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Radiation and wave

propagation
Transmission Fundamentals
Wire and Wireless

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Communications Chapter 7

QUESTIONS IN:

Modulation Chapter 3

Test yourself- Exam 1-10


Noise Chapter 4

Antennas Chapter 6

Satellite Communications

Chapter 10
Optical Fiber Communications

Broadcasting

Microwave Communications

Acoustics

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5.

Test Yourself Exam 01

1.

ECE Board Exam March 1996


i
That dielectric material of an optical
s
fiber surrounding
the core
A. Cladding
a
B. Armor
C. Shieldy
D. Cover
a
2. ECE Board Exam March 1996
An antenna
, that is circularly polarized is
the ____________.
A. parabolic reflector
B. helicalL
C. Yagi-uda
D. small u
circular loop
3. ECE Board
z Exam March 1996
A word in telegraphy consist of
__________ characters plus a word
space. R
A. 11
B. 7 and e
C. 8
g
D. 5
i Exam March 1996
4. ECE Board
The number
n of voice band channels in
master group per CCITT standard is
e
__________.
A. 300
B. 480
C. 600

6.

7.

8.

D. 120
B
ECE Board Exam March 1996
. of standard test tone is
The power
normally ____________.
A. 1 dB
B. 0 mW
C. 1 mW
D. 1 W
ECE Board Exam March 1996
LORAN is a navigational system used
primarily for _____________.
A. blind landing
B. obtaining your fixes location over
large distances
C. automatic collision warning
D. approach control
ECE Board Exam March 1996
The expander in a companding device
provides ___________.
A. greater amplification for low signal
levels
B. less amplification for low signal
levels
C. greater amplification for high signal
levels
D. lesser pressure for transmission
cables
ECE Board Exam March 1996
LORAN is a navigation system used
primarily for
A. approach control
B. obtaining fixes over large distances
C. blind landing
D. automatic collision warning

9.

ECE Board Exam March 1996


At what power level does a 1 kHz tone
cause zero interference (144 weighted) ?
A. -90 dB
B. -90 dBm
C. 90 dBm
D. 90 dB
10. ECE Board Exam March 1996
One character or a sequence of
characters forming a part, or the whole
of a message with a specific meaning
A. Signs
B. Call sign
C. Code
D. Identifier
11. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The K-factor under normal atmospheric
conditions in a microwave radio data
profile calculation is equal to
___________.
A. 2/3
B. 0
C. 4/3
D. Infinity
12. ECE Board Exam March 1996
What is the IBMs asynchronous data
link protocol designation?
A. 83 B
B. 8A1 / 8B1
C. 93 B
D. 9A1/ 9B1
13. ECE Board Exam March 1996
EIRP stands for _______________.
A. effective isotropic refracted power

B. effective and ideal radiated power


C. effective isotropic reflected power
D. effective isotropic radiated power
14. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The modulation system used for
telegraphy is
A. frequency-shift keying
B. two-tone modulation
C. pulse-code modulation
D. single-tone modulation
15. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The standard that specifies a balanced
interface cable that will operate bit rates
up to 10 Mbps with in a span distances
up to 1200 m.
A. RS-423A
B. RS-422A
C. RS-550A
D. RS-449A
16. ECE Board Exam March 1996
An antenna which is not resonant at a
particular frequencies and so can be used
over a wide band of frequencies and so
can be used over a wide band of
frequencies is called
A. aperiodic
B. boresight
C. cassegrain
D. top-loaded
17. ECE Board Exam March 1996
A receiver connected to an antenna
whose resistance is 50 ohms has an
equivalent noise resistance of 30 ohms.

What is the receivers noise


temperature?
A. 754 K
B. 464 K
C. 174 K
D. 293 K
18. ECE Board Exam March 1996
___________ occurs when the
microwave beam is at point of grazing
over an obstacle.
A. Diffraction
B. Refraction
C. Absorption
D. Reflection
19. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Atmospheric condition is controlled by
A. humidity
B. pressure
C. temperature
D. all of these
20. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The characteristics impedance of a
transmission line does not depend upon
its ________.
A. conductor spacing
B. conductor diameter
C. length
D. conductor radius
21. ECE Board Exam March 1996
What is the purpose of a beat frequency
oscillator (BFO)?
A. Aid in the reception of weak voicemodulated signals

B. Generates a signal, whose frequency


is the same as that of the
intermediate frequency
C. Generates a 1kHz note for Morse
code reception
D. Generates an output, whose
frequency differs from that of the
intermediate frequency by 1 kHz
22. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The point on the satellite orbit, closest to
the earth is
A. prograde
B. perigee
C. zenith
D. apogee
23. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The potential difference between any
exposed structured to ground in any
electrical installation should not exceed
_________ volts RMS.
A. 10
B. 45
C. 0
D. 30
24. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The capture area of an antenna is
directly proportional to the
A. frequency of the received signal
B. distance between transmitter and
receiver
C. gain of the antenna
D. power density of the signal
25. ECE Board Exam March 1996

Modems are required to connect


computer to telephone lines because
___________.
A. telephone company rules required
them
B. the telephone network bandwidth is
too high
C. none of the above
D. the telephone network will pass
direct current
26. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The standard reference antenna for the
directive gain is ___________.
A. elementary doublet
B. isotropic antenna
C. half-wave dipole
D. infinitesimal dipole
27. ECE Board Exam March 1996
One hundred twenty bars of pressure
variation is equal to
A. 120 dBSPL
B. 115.56 dBSPL
C. 41.58 dBSPL
D. 57.78 dBSPL
28. ECE Board Exam March 1996
It is a spacecraft placed in orbit around
the earth carrying onboard microwave
receiver and transmitting equipments.
A. Fiber optic equipment
B. Communications satellite
C. Wireless radio system
D. Coaxial cable syste
29. ECE Board Exam March 1996

One type of pulse communications


system uses pulse that appear as a group,
and which vary in number according to
the loudness of the voice. This type of
pulse modulation is called
A. pulse duration modulation
B. pulse amplitude modulation
C. pulse code modulation
D. pulse position modulation
30. ECE Board Exam March 1996
A device to be connected across the
headset in telephone receivers to reduce
the effects of acoustic shock.
A. Ground
B. Two rectifiers in parallel with
opposite polarities
C. Protector
D. Fuse
31. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Judgment on the case against an ECE
shall become final and executory after
A. 10 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 15 days
32. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The equivalent noise temperature of the
amplifier is 25 K. What is the noise
figure?
A. 1.86
B. 0.1086
C. 1.086
D. 10.86
33. ECE Board Exam March 1996

The letter-number designation B8E is a


form of modulation also known as
___________.
A. pilot carrier system
B. independent sideband emission
C. lincomplex
D. vestigial sideband transmission
34. ECE Board Exam March 1996
When the transmitting and receiving
antennas are in line-of-sight of each
other, the mode of propagation is
________ wave.
A. space or direct
B. ground
C. surface
D. sky
35. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Crosstalk coupling is ___________.
A. dBm (disturbing pair) minus dBm
(disturbed pair)
B. the difference between readings on a
cable pair with a tone and a cable
pair without tone read at the far end
of a cable
C. signals from one circuit that get into
another circuit
D. All of these are true
36. ECE Board Exam March 1996
According to the Nyquist theorem, the
sampling rate that can be used in a PCM
system is ________ the highest audio
frequency.
A. once
B. eight times

C. twice
D. thrice
37. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Passive crossover components cause
some frequencies to be delayed with
respect to the other frequencies at the
crossover point.
A. Phase shift
B. Phase correction
C. Phase-error correction
D. Time alignment
38. ECE Board Exam March 1996
A car horn outdoors produces a sound
intensity level of 90 dB at 10 ft away. At
this distance, what is the sound power in
watt?
A. 12 W
B. 0.12 W
C. 0.012 W
D. 1.2 W
39. ECE Board Exam March 1996
What is the one principal difference
between synchronous and asynchronous
transmission?
A. the pulse height are different
B. the clocking is derived from the data
in synchronous transmission
C. the clocking is mixed with the data
in asynchronous
D. the bandwidth required is different
40. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The lowest layer in the ionosphere
A. D
B. F2

C. E
D. F1
41. ECE Board Exam March 1996
What is the number of pins in the RS232C interface?
A. 25
B. 15
C. 20
D. 20
42. ECE Board Exam March 1996
SSB transmission requires only ______
of the bandwidth for a DSBFC
transmission.
A.
B. 2/3
C.
D.
43. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The method of generating FM used by
broadcasting station is
A. direct
B. all of these
C. indirect
D. insertion
44. ECE Board Exam March 1996
What is the transmission rate of a system
for transmitting the output of a
microcomputer to a line printer
operating at a speed of 30 lines/minute?
Assume that the line printer has 8 bits of
data per character and prints out 80
characters/line.
A. 800 bps
B. 400 bps

C. 320 bps
D. 640 bps
45. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Communications code is ____________.
A. eight bits per character
B. agreed upon in advance between
sender and receiver
C. the same in all modern computers
D. either seven or eight bits per
character
46. ECE Board Exam March 1996
What is the reference tone level for
dBm?
A. -82 dBm
B. -85 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -90 dBm
47. ECE Board Exam March 1996
A type of an underground antenna is
a/an __________ antenna.
A. Hertz
B. isotropic
C. parabolic
D. Marconi
48. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Which of the following pulse
modulation systems is analog?
A. Delta
B. Differential PCM
C. PWM
D. PCM
49. ECE Board Exam March 1996
What is the purpose of the receivers
squelch circuit?

A. To overcome fluctuations in the level


the RF signal arriving at the receiver
antenna
B. To prevent fluctuations in the AGC
bias level
C. To reduce the receivers sensitivity
to all incoming signals
D. To prevent amplified noise from
reaching the loudspeaker during the
absence of an incoming signal
50. ECE Board Exam March 1996
TACAN is a navigational aid providing
___________.
A. bearing and distance indication
B. speed and height indication
C. bearing and weather information
D. instrument-landing glide paths
51. ECE Board Exam March 1996
In __________ transmission, a unique
SYNC character is transmitted at the
beginning of each message.
A. asynchronous
B. synchronous
C. digital
D. analogue
52. ECE Board Exam March 1996
If the terminating impedance is exactly
equal to the characteristic impedance of
the transmission line the return loss is
___________.
A. zero
B. one
C. infinite
D. None of these

53. ECE Board Exam March 1996


What is the main purpose of a
communications system?
A. None of these
B. To have a frequency assignment
C. For modulation
D. To provide an acceptable replica of
the information at the destination
54. ECE Board Exam March 1996
What is meant by antenna gain?
A. The final amplifier gain minus the
transmission line losses (including
any phasing lines present)
B. The ratio of the amount of power
produced by the antenna compared
to the output power of the transmitter
C. The ratio of the signal in the
backward direction
D. The numeric ratio relating the
radiated signal strength of an antenna
to that of another antenna
55. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Binary communications systems are
better because
A. they can interface directly with the
analog telephone network
B. the components are simpler, less
costly, and more reliable
C. people think better in binary
D. interstate calls are less costly
56. ECE Board Exam March 1996
In the phase shift method, How many
circuits must be balanced?

A. None of these
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2
57. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The carrier swing necessary to provide
80% modulation in the FM broadcasting
band is __________.
A. 150 kHz
B. 120 kHz
C. 60 kHz
D. 75 kHz
58. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The correctness and accuracy of the
transmitted message content is
A. verified by the modem
B. communications system
C. determined by the sender and
receiver
D. ensured by use of digital technique
59. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The signal in a channel is measured to be
23 dB while noise in the same channel is
measured to be 9 dB. The signal to noise
ratio therefore is __________.
A. 9/23
B. 23/9
C. 32 dB
D. 14 dB
60. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Three audio waves with 100,200 and
300 volts amplitude respectively,
simultaneously modulate a 450 volts

carrier. What is the total percent of


modulation of the AM wave?
A. 69 %
B. 115.5 %
C. 50%
D. 83%
61. ECE Board Exam March 1996
If the percentage modulation of an AM
amplifier is 88% and the modulating
signal is 1 volt, the carrier has an
amplitude of _______________.
A. 1.14 volts
B. 0.88 volt
C. 1.88 volts
D. 0.12 volt
62. ECE Board Exam March 1996
It consists of a number of dipoles of
equal size, equally spaced along a
straight line with all dipoles fed in the
same phase from the same source.
A. Log-periodic antenna
B. Yagi antenna
C. End-fire array
D. Broadside array
63. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Data switching systems.
A. improve the efficiency of data
transfer
B. are limited to small data networks
C. required additional lines
D. are not used in data system
64. ECE Board Exam March 1996

A type of array antenna which consists


of one half-wave driven dipole, one
reflector and one director
A. Hertzian dipole
B. Yagi-uda
C. Broadside collinear
D. Log periodic dipole array
65. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Power is a _____________ amount of
energy used in specific period of time
A. large
B. definite
C. electrical
D. relative
66. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The midrange frequency range of sound
is from
A. 256 to 2048 Hz
B. 2048 to 4096 Hz
C. 512 to 2048 Hz
D. 16 to 64 Hz
67. ECE Board Exam March 1996
To connect coaxial line to a parallel-wire
_________ is the best to use.
A. directional coupler
B. quarter-wave transformer
C. balun
D. slotted line
68. ECE Board Exam March 1996
In AM, the carrier carries ____________
intelligence.
A. no
B. difference
C. distorted

D. same
69. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Characteristics impedance of a
transmission line is the impedance
measured at the ___________ when its
length is infinite.
A. input
B. shorted end of the line
C. output
D. midsection
70. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Cross modulation on a receiver is
eliminated at the
A. RF stage
B. mixer stage
C. IF stage
D. detector stage
71. ECE Board Exam March 1996
A speaker cabinet has an internal
volume 84,950 cm3. It has a port area on
the baffle of 3,230 cm2 and baffle
thickness of 19 mm. What is the
Helmholtz resonance hertz of this
speaker enclosure?
A. 260 Hz
B. 245 Hz
C. 265 Hz
D. 250 Hz
72. ECE Board Exam March 1996
What quarterwave transformer will
match a 100 line to an antenna whose
value is 175?
A. 132.29
B. 150

C. 16.58
D. 137.5
73. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The local loop of the telephone system is
understood to be
A. a single piece of wire connecting the
subscribers telephone set to another
telephone set in an adjacent room
B. a two-wire or four-wire
communication circuit between the
customers premise and central
office
C. a four-wire circuit connecting a
facsimile machine to a computer
D. a group of wires connecting a
telephone set to a modem
74. ECE Board Exam March 1996
In what region of the world is sporadic-E
most prevalent?
A. The equatorial regions
B. The northern hemisphere
C. The arctic regions
D. The polar regions
75. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The process of assigning PCM codes to
absolute magnitudes
A. Overloading
B. All of these
C. Quantizing
D. Multiplexing
76. ECE Board Exam March 1996
It is a measure of the microwave power
radiated from an antenna as a function of
angular direction from the antenna axis.

A. Antenna pattern
B. Polarization
C. Beamwidth
D. Sidelobes
77. ECE Board Exam March 1996
It is the made from semiconductor
material such as aluminum-galiumarsenide or gallium-arsenide-phosphide.
A. APD
B. Injection laser diode
C. Light emitting diode
D. Positive-intrinsic-negative
78. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Which one is not the basic electrical
protection measures in the Philippine
Electronics Code?
A. Voltage/ current limiting and
interrupting
B. Undergrounding
C. Grounding and bonding
D. Shielding
79. ECE Board Exam March 1996
What does the noise weighting curve
shows?
A. Noise signals measured with a 144
handset
B. Power levels of noise found in
carrier systems
C. The interfering effect of other
frequencies in a voice channel
compared with a reference frequency
of one kilohertz
D. Interfering effects of signals
compared with a 3-kHz tone

80. ECE Board Exam March 1996


What is the difference between phase
and frequency modulation?
A. Is purely theoretical because they are
the same in practice
B. Lies in poorer audio response of
phase modulation
C. Lies in the different definitions of the
modulation index
D. Is too great to make two systems
compatible
81. ECE Board Exam March 1996
When a transmission line uses ground
return, it is called a/an __________ line.
A. ungrounded
B. balanced
C. unbalanced
D. grounded
82. ECE Board Exam March 1996
What is the gain of four identically
polarized antennas stacked one above
the other and fed in phase?
A. 3 dB over the gain of one antenna
B. 10 dB over the gain of one antenna
C. 4 dB over the gain of one antenna
D. 6 dB over the gain of one antenna
83. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The ratio of the level of the modulated
output of a transmitter under conditions
of standard test modulation to the level
of the demodulated output with no
modulation applied both measured with
the same bandwidth.
A. Reference audio output

B. None of these
C. Audio frequency response
D. Residual noise level
84. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The ___________ filter attenuates
signals but passes frequencies below and
above that band.
A. low pass
B. band pass
C. band stop
D. high pass
85. ECE Board Exam March 1996
In a telephone system, the customers
telephone directory numbering is from
000 to 999, what is the capacity of the
system?
A. 1000 lines
B. 100,000 lines
C. 10,000 lines
D. 100 lines
86. ECE Board Exam March 1996
An absorption loss caused by valence
electrons in the silica material from
which fibers are manufactured.
A. Modal dispersion
B. Infrared absorption
C. Ion resonance absorption
D. Ultraviolet absorption
87. ECE Board Exam March 1996
In an FM receiver, which circuit
removes amplitude variations?
A. Exciter
B. Mixer
C. Discriminator

D. Limiter
88. ECE Board Exam March 1996
A one-hop, full duplex, microwave
system in a space diversity arrangement.
Determine how many receivers in all
are used?
A. 8
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
89. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The frequency spectrum of the
stereophonic FM signal.
A. 67 kHz
B. 59.5 to 74.5 kHz
C. 19 to 38 kHz
D. 30 to 53 kHz
90. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Termination means
A. result of disconnecting a line from a
transmitter
B. result of cutting both ends of a
conductor
C. looking back impedance of a line
with no load
D. load connected to the output end of a
transmission line
91. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Asynchronous protocol is
A. message oriented
B. clock oriented
C. bit oriented
D. character oriented
92. ECE Board Exam March 1996

Transmission lines are either balanced or


unbalanced with respect to _________.
A. negative terminal
B. input
C. ground
D. positive terminal
93. ECE Board Exam March 1996
What is the velocity factor for non-foam
dielectric 50 or 75 ohm flexible coaxial
cable such as RG 8, 11, 58 and 59?
A. 2.70
B. 0.10
C. 0.66
D. 0.30
94. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Gain of an isotropic antenna
A. -1 dB
B. 1 dB
C. 0 dB
D. 2 dB
95. ECE Board Exam March 1996
In measuring noise in a voice channel at
a 4 dB test point level, the meter reads 70 dBm (F1A weighted), convert the
reading to pWp.
A. 53
B. 93
C. 63
D. 83
96. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Power is always __________.
A. a definite amount of energy
B. all of these
C. the rate at which energy is used

D. expressed in watts
97. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Radio fading resulting from obstruction
losses.
A. Log normal fading
B. None of these
C. Multi-path fading
D. Rayleigh fading
98. ECE Board Exam March 1996
After the IF stages have been aligned,
the next stage to align in FM receiver is.
A. local oscillator
B. limiter stage
C. RF amplifier
D. mixer stage
99. ECE Board Exam March 1996
___________ is a device in data
transmission to interface data terminal
equipment to an analogue transmission
line.
A. RS 232
B. Connector
C. Modem
D. RJ-11 plug
Test Yourself Exam 02
100. ECE Board Exam March 1996
What is the primary advantage of
1. ECE Board Exam November 1996
DSBSC in AM?
Which frequency band is the standard
A. Reduce bandwidth over standard AM
AM radio broadcast?
B. All of these
A. HF
C. It is simpler to transmit and receive
B. UHF
than the standard AM
C. MF
D. No transmitter power is wasted in the
D. VHF
carrier
2. ECE Board Exam November 1996

3.

4.

5.

6.

A system that performs parallel-to-serial


and serial-to-parallel conversion of data
link.
A. DCE
B. DTE
C. Modem
D. PC
ECE Board Exam November 1996
The line control unit (LCU) operates on
the data digital form.
A. Data communications equipment
(DCE)
B. UART
C. Modem
D. Data terminal equipment (DTE)
ECE Board Exam November 1996
Quantization noise is caused by
A. binary coding techniques
B. serial transmission errors
C. the synchronization between encoder
and decoder
D. the approximation of the quantized
signal
ECE Board Exam November 1996
Speaker is a device that __________.
A. convert current variations into sound
waves
B. none of these
C. convert electrical energy to
mechanical energy
D. convert sound waves into current and
voltage
ECE Board Exam November 1996

An object farther from a converging lens


than its focal point always has an
_______ image.
A. virtual
B. the same in size
C. inverted
D. smaller size
7. ECE Board Exam November 1996
The loss in signal power as light travels
down a fiber is
A. attenuation
B. propagation
C. absorption
D. scattering
8. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Energy that has neither been radiated
into space nor completely transmitted.
A. Captured waves
B. Incident waves
C. Standing waves
D. Modulated waves
9. ECE Board Exam November 1996
One of the reasons why FDM is being
replaced by TDM is
A. noise is amplified with voice when
an FDM system is used
B. it is difficult to place channels side
by side
C. there is more time than frequency
D. Most available frequencies has been
used
10. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Which determines the number of
sideband components of FM?

A. Modulation frequency
B. Modulation index
C. Carrier frequency
D. All of these
11. ECE Board Exam November 1996
How would one squeeze more channels
of communication into TDM frames of
standard length?
A. Shorten the time delay for each
channel
B. Raise the amplitude
C. Add modulators
D. Remove the synchronizing pulses
12. ECE Board Exam November 1996
When one stations is designated as
master and rest of the stations are
considered slaves message handling is
________.
A. polling
B. WAN
C. LAN
D. OSI
13. ECE Board Exam November 1996
How many satellite orbital slots are
requested by the Philippine government
from ITU?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 5
D. 3
14. ECE Board Exam November 1996
The output of a balanced modulator is
____________.
A. LSB and USB

B. LSB
C. USB
D. Carrier
15. ECE Board Exam November 1996
RS-232, RS-449, RS-530, V, 24 and
X.21 are examples of ____________.
A. standards for interfaces between
modems and transmission facilities
B. standards for various types of
transmission channels
C. standards for interfaces between
terminals and modems
D. standards for end to end performance
of data communications system
16. ECE Board Exam November 1996
A special service circuit connecting two
private branch exchanges (PBX).
A. Phantom line
B. Private line
C. Tie trunk
D. Tandem trunk
17. ECE Board Exam November 1996
What is the baseband frequency of
standard FDM basic supergroup?
A. 312 to 552 kHz
B. 300 to 600 kHz
C. 60 to 2540 kHz
D. 60 to 108 kHz
18. ECE Board Exam November 1996
What is the data rate of the ISDN Basic
access B channel?
A. 192 kbps
B. 32 kbps
C. 64 kbps

D. 144 kbps
19. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Which tester is used to measure SWR?
A. Spectrum analyzer
B. Multimeter
C. Reflectometer
D. Oscilloscope
20. ECE Board Exam November 1996
What is the transmission rate of a GSM
cellular system?
A. 64 kbps
B. 240 kbps
C. 128 kbps
D. 270 kbps
21. ECE Board Exam November 1996
A dipole antenna requires to be feed
with 20 kW of power to produce a given
signal strength to a particular distant
point. If the addition of a reflector makes
the same field strength available with an
input power of 11 kW. What is the gain
in dB obtain by the use of the reflector ?
( Gain referred to this particular dipole)
A. 4.24
B. 1.81
C. 4.75
D. 2.6
22. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Pulse carrier at the ratio of 8000
pulse/sec is amplitude modulated by an
analog signal this type of modulation is
A. PAM
B. ADM
C. DM

D. PCM
23. ECE Board Exam November 1996
What is the applied power if a thermal
RF wattmeter is connected to a
transmitter through a variable
attenuator? The wattmeter reads 84 mW
when 15 dB of attenuation is used.
A. 4.656 watts
B. 2.656 watts
C. 3.656 watts
D. 2.856 watts
24. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Collects very weak signal from a
broadcast satellite
A. Satellite dish
B. LNB
C. Yagi-Uda antenna
D. Satellite receiver
25. ECE Board Exam November 1996
A seven-bit character can represent one
of _________ possibilities.
A. 14
B. 64
C. 128
D. 7
26. ECE Board Exam November 1996
The maximum power suggested by KBP
on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in
Metro Manila is
A. 10 kW
B. 20 kW
C. 15 kW
D. 5 kW
27. ECE Board Exam November 1996

A loudspeaker cabinet has an internal


volume of 5,184 in3 (84,950 cm3). It has
a port area on the baffle of 50 in2
(322.58cm2) and a thickness of 0.70 in
(18 mm). What is the Helmholtz
resonance, in hertz, of this loudspeaker
enclosure?
A. 250 Hz
B. 245 Hz
C. 240 Hz
D. 255 Hz
28. ECE Board Exam November 1996
When the clearance above the
obstruction is equal to the radii of even
Fresnel zone at the point of reflection the
RSL
A. remains the same
B. is above threshold
C. is decreased
D. is increased
29. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Digital transmission provides a higher
level of signal quality than analog
transmission because
A. repeaters regenerate digital pulses
and remove distorstion
B. digital signals are easier to sample
than analog signals
C. digital signals are smaller than
analog signals and cannot easily be
distorted
D. analog signals are continuous and
not easily distorted.
30. ECE Board Exam November 1996

A _________ interconnects LAN having


identical protocols at the physical and
data link layers.
A. All of these
B. bridge
C. router
D. Gateway
31. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Both frequency and phase modulation
utilize ________ modulation
A. Phase
B. AM and FM
C. Digital
D. Angle
32. ECE Board Exam November 1996
The different angles of entry of light into
an optical fiber when the diameter of the
core is many times the wavelength of the
light transmitter is known as ________.
A. refraction
B. sensor
C. mode
D. emitter
33. ECE Board Exam November 1996
An invitation from the primary to a
secondary to transmit a message.
A. Retransmission
B. Selection
C. Reuse
D. Polling
34. ECE Board Exam November 1996
An agency of the United Nations that
formulates standards and recommend
practices for all civil aviation

A. ICAO
B. CAA
C. IATA
D. ATO
35. ECE Board Exam November 1996
The transformer signal coding method
for T1 carrier is
A. Binary
B. NRZ
C. Manchester
D. Bipolar
36. ECE Board Exam November 1996
When the value of k increases, the
effective result is ______ of the
equivalent curvatures.
A. downward curvatures
B. flattening
C. bulging
D. sharp curvature
37. ECE Board Exam November 1996
An electromagnetic wave consists of
A. a magnetic field only
B. both electric and magnetic fields
C. an electric field only
D. non-magnetic field only
38. ECE Board Exam November 1996
In a transmission line, if the maximum
current to minimum current ratio is 2:1
what is the ratio of the maximum voltage
to minimum voltage?
A. 4:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:4
D. 2:1

39. ECE Board Exam November 1996


Satellite signal transmitted from a
satellite transponder to earths station.
A. Vertically polarized
B. Uplink
C. Downlink
D. RHCP
40. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Multiplexing scheme use by baseband
transmission.
A. FDM
B. Space multiplexing
C. TDM
D. Statistical multiplexing
41. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Which stands for dB relative level?
A. dBrn
B. dBm
C. dBr
D. dBa
42. ECE Board Exam November 1996
What is the maximum color TV
bandwidth?
A. 1.6 MHz
B. 0.5 MHz
C. 1.0 MHz
D. 1.3 MHz
43. ECE Board Exam November 1996
If Ns=250, determine the earth radius kfactor.
A. 1.98
B. 1.23
C. 1.33
D. 1.29

44. ECE Board Exam November 1996


Digital modulation technique used in
modems.
A. ASK
B. PSK
C. FSK
D. All of these
45. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Which of the following is not a baseband
signal modulation?
A. RF carrier
B. Video System
C. Audio signal
D. Binary coded pulses
46. ECE Board Exam November 1996
The standing wave ratio is equal to
________ if the load is properly matched
with the transmission line.
A. 1
B. 50
C. 10
D. 2
47. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Noise from random acoustic or electric
noise that has equal per cycle over a
specified total frequency band.
A. Thermal noise
B. White noise
C. Gaussian noise
D. All of these
48. ECE Board Exam November 1996
When was the UHF channel (14-83) of
television were added?
A. 1852

B. 1904
C. 1947
D. 1952
49. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Multiplexing in a time division
multiplexer occurs based upon
A. the position of a frame within the
group of frames
B. the positioning of data within a
frame
C. the priority assigned to a connected
device
D. the activity of a connected device
50. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Ethernet is baseband system using
CSMA/CD operating at
A. 20 Mbps
B. 10 Mbps
C. 30 Mbps
D. 40 Mbps
51. ECE Board Exam November 1996
A microwave communications system
space loss calculation formula is
A. 92.4 + 10 log f +20 log d
B. 94.2 + 10 log f +20 log d
C. 92.4 + 20 log f +20 log d
D. 94.2 + 20 log f +20 log d
52. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Which is the non-resonant antenna?
A. Broadside Antenna
B. Folded Dipole
C. Rhombic antenna
D. End fire array
53. ECE Board Exam November 1996

The first commercial satellite


A. Explorer
B. Sputnik
C. Telstar
D. Early bird
54. ECE Board Exam November 1996
A quadrature signaling have ________
possible states.
A. 16
B. 8
C. 32
D. 4
55. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Proposed the use of a clad glass fiber as
a dielectric waveguide.
A. Kao and Keck
B. Karpon and Keck
C. Karpon and Bockham
D. Bockham and Kao
56. ECE Board Exam November 1996
What band does VSAT first operate?
A. X-band
B. C-band
C. Ku-band
D. L-band
57. ECE Board Exam November 1996
What is the method of diversity
reception where the signal is transmitted
on 2 different frequencies over the same
path?
A. Quadruple
B. Frequency
C. Polarization
D. Space

58. ECE Board Exam November 1996


The wavelength of light has no role in
A. Diffraction
B. Interference
C. Resolving power
D. Polarization
59. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Which of the following filters block FM
radio band for TV channels (2 to 13)?
A. High-pass filter
B. Band reject filter
C. Low-pass filter
D. Band-pass filter
60. ECE Board Exam November 1996
The standard ASCII
A. is version II of ASC
B. is used only in US and Canada
C. has 132 characters including 32
control characters
D. is subset of 8-bit EBCDIC code
61. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Luminous efficiency is least for a
A. mercury vapor lamp
B. low-wattage light bulb
C. high-wattage light bulb
D. fluorescent tube
62. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Transmission lines when connected to
antenna have
A. capacitive load
B. resistive load whose resistance is less
than characteristics impedance
C. resistive load at the resonant
frequency

D. resistive load whose resistance is


greater than the characteristic
impedance of the line
63. ECE Board Exam November 1996
What is the free space loss, in dB,
between two microwave parabolic
antennas 38.0 kilometer apart operating
at 7.0 GHz?
A. 145.6 dB
B. 138.5 dB
C. 135.5 dB
D. 140.89 dB
64. ECE Board Exam November 1996
What is the equivalent output of a circuit
in dBm, if it is has an output of 10
watts?
A. 10 dBm
B. 30 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 40 dBm
65. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Satellite engine use
A. liquid fuel
B. jet propulsion
C. ion propulsion system
D. solar jet
66. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Low-power radar uses
A. RIMPATT
B. TRAPATT
C. Magnetron
D. IMPATT
67. ECE Board Exam November 1996

Transmission line must be matched to


the load to
A. transfer maximum voltage to the
load
B. transfer maximum current to the load
C. reduce the load current
D. transfer maximum power to the load
68. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Electromagnetic wave travel at
__________ in free space.
A. 300,000 km/sec
B. 100,000 km/ sec
C. 400,000 km/sec
D. 200km/sec
69. ECE Board Exam November 1996
When electromagnetic wave are
propagated through a waveguide, they
A. are reflected from the walls but do
not travel along them
B. travel along all four walls of the
waveguide
C. travel along the broader walls of the
guide
D. travel through the dielectric without
touching the walls
70. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Codes must be
A. agreed upon in advance between
sender and receiver
B. eight bit per character
C. the same in all modern computer
D. either seven or eighth bits per
character
71. ECE Board Exam November 1996

Combination of modulator, channel and


detector.
A. Transceiver
B. Discrete channel
C. T/R channel
D. Transponder
72. ECE Board Exam November 1996
What is the stage of the sand becoming
silicon?
A. Hot
B. Gas
C. Liquid
D. Molten
73. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Noise reduction system used for film
sound in movie
A. dBx
B. dolby
C. dBa
D. dBm
74. ECE Board Exam November 1996
What is the principal difference between
asynchronous and synchronous
transmission?
A. The clocking is mixed with the data
in synchronous transmission
B. The pulse height are difficult
C. The clocking is derived from the data
in synchronous
D. The bandwidth required is difficult.
75. ECE Board Exam November 1996
You are measuring a voice channel at a 4 dB test point level, the meter reads -73

dBm (pure test tone) convert the reading


in dBmCO.
A. 16
B. 18
C. 22
D. 12
76. ECE Board Exam November 1996
What is the type of emission use by
standard AM radio broadcast?
A. A0
B. F3
C. A3
D. A5C
77. ECE Board Exam November 1996
____________ is the average rate of
transmission of sound energy in a given
direction through a cross sectional area
of 1 sq.m. at right angle to the direction.
A. Sound pressure
B. Sound intensity
C. Pressure variation
D. Loudness
78. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Top loading is used in an antenna in
order to increase its ___________.
A. input capacitance
B. beamwidth
C. bandwidth
D. effective height
79. ECE Board Exam November 1996
What component in the telephone set has
the primary function of interfacing the
handset to the local loop?
A. Varistor

B. Induction coil
C. Resistor
D. Capacitor
80. ECE Board Exam November 1996
The first passive satellite transponder.
A. Early bird
B. Score
C. Moon
D. Sputnik
81. ECE Board Exam November 1996
The primary purpose of the data modem
is to
A. interface analog terminal equipment
to analog communications channel
B. interface digital terminal equipment
to analog communications channel
C. interface analog terminal equipment
to digital communications channel
D. interface digital terminal equipment
to digital communications channel
82. ECE Board Exam November 1996
____________ is the out-of-band
signaling between toll central offices
(Bell System Standard)
A. 2,000 Hz
B. 800 Hz
C. 3,835 Hz
D. 3700 Hz
83. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Which symbol indicates that only one
sideband is transmitted?
A. A3E
B. B8E
C. C3F

D. H3E
84. ECE Board Exam November 1996
A voice-grade circuit using the PTN has
an ideal passband of
A. 0 to 4 Hz
B. 0 to 4 kHz
C. 0 to 4 GHz
D. 0 to 4 MHz
85. ECE Board Exam November 1996
1 micron is equal to ___________
meter(s).
A. 10-6m
B. 10-3 m
C. 106 m
D. 109 m
86. ECE Board Exam November 1996
The lowest resistance grounding on earth
A. Sand
B. Clay
C. Surface loam soil
D. Limestone
87. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Troposheric scatter uses the frequencies
in the ________ band.
A. VLF
B. UHF
C. VHF
D. UF
88. ECE Board Exam November 1996
The unit of pitch
A. Decibel
B. Phon
C. Mel
D. Sone

89. ECE Board Exam November 1996


What kind of receiver is used in
converntional telephone handset?
A. Capacitor
B. Carbon
C. Electromagnetic
D. Ceramic
90. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Basic speed rate of digital system.
A. 144 kbps
B. 1,544 kbps
C. 64 kbps
D. 2,048 kbps
91. ECE Board Exam November 1996
A horizontal antenna is
A. centrally polarized
B. vertically polarized
C. horizontally polarized
D. perpendicularly polarized
92. ECE Board Exam November 1996
What is the diameter of a copper wire to
be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop
resistance of 100 ohms/km?
A. 0.108 cm
B. 1.082 cm
C. 0.017 cm
D. 0.0465 cm
93. ECE Board Exam November 1996
If a fiber optic system has a rise time of
16 ns, the source rise time is 1.5 ns and
the detector rise time is 2 ns, what is the
cable rise time?
A. 14 ns
B. 6 ns

C. 9 ns
D. 12.5 ns
94. ECE Board Exam November 1996
What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz
voice signal if the phase shift is 15
degrees?
A. 1.25 sec
B. 52 sec
C. 83.33 sec
D. 26 sec
95. ECE Board Exam November 1996
What is the power loss of a telephone
hybrid?
A. 6 dB
B. 2 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 1 dB
96. ECE Board Exam November 1996
You are measuring noise in a voice
channel at 7 dB test point level. The
meter reads -56 dBm (FIA weighted).
What is the reading in dBrnc?
A. 20
B. 32
C. 35
D. 25
97. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Space diversity transmission means
transmitting and receiving on
A. two or more antennas operating on
two different frequencies
B. two or more identical frequencies
C. two or more different frequencies

D. two or more antennas operating on


the same frequencies
98. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Rules governing the transmission of
digital information.
A. Line protocol
B. Isochronous
C. Data communications
D. Digital communications
99. ECE Board Exam November 1996
A digital identification associated with a
cellular system
A. SAT
B. ESN
C. MIN
D. SIM
100. ECE Board Exam November 1996
____________ is measuring the
propagated field strength over the
projected service area
A. Radio sounding
B. None of these
C. Radio monitoring
D. Radio survey

Test Yourself Exam 03

1.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What is the impedance of a balance 4-wire
with a diameter of 0.25 cm and spaced 2.5
cm apart using an insulator with a dielectric
constant of 2.56?
A. 100
B. 65
C. 75
D. 50

2.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What is the impedance in ohms of a
transformer marked for 25V, 4W, when the
secondary is correctly loaded?
A.
B.
C.
D.

3.

150
156
160
165

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A single conductor running from the
transmitter to the antenna.
A.
B.
C.
D.

RG-8/U
Single line wire
Twin-lead
MIcrostrip

4.

If you have available number of power


amplifiers with a gain of 100 each, how
many such amplifiers do you need to
cascade to give an overall gain of 60 dB?

ECE Board Exam April 1997


If voltage change equal to twice its original
value, what is its corresponding change in
dB?
A.
B.
C.
D.

5.

A.
B.
C.
D.

9 dB
6dB
10 dB
3dB

ECE Board Exam April 1997

8.

6.

A.
B.
C.
D.

9.

7.

85
63
50
75

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Reference noise temperature.


A.
B.
C.
D.

Hartley theorem
Shannon-Hartley theorem
Nyquist theorem
Shannon theorem

12.

70 deg F
30 deg C
290 Kelvin
25 deg C

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What is the reference frequency of CCITT
psophometric noise measurement?
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

800 Hz
1500 Hz
3400 Hz
1000 Hz

Transmission sent in both directions


simultaneously.

What is the characteristic impedance of a


single wire with a diameter d= 0.25 mm
placed at the center between grounded
parallel planes separated by 1 mm apart. The
wire is held by a material with a velocity
factor of 0.75.
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

________ sets a limit on the maximum


capacity of a channel with a give noise level.

Slotted line
Quarter-wave transformer
Directional Coupler
Balun

ECE Board Exam April 1997

11.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

To couple a coaxial line to parallel line, it is


better to use a ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.

3
4
5
2

B. 15 to 160 Mhz
C. 0 to 10 Khz
D. 20 Ghz

A.
B.
C.
D.

10.

Full duplex
Duplex
Half duplex
Simplex

13.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Which does not effect noise in a channel?
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Industrial noise frequency is between
_________.
A. 200 to 3000 Mhz

14.

None of these
Bandwidth
Temperature
Quantizing level

ECE Board Exam April 1997

The random and unpredictable electric


signal from natural causes, both internal and
external to the system is know as ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.

15.

Distortion
Noise
Attenuation
Interference

18.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

The most common unit of noise


measurement in white noise testing.

16.

dBw
dBk
dBm
NPR

19.

17.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

What particular circuit that rids FM of


noise?
A.
B.
C.
D.

20.

HPF
Phase shifter
Limiter
LPF

23.

Which transmit only one sideband?


A.
B.
C.
D.

What is the advantage of PTM over PAM?


A.
B.
C.
D.

100% modulation in AM means a


corresponding increase in total power by:
21.

All of these
Low sampling rate is required
Much better noise immunity
Simpler to generate

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Constant peak amplitude


The information
Frequency range 20-20000 Hz
A varying amplitude

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A. 25%
B. 75%
C. 100%

22.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Unit of noise power of psophometer


dBa
pWp
dBm
dBmO

A5C
A3J
A3H
A3

50
71
100
25

A carrier signal has ______.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

If the modulation index of an AM wave is


doubled, the antenna current is also doubled,
the AM system being used is

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

At 100% modulation, the sum fo the


effective voltages in both sidebands is equal
to ______% of the unmodulated carrier
voltage.

D. 50%

24.

A3E
3AJ
11BE
H3E

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The final amplifier of either FM or AM
transmitter operates as
A. Class B
B. Class C
C. Class A

D. Class D

25.

One (1) Erlang is equal to ________.


A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Modulation means
A. Varying of information
B. Utilization of a single transmission
channel to carry multiple signals
C. Varying of some parameters of a carrier
such as its amplitude to transmit
information
D. Transmit pulses in DC form on a copper
wire

26.

29.

32.

360 CCS
100 CCS
36 CCS
3.6 CCS

ECE Board Exam April 1997


When waves bend away from straight lines
of travel, it is called _________.
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Transmission of printed material over
telephone lines.
A.
B.
C.
D.

33.

Video text
Facsimile
Encoding
Xerox copy

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Highest frequency that can be used for
skywave HF communications between two
given points on earth.
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What is the advantage of sidetone?
A.
B.
C.
D.

27.

30.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

High transmission efficiency


Results to a strengthened signal
No energy dissipation
Assures that the telephone is working

A.
B.
C.
D.

28.

0dB
10 dBm
0 dBm
10 dB

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Gyro frequency
Maximum usable frequency
Critical frequency
Virtual frequency

1-CCS is equal to?


