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MCQ Series

Practice Test II

Basic Sciences
Time: 2 hrs

UG/PG

Author Email: sidharta123@yahoo.com


Total Marks: 200 | Pass Mark: 100

PHARMACOLOGY
Read the instructions at the begining carefully. Subjects inlude Pharmacology &
Clinical Pharmacology. Answer sheets are provided separately.
Please Note: There is a Negative Marking of (-1) for each incorrect response. There
may be more than one correct answer(s).

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)


Section A
1. Metabolite protein binding of Ramiprilat (metabolite of Ramipril) is
A 95%

C 97%

B 56%

D 50-60%

2. Extrapyramidal side effects are not seen with


A Clozapine

C Risperidone

B Olanzepine

D Flupenthixol

3. ACE inhibitor with longest duration of action


A Ramipril

C Enalapril

B Captopril

D Fosinopril

4. Drug which is not at all useful in the prophylaxis of migraine


A Topiramate

C Valproate

B Gabapentin

D Fluoxymesterone

5. All of the following are used to treat schizophrenia except:


A Olanzapine

C Mirtazapine

B Haloperidol

D Chlorpromazine

6. The site of action of barbiturates is


A reticular activating system

C cortex and mesocortex

B medulla

D limbic system

Medicine

-1-

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

7. Antidepressant with marked anticholinergic effects


A Citalopram

C Fluoxetine

B Clomipramine

D Trazodone

8. Example of a reversible competitive antagonist


A Ranitidine

C Terbinafine

B Cyclothiazide

D Rivastigmine

9. Enzyme pyrazinamidase (PZase) is encoded by the


A pfmdr gene

C pncA gene

B pfcrt gene

D ptcA gene

10. Cephalosporin most active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa


A Cefixime

C Cefepime

B Ceftazidime

D Cefotaxime

11. A diphenylalkylamine that has anti arrhythmic effect


A Verapamil

C amplodipine

B Diltiazem

D Nifedipine

12. Which of the following is a thioxanthene neuroleptic?


A Trifluperidol

C Penfluridol

B Thioridazine

D Flupenthixol

13. Which of the following is not a haemoprotein?


A endothelial nitric oxide synthase

C cytochrome c

B catalase

D nitrous oxide reductase

14. A deoxycytidine analogue which inhibits HIV reverse transcriptase


A Lamivudine

C Ribavirin

B Stavudine

D Tenofovir

15. A rare adverse effect of NSAIDs


A Esophagitis

C Papillary necrosis

B Chronic renal failure

D Na+ and water retention

Medicine

-2-

UG/PG

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

16. Which of the following is a 5-HT2A antagonist?


A Buspirone

C Ondansetron

B Phenothiazine

D Quetiapine

17. Pharmacological response elicited due to antagonism of 1 adrenoceptor blocking


A bronchoconstriction

C vasoconstriction

B vasodilation

D decreases heart rate

18. All of the following anesthetic agents are nontoxic to liver except:
A Midazolam

C Sevoflurane

B Nitrous oxide

D Halothane

19. Regarding multi drug resistant bacteria, all of the following statements are correct
except:
A MRSA show resistance against
cephalosporin and penicillin
B A. Baumannii is an opportunistic
pathogen showing antibiotic
resistance

C linezolid is effective against


vancomycin-resistant S. aureus
(VRSA)
D S. aureus do not show resistance
to oxacillin

20. Which of the following is a benzothiazepine calcium channel blocker (CCB)?


A Nimodipine

C Verapamil

B Bepridil

D Diltiazem

21. Reflex tachycardia is seen with


A nifedipine

C phenylephrine

B verapamil

D diltiazem

22. A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI):


A Fluoxetine

C Clozapine

B Methysergide

D Risperidone

23. Primidone induces metabolism of


A phenobarbital

C enoxacin

B phenytoin

D desipramine

Medicine

-3-

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

24. Which of the following is a longest acting atypical antipsychotic?


A trifluorophenazine

C risperidone

B ziprasidone

D clozapine

25. Blood-gas partition coefficient of inhaled anesthetic is lowest for


A Enflurane

C Sevoflurane

B Desflurane

D Halothane

26. A steroidal aromatase inhibitor


A Anastrozole

C Exemestane

B Sulindac

D Aminoglutethimide

27. All of the following drugs are more likely to cause alopecia except:
A Cyclophosphamide

C Warfarin sod.

