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STUDY CENTRE
PA L A

Name ................................................
Batch.................... Roll No. ...............

AIIMS REHEARSAL MODEL EXAM

26- 05- 2014

VE RSI ON

X1

Physics + Chemistry + Biology + GK

FT14A/MOD/AIIMS/[X1]

Maximum Mark : 200

Duration :3.30 hr.

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES


I. Please ensure that the VERSION CODE shown on the top of this question booklet is the same as that
shown in the OMR answer sheet issued to you.
II. For each question in this examination, there are four suggested answers given against (A), (B), (C) and (D)
of which only one will be the MOSTAPPROPRIATEANSWER and indicate it in the OMR answer sheet.
III. Negative marking : In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to a penalisation
formula based on the number of correct answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked.
Each correct answer will be awarded ONE MARK. For each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted.
No credit will be given for the questions not answered. More than one response will be negatively marked.
PHYSICS
1.

An aeroplane 400 m from north and 300m east and then flies 1200 m upwards then net displacement is
A) 1200 m

2.

4.

K2 R 2
R2

D) 1500 m

B)

K2
R2

C)

K2
K2 R 2

D)

R2
K2 R 2

In case of a forced vibration, the resonance wave becomes very sharp when the
A) Damping force is small

B) Restoring force is small

C) Applied periodic force is small

D) Quality factor is small

A capacitor of capacitance 2 F is connected in the tank circuit of an oscillator oscillating with a frequency
of 1 kHz. If the current flowing in the circuit is 2 mA, the voltage across the capacitor will be
A) 0.16 V

5.

C) 1400 m

A ball rolls without slipping. The radius of gyration of the ball about an axis passing through its centre of mass
is K. If radius of the ball be R, then the fraction of total energy associated with its rotational energy will be
A)

3.

B) 1300 m

B) 0.32 V

C) 79.5 V

D) 159 V

The property of surface tension is to


A) Increase the volume B) Decrease the volume
C) Increase the surface area

6.

A hot body cools from 100oC to 90oC in 4 minutes. What will be the time taken to cool the body from 70oC to
60oC? (room temperature is 25oC)
A) 5 min

7.

B) 7.5 min

C) 7 min

D) 3 min

The temperature coefficient of resistance of a wire is 0.00125 per degree Celsius. At 300oK its resistance is
1 ohm. The resistance of the wire will be 2 ohm, at following temperature
A) 1154 K

8.

D) Decrease the surface area

B) 1127 K

C) 600 K

D) 1400 K

A uniformly charged thin spherical shell of radius R carries uniform surface charge density of per unit
area. It is made of two hemispherical shells, held together by pressing them with force F. F is proportional to:

2 R 2
A)
0

2 R
B)
0

2
C) R
0

2
D) R 2
0

FT14A/MOD/AIIMS/[X1]

9.

Around a stationary charge of +4 C , another charge of 10 C is moved twice round a circle of radius
2cm, the amount of work done is
A) 4J

10.

C) 1.5

D) 2.0

B) 2H

C) 3H

D) 9H

Q2
B)
2c

02
C)
2E 0

D)

0 E2
2

B) R/2

C) 4R

D) R/4

B) 824 Hz, 1648 Hz

C) 412 Hz, 824 Hz

D) 206 Hz, 824 Hz

B) 0.61 metre per sec.

C) 0.61 km per sec.

D) 0.61 feet per sec.

B) 1.5 cm

C) 0.5 cm

D) 5 cm

A man weighing 60 kg lifts a body of 15 kg to a top of building 10 m high in 30 minutes. His efficiency is
B) 40 %

C) 30 %

D) 20 %

Two cylinders A and B float on water. It is observed that A floats with 2/3rd of its volume immersed and B
floats with half of its volume immersed. The ratio of densities of A and B is :
A) 4/3

21.

B) 1.0

In Youngs double slit experiment carried out with light of wavelength 5000A 0 , the distance between
the slits is 0.2 mm and the screen is at 200 cm from the plane of slits. The central maximum is at x = 0. The
third maximum will be at x equal to:

A) 50 %
20.

D) 1 : 1

For every one degree Celsius rise in temperature, the speed of sound in air increases by nearly:

A) 1.67 cm
19.

C) 4 : 1

A pipe closed at one end produces a fundamental note of 412 Hz. It is cut into two pieces of equal length, the
fundamental frequencies produced by the two pieces are

A) 0.61 cm per sec.


18.

B) 1 : 2

There are 8 equal resistances R. Two are connected in parallel. Such four groups are connected in series.
The total resistance of the system will be :

A) 206 Hz, 412 Hz


17.

D) 2.0 T

In an electromagnetic wave, the average energy density associated with magnetic field is

A) 2R
16.

C) 112.5 T

Pure inductance of 3H is connected as shown in fig. The equivalent inductance of the circuit is

cv2
A)
2
15.

B) 50 Wb/m2

If a coil of 40 turns and area 4.0 cm is suddenly removed from a magnetic field. It is observed that a charge
of 2.0 10-4 C flows in to the coil. If the resistance of the coil is 80 , the magnetic flux density in wb/m2 is

A) 1H
14.

D) Zero

A) 0.5
13.

C) 8 10 6 J

A large magnet is broken into two pieces so that their lengths are in the ratio 2 : 1. The pole strengths of the
two pieces will have ratio
A) 2 : 1

12.

B) 2J

Force acting on a magnetic pole of 7.5 10-2 A-m is 1.5 N. Magnetic field at the point is
A) 20 Wb/m2

11.

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

B) 3/1

C) 3/2

D) 2/3

Three particles, each of mass m gram, are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side l cm
(as shown in the figure). The moment of inertia of the system about a line AX perpendicular to AB and in the
plane of ABC, in gram-cm2 units will be

A)

5 2
ml
4

B)

3 2
ml
2

C)

3 2
ml
4

D) 2 ml2

FT14A/MOD/AIIMS/[X1]

22.

23.

Electric potential at the centre of a charged hollow metal sphere is


A) Zero

B) Twice as that on the surface

C) half of that on the surface

D) Same as that on the surface

Figure shows four plates each of area s and separated from one another by a distance d. What is the
capacitance between A & B ?

A)
24.

0 S
d

B)

2 0 S
d

3 0 S
d

C)

D)

4 0 S
d

What is the potential difference across 2 F capacitor in the circuit shown ?

A) 12V
25.

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B) 4V

C) 18 V

D) 6 V

An aluminium (resistivity 2 .2 1 0 8 m ) wire of a diameter 1.4mm is used to make a 4 resistor..


The length of the wire is
A) 220m

B) 1000m

C) 280m

D) 1m

26.