A.
B.
C.
D.

60
100
600
1

34.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Electromagnetic radiation theory was
profounded by ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The standard test tone

Refraction
Reflection
Rarefaction
Diffraction

31.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


1 Erlang is ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.

1000 TU
10 TU
100TU
1 TU

35.

Sir Edward Appleton


Sir Isaac Newton
James Clerk Maxwell
Michael Faraday

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Type of transmission path that permits
communication in the frequency range from

30 to 60 MHz and over distances form about


1000 to 2000 km.
A.
B.
C.
D.

36.

Ducting
Ionospheric scatter
Microwave
Troposcatter

39.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What is the effective earths radius when
N=300?
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What is the thickest layer of the ionosphere?
A.
B.
C.
D.

37.

E
F1
F2
D

40.

38.

A.
B.
C.
D.

41.

8500 km
6370 km
7270 km
7950 km

ECE Board Exam April 1997


______ is a device that detects both
vertically and horizontally polarized signals
simultaneously.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Horizontal
Vertical
Omni
Directional

44.

Crystal
Orthomode transducer
Light transducer
Optoisolator

ECE Board Exam April 1997


How much does the radiated power of an
antenna increases if its current increased by
3.3 times?
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


_______ is the horizontal pointing angle of
an antenna.
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Which region of the ionosphere is mainly
responsible for long distance night time
communication?
A. A layer
B. D layer
C. E layer

Rhombic
Hertz
Marconi
Dipole

The polarization of a discone antenna is


_____.

Distance traveled by a wave in the time of


one cycle.
Hop
Frequency
Wavelength
Crest

43.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

D. F layer

42.

Right angle
Angle of elevation
Bandwidth
Azimuth

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Which is properly terminated antenna?

45.

6.6 times
3.3 times
10.89 times
9.9 times

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What do you call the energy that was not
radiated into space or completely
transmitted?
A. Incident waves
B. Captured waves
C. Standing waves

A device that radiates electromagnetic


energy and or intercepts electromagnetic
radation.

D. Modulated waves

46.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

What is the estimated medium wind loading


in the Philippines for antenna tower design?
A.
B.
C.
D.

200 kph
250 kph
300 kph
100 kph

50.

Antenna
Transmitter
Transmission line
Transceiver

D. CSMA/CD

53.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Synchronous modems cost more than
asynchronous modem because _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

They have larger bandwidth


They are larger
The production volume is larger
They have clock recovery circuits

The frequency of operation of a dipole


antenna cut to length of 3.4 m.
47.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

The minimum number of turns a helix


antenna must have.
A.
B.
C.
D.

4
5
3
6

51.

42.9 MHz
61.3 MHz
38.5 MHz
53.5 MHz

54.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What equation defines the composition of an
ISDN basic access line?
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

B+2D
B+D
2B+2D
2B+D

Full duplex transmission means


48.

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


When testing transmitter to prevent
interfering with other stations, which type of
antenna must be used?
A.
B.
C.
D.

49.

Dummy antenna
Hertzian antenna
None of these
Void antenna

ECE Board Exam April 1997

52.

One way transmission


24-hour transmission
Broadcast transmission
Two-way simultaneous transmission

55.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Modem is referred to as ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Universal asynchronous Rx/Tx


Data communication equipment
Universal synchronous Rx/Tx
Data terminal equipment

Transmission system for a multidrop


network
A. Taken passing
B. Polling
C. Switching

56.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


_______ character signifies the start of the
test for Bisync.

A.
B.
C.
D.

57.

STX
ETX
SOH
BCC

60.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


It is a protocol used to connect the other
packet witching network.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

What is the reason why companding is


employed in PCM systems?
A. To overcome impulse noise in PCM
receivers
B. To allow amplitude limiting in the
receivers
C. To solve quantizing noise problem
D. To protect small signals in PCM from
quantizing distortion

58.

A.
B.
C.
D.

D. Frequency analysis

61.

64.

X.25
X.50
X.10
X.75

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A source code whose average word length
approaches the fundamental limit set by the
entropy of a discrete memoryless source.
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

Synchronous
Asynchronous
Ethernet
Internet

65.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


______ sets the limit on the maximum
capacity of a channel with a given noise
level.

What is framing?

59.

62.

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Highest theoretical frequency that can be
processed at a sampling rate without
aliasing.
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The method of determining the bandwidth of
any processing system is ______.
A. Bandwidth analysis
B. Frequency spectrum
C. Spectral analysis

Prefix code
Huffman code
Entropy code
Source code

Slowest communications hardware product.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A. Is concerned of synchronous system


B. Refers to parallel transmission
C. Is concerned with the boundaries
between characters
D. Is concerned with individual bits

Asynchronous
Synchronous
Baseband
Broadband

63.

Folding frequency
Resonant frequency
Natural frequency
Critical frequency

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Data is directly on the transmission cable.

66.

Hartley theorem
Shannon-hartley theorem
Nyquist theorem
Shannon theorem

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Gateway can interconnect LANs that have
____ protocols and formats.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The same
Different or the same
Totally different
None of these

67.

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Steps to follow to produce PCM signal.
A.
B.
C.
D.

68.

Quantizing, sampling, and coding


Sampling, quantizing, and coding
Sampling, coding and quantizing
Coding, quantizing and coding

71.

69.

A.
B.
C.
D.

72.

70.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What kind of battery panels are used in
some advance satellites?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Satellite radiation polarization


Satellite navigation
Satellite radiation pattern
Satellite coverage

75.

A.
B.
C.
D.

73.

38
40
44
42

Type of fiber that has the highest modal


dispersion
A.
B.
C.
D.

76.

Fiber optic cable operates near _______


frequencies.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Insertion loss of connector-type splices for a


single-mode fiber cable.
0.2 dB
0.3 dB
0.09 dB
0.38 dB

Step-index multimode
Step-index single mode
Graded index mode
Graded index multimode

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

PIN Diode
ILD
APD
LED

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Asia Sat I covers how many countries in


Asia?

_______ detects the satellite signal relayed


from the feed and converts it to an electric
current, amplifies and lower its frequency.
Feedhorn
Satellite dish
Satellite receiver
LNB

A non-coherent light source for optical


communications system.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Footprint refers to coverage area in the


globe

Transmission sent in both directions


simultaneously.
Full duplex
Duplex
Half duplex
Simplex

74.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

Gallium Arsenide solar panel


Germanium based panels
Silicon based panels
Gallium Phosphate solar panel

77.

800 THz
20 MHz
200 MHz
2 GHz

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Lifetime of ILDs
A. 150,000 h
B. 100,000 h

C. 50,000 h
D. 200,000 h

78.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

C. 79.1 dB
D. 89.1 dB

81.

Lowest frequency produced by a musical


instrument.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Sound intensity
Loudness
Coherence
Sound stress
82.

79.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What is the local oscillator frequency range
commercial AM broadcast if it is equal to
455 KHz.

Fundamental
Midrange
Period
Harmonic

A.
B.
C.
D.

540 to 1600 KHz


0 to 1600 KHz
995 to 2055 KHz
0 to 455 KHz

Sound intensity level is ________.

_______ is the transmission of sound from


one room to an adjacent room thru common
walls, floors or ceilings.
Reverberation
Refraction
Flanking transmission
Reflection

85.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

Volume meter
Audio frequency meter
Volume unit meter
Speech meter

ECE Board Exam April 1997

The sound energy per unit area at right


angles to the propagation direction per unit
time.
A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

83.

10 log I/I(ref)
10 log I(ref)/I
30 log I/I(ref)
20 log I/I(ref)

86.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


TV channels 2, 4 and 5 are known as
________.
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Mid band UHF


Low band UHF
High band VHF
Low band VHF

Tendency of sound energy to spread.


80.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The sound power level of a jet plane flying
at a height of 1 km is 160 dB. What is the
maximum sound pressure level on the
ground directly below the plane assuming
that the aircraft radiates sound equally in all
directions?
A. 59.1 dB
B. 69.1 dB

A.
B.
C.
D.

84.

Reflection
Diffraction
Rarefaction
Refraction

ECE Board Exam April 1997


______ used to measure speech volume

87.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


______ is the first component of any MATV
system to received broadcast signals.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Receiver
Antenna
Filter
Transmitter

88.

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Mechanism or device which enables the TV
camera to move in internal and tilting
motion.
A.
B.
C.
D.

89.

Tilting
Scanner
Pan/tilt device
Panning device

92.

Attenuation due to rain


Attenuation due to other gasses
Attenuation due to mist and fog
Due to water vapor and oxygen

95.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A microwave link between the earth station
and the down-town terminal.
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A microwave system that requires the use of
repeater.
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Intervening terrain is favorable


Distances involved are greater
The required reliability is met
All of these

96.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The advantage of periscope antenna in
microwave

The allowable deviation ratio of commercial


FM broadcast.
A.
B.
C.
D.

90.

25
15
5
75

93.

A. Minimize interference to and from other


neighboring stations
B. Shorten waveguide link
C. Reduce tower height
D. All of these

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What frequency does oxygen causes
excessive attenuation
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

119 GHz
183 GHz
310 GHz
60 GHz

97.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Professional Regulations Commission was
created under ______.

______ is the time duration for one


horizontal trace.
A.
B.
C.
D.

91.

48s
52 s
62 s
50 s

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Which is atmospheric attenuation?

94.

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


RADAR means
A.
B.
C.
D.

Radio detection and rating


Radio detection and ranging
Radio distance and ranging
Radio delay and ranging

STL
Uplink
Downlink
Terrestrial link

98.

PD 323
PD 223
PD 232
RA 223

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The institutionalization of the continuing
Professional Education (CPE) Program of
the various regulated profession under the

supervision of the Professional Regulation


Commission.
A.
B.
C.
D.

E.O. No. 266


E.O. No. 626
E.O. No. 662
P.D. 381

The first symbol in the designation of radio


emission under the ITU rules to

Test Yourself Exam 04

1.

A. Nature of signals modulating the main


carrier
B. Type of information to be transmitted
C. Bandwidth
D. Type of modulation of the main carrier

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Extra-terrestrial noise is observable at
frequencies from

99.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

The basic law providing for the regulation of


radio station, communications in the
Philippines and other purposes.
A.
B.
C.
D.

100.

Act. No.`3846
D.O. No. 11
D.O. No. 88
D.O. No. 5

2.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Operating method in which the transmission
is made alternately in each direction of a
telecommunication channel
A.
B.
C.
D.

Band of light waves, that are too short to be


seen by human eye.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Listing of the date and time events,


programs , equipment, test, malfunctions
and corrections in communication system.
File
Documentation
Reporting
Log

5.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

0 to 20 KHz
Above 2 GHz
8 to 1.43 GHz
5 to 8 GHz

3.

Visible
Infrared
Ultraviolet
Amber

6.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Production of radiation by a radio
transmitting station
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Two wires that are bent 90 degrees apart.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Hertz
Dipole
Log-periodic
Rhomic

Semi-duplex operation
Duplex operation
Half-duplex operation
Simplex operation

7.

Monitoring
Emission
Radiation
Transmission

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The third symbol in the designation of radio
emission under the ITU rules refers to

4.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A. Type of the modulation of the main


carrier
B. Bandwidth
C. Nature of the signals modulating the
main carrier
D. Type of information to be transmitted

8.

11.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

9.

A.
B.
C.
D.

What signal-to-noise ratio is required for


satisfactory telephone services?
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A form of telecommunication for the
transmission of transient images of fixed or
moving objects.

Noise caused by the thermal agitation of


electrons in resistance.

50 dB
30 dB
40dB
20 dB

15.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Unity gain antenna

12.

A.
B.
C.
D.

E-mail
Television
Radio
Internet

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The use of telecommunication for automatic
indicating or recording measurement at the
distance from the measuring instrument.
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Monitoring
Tracking
Telemetry
Telecommand

16.

10.

Unidirectional
Bidirectional
Omnidirectional
Figure of eight

13.

The series of periodically recurrent pulses is


modulated in amplitude by the
corresponding instantaneous samples.

The standard deviation of the variation in


the transmission loss of a circuit should not
exceed
A.
B.
C.
D.

Another SEG function that allows a person


to be superimposed on another scene.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Visual effect
Wiper
Chroma keying
Special effect generation

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

14.

3 dB
1 dB
5 dB
0.5dB

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Isotropic
Rhombic
Half-wave dipole
Dummy

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Radiation pattern of a discone.


A.
B.
C.
D.

All of these
Thermal noise
Johnsons noise
White noise

17.

PFM
PWM
PDM
PAM

ECE Board Exam April 1997


This type of transmission permits
communication in the frequency range from
30 to 60 MHz and over distances from about
1000 to 2000 km.
A. Troposcatter

B. Ionospheric scatter
C. Ducting
D. Microwave

18.

21.

Emission on a frequency or frequencies


immediately outside the necessary
bandwidth which result from the modulation
process except spurious emission.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

A region in front of a paraboloid antenna.


A.
B.
C.
D.

Transmission zone
All of these
Fraunhofer
Fresnel
22.

19.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Frequency
Intensity
Pitch
SPL
23.

A single sideband emission in which the


degree of carrier suppression enables the
carrier to be reconstituted and to be used for
demodulation.
A.
B.
C.
D.

26.

A.
B.
C.
D.

24.

Impulse noise
White noise
Thermal noise
Gaussian noise

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Electronic equipment used to measure
standing wave ration.

Reduce carrier single sideband emission


Half carrier single sideband emission
Full carrier single sideband emission
Standard single sideband emission

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Station in the mobile service not intended to
be used while in motion.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Background noise is the same as the


following except

A good example of a pilot tone system used


in commercial frequency modulation
stations.
FDM
Time division
Stereo multiplexing
Frequency modulation

Broad bandwidth
Good front-to-back
Maneuverability
Circular polarization

Reflectometer
Wavemeter
Altimeter
Multimeter

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

25.

A helical antenna is used for satellite


tracking because of ______.

Designates the sensation of low or high in


the sense of the base and treble.

20.

Radiation
Noise
Out of the band
Interference

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

27.

Coast station
Fixed station
Base station
Land station

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The electric field lines in a plane
perpendicular to the earths surface.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Elliptical polarization
Circular polarization
Horizontal polarization
Vertical polarization

28.

The most common device used as a light


detector in fiber optic communications
system.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Known to be the first satellite capable to
receive and transmit simultaneously.
A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Score
Syncom I
Telstar 1
Echo1

30.

T2
T1
T4
T3

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

33.

31.

36.

A.
B.
C.
D.

34.

1.28x10-19 J
1.6 x10-19 J
1.22 x10-16 J
1.9 x10-14 J

ECE Board Exam April 1997


If a fiber optic system has a rise time of
38.55 ns, the source rise time is 12 ns and

20 to 20 KHz
16 to 16 KHz
3 to 3 KHz
4 KHz

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Two or more antennas separated by 9
wavelengths are used.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Calculate the energy of the photon of


infrared light energy at 1.55m

354 kbps
750 kbps
768 kbps
640 kbps

ECE Board Exam April 1997

0.4782V
4278 V
4.78 V
47.8 V

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

12 voice channels are sampled at 8000


sampling rate and encoded into 8 bit PCM
word. Determine the rate of the data stream.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Nominal voice channel

Two resistors, 20k, and 50k are at


ambient temperature. Calculate for a
bandwidth equal to 100kHz, the thermal
noise voltage for the two resistors connected
in parallel.

A digital carrier facility used to transmit a


DSI-formatted signal at 1.544. Mbps.

34.61 ns
14.55 ns
52.55 ns
26.25 ns

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

LED
Darlington phototransistor
APDs
PIN diode
35.

32.
29.

the detector rise time is 12 ns, what is the


cable rise time?

37.

Hybrid diversity
Space diversity
Polarized diversity
Frequency diversity

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Nif stands for
A.
B.
C.
D.

Narrow intermediate frequency


Noise interference figure
Noise improvement factor
Non-intrinsic fugure

38.

At height about 180 km above the earth exist


only during daylight.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

Any small element of space in the path of a


wave may be considered as a source of
secondary wavelet.
A.
B.
C.
D.

39.

De Morgans Principle
Faradays Law
Huygens Principle
Fresnels Law of optics

42.

40.

A.
B.
C.
D.

43.

41.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

Figure of eight
Omnidirectional
Bidirectional
Unidirectional

46.

Reducer
Quality factor
Optical attenuator
Compressor

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

Determine the gain of a 6 ft. parabolic dish


operating at 1800 MHz.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Atmospheric noise is less at severe


frequencies above
Audio level
30 MHz
10 GHz
1 GHz

A device that reduces the intensity of light in


fiber optics communication systems.

Propagation mode of microwave in a


waveguide is known as _______.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Radiation characteristics of a dipole

Modulation in which the modulated wave is


always present.
Carrier modulation
Front-end
Continuous modulation
Log-periodic modulation

45.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

F2 layer
D layer
E layer
F1 layer

C. Circularly
D. Vertically

44.

30 dB
11.2 dB
15.5 dB
28.17 dB

ECE Board Exam April 1997


An electromagnetic wave is ________
polarized when the electric field lies wholly
in one plane containing the direction of
propagation.
A. Horizontally
B. Linearly

47.

TM
TE
SW
TEM

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The width of the frequency band which is
just sufficient to ensure the transmission of
information at the rate and with the quality
required under a specified condition and
class of emission.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Occupied bandwidth
Reference frequency
Necessary bandwidth
Frequency tolerance bandwidth

48.

terminate functions of equipment at a


distance.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

A convenient method of determining


antenna impedance.
A.
B.
C.
D.

49.

Stub matching
Reactance circle
Smith chart
Trial and error

52.

A.
B.
C.
D.

8.2345 MHz
150.50 MHz
2.4555 MHz
35.535 MHz
53.

51.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The use of telecommunication for the
transmission of signals to initiate, modify or

Peak envelope power


ERP
Rated power
Carrier power

A.
B.
C.
D.

56.

A.
B.
C.
D.

The most common unit of noise


measurement in white noise voltage testing.
A.
B.
C.
D.

14/11 GHz
30/17 GHz
8/7 GHz
6/4 GHz
57.

54.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The sinusoidal carrier is pulsed so that one
of the binary states is represented by a
carrier while the other is represented by its
absence.
A. FSK

Bandwidth
Wavelength
Radiation
Beamwidth

ECE Board Exam April 1997

The Ku-band in the satellite service

The electric field lies in a plane parallel to


the earths surface.
Elliptical polarization
Horizontal polarization
Vertical polarization
Circular polarization

Width measured in degrees of a major lobes


between end of the love at which the relative
power is one half (-3dB) its value from the
peak of the lobe.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

The product of the power supplied to the


antenna and its gain relative to a half-wave
dipole in a given direction.

Which of the following fall under the high


frequency band of the radio spectrum?

50.

55.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

Tracking
Telemetry
Telecommand
Space telemetry

B. ASK
C. PSK
D. QAM

NPR
dBm
dBW
dBrn

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Any governmental office responsible in
discharging the obligations undertaken in
the convention of the ITU and the
regulation.
A. Administration
B. The union
C. Country

A coherent binary phase shift keyed BPSK


transmitter operates at a bit rate of 20 Mbps
with a carrier to noise ratio C/N of 8.8dB.
Find Eb/No.

D. Telecommunications office

58.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

A large speaker having a large diameter (15


cm and above)
A.
B.
C.
D.

59.

Coaxial speaker
Woofer
Tweeter
Trixial speaker

62.

60.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Frequency
Wavelength
Volume
Pitch

ECE Board Exam April 1997

What is the effect in over modulated


amplitude modulated radio broadcasting
transmission?

A government regulation in
telecommunication which provide policy to
improve the provision of local exchange
carrier service.

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

1023
425
511
756
64.
ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

LNB
Yagi-Uda array
Satellite receiver
Satellite disk

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Determine the dynamic range for a 10 bit


sign magnitude code.

61.

A method of expressing the amplitude of


complex non-periodic signals such as
speech.

66.
63.

Peak envelop power


Rated power
Carrier power
Mean power

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Receives and collects satellite signals form a


broadcast satellite.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

73 dB
62.4 dB
81.8 dB
8.8 dB

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Coaxial lines are used on those systems


operating _______.
Below 2 GHz
At 300 MHz
Above 10KHz
Above 10GHz

A.
B.
C.
D.

65.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

cycle taken under the condition of no


modulation.

Interference to adjacent channel


Higher fidelity
Increase noise
Higher audio signal

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Average power of a radio transmitter
supplied to the antenna transmission line by
a transmitter during one radio frequency

67.

E.O. 109
Act 3846
E.O. 59
E.O. 546

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Radio communication operation service
between mobile and land stations or between
mobile stations.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Land mobile satellite service


Maritime mobile service
Mobile service
Land mobile

Radio wave concentration in the direction of


the signal emitted by a directional antenna.

D. M-derived filter

71.

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The tendency of the sound energy to spread.

68.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

The smaller the f rating, the _____ light that


lens can take in.
A.
B.
C.
D.

69.

More
Intense
Less
Same

72.

70.

A.
B.
C.
D.

An earth satellite whose period of revolution


is equal to the period of rotation of the earth
about its axis.
A.
B.
C.
D.

73.

Geosynchronous
Steerable
Passive
Active

76.

A satellite receives an uplink frequency of


_______ MHz from a ground station of
3700 MHz.
A.
B.
C.
D.

A figure of merit used to measure the


performance of a radiation detector.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Harmonic suppressor connected to an


antenna.

Noise equivalent power


Ripple factor
Safe factor
Quality factor

300-500 Hz
1200 kHz
100-300 Hz
300-3400 Hz

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A. High pass filter


B. Low pass filter
C. Tank circuit

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A radio communications service use in radio


regulation between specified fixed points
provided primarily for the safety of air
navigation and for the regular efficient and
economical air transport.
Space operation service
Space service
Aeronautical mobile service
Aeronautical fixed service

75.

What is the channel bandwidth of a standard


analogue telephone system?

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

Rarefaction
Reflection
Refraction
Diffraction

Back lobe radiation


Side lobe radiation
Major lobe radiation
Transmitted signal

77.

8150 MHz
1475 MHz
2225 MHz
5925 MHz

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The outer conductor of a coaxial
transmission line is always grounded at the

74.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A. Input only
B. Input and output

C. Output only
D. Point of high SWR

78.

A. A medium index of refraction


B. A lower index of refraction than the
cladding
C. A lower index of refraction than air
D. A higher index of refraction than the
cladding

ECE Board Exam April 1997

85.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


A means of beyond the line-of-sight
propagation of microwave signal.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Sound intensity is given as


A.
B.
C.
D.

79.

df/dP
dE/dp
dA/dP
dP/dA

82.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


What makes an antenna physically long but
electrically short?
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The lowest frequency produced by an
instrument.
A.
B.
C.
D.

80.

Harmonic
Fundamental
Midrange
0 Hz

83.

An AM transmitter is rated 100W at 100%


modulation. How much power required for
the carrier?
A.
B.
C.
D.

The reflector and director of an antenna


array are considered as

81.

Parasitic elements
Transcendental elements
Feed-points
Driven elements

ECE Board Exam April 1997


The core of the optical fiber has ______.

Top loading
Adding C in series
Adding L in series
All of these

86.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Which of the following refers to the smallest
beam of satellite antennas radiation pattern?
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

Space wave
Microwave link
Troposcatter
Point-to-point

84.

87.

Hemispheric beam
Spot beam
Zone beam
Global beam

33.33 W
66.66 W
83.33 W
100 W

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Theoretical gain of a hertzian dipole
A.
B.
C.
D.

0 dB
1.76 dB
3 dB
2.15 dB

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Used for time division multiplexing.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Frequency modulation
Pulsed modulation
SSB
Amplitude modulation

88.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Satellite system or part of a satellite system,
consisting of only one satellite and the
operating earth station.

A.
B.
C.
D.

89.

Satellite system
Satellite network
Space system
Multi-satellite link

95.
92.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

The difference between the original and


reconstructed signal gives rise to

90.

S factor
Quantizing noise
S/N
Fade margin

93.

91.

ECE Board Exam April 1997


Refers to a land station in a maritime mobile
service
A.
B.
C.
D.

Coast station
Ship earth station
Coast earth station
Maritime station

Pulse modulation
QAM
PSK
FSK

Refers to the first generation of local loop


system in telecommunication technology.

In the designation of bandwidth and


emission, what letter in the first symbol
represents a double-sideband type of
modulation?
A.
B.
C.
D.

94.

A
B
C
H

A.
B.
C.
D.

97.

An area on the surface of the earth within


which the bore sight of the steerable satellite
beam intended to be pointed

Loss due to the diffraction of light when it


strikes on the irregularities formed during
the manufacturing process of the fiber
optics.
Absorption loss
Attenuation
Bending loss
Rayleigh scattering loss

GSM
DECT
Analogue cellular
TACS

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

Watt/meter
Ohms/meter
Ampere/meter
Watt/meter2
No answer

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

An area in the memory used for temporary


storage of information, on Last in First out
basis.
Core
Register
Flag
Stack

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

96.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

What is the unit of electric field strength?

Modulation in which no signal is present


between pulses

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

98.

Effective boresight area


Countour boresight are
Coordination boresight are
Equivalent boresight area

ECE Board Exam April 1997


For a sample rate of 40 kHz, determine the
maximum analog input frequency

A.
B.
C.
D.

99.

30 kHz
40 kHz
20 kHz
10 kHz

2.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

An antenna that can only receive a television


signal.

100.

Isotropic antenna
TVRO
Reference antenna
Yagi antenna

A.
B.
C.
D.

3.

A.
B.
C.
D.

4.

Mobile station
Land station
Base station
Ship earth station

The final power amplifier in an FM


transmitter usually operates class ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.

7.

A.
B.
C.
D.

5.

High power
Efficiency
Lesser noise
Cheaper

ECE Board Exam April 1998

AB
C
B
A

ECE Board Exam April 1998


In television broadcasting vivid strong
colors are often referred as _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.

A major and basic advantage for the use of a


klystron.

Space diversity transmission means


transmitting and receiving on _______.

Ku
C
X
L

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A. Two or more antennas operating on two


different frequencies
B. Two or more identical frequencies
C. Two or more antennas operating on the
same frequency
D. Two or more different frequency

6.

A radio land station in the land mobile


service

Halo is also called

1.

Antenna gain
Antenna back lobe ration
Antenna total ration
Antenna efficiency

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A. Flare
B. Dark current
C. Glitch
D. Ghost
Test Yourself Exam 05

A.
B.
C.
D.

An increase in the effective power radiated


by an antenna in a certain desired direction
at the expense of power radiated in other
directions.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A.
B.
C.
D.

A band where most military satellite often


operate

8.

Saturation
Hue
Chrominance
Luminance

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Where do the maximum current and
minimum voltage values on a resonant Hertz
dipole exist?
A. Center of the antenna
B. Near the end of the antenna

C. Near the center of the antenna


D. Ends of the antenna

D. Efficiency = radiation resistance/total


resistance x 100%

D. 168.5 MHz

15.
9.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

12.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

How can the antenna efficiency of an HF


grounded vertical antenna be made
comparable to that of a half-wave antenna?

This is referred to as a fixed radio station


that broadcasts program material from
studio to transmitter by radio link.

A. By lengthening the vertical


B. By installing a good ground radial
system
C. By shortening the vertical
D. By isolating the coax shield from ground

A.
B.
C.
D.

A device that connects two dissimilar


networks and performs the protocol
conversion.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Aural BC intercity relay


Aural broadcast STL
Shortwave station
Remote-pickup
16.

13.
10.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Around 500 miles


Around 1500 miles
Around 2000 miles
Around 1000 miles
14.

11.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What is meant by the term antenna
efficiency?
A. Efficiency = effective radiated
power/transmitter output x 100%
B. Efficiency = radiation resistance/
transmission resistance
C. Efficiency = total resistance/radiation
resistance x 100%

The use of telecommunication for the


transmission of signals to initiate, modify or
terminate functions of equipment at a
distance.

What law does a light traveling in air optical


fiber follow?

At what distance is VHF propagation


normally limited?
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

Gateway
Coupler
Transformer
Converter

Millman
Snells
Maxwell
Huygen

A.
B.
C.
D.

Tracking
space command
Telecommand
Trunking

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following is designated as the
international distress, safety and calling
frequency for radio telephony for stations of
the maritime mobile service when using
frequencies in the authorized bands between
156 and 174 MHz?
A. 165.8 MHz
B. 156.8 MHz
C. 158.6 MHz

17.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Best described a dip-meter.
A. A variable LC oscillator with metered
feedback current
B. An SWR meter
C. A counter
D. A field strength meter

18.

element in order to cancel the capacitive


reactance of an antenna.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Refers to an emission designation for
facsimile?
A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

J3E and F4E


A3J and A4E
A3E and F3C
R3E and A3E
22.

19.

What is meant by the term antenna


bandwidth

How does a SSB transmitter output power


normally expressed?

20.

A. Antenna length divided by the number of


elements.
B. The angle between the half-power
radiation points
C. The frequency range over which and
antenna can be expected to perform well
D. The angle formed between two
imaginary line drawn through the ends
of the elements

Average power
In terms of peak envelop power
In terms of peak-to-peak power
Peak power

ECE Board Exam April 1998


In satellite communication, the
Geostationary satellites are conveniently
located with respect to the equator at
_______.
A.
B.
C.
D.

21.

Dipole
Center loading
Reflector
loading coil

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

A. A fading effect caused by phase


differences between radio wave
components of the same transmission, as
experienced at the receiving station.
B. A fading effect caused by small changes
in beam heading at the receiving station.
C. A fading effect caused by the time
differences between the receiving and
transmitting stations.
D. A fading effect caused by large changes
in the height of the ionosphere, as
experienced at the receiving station.

23.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

25.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Where the voltage node of a half-wave
antenna does exists?
A.
B.
C.
D.

26.

At feed point
Near the center
At center
Near the feed point

ECE Board Exam April 1998


This is a flexible vertical rod antenna
commonly used on mobiles.

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

45 degrees latitude
90 degrees latitude
0 degrees latitude
5 degrees latitude

A multiple access technique used in GSM


cellular system
TACS
FDMA
TDMA
CDMA

Marconi
Hertz
Whip
Ground plane

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Known as the technique for adding a series
inductor at or near the center of an antenna

24.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Refers to an effect of selective fading.

27.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

Referred to as an average power from the


radio transmitter supplied to the antenna
transmission line taken during one radio
frequency cycle under no modulation.
A.
B.
C.
D.

28.

Carrier power
Rated power
Peak envelop power
Mean power

A.
B.
C.
D.

31.

29.

A.
B.
C.
D.

32.

30.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What is the basic qualification of an
applicant for public carrier network before a
certificate of public convenience or a
provisional authority is issued?

A.
B.
C.
D.

100 kHz
200 kHz
50 kHz
16 kHz

35.

A.
B.
C.
D.

33.

CW
FM
SSB
AM

A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of


earths surface.
A.
B.
C.
D.

36.

Spot beam
Global beam
Zone beam
Hemispheric beam

ECE Board Exam April 1998


The modulation technique used by GSM
cellular system
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What is a dummy antenna?
A. One which is used as a reference for gain
measurements
B. And antenna used for hand-held radio
C. An non-directional transmitting antenna
D. A non-radiating load for a transmitter
used for testing

Bidirectional
Perfect circle
Unidirectional
Omnidirectional

ECE Board Exam April 1998

With which emission type is the captureeffect most pronounced?

Which of the following refers to a double


side band full carrier?
A3E
A3J
F3
R3A

Best description of a collinear and broadside


antenna radiation pattern.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

How wide is the spectrum bandwidth of a


single GSM carrier?

_______ is a major cause of the sporadic-E


condition
Temperature inversions
Sunspots
Meteors
Wind shear

34.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

Franchise
SEC document
Business permit
Radio station license

37.

Phase shift keying


Frequency shift keying
Gaussian minimum shift keying
QAM

ECE Board Exam April 1998


________ generates light beam at a specific
visible frequency.

A.
B.
C.
D.

38.

Glass fiber
Infrared
Light waves
Laser

41.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


_______ is more prevalent in analog signals
that have steep slopes or whose amplitudes
vary rapidly.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

The most common application of satellites


A.
B.
C.
D.

39.

Surveillance
Reconnaissance
Defense systems
Communication

42.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Inductance and capacitance


Velocity factor
Characteristic impedance
Propagation velocity
43.

It is used to connect computers in the same


building or in same area
A.
B.
C.
D.

46.

A.
B.
C.
D.

235.50 MHz
450.50 MHz
150.50 GHz
0.31250 GHz

MAN
LAN
SWITCH
WAN

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Referred by radio regulation as the station in
the mobile service not intended to be used
while in motion.
A.
B.
C.
D.

A radio frequency in the ultra high


frequency band of the radio spectrum band.

Referred to as a ferrite device that can be


used in lieu of a duplexer to isolate a
microwave transmitter and receiver when
both are connected to the same antenna.
Isolator
Circulator
Coupler
Diode.

Terrestrial station
Space station
Satellite station
Mobile satellite station

Transmission system engineering


Communication system engineering
Telephony engineering
Telegraphic engineering

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

45.

Station located on an object which is beyond


and is intended to go beyond the major
portion of the earths atmosphere.

Referred to the dielectric constant of a


transmission line material.

40.

Peak limiting
Quantization noise
Granular noise
Slope overload

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

Technical study which deals with


production, transport and delivery of a
quality signal from source to destination.

47.

Fixed station
Base station
Land station
Coast station

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What is the mixing process?

44.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A. Distortion caused by auroral propagation

B. The combination of two signals to


produce sum and difference frequencies.
C. The elimination of noise in wideband
receiver by phase differentiation
D. The elimination of noise in a wideband
receiver by phase comparison

48.

51.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What is the period of a wave?

Which of the following systems is not used


in radio detection and ranging?

49.

Frequency shift
Frequency modulation
Pulse radar
Amplitude modulation

55.
52.

Considered as the main source of an internal


noise.

50.

Device imperfection
Thermal agitation
Temperature change
Flicker

53.

Baud rate
Bit rate
Information theory
Throughput

56.

A.
B.
C.
D.

54.

33.3%
45.2%
42.5%
30.5%

ECE Board Exam April 1998

Always the rearmost element


Always the forwardmost element
The element fed by the transmission line
The element connected to the rotator

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following term best described
the overload distortion?
A.
B.
C.
D.

What is the approximate percentage of earth


coverage of a geostationary satellite at zero
degree elevation?

In shipboard satellite dish antennas system,


azimuth is referred as the _______.
0 to 90 degrees
Vertical aiming of the antenna
North to East
Horizontal aiming of the antenna

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

What is a driven element of an antenna?

Is the total useful information processed or


communicated over a specific amount of
time
A.
B.
C.
D.

Core
Register
Flag
Stack

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

A. The number of degrees in tone cycle


B. The number of zero crossing in one
cycle
C. The amplitude of the wave
D. The time required to complete one cycle

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

This refers to an area in the memory used


for temporary storage of information on the
basis of Last in First out.

57.

Peak limiting
Quantization noise
Granular noise
Slope distortion

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What do you mean by the outward flow of
and energy from any source in the form of
radio waves?
A. Radiation
B. Emission

C. Encoding
D. Tracking

58.

61.

Quantity that do not change when a beam of


light enters on e medium to another.
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Refer to the deviation of the operating
frequency of a crystal oscillator from its
nominal value due to temperature variations.
A.
B.
C.
D.

59.

Drift
Flash over
Frequency deviation
Deviation ratio

62.

60.

A.
B.
C.
D.

V.4
V.2
V.1
V.5

Oscilloscope
Phonoscope
Radioscope
Audioscope

ECE Board Exam April 1998


How much is the required minimum power
output of an international AM BC stations?

Which of the following described the very


early standard that defines binary digits as
space/mark line condition and voltage
levels?

A.
B.
C.
D.

66.

5 kW
30 kW
10 kW
50 kW

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What is the equivalent of decimal 51 in
binary?

63.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

A form of single sideband emission where


the degree of carrier suppression enable the
carrier to be reconstituted and be used for
demodulation.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following is and impedance
matching ration of coax balun?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Frequency
Wavelength
Direction
Speed

ECE Board Exam April 1998

Find the product of the following binary


number 100 to 101.
11000
10100
10010
11100

A.
B.
C.
D.

65.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

An instrument for recording waveforms of


audio frequency.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A. Half carrier single sideband emission


B. Full carrier single sideband emission
C. Reduced carrier single sideband
emission
D. Double sideband emission

2:8
1:2
4:1
2:1

64.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

67.

111011
110011
111001
100011

ECE Board Exam April 1998


One of the first satellite system catering
personal based communications services
scheduled for operation.
A. Iridium system
B. Plutonium system

C. Indium system
D. Gallium system

68.

71.

Antenna which is not properly terminated


A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What do you call a circuit that controls the
magnetron output?
A.
B.
C.
D.

69.

Inverter
Impeller
Modulator
Converter

72.

70.

A.
B.
C.
D.

73.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


How can intermodulation interference
between two transmitters in close proximity
reduced or eliminated?
A. Through installing a band-pass filter in
the antenna feed line
B. Through installing terminated circulator
or ferrite isolator in the feed line of the
transmitter and duplexer
C. By using a class C final amplifier with
high driving power
D. By installing a low-pass filter in the
antenna feed line

Announce
Broadcast
Transmit
Media

At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what


values of current and voltage exist compared
to the remainder of the antenna?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following colors of light rays


has the shortest wavelength?
Yellow
Violet
Red
Blue

System optical network


Simple operation network
Synchronous optical network
System operating network

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

75.

Term in communication which is referred,


to send out in all direction.

Known as the satellite transmitted signal


form a satellite transponder to earths
station.
Uplink
Down link
RHCP
Vertically polarized

Isotropic
Non-resonant
Whip
Resonant

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

74.

76.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What propagation condition is usually
indicated when a VHF signal is received
from a station over 5000 miles away?

Minimum voltage and minimum current


Equal voltage and current
Minimum voltage and maximum current
Maximum voltage and minimum
current.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Moonbounce
D-layer absorption
Tropospheric ducting
Faraday rotation

ECE Board Exam April 1998


One of the following stands for SONET
acronym in telecommunication

77.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


In radio High frequency communications the
higher the radio frequency the ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Higher it can reach


Shorter it can reach
Effect is null
Longer it can reach

Term for the transmission of printed pictures


by radio?

D. Television

81.

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


How can receiver desensitizing be reduced?

78.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A. Increase the receiver bandwidth


B. Ensure good RF shielding between the
transmitter and receiver
C. Increase the transmitter audio gain
D. Decrease the receiver squelch, gain.

The signal to noise ratio that is required for


a satisfactory television reception.
A.
B.
C.
D.

79.

30 dB
40 dB
10 dB
20 dB

82.

A.
B.
C.
D.

83.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Attenuator
Optical repeater
Optical amplifier
Generator

86.

Where is the noise generated that primarily


determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a
VHF (150 MHz) marine-band receiver?
A.
B.
C.
D.

What do you call the single booster installed


on the antenna dish of satellite receiver?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Low noise amplifier


Single amplifier
Noise amplifier
Rectifier

What is emission F3F?


84.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

Crosstalk
Noise current
Crossfire
Intermodulation

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A. Facsimile
B. Modulated CW
C. RTTY

An interfering current in a telegraph or


signaling channel due to telegraph or
signaling current by another channel.

Circuit used to amplify the optical signal in


fiber optics communications links.

What is meant by referring to


electromagnetic waves as horizontally
polarized?

80.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A. The electric field is parallel to the earth


B. Both the electric and magnetic fields are
vertical
C. Both the electric and magnetic fields are
horizontal
D. The magnetic fields is parallel to the
earth

85.

Facsimile
ACSSB
Xerography
Television

87.

In the ionosphere
In the receiver rear end
In the receiver front end
In the atmosphere

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Known as the data transfer scheme that used
handmaking principle.
A. Synchronous data transfer scheme

B. DMA data transfer scheme


C. Asynchronous data transfer scheme
D. Uninterrupted data transfer scheme

88.

91.

The latest government regulation in the


telecommunication which provides policy
for the provision of local exchange carrier
service.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

Type of modulation used in TV broadcast


visual transmitter.
A.
B.
C.
D.

89.

Pulse modulation
DSBFC
Vestigial sideband
SSBFC

92.

90.

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

IF amplifier
Supply stage
Speaker
Mixer
96.

93.

Determine from the following the basic


mode of transmission system in the public
data network in which data are transferred
from the source to the network and from the
network to the destination in the frame
format.

The frequency tolerance of an AM radio


broadcast station
A.
B.
C.
D.

94.

10.95 to 14.5 GHz


27.5 to 31 GHz
3.4 to 6.424 GHz
1.53 to 2.7 GHz

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

Best describe as an amplifier used in radio


telephony.
Magnifier
Class B
Class C
Class A

What is the frequency range of C-band?

Referred to as the stage in the radio receiver


that contributes most of the noise.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A transmitter supplies 8 kW to the antenna


when it is unmodulated, determine the total
radiated power when modulated at 90%.
5 kW
20 kW
15 kW
8.36 kW

E.O. 546
E.O. 109
Act 3948
E.O. 59
95.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

A. A wave consisting of two magnetic


fields at right angles to each other
B. A wave consisting of an electric field
and a magnetic field at right angles to
each other.
C. Alternating currents in the core of an
electromagnet
D. A wave consisting of two electric fields
at right angles to each other

ECE Board Exam April 1998

200 Hz
2000 Hz
20 Hz
2 Hz

A.
B.
C.
D.

Voice mode
Asynchronous mode
Synchronous mode
Packet mode

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What are electromagnetic waves?

97.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

Refers to a type of beam antenna which uses


two or more straight elements arranged in
line with each other.
A.
B.
C.
D.

98.

Dipole antenna
Yagi antenna
Whip antenna
Rhombic antenna

A. National telecommunications
commission
B. Telecommunications control bureau
C. Department of transportation and
communications
D. Bureau of telecommunications

Test Yourself Exam 06

1.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


When adjusting an RF filter on a transmitter
using a dummy load, how much watts
dissipation should it stand to test a 150 watts
transmitter?

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What is a frequency discriminator?
A. A circuit for filtering two closely
adjacent signals
B. A circuit for detecting FM signals
C. An FM generator
D. An automatic bandswitching circuit.

