cycle reduce the NAD
and FAD molecules.

State where the reduced NAD and reduced FAD molecules are reoxidised and
describe what happens to the hydrogen atoms. [3]

15

(c)

The liver is responsible for producing enzymes which detoxify alcohol by

breaking it down into smaller units. This breakdown by enzymes uses NAD.
This means that other reactions that use NAD are less likely to take place. The
build-up of fats in the liver is one of the first signs of liver damage due to
excessive alcohol intake.

Using the information in Fig. 6, explain why the build-up of fats occurs in the
liver of an individual who consumes large amounts of alcohol. [3]

Total: [10]

For
16

Examiner's
use -

Question 7

Fig. 7 shows the light dependent stage of photosynthesis.

. . ADP ~ ATP
+P
.

NADP + W

H H H
H .j; .H

,.

H+ .L. '. -_

_:__:__

_;___:__:__:_""'-'_:_...;..____I_

Fig. 7

(a} Name region A and B. [1]

A
B

(b)

Describe what happens when a photon of light falls on photosystem II. [2]

17

(c)

Name the two products from this process and describe their functions in
Calvin Cycle. [4]

{d)

With reference to Fig. 7, explain how a high concentration H+ ion is generated

on that side of the membrane. [2]

(e)

State one difference between non-cyclic photophosphorylation and cyclic

photophosphorylation. [1]

Total: [10]

18

For
Examiner's
use

Questioril 8
Fig. 8.1 shows the relationship between negative feedback and control systems.
Corrective mechanism
comes into play

Steady, optimal
cellular environment
(the set value)

Fig. 8.1

(a)

Identify the three main components of a regulatory control system in human

body and state their functions briefly. [3]

Component

Function

(b) Explain how animals use feedback mechanisms to maintain a steady state
despite their constant exchanges with a variable environment. [2]

19

Fig. 8.2 shows the realationship between membrane potential and the
membrane permeability of sodium ion (Na+) and potassium ion (K+).

Fig. 8.2
(c)

With reference to Fig. 8.2, describe how the membrane permeability of sodium
ion (Na+) and potassium ion (K+) affects the membrane potential. [3]

20

(d) Explain how the membrane permeability of sodium ion (Na+) and potassium
ion (K+) results in the returning of resting potential from hyperpolarisation. [2]

................. ... .................. ,,, _________________________________ _

Total: [10]

21

For
Examiner's
use

Question 9

isle Royale is a small island in the middle of Lake Superior located between the
USA and Canada. The most abundant large herbivore on the island is the moose.
The most abundant large predator is the wolf. Studies have shown that moose
make up over 90% of the wolf diet.

Fig. 9 shows the changes in the moose and wolf populations between 1955 and
2005.

2500

50

2000

40
'.'

'
1500

30

number
of
moose

number
of

wolves

1000

20
;

..

500

1955

1965

1975

1985
year

Key:
-moose
..... --wolf

Fig. 9.1

22

1995

10

2005

(a)

Describe and explain the changes in the two populations between 1970 and

1985. [31

(b)

During the past two decades, biologists have been concerned that the wolf
population of Isle Royale might become extinct. Numbers have reached as low
as ten in some years. With the population at such low levels, genetic
weaknesses can result from inbreeding. Inbreeding is the result of mating
between closely related individuals.
/

Explain why inbreeding can lead to genetic weakness in the population.

[2]

- --------

Total: [5]

23

Section' 8: Essay Questions (20 marks)

Answer only one question.
Write your answers on the writing paper provided.
Your answers should be illustrated by large, clearly labelled diagrams, where appropriate.
Your answers must be in continuous prose, where appropriate.
Your answers must be set out in sections (a), (b) etc., as indicated in the question.
Question 1
(a)

Compare the structure and organisation of prokaryotic and eukaryotic genomes.

[8]

(b)

State the various ways in which prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription differs.

[8]

(c)

State the various ways in which eukaryotic gene expression may be controlled at [4]
translational and posttranslational level.

Question 2
(a)

Describe the replication cycle of retrovirus, HIV.

[5]

(b)

Explain the link between the infection ofT -lymphocytes by HIV and the onset of
the symptoms of AIDS.