Three point masses 1g, 2g and 3g have their centre of mass at (2, 2, 2). A fourth mass 4g is placed at a
position vector r , such that the centre of mass of the new system is now at (0, 0, 0). The co-ordinates for
r are:
A) (1, 1, 1)
B) (2, 2, 2)
C) (3, 3, 3)
D) (4, 4, 4)

27.

An infinite number of masses each of 1kg are placed on the positive X-axis at 1m, 4m, 8m ........ from the
origin. The value of the gravitational field at the origin due to the distribution is:

2G
3

A)

B)

5G
3

C)

D)

7G
3

0.4i 0.8j ck represents a unit vector when c is :

28.

A) -0.2
29.

4G
3

B)

C) 0

0.2

D)

0.8

A body moves from a position r1 2i 3j 4k metre to a position r2 3i 4j 5k metre under the


influence of a constant force F 4i j 6k newton. The work alone by the force is :
A) 60 J

30.

B) 59 J

B) 12.50 N-m

C) 18.75 N-m

D) 25 N-m
6

Nm-2. If the bulk modulus of the solid


is 1.7 10 Nm , the decrease in the volume of the solid is approximately equal to
A

11

A) 0.2 cm3
32.

D) 57 J

A spring of spring constant 5 x 103 N/m is stretched initially by 5 cm from the unstretched position. The work
required to stretch it further by another 5 cm is
A) 6.25 N-m

31.

C) 58 J

-2

B) 0.3 cm3

C) 0.4 cm3

D) 0.5 cm3

The upper end of a wire of radius 4 mm and length 100 cm is clamped and its other end is twisted through an
angle 300. The angle of shear is :
A) 300

B) 120

C) 0.120

D) 0.300

FT14A/MOD/AIIMS/[X1]

33.

Two wires of the same material and radii r and 2r are welded together end to end. The combination is used
as a sonometer wire and kept under tension T. The welded point is mid-way between the two bridges. When
stationary waves are set up in the composite wire, the joint is a node. Then the ratio of the numbers of loops
formed in the thinner wire thicker wire is
A) 2 : 3

34.

B) 1 : 2

C) 2 : 1

B) 370

C) 450

B) Sky wave propagation

C) Space wave propagation

A pendulum bob has a speed of 3ms at its lowest position. The pendulum is 0.5m long. The speed of the bob
when the length makes an angle of 600 to the vertical will be [g = 10m/s2]

1 1
ms
2

D) 3ms 1

B) 3.75 m

C) 4.00 m

D) 1.25 m

B) 67 cm

C) 55 cm

D) 72 cm

K
in the X-direction, where K is constant. If the
x3
value of gravitational potential is taken to be zero at infinity, its value at a distance x is given by:
The gravitational field due to a mass distribution is E

A)
40.

C) 12ms 1

Masses 1g, 2g, 3g ..................100g are suspended form 1cm, 2cm, 3cm, .......... 100cm marks of a light
metre scale. The system will be supported in equilibrium at:
A) 60 cm

39.

B) 2ms 1

Water drops fall at regular intervals from a tap which is 5m from the ground. The third drop is leaving the tap
at the instant the first drop touches the ground. How far above the ground is the second drop at that instant
A) 2.5 m

38.

D) Both A and B
1

A)
37.

D) 600

Which mode of communication is employed to transmit very high frequency (VHF) and ultra high frequency
(UHF) signals?
A) Ground wave propagation

36.

D) 5 : 4

A magnetic needle is lying in the maximum torque position in a magnetic field. What is the angle through
which it should be rotated so that the torque reduces to half the original value
A) 300

35.

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

K
5x 2

B)

K
4x 2

C)

K
3x 2

D)

K
2x 2

A square loop of side 10cm and resistance 0.5 is placed vertically in the East West plane. A uniform
magnetic field of 0.1T is set up across the plane in the North East direction. The magnetic field is reduced
to zero in 0.7s at a steady rate. The magnitude of induced current is
A) 1mA

B) 2mA

C) 0.5mA

D) 1.2mA

Assertion -Reasons
A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and reason is correct explannation of assertion
B) If both Assertion and Reason are trie but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
D) If both Assertion and Reason are false
41.

Assertion:- Retardation is directly opposite to the velocity.


Reason:- Retardation is equal to the time rate of decrease of speed

42.

Assertion:- First law of thermodynamics doesnt forbid flow of heat from lower temperature to higher
temperature
Reason:- Heat supplied to a system always equal to the increases in its internal energy

43.

Assertion:- Faradays laws are consequences of conservation of energy


Reason:- In a purely resistive AC circuit, the current lags behind the emf in phase

44.

Assertion: Stress is the internal force per unit volume of the body
Reason:- Rubber is more elastic than steel

FT14A/MOD/AIIMS/[X1]

45.

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Assertion-The air bubble shines in water


Reason:- Air bubble in water shines due to refraction of light

46.

Assertion:- In high attitude one sees colourful curtains of light hanging down from high attitudes
Reason: The high energy charged particles from the sun are deflected to polar region by the magnetic field
of the earth

47.

Assertion:- Microwave communication is preferred over optical communication


Reason:- Microwaves provide large number of channels and band width compared to optical signals

48.

Assertion:- The resistivity of a semi conductor increases with temperature


Reason: The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with larger amplitude at higher temperature thereby increasing its resistivity

49.

Assertion: Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light


Reason:- The number of photo electrons are proportional to the frequency of light

50.

Assertion:- A transistor amplifier in common emitter configuration has a low input impedance
Reason:- The base to emitter region is forward biased

51.

Assertion: The melting point of ice decreases with increase of pressure


Reason:- Ice contracts on melting

52.

Assertion:- Crystalline solids can cause X-rays to diffract


Reason:- Interatomic distance in crystalline solids is of the order of 0.1 nm

53.

Assertion:- Air pressure in a car tyre increases during driving


Reason:- Absolute zero temperature is not zero energy temperature

54.

Assertion:- The acceleration of a body down a rough inclined plane is greater than the acceleration due to
gravity
Reason:- The body is able to slide on a inclined plane only when its acceleration is greater than acceleration
due to gravity

55.

Assertion:- Mean free path of a gas molecules varies inversely as density of the gas
Reason:- Mean free path varies inversely as pressure of the gas

56.

Assertion:-For a gas atom the number of degrees of freedom is 3


CP
Reason:- C
v

57.

A balloon filled with hydrogen will fall with acceleration g/6 of the moon
Reason:- Moon has no atmosphere

58.

Assertion:- A rocket moves forward by pushing the surrounding air backwards


Reason:- If derives the necessary thrust to move forward according to newtons third law of motion

59.

Assertion: Blue colour of sky appears due to scattering of the blue colour
Reason:- Blue colour has shortest wave length in visible spectrum

60.

Assertion:-The isothermal curves intersect each other at a certain point


Reason:- The isothermal change take place slowly so, the isothermal curves have very little slope
CHEMISTRY

61.

