MCQ Series

Practice Test I

Basic Sciences
Time: 2 hrs

PGM

Author Email: sidharta123@yahoo.com

Total Marks: 200 | Pass Mark: 100

PHARMACOLOGY
Read the instructions at the begining carefully. Subjects inlude Pharmacology &
Clinical Pharmacology. Answer sheets are provided separately.
Please Note: There is a Negative Marking of (-1) for each incorrect response. There
may be more than one correct answer(s).

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)

Section A
1. Drug that crosses the blood brain barrier
A entacapone

C levodopa

B carbidopa

D tubocurarine

2. Which of the following has a mild anti-fungal activity?

A Thymol

C Imipenem

B Aztreonam

D Carbimazole

3. What technique is employed for fingerprint identification of a drug molecule?

A Colorimetry

C IR spectroscopy

B X-ray diffraction

D UV spectroscopy

4. Thiopental can precipitate paralysis and cardiovascular collapse in patients with

A liver disease

C porphyria

B asthma

D uraemia

5. Substrate for catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) includes all of the following

except:
A serotonin

C dopamine

B noradrenaline

D adrenaline

Medicine

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MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

6. All of the following are zinc containing enzymes except

A carbonic anhydrase

C hexokinase

B thermolysin

D carboxypeptidase A

7. Why thiol and sulphide groups are generally not introduced into lead molecules in
SAR studies?
A makes the compound more toxic
B increase the rate of excretion of
the molecule

C they decrease water solubility of

the molecule
D readily metabolized by oxidation

8. -blockers useful for preventing migraine headache

A metoprolol

C metoclopramide

B propanolol

D timolol

9. Which of the following drugs does not bind to hemoglobin?

A Ethacrynic acid

C Chlorpromazine

B Chlorthalidone

D Phenytoin

10. Which of the following test is used for diagnosis of renovascular disease?
A Urinary aldosterone

C Urinary metanephrine

B Plasma renin activity

D Plasma norepinephrine

11. Drug that inhibits Warfarin metabolism due to enzyme inhibition

A Chlramphenicol

C Rifampicin

B ketoconazole

D Allopurinol

12. Example of ligand-gated (ionotropic) receptor

A muscarinic acetylcholine receptor

C nicotine acetylcholine receptor

B adrenergic receptor

D G-protein coupled receptor

13. An example of an anti-psychotic drug

A Paroxetine

C Lithium carbonate

B Clozapine

D Moclobemide

Medicine

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MCQ Series

Practice Test I

14. Antibiotic that attains the highest concentration in the CSF in uninflamed
meninges?
A Cefuroxime

C Ceftazidime

B Cefotaxime

D Nafcillin

15. A partial agonist

A pilocarpine

C acetylcholine

B histamine

D isoprenaline

16. Which of the following ACE inhibitors is exclusively excreted by the kidney?
A Ramipril

C Enalapril

B Quinapril

D Fosinopril

17. Regarding phenobarbital not true is

A more effective to manage
convulsions due to theophylline
poisoning

C second line drug in tonic and

atonic seizures
D follows zero-order kinetics

B sedative in adults
18. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is usually indicative of
A acute glomerulonephritis