99.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

2.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


When does broadcast station conduct and
equipment test?

These are used to connect non-ISDN


equipment ot ISDN line.
A.
B.
C.
D.

100.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Digipeaters
Terminal adapters
Local repeaters
Terminal repeaters

ECE Board Exam April 1998


The executive branch of government in
charge of policy making in the
telecommunications.

75 watts
300 watts
50 watts
150 watts

3.

During day time


During night time
At any time
During experimental period

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Channel 7 of the regular television channel
belongs to which band?
A. Low VHF band
B. High VHF band
C. Low UHF band

One of the following is referred to as a


major component of an optical time domain
reflectometer

D. High UHF band


7.
4.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following is referred to as a
radio emission without sidebands

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following is one of the
possible causes for a slow drift of frequency
in a self exited transmitter oscillator circuits
resulting to a poor frequency stability?
A. Poor soldered connections
B. Power supply voltage changes
C. Loose connections in the oscillator,
amplifier, or antenna circuits
D. DC and RF heating of resistors, causing
then to change values.

5.

A.
B.
C.
D.

8.

6.

9.

12.

A.
B.
C.
D.

10.

What is meant by the term radiation


resistance for an antenna?
A. The resistance in the trap coils to
received signal
B. An equivalent resistance that would
dissipate the same amount of power as
that radiated from an antenna
C. The specific impedance of the antenna
D. Losses in the antenna elements and feed
line

Omni
Helical
Yagi
Dipole

ECE Board Exam April 1998

Yahoo
http
com
www

ECE Board Exam April 1998

Type of antenna which is normally used for


satellite tracking service.

Which of the following is not a common


microwave application?
Radar
Data transmission
Space communications
Mobile radio

50 times bigger
100 times bigger
10 times bigger
5 times bigger

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

One of the commonly used domain in the


internet service.

Ho w many times bigger does the bandwidth


of a fiber optic multimode have over a
cable?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Pulse generator and vertical plate


Laser and horizontal plate
Pulse generator laser
Vertical and horizontal plate

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A third symbol radio emission which


represent telephone transmission including
sound broadcasting.
W
F
C
E

Analog
Carrier
Data
Voice
11.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

13.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

Referred to an oscillator signal leak


through from a properly neutralized
amplifier such as a master oscillator power
amplifier.
A.
B.
C.
D.

______ is known to be the first satellite


capable of receiving and transmitting
simultaneously.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Carrier
Stray signal
Back wave
Loss wave

A.
B.
C.
D.

Electric hazard
Cross talk
Immunity to noise
Shielding
18.

16.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

21.

A.
B.
C.
D.

19.

No transformer
Suppressed white noise
Simple
Modulates any frequency

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What do you call the service area of a
standard AM broadcast where fading is
allowed but not objectionable co-channel
interference?

C
D
F
A

ECE Board Exam April 1998


In telecommunications when we call data
communications it means the transmission
of________.

One of the following is not among the


advantages of series modulation

What kind of effect is referred to a varying


light producing a varying voltage output of a
detector?
Current effect
Voltage effect
Resistive effect
Photovoltaic effect

30 to 300 kHz
30 to 300 GHz
3 to 30 MHz
3 to 30 GHz

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

The extremely high frequency (EHF) band is


in the radio spectrum range of _______.

An advantage of optic fiber rejecting an


induced noise signals from magnetic field or
solar storms flux.

15.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

20.

Experimental
Secondary
Tertiary
Primary

A third symbol emission which represent


television.
17.

14.

Syncom I
Telstar I
Score
Aguila

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

22.

Voice and video


Voice
Video
Computer data

ECE Board Exam April 1998


If frequency range of 401.000MHz to
401.050MHz has to be channelized at 12.5
kHz between channel, what is the center of
its first channel from the lower limit?
A. 401.125MHz
B. 401.00625MHz
C. 401.025MHz

D. 401.0125MHz

23.

26.

One of the following is not among the major


components required on board ship under
the global maritime distress and safety
system.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Determine the effective radiated power of 20
kW TV broadcast transmitter whose antenna
has a field gain of 2.
A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

40 kW
80,000 watts
40,000 watts
8,000 watts

A.
B.
C.
D.

Data transmission
Clear to send
Receive data
Data set ready
28.

All bits in character are sent and received


______ in serial port.
A.
B.
C.
D.

31.

One of the following is a possible cause of


an abrupt frequency variation in a self exited
transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a
poor frequency stability to hold a constant
frequency oscillation.

Width of frequency band just enough to


ensure the transmission of information at a
required rate and quality required, and under
a specified condition and class of emission.

In amplitude modulation technique the


unmodulated carrier is referred to as having
______.

A.
B.
C.
D.

100% modulation
0% modulation
50% modulated
Over modulated
29.

A. Heating and expansion of oscillator coil


B. DC and RF ac heating of resistors which
cause change in values
C. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
D. Loose connections in the oscillator,
amplifier, or antenna circuits.

Occupied bandwidth
Transmission bandwidth
Necessary bandwidth
Frequency bandwidth

ECE Board Exam April 1998

In groups of 3 bits
One at a time
In groups of 2 bits
Simultaneously

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

Alphanumeric form
Alphabetic form
Numeric form
Binary form

Antenna feed
AGC
RF amplifier
Local oscillator

ECE Board Exam April 1998

In what form does the information of data


communications is transmitted between two
points?

In indication signal for a handshake form the


DCE to the DTE in response to an active
condition for the request to send a signal.

25.

On board radio facilities


Radio operator telegraphy onboard
Shore base facilities
Radio personnel on board

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

30.
27.

24.

Refers to one of the front end circuit of a


VHF TV superheterodyne receiver which is
usually a separate circuit coupled to the
mixer.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

32.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

Which of the following parts of the radio


receiver represent the component that
extracts the desire RF signal from the
electromagnetic wave?
A.
B.
C.
D.

What is the typical number of bits in a static


memory location?
A.
B.
C.
D.

AF amplifier
Antenna
Detector
Crystal

What controls the contrast of a television


cathode ray picture?
A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

It is an average power of a radio transmitter


supplied to the antenna transmission line
taken during a long sufficient interval of
time and compared with the lowest
frequency encountered in the modulation,
taken under the normal operating conditions.

34.

Carrier power
Rated power
Mean power
Peak envelop power

37.

A.
B.
C.
D.

38.

10 dB
6 dB
3 dB
8 dB

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Refers to one of a commonly used internet
service domain.

35.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

40.

Act 3846
LOl 1000
R.A. 5734
Dept. order 88

ECE Board Exam April 1998

Determine the dB gain of a receiving


antenna which delivers a microvolt signal to
a transmission line over that of an antenna
that delivers a 20 microvolt signal under
identical circumstances.

Determine from the following radio


frequency that falls under the very high
frequency band of the radio spectrum.
345.00 MHz
144.50 MHz
235.50 MHz
450.00 MHz

AFC
video stage gain
Audio gain control
CRT bias

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

39.

www
http
gov
infoseek

A law that specifically requires the service


of a duly registered electronics and
communications engineer in the designing
installation and construction, operation and
maintenance of radio stations.

36.
33.

1
2
16
8

A.
B.
C.
D.

Which band does channel 14 of the


television channel belong?
A.
B.
C.
D.

41.

High VHF band


EHF band
UHF band
Low VHF band

ECE Board Exam April 1998


How many ships area is designated in the
implementation of the global maritime
distress and safety system.
A. Four
B. Six

C. Three
D. Two

42.

48.
45.

Main basic components of a data


communication are composed of the
following.

What kind of receiver is used in


conventional telephone handset?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Capacitor
Electromagnetic
Carbon
Ceramic

44.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


This is referred to a product of simultaneous
frequency and amplitude modulation or a
carrier frequency variation which produces
unwanted distortion.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Absorption modulation
Simultaneous modulation
Dynamic instability
Series modulation

Security
Weight
Bandwidth
Physical size

ECE Board Exam April 1998

The international radio consultative


committee is referred to in international
radio communication as ______.

Assume a frequency range of 401.000 MHz


to 401.050 MHz, if you apply 25 kHz
channeling plan, determine the center
frequency of the first channel from the lower
limit.

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Determine the lower half-power frequency


of a class-C amplifier having upper halfpower frequency of 10.025 MHz, a resonant
frequency 5 MHz and a circuit Q of 10.
1.0025 MHz
10.525 MHz
0.5 MHz
10 MHz

Computer, modern and router


Computer, bridge and gateway
Transmitter, channel and receiver
Transmitter, computer and modem

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

49.
46.

43.

One of the advantages of fiber optic which is


referred to the volume of capacity of signals
it can carry.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

47.

IRCC
ITU
IRR
CCIR

ECE Board Exam April 1998

50.

401.010 MHz
401.0125 MHz
401.025 MHz
401.00625 MHz

50 ECE Board Exam April 1998

Refers to a continuous tone generated in a


local exchange terminal through a
combination of two frequencies 350 Hz, and
440 Hz.

The stability of transmitted signal from a


simple Hartley oscillator single transmitter
which is coupled to and antenna wire
affected by ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.

A. Chirping of oscillator
B. Closer coupling between the oscillator
and the antenna.
C. Location of antenna
D. Material of antenna

Busy tone
Call waiting tone
Dial tone
Standard tone

51.

Which of the following refers to the video


signal amplitude that determines the quality
of the picture?

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Refers to the first symbol in an emission
designation with an amplitude modulated
main carrier represented by letter H.
A.
B.
C.
D.

54.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following refers to full duplex
transmission?

Single sideband suppressed carrier


Double sideband full carrier
Independent sideband
Double sideband

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

One at a time transmission


Two transmission medium
Intermittent transmission
Two way simultaneous transmission
58.

52.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

55.

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

405.030 MHz
405.025 MHz
405.050 MHz
405.075 MHz

C
B
H
A

In radio regulation, the first symbol in the


designation of radio emission is ______.

Best choice of transmission line component


to couple a coaxial line to a parallel-wire
line
A.
B.
C.
D.

A. Bandwidth
B. Nature of signal(s) modulation the main
carrier
C. Type of modulation of the main carrier
D. Type of information to be transmitted

Shorting
Balun
Slotted line
Directional coupler
60.

57.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

Shannons law
A-law
Newtons law
Mu-law

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

An entity, relying on the transmission,


switching and local distribution facilities of
local exchange and inter-exchange
operators, and overseas carriers, offers
enhanced services beyond those ordinarily
provided by such carriers.
International carrier
Value-added service provided
Inter-exchange carrier
Local exchange carrier

A.
B.
C.
D.

59.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

________ is the method of encoding audio


signals used in US standard 1544 kbit/s 24
channel PCM systems.

What is the first symbol of a radio signal


transmission having an amplitude modulated
signal carrier, double side band?

56.
53.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

Assume a frequency range of 405.0125


MHz to 405.0875 MHz and 25 kHz
channeling plan, determine the center
frequency of the second channel from the
lower limit.

Chrominance
Luminance
Brightness
Contrast

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Who is the principal administrator of
republic act 7925?

A.
B.
C.
D.

61.

BOC
DOTC
Congress
NTC

64.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

Electromagnetic waves of frequencies


arbitrarily lower than 3,000 GHz,
propagated in space without artificial guide.

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

What is the term for the ration of the


radiation resistance of an antenna to the total
resistance of the system?

62.

Effective radiated power


Beamwidth
Radiation conversion loss
Antenna efficiency

65.

A.
B.
C.
D.

HF band
VHF band
LF band
MF band

ECE Board Exam April 1998

66.

Digital emission
Key emission
Cycle emission
Spark emission

Is a kind of satellite which has a period of


revolution equivalent to the period of
rotation of the earth about its axis.

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Passive satellite
Synchronous satellite
Active satellite
Geosynchronous satellite

Space waves
Terrestrial waves
Mobile
Hertzian waves

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Frequencies above ______ kHz, are referred
to as the radio frequencies.
A.
B.
C.
D.

69.

20
2
10
200

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Who is responsible in the correctness and
accuracy of transmitted information content
over a data communication?

ECE Board Exam April 1998

What determines the velocity factor in


transmission line?
The center conductor resistivity
Dielectrics in the line
The termination impedance
The line length

68.

Type of emission produced by one of the


early radio transmitter in trains of damped
RF ac waves where its oscillator is coupled
to a long wire antenna, normally used in
radio telegraph and having sidebands on its
carrier.

Where does the AM broadcast band located


in the spectrum band?

63.

Hypertext
HTML
Wide area network
Uniform resource locator

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

Refers to an address that identifies a server


on the network and a particular document on
the server

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

67.

A.
B.
C.
D.

70.

The channel
The transmitter and receiver
The modem
The bridge

ECE Board Exam April 1998

How do you transmit through multiplexing,


a thousand of voice channel information
over a single fiber optic using on e
wavelength?

What is meant by the term deviation ratio?


A. The ratio of the carrier center frequency
to the audio modulating frequency
B. The ratio of the highest audio
modulating frequency to the average
audio modulating frequency
C. The ratio of the maximum carrier
frequency deviation to the highest audio
modulation frequency
D. The ratio of the audio modulating
frequency to the center carrier frequency

71.

A.
B.
C.
D.

74.

75.
Known as the maritime communications law
which was enacted December 5, 1927
A.
B.
C.
D.

73.

R.A. No. 109


R.A. No. 3396
R.A. No. 7925
R.A. No. 3846

ECE Board Exam April 1998

Polar division
Time division
Fiber division
Frequency division

A. Legal, technical and citizenship


B. Technical, citizenship and kind of
service
C. Citizenship, capacity and financial
D. Technical, legal and financial

Isolator
Retarder
Polarizer
Filters

ECE Board Exam April 1998

What is the meaning of the term velocity


factor of a transmission line?
A. The index of shielding for coaxial cable
B. The velocity of the wave on the
transmission line multiplied by the
velocity of light in vacuum
C. The ratio of the characteristic impedance
of the line to the terminating impedance
D. The velocity of the wave on the
transmission line divided by the velocity
of light in a vacuum

In regulation of public telecommunications


carrier such as in the evaluation of new
entrant, the following consideration shall be
given emphasis to _______.

A quarter wavelength devices made of


crystalline calcite that changes polarization
in the optic fiber communication.

72.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

76.

77.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following determines the
characteristics of a transmission line?
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


One of the following is a high powered RF
ac basic transmitter that has two or more
stages, the oscillator stage which determines
the frequency opereation and RF amplifier
stage or stages that develop the high power
output. The purpose of which is to develop a
good frequency stability.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Goldsmith
MOPA
Alexanderson
Hartley

78.

Inductance
Capacitance
Physical dimension
Length

ECE Board Exam April 1998


One of the following is among the types of
fiber optics used in electronics
communication.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Step-index multimode
Graded-index multimode
Semi-graded multimode
Single mode

79.

One of the following prevents a transmitter


from emitting a signal that interferes with
other stations on frequency during the test.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following refers to the smallest
beam of a satellite antennas radiation
pattern
A.
B.
C.
D.

80.

Global beam
Spot beam
Zone beam
Hemispheric beam

A.
B.
C.
D.

83.

81.

A.
B.
C.
D.

84.

87.

By painting the surface


By inclining the surface
By cooling
By application of antireflection coating

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A. To maintain propagation
B. To maintain temperature of the
waveguide
C. To reduce the possibility of internal
arcing
D. To increase the speed of propagation

How do you eliminate radio frequency


variation of an oscillator transmitter caused
by its supply voltage?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Mixer, RF amplifier and AFC?


RF amplifier, Band pass filter and mixer
Local oscillator, mixer and RF amplifier
Local oscillator, AGC and antenna
85.
ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

What consists the front-end circuit of a VHF


TV superheterodyne receiver?

82.

How do you reduce the loss that is produced


when light strikes a flat polished end of a
fiber optic?

Best reason for pressurizing waveguides


with dry air

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

Unbalanced line
Open-wire line
Balanced line
Coaxial line

50 ohms
120 ohms
75 ohms
650 ohms

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A transmission line consisting of two


conductors that have equal resistance per
unit length.

One of the FM signal generator control


which varies the phase of the modulating
voltage applied to the oscillator of the sweep
generator
Band control
Phase control
Marker amplitude control
Sweep output control

86.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

Use of low height antenna


Use of grounded antenna
Use of dummy antenna
Use of shielded antenna radiator

A.
B.
C.
D.

Use new power supply


Lossen power supply shielding
Use of regulated power supply
Use of high capacitor in the supply
circuit

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following is not common
transmission line impedance?

88.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What is the device used in fiber optic
communication which consist of a receiver
transmitter use to clean up and amplify
digital data moving in one direction and
another in the opposite direction?

A.
B.
C.
D.

89.

Optic compressors
Optic retarders
Optic isolator
Optic regenerators

92.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


What is the major cause of atmospheric or
static noise?
A.
B.
C.
D.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Which of the following refers to the first
active satellite?
A.
B.
C.
D.

90.

Telstar I
Echo I
Intelsat I
Sputnik I

93.

91.

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Telephone set
Printers
Modem
Computer

In data communication the transmission of


binary signals will require _______.

_______ is referred as the difference


between available power and power budget?
A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Fade margin
Power margin
Nominal gain
Power dissipation
98.

95.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

Occupancy period
Traffic time
Use time
Holding time

ECE Board Exam April 1998

ECE Board Exam April 1998

What do you call the phenomenon in digital


circuits that describe the duration of time a
digital signal passes a circuit?
Transmission time
Elapsed time
Propagation delay
Travel delay

Refers to the duration occupancy period of


call during its use.

97.
94.

ISDN
Radio
RS232C
Modem

ECE Board Exam April 1998

Which of the following is not referred to as


data terminal equipment?

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

Sunspots
Airplanes
Meteor showers
Thunderstorm

ECE Board Exam April 1998

In modulation technique, which of the


following is referred to audible pitch?
Width
Frequency
Harmonic
Amplitude

A.
B.
C.
D.

96.

ECE Board Exam April 1998

A.
B.
C.
D.

The conversion of digital signal into analog


for purposes of transmitting into the
telephone line is done through ______.

Same bandwidth as analog


More bandwidth than analog
Less bandwidth than analog
Bigger cable diameter

ECE Board Exam April 1998


Assuming a UHF frequency range of
405.0125 MHz to 405.0875 MHz at 25 kHz
channeling plan, how many channels can
you produce?

A.
B.
C.
D.

99.

2.5 ch.
2 ch.
4 ch.
3 ch.

ECE Board Exam April 1998


One of the following is a possible cause for
a slow drift of frequency in a self-exited
transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a
poor frequency stability.
A.
B.
C.
D.

100.

Loose shielding
Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
Poor soldered connections
Faulty capacitor, resistor, tubes or
resistors

ECE Board Exam April 1998


A modulation which does not follow the
sine wave pattern, it produces undesirable
harmonics such as spurious emission
A.
B.
C.
D.

0% modulated
Over-modulated
Unmodulated
100% modulated

Test Yourself Exam 07


1. How far away is the radio horizon of an
antenna 100ft high?
A. 14.14 mi
B. 40km
C. 14.14 km
D. 40 mi
2. What is the maximum line-of-sight distance
between a paging antenna 250 ft high and a
pager receiver 3.5ft of the ground?
A. 25 km
B.25mi
C. 70.73 km
D. 70.73 mi
3. What is the path attenuation between
transmitter and receiver at a frequency of 1.2
Ghz and a distance of 11,000 mi?
A. 119 dB
B. 115dB
C. 179dB
D. 174dB
4. What is the uplink receiver frequency if the
downlink transmitter is on channel 4 (3.84
Ghz)?
A. 6.065 GHz
B. 6.84 GHz
C. 6.65 GHz
D. 6.05 GHz

D. 144 Mbps
6. What is the quardband between transponder
channels in the commercial C-band for satellite
communications?
A. 6 MHz
B. 36 MHz
C. 4 MHz
D. 2 MHz

7. What is the typical satellite transponder


bandwidth?
A. 24 MHz
B. 500 MHz
C. 36 MHz
D. 48 MHz
8. What is the bandwidth available in the
commercial C-band?
A. 1000 MHz
B. 36 MHz
C. 250 MHz
D. 500 MHz

9. Which of the following is the uplink


frequency in C-band?
A. 5.925 GHz
B. 4.2 GHz
C. 7.425 GHz
5. What is the maximum theoretical data rate of
D. 3.7 GHz
the above problem if one transponder is used for
binary transmission?
10. How many transponder channels are
A. 36 Mbps
realized in the commercial C-band without
B. 72 Mbps
frequency re-use?
C.18 Mbps
A. 24

B. 12
C. 36
D. 48
11. Which band of frequencies used by military
for its satellites and radar?
A. C band
B. X band
C. L band
D. P band
12. For navigation as well as marine and
aeronautical communications and radar, ____
band is used.
A. L
B. K
C. S
D. J
13. What is the current frequency band given
most attenuation for satellite communications?
A. Ku
B. C band
C. J
D. P

14. What satellite subsystem monitors onboard


conditions such as temperature and battery
voltage and transmits this data back to a ground
station for analysis?
A. Communications subsystem
B. AKM
C. TTC
D. Transponder
15. Which of the following satellite subsystem
provides stabilization in orbit and senses
changes in orientation?

A. Attitude control subsystem


B. TTC
C. AKM
D. Transponder

C. C band
D. Ku band

21. Iridium satellites can provide data


16. What is the typical center frequency spacing communications of up ____ bps data rate.
between adjacent channels (transponders) in
A. 1200
satellites?
B. 4800
A. 36 MHz
C. 2400
B. 40 MHz
D. 3840
C. 500 MHz
D. 4 MHz
22. What satellite system is also known as
Navstar?
17. Which of the following are uplinks in the Ku
A. GPS
band?
B. Iridium
A. 14 to 14.5 GHz
C. Globalstar
B. 11.7 to 12.2 GHz
D. Intelsat
C. 14 to 15.5 GHz
D. 11 to 11.5 GHz
23. What is the orbit height of a GPS satellite?
A. 10,898 nmi
18. What is considered as the most advanced
B. 10,898 mi
satellite system developed for cellular
C. 10,898 km
telephones?
D. 10, 898 m
A. Iridium
B. Globalstar
24. What is the orbital period of each satellite in
C. ANIK
the GPS constellation?
D. Molniya
A. 6 h
B. 12 h
19. What is the orbit of Motorolas Iridium
C. 5 h
satellite system?
D. 15 h
A. Polar
B. Equatorial
25. What term is normally associated with
C. Inclined elliptical
specifying the location of a celestial body in
D. Inclined equatorial
space?
A. Constellation
20. What band of frequencies do these satellites
B. Galaxy
operate?
C. Satellite
A. L band
D. Ephemeris
B. Ka band

26. What is the angle of inclination of GPS


system?
A. 55
B. 65
C. 105
D. 45
27. What material is most often used for the
outer covering of coaxial cables?
A. PVC
B. Teflon
C. PE
D. Polystyrene

28. What is the dielectric constant of


polyethylene (PE) insulator?
A. 2.5
B. 3.3
C. 2.27
D. 2.1
29. Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) is also
widely used insulator and is known as.
A. polystyrene
B. teflon
C. ceramic
D. bakelite
30. What is the characteristic impedance of a
two-wire line with the following data: diameter
= 0.023in., spacing =0.5 in., insulation = PE.?
A. 300
B. 250
C. 305
D. 301

31. What is the characteristic impedance of a


coaxial line with the following data: inner
diameter = 0.2 in., center conductor diameter =
0.06 in., insulation = Teflon.
A. 200
B. 75
C. 50
D. 150
32. A pair of current-carrying conductors is not
considered a transmission line unless it is at
least ___ long at the signal frequency.
A. 0.1
B. 0.3
C. 0.2
D. 0.4
33. If the operating frequency is 450 MHz what
length of a pair of conductors is considered to
be a transmission line?
A. 2.19 ft
B. 2.19 m
C. 0.219 ft
D. 0.219 m
34. What is the physical length of the above
transmission line at 3/8 long?
A.0.82 m
B. 0.82 ft
C. 0.82 in
D. 0.82 cm
35. Which of the following coaxial cable
connectors is called the UHF connector?
A. PL-259
B. BNC
C. N-type connector
D. F connector

36. What connector is popular in attaching test


instruments like oscilloscopes, frequency
counters, spectrum analyzers, etc?
A. UHF connector
B. PL-259
C. BNC
D. SMA

41. What is the typical velocity factor of openwire line?


A. 0.9
B. 0.8
C. 0.5
D. 0.7

37. Which coaxial cable connector is least


expensive and is widely used for TV sets,VCRs
and cable TV?
A. N-type connector
B. F-type connector
C. BNC
D. PL-259

42. What line has a typical velocity factor of


about 0.8?
A. Shielded pair
B. Flexible coaxial
C. Twin-lead
D. Open-wire line

43. What is the velocity factor of coaxial cable


38. Which coaxial connector is a more complex with a characteristic impedance of 50 and
and expensive but do a better job in maintaining capacitance of 30pF/ft and inductance of 75
the electrical characteristics of the cable through nH/ft?
the interconnections?
A. 0.58
A. N-type connector
B.0.68
B. F-type connector
C. 0.98
C.BNC
D. 0.81
D. PL-259
44. What is transit time (time delay) of a 50-ft
39. The velocity factor in transmission lines
length transmission line of the above problem?
vary from ___ to ___.
A. 50 ns
A. 0.6 to 0.8
B. 100 ns
B. 0.3 to 0.5
C. 75 ns
C.0.5 to 0.9
D. 65 ns
D. 0.8 to 0.9
45. What do you call a transmission line used
40. What is the typical velocity factor of coaxial specifically for the purpose of achieving delay?
cables?
A. Delay line
A. 0.6 to 0.8
B. Flat line
B. 0.3 to 0.5
C. Resonant line
C. 0.5 to 0.9
D. Non-resonant line
D. 0.4 to 0.6

46. What is the time delay introduced by a 75-ft


coaxial cable with a dielectric constant of 2.3?
A. 1.54 ns
B. 11.5 ns
C. 115.6 ns
D. 1156 ns
47. Assume a frequency of 4 MHz, determine
the phase shift offered by the line in the above
problem.
A. 108.5
B. 106.5
C. 115.5
D. 166.5
48. Find the load impedance that must be used
to terminate RG-62A/U to avoid reflections?
A. 93
B. 75
C. 50
D. 300

49. Find the equivalent inductance per foot of


the above cable?
A. 13.5 nF/ft
B. 13.5 pF/ft
C. 116.8 nH/ft
D. 116.8 pF/ft
50. An RG-11/U foam coaxial cable has a
maximum voltage standing wave of 52 V and a
minimum voltage of 17 V. Find the value of the
resistive load.
A. 24.59
B. Either A or C
C. 228.75
D. Neither A nor C

51. Sound provides all sorts of information.


What information is related to mental processes
of knowledge, reasoning, memory, judgement
and perception?
A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Digital
D. Analog
52. What sound characteristic relates to a sonic
time pattern?
A. Tempo
B. Attack
C. Rhythm
D. Timbre
53. What is considered the most obvious
conveyor of information?
A. Sound
B. Speech
C. Music
D. Noise

56. The basic voice band has how many


octaves?
A. 10
B. 4
C. 5
D. 3
57. The ratio of frequencies is termed.
A. interval
B. octave
C. harmonics
D. factor
58. What is the tonal ratio of an octave?
A. 1 to 2
B. 1 to 3
C. 2 to 1
D. 3 to 1

59. If the loudness level is 100 phons, what is


this in sone unit?
A. 100
B. 90
54. Attack is a sound characteristic that refers to
C. 106
the way a sound begins. Which of the following
D. 96
is NOT an attack of sound?
A. Hard
60. What octave bands are there in the
B. Soft
midrange?
C. Crisp
A. 1st and 2nd
D. Simple
B. 5th, 6th and 7th
C. 3rd and 4th
55. At what loudness level do pitch (in mels)
D. 8th and 9th
and frequency (in Hz) are numerically equal?
A. 0 dB
61. How much louder is 80 phons over 60
B. 20 dB
phons?
C. 60 dB
A. 1000 times
D. 40 dB
B.4 times louder
C. 100 times

D. Twice as loud

C. 76 MHz
D. 76 mHz

71. The noise from an airplane engine 100 ft


from an observer is found to have an intensity of
67. A choir consisting of 36 individuals all of
45dB. What will be the intensity when the plane
whom can sing with the same intensity. A
flies overhead at an altitude of 1 mi?
soloist sings a certain passage and then is joined
A. 10.5 dB
by the remainder of the choir members for a
B. 34.5 dB
repeat of the passage. What is the difference in
C. 35 dB
the sound intensity level in the two cases?
D. 20.5 dB
A. 3 dB
B. 6 dB
72. What is the apparent loudness of 80 dB?
C. 36 dB
A. Moderate
D. 15.6dB
B. Very loud
63. What is typical loudness level of an acoustic
C. Loud
guitar 1 foot away?
68. For the safety and comfort of factory
D. Deafening
A. 60dB
workers, the sound-intensity level in a certain
B. 100dB
factory must remain below 85 dB. What is the
73. What loudness level in which permanent
C. 80dB
maximum sound intensity allowed in this
damage to hearing is possible?
D. 40dB
factory?
A. 120 dB
-4
2
A. 3.2 x 10 W/m
B. 140 dB
64. What do you call the perceptible sound
B. 3.2 x 10-6 W/m2
C. 130 dB
-10
2
repetition?
C. 3.2 x 10 W/m
D. 150 dB
A. Reverberation
D. 3.2 x 10-3 W/m2
B. Echo
74. What is sound pressure level if the RMS
C. Reflection
69. What sound intensity corresponds to a
sound pressure is 100 bars?
D. Masking
sound-intensity level of 50dB?
A. 114 dB
-6
2
A. 1 x 10 W/m
B. 11.4 dB
65. What is the amount of sound reduction
B. 1 x 10-7W/m2
C. 94 dB
-8
2
provided by a barrier wall, floor, or ceiling
C. 1 x 10 W/m
D. 57 dB
called?
D.1 x 10-5W/m2
A. Sound Attenuation
75. What is the velocity of sound in wood
B. Transmission loss
70. The sound intensity received from the
(m/s)?
2
C. Sound absorption
nearby jet plane is 12.6 W/m and that from
A. 330
D. Barrier loss
another jet plane some distance away is 0.45
B. 3600
2
W/m . Find the relative loudness of the two.
C. 3300
66. What is the frequency of a 2-cm sound
A. 14.0 dB
D. 5800
wave in sea water at 25C?
B. 14.5dB
A. 76 kHz
C. 12.5
76. What is the optimum reverberation time at
B. 76 Hz
D. 14.5
500 to 1000 Hz of an auditorium?
62. What increase in sound level is commonly
perceived by most people?
A. 6 to 10 dB
B. 1 to 3 dB
C. 3 to 6 dB
D. 10 to 20dB

A. 0.9 to 1.1 s
B. 1.4 to 1.6 s
C. 1.5 to 1.6 s
D. 1.6 to 1.8 s

77. For a cinema, the optimum volume per


person required is
A. 3.1
B. 2.8
C. 7.1
D. 4.2
78. Which of the following is NOT an
acoustical defect to be avoided in acoustical
designs?
A. Reverberation
B. Flutter echo
C. Distortion
D. Sound concentration
79. What absorber in which efficient absorption
is only possible over a very narrow band
approaching 1.0 (total absorption)?
A. Porous material
B. Helmholtz resonator
C. Panel Absorber
D. Membrane absorber
80. How many voice signals (4 kHz max.)
would fit into a 5 MHz spectrum?
A. 1250
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 1500
81. How many FM stations would be
accommodated I an ordinary TV channel?

A. 33
B. 30
C. 40
D. 25
82. What is the actual length in feet of a onequarter wavelength of a coax with a velocity
factor of 0.695 at 45 MHz?
A. 17.82
B. 19.26
C. 16.28
D. 16.97

C. 6.04
D. 7.04
86. At a certain time, the MUF for transmission
at an angle of incidence of 75 is 17 MHz. What
is the critical frequency?
A. 4.4 MHz
B. 3.5 MHz
C. 6.5 MHz
D. 1.5 MHz

87. A properly matched transmission line has a


loss of 1.5 dB/100m. if 10 W is supplied to one
83. Determine the terrain sensitivity loss for a 4- end of the line, how many watts reach the load,
GHz carrier that is propagating over a very dry, 27 m away?
mountainous area.
A. 10 W
A. -1.25 dB
B. 7.2 W
B. -3.05 dB
C. 9.9 W
C. -2.01 dB
D. 9.1 W
D. -5.01 dB
88. The electromagnetic radiation theory was
profounded by
84. A satellite transmitter operates at 4GHz with
A. Sir Edward Appleton
an antenna gain of 4dBi. The receiver 40000 km
B. Guglielmo Marconi
away has an antenna gain of 50 dBi. If the
C. Heinrich Hertz
transmitter has a power of 8 W, find (ignoring
D. James C. Maxwell
feedline losses and mismatch) the EIRP in
dBW.
89. What is caused by the transverse nature of
A. 50
electromagnetic waves?
B. 69
A. Polarization
C. 49
B. Interference
D. 30
C. Beamwidth
D. Gain
85. A radio signal moves from air to glass. The
angle of incidence is 20. Calculate the angle of 90. Which propagation method is known as
refraction. The relative permittivity of the glass special case of skywave?
is 7.8.
A. Space wave
A. 7.8
B. Troposcatter
B. 5.04
C. Ground wave

D. Direct wave
96. What is the actual length in feet of a one91. What is the orbit inclination of geostationary half wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor
satellites?
of 0.63 at 28 MHz?
A. 0
A. 44.28
B. 10
B. 43.46
C. 20
C. 11.07
D. 30
D. 46.27
92. A transmission line of unknown impedance
is terminated with two different resistances, and
an SWR is measured each time. With a 75
termination, the SWR measures 1.5. With a 300
termination, it measures 2.67. What is the
impedance of the line?
A. 100
B. 212
C. 300
D. 112
93. What is the high frequency sound that
cannot be heard by the human ear?
A. Ultrasonic
B. Transonic
C. Subsonic
D. Supersonic
94. What frequency is 10 octaves above 30 Hz?
A. 30.72 kHz
B. 30 kHz
C. 300 Hz
D. 307.2 kHz
95. A radio signal travels ____ yards per
microseconds.
A. 273
B. 328
C. 618
D. 123.6

97. The range of speech power is ____.


A. 1 10 watts
B. 100 1000 milliwatts
C. 10 100 milliwatts
D. 10 1000 microwatts
98. What is the actual length in feet of a onequarter wavelength of a coax with a velocity
factor of 0.68 to 30 MHz?
A. 19.26
B. 5.6
C. 17.82
D. 16.97
99. What is actual length in feet of a one-half
wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor of
0.59 at 26 MHz?
A. 11.16
B. 40.29
C. 42.46
D. 46.28
100. The agreed standard for measuring
loudness is the loudness sensation produced by
a 1000 Hz sine wave _____ dB above the
listeners threshold of hearing.
A. 80
B. 50
C. 30
D. 40

Test Yourself Exam 08


1. What is the refractive index of an
ionospheric layer with 100x105 free
electrons per m3?
Assume frequency to be at 20 MHz.
A. 0.99
B. 0.15
C. 0.78
D. 0.85
2. Each point on a spherical wavefront may be
considered a source of secondary spherical
wavefronts. This is known as the

A. Snells law
B. DAlemberts principle
C. Appletons theory
D. Huygens principle

6. What propagation condition is usually


indicated when a VHF signal is received from a
station over 500 miles away?
A. D-layer absorption
B. Faraday rotation
C. Tropospheric ducting
D. Moonbounce

C. Transmission line resistance plus


radiation resistance
D. Radiation resistance plus ohmic
resistance
11. What are electromagnetic waves?
3. What is meant by the term deviation ratio?
A. Alternating currents in the core of an
A. The ratio of the audio modulating
electromagnet
frequency to the center carrier frequency.
B. A wave consisting of two electric
B. The ratio of the maximum carrier
7. What is meant by the term modulation index? fields at right angles to each other
frequency deviation to the highest audio
A. The processor index.
C. A wave consisting of an electric field
modulating frequency.
B. The ratio between the deviation of a
and a magnetic field at right angles to each other
C. The ratio of the carrier center
frequency modulated signal and the modulating
D. A wave consisting of two magnetic
frequency to the audio modulating frequency.
frequency.
fields at right angles to each other
D. The ratio of the highest audio
C. The FM signal-to-noise ratio.
modulating frequency to the average audio
D. The ratio of the maximum carrier
12. The band of frequencies least susceptible to
modulating frequency.
frequency deviation to the highest audio
atmospheric noise and interference is:
modulating frequency.
A. 30 300 kHz
4. What is the major cause of selective fading?
B. 300 3000 kHz
A. Small changes in the beam heading at 8. The bending of radio waves passing over the
C. 3 30 MHz
the receiving station.
top of a mountain range that disperses a weak
D. 300 3000 MHz
B. Large changes in the height of the
portion of the signal behind the mountain is
ionosphere, as experience at the receiving
A. eddy-current phase effect
13. What is the relationship in degrees of the
station.
B. knife-edge diffraction
electrostatic and electromagnetic fields of an
C. Time differences between the
C. shadowing
antenna?
receiving and transmitting stations.
D. mirror refraction effect
A. 0 degree
D. Phase differences between radio wave
B. 45 degrees
components of the same transmission, as
9. What is the wavelength of a signal at 500
C. 90 degrees
experienced at the receiving station.
MHz?
D. 180 degrees
A. 0.062 cm
5. What phenomenon causes the radio-path
B. 6 meters
14. For a space wave transmission, the radio
horizon distance to exceed the geometric
C. 60 cm
horizon distance of a transmitting antenna with
horizon?
D. 60 meters
a height of 100 meters is approximately:
A. E-layer skip.
A. 10 km
B. D-layer skip.
10. What is included in the total resistance of an
B. 40 km
C. Auroral skip.
antenna system?
C. 100 km
D. Radio waves may be bent.
A. Radiation resistance plus space
D. 400 km
impedance
B. Radiation resistance plus transmission
resistance

15. What is meant by referring to


electromagnetic waves as horizontally
polarized?
A. The electric field is parallel to the
earth.
B. The magnetic field is parallel to the
earth.
C. Both the electric and magnetic fields
are horizontal
D. Both the electric and magnetic fields
are vertical
16. What is meant by referring to
electromagnetic waves as having circular
polarization?
A. The electric field is bent into a
circular shape.
B. The electric field rotates
C. The electromagnetic wave continues
to circle the earth
D. The electromagnetic wave has been
generated by a quad antenna
17. If a transmitting antenna is 100 meters high
and a separate receiving antenna is 64 meters
high, what is the maximum space wave
communication distance possible between
them?
A. 18 km
B. 72 km
C. 164 km
D. 656 km
18. A receiver is located 64 km from a space
wave transmitting antenna that is 100 meters
high. Find the required height of the receiving
antenna.
A. 36 meters high
B. 64 meters high

C. 100 meters high


D. 182.25 meters high
19. Which of the following is not one of the
natural ways a radio wave may travel from
transmitter to receiver?
A. Ground wave
B. Micro wave
C. Sky wave
D. Space wave

A. 2.70
B. 0.66
C. 0.30
D. 0.10

24. If a transmission line has a power loss of 6


dB per 100 feet, what is the power at the feed
20. Which of the following terrain types permits point to the antenna at the end of a 200 foot
a ground wave to travel the farthest?
transmission line fed by a 100 watt transmitter?
A. Salt water
A. 70 watts
B. Fresh water
B. 50 watts
C. Sandy
C. 25 watts
D. Rocky
D. 6 watts
21. What is the input terminal impedance at the
center if a folded dipole antenna?
A. 300 ohms
B. 72 ohms
C. 50 ohms
D. 450 ohms

25. What determines the velocity factor in a


transmission line?
A. The termination impedance
B. The line length
C. Dielectrics in the line
D. The center conductor resistivity

22. What is the term used to describe a spread


spectrum communications system where the
center frequency if a conventional carrier is
altered many time per second in accordance
with a pseudo-random list of channels?
A. Frequency hopping
B. Direct sequence
C. Time-domain frequency modulation
D. Frequency compandored spread
spectrum

26. What term is used to describe a spread


spectrum communications system in which a
very fast binary bit stream is used to shift the
phase of an RF carrier?
A. Frequency hopping
B. Direct sequence
C. Binary phase-shift keying
D. Phase compandored spread spectrum

23. What is the velocity factor for non-foam


dielectric 50 or 75 ohm flexible coaxial cable
such as RG 8, 11, 58 and 59?

27. Which of the following frequency bands is


best suited for ground wave propagation?
A. 30 to 300 kHz
B. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
C. 3 MHz to 30 MHz

D. 30 MHz to 300 MHz


28. Which of the following frequency bands is
best suited for sky wave propagation?
A. 30 to 300 kHz
B. 3 MHz to 30 MHz
C. 30 MHz to 300 MHz
D. 3 GHz to 30 GHz
29. What is the seventh harmonic of a 100 MHz
quarter wavelength antenna?
A. 14.28 MHz
B. 107 MHz
C. 149 MHz
D. 700 MHz
30. Which if the following layers of the
ionosphere has no effect on sky wave
propagation during the hours of darkness?
A. D
B. E
C. F1
D. F2
31. Skip distance can be maximized by using
the ____ radiation angle possible and the ____
frequency that will be refracted at that angle.
A. lowest, lowest
B. lowest, highest
C. highest, lowest
D. highest, highest
32. What is the meaning of the term velocity
factor of a transmission line?
A. The ratio of the characteristic
impedance of the line to the terminating
impedance
B. The index of shielding for coaxial
cable.