Dimethyl glyoxime gives a red precipitate with Ni2+, which is used for its detection. To get this precipitate
readily the best pH range is :
A) < 1

62.

B) 2 - 3

C) 3 - 4

D) 9 - 11

The nucleic acid base having two possible binding sites is :


A) Thymine

B) Cytosine

C) Guanine

D) Adenine

FT14A/MOD/AIIMS/[X1]

63.

The average osmotic pressure of human blood is 7.8 bar at 37oC. What is the concentration of an aqueous
NaCl solution that could be used in the blood stream?
A) 0.16 mol/L

64.

B) 0.32 mol/L
B) Polythene
B) 3
B) mordant dye
B) allosteric enzyme

C) 4

D) 5

C) azo dye

D) both A & B

C) holoenzyme

D) conjugate enzyme

C) Cl, H2O

D) NO, Cl

The ligands in anti-cancer drug cisplatin are :


A) NH3Cl

69.

D) Nylon-6

Enzymes with two sites are called


A) apoenzyme

68.

C) Polyvinyl chloride

Methyl orange is the example of which type of dye?


A) acid dye

67.

D) 0.45 mol/L

Subunits present in haemoglobin are


A) 2

66.

C) 0.60 mol/L

Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?


A) Cellulose

65.

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B) NH3, H2O

Tincture iodine is
A) aqueous solution of I2 B) solution of I2 in aqueous KI
C) alcoholic solution of I2 D) aqueous solution of KI

70.

The pair of amphoteric hydroxide is :


A) Al(OH)3 , LiOH

B) Be(OH)2, Mg(OH)2

C) B(OH)3, Be(OH)2

D) Be(OH)2, Zn(OH)2

CH I
Ag O
NH2
X
Y
excess
H O,
3

71.

The product Y may be


A)
72.

C)

+
N(CH
3)3I D) both A & B

CH3NH2 (0, 1 mole, Kb = 5 10-4) is added to 0.08 moles of HCl and the solution is diluted to one litre. The
resulting hydrogen ion concentration is
A) 1.6 10-11

73.

B) (CH3)3N

B) 8 10-11

C) 5 10-5

D) 8 10-2

If the bond dissociation energies of XY, X2 and Y2 (all diatomic molecules) are in the ratio of 1 : 1 : 0.5 and

H f for the formation of XY is -200 kJ mol-1, the bond dissociation energy of X2 will be
A) 100 kJ mol-1
74.

75.

B) 200 kJ mol-1

C) 300 kJ mol-1

D) 800 kJ mol-1

Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing pKa values of the given acids?
A) HClO4 < HNO3 < H2CO3 < B(OH)3

B) HNO3 < HClO4 < B(OH)3 < H2CO3

C) B(OH)3 < H2CO3 < HClO4 < HNO3

D) HClO4 < HNO3 < B(OH)3 < H2CO3

In which of the following changes, there is no net change in oxidation number?


A) CH4 CH3OH

B) HC CH CH3 C O
|

H
C) CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 CH 3
76.

D) None of these

An alkaline earth element is radioactive. It and its daughter elements decay by emitting three alpha particles
in succession. In what group should the resulting element be found?
A) IVth group of same period

B) IVth group of preceding period

C) IVth group of succeeding period

D) IIIrd group of preceding period

FT14A/MOD/AIIMS/[X1]

77.

Which of the following molecule will have minimum bond length and maximum bond order between nitrogen
and nitrogen atoms?
A) hydrazine

78.

B) azobenzene
B) H2, PtO2

D) all will have same values

C) NaBH4

D) Li-NH3 / C2H5OH

C) CH2Cl2

D) CCl4

Which of the following has highest dipole moment?


A) CH3Cl

80.

C) N2

Which of the following is used for the conversion of 2-hexyne into trans-2-hexene?
A) H2/Pd/BaSO4

79.

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

B) CHCl3

In one of the following reactions HNO3 does not behave as an oxidising agent. Identify it.
A) I2 + 10 HNO3 2HIO3 + 10NO2 + 4H2O
B) 3Cu + 8HNO3 3Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO + 4H2O
C) 4Zn + 10HNO3 4Zn (NO3)2 + NH4NO3 + 3H2O
D) 2HNO3 + P2O5 2HPO3 + N2O5

81.

In which of the following pairs, the first species is a stronger base than the second species?
A) CH3CH2O, CF3CH2O

82.

Coupling of the diazonium salt with the following takes place in the order :

OH

NH2

+
N H3

II

III

IV

A) IV < II < III < I


83.

C) HC C , CH 3CH 2 D) C6H5O, NH2

B) HO, CH3O

B) IV < III < II < I

C) II < IV < I < III

D) I < II < III < IV

Which of the following reaction is spontaneous?


A) Endothermic reaction with positive entropy change and high temperature
B) Endothermic reaction with negative entropy change and low temperature
C) Exothermic reaction with positive entropy change and high temperature
D) Exothermic reaction with negative entropy change and high temperature

84.

The conjugate base of HO(CH2)3NH2 is

A) H 2 O(CH 2 ) 3 NH 2
85.

86.

87.

B) HO(CH 2 )3 N H 3

C) O(CH 2 )3 NH 2

D) HO(CH 2 )3 NH

Amongst NO 3 , AsO 33 , CO 32 , ClO 3 ,SO 32 and BO 33 , the non-planar species are


A) CO 32 ,SO 32 and BO 32

B) AsO 33 , ClO 3 and SO 32

C) NO 3 , CO 32 and BO 33

D) SO 32 , NO 3 and BO 33

When 2, 4 - phenol disulphonic acid is heated with nitric acid, the major product formed is :
A) 2, 4 - dinitrophenol

B) 6 nitro-2, 4- phenol disulphonic acid

C) 2, 4, 6- trinitrophenol

D) 1, 2, 4 - trihydroxybenzene

Methylmagnesium bromide on treatment with carbon disulphide followed by hydrolysis gives:


A) methanethiol

B) dithioacetic acid

C) dimethyl sulphide

D) none of these

FT14A/MOD/AIIMS/[X1]

88.

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

The standard reduction potentials at 298K for the following half reactions are given against each

Zn 2aq 2e Zn s ; 0.762V
Cr3aq 3e Crs ; 0.740V
2Haq 2e H2g ;0.00V
Fe3aq e Fe2aq ;0.770V
Which is the strongest reducing agent?
A) Zn(s)
89.

B) Cr(s)

An aqueous solution of 6.3g of oxalic acid dihydrate is made up to 250ml. The volume of 0.1N NaOH
required to completely neutralise 10ml of this solution is
A) 20ml

90.

B) 40ml

C) 10ml

D) 4ml

A reaction which is of first order w.r.t reactant A, has a rate constant 6min1. It we start with [A]=0.5molL
1
when would [A] reach the value of 0.05 molL1
A) 0.384min

91.