C acute hepatic dysfunction

B hepatorenal failure

D diabetes

19. An alkylating agent:

A 5-Fluorouracil

C 6-mercaptopurine

B cyclophosphamide

D methotrexate

20. A natural aminoglycoside chemically and pharmacokinetically related to

gentamicin
A Capreomycin

C Spectinomycin

B Paromomycin

D Sisomycin

21. Not true about angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEI)

A inhibits aldosterone secretion

C inactivates bradykinin

B has dry cough as a side effect

D increases bradykinin

Medicine

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PGM

MCQ Series

Practice Test I

22. Optical rotation of atropine sulphate is

A - 0.25 to + 0.05

C - 0.50 to + 0.05

B - 0.15 to + 0.15

D + 57 to + 70

23. A potent vasodilator

A octretide

C Prostacyclin I2

B somatostatin

D serotonin

24. A potassium sparing diuretic

A Clopamide

C Furosemide

B Triamterene

D Bumetanide

25. The attack of chills and fever characteristic of malaria is due to

A sudden release of hypnozoites,
and erythrocyte debris

C sudden release of schizonts,

erythrocyte debris

B sudden release of trophozoites

following hemolysis

D sudden release of merozoites

following hemolysis

26. Selective agonist of muscarinic receptor

A pirenzepine

C oxotremorine

B hexamethonium

D carbachol

27. Which of the following is a weak base?

A Cromolyn

C Tolbutamide

B Chlorpropamide

D Lidocaine

28. A chelating agent that forms a ring complex with copper:

A dimercaprol

C dimethylcysteine

B succimer

D dexrazoxane

29. A preferential COX-2 inhibitor

A Nabumetone

C Meloxicam

B Piroxicam

D Etoricoxib

Medicine

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PGM

MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

30. Reye's syndrome has been associated with the use of __________ in children
A Ibuprofen

C Acetaminophen

B Aspirin

D Diclofenac

31. A cholinergic agonist drug:

A dicyclomine

C tropicamide

B atropine

D carbachol

32. Following drug is commonly used to treat opioid withdrawal syndrome in

neonates:
A Clonidine

C chlorpromazine

B Methyldopa

D Naltrexone

33. No energy expenditure is involved in

A Facilitated diffusion

C Ionic diffusion

B Passive diffusion

D Active transport

34. An Angiotensin-II receptor blocker

A Valsartan

C Eplerenone

B Clopidogrel

D Amiloride

35. Which of the following is an anthracycline?

A Carmustine

C Danurobicin

B Cytarabine

D Melphalan

36. Benzodiazepine binding site(s) of GABAA receptor

A - interface

C - interface

B - interface

D all of the above

37. Antimicrobial agent(s) that should be avoided in renal failure

A Carbenicillin

C Imipenem

B Nalidixic acid

D all of the above

Medicine

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MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

38. Regarding HPLC-chromatogram assay of furosemide, the statement correct about

detection wavelength
A UV-254 nm

C UV-220 nm

B UV-214 nm

D UV- 275 nm

39. A loop diuretic

A Furosemide

C Spironolactone

B Indapamide

D Acetazolamide

40. Which of the following indicator is used in aqueous titration of nicotinic acid?
A phenolphthalein

C phenol red

B bromothymol blue

D bromophenol blue

41. Passive tubular reabsorption in renal tubules is seen with which of the following
substances?
A uric acid

C probenecid

B vitamins

D glucose

42. A drug that is metabolized by cytochrome CYP3A4 but inhibits CYP2D6

A morphine

C imipramine

B quinidine

D verapamil

43. In a patient with Status epilepticus not responsive to phenytoin, which of the
following can be given?
A phenobarbital

C Lidocaine

B Diazepam

D Ethosuximide

44. Methods/models for the Assessment of druglikeness include

A Dynamic PSA

C Lipinski's rule of 5 method

B log P model of Camenisch

D Polar surface area model

45. Drug of choice in Trigeminal neuralgia

A Lamotrigine

C Phenobarbitone

B Phenytoin

D Carbamazepine

Medicine

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MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

46. Which one of the following is not a histamine H1 receptor antagonist?

A Clemastine fumarate

C Cinnarizine

B Loratidine

D Cimetidine

47. A drug used for symptomatic relief of nasal congestion from common cold
A sumatriptan

C ritodrine

B hydroxyamphetamine

D propylhexedrine

48. Drug concentrated in brain

A chloroquine

C isoniazid

B minocycline

D emetine

49. High dose Captopril can cause

A direct tubular toxicity

C Nephrotic syndrome

B Crystalluria

D Interstitial nephritis

50. Introduction of a carboxylic group into phenol results in the formation of

A benzoic acid

C salicylic acid

B acetic acid

D formic acid

Section B
51. Which of the following is not an opioid agonist?
A meperidine

C naloxone

B fentanyl

D propoxyphene

52. Which of the following drugs retains its activity and shows clinical response even
in severe renal failure?
A Metolazone