C. The velocity of the wave on the


transmission line multiplied by the velocity of
light in a vacuum.
D. The velocity of the wave on the
transmission line divided by the velocity of light
in a vacuum.
33. What is the term for the ratio of actual
velocity at which a signal travels through a line
to the speed of light in a vacuum?
A. Velocity factor
B. Characteristic impedance
C. Surge impedance
D. Standing wave ratio
34. Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable
transmission line shorter than its electrical
length?
A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the
coaxial cable
B. RF energy moves slower along the
coaxial cable
C. The surge impedance is higher in the
parallel feed line
D. The characteristic impedance is
higher in the parallel feed line
35. What would be the physical length of a
tpical coaxial transmission line that is
electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1
MHz?
A. 20 meters
B. 3.51 meters
C. 2.33 meters
D. 0.25 meter
36. To obtain the most reliable sky wave
propagation the ____ should be used.
A. Lowest useable frequency (LUF).

B. Maximum useable frequency (MUF).


C. Optimum useable frequency (OUF).
D. Critical frequency

37. What is the deviation ratio for an FM-phone


signal having a maximum frequency swing of
plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum
modulation rate of 3kHz?
A. 60
B. 0.16
C. 0.6
D. 1.66
38. Tropospheric scatter is a method of sky
wave propagation for which of the following
frequency bands?
A. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
B. 3 MHz to 30 MHz
C. 30 MHz to 300 MHz
D. 300 MHz to 3 GHz
39. What is the frequency range of an aircrafts
radio altimeter?
A. 962 MHz to 1213 MHz
B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz
C. 4250 MHz to 4350 MHz
D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz
40. What type of transmission is radiated from
an aircrafts radio altimeter antenna?
A. An amplitude modulated continuous
wave
B. A pulse position modulated UHF
signal
C. A differential phase shift keyed UHF
signal

D. A frequency modulated continuous

D. horizontal, horizontal

D. 0.67

wave
41. The polarization of a radio wave:
A. Is perpendicular to the electrostatic
field of the antenna
B. Is the same direction as the
electrostatic field of the antenna.
C. Is the same direction as the magnetic
field of the antenna.
D. Is perpendicular to both the
electrostatic and magnetic fields of the antenna.
42. A coaxial cable has 7dB of reflected power
when the input is 5 watts. What is the output of
the transmission line?
A. 5 watts
B. 2.5 watts
C. 1.25 watts
D. 1 watt

45. How does the gain of a parabolic dish type


antenna change when the operating frequency is
doubled?
A. Gain does not change
B. Gain is multiplied by 0.707
C. Gain increases 6 dB
D. Gain increases 3 dB
46. What is the frequency range of an aircrafts
Very High Frequency (VHF) communications?
A. 118.000 MHz to 136.975 MHz
(worldwide up to 151.975 MHz)
B. 108.000 MHz to 117.95 MHz
C. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz
D. 2.0000 MHz to 29.999 MHz

43. When is it useful to refer to an isotropic


radiator?
A. When comparing the gains of
directional antennas
B. When testing a transmission line for
standing wave ratio
C. When (in the northern hemisphere)
directing the transmission in a southerly
direction
D. When using a dummy load to tune a
transmitter

47. What is a selective fading effect?


A. A fading effect caused by small
changes in beam heading at the receiving
station.
B. A fading effect caused by phase
differences between radio wave components of
the same transmission, as experienced at the
receiving station.
C. A fading effect caused by large
changes in the height of the ionosphere, as
experienced at the receiving station
D. A fading effect caused by time
differences between the receiving and
transmitting stations.

44. Most AM broadcasts employ ___


polarization while most FM broadcasts employ
___ polarization of the radio wave.
A. vertical, vertical
B. vertical, horizontal
C. horizontal, vertical

48. If the velocity of propagation in a certain


medium is 200x106 m/s, what is its refractive
index?
A. 1.3
B. 1.5
C. 1.27

49. What is the resultant field strength at the


receiving antenna in space wave propagation
under case 2?
A. 0
B. d
C. 2d
D. 3d

50. The decimetric wave is using what method


of propagation?
A. Ground wave
B. Space wave
C. Sky wave
D. Tropospheric wave
51. What is the typical frequency used for
communicating to submerged submarines?
A. 100 Hz
B. 500 Hz
C. 4 kHz
D. 200 Hz
52. Which frequency bands can be refracted
during the day by the D layer?
A. VLF
B. MF
C. LF
D. Both VLF and LF
53. What height of an ionized layer is
determined from the time interval between the
transmitted signal and the ionospheric echo at
vertical incidence?
A. Virtual height

B. Apparent height
C. Actual height
D. Effective height

frequency of 10 MHz if the velocity of


propagation is 2.5x108 m/s?
A. 0.25
B. 2.5
54. During the night when the F2 layer combines
C. 0.35
with F1 layer it falls to what approximate
D. 3.5
height?
A. 250 km
59. Determine the conductance of a two-wire
B. 350 km
open line with the following parameters: D = 4
C. 300 km
in., d = 0.1 in. and = 2.6x108 -m.
D. 400 km
A. 2.76x10-9 S/m
B. 2.76x10-6 S/m
55. Which of the following is considered the
C. 2.76x10-12 S/m
most frequently used transmission line?
D. 2.76x10-3 S/m
A. Two-wire open line
B. Twin lead
60. What is the input impedance of a
C. Rigid coaxial line
transmission line if its characteristic impedance
D. Flexible coaxial line
is 300 and the load is 600 ? Assume a
quarter wavelength section only.
56. The antenna effective height is ____ to ____
A. 150 k
of the actual height.
B. 150 m
A. to 2/3
C. 150
B. to
D. 2
C. to 2/3
D. to
61. Determine the standing wave ratio of a 300 line whose load is 400+j150 .
A. 3.55
57. What is the propagation velocity of a signal
B. 1.67
in a transmission line whose inductance and
C. 5.53
capacitance are 5H/m and 20F/m
D. 3.35
respectively?
A. 100x103 m/s
62. What is the optimum volume per person of
B. 100 m/s
rooms for speech?
C. 10x103 m/s
A. 2.8
6
D. 100x10 m/s
B. 3.1
C. 4.2
58. What is the phase coefficient in radians per
D. 5.1
unit length of a transmission line at the

63. What happens to the beamwidth of an


antenna as the gain is increased?
A. The beamwidth increases
geometrically as the gain is increased.
B. The beamwidth increases
arithmetically as the gain is increased.
C. The beamwidth is essentially
unaffected by the gain of the antenna.
D. The beamwidth decreases as the gain
is increased.
64. A superhet receiver has an IF of 455 kHz
and is experiencing image-channel interference
on a frequency of 1570 kHz. The receiver is
tuned to
A. 1115 kHz
B. 660 kHz
C. 2025 kHz
D. 910 kHz
65. What is the end impedance of a half-wave
dipole?
A. 73
B. 72
C. 250
D. 2500
66. What volume of the chamber is required to
measure absorption coefficient at 100 Hz?
A. 125 m3
B. 50 m3
C. 150 m3
D. 352 m3
67. What is the optimum reverberation time at
500 Hz for a cinema?
A. 0.8 1.2 sec.
B. 0.9 1.3 sec.
C. 0.6 0.8 sec.

D. 0.45 0.55 sec.


68. An FM receiver whose intermediate
frequency is 10.7 MHz, is experiencing image
channel interference from a station transmitting
on 121.1 MHz. If the local oscillator is tracking
above, the receiver is tuned to
A. 131.8 MHz
B. 110.4 MHz
C. 142.5 MHz
D. 99.7 MHz
69. A 1 Mhz carrier is amplitude modulated by a
pure 200-Hz audio test tone. Which of the
following combinations of frequencies represent
the total content of the AM signal?
A. 1 MHz and 200 Hz
B. 1 MHz and 1000.2 kHz
C. 999.8 kHz, 1000 kHz, and 1000.2
kHz
D. 999.8 kHz and 1000.2 kHz
70. What establishes the receiver bandwidth?
A. RF amplifier
B. Mixer
C. Local oscillator
D. IF amplifier
71. What noise type is observable between 8
MHz to somewhat above 1.43 GHz or up to 1.5
GHz?
A. Solar noise
B. Space noise
C. Galactic noise
D. Cosmic noise
72. Flicker noise is a poorly understood form of
noise which may be completely ignored about
above ____.

A.100 Hz
B. 200 Hz
C. 400 Hz
D. 500 Hz
73. What is the typical gain of a rhombic
antenna?
A. Between 15 to 60
B. Between 20 to 90
C. Between 50 to 75
D. Between 10 to 25
74. What illumination factor is normally
considered in computing parabolic antenna gain
in microwave communications?
A. 0.54
B. 0.65
C. 0.75
D. 0.85
75. How many voice band channels are there in
a superjumbo group?
A. 600
B. 900
C. 10,800
D. 3,600
76. In acoustics, what is the reference pressure
in lb/ft2 unit?
A. 2x10-5
B. 0.0002
C. 2.089
D. 2.980
77. Which of the following characterizes a
properly terminated transmission line?
A. The line loss is minimum.
B. The standing wave ratio is minimum.

C. The input impedance is twice the load


impedance.
D. The standing wave ratio is one.

78. What is the meaning of forward power?


A. The power traveling from the
transmitter to the antenna.
B. The power radiated from the top of an
antenna system.
C. The power produced during the
positive half of an RF cycle.
D. The power used to drive a linear
amplifier.
79. What organization has published safety
guidelines for the maximum limits of RF
energy near the human body?
A. The American National Standards
Institute (ANSI).
B. The Environmental Protection
Agency (EPA).
C. The Federal Communications
Commission (FCC).
D. The Institute Of Electrical and
Electronics Engineers (IEEE).
80. When no signal is being received, the
loudspeaker is not entirely silent as a result of
the presence of
A. parasitic oscillations in some of the
receiver stages.
B. negative feedback in each stage.
C. spurious frequencies as a result of
improper neutralization.
D. internal receiver noise.

81. When measuring a transmitters frequency


against a suitable standard, the frequency to be
measured is taken from the
A. oscillator stage
B. intermediate amplifier
C. buffer stage
D. final RF stage
82. When the is the ionosphere most ionized?
A. Dusk
B. Midnight
C. Dawn
D. Midday
83. Cellular radios use FM with a maximum
deviation of
A.
B.
C.
D.

A. Dipole
B. Parabolic
C. Helical
D. Rhombic

peak due to vibrational resonances in the water


vapor molecule?
A. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm
B. 1.5 mm and 5mm
C. 1.35 dm and 1.7cm
D. 1.5 cm and 5 mm

87. The presence of standing waves on a


transmission line is the result of
A. a high level of attenuation on the line.
B. terminating the line by a resistive load 92. Oxygen molecule absorption peaks to
equal in value to the surge impedance
electromagnetic wave are at what wavelengths?
C. reducing the input power to below its
A. 1.35 mm and 1.7 m
critical level.
B. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm
D. an impedance mismatch between the
C. 5 cm and 2.5 cm
load and the line.
D. 5 mm and 2.5 mm
88. What device measures rf power by
measuring the heat the rf power generates?
A. Calorimeter
B. Goniometer
C. Spectrum meter
D. Oscilloscope

93. The approximate single-hop nighttime range


of F2 layer is ____.
A. 3000 km
B. 3840 km
C. 4130 km
D. 2350km

84. What device measures the angle between


two radio frequencies and also the direction of
propagation of a wave?
A. Densimeter
B. Absorption wavemeter
C. Goniometer
D. Ergometer

89. What is considered the most efficient mode


in terms of energy transfer in waveguides?
A. Dominant mode
B. Normal mode
C. Conventional mode
D. Vertical mode

94. What ionospheric layer has a daytime


approximate critical frequency of 8 MHz?
A. F2 layer
B. F1 layer
C. E layer
D. D layer

85. An automated ship-to-shore distress alerting


system using satellites and advanced terrestrial
communications systems.
A. GPS
B. Iridium system
C. INMARSAT
D. GMDSS

90. In acoustics, _____ is the apparent change in


frequency or pitch when a sound source moves
either toward or away from a listener.
A. flanking
B. reverberation
C. Doppler effect
D. echo

86. What antenna can be used to minimize the


effect of Faraday rotation of polarization?

91. Which of the following wavelengths where


absorption of electromagnetic waves becomes

95. In cellular system, _____ defines the


geographic distance that is required between
cells using identical frequencies in order to
avoid interference between the radio
transmissions at these cells.
A. frequency-reuse ratio
B. distance-to-reuse ratio (D/R)
C. reuse format plan ratio
D. reuse factor

96. What do you call the ability of a mobile


phone to change from one channel (frequency)
to another?
A. Frequency agility
B. Frequency handoff
C. Frequency handover
D. Frequency switch
97. What mathematical plane figure is ideal in
cellular system design and engineering it
graphically and functionally depicts overlapping
radio coverage between and among adjacent cell
base stations?
A. Hexagon
Test Yourself Exam 09
B. Octagon
C. Pentagon
1. What significant element of sound refers to
D. Nonagon
its characteristic tonal quality?
A. Pitch
98. In cellular system, the average lead time to
B. Tempo
install a new base station is approximately ____
C. Rhythm
months to a year.
D. Timbre
A. 4
B. 5
2. What is the velocity of sound in wood?
C. 6
A. 5800 m/s
D. 10
B. 5000 m/s
99. What is considered the threshold of
C. 3300 m/s
audibility at 3000 Hz?
D. 3700 m/s
A. 10-12 W/m2
B. 10-16 W/m2
3. What is the typical loudness level of a watch
C. 10-12 W/cm2
ticking?
-15
2
D. 10 W/cm
A. 0 phon
B. 40 phons
100. At one atmospheric pressure, what is the
C. 20 phons
approximate speed of sound in steel?
D. 60 phons
A. 5150 m/s
B. 5150 ft/s
4. The typical length of the rhombic antenna is
C. 4990 m/s
____.
D. 4990 ft/s
A. 2 to 8
B. 10 to 20

C. 1 to 3
D. 5 to 10
5. What is the carrier frequency of supergroup
10?
A. 2724 kHz
B. 2356 kHz
C. 2108 kHz
D. 3100 kHz

6. In SPADE system, how many PCM-encoded


voice band channels are there?
A. 800
B. 600
C. 300
D. 240
7. The product of the radiated RF power of a
transmitter and the gain of the antenna system in
a given direction relative to an isotropic radiator
is called ____.
A. Effective Radiated Power (ERP)
B. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power
(EIRP)
C. Radiated Power
D. Transmit Power
8. The product of antenna input power and the
antenna power gain expressed in kW is called
__.
A. Effective Radiated Power (ERP)
B. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power
(EIRP)
C. Radiated Power
D. Transmit Power

9. What satellite system parameter represents


D. Space Division Multiplexing (SDM)
the quality of a satellite or an earth station
receiver?
14. What carrier system multiplexes 96 voice
A. Gain-to-Equivalent Noise
band channels into a single 6.312 Mbps data
Temperature Ratio (G/Te)
signal?
B. Energy of Bit-to-Noise Density Ratio
A. T1 carrier system
(Eb/No)
B. T2 carrier system
C. Carrier-to-Noise Density Ratio (C/No)
C. T1C carrier system
D. Bit energy
D. T3 carrier system
10. What noise is observable at frequencies in
the range from about 8 MHz to somewhat 1.5
GHz?
A. Industrial noise
B. Atmospheric noise
C. Space noise
D. Shot noise
11. A special horn antenna consisting of a
parabolic cylinder joined to a pyramidal horn.
A. Hoghorn
B. Cass-horn
C. Pyramidal horn
D. Conical horn
12. How many telegraph channels are there in
the basic voice band channels?
A. 24
B. 96
C. 48
D. 672

13. Which of the following is oldest


multiplexing scheme?
A. Frequency Division Multiplexing
(FDM)
B. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
C. Code Division Multiplexing (CDM)

15. What is the metric subdivision of VHF


band?
A. Metric
B. Millimetric
C. Decimetric
D. Centimetric

D. Syncom IV
19. In transmission line, which of the following
is the first step in the procedure of using stub
matching?
A. Calculate stub susceptance.
B. Calculate load admittance
C. Connect stub to load
D. Transform conductance to resistance
20. What type of balun (balanced-tounbalanced) is used in high frequency
applications?
A. Transformer type balun
B. A specially configured coaxial
transmission line
C. A specially configured parallel-wire
line
D. A /2 transformer balun

16. In satellite communications, what means of


attitude control is using the angular momentum
of the spinning body to provide the roll and yaw
stabilization?
21. ____ is defined as any radiation of energy
A. Spin stabilization
by means of electromagnetic wave.
B. Radial stabilization
A. Emission
C. Three-axis stabilization
B. Radiation
D. Station keeping
C. Radio
D. Broadcasting
17. Which of the following is NOT a porous
absorber?
22. In what year did Hertz discover radio
A. Prefabricated tiles
waves?
B. Plasters and spray on materials
A. 1844
C. Acoustic blankets
B. 1873
D. Membrane absorber
C. 1887
D. 1895
18. What historical satellite broadcasted live the
1964 Olympic games from Tokyo, Japan for the 23. Which of the following phenomena is
first time?
possible is free space medium?
A. Syncom I
A. Reflection of radio wave
B. Syncom III
B. Diffraction of radio wave
C. Syncom II
C. Refraction of radio wave

D. Attenuation of radio wave


24. What is the reactance property at the input
of a shorted quarter wavelength line?
A. A parallel LC circuit
B. A pure inductive reactance
C. A series LC circuit
D. A pure capacitive reactance
25. An early satellite owned by US Department
of Defense that lasted only for 17 days
A. Courier
B. Echo
C. Score
D. Westar 1
26. Which of the following is the consolidation
of H. No. 5224 and S. No. 2683?
A. RA 9292
B. RA 5734
C. RA 7925
D. RA 6849

27. Who will appoint the chairman and 2


members of the board of Electronics
Engineering?
A. The Senate President
B. The President
C. The Supreme Court
D. The Commission on Appointment
28. How many nominees per position of the
Electronics Engineering Board are nominated
by IECEP to PRC?
A. 3

B. 5
C. 4
D. 6
29. According to RA 9292, how many days after
the board exam the results will be released?
A. Within 5 days
B. Within 15 days
C. Within 20 days
D. Within 3 days
30. How many removal examination (s) will be
given to an examinee who obtains a passing
rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains
a rating in the other subject (s) below seventy
percent (70%) but not lower than sixty percent
(60%)?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. Unlimited
31. Which of the following determines the
acoustic behavior of gases?
A. Density
B. Pressure
C. Temperature
D. All of the choices

B. 60
C. 20
D. 45
34. A porous material is far more efficient at
high than low frequency absorption. How to
improve sound absorption at lower frequencies
using this absorber?
A. Increase the thickness
B. Decrease the thickness
C. Mount with and airspace behind
D. Both A and C above
35. Which of the following describes a TDM
frame?
A. A 250-s frame
B. A 125-s frame
C. A 500-s frame
D. A 60-s frame
36. ____ system transmits frequency-divisionmultiplexed voice band signals over a coaxial
cable for distances up to 4000 miles.
A. T carrier
B. X carrier
C. L carrier
D. F carrier

32. In what medium sound travels the faster?


A. Vacuum
B. Solid
C. Liquid
D. Gas

37. What is the spectrum range of U600


mastergroup?
A. 60 108 kHz
B. 564 3084 kHz
C. 312 552 kHz
D. 60 -2788 kHz

33. For a loudness level between 110 and 120


dB, the maximum daily exposure limit is ____
minute (s).
A. 1

38. Which frequency reuse method is less


effective because of Faradays effect?
A. Dual polarization
B. Reducing antenna beamwidth

C. Zonal rotation
D. Spin stabilization

43. What is the number of levels required in a


PCM system with S/N ratio of 40 dB?
A. 64
39. Three telephone circuits, each having an S/N
B. 128
ratio of 44 dB, are connected in tandem. What is
C. 256
the overall S/N ratio?
D. 512
A. 44 dB
B. 39.2 dB
44. A radio communications link is to be
C. 41 dB
established via the ionosphere. The maximum
D. 43.52 dB
virtual height of the layer is 100 km at the
midpoint of the path and the critical frequency is
40. What is the noise factor if the equivalent
2 MHz. The distance between stations is 600
noise temperature is 25 K?
km. determine the optimum working frequency?
A. 1.09
A. 6.32 MHz
B. 0.09
B. 2.1 MHz
C. 0.36 dBm
C. 5.4 MHz
D. 0.36
D. 1.8 MHz

41. A ground station is operating to a


geostationary satellite at a 5 angle of elevation.
Calculate the round-trip time between ground
station and satellite.
A. 275 s
B. 275 ms
C. 137.5 s
D. 137.5 ms
42. Calculate the reverberation time of a living
room 8 ft high, 13 ft wide and 20 ft long. The
total absorption of the building structure inside
the room is 180.7 sabines with four persons
present in the room.
A. 0.5 ms
B. 0.05 s
C. 0.5 s
D. 5 ms

47. What is the approximate single-hop


nighttime range of F2 layer?
A. 3840 km
B. 3000 km
C. 4130 km
D. 2350 km
48. What ionospheric layer has a daytime
approximate critical frequency of 8 MHz?
A. F2 layer
B. F1 layer
C. E layer
D. D layer
49. Determine the additional absorption
(sabines) contributed by 10 persons in a room.
A. 47
B. 4.7
C. 0.47
D. 470

45. Part of a microwave link can be


approximated by free space conditions. The
antenna gain are each 40 dB, the frequency is 10
GHz, and the path length is 80 km. Calculate the 50. A frequency of 3000 Hz has how many
receive power for a transmitted power of 10 W? octaves above 1000 Hz?
A. 0.871 W
A. 1.6 octaves
B. 871 W
B. 2.1 octaves
C. 0.871 mW
C. 1 octave
D. 871 nW
D. 3 octaves
46. What is the approximate critical frequency
of the E layer?
A. 4 MHz
B. 5 MHz
C. 6 MHz
D. 3 MHz

51. The loudness level increased from 40 to 56


phons. What is the increase in loudness
sensation?
A. 3 times
B. 4.5 times
C. 2 times
D. 4 times
52. In the North American TDM system, what is
the transmission rate in Mbps of T3 carrier
system?

A. 44.736
B. 6.312
C. 3.152
D. 274.176
53. What is the data rate in Mbps of a single
satellite transponder considering an S/N of 30
dB?
A. 35.8
B. 3.58
C. 358
D. 3580

54. What condition occur when the refractive


index of the air decreases with height much
more rapidly the normal?
A. Refraction
B. Superrefraction
C. Subrefraction
D. Diffraction
55. What do you call the increase of temperature
with height?
A. Temperature inversion
B. Normal inversion
C. Ducting
D. Superrefraction
56. ____ is a term given to the region where
superrefraction occurs.
A. Strata
B. Duct
C. Isothermal region
D. Tropospheric region
57. Which of the following wavelengths where
absorption of electromagnetic waves becomes

peak due to vibrational resonances in the water


vapor molecule?
A. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm
B. 1.5 mm and 5 mm
C. 1.35 dm and 1.7 cm
D. 1.5 cm and 5mm

62. In the above problem, what is the new


velocity of sound assuming dry air medium?
A. 343 ft/s
B. 3430 m/s
C. 343 m/s
D. 342 m/s

58. Oxygen molecule absorption peaks to


electromagnetic wave are at what wavelengths?
A. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm
B. 5 mm and 2.5 mm
C. 5 cm and 2.5 cm
D. 1.35 mm and 1.7 m

63. In acoustics, if the volume of the room is


200 m3 then at what frequency the coefficient of
absorption is measured?
A. 120 kHz
B. 120 Hz
C. 100 Hz
D. 150 Hz

59. What instrument normally measures the


virtual height of ionosphere?
A. Ionosonde
B. Altimeter
C. Field meter
D. Radar
60. The angle of elevation of the antenna beam
is 20. Calculate the transmission-path distance
for an ionospheric transmission that utilizes a
layer of virtual height 200 km. Use flat-earth
approximation.
A. 966 km
B. 2100 km
C. 1100 km
D. 405 km
61. If temperature change is 19C, what amount
of change to sound velocity is possible?
A. 11.53 ft/s
B. 11.53 m/s
C. 19.304 ft/s
D. 19.304 m/s

64. What is the approximate bandwidth of an


FM system with 10 kHz of modulating
frequency and a 150 kHz of frequency
deviation?
A. 300 kHz
B. 320 kHz
C. 150 kHz
D. 200 kHz
65. Which of the following layers of the
ionosphere has no effect on sky wave
propagation during daytime?
A. D
B. E
C. F1
D. F2
66. What phenomenon causes the radio-path
horizon distance to exceed the geometric
horizon?
A. Diffraction
B. Ducting
C. Reflection
D. Refraction

67. How to maximize the skip distance?


A. Using the smallest possible radiation
angle and highest possible frequency
B. Using the smallest possible radiation
angle and lowest possible frequency
C. Using the biggest possible radiation
angle and highest possible frequency
D. Using the biggest possible radiation
angle and lowest possible frequency
68. For a space wave transmission, the radio
horizon distance of a receiving antenna with a
height of 64 meters is approximately
A. 8 km
B. 32 km
C. 64 km
D. 256 km
69. What bandwidth is needed to support a
capacity of 128 kbps when the signal power to
noise power ratio in decibels is 100?
A. 19224 Hz
B. 3853 Hz
C. 19244 Hz
D. 3583 Hz
70. Which of the following systems uses
frequency band 870-885 MHz as a transmit
band of its base station?
A. TACS
B. NTT
C. NMT
D. AMPS
71. A transmitted signal 5 meters in wavelength
is received by an antenna coil having a 50-
resistance and a 0.01 H inductance. What is the

capacitance of the tuner shunting the antenna


coil at this point?
A. 0.704 fF
B. 0.704 F
C. 0.704 nF
D. 0.704 mF
72. Which of the following is the basic
component of a communications satellite
receiver?
A. On-board computer
B. Reflector
C. Telemetry
D. Transponder
73. The reverberation time of a 184.2 cubic
meters broadcast studio is 0.84 sec. Find the
absorption effect of the materials used in metric
sabines.
A. 35.3
B. 10.96
C. 379.8
D. 109.6

74. What is the highest frequency that can be


sent straight upward and be returned to earth?
A. MUF
B. Gyro frequency
C. Skip frequency
D. Critical frequency
75. What is the most important specification of
loudspeakers and microphones?
A. Frequency response
B. Power density

C. Field Strength
D. Gain
76. Atmospheric attenuation is an attenuation
which is due to
A. mist and fog
B. gasses in the atmosphere
C. water vapor and oxygen
D. rain
77. Satellite orbits around the earth are ____
orbits.
A. circular
B. either elliptical or circular
C. elliptical
D. circular only
78. How does spatial isolation technique in
satellite communications avoid interference?
A. Use of different polarity antennas
B. Use of different types of antennas
C. Employment of highly directional
spot-beam antennas
D. Use of low gain antennas
79. An area on earth covered by a satellite radio
beam is called ____.
A. SSP
B. Region
C. footprint
D. primary area
80. The American concert pitch A is equivalent
to which if the following frequencies?
A. 440 Hz
B. 435 Hz
C. 260 Hz
D. 255 Hz

C. 31.5 W
D. 69.9 W

81. The international pitch A is equivalent to


___ Hz.
A. 435
B. 440
C. 260
D. 255
82. The speed of the satellite increases as its
height in orbit gets
A. lower
B. higher
C. closer to the moon
D. closer to the sun
83. What is the effective radiated power of a
repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output
\, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
A. 158 W
B. 39.7 W
C. 251 W
D. 69.9 W
84. A cellular standard known as the cdmaOne.
A. IS-95
B. IS-136
C. IS-54
D. IS-100
85. What is the effective radiated power of a
repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output,
5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator
loss, and 7 dB antenna gain?
A. 300 W
B. 315 W

86. Which Ethernet system is restricted only to


100 m?
A. 10 Base T
B. 20 Base 2
C. 10 Base 5
D. 10 Base 1
87. What is the effective radiated power of a
repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output,
4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator
loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?
A. 600 W
B. 75 W
C. 18.75 W
D. 150 W
88. Which of the following regulates the
ownership and operation of radio and television
stations in the country?
A. PD 576-A
B. PD 756
C. PD 657
D. PD 677
89. What is the effective radiated power of a
repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output,
5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator
loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
A. 37.6 W
B. 237 W
C. 150 W
D. 23.7 W
90. In GSM cellular system, the speech coding
rate is ____.
A. 13 kbps

B. 8 kbps
C. 15 kbps
D. 20 kbps
91. What is the effective radiated power of a
repeater with 100 watts transmitter power
output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?
A. 800 W
B. 126 W
C. 12.5 W
D. 1260 W
92. Which NTC memorandum circular governs
the rules and regulations about the manufacture,
acquisition, sale and service of radio
communication equipment?
A. MC No. 2-05-88
B. MC No. 2-04-88
C. MC No. 2-07-88
D. MC No. 2-09-88
93. What is the effective radiated power of a
repeater with 120 watts transmitter power
output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
A. 601 W
B. 240 W
C. 60 W
D. 379 W
94. What do you call a short bit sequence sent
typically 128 bits in digital signatures?
A. Hash
B. Public key
C. Private key
D. Password

95. What medium is used by IBM token ring


network that operates at either 4 Mbps or 16
Mbps?
A. Twisted pair
B. Coaxial cable
C. Fiber-optic
D. Parallel-wire line

A. 7:8
B. 1:2
C. 5:8
D. 3:5

96. What is known as the final stage in the


evolution of the GSM standard?
A. WAP
B. GPRS
C. EDGE
D. Bluetooth
97. According to KBP revised radio code which
airtime below is classified class D for AM
stations?
A. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN
B. 12:00 NN to 6:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 Midnight
D. 12:00 Midnight to 5:00 AM
98. Encryption of data is important to ensure its
privacy. It is most commonly achieved by using
a ____.
A. public-key encryption
B. private-key encryption
C. password-key encryption
D. character set encryption

100. Which of the following principal musical


intervals is considered dissonant?

What noise is a transient short-duration


disturbance distributed essentially
uniformly over the useful passband of a
transmission system?
A. Flicker noise
B. Transit-time noise
C. Shot noise
D. Impulse noise

3.

What is the insertion loss of connector


type splices for a single mode optical
fiber?
A. 0.51 dB
B. 0.49 dB
C. 0.31 dB
D. 0.38 db

4.

In the European standard, the aurial


transmitter maximum radiated power is
______ of peak visual transmitter power.
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 20%
D. 40%

5.

What is the common up-converter and


down-converter IF for microwave
communications?
A. 60 MHz
B. 80 MHz
C. 120 MHz
D. 70 MHz

Test Yourself Exam 10


1.

99. The speech coding rate in D-AMPS is ____.


A. 8 kbps
B. 13 kbps
C. 15 kbps
D. 20 kbps

2.

________ is a standard whereby mobile


phones can gain access to specially
tailored Internet websites.
A. Bluetooth
B. GPRS
C. WAP
D. EDGE

6.

What is the data link protocol that is


used in asynchronous transmission for
transferring files from one computer to
another?
A. A modem
B. X modem
C. B modem
D. C modem

7.

What distortion is not caused by


transmission line characteristics?
A. Phase distortion
B. Pulse shape distortion
C. Spacing bias distortion
D. Amplitude distortion

8.

What is the effective radiated power of a


repeater with 200 watts transmitter
power output, 4 dB feline loss, 4 dB
duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB
antenna gain?
A. 317 W
B. 2000 W
C. 126 W
D. 260 W

9.

Which of the following is standardized


as part of GSM phase 2+ that can offer
theoretical data speeds of upto 115
kbit/s?
A. EDGE
B. GPRS
C. WAP
D. Bluetooth

10. A ______ is essentially a cell site that is


mounted on a flatbed tractor-trailer used
for emergency purposes.
A. COW
B. BULL
C. CALF
D. PONY

14. What is the channel number of an FM


station with a carrier frequency of 99.5
MHz?
A. 256
B. 258
C. 257
D. 259

11. Which of the following best describes a


dip-meter?
A. An SWR meter
B. A counter
C. A variable LC oscillator with
metered feedback current
D. A field strength meter

15. In a triple conversion superheterodyne


receiver, diode mixer stages are operated
A. In the linear region
B. In the nonlinear region
C. As class A amplifiers
D. As class B amplifiers

12. Which is space diversity system?


A. Two or more antennas operating on
two different frequencies?
B. Two transmitters operating at same
frequencies
C. Two or more antennas operating on
the same frequency
D. Two antennas from two different
transmitters
13. What part or section of a TV receiver
that separates the sound and video
signals?
A. IF stage
B. Video amplifier
C. Video detector
D. Burst separator

16. In ISDN, what is the basic access B


channel data rate?
A. 32 kbps
B. 64 kbps
C. 144 kbps
D. 16 kbps
17. What is the channel spacing for MF-HF
voice frequencies?
A. 2.8 kHz
B. 500 Hz
C. 3.5 kHz
D. 3 kHz
18. What is the quantization signal-to-noise
ratio if an 8-bit PCM code is used?
A. 40 dB
B. 50 dB

C. 60 dB
D. 65 dB
19. What is the emission designation of a
single sideband reduced carrier signal?
A. H3E
B. J3E
C. R3E
D. B8E
20. What is the most commonly used
intermediate frequency of radar
receivers?
A. 40 MHz
B. 60 MHz
C. 70 MHz
D. 30 MHz
21. The input signal of a travelling wave
tube is introduced at
A. Cathode
B. Anode
C. Cathode end of the helix
D. Collector end of the helix
22. What determines the ability of radar to
determine the bearing to a target?
A. Speed of light
B. Speed of target
C. Antenna directivity
D. Frequency of signal

23. What is the minimum number of bits


required in a PCM code for a range of
10,000?
A. 12
B. 9
C. 14
D. 10

27. Comparing the capacities of a DVD and


an ordinary CD, DVD is ______ time
bigger than CD.
A. 10
B. 20
C. 15
D. 25

24. The antenna current is doubled when the


modulation index is doubled in ______
AM system.
A. A5C
B. A3J
C. A3
D. A3H

28. Locking on to a defined target is known


as
A. Homing
B. Referencing
C. Searching
D. Defining

25. Which of the following is not a bounded


medium?
A. Coaxial line
B. Two-wire line
C. Waveguide
D. Free space
26. What is affected by the distance between
the listener and the source of the sound
because the intensity varies inversely
with the square of the distance?
A. Volume
B. Pitch
C. Loudness
D. Frequency

29. What causes the maximum usable


frequency to vary?
A. The temperature of the ionosphere
B. The speed of the winds in the upper
atmosphere
C. The type of weather just below the
ionosphere
D. The amount of radiation received
from the sun
30. What limits the sensitivity of a receiver?
A. The power supply of the receiver
B. The power output of a transmitter
C. The noise floor of the receiver
D. The distance between the transmitter
and receiver
31. What is the standard test tone used for
audio measurements?

A.
B.
C.
D.

100 Hz
500 Hz
1000 Hz
2000 Hz

32. What causes image interference?


A. Low gain
B. High IF
C. Poor front-end selectivity
D. Low signal-to-noise ratio
33. What frequency band is referred to as
the metric waves?
A. VHF
B. UHF
C. HF
D. SHF
34. A waveguide passive component that
brings a smooth change in the direction
of axis maintained perpendicular to the
plane of polarization?
A. L bend
B. H bend
C. T bend
D. X bend
35. How far is the visual carrier from the
lowest frequency in the spectrum of a
monochrome TV broadcast channel
following the NTSC standard?
A. 1.5 MHz
B. 1.25 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz

D. 0.25 MHz
36. What aircraft deviation is measured by
an ILS localizer?
A. Altitude
B. Ground speed
C. Vertical
D. Horizontal
37. Skip zone is otherwise known as
A. Empty zone
B. Shadow zone
C. Null zone
D. Zone of silence
38. In the American standard, the aural
transmitter maximum radiated power is
_____ of peak visual transmitter power.
A. 10 %
B. 30 %
C. 20 %
D. 40 %
39. What character signifies the start of the
test for Bisync?
A. STX
B. SOH
C. BCC
D. ETX
40. A low frequency audible periodic
variation in pitch of sound output in high
fidelity sound reproduction system?
A. Flutter

B. Wow
C. String vibration
D. Radio sound
41. When can a corporation or association
incorporated under the Philippine laws
and with foreign investors be granted
radio station license?
A. When 60% of the capital is owned
by Filipino citizens
B. When 50% of the capital is owned
by Filipino citizens
C. When the chairman of the board is a
Filipino
D. When the president of the
corporation/association is a Filipino
42. ______ is a term in the test language for
noise testing in telephone circuits that
means a one-syllable word consisting of
a consonant, a vowel, and another
consonant.
A. Logatom
B. Nosfer
C. Ore
D. Belcore
43. Why are frequency modulation
transmitters more efficient?
A. Because their power is increased by
class C amplifiers
B. Because their power is increased by
class A amplifiers

C. Because their power is increased by


class B amplifiers
D. Because their power is increased by
class AB amplifiers
44. A 1000W carrier is amplitude modulated
to a depth of 85%. Calculate the total
power of the modulated wave?
A. 1361.25 W
B. 680.62 W
C. 1425 W
D. 712.5 W
45. Which is not an ITU sector?
A. ITU-W
B. ITU-R
C. ITU-T
D. ITU-D
46. What is the process of cancelling the
effect on internal device capacitance in
radio transmitters?
A. Degaussing
B. Neutralization
C. Ionization
D. Stabilization
47. Which of the following is the basic
synthesizer circuit?
A. Frequency divider
B. Frequency multiplier
C. PLL
D. Mixer

48. Which one is not an important


characteristic of the physical layer?
A. Electrical
B. Logical
C. Mechanical
D. All of the choices
49. What is the typical separation between
the two conductors in a parallel wire
line?
A. 0.001 to 0.01 m
B. 200 to 500 mm
C. 0.635 to 15.24 cm
D. 2.5 to 5 in.
50. In t-carrier system, t3 has a bit rate of
A. 560.160 Mbps
B. 44.376 Mbps
C. 44.736 Mbps
D. 560.106 Mbps
51. In radio signal emission designation, the
fifth symbol means
A. Details of signals
B. Type of information transmitted
C. Nature of multiplexing
D. Nature of signal modulating the main
carrier
52. What is the channel spacing for SITOR
frequencies?
A. 500 Hz
B. 170 Hz
C. 300 Hz

D. 3 kHz
53. Which of the following is the new name
of CCITT?
A. ITU-T
B. ITU-R
C. ITU-S
D. ITU-D
54. Which of the following frequencies is
normally used for distress and safety
communications?
A. 4209.5 kHz
B. 490 kHz
C. 518 kHz
D. 2174.5 kHz
55. What is the difference between available
power and power budget?
A. Power margin
B. Extra power
C. Fade margin
D. System gain
56. A matched termination in which the
electromagnetic energy is absorbed by
water.
A. Maximum power transfer
B. Load
C. Load water
D. Basin

57. What do you call the electrical


conduction in a photosensitive material
which is not exposed to radiation?
A. Dark conductance
B. Pure conductance
C. Black out
D. Super conductance
58. How many sidebands are present in the
J3E mode?
A. Two sidebands and a carrier
B. One upper sideband
C. One lower sideband
D. Two carriers and one sideband
59. A component that samples the
microwave signal travelling in one
direction down to the transmission line
A. Isolator
B. Combiner
C. Directional coupler
D. Attenuator
60. What does OMB stand for?
A. Optical media board
B. Organization of medical biologist
C. Optical medium board
D. Optimum main board
61. A test method of comparing two audio
systems by switching inputs so that the
same recording is heard in rapid
succession over one given system and
then the other.