D) Fe3+(aq)

C) H2(g)

In piperidine

B) 0.15min

C) 3min

D) 3.84 min

the hybrid state assumed by N is

H
B) sp2

A) sp
92.

94.

B) Mn CN 6

B) Co NH 3 5 Cl Cl 2

C) Co NH 3 4 Cl 2 Cl

D) Co NH 3 3 Cl3

D) Ni NH 3 6

A solution contains Fe2+, Fe3+ and I ions. This solution was treated with iodine at 35C. E for Fe 3 / Fe 2
is +0.77V and E for I2/2I = 0.536V. The favourable redox reaction is
B) There will be no redox reaction
D) Fe2+ will be oxidised to Fe3+

C) I will be oxidised to I2

When chlorine reacts with cold and dilute solution of sodium hydroxide, the products obtained are
A) Cl+ClO

B) Cl ClO 22

C) Cl ClO 3

D) Cl ClO 4

What are the products formed in the reaction of xenon hexafluoride with silicon dioxide?
A) XeSiO4 HF

97.

C) Co NH3

A) Co NH 3 6 Cl3

96.

Which does not give a precipitate with AgNO3 solution?

A) I2 will be reduced to I
95.

D) dsp2

Which one of the following complexes is outer orbital complex?


A) Fe CN 6

93.

C) sp3

B) XeF2 SiF2

C) XeOF4 SiF4

D) XeO3 SiF2

An aromatic ether is not cleaved by HI even at 525K. The compound is


A) C6 H5OCH3

B) C6 H 5 OC6 H 5

C) C6 H 5 OC3 H 7

D) Tetrahydroguran

FT14A/MOD/AIIMS/[X1]

98.

99.

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Some carboxylic acid and their IUPAC names are given below. Which of the following is not correctly
matched
A) Formic acid

- Methanoic acid

B) Acetic acid

- Ethanoic acid

C) n-butyric acid

- Butanoic acid

D) Iso-butyric acid

- 2-methylbutanoic acid

The aldol condensation of acetaldehyde results in the formation of

CH3 - CH - CH2 - CH
A) CH3 - C - CHCH3

B)

OH

O OH
CH3CH2 - CH - CH
C)

D) CH3 CH2 OH + CH3COOH

OH O

100. Generally +4 oxidation state is prefered in actinides. A few actinide elements can exist in the +6 oxidation
state. Example of an actinide element existing in +6 oxidation state in:
A) Cerium

B) Europium

C) Thorium

D) Uranium

Directions : In each of the following questions, a statement of assertion is given followed by a


corresponding statement of reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :
A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D) If assertion and reason are false
101. Assertion : Neither pure H2SO4 nor pure HClO4 conducts electric current but a mixture of two does.
Reason : Both are strong acids
102. Assertion : When optically active (+)-1-chloro-2-methylbutane is chlorinated a non-optically active

( ) 1, 2 dichloro 2 methylbu tan e is formed


Reason : It occurs via free radical mechanism
103. Assertion : Dimethylcyclopropane shows cis-trans isomerism
Reason : It has one double bond
104. Assertion : Solution of lithium salt conducts electricity better than the solution of same concentratoin of
caesium salt
Reason : Size of Cs+ ion is smaller than that of Li+ ion
105. Assertion : A solution of sucrose in water is dextrorotatory but on hydrolysis in presence of little hydrochloric
acid, it becomes laevorotatory.
Reason : Sucrose on hydrolysis gives unequal amounts of glucose and fructose as a result of which change
in sign of rotation is observed
106. Assertion : Alkyl isocyanides in acidified water give alkyl formamides
Reason : In isocyanides, carbon first acts as a nucleophile and then as an electrophile
107. Assertion : The [Ni(en)3]Cl2 has lower stability than [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2
Reason : In [Ni(en)3]Cl2 the geometry of Ni is trigonal bipyramidal
108. Assertion : Enthalpy changes are positive when Na2SO4. 10H2O, CuSO4.5H2O and salt like NaCl, KCl etc.
which do not form hydrates which are dissolved in water. But enthalpy changes are negative when anhydrous
salts capable of forming hydrates are dissolved in water.
Reason : The difference in the behaviour is due to large difference in the molecular weights of hydrated and
anhydrous salts.

FT14A/MOD/AIIMS/[X1]

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

10

109. Assertion : On cooling a mixture, colour of the mixture turns to pink from deep blue for a reaction

Co(H 2O)62 (aq) 4Cl(aq)


CoCl42 (aq) 6H 2O(l )

Reason : Reaction is endothermic, so on cooling, the reaction moves to backward direction.


110. Assertion : Tertiary haloalkanes are more reactive than primary haloalkanes towards elimination reactions
Reason : The +I effect of the alkyl group weakens the C-X bond
111. Assertion : Debromination of meso-2, 3-dibromobutane gives only trans-but-2-ene while (+) or (-) 2, 3dibromobutane gives cis-but-2-ene
Reason : Both reactions are stereoselective reactions
112. Assertion : He and Ne do not form any clathrates.
Reason : Both He and Ne have very large size
113. Assertion : At very high concentration of NH3, the decomposition of NH3 on the surface of finely divided
catalyst is a zero order reaction, whereas at lower concentration of NH3, the decomposition becomes a first
order reaction.
Reason : At lower concentration, the rate of decomposition is proportional to the fraction of the catalyst
covered
114. Assertion: Of the various chlorides of alkaline earth metals BeCl2 is covalent in nature whereas M9Cl2 and
CaCl2 are ionic compounds
Reason: Be is the first member of group 2
115. Assertion: Copper obtained after bassemerization is known as blister copper
Reason: Blisters are produced on the surface of the metal due to escaping of dissolved SO2
116. Assertion: Cu2+ nd Cd2+ are separated from each other by first adding KCN solution and then passing H2S
gas
Reason: KCN reduces Cu2+ to Cu+ and forms a complex with it
117. Assertion: Many endothermic reactions that are not spontaneous at room temperature become spontaneous
at high temperature
Reason: Entropy of the system increaseswith increase in temperature
118. Assertion: The relation

x
k.p1/n is known as Freundlich adsorption isotherm, where x is the mass of gas
m

adsorbed by m grams of adsorbate, P is the equilibrium pressure, k and n are constants for given system and
temperature
Reason: When several substances have same value of

1
the lines by which their adsorption isotherms can
n

be represented will meet at a point


119. Assertion : The energy of an electron is largely determined by its principal quantum number
Reason : The principal quantum number is a measure of the most possible distance of finding the electron
around the nucleus
120. Assertion : Graphite is an example of tetragonal crystal system
Reason : For a tetragonal system a = b c, 90o , 120o
BIOLOGY
121. Crack is obtained from
A) Cannabis sativa