C Furosemide

B Xipamide

D all of the above

53. Intravenous anesthetic agent that have no effect on renal blood flow:
A Isoflurane

C Halothane

B Desflurane

D Sevoflurane

Medicine

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MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

54. Which of the following ACE inhibitors is water soluble, not metabolized, and
excreted unchanged by the kidneys?
A perindopril

C fosinopril

B enalapril

D lisinopril

55. Site of action of barbiturates

A NMDA receptors

C Dopamine receptors

B Serotonin receptors

D GABA receptors

56. A noncompetitive antagonist of -adrenoceptor

A levobunolol

C brimonidine

B phenoxybenzamine

D dipivefrine

57. Adverse effects common to all ACE inhibitors include

A hypokalemia

C dry cough

B angioedema

D weight gain

58. The enzyme thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) catalyzing S-methylation has a

preference for
A Azathioprine

C D-penicillamine

B Captopril

D Ethanolamine

59. Not true about zero-order kinetics of drug elimination

A clearance remains constant

C rate of elimination remains

constant

B warfarin follows zero-order

kinetics

D clearance decreases with

increase in concentration

60. The first line therapy of Neuroleptic Malignant syndrome

A dantrolene

C benzodiazepines

B cyproheptadine

D diphenhydramine

61. Fick's first law of diffusion is applicable to which type of drug diffusion?
A nonionic diffusion

C active transport

B electro-chemical diffusion

D facilitated diffusion

Medicine

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MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

62. The most common type of hypersensitivity reaction cephalosporins may produce
A Anaphylaxis

C Maculopapular rash

B Bronchospasm

D Urticuria

63. Dosage of enalapril is

A 10-80 mg

C 4-8 mg

B 5-20 mg

D 2.5-10 mg

64. Which of the following statements regarding aldosterone is incorrect?

A synthesized from hydroxylation of
C causes excretion of K+ and H+
progesterone at C-18
D acts on the proximal tubule of the
B causes reabsorption of Na+
kidney
65. Which of the following drugs is ineffective in gouty arthritis?
A Tolmetin

C naproxen

B Etoricoxib

D Aspirin

66. Nephrotic syndrome results from

A penicillamine

C vancomycin

B penicillins

D NSAIDS

67. Dicarboxyl-containing ACE inhibitor(s)

A Fosinopril

C Ramipril

B Captopril

D Enalapril

68. The usual initial dose of antiepileptic drug primidone is

A 100-250 mg/day

C 180-200 mg/day

B 50-100 mg/day

D 400-600 mg/day

69. All of the following drugs should be avoided during breast feeding except:
A Aspirin

C Warfarin

B Ciprofloxacin

D Amiodarone

70. Drugs can bind reversibly with all of the following except:
A red blood cells

C immunoglobulins

B lipoproteins

D 1-acid glycoprotein

Medicine

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MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

71. Digoxin excretion is reduced by

A probenecid

C lidocaine

B aspirin

D amiodarone

72. A sulfhydryl-containing ACE inhibitor

A Lisinopril

C Captopril

B Spirapril

D Benazepril

73. Cornea is not permeable to

A neostigmine

C pilocarpine

B physostigmine

D atropine

74. Match the following ACE inhibitors with their correct elimination t
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Enalapril
Lisinopril
Ramipril
Captopril
Perindopril

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

12 hr
2 hr
8-48 hr
25-30 hr
11 hr

75. Diuretic of choice for uncomplicated hypertension:

A ACE inhibitors

C K+ sparing diuretics

B thiazides diuretics

D loop diuretics

76. One of the following statements about Botulinum A toxin is incorrect

A blocks acetylcholinesterase

C it is a glycoprotein

B blocks release of Ach

D useful to treat cervical dystonia

77. Which of the following is a 5HT3- receptor antagonist?

A Ketanserin

C Clozapine

B Buspirone

D Ondansetron

78. Regarding neuromuscular blockers, which of the following statements is/are

incorrect:
A polar quaternary compounds

C have high volumes of distribution

B do not penetrate blood brain

barrier

D penetrates the placenta

Medicine

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MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