A.
B.
C.
D.

B test
A test
AB test
C test

62. And ITU-T specification code that deals


with the telephone circuits.
A. X series
B. T series
C. V series
D. I series
63. What digital carrier transmits a digital
signal at 274.176 Mbps?
A. T1
B. T3
C. T2
D. T4
64. What signal-to-noise ratio is required for
satisfactory television reception?
A. 10 dB
B. 30 dB
C. 40 dB
D. 20 dB
65. How many telephone channels are there
in AT 2 line?
A. 50
B. 90
C. 83
D. 96

66. What optical source radiates light


uniformly in all directions?
A. Isotropic source
B. Lambertian source
C. Voltage source
D. Ideal source
67. What is the spectrum of stereophonic
FM signal?
A. 19 to 38 kHz
B. 30 to 53 kHz
C. 59.5 to 74.5 kHz
D. 88 to 108 MHz
68. What is the required quality factor for an
SSB filter with the following data: center
frequency= 1 MHz, the desired
attenuation level of the unwanted
sideband= 80 dB and the separation
between sidebands= 200 Hz?
A. 1,250
B. 12,500
C. 125,000
D. 25,000
69. What do you call the reflection of a part
of incident light at the interface of two
media that have different refractive
indices?
A. Snells reflection
B. Fresnel reflection
C. Lambertian reflection
D. Huygens reflection

70. Which conference in the ITU-structure


does the telecommunication
standardization bureau report?
A. World telecommunication
standardization conference
B. ITU-development sector
C. Radio regulation board
D. The secretary general
71. What region around a broadcasting
transmitter in which satisfactory
reception of broadcasting signal is not
obtained?
A. Fringe area
B. Primary are
C. Secondary area
D. Tertiary area
72. What do you call the random noise seen
on radar display screen?
A. Impulse noise
B. Atmospheric noise
C. Grass
D. Johnson noise
73. Which of the following antennas
receives signals equally well from all
directions in a horizontal plane?
A. Hetz antenna
B. Vertical Marconi antenna
C. Yagi antenna
D. Helical antenna

74. Where is the brightness control located


in a TV?
A. The audio section
B. The video section
C. The grid-cathode circuit
D. The front panel
75. What is the term used in telephony and
telegraphy for irregular disturbing
radiation due to various causes and in a
particular produced by arc transmitters
causing a rushing sound in receiving
telephones?
A. Fax tone
B. Mush
C. Hiss
D. Crosstalk
76. What device in a waveguide system used
for stopping or diverting electromagnetic
wave as desired?
A. Mechanical switch
B. Electric switch
C. Push-button switch
D. Waveguide switch
77. What is the maximum power that can be
obtained from a microwave tube at 10
GHz?
A. 500 W
B. 10 W
C. 50 W
D. 20 W

78. What do you call a cable consisting of


twisted pairs of conductors, each
separately insulated?
A. Microstrip line
B. Strip line
C. Quad
D. Coaxial cable
79. What mixer type has the lowest spurious
signals?
A. Double-balanced
B. Single-balanced
C. Super-heterodyner
D. Heterodyner
80. What are the electromagnetic radiations
of wavelengths less than 300 angstroms?
A. X-rays
B. Ultraviolet rays
C. Infrared
D. Microwaves
81. What is known as the alignment of the
three color guns to a common point?
A. Confetti
B. Divergence
C. Convergence
D. Synchronization
82. What is the department order that
governs commercial radio operator?
A. Department Order No. 5
B. Department Order No. 23
C. Department Order No. 88

D. Department Order No. 44


83. The computer which initiates
information transfer
A. Master
B. Station
C. Slave
D. Mainframe
84. Which of the following antennas require
good grounding?
A. Yagi antenna
B. Hertz antenna
C. Marconi antenna
D. Isotropic antenna
85. Which circuit detects frequency
modulated signal?
A. Modulator
B. Discriminator
C. Demodulator
D. Modem
86. What synchronization is provided so that
the start and end of message is
identified?
A. Carrier
B. Character
C. Bit
D. Clock
87. A form of regenerative repeater for
transmitting signals over a long cable

received through a relay in a clearer


form.
A. Active generator
B. Active repeater
C. Interpolator
D. Audio generator
88. What is the minimum propagation delay
of a geostationary satellite?
A. 278 ms
B. 239 ms
C. 300 ms
D. 600 ms
89. In measuring crosstalk using dBx unit
the reference power is
A. 1 mW
B. 1 W
C. 1 pW
D. 6 mW
90. A spot on the suns visible surface where
the magnetic flux lines converge?
A. Sunspot
B. Filament
C. Solar spot
D. Prominence
91. ______ is a slow moving large mass of
plasma on the suns surface.
A. Filament
B. Solar flare
C. Prominence
D. Proton flare

92. ______ is slow moving cord-like mass


of plasma across the suns surface.
A. Filament
B. Solar flare
C. Prominence
D. Solar spot
93. At what particular wavelength is solar
flux measured?
A. 10.7 mm band
B. 10.7 m band
C. 10.7 cm band
D. 10.7 nm band
94. What is the approximate intensity of the
magnetic field at the earths surface?
A. 32,000 nT
B. 62,000 nT
C. 32,000 T
D. 62,000 T
95. What is the intensity of the magnetic
field at the earths north pole?
A. 32,000 nT
B. 62,000 nT
C. 32,000 T
D. 62,000 T
96. What do you call a satellite weighing
less than 1 kg?
A. Nanosat
B. Picosat
C. Femtosat

D. Microsat

C. Bluetooth
D. EDGE

97. The first creature in space was carried by


which of the following spacecrafts in
November 3, 1957?
A. Sputnik 1
B. Sputnik 3
C. Sputnik 2
D. Explorer 1
98. The wireless evolution is achieved
through the GSM family of wireless
technology platforms which include but
except one of the following. Which one
is NOT a member of the GSM family?
A. GSM
B. EDGE
C. GPRS
D. CDMA
99. Which of the following is an
enhancement of GSM including the
GPRS?
A. 1G
B. 2.5G
C. 2G
D. 3G
100. A low power, short range wireless
technology designed to provide a
replacement for serial cables is called
______.
A. WAP
B. GPRS

Noise Chapter 4 (3001 Questions in


Communications Engineering-EXCEL
REVIEW CENTER)
1. What is the non-continuous noise of
irregular pulses or spikes of duration
with high amplitudes?
A. Wander
B. Jitter
C. Hits
D. Singing
2. What theorem sets a limit on the
maximum capacity of a channel with a
given noise level?
A. Nyquist theorem
B. Hartley law
C. Shannon-Hartley theorem
D. Shannon theorem
3. Quantizing noise occurs in
A. PCM
B. PLM
C. PDM

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

D. PAM
Noise always affects the signal in a
communications systems at the
________.
A. transmitter
B. channel
C. information source
D. destination
_________ is the random and
unpredictable electric signals from
natural causes, both internal and external
to the system.
A. Interference
B. Attenuation
C. Distortion
D. Noise
Noise from random acoustic or electric
noise that has equal energy per cycle
over a specified total frequency band.
A. Gaussian noise
B. Whiter noise
C. Thermal noise
D. All of the above
Which causes a quantization noise in
PCM system?
A. Serial transmission errors
B. The approximation of the quantized
signal
C. The synchronization between
encoder and decoder
D. Binary coding techniques
A particular circuit that rids FM of noise
A. Detector
B. Discriminator

C. Phase Shifter
D. Limiter
9. What is the reference noise temperature
in degrees Celsius?
A. 17
B. 273
C. 25
D. 30
10. Unwanted radio signal on assigned
frequency.
A. Splatter
B. RFI
C. Noise
D. EMI
11. What is the reliable measurement for
comparing amplifier noise
characteristics?
A. Thermal agitation noise
B. Noise factor
C. Noise margin
D. Signal-to-noise
12. _________ is measured on a circuit
when it is correctly terminated but does
not have any traffic.
A. White noise
B. Galactic noise
C. Impulse noise
D. Atmospheric noise
13. Which standard recommends crosstalk
limits?
A. CCIT G.152
B. CCIT G.150
C. CCIT G.151

D. CCIT G.161
14. Which standard is utilized in
intermodulation noise rates on PCM
audio channels?
A. CCIT Rec. G.151
B. CCIT Rec. G.172
C. CCIT Rec. G.190
D. CCIT Rec. G.190
15. What is the reference frequency of CCIT
phosphomeric noise measurement?
A. 800 Hz
B. 1000 Hz
C. 1500 Hz
D. 3400 Hz
16. Reference temperature use in noise
analysis
A. 75 K
B. 250 K
C. 290 K
D. 300 K
17. Which noise is produced by lighting
discharges in thunderstorms?
A. White noise
B. Extraterrestrial noise
C. Industrial noise
D. Atmospheric noise
18. Man-made noise is usually from
_______.
A. transmission over power lines and by
ground wave
B. sky-wave
C. space-wave
D. troposphere
19. nif stands for

A. Non-intrinsic figure
B. Noise improvement factor
C. Narrow intermediate frequency
D. Noise interference figure
20. Industrial noise frequency is between
_____.
A. 0 to 10 KHz
B. 160 MHz to 200 MHz
C. 15 to 160 MHz
D. 200 to 3000 MHz
21. External noise fields are measured in
terms of _______.
A. rms values
B. dc values
C. average values
D. peak values
22. Form of interference caused by rain or
dust storms.
A. Precipitation static
B. Shot-noise
C. Galactic noise
D. Impulse noise
23. At 17 C, the noise voltage generated by
5k resistor, operating over a bandwidth
of 20KHz is
A. 1.3 nV
B. 1.3 V
C. 1.3 pV
D. 1.3 mV
24. ________ is an electric noise produced
by thermal agitation of electrons in
conductor and semiconductor.
A. External noise
B. Internal noise

C. Thermal noise
D. Flicker
25. Three identical circuits having 10 dB
signal noise-to-noise ratio each are
connected in tandem with each other,
what is the overall S/N?
A. 5.23 dB
B. 14.77dB
C. 30 dB
D. 40 dB
26. The noise figure of the first circuit in
tandem connection is 10.5 dB while its
power gain is 15, what is the over all
noise figure if the second circuit has a
noise figure of 11 dB?
A. 11.59 dB
B. 11.23 dB
C. 10.79 dB
D. 10.5 dB
27. Is the interference coming from other
communications channels?
A. Jitter
B. Crosstalk
C. RFI
D. EMI
28. What is the reference noise level?
A. 10 pW
B. 0 dBm
C. 1mW
D. -90 dBm
29. What is the unit of noise power of
psophometer?
A. pWp
B. dBa

C. dBm
D. dBrn
30. A large emission of hydrogen from the
sun that affects communications.
A. Solar flare
B. Cosmic disturbance
C. Ballistic disturbance
D. Solar noise
31. Atmospheric noise is known as
_______noise.
A. static
B. cosmic
C. solar
D. lunar
32. Standard design reference for
environmental noise temperature.
A. 300 K
B. 290 K
C. 32 F
D. 212F
33. Absolute temperature in Kelvin.
A. C +273
B. C+75
C. C+19
D. C +290
34. If bandwidth is doubled, the signal
power is _________.
A. not changed
B. quadrupled
C. tripled
D. doubled
35. Name one or more sources of noise
bearing on electronic communications.
A. Steam boiler

B. Galaxies
C. Internal combustion engine
D. Both B and C
36. The transmitter technique adopted to
reduce the noise effect of the preceding
question is called
A. noise masking
B. anitnoise
C. noise killing
D. preemphasis
37. Deemphasis in the receiver in effect
attenuates modulating signal
components and noise in what frequency
range?
A. dc
B. low
C. intermediate
D. high
38. Atmospheric noise or static is not a great
problem
A. at frequencies below 20 MHz
B. at frequencies below 5 MHz
C. at frequencies above 30 MHz
D. at frequencies above 1 MHz
39. What is the proper procedure for
suppressing electrical noise in a mobile
station?
A. Apply shielding and filtering where
necessary
B. Insulate a all plain sheet metal
surfaces from each other
C. Apply anti-static spray liberally to all
nonmetallic

D. Install filter capacitors in series with


all dc wiring
40. Where is the noise generated that
primarily determines the signal-to-noise
ratio in a VHF (150MHz) marine-band
receiver?
A. Man-made noise
B. In the atmosphere
C. In the receiver front end
D. In the ionosphere
41. The difference between signal strength
at a given point and a reference level
is________.
A. power
B. dBm
C. level
D. ratio
42. Interfering effect of noise, C message
weighted, is _________.
A. dBa
B. dBm
C. dBmc
D. dB
43. F1A weighting refers to ___________.
A. -90 dBm
B. dBrnc0
C. dBrnc
D. F1A handset
44. Reading a 58 dBrnC on your Western
Electric 3A test set at a +7 test point is
equal to ______ dBrnc0.
A. 58
B. 51
C. 65

D. 27
45. Reading a 58 dBrn, at a +7 test point is
equal to ________ dBa0.
A. 26
B. 65
C. 51
D. 46
46. A reading of -50 dBm on the disturbing
pair, and -80 on the disturbed pair equals
_____ dB of crosstalk coupling.
A. 20
B. 30
C. 60
D. 25
47. Power is __________.
A. actual amount of power reference to
1mW
B. logarithmic ratio of two powers
C. definite amount of energy per time
period
D. current flow per time period
48. 15 dBa F1A weighted, equals
___________.
A. -90 dBm
B. -82 dBm
C. -85 dBm
D. -70 dBm
49. You are measuring noise in a voice
channel with a Lenkurt 601A, F1A
weighting network and a flat meter.
Your meter reads -47dBm. What is this
reading in dBa?
A. 77 dBa
B. 35 dBa

C. 38 dBa
D. 32 dBa
50. You are measuring noise at a +3 dB
level point, using the Lenkurt 601A,
F1A weighting network, and a flat
meter. The meter reading is -57dBm.
This is ________dBa0.
A. 20
B. 15
C. 25
D. 17
51. You are measuring noise at a -6 dB level
point, using the Lenkurt 601A, F1A
weighting network, and a flat meter.
The meter reading is -59 dBm. This is
_________ dBa0.
A. 24
B. 12
C. 23
D. 32
52. A measurement of -75 dBm, C-message
weighted, would be _________ dBrnc.
A. 8
B. 7
C. 9
D. 15
53. Your Western Electric 3A test set meter
reading is -23 dBm at at test point level
of -8 dB. This is ______ dBrnc0.
A. 75
B. 29
C. 30
D. 31

54. At what power level does a 1 KHz tone


cause zero interference (144 weighted)?
A. 90 dB
B. 90 dBm
C. -90 dBm
D. -90 dBm
55. Reference noise is ___________.
A. a 1000 Hz, -90 dBm tone
B. a noise that creates the same
interfering effect as a 1000Hz, 90dBm tone
C. a noise that creates zero dBrn in a
voice channel
D. B and C above
56. A practical dBrn measurement will
almost always in a _______ number.
A. positive
B. negative
C. imaginary
D. fractional
57. What is the reference level for noise
measurement, F1A weighted?
A. -90 dBm
B. -82 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -85 dBm
58. What is the reference tone level for
dBrn?
A. -90 dBm
B. -82 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -85 dBm
59. What is the reference tone level for
dBa?

A. -90 dBm
B. -82 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -85 dBm
60. Atmospheric noise becomes less severe
at frequencies
A. above 30 MHz
B. below 30 MHz
C. above 3000 kHz
D. below 3000kHz
61. Indicate the noise whose sources are in
category different from that of the other
three?
A. Solar noise
B. Cosmic noise
C. Atmospheric noise
D. Galactic noise
62. Indicate the false statement.
A. Industrial noise is usually of the
impulse type
B. Static is caused by lightning
discharges in thunderstorms and
other natural electric disturbances
occurring in the atmosphere
C. Distant stars are another source of
man-made noise
D. Flourescent lights are another source
of man-made noise
63. Which of the following is not a source of
industrial noise?
A. Automobile ignition
B. Sun
C. Electric Motors
D. Leakage from high voltage line

64. Indicate the false statement


A. The noise generated in a resistance
or the resistive component of any
impedance is random.
B. Random noise power is proportional
to the bandwidth over which is
measured
C. A random voltage across the resistor
does not exist
D. All formula referring to random
noise are applicable only to the value
of such noise.
65. The value of the resistor creating thermal
noise is doubled. The noise power
generated is therefore.
A. halved
B. quadrupled
C. doubled
D. unchanged
66. Indicate the false statement.
A. HF mixer are generally noisier than
HF amplifiers.
B. Impulse noise voltage is dependent
on bandwidth
C. Thermal noise is independent of the
frequency at which is measured.
D. Industrial noise is usually of the
impulse type.
67. An amplifier operating over the
frequency range of 455 to 460 kHz has a
200 k input resistor. What is the RMS
noise voltage at the input to this
amplifier if the ambient temperature is
17C ?

A. 40 V
B. 4.0 V
C. 400 V
D. 4.0 mV
68. The first stage of a two-stage amplifier
has a voltage gain of 10, a 600 input
resistor, a 1600 equivalent noise
resistance and 27k output resistor. For
the second stage, these values are 25,
81k, 19k, and 1M, respectively.
Calculate the equivalent input-noise
resistance of this two stage amplifier.
A. 2,518 k
B. 2,518
C. 251.8
D. 12,518
69. The noise output of a resistor is
amplified by a noiseless amplifier
having a gain of 60 and a bandwidth of
20 kHz. A meter connected at the output
of the amplifier reads 1mV RMS. If the
bandwidth of the amplifier is reduced to
5kHz, its gain remaining constant, what
does the meter read now?
A. 0.5 mV
B. 0.5 V
C. 5.0 mV
D. 5.0 V
70. The front-end of a television receiver,
having a bandwidth of 7Mhz, and
operating at a temperature of 27C ,
consists of an amplifier having a gain of
15 followed by a mixer whose gain is
20. The amplifier has a 300 input

resistor and a shot noise equivalent


resistance of 500; for the mixer, these
values are 2.2k and 13.5k
respectively, and the load resistance of
the mixer is 470 k. Calculate the
equivalent noise resistance for this
television receiver.
A. 8760
B. 875
C. 8.76
D. 0.876
71. One of the following is not a useful
quantity for comparing the noise
performance receivers.
A. Input noise voltage
B. Equivalent noise resistance
C. Noise temperature
D. Noise figure.
72. Indicate the false statement. Noise figure
is defined as
A. the ratio of the S/N power supplied
at the input terminal of a receiver or
amplifier to the S/N power supplied
to the output or load resistor
B. noise factor expressed in decibels
C. an unwanted form of energy tending
to interfere with the proper and easy
reception and reproduction of wanted
signals
D. S/N of an ideal system divided by
S/N at the output of the receiver or
amplifier under test, both working at
the same temperature over the same

bandwidth and fed from the same


source
73. Calculated the noise figure of the
amplifier whose Req equals 2518
(RT=600) if its driven by a generator
whose output impedance is 50.
A. 39.4
B. 3.94
C. 394
D. 0.394
74. Calculate the noise figure of the receiver
whose RF amplifier has an input
resistance of 1000 and an equivalent
shot-noise resistance of 2000, a gain of
25 and load resistance of 125 k. Given
that the bandwidth is 1.0MHz and the
temperature is 20C, and that the
receiver is connected to an antenna with
an impedance of 75.
A. 30.3
B. 3.03
C. 303
D. .303
75. A receiver connected to an antenna
whose resistance is 50 has an
equivalent noise resistance of 30.
Calculate its equivalent noise
temperature if the noise figure is equal to
1.6.
A. 17.4 K
B. 174K
C. 1.74K
D. 17K
76. Most internal noise comes from

A. Shot noise
B. Transit-time noise
C. Thermal agitation
D. Skin effect
77. Which of the following is not a source of
external noise?
A. Thermal agitation
B. Auto ignition
C. The sun
D. Fluorescent lights
78. Noise can be reduced by
A. widening the bandwidth
B. narrowing the bandwidth
C. increasing temperature
D. increasing transistor current levels
79. Noise at the input to the receiver can be
as high as several
A. microvolts
B. milivolts
C. volts
D. kilo volts
80. Which circuit contributes most of the
noise in a receiver?
A. IF amplifier
B. Demodulator
C. AF amplifier
D. Mixer
81. Which noise figure represents the lowest
noise in receiver?
A. 1.6 dB
B. 2.1 dB
C. 2.7 dB
D. 3.4 dB

82. The transistor with the lowest noise


figure in the microwave region is a
A. MOSFET
B. Dual-gate MOSFET
C. JFET
D. MESFET
83. What is the noise voltage across a 300
input resistance to a TV set with a 6MHz
bandwidth and temperature of 30C?
A. 2.3 V
B. 3.8V
C. 5.5V
D. 5.4V
84. Which of the following types of noise
becomes of great importance at
frequencies?
A. Shot noise
B. Random noise
C. Impulse noise
D. Transit-time noise
85. The solar cycle repeats the period of
great electrical disturbance
approximately every
A. 11 years
B. 10 years
C. 9 years
D. 8 years
86. The square of the thermal noise voltage
generated by a resistor is proportional to
A. its resistance
B. its temperature
C. the bandwidth over which it is
measured
D. All of the above

87. Noise occurring in the presence of signal


resulting from a mismatch between the
exact value of an analog signal and the
closet available quantizing step in a
digital coder.
A. Quantizing noise
B. Thermal noise
C. Impulse noise
D. Crosstalk
88. Noise consisting of irregular pulses of
short duration and relatively high
amplitude,
A. Quantizing noise
B. Tone interference
C. Impulse noise
D. Cross talk
89. Noise that occurs via capacitive or
inductive coupling in a cable.
A. Crosstalk
B. Quantizing noise
C. Reference noise
D. Tone interference
90. Sources of impulse noise induced in
communication channels.
A. Erroneous digital coding bit caused
by an error on a transmission facility
B. Transients due to relay operation
C. Crosstalk from dc signaling systems
D. All of these
91. Crosstalk due to incomplete suppression
of sidebands or to intermodulation of
two or more frequency-multiplexed
channels which is unintelligible is
classified as

A. Impulse noise
B. Thermal noise
C. Quantizing noise
D. Miscellaneous noise
92. ___________ is device that measures
the internal open circuit voltage of an
equivalent noise generator having an
impedance of 600 and delivering noise
power to a 600 load.
A. Psophometer
B. Barometer
C. Reflectometer
D. Voltmeter
93. External noise originating outside the
solar system
A. Cosmic noise
B. Solar noise
C. Thermal noise
D. Lunar noise
94. A noise whose source is within the solar
system.
A. Solar noise
B. Thermal noise
C. Cosmic noise
D. Johnson Noise
95. The total noise power present in a 1-Hz
bandwidth .
A. Noise density
B. Noise figure
C. Noise limit
D. Noise intensity
96. Which of the following is not a way of
minimizing if not eliminating noise?
A. Use redundancy

B. Increase transmitted power


C. Reduce signaling rate
D. Increase channel bandwidth
97. What is the primary cause of
atmospheric noise?
A. Thunderstorm
B. Lightning
C. Thunderstorm and lightning
D. Weather condition
98. What do you call the noise coming from
the sun and stars?
A. Black-body noise
B. Space noise
C. Galactic noise
D. All of these
99. The major cause of atmospheric or static
noise are
A. Thunderstorms
B. Airplanes
C. Meteor showers
D. All of these
100. Which of the following low noise
transistors is commonly used at
microwave frequencies?
A. MOSFET
B. GASFET
C. MESFET
D. JFET

Satellite Communications Chapter 10(3001


Questions in Communications EngineeringEXCEL REVIEW CENTER
1. Which of the following is the first active
satellite?
A. Echo I
B. Telstar I
C. Early Bird
D. Sputnik I
2. Which of the following is the first
commercial satellite?
A. Early Bird
B. Telstar
C. Explorer
D. Courier
3. What is the first passive satellite
transponder?
A. Sun
B. Early Bird
C. Score
D. Moon
4. The first satellite to receive and transmit
simultaneously
A. Intelsat I
B. Agila I
C. Syncorn I
D. Telstar I
5. A helical antenna is used for satellite
tracking because of
A. circular polarization
B. maneuverability
C. beamwidth
D. gain

6. Repeaters inside communications


satellites are known as
A. Trancievers
B. Transponders
C. Transducers
D. TWT
7. Considered as the unsolved problem in
satellite system
A. Coverage
B. Cost
C. Access
D. Privacy
8. ___________ is a satellite that rotates
around the earth in a low-altitude
elliptical or circular pattern.
A. Geosynchronous satellite
B. Nonsynchronous satellite
C. Prograde satellite
D. Retrograde satellite
9. Is the geographical representation of a
satellite antenna radiation pattern
A. Footprint
B. Spot
C. Earth
D. Region
10. The smallest beam of a satellite antenna
radiation pattern
A. Zone beam
B. Hemispheric beam
C. Spot beam
D. Global beam
11. A satellite beam that covers almost
42.4% of the earths surface.
A. Zone beam

B. Hemispheric beam
C. Spot beam
D. Global beam
12. What is the frequency range of C-band?
A. 8.5 to 12.5 GHz
B. 3.4 to 6.425 GHz
C. 12.95 to 14.95 GHz
D. 27.5 to 31 GHz
13. A satellite signal transmitted from a
satellite transponder to earths station.
A. Uplink
B. Downlink
C. Terrestrial
D. Earthbound
14. Collects very weak signals from a
broadcast satellite
A. Helical antenna
B. Satellite dish
C. LNA
D. TWT
15. What is a device that detects both
vertically and horizontally polarized
signals simultaneously?
A. Orthomode transducer
B. Crystal detector
C. Optoisolator
D. Isomode detector
16. _________ detects the satellite signal
relayed from the feed and converts it to
an electric current, amplifies and lower
its frequency.
A. Horn antenna
B. LNA
C. Satellite receiver

D. Satellite dish
17. Is a loss of power of a satellite downlink
signal due to earths atmosphere.
A. Atmospheric loss
B. Path loss
C. Radiation loss
D. RFI
18. What height must a satellite be placed
above the surface of the earth in order
for its rotation to be equal to earths
rotation?
A. 26,426.4 miles
B. 27,426.4 miles
C. 23,426.4 miles
D. 22,426.4 miles
19. Point on the satellite obits closest to the
earth.
A. Apogee
B. Perigee
C. Prograde
D. Zenith
20. The earth area covered by a satellite
radio beam.
A. Beamwidth
B. Bandwidth
C. Footprint
D. Zone
21. What is the local oscillator (mixer)
frequency of the satellite with an uplink
frequency in GHz band?
A. 3500 MHz
B. 4500 MHz
C. 2225 MHz
D. 2555 MHz

22. What kind of battery panels are used in


some advance satellites
A. Germanium based panels
B. Silicon based panel
C. Galium Phosphate solar panel array
D. Galium Arsenide solar panel array
23. Satellite engine uses
A. jet propulsion
B. ion propulsion system
C. liquid fuel
D. solar jet
24. A satellite batter has more power but
lighter.
A. Lithium
B. Leclanche
C. Hydrogen
D. Magnesium
25. What kind of battery used by older
satellites?
A. Lithium
B. Leclanche
C. Hydrogen
D. Magnesium
26. VSAT was made available in
A. 1979
B. 1981
C. 1983
D. 1977
27. What band does VSAT first operate?
A. L-band
B. X-band
C. C-band
D. Ku-band

28. The first Philippine Mabuhay satellite


has how many channels?
A. 30
B. 24
C. 48
D. 50
29. The first Philippine Agila I will have
how many transpoders.
A. 36
B. 48
C. 24
D. 12
30. How may satellite orbital slots are
requested by the Philippine Government
from ITU?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
31. The location of AsiaSat I.
A. 105.5East
B. 151.5East
C. 115.5East
D. 170.5East
32. AsiaSat I covers how many countries in
Asia?
A. 38
B. 10
C. 28
D. 15
33. The owner of AsiaSat 2 is
A. Asia Satellite Telecommunications
Company (ASTC)
B. Japan Satellite System (JSAT)

C. China Great Wall Industry


Corporation
D. Singapore Satellite Commision
34. What is the approximate path loss from
satellite-to-earth station?
A. 100 dB
B. 150 dB
C. 175 dB
D. 200 dB
35. INTELSAT stands for
A. Intel Satellite
B. International Telephone Satellite
C. International Telecommunications
Satellite
D. International Satellite
36. The frequency of Ku band for satellite
communications.
A. 6/4 GHz
B. 14/11 GHz
C. 12/14 GHz
D. 4/8 GHz
37. A satellite cross-link means
A. Earth-to-satellite link
B. Satellite-to-earth link
C. Satellite-to-satellite link
D. None of these
38. Earth station uses what type of antenna
A. Despun antenna
B. Helical antenna
C. Toroidal antenna
D. Cassegrain antenna
39. What is the delay time for satellite
transmission from earth transmitter to
earth receiver?

A. 0.5 s
B. 1.0 s
C. 5 ms
D. 0.25 ms
40. The bandwidth of C-band satellite
frequency band in U.S.
A. 500 GHz
B. 1000 GHz
C. 1000 MHz
D. 500 MHz
41. The most common device used as an
LNA is
A. zener diode
B. tunnel diode
C. IMPATT
D. Shockley diode
42. The radiation patterns of earth coverage
antennas have a beamwidth of
approxiamately
A. 21
B. 5
C. 17
D. 35
43. A mobile satellite array has usually how
many elements?
A. 6
B. 88
C. 12
D. 14
44. In a typical mobile satellite array
antenna if three elements are activated,
how many elements are deactivated?
A. 3
B. 11

C. 5
D. 9
45. What circuit is responsible in activating
and deactivating adjacent antenna
elements in a mobile satellite array?
A. Radial divider
B. Divider/combiner
C. Radial combiner
D. Radial multiplexer
46. Most mobile satellite array uses
___________ in transforming 50 to 150
impedance.
A. stub
B. balun
C. quarter-wavelength transformer
D. microstrip tapers.
47. The switching from one element to the
other element in a typical mobile
satellite array.
A. Series
B. Radial
C. Matrix
D. Shunt
48. A method of multiple accessing where a
given RF channel bandwidth is divided
inot smaller frequency band.
A. CDMA
B. ANIK-D
C. TDMA
D. FDMA
49. What is the delay time for satellite
transmissions from earth transmitter to
earth receiver?
A. 0.5 s

B. 1s
C. 5 ms
D. 0.25 s
50. As the height of a satellite orbit gets
lower, the speed of the satellite
_________.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. None of the above
51. The main function of a communications
satellite is a/ an
A. repeater
B. reflector
C. beacon
D. observation platform
52. The key electronic component in a
communications satellite is the
A. telemetry equipment
B. on-board computer
C. command and control system
D. transponder
53. A circular orbit around the equator with
a 24-h period is called a/an
A. elliptical orbit
B. geostationary orbit
C. polar orbit
D. transfer orbit
54. A satellite stay in orbit because the
following two factors are balanced
A. Satellite weight and speed
B. Gravitational force and centrifugal
force
C. Centripetal force and speed

D. Satellite weight and the pull of the


moon and sun
55. What is the height of a satellite in a
synchronous equatorial orbit?
A. 42000 mi
B. 6800 mi
C. 22,300 mi
D. 35,860 mi
56. Most satellites operate in which
frequency band?
A. 30 to 300 MHz
B. 300 MHz to 3 GHz
C. 3 GHz to 30 GHz
D. Above 300 GHz
57. The main power sources for a satellite
are
A. batteries
B. solar cells
C. fuel cells
D. thermoelectric generators
58. The maximum height of an elliptical
orbit is called the
A. Perigee
B. Apex
C. Zenith
D. Apogee
59. Batteries are used to power all satellite
subsystems
A. at all times
B. only during emergencies
C. during eclipse periods
D. to give the solar arrays a rest
60. The satellite subsystem that monitors
and controls the satellite is the

A.
B.
C.
D.

propulsion subsystem
power subsystem
communications subsystem
telemetry, tracking, and command
subsystem
61. What is the basic technique used to
stabilize a satellite?
A. Gravity-forward motion balance
B. Spin
C. Thruster control
D. Solar panel orientation
62. The jet thrusters are usually fired to
A. maintain altitude
B. put the satellite into the transfer orbit
C. inject the satellite in the
geosynchronous orbit
D. bring the satellite back to earth.
63. Most commercial satellite activity occurs
in which band(s)?
A. L
B. C and Ku
C. X
D. S and P
64. How can multiple earth stations share a
satellite on the same frequencies?
A. Frequency reuse
B. Multiplexing
C. Mixing
D. Frequency hopping
65. What is the typical bandwidth of a
satellite band?
A. 36 MHz
B. 40 MHz
C. 70 MHz

D. 500 MHz
66. Which of the following is not usually a
part of a transponder are defined by the
A. LNA
B. Mixer
C. Modulator
D. HPA
67. The satellite communications channels
in a transponder are defined by the
A. LNA
B. bandpass filter
C. mixer
D. input signals
68. The HPAs in most satellite are
A. TWTs
B. Klystrons
C. Vacuum tubes
D. Magnetrons
69. The physical location of a satellite is
determined by its
A. distance from the earth
B. latitude and longitude
C. reference to the stars
D. position relative to the sun
70. The receive GCE system in an earth
station performs what function(s)?
A. Modulation and multiplexing
B. Up conversion
C. Demodulation and demultiplexing
D. Down conversion
71. Which of the following types of HPA is
not used in earth stations?
A. TWT
B. Transistor

C. Klystron
D. Magnetron
72. What is the common up-converter and
down-converter IF?
A. 36 MHz
B. 40 MHz
C. 70 MHz
D. 500 MHz
73. What type of modulation is used on
voice and video signals?
A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. QPSK
74. What modulation is normally used with
digital data?
A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. QPSK
75. Which of the following is not a typical
output from a GPS receiver?
A. Latitude
B. Speed
C. Altitude
D. Longitude
76. The total space loss of transmission and
reception for two ground stations with
uplink frequency 8GHz and a downlink
of 6 GHz with angle of elevations of 3
and 7 A respectively is
A. 403 dB
B. 100 dB
C. 20 dB

D. 215 dB
77. The maximum propagation delay of a
geostationary satellite is
A. 278 ms
B. 239 ms
C. 300 ms
D. 250 ms
78. The total propagation delay time from
transmission to reception of signals from
a ground transmitter to ground receiver
with angle of elevation at 10 degrees
respectively is
A. 273 ms
B. 239 ms
C. 275 ms
D. 260 ms
79. A satellite which simply reflects the
signal without further amplification
A. Passive satellite
B. Active satellite
C. Geostationary satellite
D. Domestic satellite
80. Essentially a satellite ___________ is a
radio repeater in the sky
A. transponder
B. comparator
C. duplexer
D. billboard
81. Satellite the orbits in a circular pattern
with an angular velocity equal to that of
the earth
A. Geostationary
B. Early Bird I
C. Syncorn I

D. Stationary satellite
82. Satellite that provide services within a
single country
A. Domsat
B. Comsat
C. Regional
D. Global
83. The round-trip propagation delay
between two earth stations through a
geosynchronous satellite is
A. 500 to 600 ms
B. 300 to 400 ms
C. 600 to 700 ms
D. 400 to 500 ms
84. The signal path from earth station
satellite
A. Uplink signal
B. Reflected signal
C. Incident signal
D. Downlink signal
85. Designed to receive a signal from a
transmitting station on the ground and
retransmit it to a receiving station
located elsewhere
A. Communication satellite
B. Repeater
C. Relay station
D. Transponder
86. The signal path from satellite to earthbased receiver.
A. Downlink signal
B. Uplink signal
C. Incident signal
D. Reflected signal

87. A satellite position is measured by its


__________ angle with respect to the
horizon.
A. elevation
B. depression
C. azimuth
D. critical
88. The ________ angle measures the
satellite position clockwise from the
direction of true north.
A. azimuth
B. elevation
C. depression
D. critical
89. incidentally propose the geostationary
scheme or orbit of the satellite in 1940s
A. Arthur Clarke
B. Carl Friedrich Gauss
C. Samuel Morse
D. Stephen Gray
90. When the satellite are spaced 4 of the
360 complete circle, how many parking
spaces or orbit slots are available?
A. 90
B. 85
C. 95
D. 80
91. The control routine necessary to keep the
satellite in position is referred to as
A. station keeping
B. station tracking
C. station monitoring
D. station maintaining

92. Refers to the satellite orientation with


respect to the earth
A. Satellite altitude
B. Satellite position
C. Satellite location
D. Satellite orbit
93. The first intelsat satellite that was
launched in 1965 was named
A. Early Bird I
B. Echo
C. Telstar I
D. Courier
94. The first satellite launched for a
geosynchronous orbit but unfortunately
lost during orbit injection
A. Syncom I
B. Telstar I
C. Sputnik I
D. Early Bird I
95. When the elevation angle of a
geostationary satellite is 23 and the
transmitting frequency is 3840 MHz,
what is the free space loss in dB?
A. 196 dB
B. 200 dB
C. 150 dB
D. 100 dB
96. What is the propagation delay when a
signal is transmitter by an earth station
to a geosynchronous satellite about
38,500 km above earths equator and
then received by the same earth station?
A. 256 msec
B. 128 msec

C. 300 msec
D. 400 msec
97. What is the free space attenuation of a
satellite communications system
operating at 36,000 km above the earth
at 5.0 GHz?
A. 198 dB
B. 202 dB
C. 142 dB
D. 138 dB
98. Which of the following is the most
common application of satellite?
A. Surveillance
B. Military application
C. Communications
D. Newscasting
99. Descending pass for a satellite means a
pass from
A. North to South
B. South to North
C. East to West
D. West to East
100. Geostationary stationary satellites are
located ___________ with respect to the
equator.
A. 0longitude
B. 0 latitude
C. 90latitude
D. 45 latitude

3001 Questions in Communications Engineering


EXCEL REVIEW CENTER
Chapter 6 - Antennas
1. What is the polarization of a discone antenna?
A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Circular
D. Spiral
2. If the antenna increases 3.3 times how much
does the radiated power increase?
A. 3.3 times
B. 10.89 times
C. 9.9 times
D. 6.6 times
3. When speaking of antennas. ______ is a
section which would be a complete antenna by
itself.
A. image
B. top loading
C. bay
D. quarterwave
4. In what range of frequencies are most
omnidirectional horizontally polarized antennas
used?
A. VHF, UHF
B. VLF, LF
C. SH, EHF
D. MF, HF
5. If the current ratios of the two or more
elements must be held 5% and the phase angle
to 3 the antenna is called a
A. end fire array
B. critical phased array
C. broadband array

D. wideband array

C. Beamwidth
D. Bandwidth

6. A device that converts high frequency current


into electromagnetic wave.
12. In testing transmitter to prevent interfering
A. Antenna
with other stations, which type of antenna must
B. Loudspeaker
be used?
C. Microphone
A. Void antenna
D. Transducer
B. Dummy antenna
C. Hertzian antenna
7. Which is a non-resonant antenna?
D. Isotropic antenna
A. Rhombic antenna
B. Folded dipole
13. The best solution to fading is _____.
C. End-fire array
A. space diversity
D. Yagi-Uda antenna
B. frequency diversity
C. polarization diversity
8. Gain of a half-wave dipole antenna over
D. wavelength diversity
isotropic.
A. 2.15 dB
14. _____ is the amount of uncertainty in a
B. 1.76 dB
system of symbols
C. 1 dB
A. Bandwidth
D. 0dB
B. Enthalpy
C. Entropy
9. Very low signal strength in antenna.
D. Quantum
A. Minor lobes
B. Null
C. Antenna patterns
D. Major lobes
15. If an antenna has a gain of 3 dB, it increases
10. What is the gain of the Hertzian dipole over the output of the transmitter by
isotropic antenna?
A. 10,000 times
A. 1.64 dB
B. 1000 times
B. 2.15 dB
C. 100 times
C. 1.76 dB
D. 1 million times
D. 1.55 dB
16. Top loading is used in an antenna in order to
11. ______ is the measurement of a unilateral
increase its ______.
antenna properties of directivity
A. practical height
A. Phase angle
B. beamwidth
B. Antenna gain
C. effective height

D. input capacitance
17. A horizontal antenna is _____.
A. vertically polarized
B. horizontally polarized
C. centrally polarized
D. circularly polarized
18. All elements in a beam _____ antennas are
in line
A. collinear
B. yagi
C. broadside array
D. log-periodic
19. Which does not use vertical polarization
antenna?
A. AM Broadcasting
B. FM Broadcasting
C. Mobile Communications
D. Satellite Communications
20. Lightning rods must be mounted a top
structure not less than ___ above the highest
point.
A. 10 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 40 cm
21. _____ is an antenna with a number of halfwave antenna on it.
A. Antenna array
B. Tower
C. Omni-directional
D. Rhombic

22. Which antenna radiates an omnidirectional


pattern in the horizontal plane with vertical
polarization?
A. Marconi antenna
B. Discone antenna
C. Horn antenna
D. Helical antenna
23. An antenna with very high gain and very
narrow beamwidth.
A. Helical antenna
B. Discone antenna
C. Horn antenna
D. Parabolic dish antenna
24. What determines antenna polarization?
A. The frequency of the radiated wave
B. The direction of the radiated wave
C. The direction of the magnetic field
vector
D. The direction of the electric field
vector
25. _____ is the horizontal pointing angle of an
antenna
A. Azimuth
B. Angle of elevation
C. Right angle
D. Beamwidth

B. 2.6
C. 1.81
D. 4.24
27. What is the estimated medium wind loading
in the Philippines for antenna tower design?
A. 300 kph
B. 100 kph
C. 200 kph
D. 250 kph
28. Discone radiation pattern is ______.
A. omnidirectional/vertical polarized
B. unidirectional
C. bidirectional
D. figure of eight
29. _____ is an open-ended slot antenna
A. Helical antenna
B. Rhombic antenna
C. Notch antenna
D. Cassegrain antenna
30. Which antenna is a properly terminated?
A. Marconi
B. Rhombic
C. Dipole
D. Yagi-Uda

31. What is the radiation characteristic of a


dipole antenna?
26. A dipole antenna requires to be fed with 20
A. Omnidirectional
kW of power to produce a given signal strength
B. Bidirectional
to a particular distant point. If the addition of a
C. Unidirectional
reflector makes the same field strength available
D. Hemispherical
with an input power of 11kW. What is the gain
in dB, obtained by the use if the reflector. (Gain 32. What is the theoretical gain of a Hertzian
referred to this particular dipole).
dipole?
A. 4.75
A. 1.76 dB

B. 2.15 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 0 dB
33. An antenna with unity gain
A. Rhombic
B. Half-wave dipole
C. Isotropic
D. Whip
34. How will you increase the gain of an
antenna?
A. By adding several antennas in parallel
B. By focusing the radiated energy in
one desired direction
C. By making antenna rods thicker
D. By making the antenna size larger
35. An antenna which is one-tenth wavelength
long
A. Hertzian dipole
B. Loop antenna
C. Marconi antenna
D. Elementary doublet

36. What is the minimum number of turns a


helix antenna must have?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 6
37. What is the gain of isotropic antenna?
A. 10
B. 1

C. 10
D. 100
38. Which of the following improves antenna
directivity?
A. Driven element
B. Reflector element
C. Director element
D. Parasitic element
39. The antenna radiates _____ polarized waves
when the transmitter antenna is horizontally
installed.
A. Vertically
B. negatively
C. horizontally
D. circularly

D. Polarization

43. If the radiated power increase 10.89 times,


the antenna current increases by ______.
A. 3.3 times
B. 6.6 times
C. 1.82 times
D. 10.89 times
44. The frequency of operation of a dipole
antenna cut to a length of 3.4 m.
A. 88 MHz
B. 44 MHz
C. 22 MHz
D. 11 MHz

48. Shortening effect of an antenna that makes it


appear as if it were 5% longer.
A. End effect
B. Flywheel effect
C. Skin effect
D. Capture effect
49. Harmonic suppressor connected to an
antenna.
A. Low-pass filter
B. High-pass filter
C. M-derived filter
D. Constant-K

45. Comparing the signal strength arriving at the


driven element from the desired direction to the 50. A simple half-wavelength antenna radiates
signal strength reaching the driver from the
the strongest signal
opposite direction.
A. at 45 degrees to its axis
A. Directivity
B. parallel to its axis
B. Sensitivity
C. at right angles to its axis
C. Beamwidth
D. at 60 degrees to its axis
D. Front-to-back ratio
41. What is the front-to-back ratio of an antenna
51. The current maximum in a Marconi antenna
which radiates 500 watts in a northernly
46. What is the capture area of a dipole operated is found at
direction and 50 watts in a southernly direction? at 75 MHz?
A. the base of the antenna
A. 25000 dB
A. 4 mm
B. the center of the antenna
B. 10 dB
B. 2 m2
C. some point between the base and the
2
C. 100 dB
C. 2.088 m
center of the antenna
D. 20 dB
D. 4.088 m2
D. the top of the antenna
40. The length of a Marconi antenna to operate
with 985 kHz is ______.
A. 200 ft
B. 500 ft
C. 250 ft
D. 999 ft