B) Atropa belladona

C) Erythroxylon coca

D) Papaver somniferum

122. In Periplanata the legs are seen attached to


A) abdomen

B) cephalothorax

C) thorax

D) head

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123. Thyroid gland is located on either side of trachea and is composed of two lobes. Both the lobes are
interconnected by a thin flap of connective tissue called
A) fundus

B) ampulla

C) infundibulum

D) isthmus

B) gonadocorticoid

C) mineralocorticoid

D) glucocorticoid

124. Cortisol is a
A) catecholamine

125. Which of the following hormone can interact with intracellular receptors and can regulate gene expression
or chromosome function by the interaction of hormone-receptor complex with the genome
A) estradiol

B) epinephrine

C) insulin

D) glucagon

126. Gastric juice contains


A) pepsin, lipase and renin

B) trypsin, pepsin and renin

C) trypsin, pepsin and lipase

D) pepsin, lipase and rennin

127. Plasma without the clotting factors is called


A) serosa

B) serology

C) antiserum

D) serum

C) CCK

D) Enterogastrone

C) brown sugar

D) charas

128. Which of the following releases bile ?


A) Secretin

B) Gastrin

129. Diacetyl morphine is commonly called as


A) morphine

B) heroin

130. The practice of mating of animals within the same breed, but having no common ancestors on either side of
their pedigree up to 46 generation is called
A) interspecific hybridisation

B) out crossing

C) cross breeding

D)close inbreeding

131. Each immunoglobin molecule shows two heavy chains and two light chains. The antigen binding site is
present in
A) the variable region of heavy chains
B) the constant region of light chains
C) between the light chains
D) between the variable region of both heavy and light chains
132. Statements
a) Vasectomy prevents gametogenesis
b) All venereal disease are completely curable
c) Oral contraceptives are very popular among rural women
d) Amniocentesis can be used for sex determination
Of the above statements
A) a,b and c are true but d is false

B) a, b and c are false but d is true

C) a and b are false but c and d are true

D) a and d are false but b and c are true

133. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) means


A) transfer of male gametes into the fallopian tube
B) transfer of actively motile sperms into the oviduct
C) simultaneous transfer of both sperm and ovum into the fallopian tube
D) transfer of an ovum from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce one
134. The reproductive cycle of a female primate is called
A) oestrous cycle

B) menstrual cycle

C) state of anoestrum

D) quiescence

135. Miller and Urey performed an experiment to prove the origin of life. The took gases NH3 and H2 along with
A) N2 and H2O

B) CH4 and H2O

C) CH4 and N2

D) CO2 and NH4

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12

136. Darwins finches refers to


A) climatic variation

B) behavioral isolation

C) reproductive isolation D) geographical isolation

137. Industrial melanism was highlighted by


A) silk moth

B) dark winged peppered moth

C) tasmanian wolf

D) polar bear

138. The cranial capacity was largest among


A) Homo erectus

B) Homo habilis

C) Neanderthal man

D) Dryopithecus

139. Hardy Weinburg equilibrium is known to be affected by


A) gene flow

B) natural selection

C) genetic drift

D) all the above

C) pancreatic juice

D) succus entericus

140. Carboxy peptidase is a component of


A) saliva

B) gastric juice

Assertion - Reason Type


Directions : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given by corresponding
statement of Reason of the statement mark the correct answer as
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason are correct explanation of Assertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
C) Assertion is true but Reason is false
D) Assertion is false but reason is true
E) Assertion and reason are false
141. Assertion : The imbalance in concentration of Na+, K+ and proteins generates resting potential
Reason : To maintain the unequal distribution of Na+and K+, the neurons use electrical energy.
142. Assertion : Heroine is also called smack
Reason : Heroin is an opium alkaloide
143. Assertion : An antibody is represented by H2L2
Reason : Each antibody is made of four peptide chains
144. Assertion : Dibetic patients have to be very careful during medication.
Reason : Excessive intake of steroid drugs can further cause diabetes mellitus
145. Assertion : All the finches on the galapagoes islands descended from common ancestor
Reason : They show variations only in their beaks as they got adapted to different feeding habits.
146. Assertion : During fertilization only head of spermatozoa enters egg
Reason : If several spermatozoa hit the egg at same time, all can enter the egg
147. Assertion : Cutaneous respiration occurs in earthworms.
Reason : Lungs are absent in earthworms
148. Assertion : Oxytocin is also called the birth hormone
Reason : Oxytocin helps in contraction of uterine muscles.
149. Assertion : In man, only peripheral nervous system is present
Reason : The peripheral nervous system includes nerves coursing between the central nervous system and
different parts of the body
150. Assertion : Biceps and triceps are called antagonistic muscles
Reason : This is due to the fact that they contract and relax together.
151. Choose the set of Deuteromycetous fungi:A) Mucor, Rhizopus, Albugo

B) Aspergillus, Claviceps, Neurospora

C) Agaricus, Ustilago, Puccinia

D) Alternaria, Colletotrichum, Trichoderma

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152. Read the following statements (ae):a) Salvinia is a heterophyllous, heterosporous, floating aquatic fern which lacks roots.
b) Pinus is a Gymnosperm with mycorrhizal roots.
c) Double fertilisation is unique to Angiosperms.
d) The male or female cones or strobili may be borne on the same tree (Cycas) or on different trees (Pinus).
e) Mycoplasma-lack cell wall, smallest living cells known, can survive without oxygen, pathogenic in animals
and plants.
How many of the above statements are right?
A) Four

B) Three

C) Two

D) One

153. A pathogenic bacterium, which causes tumours and commonly called Natural genetic engineer:A) Thermus aquaticus

B) Agrobacterium tumifaciens

C) Bacillus thuringiensis

D) Escherichia coli

154. Which of the following provides the optimal conditions for achieving the desired product by providing optimum
growth conditions (temperature, pH, substrate, salts, vitamins, oxygen):A) Bioreactor

B) Micro-injection

C) Biolistics

D) Gene gun

155. Choose the wrongly matched pair:A) Cycas - Coralloid roots

B) Marchantia - Gemmae

C) Sphagnum - Peat

D) Rhodophyta - Algin

156. One of the following is a Chilli variety, which is resistant to Chilly mosaic virus, Tobacco mosaic virus and leaf
curl, developed in our country:A) Himgiri

B) Pusa Sadabahar

C) Pusa Komal

D) Pusa Shubhra

157. A non-membrane bound organelles found in all cells-both eukaryotic as well as prokaryotic, and with in
certain other cell organelles:A) Nucleus