B Epirubicin

D Paclitaxel

28. A purine nucleoside analogue


A Amantadine

C Ganciclovir

B Didanosine

D Idoxuridine

29. Bacteria that can produce -lactamases include all of the following except
A Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C Neisseria gonorrhoeae

B Haemophillus influenzae

D Klebsiella pneumoniae

30. What is not true about dopamine?


A affects both nonvascular and
receptors
B active form of levodopa

C increases BP and urine output


D inhibitory neurotransmitter in the
g.i.t.

31. One of the following statements regarding nimodopine is incorrect:


A bioavailability of 13%

C plasma t 8-9 hrs

B protein binding is 95%

D higher clearance in men

32. A deoxyguanosine analogue that inhibits DNA replication


A Zidovudine

C Acyclovir

B Didanosine

D Foscarnet

Medicine

-4-

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

33. The active ingredient of the topical nasal decongestant spray "Vicks"
A Phenylephrine

C Guanifenesin

B Orphenadrine

D Oxymetazoline

34. Antihistamine with marked antiemetic property


A Chlorpheniramine

C Loratadine

B Trimeprazine

D Astemizole

35. Drugs with a wide safety margin


A Polymixin B

C Vancomycin

B Erythromycin

D thiopental

36. Identify the following chemical structure:

A Alprazolam

C Triazolamine

B Nicotinic acid

D Nikethamide

37. What is involved in the toxic actions of digitalis?


A Activation of 3Na+/1Ca2+
exchange transporter

C Inhibition of Na+ K+ ATPase


D Activation of Na+ K+ ATPase

B Inhibition of Ryanodine calcium


channel 2

38. Bone marrow suppression is a toxic effect associated with


A Chlorambucil

C Cyclophosphamide

B Vincristine

D Doxorubicin

39. Which of the following is not an anorexiant/anorectic?


A Benfluorex

C Cyproheptadine

B Phentermine

D Oxymetazoline

Medicine

-5-

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

40. A 5-HT2 antagonist related to tricyclic antidepressant


A Ketotifen

C Cyproheptadine

B Baclofen

D Pizotifen

41. Clindamycin is highly active against


A P. aeruginosa

C Rickettsia

B B. fragilis

D C. difficile

42. A drug that is free of teratogenic effects and safe to the fetus:
A Dicyclomine

C Ribavirin

B Miltefosine

D Doxylamine

43. What is not true regarding drug pharmacokinetics?


A highly protein bound drugs have
high Vd

C highly lipid soluble drugs have


faster redistribution

B drugs with high Vd not easily


removed by hemodialysis

D lipid insoluble drugs have low Vd

44. Bioactivation of 6-Mercaptopurine results in


A thiocyanate

C Azathioprine

B Cytarabin

D 6-thioinosinate

45. A second generation selective peripheral (H1-receptor antagonist) related to


tricyclic antidepressant:
A Loratidine

C Levocetirizine

B Betazole

D Ketotifen

46. Atropine is absolutely contraindicated in


A Motion sickness

C Glaucoma

B Parkinsonism

D Iridocyclitis

47. Factors that increase the MAC of anesthetic agents:


A clonidine

C lithium

B hypothermia

D ephedrine

Medicine

-6-

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