42. If 4 kW in antenna produces 50 V/m in a


receiving antenna, a 15 kW will produce _____.
A. 200 V/m
B. 10 V/m
C. 100 V/m
D. 20 V/m

47. _____ of an antenna is a measure of how the 52. If an antenna is too short for the wavelength
antenna concentrates its radiated power in a
being used, the effective length can be increased
given direction.
by adding:
A. Efficiency
A. capacitance in series
B. Power
B. inductance in series
C. Gain
C. resistance in parallel

D. resistance in series
53. Which of the following antennas is used for
testing and adjusting a transmitter for proper
modulation, amplifier operation and frequency
accuracy?
A. Elementary
B. Real
C. Isotropic
D. Dummy

57. Which of the following antennas receive


signals in the horizontal plane equality well
from all directions?
A. Horizontal Hertz antenna
B. Vertical loop antenna
C. Vertical Yagi antenna
D. A vertical antenna which is a quarterwavelength long

58. If the length of a Hertz dipole is decreased


A. its resonant frequency will be
54. The power fed to a two-bay turnstile antenna lowered its distributed inductance will be
is 100 watts. If the antenna has a 2 dB power
increased
gain, what is the effective radiated power?
B. its distributed inductance will be
A. 317 watts
decreased
B. 158 watts
C. its resonant frequency will be
C. 200 watts
increased
D. 400 watts
D. its distributed capacitance between
the antenna and ground will be increased.
55. What is the gain, in dB of a helical antenna
with diameter of /3, 10 turns at pitch of /4,
59. A final amplifier of a radio transmitter
used at 100 MHz?
draws 250 mA of plate current when the plate
A. 16
supply voltage is 1400 volts. If the plate circuit
B. 41.1
efficiency is 80% and the transmitter is
C. 31.4
connected to an antenna having a feed
D. 1.25
impedance of 70 ohms, what is the antenna
current at the feed-point?
56. How is it possible to lower the resonant
A. 4.0 A
frequency of Hertz dipole antenna?
B. 2.2 A
A. By reducing the frequency at the
C. 1.25 A
transmitter
D. 2.0 A
B. By connecting a capacitor in series
with the antenna
60. A one-quarter wavelength shunt-fed vertical
C. By the connecting a resistor in series Marconi antenna
with the antenna
A. has maximum radiation in a vertical
D. By connecting an inductor in series
direction
with the antenna
B. must have a horizontal receiving
antenna for the best reception

C. must use a receiving antenna for the


best reception
D. must have a vertical receiving
antenna for the best reception
61. A shunt-fed quarter-wavelength Marconi
antenna
A. has maximum RF impedance to
ground at its feedpoint
B. has a current null at its feedpoint
C. has a zero DC resistance to ground
D. has zero RF resistance to ground
62. The parasitic element of an antenna system
will
A. decrease its directivity
B. increase its directivity
C. give the antenna unidirectional
properties
D. both B and C
63. If the length of an antenna is changed from
2.5 meters to 2.8 meters, its resonant frequency
will
A. increase
B. depend on the velocity factor so the
resonant frequency can either be increased or
decreased
C. will be unchanged
D. decrease
64. What is the effect of adding a capacitor in
series with an antenna?
A. The antennas resonant frequency
will increase
B. The antennas resonant frequency will
decrease
C. The antenna will be physically 5%
longer than its electrical length

D. A capacitor is never added in series


with an antenna

A. vertical loop
B. vertical quarter-wavelength rod
C. array which includes parasitic
65. How does the electric field strength of a
elements
standard broadcast station vary with the distance
D. a horizontal Hertz dipole
from the antenna?
A. The field strength of a standard
69. What is the electrical wavelength of a 500
broadcast station vary with the distance from the MHz signal?
antenna
A. 60 centimeters
B. The field strength is directly
B. 6 meters
proportional to the distance from the antenna
C. 0.06 meter
C. The field strength remains constant
D. 60 meters
regardless of the distance from the antenna
D. The field strength varies inversely as 70. If the antenna current is doubled, the field
the distance from the antenna
strength at a particular position is
A. doubled
66. Stacking elements in a transmitting antenna
B. halved
system
C. multiplied by a factor of four
A. increases the field strength at the
D. divided by a factor of four
receiving antenna
B. increases the directivity of the
transmitter antenna
71. The rhombic antenna is primarily used for
C. decrease the size of the lobe in the
A. ground wave propagation
radiation pattern
B. space wave propagation
D. both A and B
C. ionosphere scatter propagation
D. sky wave propagation
67. A vertical loop antenna has a
A. unidirectional radiation pattern in the 72. What antenna radiates equally in all
horizontal plane
directions?
B. unidirectional radiation pattern in the
A. Vertical antenna
vertical plane
B. isotropic antenna
C. omnidirectional radiation pattern in
C. Horizontal antenna
the horizontal plane
D. Dipole antenna
D. a bidirectional radiation pattern in the
horizontal plane
73. Actual height of antenna should be at least
A. one wavelength
68. In order to get maximum radiation to all
B. half wavelength
surrounding points in the horizontal plane, the
C. quarter wavelength
antenna used is a
D. three-fourth wavelength

74. Which antenna is not properly terminated?


A. Resonant
B. Non-resonant
C. Isotropic
D. Whip
75. ______ is an antenna array which is highly
directional at right angles to the plane of the
array?
A. Broadside array
B. End-fire array
C. Turnstile array
D. Log-periodic array
76. The directivity pattern of an isotropic
radiator is
A. a figure-8
B. a sphere
C. a unidirectional cardioid
D. a parabola
77. An isotropic radiator is
A. in the northern hemisphere
B. an antenna high enough in the air
C. an antenna whose directive pattern is
substantially incredible
D. a hypothetical, omnidirectional
antenna

78. The purpose of stacking elements on an


antenna.
A. Sharper directional pattern
B. increased gain
C. Improved bandpass
D. All of these

D. coil
79. The advantage of using top loading in a
shortened HF vertical antenna is
A. lower quality factor
B. greater structural strength
C. higher losses
D. improved radiation efficiency
80. Where are the voltage nodes in a half-wave
antenna?
A. At the ends
B. Three-quarters of the way from the
feed point toward the end
C. One-half of the way from the feed
point toward the end
D. At the feed point

84. Increasing the electrical length of an antenna


means
89. What is the gain of an antenna over a halfA. add an inductor in parallel
wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over
B. add a capacitor in series
an isotropic radiator?
C. add an inductor series
A. 6.0 dB
D. add a resistor is series
B. 8.1 dB
C. 3.9 dB
D. 10.0 dB

85. Stacking antennas at various angles results


in
A. a more omnidirectional reception
B. a more unidirectional reception
C. a more omnidirectional reception
D. an overall reception signal increase

81. A theoretical reference antenna that provides


a comparison for antenna measurements.
86. What is driven element?
A. Marconi antenna
A. Always the rearmost element
B. Isotropic radiator
B. Always the forward most element
C. Yagi-Uda array
C. The element fed by the transmission
D. Whip antenna
line
D. The element connected to the rotator
82. A Hertz antenna is operating on a frequency
of 2182 kHz and consists of a horizontal wire
87. What is antenna bandwidth?
that is hanged between two towers. What is the
A. Antenna length divided by the
frequency of its third harmonic?
number of elements
A. 727 kHz
B. The angle between the half-power
B. 6546 kHz
radiation points
C. 436 kHz
C. The angle formed between two
D. 6.546 kHz
imaginary lines drawn through
D. The frequency range over which an
83. In horizontal-dipole antenna, the
antenna can be expected to operate satisfactorily
polarization is
A. in the vertical direction
88. To lengthen an antenna electrically, add a
B. in the horizontal direction
A. resistor
C. circular
B. battery
D. measured at the center of the antenna
C. condult

90. What is the usual electrical length of a


driven element in an HF beam antenna?
A. wavelength
B. wavelength
C. wavelength
D. 1 wavelength
91. What happens to the bandwidth of an
antenna as it is shortened through the use of
loading coils?
A. It is increased
B. It is decreased
C. No change occurs
D. It becomes flat

92. To electrically decrease the length of an


antenna.
A. add an inductor in series
B. add an inductor in parallel
C. add a resistor in series
D. add a capacitor in series
93. Strong interference from one particular
station can be eliminated by the use of
A. noise limiters
B. squelch circuits
C. negative feedback

D. wave traps in the antenna circuitry


94. It is useful to refer to an isotropic radiator.
A. when comparing the gains of
directional antennas
B. when testing a transmission line for
standing wave ratio
C. when (in the northern hemisphere)
directing the transmission
D. when using a dummy load to tune a
transmitter

B. At the center
C. Three-quarters of the way from the
feed point toward the end
D. One-half of the way from the feed
point toward the end

99. For a shortened vertical antenna, where


should a loading coil be placed to minimize
losses and produce the most effective
performance?
A. As low as possible on the vertical
radiator
B. Near the center of the vertical radiator
C. As close to the transmitter as possible
D. At a voltage node

103. The antenna efficiency of an HF grounded


vertical antenna can be made comparable to that
of a half-wave antenna
A. By installing a good ground radial
system
B. By isolating the coax shield from
ground
C. By shortening the vertical
D. By lengthening the vertical

104. An antenna efficiency is computed by


95. A disadvantage of using a trap antenna.
using one of the following equations.
A. It will radiate harmonics
A. Efficiency = (radiation resistance /
B. It can only be used for single-bad
transmission resistance)
operation
B. Efficiency = (total resistance /
C. It is too sharply directional at lower
radiation resistance) x 100%
frequencies
C. Efficiency = (effective radiated power
D. It must be neutralized
/ transmitter output) x 100%
100. The effect of adding parasitic elements of a
D. Efficiency = (radiation resistance /
96. The input terminal impedance at the center
Hertz dipole is to
total resistance) x 100%
of a folded dipole antenna is
A. make the antenna more
A. 72
omnidirectional
105. Increasing the resonant frequency of an
B. 300
B. reduce its resonant frequency
end-fed Marconi antenna can be done by
C. 50
C. increase the antennas power gain
A. adding a capacitor in series and
D. 73
D. All of these
reducing the physical length
B. adding an inductor in series
97. When a capacitor is connected in series with 101. Stacking antenna elements
C. adding an inductor in series
a Marconi antenna?
A. increases sensitivity to weak signals
D. All of these
A. Antenna open circuit stops
B. will suppress odd harmonics
transmission
C. decrease signal to noise ratio
B. An inductor of equal value must be
D. increases selectivity
added
106. Factors that determine the radiation
C. No change occurs to antenna
102. In the case if Marconi antenna, the actual
resistance of an antenna
D. Antenna resonant frequency increases length if the radiating element is
A. Transmission line length and height
A. one-half wavelength
of antenna
98. Where are the current nodes in a half-wave
B. one-quarter wavelength
B. The location of the antenna with
antenna?
C. one wavelength
respect to nearby objects
A. At the ends
D. one-eight wavelength

C. It is a constant for all antennas since it 112. Which of the following antennas is best
is physical
excited from a waveguide?
D. Sunspot activity and the time of day
A. Biconical
B. Horn
107. _____ is the angle between the half-power
C. Helical
radiation points
D. Discone
A. Critical angle
B. Beamwidth
C. Angle of elevation
D. Azimuth

B. provision of an earth for the antenna


C. protection of personnel working
underneath
D. improvement of the radiation pattern
of the antenna

117. One of the following makes an antenna


physically long but electrically short
A. Adding L in series
B. Adding C in series
C. Top loading
108. What is the ratio of the maximum radiation 113. Indicate which of the following reasons for
D. Both A and C
intensity to the average radiation intensity?
using metal counterpoise with antennas is false.
A. Aperture gain
A. Impossibly of a good ground
118. When antennas are closed to the ground,
B. Directivity gain
connection
_______ polarization is ideal
C. Transmission gain
B. Protection of personnel working
A. horizontally polarized
D. Power gain
underneath
B. vertically polarized
C. Provision of an earth for the antenna
C. circularly polarized
109. Good grounding is important for
D. Rockiness of the ground itself
D. both A and B
A. horizontal antennas
B. broadside array antennas
114. Not a reason for the use of an antenna
119. _____ is an antenna made up of a number
C. vertical antennas
coupler.
of full wavelengths
D. Yagi-Uda antennas
A. To make the antenna look resistive
A. Elementary doublet
B. To provide the output amplifier with
B. Log-periodic
110. An ungrounded antenna near the ground
the correct load impedance
C. Long wire
A. acts as a single antenna of twice the
C. To discriminate against harmonics
D. Whip
height
D. To prevent re-radiation of the local
B. is unlikely to need an earth mat
oscillator
C. acts as antenna array
D. must be horizontally polarized
115. Which antenna is not a wideband?
A. Discone
120. Any energy which radiates in the form of
111. One of the following is very useful as a
B. Folded dipole
radio waves, infrared waves, light waves, xmultiband HF receiving antenna.
C. Helical
rays, etc.
A. Parabolic antenna
D. Marconi
A. Radiant energy
B. Elementary doublet
B. Electromagnetic
C. Log-periodic
116. One of the following is not a reason for the
C. Heat
D. Square loop
use of an earth mat
D. Ultraviolet
A. impossibility of a good ground
connection
121. Which one is an antenna coupling unit?

A. Coupler
B. Diplexer
C. Lecher wire
D. Duplexer
122. _____ polarization is employed in AM
broadcasting
A. Horizontal
B. Vertical
C. Circular
D. Omnidirectional
123. ______ polarization is employed in FM
broadcasting
A. Horizontal
B. Vertical
C. Circular
D. Bidirectional
124. Which antenna is not grounded at one end?
A. Hertz
B. Marconi
C. Dipole
D. Whip
125. Which antenna does not use the ground?
A. Marconi
B. Yagi
C. Hertz
D. Rhombic

OPTICAL FIBER COMMUNICATIONS


1. Founded the wave theory of light
a. Francesco Grimaldi
b. Edward Appleton
c. James Clerk Maxwell
d. Christian Huygens

2. Proposed the use of clad glass fiber as a


dielectric waveguide
a. Karpon and Keck
b. Karpon and Bockham
c. Bockham and Kao
d. Kao and Keck

3. Developed the first laser


a. Charles Townes
b. Theodore Maiman
c. Gordon McKenzie
d. Albert Einstein

4. The band of light wavelengths that are


too long to be seen by the human eye
a. Amber
b. Visible
c. Infrared
d. Ultraviolet

5. The band of light wavelengths that are


too short to be seen by the human eye
a. Amber
b. Visible
c. Infrared
d. Ultraviolet

6. Which color has the shortest wavelength


of light?
a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Blue
d. Green

7. What generates a light beam of a


specific visible frequency?
a. Laser
b. Maser
c. Infrared
d. Flashlight

8. Which of the following materials is


sensitive to light?
a. Photoresist
b. Photosensitive
c. Light Sensitive
d. Maser

9. The core of an optical fiber has a


a. Lower refracted index than air

b. Lower refractive index than the


cladding
c. Higher refractive index than the
cladding
d. Similar refractive index with the
cladding

13. If a mirror is used to reflect light, the


reflected light angle is ____ as the
incident angle
a. Smaller
b. Larger
c. The same
d. Independent

17. Fiber optic cables operate at frequencies


near
a. 20MHz
b. 200MHz
c. 2GHz
d. 800THz

10. Is the different angle of entry of light


into an optical fiber when the diameter
of the core is many times the wavelength
of the light transmitted.
a. Acceptance angle
b. Modes
c. Sensors
d. Aperture

18. When a beam of light enters one


medium from another, which quantity
will not change?
a. Direction
b. Speed
c. Frequency
d. Wavelength

14. What is a specific path the light takes in


an optical fiber corresponding to a
certain angle and number of reflection
a. Mode
b. Grade
c. Numerical Aperture
d. Dispersion

11. The loss in signal power as light travels


down a fiber is called
a. Dispersion
b. Scattering
c. Absorption
d. Attenuation

15. Is the width of the range of wavelengths


emitted by the light source
a. Bandwidth
b. Chromatic Dispersion
c. Spectral width
d. Beamwidth

19. Dispersion is used to describe the


a. Splitting of white light into its
component colors
b. Propagation of light in straight lines
c. Bending of a beam of light when it
goes from one medium to another
d. Bending of a beam light when it
strikes a mirror

12. The bandwidth of optical fiber


a. 900MHz
b. 900PHz
c. 900THz
d. 900EHz

16. Which theory states that the light wave


behaves as if it consists of many tiny
particles?
a. Huygens theory
b. Wave theory of light
c. Nyquist theory
d. Quantum theory

20. Luminance efficiency is minimum for a


a. Fluorescent tube
b. High wattage light bulb
c. Mercury vapor lamp
d. Low wattage light bulb

21. An object farther from a converging lens


than its focal point always has a/an
_____ image.
a. Inverted
b. The same in size
c. Virtual
d. Smaller size

22. An object nearer to a converging lens


than its focal point always has a/an
______ image.
a. Inverted
b. The same in size
c. Virtual
d. Smaller size

23. The real image formed by a spherical


mirror is ____ relative to its object
a. Erect
b. Inverted
c. Smaller
d. Larger

24. The wavelength of light has no role in


a. Diffraction
b. Interference
c. Polarization
d. Reflection

25. Longitudinal waves do not exhibit


a. Polarization
b. Refraction

c. Reflection
d. Diffraction

26. ________ dispersion is caused by the


difference in the propagation times of
light rays that take different paths down
a fiber.
a. Material dispersion
b. Wavelength dispersion
c. Modal dispersion
d. Delay dispersion

27. What is the average insertion loss of


fusion splice in fiber optics?
a. 0.09dB
b. 0.9dB
c. 0.19dB
d. 0.009dB

28. What is the insertion loss of connectortype splices for a single mode fiber
optics?
a. 0.51dB
b. 0.31dB
c. 0.49dB
d. 0.38dB

29. What is the lifetime of LEDs?


a. 200,000 minutes
b. 200,000 hours
c. 150,000 minutes

d. 150,000 hours

30. What is the lifetime of ILDs?


a. 50,000 hours
b. 75,000 hours
c. 100,000 hours
d. 125,000 hours

31. Photodiodes used as fiber optic directors


are
a. Unbiased to generate a voltage same
as a solar cell
b. Forward bias
c. Reversed bias
d. Thermoelectrically cooled

32. What type of fiber has the highest modal


dispersion?
a. Step-index multimode
b. Graded index multimode
c. Step-index single mode
d. Graded index mode

33. Laser light is ______ emission.


a. Coherent
b. Stimulated
c. Spontaneous
d. Coherent and stimulated

34. A dielectric waveguide for the


propagation of electromagnetic energy at
light frequencies
a. Stripline

b. Microstrip
c. Laser beam
d. Fiber optics

35. Is a non-coherent light source foe optical


communications system.
a. ILD
b. LED
c. APD
d. PIN Diode

36. Which type of laser is the simplest to


modulate directly by changing its
excitation?
a. Semiconductor
b. Ruby
c. Helium-neon
d. Neodymium-YAG

37. Which laser emits light in the visible


range 400 to 700 nm?
a. Argon-ion
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon-dioxide
d. Neodymium-YAG

38. Which is the proper measurement of


average power emitted by a pulsed laser?
a. Energy x time
b. Pulse energy x repetition rate
c. Pulse energy / repetition rate
d. Peak power x pulse length

39. What is the photon energy for an


infrared wave with frequency of 1012
Hz?
a. 10.6 x 1034 joules
b. 6.63 x 10-34 joules
c. 6.63 x 10-22 joules
d. 10.6 x 1022 joules

40. A positive lens with a focal length of 10


cm forms a real image of an object 20
am away from the lens. How far is the
real image from the lens?
a. 5 cm
b. 10 cm
c. 15 cm
d. 20 cm

41. Which of the following factor does not


harm laser efficiency?
a. Atmospheric absorption
b. Excitation energy not absorbed
c. Problems in depopulating the lower
laser level
d. Inefficiency in populating the upper
laser level

42. Which of the following contributes to


the broadening of laser emission
bandwidth?
a. Doppler shift of moving atoms and
molecules
b. Amplification within the laser
medium
c. Coherence of the laser light
d. Optical pumping of the laser
transition

43. The first laser emitted


a. Pulses of 694 nm red light
b. A continuous red beam
c. Pulses of white light from a helical
flashlamp
d. Spontaneous emission

44. What is the stage of the sand becoming a


silicon?
a. Liquid
b. Gas
c. Molten
d. Hot

45. Which of the following is used as an


optical transmitter on the Fiber Optical
Communications?
a. APD
b. LSA diode
c. PIN diode
d. LED

46. Which of the following is used as an


optical receiver in fiber optics
communications
a. APD
b. Tunnel diode
c. Laser diode
d. LED

47. The numerical aperture of a fiber if the


angle of acceptance is 15 degrees, is
a. 017

b. 0.26
c. 0.50
d. 0.75

48. The inner portion of the fiber cable is


called
a. Cladding
b. Coating
c. Inner conductor
d. Core

49. Which type of laser is the simplest to


modulate directly by changing its
excitation?
a. Semiconductor
b. Ruby
c. Helium-neon
d. Neodymium-YAG

50. The laser frequency when the light has


the wavelength 800 nm is
a. 375 x 10^12 Hz
b. 475 x 10^15 Hz
c. 375 x 10^9 Hz
d. 375 x 10^18 Hz

51. Which of the following is not a common


application of fiber-optic cable?
a. Computer networks
b. Long-distance telephone systems
c. Closed circuit TV
d. Consumer TV

52. Total internal reflection takes place if the


light ray strikes the interface at an angle
with what relationship to the critical
angle?
a. Less than
b. Grater than
c. Equal to
d. Zero

53. The operation of the fiber-optic cable is


based on the principle of
a. Refraction
b. Reflection
c. Dispersion
d. Absorption

54. Which of the following is not a common


type of fiber-optic cable?
a. Single-mode step-index
b. Multimode graded-index
c. Single-mode graded-index
d. Multimode step-index

57. The upper pulse rate and information


carrying capacity of a cable is limited by
a. Pulse shortening
b. Attenuation
c. Light leakage
d. Modal dispersion

58. The core of a fiber optic cable is made of


a. Air
b. Glass
c. Diamond
d. Quartz

59. The core of a fiber optic is surrounded


by
a. Wire braid shield
b. Kevlar
c. Cladding
d. Plastic insulation

55. Cable attenuation is usually expressed in


terms of
a. Loss per foot
b. dB/km
c. intensity per mile
d. voltage drop per inch

60. The speed of light in plastic compared to


the speed of light in air is
a. Slower
b. Faster
c. The same
d. Either lower or faster

56. Which of the cable length has the


highest attenuation?
a. 1 km
b. 2 km
c. 95 ft
d. 5500 ft

61. Which of the following is not a major


benefit of fiber-optic cable?
a. Immunity from interference
b. No electrical safety problems
c. Excellent data security
d. Lower cost

c. Single-mode graded-index
d. Multimode graded-index
62. The main benefit of light-wave
communications over microwaves or any
other communications media is
a. Lower cost
b. Better security
c. Wider bandwidth
d. Freedom from interference

67. The ratio of speed of light in air to the


speed of light in another substance is
called the
a. Speed factor
b. Index of reflection
c. Index of refraction
d. Dielectric constant

63. Which of the following is not part of the


optical spectrum?
a. Infrafed
b. Ultraviolet
c. Visible color
d. X-rays

68. A popular light wavelength in fiber-optic


cable is
a. 0.7 um
b. 1.3 um
c. 1.5 um
d. 1.8 um

64. The wavelength of visible light extends


from
a. 0.8 to 1.0 nm
b. 400 to 750 nm
c. 200 to 660 nm
d. 700 to 1200 nm

69. Which type of fiber optic cable is most


widely used?
a. Single-mode step-index
b. Multimode step-index
c. Single-mode graded-index
d. Multimode graded-index

65. The speed of light is


a. 186,000 mi/h
b. 300 mi/h
c. 300,000 m/s
d. 300,000,000 m/s

70. Which type of fiber-optic cable is the


best for very high speed data?
a. Single-mode step-index
b. Multimode step-index
c. Single-mode graded-index
d. Multimode graded-index

66. Refraction is the


a. Bending of light waves
b. Reflection of light waves
c. Distortion of light waves
d. Diffusion of light waves

71. Which type of fiber-optic cable has the


least modal dispersion?
a. Single mode step-index
b. Multimode step-index

72. Which of the following is not a factor in


cable light loss?
a. Reflection
b. Absorption
c. Scattering
d. Dispersion

73. A distance of 8 km is the same as


a. 2.5 mi
b. 5 mi
c. 8 mi
d. 12.9 mi

74. A fiber-optic cable has a loss of 15


dB/km. The attenuation in a cable, 100 ft
long is
a. 4.57 dB
b. 9.3 dB
c. 24 dB
d. 49.2 dB

75. Fiber-optic cables with attenuations of


1.8, 3.4, 5.9, and 18 dB are linked
together. The total loss is
a. 7.5 dB
b. 19.8 dB
c. 29.1 dB
d. 650 dB

76. Which light emitter is preferred for high


speed data in a fiber-optic system

a.
b.
c.
d.

Incandescent
LED
Neon
Laser

77. Most fiber-optic light sources emit light


in which spectrum?
a. Visible
b. Infrared
c. Ultraviolet
d. X-ray

78. Both LEDs and ILDs operate correctly


with
a. Forward bias
b. Reverse bias
c. Neither A or B
d. Either A or B

b. Photovoltaic diode
c. Photodiode
d. Avalanche photodiode

82. Which of the following is the fastest


light sensor
a. PIN photodiode
b. Photovoltaic diode
c. Phototransistor
d. Avalanche photodiode

83. Photodiodes operate property with


a. Forward bias
b. Reverse bias
c. Neither A or B
d. Either A or B

79. Single-frequency light is called


a. Pure
b. Intense
c. Coherent
d. Monochromatic

84. The product of the bit rate and distance


of a fiber-optic system is 2 Gbits km/s.
What is the maximum rate at 5 km?
a. 100 Mbits/s
b. 200 Mbits/s
c. 400 Mbits/s
d. 1000 Gbits/s

80. Laser light is very bright because it is


a. Pure
b. White
c. Coherent
d. Monochromatic

85. Which fiber-optic system is better?


a. 3 repeaters
b. 8 repeaters
c. 11 repeaters
d. 20 repeaters

81. Which of the following is NOT a


common light detector
a. PIN photodiode

86. An important requirement for successful


transmission system using light
a. Powerful, reliable light source

b. Strong glass
c. Reliable, high cost transmission
medium
d. Powerful regenerators

87. What is used to block light from a laser


and let other light through
a. Neutral density
b. Color
c. Interference
d. Spatial

88. ________ is a light that can be coherent


a. Spontaneous emission
b. Monochromatic and in-phase
c. Narrow beam divergence
d. Monochromatic

89. Coherence of laser light is important for


_________
a. Light propagation
b. Getting laser light to pass through air
c. Drilling holes
d. Holography

90. The ultrapure glass used to manufacture


optical fibers is approximately ___pure
a. 99.9 %
b. 99.99 %
c. 99.999%
d. 99.9999%

91. In fiber optics, PCS stands for


a. Plastic-clad-silica

b. Polyethylene-clad-silica
c. Personal carrier system
d. Personal communication

92. How many longitudinal modes can fall


within a lasers gain bandwidth?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 9
d. No fixed limit, dependent on
bandwidth and mode spacing

93. _________ is the result of photons of


light that are absorbed by the atoms of
the glass core molecules
a. Ion resonance absorption
b. Ultraviolet absorption
c. Infrared absorption
d. Absorption loss

94. In fiber optics, SCS stands for


a. Suppressed-clad-silicon
b. Silicon base-class-silica
c. Silica-clad-silica
d. Serial-clad-silicon

95. Human laser was developed by A. Javen


at Bell laboratory in
a. 1960
b. 1962
c. 1963
d. 1964

96. What parameter of light detector


determines the range or system length
that can be achieved for a given
wavelength?
a. Transit time
b. Spectral response
c. Dark current
d. Responsitivity

97. Dark current in light detectors is caused


by
a. Thermally generated carriers in the
diode
b. The absence of light input
c. Small leakage current
d. Its imperfection

98. What is the unit of responsitivity?


a. Ampere/volt
b. Ampere/watt
c. Watt/ampere
d. Volts/ampere

99. One of the following is not a


characteristic of light detectors.
a. Responsitivity
b. Spectral response
c. Transmit time
d. Dispersion

100.
What is the typical wavelength of
light emitted from epitaxially grown
LEDs?
a. 840 nm
b. 490 nm

c. 480 nm
d. 940 nm

101.
a.
b.
c.
d.

SONET stands for


System Optical Network
Synchronous Optical Network
Silica Optic Network
System Optical Fiber Net

102.
Band loss is
a. A reduction in transmitter power
caused by earths surface curvature
b. A reduction in strength of the signal
caused by folded dipole bends
c. An attenuation increase caused by
bends radiating from the side of the
fiber
d. All of these

103.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Infrared range for fiber optics


400 700 nm
700 1200 nm
300 2000 nm
400 7000 nm

104.
Which of the following is a
disadvantage for plastic fiber optics?
a. Noise immunity
b. Electric hazards
c. Higher losses
d. All of these

105.
OTDR stands for
a. Optical Time Domain Reflectometer

b. Optical Transmit Direction Return


c. Optical Time Domain Time
Regeneration
d. Overtime Direct Reference

106.
Which of the following is
determined by an OTDR?
a. Distance to trouble
b. Length of fiber
c. Refractive index
d. All of these

107.
Under normal condition, a single
fiber should not be used for a two-way
communication mainly because of
a. Loss
b. Fading
c. Noise
d. Attenuation

108.
A single mode optical fiber has a
core diameter of _____ nm.
a. 0.1
b. 0.01
c. 0.2
d. 0.05

109.
A step-index multimode optical
fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm.
a. 0.02
b. 0.2
c. 2
d. 0.002

110.
The graded-index multimode
optical fiber has a core diameter of
_____ nm.
a. 0.5
b. 0.05
c. 0.0005
d. 5

111.
Which is not a possible cause of
optical fiber loss?
a. Impurities
b. Glass attenuation
c. Stepped index operation
d. Microbending

112.
The ratio of the speed of light in
a vacuum and the speed of light in the
material used.
a. S/N ratio
b. Refractive index
c. Intermodal dispersion
d. Monomode ratio

113.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Splicing fibers means


Fusion
Butt
Glue
Both fusion and butt

114.
An IC that represents a short
distance one-way optical
communications
a. Optoisolator
b. Insulator
c. Multivibrator

d. Optical IC

115.
When light strikes a flat polished
end of a fiber, it produces a loss of
a. 14 %
b. 4 %
c. 10 %
d. 1 %

116.
When light strikes a flat polished
end of a fiber, the fiber loss produced
can be reduced by
a. Splicing
b. Antireflection coating
c. Insulation jacket
d. All of these

117.
In fiber optics, higher-order
mode refers to
a. Cladding boundary at high angle
b. Backscattering electromagnetic
signals
c. Diffracting signals
d. All of these

118.
The following are the cause of
light attenuation in fiber optics except
a. Backscattering
b. Absorption
c. Refraction
d. Microbends

119.
Why are visible-light LEDs not
used for fiber optics?
a. It has high losses
b. It has short wave
c. It has low attenuation
d. It has weak signal

120.
a.
b.
c.
d.

121.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Optical cable testers are used for


Checking refractive index
Light power out of a fiber
Non-calibrated light into a fiber
Checking maximum distance
covered

A function of an optic isolator


Cancels reflective waves
Amplifies signal transmitted
Filters unnecessary signals
All of these

122.
An increase in light intensity
produces fast optic switching due to
a. Increase in index of glass
b. Amplification of optical signal
c. High gain
d. Photoconductivity

123.
Light traveling in optical fiber
follows which of the following
principles.
a. Huygens principle
b. Reflection theory
c. Light theory
d. Snell;s law

124.
Optical fibers for
telecommunications are typically about
_____ mils thick and consists of a glass
core, a glass cladding of lower index of
refraction, and a protective coating
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8

125.
Material dispersion is caused by
the
a. Wavelength dependence of the index
of refraction
b. Wavelength independence of the
index of refraction
c. Dependence of the propagation
constant on the mode number
d. Independence of the propagation
constant on the mode number

126.
Modal dispersion is caused by
the
a. Dependence of wavelength on index
of refraction
b. Dependence of propagation constant
on index of refraction
c. Dependence of the propagation
constant on the wavelength
d. Dependence of the propagation
constant on the mode number

127.
The dominant loss mechanisms
in silica fiber are
a. Absorption and radiation losses

b. Absorption and Rayleigh scattering


c. Coupling and radiation losses
d. Radiation and modal dispersion

128.
The bandwidth of a fiber is
limited by
a. Mode
b. Wavelength
c. Dispersion
d. Frequency

129.
Fiber bandwidth is generally
specified as the
a. Product of the bandwidth and
distance
b. Sum of the bandwidth and distance
c. Difference of the bandwidth and
distance
d. Quotient of bandwidth and distance

130.
The _____ of a detector is the
fraction of incident photons that produce
a photoelectron or electron-hole pair
a. Responsitivity
b. Photon efficiency
c. Aperture
d. Quantum efficiency

131.
In solid-state optical detectors,
the excited charge is transported in the
solid by
a. Holes and protons
b. Holes and electrons
c. Anion and cation
d. Protons and photons

132.
One of the following is not a
solid-state optical detector
a. APD
b. PIN
c. PMT
d. Phototransistors

133.
Optical detectors are square-law
devices because they respond to _____
rather than amplitude
a. Intensity
b. Light
c. Density
d. Photon

134.
The _____ is equal to the number
of electrons emitted per second times the
electron charge
a. Intensity
b. Optical power
c. Photocurrent
d. Responsitivity

135.
Which optical detector is used
when high sensitivity and bandwidth are
required?
a. PMT
b. APD
c. PIN
d. Phototransistor

136.
What is the average loss in fiber
splice?

a.
b.
c.
d.

0.10 dB
0.15 dB
0.20 dB
0.25 dB

137.
Which of the following colors is
not found in the visible light wave
spectrum?
a. Red
b. White
c. Orange
d. Yellow

138.
What is the frequency limit of an
optical fiber?
a. 20 GHz
b. 30 GHz
c. 40 GHz
d. 50 GHz

139.
The mechanical splice
attenuation loss is _____ dB or less
a. 0.1
b. 0.01
c. 0.001
d. 1

140.
_____ is applied to protect core
and cladding of the fiber
a. Insulation
b. Fiber insulation
c. Silica
d. Polymer jacket

141.
The energy of the photon is
a. Directly proportional to its
bandwidth
b. Directly proportional to the Plancks
constant
c. Directly proportional to Boltzmanns
constant
d. Inversely proportional to the
Plancks constant

142.
a.
b.
c.
d.

143.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Refractive index of glass


1.0
1.2
1.4
1.5

Refractive index of diamond


1.0
1.4
1.8
2.0

144.
What is the unit of light
wavelength?
a. Micrometer
b. Angstroms
c. Mils
d. Fathom

145.
How much is the power loss of
the fusion splice?
a. 0.1 dB or less
b. 0.01 dB or less
c. 1 dB or less
d. 10 dB or less

146.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Used to test a fiber optics splice


Spectrum analyzer
Oscilloscope
Optical power meter
Field strength meter

147.
A coupler which consists of a
series of lenses and a partly reflective
surface
a. Beam-splitting coupler
b. Reflective star coupler
c. Fused coupler
d. None of these

148.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Reflections in many directions


Diffuse reflection
Diffraction
Scattering
Dispersion

149.
Commonly used electro-optic
crystal for polarization modulation
a. Lithium Niobate
b. Tourmaline
c. Sodium Chlorate
d. Sphalerite

150.
Which modulation methods are
the most widely used in optical systems?
a. Phase and frequency modulations
b. Polarization modulation and phase
modulation

c. Intensity modulation and phase


modulation
d. Intensity modulation and
polarization modulation

4. A mechanism or device which


enables the TV camera to move in
lateral and tilting motion
a. Panning device
b. Scanner
c. Tilting
d. Pan/tilt device

BROADCASTING

1. Which of the following is the first


component of any MATV system to
receive broadcast signals?
a. Filter
b. LNA
c. RF amplifier
d. Antenna

2. Is the most common technique where


apartment house, hotels, schools,
condominiums, and multi-unit
buildings distribute TV and FM
signals to a number of receivers,
using a single head-end.
a. CCTV
b. CATV
c. MATV
d. Antenna

3. TV channel 2, 4 and 5 belong to


a. Low band UHF
b. High band VHF
c. Mid band UHF
d. Low band VHF

5. Which of the following is a solid


state imaging device?
a. VIDICON
b. ICONOSCOPE
c. Charge couple device
d. CCTV

6. What class of TV camera lens used


to cover short distances?
a. Normal
b. Wide angle
c. Telephoto
d. Zoom

7. What class of TV camera lens used


to cover long distances?
a. Normal
b. Wide angle
c. Telephoto
d. Zoom

8. What is the local oscillator frequency


in commercial AM broadcast if it is
equal to 455 kHz?
a. 0 to 1500 kHz

b. 0 to 455 kHz
c. 540 to 1600 kHz
d. 955 to 2055 kHz

9. What is the allowable deviation ratio


of commercial FM broadcast?
a. 20
b. 75
c. 5
d. 25

10. The maximum power suggested by


KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast
station in Metro Manila is
a. 5 kW
b. 10 kW
c. 15 kW
d. 20 kW

11. KBP radio code mandates that


station must provide a minimum of
___ minutes
a. 30
b. 45
c. 50
d. 60

12. What is the chroma subcarrier signal


frequency for color television?
a. 3.8 MHz
b. 6.8 MHz
c. 7.8 MHz
d. 8.8 MHz

13. What is the frequency tolerance of an


FM Radio Broadcast station?
a. 20000 Hz
b. 20 Hz
c. 200 Hz
d. 2000 Hz

14. The minimum frequency separation


between frequency of AM
broadcasting station
a. 9 kHz
b. 18 kHz
c. 36 kHz
d. 72 kHz

15. The aspect ratio HDTV is


a. 4:3
b. 18:5
c. 14:8
d. 16:9

16. A newscast is a distinct unit of a


program with a minimum news
content of _____ minute(s)
excluding intro, extro, headline and
commercial load
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

17. In accordance with existing


provision of law and the KBP rules

and the regulations, all stations shall


actively promote the growth ands the
development of Filipino music by
playing _____ OPM every clock
hour.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

18. Commercial load for radio shall not


exceed ____ minutes for a one-hour
program outside Metro Manila
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30

19. Commercial load for radio shall not


exceed _____ minutes for a one-hour
program outside Metro Manila.
a. 15
b. 16
c. 17
d. 20

20. Program interruption for airing of


commercial in Metro Manila shall
not exceed _____ breaks in every
program hour
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8

21. Program interruption for the airing of


commercial outside Metro Manila
shall not exceed _____ breaks in
every program hour
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8

22. For Metro manila, the classification


of prime time blocks for FM shall be
a. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
b. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN
c. 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM
d. 12:00 NN to 12:00 MN

23. For provincial station, the


classification of prime time blocks
for FM radio shall be
a. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
b. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN
c. 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM
d. 12:00 NN to 12:00 MN

24. All airtime classifications shall be


submitted to and subject for
approval by the
a. NTC
b. KBP-SA
c. DOTC
d. CCITT
25. _____ is the time circulation for one
horizontal trace
a. 52 us
b. 62 us
c. 48 us

d. 50 us

26. Listing of the date and time of


events, programs, equipment, tests,
malfunctions and corrections in
communications system.
a. Reporting
b. Documentation
c. Log
d. File

27. Which of the following is not a low


impedance microphone?
a. Dynamic
b. Velocity
c. Condenser
d. Crystal

28. Facsimile permits remote


duplications of which of the
following items?
a. Map
b. Pictures
c. Printed page
d. All of these

29. Television has a lot of features in


common with
a. FM stereo
b. Telephone service
c. Motion picture
d. Magazine

30. The major component of the TV


signal waveform is the
a. Video
b. Radar
c. Stereo
d. Antenna

31. For NTSC TV system, the image is


scanned from
a. Top to bottom
b. Left to right
c. Right to left
d. Choices A and B above

32. One completes NTSC scanning cycle


called field consists of how many
lines
a. 500
b. 525
c. 625
d. 60

33. The field rate in the NTSC television


system
a. 30 Hz
b. 120 Hz
c. 60 Hz
d. 15.75 Hz

34. What is the horizontal synchronous


blanking pulse rate?
a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz
c. 15.75Hz
d. 120 Hz

d. Beam modulation
35. What is the vertical blanking pulse
rate?
a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz
c. 15.75 Hz
d. 120 Hz

36. The pulses riding on the vertical


blanking pulse
a. Equalizing (sync) pulses
b. Serrated vertical sync pulses
c. Black level pulses
d. Choices A and B above

37. Television camera pickup tube is


called
a. Vidicon
b. Image orthicon
c. Plumbicon
d. All of the above

38. The television picture tube magnetic


fields can be used for
a. Beam focusing
b. Beam deflection
c. Beam production
d. Beam modulation

39. What is the purpose of an indirectlyheated cathode in a cathode ray tube?


a. Beam focusing
b. Beam deflection
c. Beam production

40. Video modulation for television is


a. Amplitude modulation
b. Frequency modulation
c. Vestigial sideband
d. Both amplitude modulation and
vestigial sideband

41. Audio modulation for television is


a. Amplitude modulation
b. Frequency modulation
c. Vestigial sideband
d. Both amplitude modulation and
vestigial sideband

42. What is the maximum frequency


deviation for audio modulation in
TV transmission?
a. 25 kHz
b. 30 kHz
c. 50 kHz
d. 75 kHz