B) Mitochondria

C) Ribosomes

D) Chondrioids

158. The most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere:A) PEP case

B) RuBisCO

C) Collagen

D) Glutenin

159. Chromosomal behaviour occuring during different substages of prophase I of meiosis is given below, select
which is suited to diplotene:A) Chromosomes start pairing together.
B) Bivalent/tetrad, clearly visible.
C) Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex and the tendency of recombined homologous chromosomes of
the bivalents to separate from each other except at the sites of crossovers.
D) Terminalisation of chiasmata.
160. Edible fleshy thalamus, fleshy aril, fleshy mesocarp and endosperm are found respectively in:A) Apple, Litchi, Coconut, Mango

B) Litchi, Apple, Mango, Coconut

C) Apple, Litchi, Mango, Coconut

D) Coconut, Mango, Litchi, Apple

161. Most common type of endosperm development in Angiosperms:A) Monosporic type

B) Free nuclear type

C) Cellular type

D) Helobial type

162. A naturally occuring phenomenon that is responsible for heating of Earths surface and atmosphere:A) Biomagnification

B) Green house effect

C) Slash and burn agriculture

D) Jhum cultivation

163. Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simple inorganic substances, this process is called:A) Fragmentation

B) Leaching

C) Catabolism

D) Weathering

164. One of the following is a homocystous Cyanobacterium, exhibiting movements which can fix atmospheric
ntirogen:A) Anabaena

B) Oscillatoria

C) Nostoc

D) Azospirillum

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14

165. The one which has dual functions ie it codes for Methionine and it also act as initiator codon:A) AUG

B) AUC

C) AUU

D) AUA

166. Identify the correct order of steps involved in southern blot hybridisation using radiolabelled VNTR as a
probe:I) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe.
II) Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography.
III) Isolation of DNA.
IV) Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis.
V) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases.
VI) Transfer of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes.
A) III V IV VI I II

B) III IV V I VI II

C) II III IV V VI I

D) II I III IV V VI

167. Find out the mismatching pair:A) Bacteriophage ( 174) - 5386 nucleotides

B) Bacteriophage lamda - 48502 base pairs

C) Escherichia coli - 4.6 x 106 bp

D) Haploid content of human DNA - 23.3 x 109 bp.

168. The scientist who used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a
measure of the distance between genes and mapped their position on the chromosome:A) Sutton and Boveri

B) Alfred Sturtevant

C) T.H. Morgan

D) Henking

169. Find out the mis-matched pair:A) Calcium - Needed during formation of mitotic spindle fibres.
B) Sulphur - Constituent of aminoacids like cysteine and methionine.
C) Manganese - Essential for the structural cohesion of two sub units of ribosomes.
D) Chlorine - Essential for water splitting reaction in photosynthesis.
170. Select the false statement from the following:A)In roots, the protoxylem lies towards periphery and metaxylem lies towards the centre.
B) Phloem fibres are made up of sclerenchymatous cells and these are generally absent in the primary
phloem but are found in the secondary phloem.
C) In Dicot stems, the cambium present between primary xylem and primary phloem is called interfascicular
cambium.
D) The tissues involved in secondary growth are the two lateral meristems - vascular cambium and cork
cambium.
Assertion - Reason type
A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D) If both assertion and assertion are false
171. Assertion (A) : Vernalization is acceleration of subsequent flowering by low temperature treatment
Reason (R) : Site of vernalization is apical meristem
172. Assertion (A) : Dark reaction is purely enzymatic reaction
Reason (R) : It occurs only in absence of light
173. Assertion (A) : The plant biomass which serves as the food of herbivores and decomposers is said to result
from the gross primary productivity
Reason (R) : Gross primary productivity is the rate of net production of organic material (biomass)

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15

174. Assertion (A) : Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA to produce sticky ends
Reason (R) : Stickiness of the ends facilitates the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase
175. Assertion (A) : Pollen mother cells (PMCs) are the first male gametophytic cells.
Reason (A) : Each PMC gives rise to two pollens
176. Assertion (A) : Loss of water produces a negative hydrostatic pressure
Reason (R) : Positive hydrostatic pressure is developed due to osmotic entry of water into it
177. Assertion (A) : DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in specific regions in DNA sequence.
Reason (R) : DNA fingerprinting is the basis of paternity testing.
178. Assertion (A) : Movement of materials inside phloem is bidirectional ie, it can be both upwards or downwards
Reason (R) : Movement of molecules inside xylem is unidirectional ie, always upwards.
179. Assertion (A) : Plant growth as a whole is indefinite.
Reason (R) : Plants retain the capacity of continuous growth throughout their life.
180. Assertion (A) : A geneticist crossed two plants, he got 50% tall and 50% dwarf progenies.
Reason (R) : It follows Mendelian law as one of the parent plant might be heterozygous.
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
181. Which of the following rivers falls in the Bay of Bengal?
A) Krishna

B) Tapti

C) Narmada

D) Pamba

182. The nutrient required for laxuriant vegetation growth is:


A) Potash

B) Urea

C) Single super phosphate

D) Triple super phosphate

183. Urea is stored in the


A) Pancreas

B) Kidney

C) Spleen

D) Liver

C) Hygrometer

D) Hydrometer

C) Potentiometer

D) Lactometer

C) Westerlies

D) All the above

C) 1923

D 1910

184. Atmospheric pressure is measured by


A) Barometer

B) Manometer

185. Relative Humidity of atmosphere is measured by


A) Hydrometer

B) Hygrometer

186. Planetary winds consist of


A) Doldrums

B) Trade winds

187. Delhi became capital of India in


A) 1916

B) 1911

188. Which of the following battles was fought between Ibrahim Lodi and Babar?
A) First Battle of Panipat B) Battle of plassey
C) Second Battle of Panipat

D) Third Battle of Panipat

189. The first Railway line in India was started in


A) 1853

B) 1883

C) 1835

D) 1828

190. Cultivation of cashew nuts was first introduced by the


A) Dutch

B) English

C) Portuguese

D) French

191. The constitution clearly defines the division of power between the centre and States through the three lists,
nemely the Union, state and the concurrent lists. The ...........schedule details the subjects contained in these
lists
A) 3rd

B) 4th

C) 5th

D) 7th

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192. On account of the presence of a large number of non-federal features in the Indian Constitution, India is
often described as a quasi federal country. Which of the following is NOT a non-federal feature of the
constitution
(i) The creation of a very strong centre
(ii) The creation of a single citizenship for all
(iii) Equal representation to the states in the Rajya Sabha
(iv) Exclusive right of parliamnt to propose amendments to the constitution
(v) The presence of a single judiciary with the Supreme court at its apex
A) (i), (ii)

B) Only (v)

C) Only (iii)

D) none of these

193. The responsibility of the Union Territory falls on .................if the legislatures of these teritories are dissolved
or suspended
A) The Prime Minister