48. Benzodiazepine which is also an anticonvulsant:


A Alprazolam

C Temazepam

B Clonazepam

D Oxazepam

49. Non-linear first pass kinetics is seen with all of the following drugs except
A hydralazine

C aspirin

B heparin

D propranolol

50. A drug that inhibits an enzyme which metabolizes dopamine


A Selegiline

C Paroxetine

B Mazindol

D Venlafaxine

Section B
51. The action of Tubocurarine is reversed by
A Hydroxyzine

C Neostigmine

B Atropine

D Naloxone

52. Anesthetic agent that causes neuroleptanalgesia


A droperidol + Nitrous oxide

C Ketamine + Fentanyl

B Ketamine + droperidol

D droperidol + Fentanyl

53. A drug which is a barbiturate


A Primidone

C Trimethadione

B Phenacemide

D Bromocriptine

54. Tetracyclines are the first choice drugs to


A Chancroid

C Listeria infections

B Tularemia

D Relapsing fever

55. One which is a Calcium Channel Blocker (CCB):


A Pindolol

C Cyproheptadine

B Cinnarizine

D Nicorandil

Medicine

-7-

UG/PG

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

56. 1-acid glycoprotein levels are increased in all of the following conditions except:
A rheumatoid arthritis

C trauma

B nephrotic syndrome

D stress

57. Acute phase proteins are produced by


A Liver

C Neutrophil granulocytes

B Bone marrow

D Macrophages

58. A drug that is benzodiazepine antagonist


A Fluoxetine

C Meprobamate

B Flumazenil

D Muscimol

59. A glycoprotein IIa/IIIb inhibitor used to prevent thrombus formation


A alteplase

C abciximab

B argatroban

D apixaban

60. Which stereoisomeric form of propranolol exhibit -blocking activity?


A d-propranolol

C dl-racemic propranolol

B l-propranolol

D both a & b

61. Most commonly used orally active first-generation cephalosporin


A Cephalexin

C Ceftriaxone

B Cefadroxil

D Cefuroxime

62. An H1 antagonist devoid of sedative and anticholinergic effects:


A Hydroxyzine

C Desloratadine

B Loratadine

D Quetiapine

63. Which of the following is an inducer of microsomal enzyme CYP2D6?


A Carbamazepine

C Dexamethasone

B Glucocorticoids

D Phenytoin

64. Drugs that undergoes stereoselective renal clearance


A Propranolol

C Verapamil

B Terbutaline

D Warfarin

Medicine

-8-

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

65. Which of the following is not a -lactamase resistant cephalosporin?


A Cefepime

C Ceftriaxone

B Cefalexin

D Cefuroxime

66. Which of the following anti-hypertensives can be safely given to patients with
COPD or asthma?
A labetolol

C nifedipine

B adenosine

D metoprolol

67. A phenylalkylamine calcium channel blocker (CCB) that have negative inotropic
action on heart
A Nifedifine

C Chlortalidone

B Verapamil

D Diltiazem

68. Match the following antibiotics according to their correct chemical and structural
origins:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Azithromycin
Vancomycin
Bacitracin
Nystatin
Chloramphenicol

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Macrolide antibiotic
Polypeptide antibiotic
Nitrobenzene derivative
Glycopeptide antibiotic
Polyene antibiotic