43. The video carrier and the audio


carrier are separated by ____ MHz.
a. 4.5
b. 5.5
c. 6.5
d. 7.5

44. In a practical image scanned at the


NTSC rate, the spectrum will include
components clustered at the

fundamentals and harmonics of


_____ kHz
a. 15.75
b. 30
c. 12.25
d. 45.5

45. Brightness of an image is known as


a. Radiance
b. Chrominance
c. Reflectance
d. Luminance

46. The colors at the vertices of the color


triangle are referred to as
a. Primary
b. White
c. Desaturated
d. All of the above

47. A color signal which originate in the


camera itself with color television
pickup?
a. Red
b. Green
c. Blue
d. All of these

48. What are the three separate signals


derived from a matrix in a color TV
transmitter?
a. Y, I and Q
b. P, D and Q
c. M, N and O
d. R, S and T

49. Range of a VHF television


transmitter
a. 54 98 MHz
b. 54 216 MHz
c. 54 128 MHz
d. 54 166 MHz

50. Range of a UHF television


transmitter
a. 470 670 MHz
b. 470 770 MHz
c. 470 890 MHz
d. 470 - 980 MHz

51. What is the approximate bandwidth


occupied by the chrominance video
signal for color TV?
a. 0.8 MHz
b. 1.8 MHz
c. 8.1 MHz
d. 1.6 MHz

52. The colors found around the


perimeter of the color triangle are
said to be
a. Saturated
b. Dark
c. Light
d. Monochrome

53. At what position on the color triangle


will saturated yellow be located?
a. Between red and blue

b. Between red and green


c. Between blue and green
d. At the center

54. What is the phase difference between


the I and Q color signal carriers?
a. 0
b. 45
c. 60
d. 90

55. _____ is the most effective filter for


separating luminance and
chrominance frequency components.
a. Low pass
b. Band pass
c. Notch
d. Comb

56. The chrominance processing circuits


can be deactivated when
monochrome broadcasts are received
by the
a. Color killer
b. SAW filter
c. NOT gate
d. All of the above

57. What is the standard video level, in


percent PEV, for blanking?
a. 25 %
b. 0 %
c. 12.5 %
d. 75 %

58. What is the percent video level, in


percent PEV, for black?
a. 0 %
b. 25 %
c. 12.5 %
d. 70 %

59. What is the standard video level, in


percent PEV, for white?
a. 0 %
b. 12.5 %
c. 25 %
d. 70 %

60. One should first perform _____


before a convergence setup is
performed.
a. Gray tracking
b. Screen setting
c. Alignment
d. Degaussing

61. If there are too many harmonics, one


should check the
a. Coupling
b. Tuning of circuits
c. Shielding
d. Any of these

62. In transmitter amplifier design, an


even-order harmonics can be
prevented or reduced by
a. Using a push-pull amplifier
b. Operating class C

c. Operating class AB
d. All of these

63. The vertical and horizontal pulses


are separated at the
a. Sync separator
b. AFC
c. High voltage
d. AGC

64. The reason why buffer stage is


included in a transmitter is to
a. Present a constant load to the
oscillator stage
b. Present a low impedance to the
oscillator stage
c. Stop the oscillator from
generating parasitic oscillations
d. All of these

65. Where is the operating position of a


radio station?
a. On the bridge
b. At the control point
c. At the location of the receiver
d. At the location of the transmitter

66. The alignment of the three color


guns to a common point is known as
a. Blooming
b. Confetti
c. Demodulation
d. Convergence

67. A _____ is equivalent to 525


scanning lines
a. Field
b. Frame
c. Cycle
d. Interface set

68. A _____ represents one set of 262


scanning lines
a. Field
b. Frame
c. Cycle
d. Interface set

69. The number of scanning lines is


_____ per second
a. 14750
b. 15570
c. 15750
d. 16550

70. Picture frames are repeated at the


rate of _____ per second
a. 25
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50

71. Lack of raster is an indication of no


a. AGC
b. High voltage
c. Video signal
d. Television signal

72. The sound and video signals are


separated at the _____ of the TV
receiver
a. IF stage
b. Video amplifier
c. Video detector
d. Burst separator

73. The presence of color bars is an


indication that there is a problem in
the _____ circuit
a. Horizontal
b. Reactor
c. Burst separator
d. Chroma amplifier

74. Type of emission produced when a


frequency modulated transmitter is
modulated by a TV signal
a. A3F
b. F3F
c. A3C
d. F3C

75. What is emission A3F?


a. RTTY
b. SSB
c. TV
d. Modulated CW

76. What is emission F3F?


a. Facsimile
b. Modulated CW
c. Television
d. RTTY

d. Experimental
77. Cause of slow rising white hum
bars is the television
a. Pad filter
b. Bad rectifier
c. Bad picture tube
d. High voltage transformer

82. What causes snow in television?


a. High Q in the tuned circuit
b. Excessive gain
c. Random noise in the signal
d. Insufficient wave traps

78. Adjusting the _____ may eliminate


color confetti
a. Color chroma amplifier
b. Color killer
c. Color detector
d. Color oscillator

83. Vestigial sideband is known as


_____ type of emission
a. CF3
b. C3F
c. B8E
d. A3E

79. Video signal amplitude determine


the picture quality called
a. Chrominance
b. Brightness
c. Contrast
d. Luminance

84. Vestigial sideband modulation is


commonly used in
a. TV broadcasting
b. Monaural broadcasting
c. Stereo broadcasting
d. HF point-to-point
communications

80. Part of broadcast day from midnight


to local sunrise
a. Daytime
b. Experimental
c. Nighttime
d. Dawntime

81. Part of broadcast day from local


sunset to local sunrise
a. Dawntime
b. Nighttime
c. Daytime

85. Which of the following filters block


FM radio band for TV channels (2 to
13)?
a. High-pass filter
b. Low-pass filter
c. Band pass filter
d. Band-reject filter

86. The FM broadcast band is from


a. 535 to 1600 kHz
b. 30 to 300 kHz

c. 88 to 108 MHz
d. 300 to 2000 MHz

87. The type of emission used by


standard AM radio broadcast
a. A5C
b. A0
c. A3
d. F3

88. The standard AM radio broadcast


belongs to which frequency band?
a. MF
b. HF
c. VHF
d. LF
89. When were UHF channels (14 83)
of television added?
a. 1902
b. 1945
c. 1947
d. 1952
90. When was colored TV standards
established in the United States?
a. 1904
b. 1945
c. 1953
d. 1960

91. What synchronizes the horizontal


line of the TV picture tube?
a. HFC
b. HSC
c. HAFC

d. All of these

92. A measure of how well the receiver


can respond to every weak signals/
a. Selectivity
b. Sensitivity
c. Fidelity
d. Quality factor

93. What is the allowable frequency


deviation of a commercial FM
broadcast band?
a. 15 kHz
b. 75 kHz
c. 5 kHz
d. 100 kHz

94. The final amplifier of either FM or


AM transmitter is operated as
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D

95. Standard AM broadcasting use


_____ for greater and efficient
coverage
a. Circular polarized wave antenna
b. Horizontal polarized wave
antenna
c. Both vertical and horizontal
polarized wave antenna
d. Vertical polarized wave antenna

96. Receiver sensitivity means


a. The frequency allocation of the
system
b. Input impedance of the receiver
c. The ability of picking up weak
signal
d. The power to deliver the
information

97. The main functions of the RF


amplifier in a superheterodyne
receiver is to
a. Provide improved tracking
b. Permit better adjacent-channel
rejection
c. Improve the rejection of the
image frequency
d. All of these

98. Local oscillator of a broadcast


receiver always tunes to a frequency
higher than the incoming frequency
in order
a. To help the image frequency
rejection
b. To allow easy tracking
c. To allow adequate frequency
coverage without switching
d. All of these

99. Type of filter used in TV receivers


that separates the chroma signal from
the colorplexed video signal but
leaves intact the Y-component
a. Comb filter
b. Bandpass filter

c. Color filter
d. Low pass filter

100. What is the first letter-symbol for


emission of unmodulated carrier?
a. A
b. N
c. H
d. F

101. The channel for cable TV


frequency range of 5.75 to 11.75
MHz
a. T-1
b. T-8
c. 2
d. 3

102. The frequency range for cable


TV channel T-13
a. 23.75 29.75 MHz
b. 60 66 MHz
c. 41.75 47.55 MHz
d. 5.75 11.75 MHz
103. Channel 8 frequency range
allocation in cable TV
a. 54 60 MHz
b. 66 72 MHz
c. 180 186 MHz
d. 204 210 MHz

104. The _____ of a television system


is a measure of its ability to delineate
picture detail

a.
b.
c.
d.

Contrast
Resolution
Hue
Pixels

105. CCIR standards for the internal


exchange of programmes on film for
television used
a. Rec 265-6
b. Rec 407-4
c. Rec 408-5
d. Rec 450-1

106. CCIR transmission standards for


FM sound broadcasting at VHF
a. Rec 601.2
b. Rec 501.2
c. Rec 500.4
d. Rec 450.1

107. ISO Rec 23 in 1976 is the


standard for
a. Recorded characteristics for
magnetic sound records on full
cost 16 mm motion picture film
b. Projector usage of 16 mm motion
picture films for direct front
projector
c. Camera usage of 35 mm motion
picture film
d. Camera usage of 16 mm motion
picture film

108. International broadcasting (short


wave) uses frequency between _____

accordance with international


agreements
a. 7012 and 26100 kHz
b. 6409 and 26100 kHz
c. 5950 and 26100 kHz
d. 10950 and 26100 kHz

109. Which of the following station


below is a regional channel?
a. Class I-A
b. Class II-D
c. Class III-B
d. Class IV

110. The permissible power in kW of


station II-A during nighttime is
a. 0.25 50
b. 10 50
c. 1 5
d. None of these

111. The television frequency which


are now allocated to the land mobile
services
a. 806 and 192 MHz
b. 800 and 806 MHz
c. 668 and 674 MHz
d. 776 and 782 MHz

112. Numerical frequency band


designation of channel 9
a. 488 494 MHz
b. 530 536 MHz
c. 632 638 MHz
d. 186 192 MHz

113.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Cable TV systems originate from


Germany
Dallas, Texas
Pennsylvania
Japan

114. A term applied to third and


higher order products, which can
greatly degrade the performance of a
system
a. Composite triple beat
b. Single dual mode
c. Field strength
d. Noise

115. A station similar to a translator


station in terms of equipment and
service area but is permitted to
originate originate programming
from virtually any source
a. DME
b. LPTV
c. HDTV
d. ITFS

116. Three stations are licensed to


eligible educational entities for the
distribution of program material to
students enrolled in instructional
curricula
a. Translator
b. LPTV
c. HDTV
d. ITFS

117. ITFS means


a. International Television
Frequency Standard
b. Instructional Telephone
Frequency Service
c. Instructional Television Fixed
Service
d. International telecommunications
Frequency Standard

118.
a.
b.
c.
d.

MDS means
Multipoint Distribution Service
Multipoint Digital Service
Maritime Data Standards
Multipoint Drop Standards

119. Direct broadcast satellite based


allocation
a. 12.2 12.7 GHz downlink
b. 17.3 17.8 GHz for uplink
c. 3.7 4.2 GHz for downlink
d. 12.2 12.7 GHz for downlink
and 17.3 17.8 GHz for uplink

120. What is the channel number of an


FM station with 88.1 MHz carrier?
a. 201
b. 202
c. 203
d. 204

121. What is the carrier frequency of


an FM station with channel number
of 300?
a. 107.5 MHz
b. 101.1 MHz
c. 107.9 MHz
d. 99.5 MHz
122. If an FM station has an effective
radiated power of 100 kW then it is
under what class?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D

123. The video signal amplitude


determines the quality of the picture
otherwise known as
a. Hue
b. Luminance
c. Chrominance
d. Contrast
124. _____ is defined as to send out
in all direction
a. Broadcast
b. Announce
c. Media
d. All of these

125. The ultimate Dolby surround


system is the
a. Dolby NR
b. Dolby Prologic
c. dBx
d. hall matrix

Microwave Communications

1. __________ is the progressive decrease


of signal strength with increasing
distance.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Radiation
Attenuation
Modulation
Propagation

2. Calculate the effective earths radius if


the surface refractivity is 301.
A.
B.
C.
D.

8493 km
8493 mmi
6370 km
6370 mi

3. If k-factor is greater than 1, the array


beam is bent
A.
B.
C.
D.

Away from the earth


towards the ionosphere,
towards the earth
towards the outer space

4. the antenna separations (in meters)


required for optimum operation of a
space diversity system can be calculated
from:

A.
B.
C.
D.

S = 2R/L
S = 3R/L
S = R/RL
S = R/L

7. What do you call an attenuation that


occurs over many different wavelengths
of the carrier?

where R = effective earth radius (m) and


L = path length (m)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Rayleigh fading
Rician fading
Wavelength fading
Slow fading

5. Rainfall is an important factor for fading


of radio waves at frequencies above

8. Which of the reception problems below


that is not due to multipath?

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

10 GHz
100 GHz
1 GHz
100 MHz

Delayed spreading
Rayleigh fading
Random Doppler shift
Slow fading

6. Theoretically electromagnetic radiation


field strength varies in inverse
proportion to the square of the distance,
but when atmospheric attenuation effects
and the absorption of the terrain are
taken into account the attenuation can be
as high as the inverse _______ power of
the distance.

9. Which causes multipath or frequencyselective fading?

A.
B.
C.
D.

10. In microwave transmission using digital


radio, what causes most intersymbol
interference?

Third
Fourth
Fifth
Sixth

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Small reflector
Nearer reflector
Further reflector
Large reflector

Delayed spreading
Rayleigh fading
Random Doppler shift
Slow fading

C. Direct coax-helix match


D. All of the above
11. A shipboard equipment which measures
the distance between the ships bottom
and the ocean floor.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Fathometer
Echosounder
LORAN
SONAR

15. a high-power microwave pulse of the


order of megawatts can be generated by
a
A.
B.
C.
D.

traveling-wave tube
magnetron
reflex klystron
Gunn diode

12. The cavity resonator


A. Is equivalent to an LC resonant circuit
B. In a reflect klystron has its output taken
from the reflector plate
C. Produces a frequency which is
independent of the cavity size.
D. Has a low Q factor for narrow operation.
13. At what position is the input signal
inserted into a traveling-wave tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.

At the cathode end of the helix


At the collector
At the collector end of the helix
At the control grid of the electron gun

14. Coupling into and out of a travelingwave tube can be accompanied by a


A. Waveguide match
B. Cavity match

D.

To slow down the signal on the helix

18. Which of the following is used as an


oscillator device in the SHF band?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Thyratron tube
Tunnel diode
Klystron tube
Both B and C

19. Microwave frequencies are normally


regarded as those in the range of
16. A traveling-wave tube (TWT) amplifies
by virtue of
A.

The absorption of energy by the


signal from an electron stream
B.
The effect of an external magnetic
field
C.
The energy contained the cavity
resonators
D.
The energy liberated form the
collector

A.
B.
C.
D.

1 to 500 MHz
1000 to 10,000 GHz
1 to 100 GHz
10 to 1000 GHz

20. The highest frequency which a


conventional vacuum-tube oscillator can
generate is not limited by the

17. What is the purpose of the


electromagnetic field which surrounds a
traveling-wave tube?

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.

21. As the electron beam moves through a


klystrons intercavity drift space

To accelerate the electron


To velocity modulate the electron
beam
C.
To keep the electrons from spreading
out

Electron transit time


Distributed lead inductance
Inter-electrode capacitance
Degree of emission from the cathode

A.

Frequency modulation at the input


cavity creates velocity modulation at the
output cavity
B.
Velocity modulation at the input
cavity creates density modulation at the
output cavity
C.
Density modulation at the input
cavity creates velocity modulation at the
output cavity
D.
Phase modulation at the input cavity
creates velocity modulation at the output
cavity.

24. The Gunn diode oscillator

22. The frequency of the oscillation


generated by a magnetron, is mainly
determined by

25. What ferrite device can be used instead


of duplexer of isolate microwave
transmitter and receiver when both are
connected to the same antenna?

The flux density of the external


magnet
B.
The ratio of the dc cathode voltage to
the magnetic flux density
C.
The number of the cavity resonators
D.
The dimension of each cavity
resonator

Is capable of generating continuous


microwave power of the order of
kilowatt
B.
Generates frequencies which are
below 100 MHz
C.
Operates over a positive resistance
characteristic
D.
Depends on the formation of charge
domain

A.

A.

23. If the instantaneous RF potentials on the


two sides of a magnetron cavity are of
opposite polarity, the operation is in the
A.
B.
C.
D.

mode
/2 mode
2 mode
/4 mode

27. When used in conjunction with a radar


set, the purpose of an echo box is to
provide an artificial target.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Isolator
Magnetron
Simplex
Circulator

A.

Which may be used to tune the radar


synchronizer
B.
Which may be used to tune the radar
receiver
C.
To the tone of the pulse repetition
D.
Tune the magnetron to the correct
frequency
28. In a radar-set receiver, the usual mixer
stage is
A.
B.
C.
D.

And FET
A tunnel diode
A silicon crystal
A Rochelle salts crystal

29. Klystron oscillators are most often used


in the frequency range of
26. To achieve good bearing resolution
when using a pulsed-radar set, an
important requirement is
A.

A narrow, antenna-beam width in the


vertical plane
B.
A narrow, antenna-beam width in the
horizontal plane
C.
A low repetition rate
D.
A high duty cycle

A.
B.
C.
D.

300 to 3000 MHz


3000 to 30000 MHz
30 to 30000 MHz
10 to 10000 MHz

30. Oscillators of a klystron tube are


maintained
A.

By bunches of electrons passing the


cavity grids

B.
C.

By plate-to-cathode feedback
By feedback between the
accelerating grid and the repeller
D.
By circulating bunches of electrons
within the cavities.
31. What allow microwave to pass in only
one direction?
A.
B.
C.
D.

RF emitter
Capacitor
Varactor-triac
Ferrite emitter

32. In an SHF pulsed radar set, a reflex


klystron can be used as a
A.
B.
C.
D.

Single mixer stage


Local oscillator
Transmitter oscillator
Duplexer stage

33. A Class-S Emergency PositionIndicating Radio Beacon (E.P.I.R.B)


A.

Must be capable of floating or being


secured to a survival
B.
Must have its battery replaced after
emergency use
C.
May be tested during the first five
minutes of any hour
D.
All of these

34. A PPI cathode-ray tube as used on a


radar set
A.

Is used to check the percentage of


modulation
B.
Indicates both the range and azimuth
of a target
C.
Indicates only the range of a target
D.
Is used for receiver alignment
35. The resonant frequency of a cavity
resonator depends upon
A.
B.
C.
D.

The mode of operation


Its electrical dimensions
Its physical dimensions
The capacitor which tunes it

36. The maximum usable range of the usual


radar set (on any particular range setting)
is determined by
A.
B.

The width of the transmitted pulses


The interval between transmitted
pulses
C.
The bandwidth of the receiver IF
stages
D.
The duty cycle
37. A reflex klystron is oscillating at the
frequency of its resonant cavity. If the
reflector voltage is made slightly less
negative, the

A.
B.
C.
D.

Oscillation will cease


Output power would increase
The frequency will decrease
Bunching would occur earlier in time

38. The coarse frequency adjustment of a


reflex klystron is accomplished by
A.
B.

The AFC system


Adjusting the flexible wall of the
resonant cavity
C.
An adjustment in the synchronizer
D.
Varying the repeller voltage
39. In a pulsed radar set, the STC circuit is
used to
A.
B.

Improve the target bearing resolution


Increases receiver sensitivity for
echoes from targets
C.
Vary the pulse frequency in order to
control the maximum target
D.
Reduce interference from the effects
of sea return
40. In a pulsed radar set, the function of the
duplexer is to
A.
B.

Aid in calibrating the display unit


Prevent frequency drift in the
klystron

C.

Allow the transmitter and the


receiver to operate from a common
antenna
D.
All of these
41. A magnetron is operated at a duty cycle
of 0.001. It has a peak power output of
100 kilowatts. Its average power is
A.
B.
C.
D.

10,000 watts
100 watts
1,000 watts
1,000,000 watts

D.

Must be doubled

44. The main frequency determining


element of a klystron is
A.
B.
C.
D.

The repeller voltage


The accelerating voltage
Its resonant cavity
Its mode of operation

45. A thin layer of dirt and grime coverts the


reflecting surface of the parabolic dish of
a radar set. The particular effect on the
performance of the radar will be

42. The aquadag coating on the inside of PPI


tube is used
A.

To focus the beam of primary


electrons
B.
To shield the electron beam from
unidirectional magnetic
C.
As a second anode and to prevent the
build-up of secondary field
D.
All of these
43. If the duration of the radar transmitted
pulse, on a particular range of operation,
is increased, the required bandwidth of
the receivers IF amplifiers
A.
B.
C.

Must remain as before


Must be increased
May be decreased

A.
B.
C.
D.

A decrease in range
A reduction in horizontal resolution
No noticeable effect
A decrease in gain

A.
B.

Lowering the pulse frequency


Raising the peak power of the
transmitter
C.
Narrowing the beam width and
increasing the pulse duration
D.
All of these
48. When it is desired that short-range
targets be clearly seen on a pulsed-radar
set, it is important that the receiver and
display system have
A.
B.
C.
D.

A long time constant


Low-pass filters
The shortest possible time
The restricted high-frequency
response

49. Which of the following is used as a high


power microwave oscillator?
46. Which of the following permits a
microwave signal to travel in one
direction with virtually no loss, but
severely attenuates any signal attempting
to travel in the reverse direction?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Isolator
Wave trap
Tunnel diode
Circulator

47. It is possible to increase the maximum


range of a radar equipment by

A.
B.
C.
D.

Thyratron
Magnetron
Klystron
Reflex-klystron

50. Which of the following operating


frequencies is used for the modern loran
navigational system?
A.
B.

Loran C: 100 kHz


Loran D: 10.2 kHz

C.
D.

Loran A: 1950 kHz


Loran B: 900 kHz

51. Which ferrite device can be used instead


of a duplexer to isolate a microwave
transmitter and receiver when both are
connected to the same antenna?

A.
54. The intensity of the echoes (target
definition) on a PPI display is
determined by the
A.
B.

Radio frequency
Pulse frequency and antenna rotation
rate

A.
B.
C.
D.

Isolator
Magnetron
Simplex
Circulator

52. The pulse frequency is equal to


A.
B.

Duty cycle/pulse width


The reciprocal of the pulse repetition
rate

C.

Pulse width x peak power/average


power
D.
All of these
53. In a radar set, a blocking oscillator can
be used to
A.

Act as the local oscillator converter


stage
B.
Provide the sweep voltage for the
PPI tube
C.
Produce a trigger pulse for the
transmitter
D.
As a single local oscillator converter
stage

C.
D.

Frequency of the range-marker


oscillator
B.
Reciprocal of the duty cycle
C.
Number of target echoes received on
one second
D.
Frequencies of the duty cycle
58. The radar set, sensitivity-time control
circuit

Duty cycle
Average power
A.

55. A duplexer circuit allows a transmitter


and a receiver to operate from the same
antenna with virtually no interaction.
This circuit may be replaced by a (an)
A.
B.
C.
D.

loss waveguide
circulator
isolator
gyrator

56. Which of the following frequencies are


used by a class-C Emergency PositionIndicating Radio Beacon (E.P.I.R.B)?
A.
B.
C.
D.

156.65 MHz
121.5 MHz
156.76 MHz and 156.8 MHz
All of these

57. The repetition rate of a pulsed radar


system indicates the

Controls the width of the magnetron


pulse
B.
Is used to increase sea return
C.
Can reduce sea-return response
D.
Discriminates between targets that
are very close together.
59. Which of the following is the ferrite
device that buffers a microwave source
from the effects of a varying load, and
thereby prevents the formation of
standing waves?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Circulator
Duplexer
Isolator
Diplexer

60. Pulsed radar sets are primarily used to


find the
A.
B.

Targets range and bearing


Size and speed of a target

C.
D.

Speed and course of a target


Targets range of speed

64. The display on the PPI scope of a radar


set will have greater intensity under the
following conditions

D.

100 MHz

68. The main benefit of using microwaves is


61. Which of the following factors is mainly
concerned in the design of an antenna
system for pulsed radar set?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Duty cycle
Radio frequency
Pulse frequency
Pulse length

62. In a radar set receivers, an ac AFC


system may be used to
A.

Automatically maintain the correct


magnetron frequency
B.
Keep the IF stages on frequency
C.
Maintain the desired klystron
frequency
D.
Provide automatic control of receiver
gain

A.
B.
C.
D.

Higher antenna rotation speeds


Lower pulse repetition rate
Lower antenna rotation speeds
Both lower antenna rotation speeds
and higher pulse repetition

A.
B.
C.
D.

Lower-cost equipment
Simpler equipment
Greater transmission distances
More spectrum space for signals

65. The operating frequency of loran C lies


within the

69. Radio communication are regulated in


the Philippines by the

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

LF band
VLF band
MF band
HF band

66. The PPI tubes have an aquadag coating


on the inside of the tube. The purpose of
this coating is

70. Which of the following is not a


disadvantage of microwaves?
A.
B.
C.

Higher-cost equipment
Line-of-sight transmission
Conventional components are not
usable
D.
Circuits are more difficult to analyze

63. The input signal is introduced into the


traveling-wave tube at the

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

67. A traveling-wave tube Is used at


frequencies in the order of

71. Which of the following is a microwave


frequency?

A.
B.
C.

A.
B.
C.

Cathode
Anode
Cathode end of the helix
Collector end of the helix

To act as the second anode


To shield the tube magnetically
To decelerate the electron beam
To deflect the electron beam

DOTC
KBP
NTC
Department of Defense

30 MHz
300 MHz
8000 MHz

1.7 MHz
750 MHz
0.98 GHz

D.

22 GHz

72. Which of the following is not a common


microwave application?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Radar
Mobile radio
Telephone
Satellite communications

73. Coaxial cable is not widely used for long


microwave transmission lines because of
its
A.
B.
C.
D.

High loss
High cost
Large size
Excessive radiation

74. Stripline and microstrip transmission


lines are usually made with
A.
B.
C.
D.

Coax
Parallel wires
Twisted pair
PCBs

C.
D.

Triangle
Rectangle

76. A rectangular waveguide has a width of


1 inch and a height of 0.6 in. Its cutoff
frequency is
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.54 GHz
3.0 GHz
5.9 GHz
11.8 GHz

77. A waveguide has a cutoff frequency of


17 GHz. Which of the following signals
will not be passed by the waveguide?
A.
15 GHz
B.
18 GHz
C.
22 GHz
D.
255 GHz
78. Signal propagation in a waveguide is by
A.
B.
C.
D.

Electrons
Holes
Electric and magnetic fields
Air pressure

75. The most common cross section of a


waveguide is a

79. When the electric field in a waveguide is


perpendicular to the direction of wave
propagation, the mode is said to be

A.
B.

A.
B.

Square
Circle

Vertical polarization
Horizontal polarization

C.
D.

Transverse electric
Transverse magnetic

80. The dominant mode in most rectangular


waveguide is
A.
B.
C.
D.

TE 1.0
TE 1.2
TM 0.1
TM 1.1

81. A magnetic field is introduced into


waveguide by a
A.
B.
C.
D.

Probe
Dipole
Stripline
Capacitor

82. A half-wavelength, close section of a


waveguide that acts as a parallel
resonant circuit is known as a(n)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Half-wave section
Cavity resonator
LCR circuit
Directional coupler

83. Decreasing the volume of a cavity


causes its resonant frequency to
A.

Increase

B.
C.
D.

Decrease
Remain the same
Drop to zero

84. __________ is a popular microwave


mixer diode.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Gunn
Varactor
Hot carrier
IMPATT

85. Varactor and step-recovery diodes are


widely used in what type of circuit?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Amplifier
Oscillator
Frequency multiplier
Mixer

86. Which diode is a popular microwave


oscillator?
A.
B.
C.
D.

IMPATT
Gunn
Varactor
Schottky

B.
C.
D.

IMPATT
Snap-off
Tunnel

C.
D.

Mixer
Frequency multiplier

88. Low-power Gunn diodes are replacing

92. For proper operation, a magnetron must


be accompanied by a

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Reflex klystrons
TWTs
Magnetrons
Varactor diodes

Cavity resonator
Strong electric field
Permanent magnet
High dc voltage

89. Which of the following is not a


microwave tube?

93. The operating frequency of klystrons


and magnetrons is set by the

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Traveling-wave tube
Cathode-ray tube
Klystron
Magnetron

90. In a klystron amplifier, velocity


modulation of the electron beam is
produced by the
A.
B.
C.
D.

Collector
Catcher cavity
Cathode
Buncher cavity

Cavity resonators
DC supply voltage
Input signal frequency
Number of cavities

94. A magnetron is used only as a/an


A.
B.
C.
D.

Amplifier
Oscillator
Mixer
Frequency multiplier

95. A common application for magnetron is


in
87. Which type of diodes does not ordinarily
operate with reverse bias?
A.

Varactor

91. A reflex klystron is used as a(n)


A.
B.

Amplifier
Oscillator

A.
B.
C.

Radar
Satellites
Two-way radio

D.

TV sets

96. In a TWT, the electron beam is densitymodulated by a


A.
B.
C.
D.

Permanent magnet
Modulation transformer
Helix
Cavity resonator

D.

Horn

100.
______________ is a measure of
reliability expressed as the average
number of hours between successive
failures.
A.
B.
C.
D.

MTBF
MTTR
Downtime
Outage time

97. The main advantage of a TWT over a


klystron for microwave amplification is
A.
B.
C.
D.

Lower cost
Smaller size
Higher power
Wider bandwidth

98. High-power TWTs are replacing what in


microwave amplifiers?
A.
B.
C.
D.

MESFETs
Magnetrons
Klystrons
IMPATT diodes

101.
The free space attenuation
between two microwave antennas 40 km
apart operating at 8 GHz is
A.
B.
C.
D.

146.7 dB
142.55 dB
82.5 dB
86.7 dB

102.
An active microwave radio
repeater that can provide drops and
inserts.

99. The most widely used microwave


antenna

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.

103.
If the correction factor k equals
4/3 of the earths curvature, the
microwave beam would have a curvature

Half-wave dipole
Parabolic
Hyperbolic

Broadband repeater
Baseband repeater
IF repeater
RF repeater

that is ___________ than that of the


earth.
A.
B.
C.
D.

More
Less
Equal
Not related

104.
The optimum clearance from an
obstacle in an microwave system is
accepted as __________ of the first
fresnel zone radius.
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.6
0.5
0.9
1.5

105.
The microwave beam curves the
same than that of the earth when the
value of the correction factor k equals
A.
B.
C.
D.

0
4/3
2/3
Infinity

106.
The time from the transmission
of a radar pulse to its reception is 0.12
ms. The distance to the target is how
many nautical miles?
A.

4.85 nmi

B.
C.
D.

9.7 nmi
11.2 nmi
18.4 nmi

107.
The ability of a radar to
determine the bearing to a target depends
upon the
A.
B.
C.
D.

Antenna directivity
Speed of light
Speed of the target
Frequency of the signal

108.
The pulse duration of a radar
signal is 699ns. The PRF is 185 pulses
per second. The duty cycle is
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.216 %
0.130 %
0.013 %
0.407 %

109.
The Doppler effect allows which
characteristics of a target to be
measured?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Distance
Azimuth
Altitude
Speed

110.
The Doppler effect is a change in
what signal characteristics produced by

relative motion between the radar set and


a target?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Amplitude
Phase
Frequency
Duty cycle

111.
The most widely used radar
transmitter component is a
A.
B.
C.
D.

Klystron
Magnetron
TWT
Power transistor

114.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Most radar antennas use a


Dipole
Broadside array
Horn and parabolic reflector
Collinear array

115.
The most common radar display
is the
A.
B.
C.
D.

A scan
Color CRT
LCD
PPI

112.
Low-power radar transmitters
and receivers use which component?

116.
A radar antenna using multiple
diploes or slot antennas in a matrix with
variable phase shifters is called a/an

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

GaAs FET
Magnetron
Gunn diode
Klystron

113.
What component in a duplexer
protects the receiver from the higher
transmitter output?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Waveguide
Bandpass filter
Notch filter
Spark gap

A scan
Phased array
Broadside
Circulator polarized array

117.
Which of the following is a
typical radar operating frequency?
A.
B.
C.
D.

60 MHz
450 MHz
900 MHz
10 GHz

118.
A microwave system requires the
use of repeaters when
A.
B.
C.
D.

The intervening terrain is favorable


The distances involve are grater
The required reliability is meet
The radio fading is unacceptable

122.
A.
B.
C.
D.

A waveguide is also a
Low pass filter
High pass filter
Band pass filter
Band stop filter

119.
Are transmission lines which
convey electromagnetic waves in highest
frequencies

123.
A method of diversity reception
where the signal is transmitted on two
difference frequencies over the same
path

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Twister pair of telephone wires


Waveguides
Power lines
Coaxial cables

Space diversity
Frequency diversity
Polarization diversity
Wavelength diversity

120.
A microwave band of 10.9 to 36.
GHz is considered as

124.
A wire used to reduce the skin
effect

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

C-band
X-band
Q-band
K-band

121.
A microwave communications
system space loss calculation formula.
A.
B.
C.
D.

94.2 + 20 log f + 20 log d


92.4 + 20 log f + 20 log d
94.2 + 10 log f + 20 log d
92.3 + 10 log f + 20 log d

AWG # 14
AWG # 15
Copper wire
Litz wire

C.

Antennas operating on the same


frequencies
D.
Identical frequencies
126.
The best system configuration to
overcome multipath fading of
microwave system over the water
A.
B.
C.
D.

Space diversity
Frequency diversity
Polarization diversity
Wavelength diversity

127.
When the value of k increases,
the effective result is _______ of the
equivalent curvature
A.
B.
C.
D.
128.

Flattening
Bulging
Sharp curvature
All of these
A traveling wave tube consists of

125.
Space diversity transmission
means transmitting and receiving on two
or more.

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.

129.
Advantage of periscope antenna
in microwave

Different frequencies
Antennas operating on two different
frequencies

Electron gun, helix and repeller


Electron gun, helix and collector
Electron gun, repeller and collector
Buncher cavity and catcher cavity

A.
B.

Reduce tower height


Minimize interference to and from
other neighboring stations
C.
Shorten waveguide length
D.
Easy to install

B.

Depends only on the waveguide


dimensions and the free-space
wavelength
C.
Inversely proportional to the phase
velocity
D.
Inversely proportional to the group
velocity

130.
What is the cut-off frequency of
a waveguide?
A.

The highest frequency the waveguide


operates
B.
The lowest frequency the waveguide
operates
C.
The same as the operating frequency
D.
The only frequency the waveguide
operates.
131.
When the clearance above the
obstruction is equal to the radii of even
fresnel zones at the point of reflection.
The RSL is
A.
B.
C.
D.

Increased
Decreased
Constant
Above threshold

133.
The CCIR hypothetical reference
circuit covering a distance of 25000 km
consists of a total of how many hops?
A.
B.
C.
D.

5
10
24
54

134.
Water causes more attenuation
particularly on what frequency?
A.
B.
C.
D.

20 GHz
63 GHz
183 GHz
202 GHz

135.
At what frequency does oxygen
cause excessive attenuation?

136.
Which of the following is an
atmospheric attenuation?
A.

Attenuation due to water vapor and


oxygen
B.
Attenuation due to mist and fog
C.
Attenuation due to other gases
D.
Attenuation due to rain.
137.
A microwave system operating at
the 6 GHz band is carrying 600 voice
channels. What is the noise loading
power in dBmO?
A.
B.
C.
D.

12.78
26.78
27.78
10.25

138.
_________ is a microwave link
between the down-town terminal and
another out of town terminal.
A.
B.
C.
D.

STL
Uplink
Downlink
Terrestrial

132.
What is the wavelength of a
wave in a waveguide?
A.

Greater than in free space

A.
B.
C.
D.

60 GHz
50 GHz
40 GHz
30 GHz

139.
Attenuator is used in the
traveling wave tube to
A.
B.

Prevent oscillation
Increase gain

C.
D.

Prevent saturation
All of these

140.
Is a method of diversity reception
applied to reflective path to reduce
fading.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Frequency diversity
Space diversity
Polarization diversity
Wavelength diversity

141.
What is the effective earths
radius used in communications design?
A.
B.
C.
D.

4000 miles
K x 4000 miles
5000 miles
K x 5280 miles

142.
IF bandwidth of a radar system is
inversely proportional to
A.
B.
C.
D.
143.
A.

Pulse width
Pulse interval
Peak transmit power
All of these
EADI stands for
Electronic Air Data Indicator

B.

Electronic Altitude and Distance


Indicator
C.
Electronic Altitude and Director
Indicator
D.
Electronic Air and Distance Indicator
144.
Which aircraft navigational
system determines the time to station
(TTS) or time to go (TTG)?
A.
B.
C.
D.