B) The President

C) The Union Home Minister

D) The parliament

194. Which of the following can be regarded as a statement of promises to keep over a period of time?
A) Preamble

B) Directive principles

C) Fundamental rights

D) Both (A) and (B)

195. When there is a deadlock between the two Houses of parliament over a Bill, it is referred to the
A) Supreme Court

B) President

C) Union Cabinet

D) Joint session of parliament

196. Fundamental Duties enumerated under the 42nd Amendment is a concept borrowed from the constitution of
A) Ireland

B) The USA

C) The USSR

D) The UK

197. Meat or fish sprinkled with salt remains free from moulds and bacteria for a long time since
A) Salts absorb moisture from meat
B) Moulds and bacteria cannot decompose meat
C) They lose water by plasmolysis and become dried
D) Enzymes of meat digest these organisms
198. Who amongst the following Chola kings fought against the Shailendra king of Shri. Vijaya and defeated him?
A) Parantaka I

B) Sundar Chola or Parantaka II

C) Rajaraja Chola

D) Rajendra Chola

199. Nadir Shah invaded India in the reign of


A) Farukhaiyar

B) Jahandar Shah

C) Mohammed Shah

D) Akbarshah II

200. Which one of the following was the last of the Jain Tirthankaras?
A) Rishav Dev

B) Paras Vanath

C) Mahavir

D) Bhadrababu

Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE
PA L A

Name ................................................
Batch.................... Roll No. ...............

AIIMS REHEARSAL MODEL EXAM

26- 05- 2014

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

D
Electrostatic pressure P

X1

Key with Hints

FT14A/MOD/AIIMS/[X1]

1.

VE RSI ON

2
2
2
; Force F = PA = 2 R
2 0
0

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

1 1 1 1 L 3
1H
LP L L L 3 3

14.

15.

16.

d
R

v
412 ; When cut, one pipe becomes closed and the other open. Thus frequencies are
4l

v
v
and
4(l/2)
2(l / 2)
17.

D
D 3 200 5000 10
x n 2n
; x3 2 3

0.2 101
2d
2d

1.5cm

18.

19.

20.

Let A , B be the density of cylinders A and B of volume VA and VB and be the density of

useful work
15 gh
15

100 20%
Total work 60 15 gh 75

water.
As per question, VA A g

21.

A
2
1
4/3
VA g or A 2 / 3 & VBB g VBg or B / 2
B
2
3

FT14A/MOD/AIIMS/[X1]

22.

23.

24.

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

3
RA 4 0.7 10
L

=280m

2.2 10 8
2

25.

length of wire is

26.

CM of Ig, 2g,3g at 2, 2, 2 ;

Mass of 1 + 2 + 3 = 6g at, (2, 2, 2)

New mass 4g is placed at r such that new CM at (0, 0, 0)


X an 0; Yan 0; Z an 0

27.

Eg

GM
;
r2

1 1
1 1

E g G 2 2 2 2 ......
1
2
4
8

1
1 1

E g G 1
...... ;
4
16
64

6 2 4 r
;
10

1
Eg G

1 1
4

4r 12

Eg

4G
3

r 3

From Symmetry r 3, 3, 3
28.

29.

0.42 0.82 c2 1; c 0.2

30.

W2 x 2 10
1
1
2
2
4
W1 = kx1 6.25 N m ; W2 = kx 2 ;
W1 x1 5
2
2
2

W2 = 4W1 = 25; W 25 6.25 18.75 Nm


31.

4r 3
Volume of sphere V =
3
VP 4 (0.2)3 106

Decrease in volume V =
; 0.2 10-6 m3 = 0.2 cm3
B
3 1.7 1011

32.

33.

34.

35.

n1

2
2

n
T
2
m1 2.
2

T
n1
m1
r 2 d
1

m2 ;
2
n2
m2
4r d 2

FT14A/MOD/AIIMS/[X1]

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

1
1
mVA2 mg 1 cos mV02
2
2

36.

Applying conservation of energy

37.

2
If t is the time interval between first and third drop h 1 2 gt ; t

2h
25

1sec
g
10

1
1
/
Distance covered by second drop, h g = 1.25 m
2
2

Height of second drop above ground = h h /


38.

Consider the origin at x = 0, let the equilibrium be established at a distance r from the origin. From the
law of conservation of moments.

22 32 .......1002 1 2 3 ......100 r

100 100 1 200 1 100 100 1 r


6

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

Since E

dv
;
dx

; r

201
67cm
3

x 31
dv K x 3dx ; V K
;
3 1

ie, V

K
2x 2

FT14A/MOD/AIIMS/[X1]

61.

62.

63.

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Osmotic pressure ( ) = CRT


T

or = iCRT
T

i = Vans Hoff factor for NaCl i = 2

C
64.

65.

7.8
0.16ml / L
2 0.0831 310

One molecule of Haemoglobin contain four haem groups. Each haem group is capable of taking up
one molecule of O2. Thus each Fe2+ ion can bind one molecule of O2 to form oxyhaemoglobin.

Hb 4O 2 Hb(O 2 ) 4
66.

Acidic Nature is due to presence of -SO3 Na group.

+
NaO3 S
67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

N=N

N(CH3)2

It is an alcoholic solution of I2 ( 2 -3%)

+
N(CH3)3I

CH3I
NH2

excess

+
N(CH3)3OH

Ag 2O

H 2O,

+ (CH3)3N + H2O

This reactionis called Hofmann exhaustive methylation


72.

CH3 NH2

B
Initial

0.1

HCl CH3 NH3Cl


CH3 NH3

H O

0.08 mol

OH
0

(limiting reactant)
At. eqm. (0.1 - 0.08)

0.08 mol

0.08 mol

= 0.02 mol

K b CH 3 NH 2 (5 104 ) (0.02)
CH 3 NH 3 OH

OH

1.25 104 M
Kb

or,
CH 3 NH 3
0.08
CH 3 NH 2

[H ]

Kw
1014

8 1011
[OH ] 1.25 104

FT14A/MOD/AIIMS/[X1]

73.

H BE(reac tan ts) BE(products) ;

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

1
1

200 BE(X 2 ) BE(Y2 ) BE(XY)


2
2

1
1
(x) (0.5x) x 0.5x 0.25x x 0.25x
2
2

or, x = 800 kJ mol-1

74.

Greater the pKa (-logKa) value weaker the acid. Perchloric acid (HClO4) is the strongest acid
followed by nitric acid (HNO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3). Boric acid (H3BO3) is the weakest
acid.

75.

In HC CH, each carbon is in -1 oxidation state.


1

Now, in

C H3 C O
|

C1 is in -3 oxidation state and C2 in +1.

H
Hence, average value =

3 1
1 ; Hence, no net change in oxidation number
2

76.

In emitting three alpha particles six protons as well as six neutrons are lost from the nucleus. The
atomic number is reduced by six and the resulting element is in group IV of the preceding period.