69. Regarding drug binding capacity of lipoproteins, correct is


A LDL>VLDL>HDL

C VLDL>LDL>HDL

B LDL>HDL>VLDL

D HDL>LDL>VLDL

70. Which of the following statements regarding metoprolol is not true?


A posses intrinsic
sympathomimetic activity

C is a cardioselective
1-adrenoceptor antagonist

B is a non-polar racemic mixture of


optical isomers

D should not be given with


ergotamine

71. Which of the following drugs is least likely to produce neuromuscular blockade?
A Amikacin

C Tobramycin

B Streptomycin

D Neomycin

Medicine

-9-

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

72. Example of a drug which is a dual (both competitive and noncompetitive)


antagonist:
A Ketamine

C Levorphanol

B Mecamylamine

D Primidone

73. Decreased activation of fibrinolysis may be due to:


A high levels of tPAI-1

C low levels of tPAI-1

B excessive inhibition of tPA

D excessive stimulation tPA

74. Which of the following antidepressants causes marked sedation without nausea
as a side effect?
A Trazodone

C Clomipramine

B Amitriptyline

D Dothiepin

75. Most addictive of the benzodiazepines


A Lorazepam

C Diazepam

B Alprazolam

D Clonazepam

76. Substrate for enzyme cytochrome P450 CYP3A4


A Piroxicam

C Haloperidol

B Nicardipine

D Clozapine

77. Drugs that interfere with activation of platelets


A Clopidogrel

C Streptokinase

B Alteplase

D Urokinase

78. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not susceptible to


A Tetracycline

C Carbenicillin

B Cefepime

D Meropenem

79. Which of the following is a ganglion blocker?


A Scopolamine

C Bupropion

B Doxacurium

D Tubocurarine

Medicine

- 10 -

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

80. Which of the following is a cefamycin?


A Cefotaxime

C Cefoxitine

B Cefonicid

D Cefazolin

81. What could possibly explain the increased rate of thrombosis during pregnancy?
A Increased levels of plasminogen
activator inhibitor-2
B increased levels of tissue
Plasminogen Activator (tPA)

C increased levels of 2-antiplasmin


D increased levels of urokinase

82. A drug which is used to suppress lactation


A cabergoline

C clomifene

B lisuride

D carbaprost

83. Drugs capable of causing tinnitus in high doses includes all of the following
except:
A Gentamicin

C Aspirin

B Lidocaine

D Trimetazidine

84. Plasma protein binding of digitalis is


A 10%

C 70%

B 90%

D 25%

85. The most potent cidal drug for M. Leprae


A Minocycline

C Clofazimine

B Rifampin

D Ofloxacin

86. Which of the following is a -glucan?


A Glycogen

C Cellulose

B Dextran

D Starch

87. Regarding the action of digitalis (digoxin), which of the following is incorrect?
A increases cardiac output

C positive inotropic action

B shortens the period of systole

D lengthens the period of systole

Medicine

- 11 -

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

88. Which of the following is antidopaminergic?


A droperidol

C fenoldopam

B phencyclidine

D bromocriptine

89. Antihistamine with the fastest onset of action


A Astemizole

C Fexofenadine

B Epinastine

D Loratadine

90. Given below is a list of drugs:


(i)Flumazenil (iii)Etomidate (v)Lanthanum
(ii)Bicuculline (iv)Lindane (vi)Picrotoxin
Which of the above given drugs are positive benzodiazepine site allosteric
modulators?
A (iv) & (v)

C (iii) & (v)

B (ii), (iii) & (vi)

D (i) & (iv)

91. The major metabolite of primidone is


A phenobarbital

C barbituric acid

B p-hydroxylphenyl

D phenylethylmalonamide

92. Drug concentrated in the adipose tissue


A ephedrine

C acetazolamide

B phenoxybenzamine

D chloroquine

93. Active constituent of the herb feverfew


A silybin

C salicin

B parthenolide

D picrotoxinin

94. The most powerful technique for structural elucidation of drugs and metabolites
A UV

C NMR

B Mass Spectrometry

D HPLC

95. Thromboxane A2 (TXA2) is synthesized by


A Spleen

C Platelets

B Endothelium

D Lung

Medicine

- 12 -

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

96. A second generation peripherally selective piperidine


A Levocetirizine

C Fexofenadine

B Cetirizine

D Dexchlorpheniramine

97. Drug which can be safely used during lactation:


A Spironolactone

C Cotrimoxasole

B Norfloxacin

D Methyldopa

98. _________ is a mixture of ergocornine, ergocrystine and ergocryptine


A Ergotamine

C Ergometrine

B Ergonovine

D LSD

99. Which of the following is a third generation fluoroquinolone?


A Sparfloxacin

C Pefloxacin

B Norfloxacin

D Ofloxacin

100. Overdose with calcium channel blockers (CCB) is treated with


A Sodium EDTA

C Calcium chloride

B Dimercaprol

D Fomepizole

Section C
101. Which of the following NSAID is an enolic acid derivative?
A Indomethacin

C Naproxen

B Piroxicam

D Mefenamic acid

102. Alteplase is contraindicated in


A hemorrhage

C ischemic stroke

B venous thrombosis

D frostbite

103. Which of the following agents depletes acetylcholine (ACh)?


A hemicholinium

C Atropine

B Muscarine

D Carbachol

Medicine

- 13 -

UG/PG

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

104. Which of the following is a polyene antibiotic?


A Teicoplanin

C Polymyxin B

B Amphotericin B

D Griseofulvin

105. What differentiates the hemodynamic effects of overdose with tricyclic


antidepressants from central 2- adrenergic agonists?
A hypotension with tachycardia