[3]

(c)

The drug zidovudine (AZT) is an inhibitor of the enzyme reverse transcriptase . [2]
Explain why AZT slows down the progess of HIV infection.

{d) A man with

~ype-1

diabetes was held hostage. He was deprived of his daily [10]

injection and died. What does this injection contain and how could it have saved
his life?

[Total: 20]

END OF PAPER

24

IGroup
Civics I

Name

DUNMAN HIGH SCHOOL

SENIOR HIGH
2010 PRELIMINARY EXAMINATIONS

General Certificate of Education Advanced Level

YEAR SIX H2 BIOLOGY (9648)

BIOLOGY
PAPER 3

9648/03
22 September 10 Wednesday
2 hour

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST.

Do not open this booklet until you are told to do so.
Write your name, index number and civics group at the top of this page.
Answer all questions.
This paper consists of:
FOR EXAMINER'S USE

4 Structured Questions
Write your answers in the space provided on the question
pa er

/10

/10

ss.a:y Question
Write your answers on the separate writing papers provided.

/10

/10

1 SPA Planning Task

Write your answers on the separate writing papers provided.

/20

SPA
planning

/12

11

Do not open this booklet until you are told to do so.

TOTAL

This question paper consists of 12 printed pages and Q blank page. (including this cover page)

Stn.ictured Questions (40 marks)

Answer all questions in this section.
Question 1

For
Examiner's
use

Insulin and human growth hormone (HGH) are proteins of medical importance.
They can be produced on a large scale using Escherichia coli.
(a)

(i)

Explain the reasons for using microorganisms such as E. coli, in the

large scale production of insulin and HGH. [3]

(ii)

Table 1.1 summarizes the' sequence of events in the production of HGH

by E. coli.
Complete Table 1.1 by adding one relevant statement in each of the
empty boxes. [3]
Table 1.1

{b) List all components to be added in the PCR tube in order to perform a
successful PCR reaction?[2]

(c)

List and explain one major advantage and one major disadvantage of PCR.
[2]

Total: [10]

For
Examiner's
use

Question 2
Genetic screening of Huntingdon's disease (HD) can be carried out, using a
process similar to genetic fingerprinting, to find the length of arepeated triplet or
'stutter', in an allele.
After treatment with a restriction enzyme, the digested fragments are separated by
gel electrophoresis.
{a) Explain why fragments of DNA from restriction digestion can be separated by
gel electrophoresis. [3]

(b) Fig. 2.1 shows a family's history of Huntingdon's disease (HD).

generation 1

generation 2

generation 3

generation 4

key:

male ~ith HD

D male without HD

female with HD

female without HD

Fig. 2.1

DNA from individuals A, B and C from the family shown in Fig. 2.1 was
analysed. The resulting banding patterns are shown in Fig. 2.2.

range of lengths {
of abnormal
allele
direction of
movement of
DNA fragments
range of lengths {

of normal allele .

Fig.2.2
Explain why the DNA of the following bands in Fig . 2.2 are not -tl:le same
length :

(i)

the three normal alleles; [1]

----- - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - -- - - - - - --1
--- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- -- - -1

(ii)

the three abnormal alleles. [1]

---- -- - - -- - - - - - - - - - --- - - - - - --

- - - -1

__, _________ _, ____________________________________________,______ _ _ _ !

{c)

Describe RFLPs. State one use of RFLPs. [3]

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - -- -- - -- -- - -- -- 1
- --------------.. --------- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - -- - - - -1

(d) What is eDNA? How is it generated? [2]

------------------------------------------------------------------------------- -------------------- - - - - - - - - -----

Total: [10]

For
Examiner's

use

Question 3
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a primary immune deficiency. It
usually results in the onset of one or more serious infections within the first few
months of life. These infections are serious, and may even be life-threatening.
Fig. 3 shows the inheritance of SCID in a family.