77.

N N has maximum bond order (= 3) and hence minimum bond length

78.

Reduction of 2-hexyne with Li-NH3/C2H5OH gives trans-2-hexene.

CH3
Li NH3 ,C2H5OH
(Birch reduction )

CH 3C CCH 2CH 2CH 3

H
C

CH2CH2CH3

trans-2-hexene
79.

CCl4 has zero dipole moment. Out of CHCl3, CH2Cl2 and CH3Cl, CH3Cl will have maximum dipole
moment.
Cl

C
H

H
H

80.

In HNO3 and N2O5, the oxidation state of N remains +5

81.

Due to electron - withdrawing nature of CF3 group, CH3CH2O is a stronger base than CF3CH2O .
In all other options, the second species is more basic than the first.

82.

Coupling is an electrophilic substitution reaction, therefore, higher the electron-density more facile is
the reaction. Since the electron-donating effect of groups follows the order.

O NH 2 OH N H 3 ;
83.

Therefore, the correct order of reactivity is IV < II < III < I

For exothermic reaction, H ve.If S is +ve, reaction is always spontaneous. However if S


is -ve but T is so low that H TS in magnitude, process is spontaneous.

FT14A/MOD/AIIMS/[X1]

84.

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

Since O - H is more acidic than NH2, therefore, O(CH2)3NH2 is the conjugate base of the acid
HO(CH 2) 3NH 2.

HO(CH 2 )3 NH 2 H 2O O(CH 2 )3 NH 2 H 3O
acid

85.

conjugate base

NO 3 , CO 32 and BO 33 have sp2 hybridisation and hence are planar species while AsO33-, ClO3
and SO32- have sp3 hybridisation and hence are non-planar species

86.

Nitration occurs with simultaneous displacement of SO3H groups, ie,

OH

OH

SO3H

O 2N

NO2

HNO3

H 2SO 4

SO3H

NO2
2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol (picric acid)

2, 4-phenol-disulphonic acid
S
||

S
||

87.

H / H 2O
CH 3MgBr S C S CH 3 C SMgBr
CH 3 C SH
Mg(OH)Br

88.

Since oxidation potential of Zn is highest hence strongest reducing agent

89.

Normality of oxalic acid =

dithioacetic acid

6.3 1000
0.4N
63 250

N1V1 N 2 V2 10 0.4 v 0.1 40ml

2.303
a
2.303
0.5
log

log
0.384 min
k
ax
6
0.05

90.

91.

Hybridsation of N

92.

93.

1
5 3 0 0 4 hencesp3
2

Co NH Cl will not give precipitate with AgNO solution as it does not have ionisable
3 3

chloride ion}
94.

given Fe 3 / Fe 2 0.77V
and I 2 / 2I 0.536V

2 e Fe 3 Fe 2 E o 0.77V
2I I 2 2e
E o 0.536V
2Fe 3 2I 2Fe 2 I 2 E o E oox E orad

FT14A/MOD/AIIMS/[X1]

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

0.770.536=0.164V
Hence the above reaction will occur
95.

2NaOH Cl2 NaCl NaOCl H2O hence Cl

96.

2Xe F6 SiO2 SiF4 2XeOF4

97.

and OCl

Due to greater electronegativity of sp2 hybridized carbon atoms of the benzene ring, diaryl ethers
are not attacked by nucleophiles like I

CH3
98.

CH3 - CH - COOH General-iso-butyric acid


IUPAC : 2 methyl propanoic acid
CH 3 - CH + CH 3 CHO

99.

NaOH

CH 3 - CH - CH 2 CHO

B
O

OH

100. D

Uranium, Neptunium & plutonium can exist in the +6 oxidation state

101. B

SO4 nor pure HClO4 are ionised. In the mixture of the two acids, HClO4, being a
stronger acid than H2SO4, donates a proton to H2SO4, which acts as a base.
N

HOClO3 HOSO3H H 2 OSO3H OClO3


acid

base

102. B
103. C

Dimethyl cyclopropane is a ring hydrocarbon. As the ring is rigid, therefore rotation about C - C
bond is prohibited. The substitution can be on the same side of ring (cis) or on the opposite sides
(trans)

104. A
105. C

Sucrose on hydrolysis gives equal amounts of glucose and fructose. Since glucose has less positive
and fructose has more negative magnitude of rotation, therefore, change in sign of rotation is
observed.

106. A

In an isocyanide, first an electrophile and then a nucleophile add at the carbon to form a species
which usually undergoes further transformations.

Nu
R N C E R N CE
RN C(Nu)E

R N C H 2O R N CHOH RNHCHO
alkylformamide

107. D

[Ni(en)3]Cl2 is a chelating compound and chelated complexes are more stable than similar complexes with unidentate ligands as dissociation of the complex involves breaking of two bonds rather
than one.
In [Ni(en)3]Cl2, Ni with d8 configuration shows octahedral geometry.

108. C

The exothermic or endothermic behaviour of dissolution depends only upon the nature of the salt
and not on its molecular weight.

FT14A/MOD/AIIMS/[X1]

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

109. A

Co(H2O)62+ is pink while CoCl42- is blue. So, on cooling, because of Le Chaterliers principle, the
reaction tries to overcome the effect of temperature.

110. B

Due to steric hindrance, tertiary haloalkanes do not prefer to undergo substitution but instead
undergo elimination.

111. C

Here both the reactions are stereospecific reactions. A reaction is said to be stereospecific if a
particular stereoisomer of the reactant produces a specific stereoisomer of the product.

112. C

He and Ne are too small to be entrapped in the cavities of crystal lattices of substances

113. B

When [NH3] is very low, k2[NH3] can b e neglected so that rate = k1[NH3] i.e., it is of first order.
When [NH3] is high, 1 can be neglected in comparison to k2[NH3] so that rate = k1/k2 = k i.e. it is
of zero order.

114. B
115. A
116. B
117. B
118. A
119. A
120. D
121. C

141. C

161. B

181. A

122. C

142. C

162. B

182. B

123. D

143. A

163. C

183. D

124. D

144. A

164. B

184. A

125. A

145. A

165. A

185. B

126. D

146. C

166. A

186. D

127. D

147. B

167. D

187. B

128. C

148. A

168. B

188. A

129. B

149. D

169. C

189. A

130. B

150. C

170. C

190. C

131. D

151. D

171. B

191. D

132. B

152. A

172. C

192. C

133. D

153. B

173. D

193. B

134. B

154. A

174. C

194. B

135. B

155. D

175. D

195. D

136. D

156. B

176. B

196. C

137. B

157. C

177. B

197. A

138. C

158. B

178. B

198. D

139. D

159. C

179. A

199. C

140. C

160. C

180. A

200. C