C hypotension and bradycardia

B hyperapnoea and hyperthermia

D hypertension and tachycardia

106. Which of the following is a substrate for enzyme cytochrome P450 CYP2C19?
A Metoprolol

C Diazepam

B Lansoprazole

D Rifampin

107. An anesthetic agent that do not sensitize the heart to epinephrine:


A Isoflurane

C Enflurane

B Halothane

D Sevoflurane

108. Extrapyramidal side effects are most common with


A Clozapine

C Pimozide

B Olanzapine

D Ziprasidone

109. Tissue plasminogen activator or tPA is found in


A liver

C endothelial cells

B platelets

D histiocytes

110. Thiazide-like diuretics include


A clopamide

C bumetanide

B hydrochlorothiazide

D acetazolamide

111. Aldosterone is biosynthesized from


A DHEA

C androstenedione

B pregnenelone

D androsterone

112. Actions of which of the following drugs is blocked by propranolol?


A insulin

C ergotamine

B isoprenaline

D Cimetidine

Medicine

- 14 -

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

113. Which of the following drugs is an antidepressant used in prophylactic migraine


therapy?
A Topiramate

C Doxepin

B Valproic acid

D Methysergide

114. Regarding papaverine, which of the following statements is correct?


A has neurotropic action

C decreases skeletal muscle blood


flow

B vasoconstrictor

D smooth muscle relaxant

115. As an enzyme inducer, which of the following drugs enhances the metabolism of
thyroxine?
A Meprobamate

C Phenobarbitone

B Rifampicin

D Carbamazepine

116. Which of the following types of drug transport is also known as "convective
transport"?
A Active transport

C Pore transport

B Carrier-mediated transport

D Ion-pair transport

117. Which of the following drugs causes bradycardia as a side effect?


A Nitrate

C Diltiazem

B Hydralazine

D Nifedipine

118. Adrenergic neuron blocker that depletes catecholamines but produces


extrapyramidal side effects
A Fluphenazine

C Risperidone

B Reserpine

D Clonidine

119. A synthetic prostacyclin indicated in primary pulmonary hypertension


A Dinoprostone

C Epoprostenol

B Misoprostol

D Colfosceril

120. Which of the following inhibits platelet activation?


A Epoprostenol

C Dinoprost

B PGE2

D Thromboxanes

Medicine

- 15 -

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

121. All of the following are tocolytics except


A terbutaline

C atosiban

B ritodrine

D carbaprost

122. Not a dopamine receptor (D2) agonist


A Carbidopa

C Bromocriptine

B Pergolide

D Apomorphine

123. All of the following a acetylcholinesterase inhibitors except:


A Galantamine

C Rivastigmine

B Memantine

D Donepezil

124. An anesthetic agent chemically and pharmacologically related to phencyclidine


A Midazolam

C Etomidate

B Fentanyl

D Ketamine

125. An opioid anesthetic


A propofol

C fentanyl

B ketamine

D none of the above

126. Which of the following plasma proteins is not an acute phase reactant?
A albumin

C 1-antitrypsin

B orosomucoid

D haptoglobin

127. Which vitamin is involved in the formation of dopamine?


A thiamine

C pyridoxine

B riboflavin

D niacin

128. Drugs contraindicated during lactation in nursing mothers includes all of the
following except:
A Atropine

C Phenobarbitone

B Chloramphenicol

D Phenylbutazone

129. Following are indications of lisinopril therapy except:


A diabetic nephropathy

C hypertension

B renal artery stenosis

D acute myocardial infarction

Medicine

- 16 -

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

130. A cephalosporin useful in meningitis


A Ceftriaxone

C Cefadroxil

B Cefaclor

D Cefotetan

131. Which of the following statements about imipramine is incorrect?


A anticholinergic

C serotonin reuptake inhibitor

B possess acute sedative effect

D used in the treatment of psychosis

132. Regarding the mechanism of action of propanolol, correct is


A blocks 1 receptors for adrenaline

C blocks 1 receptors for adrenaline

B has anti-arrhythmic actions