79. Primaquine is effective in eradicating which stages of malaria?

A erythrocytic stages

C pre-erythrocytic stages

B exo-erythrocytic stages

D all of the above

80. Parasympatholytic antimuscarinic agent include

A mecamylamine

C neostigmine

B hyoscyamine

D ecothiophate

81. Metronidazole is not effective against

A Trichomonas vaginitis

C P. aeruginosa

B E. histolytica

D Giardia Lamblia

82. Which of the following inhibit the metabolism of alcohol by inhibiting alcohol
dehydrogenase?
A satranidazole

C disulfiram

B metronidazole

D chloral hydrate

83. Regarding absorption of a drug from the GI tract, spot the incorrect statement(s)
A uncharged drugs are better
absorbed from the stomach

C highly polar drugs are absorbed

by paracellular diffusion

B aspirin undergoes ionization in

the stomach by acids

D transit time through stomach is

20 minutes

84. Decreased alkaline phosphatase level is seen in patients suffering from

A erythromycin therapy

C pernicious anemia

B rickets

D hyperparathyroidism

85. A drug that is anthelmintic

A Diloxanide furoate

C Itraconazole

B Fluconazole

D Mebendazole

86. Regarding Quinacrine Hcl (mepacrine), which of the following statements is false?
A causes discoloration of skin and
urine
B tumorgenic and mutagenic

Medicine

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C inhibits the formation of -hematin

D most toxic of antimalarial drugs

MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

87. Acetylcholine does not cause one of the following effects

A increase in heart rate

C vasodilatation

B salivation

D bronchial constriction

88. Which of the following is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor?

A Anakinra

C Roflumilast

B Infliximab

D Etarnercept

89. A drug that binds to 1-acid glycoprotein

A phenytoin

C prednisone

B chlorpromazine

D propranolol

90. Selective antagonist of muscarinic receptor

A d-tubocurarine

C atropine

B carbachol

D vesamicol

91. Which of the following drugs is a water soluble compound excreted unchanged by
the kidney?
A lisinopril

C chlorthalidone

B indapamide

D ramipril

92. Diarrhea is the most important dose-related adverse effect of

A Mephenemic acid

C Diclofenac sodium

B Piroxicam

D Ibuprofen

93. An anti-thyroid drugA Econazole

C Carbimazole

B Itraconazole

D Ketoconazole

94. Clearance value of atropine is

A 5 cm3 min-1 kg-1

C 8 cm3 min-1 kg-1

D 3 cm3 min-1 kg-1

B 9 cm3 min-1 kg-1

95. Not a prodrug
A Quinapril

C Fosinopril

B Lisinopril

D Ramipril

Medicine

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MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

96. Lipid messengers that act through G-protein coupled receptors

A cholecystokinin

C parathyroid hormone

B platelet activating factor

D endogenous opioids

97. Which of the following drugs is a organic base?

A heparin

C morphine

B biotin

D nitrofurantoin

98. Which of the following statements regarding partial agonist is/are true?
A antagonize full agonists

C produce no response of its own

B increase the response to an

agonist

D decrease the response to an

agonist

99. Cushing's syndrome is due to excessive secretion of

A ACTH

C Mineralocorticoid

B Growth hormone

D Aldosterone

100. A drug used as an urinary tract antiseptic

A aztreonam

C nitrofurantoin

B nystatin

D polymyxin-B

Section C
101. Match the following drugs (agents) with their corresponding renal clearance
mechanisms:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Iodopyracet
Polar ionic drugs
Creatinine
Lipophilic drugs
Glucose

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

filtered and secreted actively

filtered and reabsorbed partially
filtered and reabsorbed completely
filtered only
fully cleared

102. Which of the following is a macrolide antibiotic?

A Clarithromycin

C Neomycin

B Polymyxin B

D Vancomycin

Medicine

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MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