Affected female

Normal female

Affected male

Normal male

10

11

12

Fig. 3

(.a'

.:..xplain the mode of inheritance illustrated in Fig.3. [2]

--------------------------------------------------------

- - - - - - - -- ------ - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- -- -

(b)

What is the underlying mechanism that leads to SCID as shown in Fig. 3? [4]

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - -

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - -..- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- ----------

-------------------------------------------------------

(c)

Explain why bone marrow transplant is the most effective form of treatment for
SCID. [2]

(d)

What are the advantages of using gene therapy compared to bone marrow
tra nsplant? (2]
- - --- - - - - - - - --- - - - - - - - - - - -

-- -------~------- ..

- - -- - - - - - - - --------------------- -- -- -- - - - - - - - - - -..

Total: [10)

For
Examiner's
use

Question 4
Fig . 4 shows the ethene production of a normal tomato and a "Fiavr Savr"
genetically modified tomato left on a plant for three weeks prior to picking. Naturally
produced ethene in fruits speeds up the ripening process.

ethene
concentration

- --normal
genetically
modified

12
16
time /days

20

24

Fig. 4
(a)

Com pare the production of ethene in normal tomatoes with that in genetically
modified tomatoes. [3)
-------------------------- ---------- ------------------ --------------

--------------------------------- - - - -

- - - - - - - - -- - ---;

(b) Suggest what effects this genetic modification would have on the tomatoes. [2]

Not only are plants genetically engineered (GE) to affect their ripening, some plants
are also genetically engineered to become herbicide-resistant. Farmers who grow
GE herbicide-resistant crops are advised not to rely exclusively on glyphosate and
need to incorporate a range of weed management practices, including using other
herbicide mixes.
(c)

Explain why the farmers are advised to incorporate a range of weed

management practices. [2]

-- ---- ----------- ------------------------ -------------------------------- - -- - - - - - -

Farm ers who grow GE crop are advised not to grow non GE cr:op near these GE
crop, especially varieties from the same family as the GE crop that !hey are
growing.
(d)

Explain why they are advised against this? [3]

- ---------- --------

- -- -- -

-----------------

----- - - - - - -- - - - - - - -- - - - - - ---......__.----1
Total: [1 0]

10

Essay Questions (20 marks)

Answer the following question.

Write your answers on the writing paper provided.
Your answers should be illustrated by large, clearly labelled diagrams, where appropriate.
Your answers must be in continuous prose, where appropriate.
Your answers must be set out in sections (a), (b) etc., as indicated in the question.
Question 5

(a)

Discuss the ethical and social implications of genetically modified crop plants
and animals.

[1 0]

(b)

Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of micropropagation compared with

traditional propagation methods

[1 0]

[Total: 20]

11

SPA Planning Task

The task is about the effects of limiting factors on the rate of photosynthesis in sun and
s hade leaves.
Leaves that make efficient use of relatively dim light are called shade leaves. They do not
photosynthesize efficiently at relatively high light intensities. Leaves that make efficient use of
relatively high light intensities are called sun leaves. They do not photosynthesize efficiently in
dim light.
You are required to plan an investigation to compare the effect of changing one limiting
factor on the rate of photosynthesis in sun and shade leaves.
For your Plan, choose one species of plant that exhibits both sun and shade leaves. Do not use
variegated leaves. Choose one of the following limiting factors:

light intensity
temperature
carbon dioxide concentration
/

Leaf discs can be used to determine the effect of a variable on the rate of photosynthesis.
The discs can be cut out using a cork borer or a large plastic drinking straw. The discs are then
placed in a syringe with the syringe slowly filled up with water or very dilute sodium hydrogen
carbonate (NaHC0 3 ) solution. Air inside the syringe is expelled by pushing in the plunger. Air is
then drawn out in the intercellular air space sof the leaf discs by applying your finger firmly to the
nozzle and attempting to withdraw the plunger. As the air is drawn out, the leaf discs sink and are
then ready to use.
Submerged leaves must be used in your Plan.
Your planning must be based on the assumptions that you have access to:

6>

sun and shade leaves of your chosen plant

the apparatus and materials to produce submerged leaf discs
school or college laboratory resources

Give full details in your Plan to include:

"

the apparatus and materials to be used

a detailed method to include procedures you would adopt to ensure the results obtained
would be as precise and reliable as possible
a risk assessment and safety precautions

Indicate briefly how you would present and analyse your data to draw your conclusions. [12]

12