D blocks 2 receptors for adrenaline

133. Most common adverse effect of atomoxetine is


A Fatigue

C Appetite loss

B Nausea

D Insomnia

134. Drugs that precipitate Torsades de pointes includes all of the following except:
A Metoclopramide

C Cisapride

B Terfenadine

D Pimozide

135. Drug mostly associated with Pseudomembranous colitis


A Clindamycin

C Carbapenem

B Oxacillin

D Vancomycin

136. The drug used as a test to differentiate myasthenic crisis from cholinergic crisis
A vecuronium

C ephedrine

B edrophonium

D physostigmine

137. H1 blocker with high anti-cholinergic action:


A pheniramine

C Cyproheptadine

B Fexofenadine

D Chlorpheniramine

138. Drugs that reduce liver blood flow


A Adenosine

C hydralazine

B cyclosporine

D carbamazepine

Medicine

- 17 -

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

139. Which of the following statements regarding Ofloxacin is not true?


A protein binding is 25%
B enhances the effects of Warfarin

C increased risk of Achilles tendon


rupture with olanzapine
D increased risk of nephrotoxicity
with ciclosporin

140. Not a copper-containing protein/enzyme:


A haemocyanin

C tyrosinase

B azurin

D amicyanin

141. Which of the following dihydropyridines (DHPs) have the shortest elimination t?
A amplodipine

C felodipine

B nifedipine

D verapamil

142. Drug that produces serious respiratory depression in young children


A Promethazine

C Pizotifen

B Doxapram

D Ergotamine

143. First line drug of choice in Syphilis


A Erythromycin

C Azithromycin

B Ampicillin

D Penicillin G

144. Which of the following statements regarding tyramine is not true?


A causes -adreneceptor activation

C induces release of noradrenaline

B stimulates adenylate cyclase


reducing intracellular Ca2+

D increases heart rate

145. A selective dopamine (D2) antagonist


A Dicyclomine

C Doxylamine

B Prochlorperazine

D Mosapride

146. Gynecomastia is a side effect of all of the following except:


A Ketoconazole

C Spironolactone

B Ranitidine

D metochlopramide

Medicine

- 18 -

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

147. All of the following are potent vasodilators except:


A PGF2

C ACh

B PGE2

D Thromboxane A2 (TXA2)

148. An oral drug whose metabolite is an indirect sympathomimetic


A Phenelzine

C Selegiline

B metamphetamine

D apomorphine

149. Cytotoxic drug that is highly emetogenic


A Fluorouracil

C Vincristine

B Cisplatin

D Bleomycin

150. Lisinopril has a half-life of


A 2 hr

C 11 hr

B 6 hr

D 12 hr

Section D
151. Which of the following anesthetic agents is most cardiotoxic?
A Bupivacaine

C Lidocaine

B Propofol

D Ketamine

152. All of the following drugs binds to 1-acid glycoprotein except:


A Phenylbutazone

C Chlorpromazine

B Imipramine

D Nortriptyline

153. A drug which is not a prokinetic agent:


A Cisapride

C Mosapride

B Domperidone

D Tiapride

154. A 1+ 2 agonist that is as well a bronchodilator


A Dobutamine

C Isoproterenol

B Metaproterenol

D Salbutamol

Medicine

- 19 -

UG/PG

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

155. Ketamine is dangerous for patients with all these clinical conditions except:
A hypovolemia

C congestive heart failure

B ischemic heart disease

D hypertension

156. Which of the following drugs has an aromatic ring system in its structure?
A Isoflurane

C mechlorethamine

B propranolol

D halothane

157. Drug of choice in actinomycosis:


A Tetracycline

C Penicillin G

B Streptomycin

D Amphotericin B

158. A calcium channel blocker with lowest bioavailability


A Nifedipine

C Amlodipine

B Verapamil

D Diltiazem

159. All of the following agents are used to treat malignant hyperthermia and malignant
neuroleptic syndrome except:
A i.v. adrenaline

C bicarbonate infusion

B i.v. dantrolene

D 100% O2 inhalation

160. Which of the following do not determine half-life (t) of a drug?


A volume of distribution (Vd)