103. Mechanism of action of streptomycin

A inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

C inhibit transpeptidation reaction

B inhibit cell wall formation

D prevents bacterial cell wall

synthesis

104. A phenyl acetic acid derivative

A Acetaminophen

C Ketorolac

B Ibuprofen

D Diclofenac

105. Anabolic steroid that suppresses Gn secretion from the pituitary:

A Anastrozole

C Stanozolol

B Flutamide

D Danazol

106. Regarding the physiological-pharmacology of diuretics, one of the following

statements is not true:
A Thiazide diuretics acts on the
distal tubule
B Furosemide acts on the thick Asc
Loop of Henle

C osmotic diuretics acts on the

distal tubule
D K+ sparing diuretics acts on the
collecting tubule

107. A third generation cephalosporin

A cefuroxime

C cefadroxil

B cefaclor

D ceftazidime

108. Which of the following antibiotics is highly active against Psuedomonas

aeruginosa?
A Cefuroxime

C Cefaclor

B Clavulanic acid

D Aztreonam

109. Hypokalemia due to diuretic use in hypertension is due to all of the following
drugs except
A amiloride

C Furosemide

B Indapamide

D Enalapril

110. Not true about atropine

A is a cholinergic antagonist

C causes cycloplegia and mydriasis

B a nicotinic receptor blocker

D a muscarinic receptor blocker

Medicine

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MCQ Series

Practice Test I

111. Correct about Captopril:

A hypotensive effect due to
decrease in total peripheral
resistance

C diminishes plasma kinin levels

D abolishes pressor action of
Angiotensin II

B reduces cardiac output

112. Which of the following increases heart rate and causes dryness of mouth?
A procaine

C bethanechol

B alcohol

D marijuana

113. Regarding management of Mobitz II AV block

A atropine should not be given
during initiation of
transcutaneous pacing

C atropine in the event of

dopamine/epinephrine failure
D atropine should be given only
after transcutaneous pacing

B dopamine/epinephrine in the
event of atropine failure

114. Treatment of choice for hyperprolactinemia-induced galatorrhoea

A Chlorpromazine

C chlordiazepoxide

B mifepristone

D Bromocriptine

115. Which of the following is an anti-depressant drug?

A Fluphenazine

C Carbamazepine

B Imipramine

D Risperidone

116. Hepatic blood flow rate is

A 1.5 L/min

C 1.1 L/min

B 4.2 L/min

D 5.3 L/min

117. All of the following parameters govern drug disposition except:

A elimination

C clearance

B Bioequivalence

D Volume of distribution

118. Which of the following is a 1+2 -sympathomimetic agent:

A dobutamine

C phenylephrine

B clonidine

D Isoprenaline

Medicine

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PGM

MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

119. A drug whose bioavailability is >60%

A Lignocaine

C Nifedipine

B Codeine

D Nitrazepam

120. An Aminoglycoside antibiotic:

A Vancomycin

C Streptomycin

B Azithromycin

D Clindamycin

121. Which of the following is an aldosterone antagonist?

A Spironolactone

C Bumetanide

B Amiloride

D Triamterene

122. A vitamin which plays important role in collagen metabolism

A Niacin

C Biotin

B Ascorbic acid

D Pantothenic acid

123. A major pathway of Phase II drug metabolism

A Sulphation

C hydrolysis

B Methylation

D oxidation

124. Antidote for poisoning with atropine

A pralidoxime

C decamethonium

B neostigmine

D trimethaphan

125. Why it is irrational to administer a large single oral dose of Vitamin B complex?
A bioavailability decreases with
increasing dose

C risk of toxicity
D follows first order kinetics

B because of saturation kinetics

126. Drug(s) that shows zero order kinetics
A phenobarbital

C phenylbutazone

B morphine

D dicoumarol

127. A medication that reverses the action of competitive blockers after surgery
A Atropine

C Succinylcholine

B Neostigmine

D d-Tubocurarine

Medicine

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MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