C bioequivalence

B protein binding (PB)

D clearance (CL)

161. Antifungal drug that is a non-competitive inhibitor of enzyme squalene epoxide


A Griseofulvin

C Ketoconazole

B Terbinafine

D Caspofungin

162. Which of the following agents is a lincosamide antibiotic?


A Imipenem

C Linezolid

B Hamycin

D Clindamycin

Medicine

- 20 -

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

163. Match the following drugs with their correct pharmacokinetic properties:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Doxepin
Cetirizine
Loratadine
Chlorpheniramine
Fexofenadine

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

elimination T 7.8 hrs 4.2


80% eliminated unchanged in feces
elimination T 13 hrs
elimination T 27.9 hrs 8.7
60% eliminated unchanged in urine

164. Which of the following possess thrombolytic property?


A Calcium gluconate

C Dextran

B Dextrin

D Dextrose

165. Deficiency of plasminogen leads to


A increased risk of bleeding

C increased fibrinolysis

B increased risk of thrombosis

D decreased fibrinolysis

166. Most common side effect of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs):


A hypertensive crisis

C nausea

B orthostatic hypotension

D serotonin syndrome

167. A drug that is chemically different from aminoglycosides but having similar
mycobactericidal activity
A Amikacin

C Clavulanic acid

B Sisomycin

D Capreomycin

168. Mechanism of action of Vincristine:


A enhances polymerization of
tubulin

C interferes with tubulin's


organization into microtubule

B prevents polymerization of tubulin

D binds to tubulin and interferes


with its function

169. Barbiturate with an intermediate duration of action:


A secobarbital

C amobarbital

B pentobarbital

D phenobarbital

Medicine

- 21 -

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

170. Match the following cytotoxic agents with their correct groups they belong:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Folate antagonist
Nitrogen mustard
Pyrimidine antagonist
Purine antagonist
Nitrosoureas

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Azathioprine
5-Fluorouracil
Carmustine
Cyclophosphamide
Methotrexate

171. An antibiotic antimetabolite that competes with PABA


A 5-Fluorouracil

C Sulfadiazine

B Mitomycin C

D Daunorubicin

172. Which of the following is a MAO-B (monoamine oxidase-B) inhibitor?


A Selegiline

C Metralindole

B Moclobemide

D Chlorgyline

173. One of the following is not an adverse effect of atropine:


A tachycardia

C pupillary constriction

B reduced salivation

D constipation

174. Volume replacement therapy is indicated in all of the following except:


A Addisonian crisis

C Diabetic ketoacidosis

B Anaphylaxis

D Cushing's syndrome

175. The most potent stimulator of aldosterone production/secretion is


A serum Na+ concentration

C serum K+ concentration

B ACTH

D atrial natriuretic factor (ANF)

176. Antibacterial agent which is bacteriostatic


A Chloramphenicol

C Ciprofloxacin

B Ceftriaxone

D Co-trimoxazole

177. Resistance to which of the following antibiotics is rare?


A Chloramphenicol

C Colistin

B Erythromycin

D Vancomycin

Medicine

- 22 -

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

178. A mutagenic, teratogenic, and embryotoxic antibiotic:


A Bleomycin

C Colistin

B Doxorubicin

D Actinomycin D

179. Which of the following interferons binds to its own receptor?


A Interferon- 2a

C Interferon-

B Interferon- 2b

D Interferon-

180. A glycopeptide antibiotic


A Neomycin

C Bacitracin

B Vancomycin

D Amikacin

181. A selective antagonist of growth hormone (GH):


A Pegvisomant

C Lanreotide

B Octreotide

D Somatomedin

182. Neosporin powder is a mixture combination of


A Colistin + Neomycin+ Bacitracin
B Actinomycin D + Neomycin +
Bacitracin

C Polymyxin B + Neomycin +
Bacitracin
D Polymyxin B + Neomycin +
Colistin

183. A peptide that stimulates the secretion of growth hormone (GH):


A Somatostatin

C Somatomedin

B Somatorelin

D Somatropin

184. Antibiotic which is obtained from bacteria:


A Tetracycline

C Aztreonam

B Griseofulvin

D Azithromycin

185. A synthetic analogue of somatostatin


A Somatorelin

C Pegvisomant

B Tetracosactide

D Octreotide

Medicine

- 23 -

UG/PG

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

186. The mechanism if isoniazid (INH) resistance is by


A mutation of 23S rRNA

C transfer of R factor by conjugation

B mutation of catalase-peroxide
gene

D plasmid mediated

187. Which of the following is a GnRH analogue?


A Lanreotide

C Ganirelix

B Somatorelin

D Leuprorelin

188. Which of the following antibiotics is active against Pseudomonas?


A Tobramycin

C Ciprofloxacin

B Colistin

D all of the above

189. Statement not true regarding fluoquinolones:


A inhibits DNA gyrase in gram
positive bacteria

C resistance mainly due to


chromosomal mutation

B are bactericidal

D low CSF penetration

190. Identify the following chemical structure:

A Tetracycline

C Cephalosporin

B Choramphenicol

D Penicillin

191. The bond in the chemical structure of penicillin broken by penicillinase


A C-CH bond

C O=C bond

B N-CH bond

D C-N bond

192. Which of the following antacids is a constipating agent?


A Aluminium hydroxide

C Magnesium hydroxide

B Calcium carbonate

D Magnesium trisilicate

Medicine

- 24 -

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

193. Sucralfate interferes with the absorption of:


A diazepam

C digoxin

B ketoconazole

D nitrofurantoin

194. Regarding ketamine not true is


A produces neuroleptanalgesia

C do not affect GABA channels

B produces dissociative anesthesia

D inhibit NMDA type of glutamate


receptors

195. True regarding sulfonamide antibiotics:


A parenteral administration is
difficult

C antibacterial action not inhibited


by pus

B first line drug to treat meningitis

D not effective against


gram-positive bacteria

196. Match the following antineoplastic drugs with their respective adverse effects:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Busulfan
Cyclosporin
5-Fluorouracil
6-Mercaptopurine
Vincristine

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

peripheral neuropathy
nephrotoxicity
reversible jaundice
bone marrow depression
pulmonary fibrosis

197. Regarding isoniazid (INH) which of the following statements is incorrect?


A requires prophylactic pyridoxine
in diabetics
B peripheral neuritis is the most
common adverse effect

C primarily tuberculocidal
D sucralfate inhibits its absorption

198. Second generation selective 1 blocker


A Propranolol

C Sotalol

B Atenolol

D Labetalol

199. Which of the following affects bone turnover by decreasing resorption?


A Calcitonin

C Furosemide

B Parathormone

D Thiazide

Medicine

- 25 -

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

200. Which of the following drugs do not precipitate gout?


A Pyrazinamide

C Calcium carbonate

B Thiazide diuretic

D Ethambutol

Medicine

- 26 -

UG/PG

MCQ Series

Practice Test II

UG/PG

Disclaimer: Every attempt has been made to validate each and every
question/answers. Any remaining error is regretted. Author will not be held responsible
for any errors. Please consult standard textbooks given in the reference section for any
discrepancy. Questions with wrong answers may better be left unattempted/
unanswered. This is a practice series available free to download designed for the
benefit of prospective PG candidates and UG medical students alike.
Reference Textbooks:
1. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th Edition, KD Tripathi
2. Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 13th Edition, Katzung & Trevor
3. A Textbook of Clinical Pharmacology and Therapeutics, 5th Edition, Ritter, Lewis,
Mant & Ferro
4. Pharmacology & Therapeutics: Principles to Practice, Waldman and Terzic,
Saunders Elsevier
5. Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological basis of Therapeutics, Laurence Brunton,
12th Edition
6. Gareth Thomas, Medicinal Chemistry, An Introduction: Second Edition, Wiley
7. Textbook of Receptor Pharmacology, Foreman & Johansen, Second Edition CRC
Press
8. Wilson & Gisvold's Textbook of Organic Medicinal & Pharmaceutical Chemistry,
Beale & Block, 12th Edition

Medicine

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