128. The most frequently used benzodiazepine in the perioperative period

A diazepam

C lorazepam

B midazolam

D thiopental

129. A drug which blocks the enzyme Monoamine Oxidase A (MAO-A)

A desipramine

C Moclobemide

B Tolcapone

D Selegiline

130. Which of the following is chemically related to chlorothalidone

A Thiocolchicoside

C Indapamide

B Spironolactone

D Eplerenone

131. Beta-adrenergic blocker with membrane-stabilizing effect

A Bisoprolol

C Timolol

B Pindolol

D Sotalol

132. Match the following regarding malarial infection: i.e., Chloroquine and Primaquine
are effective _____cides respectively.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Hypnozoites
Merozoites
trophozoites
Chloroquine
Primaquine

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

pre-erythrocytic stage
schizonticide
gametocide
exoerythrocytic stage
erythrocytic stage

133. The hormone that stimulates the secretion of growth hormone (GH) by
somatotropes is a
A peptide

C catecholamine

B glycoprotein

D steroid

134. All of the following are vasoconstricting agents except:

A thromboxane A2

C Prostacyclin

B PGE2

D endothelin

135. Common methods for testing drug assay include all of the following except:
A Column chromatography

C UV spectroscopy

B Titration

D HPLC

Medicine

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MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

136. Which of the following is an analogue of gonadotrophin releasing hormone

(GnRH)?
A Epoprostenol

C Buserelin

B Cyproterone acetate

D Drosperinone

137. A drug used intravenously in status epilepticus

A Clonazepam

C Sodium valproate

B Carbamazepine

D Vigabatrin

138. The most reliable and dependable technique for identification testing of pure
drugs is
A Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
spectroscopy

C X-ray absorption spectroscopy

D Fluorescence spectroscopy

B Infrared spectrophotometry

139. Serotonin syndrome can occur in patients receiving MAO inhibitors if they are
given
A chlorpromazine

C dapsone

B benzocaine

D meperidine

140. Antidote to anticholinesterase poisoning:

A donepezil

C pralidoxime

B atropine

D neostigmine

141. Steven-Johnson syndrome is a side effect of

A Lamotrigine

C Gabapentin

B Topiramate

D Vigabatrin

142. Not a loop diuretic

A Furosemide

C Torsemide

B Bumetanide

D Amiloride

143. Drugs useful for treating opioid withdrawal syndrome include all of the following
except:
A Lofexidine

C Buprenorphine

B Methadone

D Clozapine

Medicine

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MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

144. Which of the following drugs can cause hirsutism?

A Drosperinone

C DHEA

B Diazoxide

D Mestranol

145. A cephalosporin that causes hypoprothrombinemia

A Cephaloridine

C Cefoperazone

B Cefotaxime

D Ceftazidime

146. A cholinomimetic drug

A scopolamine

C dicyclomine

B atropine

D pilocarpine

147. Which of the following benzodiazepines has the highest protein binding?
A flurazepam

C lorazepam

B alprazolam

D diazepam

148. All of the following drugs are significantly concentrated in milk except:
A Clindamycin

C Ciprofloxacin

B Diltiazem

D Acyclovir

149. A potassium sparing diuretic which is also an aldosterone antagonist:

A amiloride

C spironolactone

B triamterene

D acetazolamide

150. All of the following ACE inhibitors have a 2 S-aminophenylbutanoic acid ethyl
ester group except
A Ramipril

C Enalapril

B Captopril

D Fosinopril

Section D

Medicine

- 19 -

MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

151. Rearrange the different stages of the malarial parasite P. vivax's life-cycle into
correct order:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Oocyst
Merozoites
Zygote
Sporozoites
Gametes

152. Oral anticoagulant with the shortest T life

A Phenindione

C Warfarin Sod.

B Ethylbiscoumacetate

D Nicoumarol

153. The most potent inhalation anesthetic suitable for open drop method
A Diethyl ether

C Methoxyflurane

B Halothane

D Isoflurane

154. Which of the following types of compounds are eliminated renally and not through
bile?
A compounds that are unionized

C compounds that are highly

protein bound

B compounds that are ionized

D compounds that show low

lipophilicity

155. Antimalarial drug effective in erythrocytic phase having the fastest onset of action:
A Artemesinin

C Primaquine

B Chloroquine

D Mefloquine

156. Which of the following type of antagonists have no clinical use?

A competitive antagonists

C noncompetitive antagonists

B nonequilibrium antagonists

D partial antagonists

157. Depression supposedly arises from depletion of

A Acetylcholine

C Dopamine

B Adrenaline

D Serotonin

Medicine

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MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

158. Which of the following statements regarding the pharmacokinetic properties of

Diltiazem is/are incorrect?
A half-life is 3.5 hrs

C Bioavailability is 65%

B dosage is 120-140 mg/d

D dose adjustment is required in

renal insufficiency

159. Benzoin compounds are found in

A Oil of Wintergreen

C tolu balsam

B rose oil

D esters of acetic

160. Which of the following methods is useful for measurement of receptor density?
A Affinity chromatography

C SDS Gel electrophoresis

B Radioligand-binding assay

D Quantitative autoradiography

161. A chelating agent contraindicated in cadnium poisoning

A BAL

C Penicillamine

B Ca Na2 EDTA

D Dimercaprol

162. Excess mineralocorticoid secretion results in all of the following except:

A Na+ retention

C K+ depletion

B hypertension

D hypotension

163. The action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is on the________ of a nephron

A collecting tubules

C proximal tubules

B ascending Loop of Henle

D distal tubules

164. A drug which is concentrated in the Retina

A Acetazolamide

C Atropine

B Ephedrine

D Chloroquine

165. Regarding Angiotensin-II, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A involved in volume and pressure
homeostasis
B half-life T is 1 minute

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C generated from precursor plasma

2-macroglobulin
D synthesized in juxtaglomerular
cells of kidney

MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

166. Antimalarial agent effective against hypnozoites

A Quinine

C Primaquine

B Pyrimethamine

D Artemesinin

167. The longest acting sedative-hypnotic agent

A phenobarbital

C secobarbital

B thiopental sodium

D pentobarbital sodium

168. Which of the following agents lack anti-inflammatory effect?

A Acetaminophen

C Naproxen

B Aspirin

D Ibuprofen

169. First line antimalarial blood schizonticide includes:

A Proguanil

C Chloroquine

B Sulfadoxine

D Primaquine

170. Drug which is highly bound to albumin:

A Lidocaine

C Imipramine

B Valproic acid

D Verapamil

171. An anticholinergic drug

A oxotremorine

C neostigmine

B atropine

D edrophonium

172. What is true of furosemide in comparison to thiazide diuretics?

A both t.p.r. and vascular
resistance are reduced

C is a weak antihypertensive agent

D ineffective in chronic renal failure

B is a longer acting than

hydrochlorothiazide

173. The metabolite protein binding of Enalaprilat

A 95%

C 56%

B 50-60%

D 97%

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MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

174. Oxytocin receptor antagonist:

A Ritodrine

C Ethacrydine

B Carbetocin

D Atosiban

175. Which of the following antibiotics do not require dose adjustments in renal failure?
A Paromomycin

C Neomycin

B Cloxacillin

D Vancomycin

176. Regarding Angiotensinogen-II, not correct

A produced by the kidney
B increased Na+ reabsorption in
the distal tubule

C causes increased sympathetic

discharge
D produced by the liver

177. The enzyme carbonic anhydrase is present in all of the following organs/tissues
except
A exocrine pancreas

C liver

B renal tubular cells

D red blood cells

178. Not true about plasma colloid osmotic pressure:

A due to number of dissolved
molecules

C due to dissolved proteins

D averages about 28 mm Hg

B due to the mass of dissolved

molecules

179. Which portion of nephron is impermeable to water?

A proximal tubule

C collecting duct

B thick ascending Loop of Henle

D distal convoluted tubule

180. Which of the following drug should not be used in carbamate anti-ChEs
poisoning?
A atropine

C pralidoxime

B neostigmine

D all of the above

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MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

181. What is not true of Chloramphenicol?

A active against Rickettssiae

C broad spectrum antibiotic

B is a bacteriocidal

D effective against both aerobic

and anaerobic gram +ve
organisms

182. Which of the following is a thienobenzodiazepine?

A Risperidone

C Quetiapine

B Olanzapine

D Clozapine

183. ACE inhibitor with highest bioavailability:

A Ramipril

C Enalapril

B Lisinopril

D Fosinopril

184. Match the following:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Proteases
Neuropeptide
Amino acids
Lipid messengers
Peptide hormones

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

thromboxane
bradykinins
tachykinins
GABA
thrombin

185. A drug whose hepatic extraction (EH) value is >0.7

A Warfarin

C Propranolol

B Nitrazepam

D Aspirin

186. A luminal amebicide effective in amebiasis

A Emetine

C Diloxanide furoate

B Chloroquine

D Cotrimazole

187. Which of the following methods is indicated in poisoning due to theophylline?

A Haemodialysis

C Alkaline diuresis

B Charcoal hemoperfusion

D none of the above

188. Choose the correct statement:

A thyrotropin is also known as TRH

C TRH is a glycopeptide hormone

B release of thyrotropin involves

phospholipase C

D release of thyrotropin involves

phospholipase A

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MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

189. Which one of the following is a non volatile, non-barbiturate, intravenous general
anesthetic?
A halothane

C methohexital

B thiopental

D propofol

190. A non-opioid analgesic

A Nefopam

C Fentanyl

B Tramadol

D Methadone

191. Which of the following is a cholinesterase inhibitor?

A hemicholinium

C vesamicol

B Neostigmine

D Atropine

192. A drug which undergoes deamination during its metabolism

A Chlorpromazine

C Meperidine

B Indomethacin

D Diazepam

193. Which of the following is a barbiturate?

A meprobamate

C sodium thiopental

B phenytoin

D lidocaine

194. What is not true of enalapril?

A absorption not affected by food

C it is a prodrug

B bioavailability is less than

captopril

D quick onset of action

195. Site of action of Osmotic diuretic

A Proximal tubule

C Distal tubule

B Thick AscLH

D both b & c

196. Most commonly used muscle relaxant for passing tracheal tube
A Vecuronium

C Pancuronium

B Atracurium

D Succinylcholine

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MCQ Series

Practice Test I

197. Which of the following is a potent 5-HT2A antagonist?

A respiridone

C pergolide

B serotonin

D phencyclidine

198. Which of the following is a potent lipid-insoluble cholinesterase inhibitor?

A physostigmine

C atropine

B neostigmine

D pralidoxime

199. Which of the following do not possess anti-emetic property?

A Haloperidol

C Chlorpromazine

B Chlorimipramine

D Promethazine

200. Drugs excreted exclusively by renal route only:

A orphenadrine

C gentamicin

B fosinopril

D procyclidine

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PGM

MCQ Series

Practice Test I

PGM

Disclaimer: Every attempt has been made to validate each and every
question/answers. Any remaining error is regretted. Author will not be held responsible
for any errors. Please consult standard textbooks given in the reference section for any
discrepancy. Questions with wrong answers may better be left unattempted/
unanswered. This is a practice series available free to download designed for the
benefit of prospective PG candidates and UG medical students alike.
Reference Textbooks:
1. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th Edition, KD Tripathi
2. Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 13th Edition, Katzung & Trevor
3. A Textbook of Clinical Pharmacology and Therapeutics, 5th Edition, Ritter, Lewis,
Mant & Ferro
4. Pharmacology & Therapeutics: Principles to Practice, Waldman and Terzic,
Saunders Elsevier
5. Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological basis of Therapeutics, Laurence Brunton,
12th Edition
6. Gareth Thomas, Medicinal Chemistry, An Introduction: Second Edition, Wiley
7. Textbook of Receptor Pharmacology, Foreman & Johansen, Second Edition CRC
Press
8. Wilson & Gisvold's Textbook of Organic Medicinal & Pharmaceutical Chemistry,
Beale & Block, 12th Edition

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