ADF
DME
Timer
ATC

145.
What frequency does a radio
altimeter operate?
A.
B.
C.
D.

33500 kHz
43000 kHz
33500 MHz
43500 MHz

146.
What inflight system allows
passengers to make telephone calls, send
faxes, and computer data shop and play
computer games, etc.?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Inflight Satellite System


Terrestrial Flight Telephone System
World Airline Entertainment System
Satellite Phone

147.
A.
B.
C.
D.

ADF stands for


Audio Direction Findings
Automatic Direction Finder
Alternate Direction Finder
Automatic Distance Finder

148.
RF carrier of the middle marker
is modulated at ____ Hz.
A.
B.
C.
D.

1300
1400
1500
1600

149.
Which of the following is
considered as the major advantage of
using a helix traveling wave tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.
150.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Cheaper
Less noise
High power
Wide bandwidth
RADAR stands for
Radio Distance and Ranging
Radio Detection and Ranging
Radio Direction and Ranging
Radio Distance and Range

Acoustics
1. An instrument designed to measure a
frequency-weighted value of the sound
pressure level.
a. Sound-level meter
b. Transducer
c. Sound pressure meter
d. Sound analyzer

2. A unit of noisiness related to the


perceived noise level
a. Noy
b. Sone
c. dB
d. phone
3. An agreed set of empirical curves
relating octave-band osund pressure
level to the center frequency of the
octave bands
a. C-message weighting curves
b. Psophometric weighting curves
c. Noise rating curves
d. F1A weighting curves
4. The frequency of free vibration
a. Resonant frequency
b. Natural frequency
c. Center frequency
d. Normal frequency
5. The transmission of sound from one
room to an adjacent room, via common
walls, floors or ceilings.
a. Flanking transmission
b. Refraction
c. Reflection
d. Reverberation
6. A measure of threshold hearing,
expressed in decibels relative to a
specifoed standard of normal hearing.
a. Hearing loss
b. Sensation level
c. Hearing level
d. Sound pressure level

7. A certain machine with a slightly out-ofbalance motor rotating at 1800/min is


fixed on a perfectly elastic mount with a
static compression of 2.50 mm.
Calculate the resonant frequency of
mount.
a. 10 Hz
b. 20 Hz
c. 30 Hz
d. 40 Hz

8. Calculate the lowest resonant frequency


for a brick partition 120 mm thick, 4m
by 2min area with longitudinal wave
velocity of 2350 m/s. (Assume that it is
supported at its edges.)
a. 10 Hz
b. 20 Hz
c. 30 Hz
d. 40 Hz
9. Velocity of sound in air.
a. 300 m/s
b. 330 m/s
c. 1130 m/s
d. 344 m/s
10. What is the expected critical frequency
for a 120 mm thick brick wall? Assume
a longitudinal wave velocity in brick of
2350 m/s and that the velocity of sound
in air is 330 m/s.
a. 114.5 Hz
b. 214.5 Hz
c. 314.5 Hz
d. 414.5 Hz
11. The sound power level of a certain jet
plane flying at a height of 1km is 160 dB
(re10-12W). Find the maximum sound
pressure level on the ground directly
below the flight path assuming that the
aircraft radiates sound equally in all
directions.
a. 59.1 dB
b. 69.1 dB

c. 79.1 dB
d. 89.1 dB
12. Speaker is a device that
a. Converts sound waves into current
and voltage
b. Converts current variations into
sound waves
c. Converts elctrical energy to
mechanical energy
d. Converts elctrical energy to
electromagnetic energy
13. Which type of microphone operates on
the principle that the electrical resistance
of carbon granules varies as the pressure
on the granules vary?
a. Dynamic
b. Crystal
c. Carbon
d. Ribbon-type
14. Bass response is
a. Maximum highfrequency response
b. Emphasizing the high audio
frequency
c. Bypassing high audio frequencies
d. Bypassing low audio frequencies
15. Pure tone of sound used as standard on
testing
a. 1 Hz
b. 10 Hz
c. 100 Hz
d. 1000 Hz
16. ___________ is early reflection of
sound.
a. Echo

b. Reverberation
c. Pure sound
d. Intelligible sound
17. Noise reduction system used for film
sound in movie.
a. Dolby
b. dBa
c. dBx
d. dBk
18. What is the sound energy per unit area at
right angles to the propagation direction
per unit time?
a. Loudness
b. Coherence
c. Sound pressure
d. Sound intensity
19. ________ is the unit of loudness level of
a sound.
a. Sone
b. Decibel
c. Mel
d. Phon
20. ____________ is the average rate of
transmission of sound energy in a given
direction through a cross-section area of
1 sqm at right angles to the direction.
a. Sound pressure
b. Loudness
c. Sound intensity
d. Pressure variation
21. What is the unit of pitch?
a. Sone
b. Phon
c. Decibel

d. Mel
22. A measure of the intensity of sound in
comparison to another sound intensity.
a. Phon
b. Decibel
c. Pascal
d. Watts
23. Sound wave has two main characteristics
which are
a. Highness and loudness
b. Tone and loudness
c. Pitch and loudness
d. Rarefraction and compression
24. Which type of microphone operated by
electromagnetic induction that generates
an output signal voltage?
a. Carbon
b. Dynamic
c. Crystal
d. Condenser
25. The exciter lamp in the optical sound
part of a film projector draws 5 A at 10
V. How much power in watts is this light
consuming?
a. 10 watts
b. 20 watts
c. 40 watts
d. 50 watts
26. Assume the speed of sound is 1,130 ft/s.
What frequency has a wavelength of 1
foot, 1.5 inches?
a. 500 Hz
b. 1000 Hz
c. 1500 Hz

d. 2000 Hz
27. The wire must bring 100 average watts
to a 4 ohms loudspeaker must safely
carry what rms current?
a. 2 A
b. 4 A
c. 5 A
d. 6 A
28. A church has an internalvolume of 90.05
ft3 (2550 m3). When it contains
customary sabine sof absorption (186
metric sabines), what will be its
reverberation time in seconds.
a. 2.0
b. 2.2
c. 2.5
d. 3.0
29. If the RMs sound pressure is 5lb/ft2,
what is the sound presure level?
a. 7.6 dB
b. 108 dB
c. 88 dB
d. 10 dB
30. Speed that is faster than speed of sound.
a. Ultrasonic
b. Supersonic
c. Subsonic
d. Transonic
31. Sound waves travel faster in water at a
______ speed.
a. 12.4 miles/sec
b. 5000 ft/sec
c. 186,000 ft/sec
d. 3141 ft/sec

32. What is the sound power from a motor


car whose SPL at a distance of 7.5 m is
87 dB assuming that it radiates sound
unifomly?
a. 0.15 W
b. 0.21 W
c. 0.24 W
d. 0.18 W
33. Crest-to-crest distance along the
direction to wave travel.
a. Compression
b. Wavelength
c. Period
d. Sound wave
34. Sound intensity level is _________.
a. 10 log I/Iref
b. 10 log P/Pref
c. 20 log I/Iref
d. 30 log P/Pref
35. Sound pressure level is _________.
a. 20 log P/ Pref
b. 30 log P/ Pref
c. 10 log P/ Pref
d. 20 log I/Iref
36. The most important specification of
loudspeakers and microphones.
a. Frequency response
b. Field strength
c. Power density
d. Gain
37. Lowest fequency produced by a musical
instrument.
a. Midrange
b. Harmonic

c. Reflection
d. Refraction
38. Tendency of a sound energy to spread.
a. Diffraction
b. Rarefraction
c. Reflection
d. Refraction
39. Whenwaves bend away from straight
lines of travel, it is called _________.
a. Reflection
b. Diffraction
c. Rarefraction
d. Refraction
40. Required time for any sound to decay to
60 dB.
a. Echo time
b. Delay time
c. Reverberation time
d. Transient time
41. The intensity needed to produce an
audible sound varies with __________.
a. Frequency
b. Noise
c. Amplitude
d. Tone
42. Sound that vibrates too high for the
human ear to hear (over 20 kHz).
a. Subsonic
b. Transonic
c. Ultrasonic
d. Stereo
43. Which microphone will be damaged if
exposed to high temperature above
52C?

a. Dynamic
b. Crystal
c. Ribbon
d. Capacitor
44. A thin springy sheet of bakelite or metal
that permits the voice coil in a dynamic
loudspeaker to move back and forth
salong the core of its magnet.
a. Vibrator
b. Diaphragm
c. Hypex
d. Spider
45. One hundred twenty bars of pressure
variation is equal to
a. 120 dB SPL
b. 57.78 dB SPL
c. 115.56 dB SPL
d. 41.58 dB SPL
46. The reverberation time of a 184.2 cubic
meters broadcast studio is 0.84 sec. Find
the absorption effect of the materials
used in metric sabines.
a. 35.3
b. 10.96
c. 379.8
d. 109.6
47. What is the microphone characteristic
that results in a boost in bassfrequencies
for close microphone spacing?
a. Field effect
b. P.A. effect
c. Proximity effect
d. Reverberation
48. What is the audio frequency range?

a. 20 kHz to 20 MHz
b. 0 Hz to 20 kHz
c. 300 Hz to 400 Hz
d. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
49. What is the bass frequency range?
a. 2500 Hz to 5000 Hz
b. 5000 Hz to 10 kHz
c. 40 kHz to 160 kHz
d. 10 Hz to 20 kHz
50. High frequency range of audio signals.
a. 2500 Hz to 5000 Hz
b. 5000 Hz to 10 kHz
c. 10 kHz to 20 kHz
d. 20000 Hz to 30 kHz
51. What is the dB SPL of a voice paging in
an office?
a. 90
b. 65
c. 55-60
d. 80-85
52. What is the dB SPL of an auditorium
with contemporary music?
a. 80-95
b. 85-90
c. 95-100
d. 100-105
53. What is the church dB SPL with speech
reinforcement only?
a. 90
b. 80-85
c. 85-90
d. 90-95
54. Intensity can also be called as
a. Volume

b. Loudness
c. Sharpness
d. Strength
55. Tje loudness of a sound depends upon
the energy of motion imparted to
________ molecules of the medium
transmitting the sound.
a. Transmitting
b. Running
c. Moving
d. Vibrating
56. _________ is affected by the distance
between the listener and the source of
the sound and its intensityvaries
inversely with the square of its distance.
a. Volume
b. Bass
c. Treble
d. Loudness
57. If the distance between the listener and
the source of the sound is doubled, the
intensity is reduced to
a.
b. 1/3
c. 2/3
d. 1/4
58. If the distance between the listener and
the source of the sound is decreased to
tye original amount, the intensity of the
sound would be
a. 2 times as great
b. 3 times as great
c. 4 times as great
d. 5 times as great

59. At a sensation level of 40 dB, 1000 Hz


tone is
a. 1000 mels
b. 500 mels
c. 2000 mels
d. 100 mels
60. If the sound waves are converted to
electrical waves by a microphone, what
is the frequency of the electric current?
a. 3 - 30 MHz
b. 25 8000 Hz
c. 4 40 Hz
d. 30 3000 Hz
61. For a music lover concert A is 440 Hz.
If a musical note one octave higher were
played, it would be _______ that
frequency.
a. One half
b. One-fourth
c. Double
d. Triple
62. In a 220 Hz, if a note was played one
octave lower, it would be ______.
a. 22 Hz
b. 27.5 Hz
c. 440 Hz
d. 110 Hz
63. Much of music is generally reffered to in
a. Harmonics
b. Good hearing
c. Fidelity
d. Octaves

64. _________ is an undesired change in


wave form as the signal passes through a
device.
a. Noise
b. Vibration
c. Distortion
d. Harmonics
65. Distortion enhances intelligibly when an
________ is added.
a. Equalizer
b. Igniter
c. Exciter
d. Emulsifier
66. A class of signal processors.
a. Amplifiers
b. Equalizers
c. Microprocessors
d. Exciters
67. Half construction and internal finishes
affect the final sound quality ________.
a. poorly
b. mildly
c. significantly
d. badly
68. Positioning a loudspeaker near a wall
can dramatically alter its frequency
response in two distinct ways namely;
a. Gump and dump
b. Hump and notch
c. Fade and gone
d. Bad and worst
69. The acoustics of most auditoria are very
________ when the room is full
compared to the empty condition.

a. Different
b. Similar
c. Good
d. Bad
70. A _________ converts acoustical
energy.
a. Electro-acoustic
b. Microphone transducer
c. Microphone
d. Electric Microphone
71. All microphone have two basic
components namely, ___________.
a. Wired and body
b. Ceramic and crystal
c. Diaphragm and generating element
d. Coil and magnet
72. The kinds of generating elements are
__________.
a. Expense and fidelity
b. Complexity and ruggedness
c. Longevity
d. All of these
73. When the average absorption is greater
than 0.2, __________ formula is used to
compute the actual reverberation time.
a. Sabine
b. Stephen and Bate
c. Norris-Eyring
d. Notch
74. At room temperature, what is the
velocity of sound in meters/seconds?
a. 348.03 cm/s
b. 980 cm/s
c. 980 m/s

d. 341.8 m/s
75. Calculate the velocity of sound in ft./sec.
if the temperature is 1490C?
a. 1530.03 ft/sec
b. 1320 ft/sec
c. 1357.03 ft/sec
d. 1920.345 ft/sec
76. The wavelength of a sound of 20 kHz
frequency is
a. 16.5 m
b. 16.5 cm
c. 16.5 mm
d. 16.5 um
77. The radio of frequencies is termed
a. Octave
b. Interval
c. Harmonics
d. Masking
78. What is the increase in sound pressure
level in dB, if the pressure is doubled?
a. 2 dB
b. 3 dB
c. 6 dB
d. 4 dB
79. A term which is subjected but dependent
mainly on frequency and also affected
by intensity,
a. Timbre
b. Quality
c. Frequency
d. Pitch
80. An effect that occurs in the ear where a
louder sound can reduce or even stop the

nerve voltage generated by a weaker


sound.
a. Piezoelectric effect
b. Skin effect
c. Lasing
d. Masking
81. For computation of ideal reverberation
time, which formula is applicable?
a. Sabine
b. Stephen and Bate
c. Norris-Eyring
d. Notch
82. The __________ of the sound is a
subjective effect which is a function of
the ear and brain.
a. Pitch
b. Frequency
c. Timbre
d. Loudness
83. Define as the time taken from the
intensity of sound energy in the room to
drop to one millionth of its initial value.
a. Reverberation time
b. Transit time
c. Decaying time
d. Response time
84. __________ is the sound energy per unit
area at right angles of the propagation
direction, per unit time.
a. Loudness
b. Coherence
c. Sound stress
d. Sound intensity
85. One octave above 600 Hz is

a. 601 Hz
b. 800 Hz
c. 1400 Hz
d. 1200 Hz
86. A car horn outdoors produces a sound
intensity level of 90 dB at 10 m away. At
this distance, what is the sound power in
watt?
a. 0.63
b. 1.26
c. 0.315
d. 0.56 x 10-6
87. The unit of loudness level
a. Sone
b. dB
c. Mel
d. Phon
88. Consist of a rapid succession of
noticeable echoes.
a. Rarefaction
b. Refraction
c. Reflection
d. Flutter echo
89. Laid the foundations of acoustic theory
of buildings.
a. Charles H. Townes
b. W.C Sabine
c. A. Javin
d. Stephen and Bate
90. An aural sensation by pressure variations
in the air which are always produced by
some source of vibrations.
a. Music
b. Sound

c. Disturbance
d. Speech
91. Considered to be the threshold of
hearing.
a. 10-12 W/cm2
b. 10-16 W/m2
c. 10-13 W/m2
d. 10-12 W/m2
92. The average absorption for a person is
a. 5.7 units
b. 4.7 units
c. 6.7 units
d. 3.7 units
93. The number of vibration or pressure
fluctuations per seconds.
a. Frequency
b. Timbre
c. Quality
d. Pitch
94. Defined as the average rate of
transmission of sound energy in a given
direction through a cross-sectional area
of 1 m2 at right angles to the direction.
a. Sound pressure
b. Loudness
c. Sound intensity
d. Pressure variation
95. What is the sound pressure level (SPL)
of a sound having a RMS pressure of
200 N/m2?
a. 150 dB
b. 140 dB
c. 170 dB
d. 160 dB

96. The minimum sound intensity that can


be heard is termed
a. Threshold of feeling
b. Threshold of pain
c. Threshold of sensation
d. Threshold of hearing
97. What is the intensity of the sound whose
RMS pressure is 200 N/m2?
a. 96.9 W/m2
b. 97.9 W/m2
c. 95.9 W/m2
d. 94.9 W/m2
98. The unit of pitch.
a. sone
b. pitch
c. dB
d. Mel
99. What is the increase in sound pressure
level in dB, if the intensity is doubled?
a. 2 dB
b. 3 dB
c. 4 dB
d. 6 dB
100.
The velocity of sound is
considered to be constant at ________
for the purpose of acoustics.
a. 300 m/s
b. 330 mm/s
c. 330 m/s
d. 330 cm/s

4.

5.

6.
Radiation and wave propagation
1. ________ is the amount of voltage
induced in wave by an electro magnetic
wave.
a. receive voltage
b. magnetic induction
c. field strength
d. power density
2. An electro magnetic wave consists of
___________.
a. both electric and magnetic fields.
b. an electric field only
c. a magnetic field only
d. non-magnetic field only
3. What is the lowest layer of the
ionosphere?
a. F1
b. F2

7.

8.

c. E
d. D
Who profounded electro magnetic
radiation theory?
a. Sir Edward Appleton
b. James Clerk Maxwell
c. Christian Huygens
d. Sir Isaac Newton
The D, E and F layers are known as
____________.
a. Mark space Layers
b. Davinson- Miller Layers
c. Kennely Heaviside Layers
d. Appleton Layers
Different grouping of the
electromagnetic spectrum.
a. band
b. bandwidth
c. channel
d. group
What is the relation in degrees of the
electric and magnetic fields in an
electromagnetic wave?
a. 180 degrees
b. 90 degrees
c. 270 degrees
d. 45 degrees
A changing electric field gives rise to
________.
a. a magnetic field
b. sound field
c. electromagnetic waves
d. near and far fields

9. Frequencies in the UHF range propagate


by means of
a. ground waves
b. sky waves
c. surface waves
d. space waves
10. In electromagnetic waves, polarization
__________.
a. is caused by reflection
b. is due to the transverse nature of
the waves
c. results from the longitudinal
nature of the waves
d. is always vertical in an isotropic
medium
11. Electromagnetic Waves are refracted
when they ___________.
a. pass into a medium of different
dielectric constants
b. are polarized at right angles to
the direction of propagation
c. encounter a perfectly conducting
surface
d. pass through a small slot in a
conducting plane
12. What is the highest layer of the
atmosphere?
a. ionosphere
b. stratosphere
c. troposphere
d. ozone layer
13. What is the thickest layer of the
ionosphere?
a. F2

b. F1
c. D
d. E
14. Effective Earth radius to true earth
radius ratio.
a. index of refraction
b. K factor
c. Fresnel zone
d. path profile
15. Fading due to interference between
direct and reflected rays.
a. atmospheric-mutipath
b. Fresnel zone
c. reflection-multi path
d. Rayleigh fading
16. The layer that reflects very low
frequency waves and absorbs medium
frequency waves.
a. D Layer
b. E Layer
c. F1 Layer
d. F2 Layer
17. What layer is used for high-frequency
day time propagation?
a. D Layer
b. E Layer
c. F1 Layer
d. F2 Layer
18. What is the highest frequency that can
be sent straight upward and be returned
to earth?
a. MUF
b. skip frequency
c. critical frequency

d. gyro frequency
19. High frequency range is from?
a. 0.3 to 3MHz
b. 3 to 30MHz
c. 30 to 300MHz
d. 3to 30MHz
20. Medium frequency range is from
a. 0.01 to 0.03 MHz
b. 0.03 to 0.3MHz
c. 0.3 to 3MHz
d. 3 to 30 MHz
21. In tropospheric scatter propagation, the
attenuation is dependent on
a. scatter angle
b. take-off angle
c. antenna size
d. the troposphere
22. If the transmitter power remains
constant, an increase in the frequency of
the sky wave will
a. lengthen the skip distance
b. increase the range of the ground
wave
c. reduce the length of the skip
distance
d. have no effect on the ground
wave range
23. What is the unit of electric field
strength?
a. volts per square meter
b. volt per square cm
c. volts per meter
d. milivolt per watt
24. Velocity of a radio wave in free space.

a. 186,000 miles per sec


b. 300x106 meters per sec
c. 162,000 nautical mile per sec
d. all of the above
25. Refers to the direction of the electric
field vector in space.
a. polarization
b. directivity
c. radiation
d. ERP
26. An TEM wave whose polarization
rotates.
a. vertically polarized
b. omnidirectional
c. horizontally polarized
d. circularly polarized
27. velocity of light in free space
a. 300x106m/s
b. 300x106km/s
c. 186,000km/s
d. 186,000m/s
28. What is the effective radiated power of a
repeater with 200W transmitter power
output, 4dB feed line loss, 4dB duplxer
and circulator loss, and 10dB feed line
antenna gain?
a. 2000W
b. 126W
c. 317W
d. 260W
29. Radio wave that is far from its sources
is called
a. Plane wave
b. isotrpic wave

c. vertical wave
d. horizontal wave
30. Light goes from medium A to medium
B at angle of incidence of 40 degrees.
The angle of refraction is 30 degrees.
The speed of light in B
a. is the same as that in A
b. is greater than that in A
c. maybe any of these, depending
on the specific medium
d. is less than that in A
31. In a vacuum, the speed of an
electromagnetic wave
a. depends on its constant
b. depends on its wavelength
c. depends on its electric and
magnetic fields
d. is a universal constant
32. The depth of an object submerged in a
transparent liquid
a. always seems more that its actual
depth
b may seem less or more than its
actual depth, depending on the object
c. always seems less than its actual
depth
d. may seem less or more than its
actual depth, depending on the
transparent liquid
33. What is a wave front?
a. a voltage pulse in a conductor
b. a current in a conductor
c. a fixed point in an
electromagnetic wave

d. a voltage pulse across a resistor


34. VHF ship station transmitters must have
the capability of reducing carrier power
to
a. 1W
b. 10W
c. 25W
d. 50W
35. Most of the effects an electro magnetic
wave produces when it interacts with
matter are due to its
a. magnetic field
b. speed
c. frequency
d. electric field
36. A mobile receiver experiences dead
areas of reception as a result of
a. atmospheric absorption
b. tropospheric scatter
c. sporadic E
d. shading of the RF signal by hills
and trees
37. When the electric field is perpendicular
in the surface of the earth, what is the
polarization of the TEM wave?
a. elliptical
b. vertical
c. horizontal
d. circular
38. When the magnetic field is
perpendicular to the surface of the earth,
what is the polarization of the TEM
wave?
a. circular

b. horizontal
c. vertical
d. elliptical
39. When the magnetic field is parallel to
the surface of the earth, what is the
polarization of the TEM wave?
a. elliptical
b. horizontal
c. vertical
d. circular
40. What are the two interrelated fields
considered to make up an
electromagnetic wave
a. an electric field and a current
field
b. an electric field and voltage field
c. an electric field and a magnetic
field
d. a voltage and current fields
41. How does the bandwidth of the
transmitted signal affect selective
fading?
a. it is more pronounced at narrow
bandwidths
b. it is equally pronounced at both
narrow and wide bandwidths
c. it is more pronounced at wide
bandwidths
d. the receiver bandwidth
determines the selective fading
42. A wide-bandwidth communications
systems in which the RF carrier varies
according to some predetermined
sequence.

a. amplitude compandored single


sideband
b. SITOR
c. spread spectrum communication
d. time-domain frequency
modulation
43. A changing magnetic field gives rise to
a. sound field
b. magnetic field
c. electric field
d. nothing in particular
44. When a space-wave signal passes over a
mountain ridge, a small part of the signal
is diffracted down the far side of the
mountain. This phenomenon is called
a. discontinuity scattering
b. troposheric ducting
c. knife-edge diffraction
d. space-wave refraction
45. The index of refraction of a material
medium
a. is greater than 1
b. is less than 1
c. is equal to 1
d. maybe any of the bove
46. At what speed do electromagnetic
waves travel in free space?
a. approximately 468 million
meters per second
b. approximately 186300 ft/s
c. approximately 300 million m/s
d. approximately 300 million
miles/s

47. What is the effective earth radius when


surface refractivity, and N equals 300?
a. 6370km
b.7270km
c.7950km
d. 8500km
48. If N = 250, what is the earth radius Kfactor?
a. 1.23
b. 1.29
c. 1.33
d. 1.32
49. Electric field that lies in a plane
perpendicular to the earths surface
a. vertical polarization
b. horizontal polarization
c. circular polarization
d. elliptical polarization
50. Electric field that lies in a plane parallel
to the earths surface
a. vertical polarization
b. horizontal polarization
c. circular polarization
d. elliptical polarization
51. Indicate which one of the following
terms applies to trposcatter propagation
a. SIDs
b. fading
c. atmospheric storms
d. faraday rotation
52. VLF waves are used for some types of
services because
a. of the low power required

b the transmitting antennas are of


convenient size
c. they are very reliable
d. they penetrate the ionosphere
easily
53. Indicate which of the following
frequencies cannot be used for reliable
beyond-the-horizon terrestrial
communications without repeaters
a. 20KHz
b. 15MHz
c. 900MHz
d. 12GHz
54. High-frequency waves are
a. absorbed by the F2 layer
b. reflected by the D leayer
c. capable of use for long-distance
communications on the moon
d. affected nby the solar cycle
55. Distances near the skip distance should
be used for sky-wave propagation
a. to avaoid tilting
b. to prevent sky-wave and upper
ray interference
c. to avoid the faraday effect
d. so as not to exceed the critical
frequency
56. A ship-to-ship communications system
is plague by fading. The best solution
seems to be the use of
a. a more directional antenna
b. a broadband antenna
c. frequency diversity
d. space diversity

57. A range of microwave frequencies more


easily passed by the atmosphere than are
the others is called a
a. window
b. critical frequency
c. gyro frequency range
d. resonance in the atmosphere
58. frequencies in the UHF range normally
propagate by means of
a. ground waves.
b. sky waves
c. surface waves
d. space waves
59. Tropospheric scatter is used with
frequencies in the following range
a. HF
b. VHF
c. UHF
d. VLF
60. The ground wave eventually disappears
as one moves away from the transmitter
because of
a. interference from the sky wave
b. loss of line of sight
conditions
c. maximum single-hop distance
limitation
d. tilting
61. in electromagnetic waves, polarization
means
a. the physical orientation of
magnetic field in space
b. the physical orientation of
electric field in space

c. ionization
d. the presence of positive and
negative ions
62. an electromagnetic waves travel in free
space, only one of the following can
happen to them.
a. absorption
b. attenuation
c. refraction
d. reflection
63. the absorption of a radio waves by the
atmosphere depends on
a. their frequency
b. their distance from the
transmitter
c. the polarization of the waves
d. the polarization of the
atmosphere
64. diffraction of electromagnetic waves
a. is caused by reflections from the
ground
b. arises only with spherical
wavefronts
c. will occur when the waves pass
through a large slot
d. may occur around the edge of a
sharp object

65. In an electromagnetic wave the electric


field is
a. Parallel to both magnetic field and
the wave direction

b. Perpendicular to both the magnetic


field and the wave direction
c. Parallel to the magnetic field and
perpendicular to the wave direction
d. Perpendicular to the magnetic field
and parallel to the wave direction
66. The highest frequencies are found in
a. X-rays
b. Radio waves
c. Ultraviolet rays
d. Radar waves
67. Electromagnetic waves transport
a. Wavelength
b. Charge
c. Frequency
d. Energy
68. The ionosphere is a region of ionized gas
in the upper atmosphere. The ionosphere
is responsible for
a. The blue color of the sky
b. Rainbows
c. Long distance radio
communication
d. The ability of satellites to orbit
the earth
69. Light of which the following colors has
the shortest wavelength
a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Blue
d. Green
70. The quality in sound that corresponds to
color in light is
a. Amplitude

b. Resonance
c. Waveform
d. Pitch
71. All real images
a. Are erect
b. Can appear on screen
c. Are inverted
d. Cannot appear on a screen
72. When a beam of light enters one
medium from another, a quality that
never changes is its
a. Direction
b. Frequency
c. Speed
d. Wavelength
73. Relative to the angle of incidence, the
angle of refraction
a. Is smaller
b. Is larger
c. Is the same
d. Either A or B above
74. A light ray enters one medium from
another along the normal. The angle of
refraction is
a. 0
b. 90 degrees
c. Equal to the critical angle
d. Dependent on the indexes of
refraction of the two media
75. What layer aids MF surface-wave
propagation a little and reflects some HF
waves in daytime?
a. E layer
b. D layer

c. F1 layer
d. F2 layer
76. Dispersion is the term used to describe
a. The splitting of white light into
its component colors in
regraction
b. The propagation of light in
straight lines
c. The bending of a beam of light
when it goes from one medium to
another
d. The bending of a beam of light
when it strikes a mirror
77. The depth of an objects submerged in a
transparent liquid
a. Always seems less than its actual
depth
b. Always seems more than its
actual depth
c. May seems more than its actual
depth, depending on the index of
refraction of the liquid
d. May seem less or more than its
actual depth depending on the
angle of view
78. Total internal reflection can occur when
light passes from one medium to another
a. That has a lower index of
refraction
b. That has a larger index of
refraction
c. That has the same index of
refraction
d. At less than the critical angle

79. When the light ray approaches a glassair interface from the glass side at the
critical angle, the angle of refraction is
a. 0
b. 90 degrees
c. 45 degrees
d. Equal to the angle of incidence
80. The brightness of light source is called
its luminous intensity , whose unit is
a. Candela
b. Lux
c. Lumen
d. Footcandle
81. Luminous efficiency is least for a
a. Low-wattage light bulb
b. Mercury vapour lamp
c. High-wattage light bulb
d. Fluorescent tube
82. The minimum illumination
recommended for reading is
a. 8000 cd
b. 8000 lx
c. 8000 lm
d. 800W
83. Light enters a glass plate whose index of
refraction is 1.6 at an angle of incidence
of 30 degrees . the angle of refraction is
a. 18 degrees
b. 48 degrees
c. 19 degrees
d. 53 degrees
84. Light leaves a slab of transparent
material whose index of refraction is 2 at

an angle of refraction of 0 degrees. The


angle of incidence is
a. 0 degrees
b. 45 degrees
c. 30 degrees
d. 90 degrees
85. Light enters a glass plate at an angle of
incidence of 40 degrees and is refracted
at an angle refraction of 25 degrees. The
index refraction of the glass is
a. 0.625
b. 1.52
c. 0.66
d. 1.6
86. An underwater swimmer shines a flash
light beam upward at an angle of
incidence of 40 degrees. The angle of
refraction is 60 degrees. The index of
refraction of water is
a. 0.67
b. 1.3
c. 0.74
d. 1.5
87. The critical angle of incidence for light
going from crown glass (n=1.5) to ice
(n=1.3) is
a. 12 degrees
b. 50 degrees
c. 42 degrees
d. 60 degrees
88. The solid angle subtended by a
hemisphere about its ceter is
a. /2 sr
b. 2 sr

c. sr
d. depends on the radius of the
hemisphere
89. the luminous flux emitted by a 60-cd
isotropic light source is concentrated on
an area of 0.5m2. the illumination of the
area is
a. 9.6 lx
b. 377 lx
c. 120 lx
d. 1508 lx
90. Microwave signals propagate by way of
the
a. Direct wave
b. Sky wave
c. Surface wave
d. Standing wave
91. The ionosphere causes radio signals to
be
a. Diffused
b. Absorbed
c. Refracted
d. Reflected
92. Ground wave communications is most
effective in what frequency range?
a. 300KHz to 3MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz
c. 30 to 300MHz
d. Above 300MHz
93. The ionosphere has its greatest effect on
signals in what frequency range?
a. 300KHz to 3MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz
c. 30 to 300MHz

d. Above 300MHz
94. The type of radio wave responsible for
long distance communications by
multiple skips is the
a. Groud wave
b. Direct wave
c. Surface wave
d. Sky wave
95. Line of sight communications is not a
factor in which frequency range?
a. VHF
b. UHF
c. HF
d. Microwave
96. A microwave-transmitting antenna is
550ft high. The receiving antenna is
200ft high. The minimum transmission
distance is
a. 20 mi
b. 33.2 mi
c. 38.7 mi
d. 53.2 mi
97. To increase the transmission distance of
UHF signal, which of the following
should be done?
a. Increase antenna gain
b. Increase antenna height
c. Increase transmitter power
d. Increase receiver sensitivity
98. States that power density is inversely
proportional to the distance from its
source.
a. Principle of reciprocity
b. Inverse square law

c. Huygens Princple
d. Faradays law
99.
gets in contact with the
ionosphere and reflected by it.
a. Space wave
b. Sky wave
c. Surface wave
d. Satellite wave
100.
Highest layer in the ionosphere
a. F1
b. D
c. F2
d. E
101. Next lowest layer in the ionosphere.
a. D
b. E
c. F1
d. F2
102. What is the primary cause of ionization
in the atmosphere?
a. Sun spot
b. Cosmic rays
c. Galactic disturbance
d. Ultraviolet radiation
103. Which layer does not disappear at
night?
a. D
b. E
c. F1
d. F2
104. Which of the following uses surface
wave propagation?
a. ELF
b. VLF

c. MF
d. All of these
105. The ability of the ionosphere to reflect a
radio wave back to the earth is
determined by
a. Operating frequency
b. Ion density
c. Angle of incidence
d. All of these
106. Highest frequency that can be used for
skywave propagation between two given
points on earth.
a. Critical frequency
b. MUF
c. Cut off frequency
d. UHF
107. The shortest distance measured along
the earths surface that a skywave is
returned to earth.
a. MUF
b. Quarter-wavelength
c. Skip distance
d. Skip zone
108. Fluctuation in the signal strength at the
receiver.
a. Interference
b. Fading
c. Tracking
d. Variable frequency
109. Two or more antennas are used
separated by several wavelengths
a. Space diversity
b. Frequency diversity
c. Hybrid diversity

d. Polarization diversity
110. Two or more receivers are used using a
single antenna.
a. Space diversity
b. Frequency diversity
c. Hybrid diversity
d. Polarization diversity
111. One of the following is not a cause of
fading.
a. Interference between upper and
lower rays of a sky wave.
b. Skywaves arriving at different
number of hops
c. Interference due to ground
reflected wave and skywave
d. Diversity
112. What do you call the gigantic emissions
of hydrogen from the sun?
a. Solar flares
b. SIDs
c. Kennely-Heaviside
d. Sun spots
113. Sudden ionospheric disturbance
a. Solar flares
b. SIDs
c. Sun spots
d. Intertropical convergence
114. A means beyond the line of sight
propagation of UHF signals.
a. Microwave propagation
b. Space wave propagation
c. Troposcatter propagation
d. Surface wave propagation

115. Two directional antennas are pointed so


that their beams intersect in the
troposphere.
a. Skywave
b. Surface wave
c. Microwave
d. Troposcatter
116. Super refraction.
a. Ducting
b. Trposcatter
c. Skywave
d. Space wave
117. A layer of warm air trapped above
cooler air
a. Troposphere
b. SID
c. Duct
d. Huygens principle
118. Corresponds to voltage
a. Electric field
b. Magnetic field
c. Gyro
d. Direction of propagation
119. Absence of reception
a. Skip distance
b. Maximum usable
c. Shadow zone
d. Twilight zone
120. Each point in a spherical waveform
maybe a source of a secondary spherical
wavefront.
a. Senlls law
b. Huygens principle
c. Rayleighs principle

d. De Morgans theore,
121. Ducting occurs in which region of the
atmosphere?
a. Stratosphere
b. Troposphere
c. Ionosphere
d. Ozone layer
122. When is the E region most ionized?
a. At midday
b. At midnight
c. At duck
d. At dawn
123. Transequatorial propagation is best
during
a. Night time
b. Afternoon or early evening
c. Noontime
d. Morning
124. Which of the following is most affected
by knife-edge refraction?
a. Very high and ultra high
frequencies
b. High frequencies
Transmission Fundamentals
c. Medium frequency
1. What is the opposition to the transfer of
d. Low frequency
energy which is considered the dominant
125. Which ionosphere layer has an average
characteristic of a cable or circuit that
height of 225km at night?
emanates from its physical structure?
a. D layer
a. Conductance
b. E layer
b. Resistance
c. F1 layer
c. Reactance
d. F2 layer
d. Impedance

2. When load impedance equals to Zo of


the line, it means that the load _____ all
the power.
a. reflects
b. absorbs
c. attenuates
d. radiates
3. impedance matching ratio of a coax
balun.
a. 1:4
b. 4:1
c. 2:1
d. 3:2
4. Which stands for dB relative level?
a. dBrn
b. dBa
c. dBr
d. dBx
5. Standard test tone used for audio
measurement.
a. 800 Hz
b. 300 Hz
c. 100 Hz
d. 1000 Hz
6. When VSWR is equal to zero, this
means
a. that no power is applied
b. that the load is purely resistive
c. that the load is a pure reactance
d. that the load is opened
7. _______ is the ratio of reflected voltage
to the forward travelling voltage.
a. SWR
b. VSWR

c. Reflection coefficient
d. ISWR
8. Transmission line must be matched to
the load to ______.
a. transfer maximum voltage to the
load
b. transfer maximum power to the load
c. reduce the load current
d. transfer maximum current to the load
9. Which indicate the relative energy loss
in a capacitor?
a. Quality factor
b. Reactive factor
c. Dissipation factor
d. Power factor
10. What is the standard test tone?
a. 0 dB
b. 0 dBW
c. 0 dBm
d. 0 dBrn
11. The energy that neither radiated into
space nor completely transmitted.
a. Reflected waves
b. Captured waves
c. Incident waves
d. Standing waves
12. Micron is equal to _______ meter.
a. 10-10
b. 10-9
c. 10-6
d. 10-3
13. 1 Angstrom (A) is equal to _______.
a. 10-3 micron
b. 10-10 m

c. 10-6 micron
d. 10-6 m
14. Why is it impossible to use a waveguide
at low radio frequencies?
a. Because of the size of the waveguide
b. Due to severe attenuation
c. Due to too much radiation
d. All of these
15. ________ is the transmission and
reception of information.
a. Modulation
b. Communications
c. Radiation
d. Emission
16. What is the loss of the circuit in dB if the
power ration of output to input is 0.01?
a. 20
b. -20
c. 40
d. -40
17. Transmission lines are either balanced or
unbalanced with respect to
a. Negative terminal
b. Reference
c. Ground
d. Positive terminal
18. The standing wave ratio is equal to
_______ if the load is properly matched
with the transmission line.
a. Infinity
b. 0
c. -1
d. 1

19. ________ is the advantage of the


balanced transmission line compared to
unbalanced line.
a. Low attenuation
b. Easy installation
c. Low radiation loss
d. Tensile strength
20. _______ is the method of determining
the bandwidth of any processing system.
a. Fourier series
b. Spectral analysis
c. Frequency analysis
d. Bandwidth analysis
21. What causes the attenuation present in a
waveguide?
a. The air dielectric filling the guide
b. The coating of silver inside
c. Losses in the conducting walls of the
guide
d. Radiation loss
22. A device that converts a balanced line to
an unbalanced line of a transmission
line.
a. Hybrid
b. Stub
c. Directional coupler
d. Balun
23. What is the approximate line impedance
of a parallel-strip line spaced 1 cm apart
with the length of 50 cm?
a. 10 ohms
b. 15 ohms
c. 18 ohms
d. 23 ohms

24. What is the average power rating of RG58 C/u?


a. 25 W
b. 50 W
c. 75 W
d. 200 W
25. A coaxial cable used for high
temperatures.
a. RG-58C
b. RG-11A
c. RG-213
d. RG-211
26. If you have available number of power
amplifiers with a gain of 100 each, how
many such amplifiers do you need to
cascade to give an overall gain of 60dB?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
27. You are measuring noise in a voice
channel at a -4 dB test point level, the
meter reads -73 dBm, convert the
reading into dBrnCO.
a. 12
b. 16
c. 18
d. 21
28. The velocity factor for a transmission
line
a. depends on the dielectric constant of
the material used
b. increases the velocity along the
transmission line

c. is governed by the skin effect


d. is higher for a solid dielectric than
for air
29. Impedance inversion can be obtained by
a. a short-circuited stub
b. an open-circuited stub
c. a quarter-wave line
d. a half-wave line
30. Transmission lines when connected to
antennas have
a. capacitive load
b. resistive load whose resistance is
greater than the characteristic
impedance of the line
c. resistive load whose resistance is less
than the characteristic impedance of
the line
d. resistive load at the resonant
frequency
31. One of the following is not a bounded
media.
a. Coaxial line
b. Two-wire line
c. Waveguide
d. Ocean
32. The impedance measured at the input of
the transmission line when its length is
infinite.
a. Input impedance
b. Open circuit impedance
c. Characteristic impedance
d. Short circuit impedance
33. The following are considered primary
line constants except

a. conductance
b. resistance
c. capacitance
d. complex propagation constant
34. The dielectric constants of materials
commonly used in transmission lines
range from about
a. 1.2 to 2.8
b. 2.8 to 3.5
c. 3.5 to 5.2
d. 1.0 to 1.2
35. Typically, the velocity factor (VF) of the
materials used in transmission lines
range from
a. 0.6 to 0.9
b. 0.1 to 0.5
c. 1.0 to 0.9
d. 0.6 to 0.8
36. For an air dielectric two-wire line, the
minimum characteristic impedance value
is
a. 85 ohms
b. 85 ohms
c. 90 ohms
d. 88 ohms
37. When a quarter-wave section
transmission line is terminated by a short
circuit and is connected to an RF source
at the other end, its input impedance is
a. inductive
b. capacitive
c. resistive
d. equivalent to a parallel resonant LC
circuit

38. A transmitter operating at 30 MHz with


4 W output is connected via 10 m of
RG-8A/u cable to an antenna that has an
input resistance of 300 ohms. Find the
reflection coefficient.
a. 0.71
b. 0.77
c. 0.97
d. 0.76
39. A quarter wave transformer is connected
to a parallel wire line in order to match
the line to a load of 1000 ohms. The
transformer has a characteristic
impedance of 316.23 ohms. The distance
between centers is 4 inches. What is the
percentage reduction in the diameter of
the line?
a. 85%
b. 83%
c. 86%
d. 90%
40. The concept used to make one Smith
chart universal is called
a. ionization
b. normalization
c. rationalization
d. termination
41. What are the basic elements of
communications system?
a. Source, transmission channel,
transmitter
b. Transmitter, receiver, transmission
channel

c. Information, transmission channel,


receiver
d. Sender and receiver
42. ________ is the transmission of printed
material over telephone lines.
a. Internet
b. Data communication
c. Telegraphy
d. Facsimile
43. ________ is a continuous tone generated
by the combination of two frequencies of
350 Hz and 440 Hz used in telephone
sets.
a. DC tone
b. Ringing tone
c. Dial tone
d. Call waiting tone
44. ________ are unidirectional amplifiers
having 20-25 decibel gain that are placed
about 75 km apart used to compensate
for losses along the telephone line.
a. VF repeaters
b. Loading coils
c. Loop extenders
d. Echo suppressors
45. ________ is a component in the
telephone set that has the primary
function of interfacing the handset to the
local loop.
a. Resistor
b. Capacitor
c. Varistor
d. Induction coil
46. Pulse dialing has ________ rate.

a. 20 pulses/min
b. 10 pulses/min
c. 10 pulses/sec
d. 80 pulses/sec
47. ________ is a telephone wire that
connects two central offices.
a. 2-wire circuit
b. Trunk line
c. Leased line
d. Private line
48. The central switching office
coordinating element for all cell sites
that has cellular processor and a cellular
switch. It interfaces with telephone
company zone offices, control call
processing and handle billing activities.
a. MTSO
b. Cell site
c. PTSN
d. Trunk line
49. ________ in a cellular system performs
radio-related functions for cellular site.
a. Switching system
b. Base station
c. Operation and support system
d. Mobile station
50. A technology used to increase the
capacity of a mobile phone system.
a. Frequency re-use
b. Cell splitting
c. TDM
d. FDM

51. If the grade of service of a telephone


system indicated P = 0.05, what does it
mean?
a. Completed calls of 5%
b. Lost calls of 5%
c. Lost calls of 95%
d. Lost calls of 105%
52. ________ is the Out-of-Band signaling
between Toll Central Offices (Bell
System Standard).
a. 3, 825 Hz
b. 3, 700 Hz
c. 2, 600 Hz
d. 800 Hz
53. In a telephone system, the customers
telephone directory numbering is from
000 to 999, what is the capacity of a
telephone system numbering from 000 to
999?
a. 100 lines
b. 1000 lines
c. 10, 000 lines
d. 100, 000 lines
54. If the SWR is infinite, what type of load
transmission line has?
a. Purely reactive
b. Purely resistive
c. Purely capacitive
d. Purely inductive
55. Not more than _______ digits make up
an international telephone number as
recommended by CCITT REC. E. 161.
a. 8
b. 10

c. 11
d. 12
56. One (1) Erlang is equal to _______.
a. 360 CCS
b. 36 CCS
c. 3.6 CCS
d. 100 CCS
57. Standard tariff for flat rate telephone
service beyond the normal flat rate in
that area.
a. WATS
b. OTLP
c. TIP
d. DTWX
58. The standard analog telephone channel
bandwidth.
a. 300-3400 Hz
b. 1200 Hz
c. 200-3200 Hz
d. 300-3000 Hz
59. Type of switching in which a pair of
wire from the telephone set terminates in
a jack and the switch is supervised by an
operator.
a. Crossbar switching
b. Manual switching
c. Electronic switching
d. Step-by-step switching
60. Every time when the telephone is idle,
the handset is in the _______ state.
a. On-hook
b. Off-hook
c. Busy
d. Spare

61. _______ is a component in the telephone


set that has the primary function of
compensating for the local loop length.
a. Resistor
b. Varistor
c. Capacitor
d. Induction coil
62. What kind of receiver is used in
conventional telephone handset?
a. Carbon
b. Electromagnetic
c. Ceramic
d. Capacitor
63. A voice-grade circuit using the PTN ha
an ideal passband of
a. 0 to 4 Hz
b. 0 to 4 MHz
c. 0 to 4 kHz
d. 0 to 4 GHz
64. ________ is the minimum-quality circuit
available using the PTN.
a. Basic voice grade (VG)
b. Basic voice channel (VC)
c. Basic voice band (VB)
d. Basic telephone channel
65. Direct distance dialing (DDD) network
is called
a. Private-line network
b. PT network
c. Dial-up network
d. Trunk network
66. What is the advantage of sidetone?
a. Transmission efficiency is increased

b. Speaker increases his voice resulting


in a strengthened signal
c. No dissipation of energy in the
balancing network
d. Assure the customer that the
telephone is working
67. ________ is a special service circuit
connecting two private branch
exchanges (PBX).
a. Phantom line
b. Tie trunk
c. Tandem trunk
d. Private line
68. The published rates, regulation, and
descriptions governing the provision of
communications service for public use.
a. Toll rate
b. Tariff
c. Bulk billing
d. Detailed billing
69. What is the power loss of a telephone
hybrid?
a. 1 dB
b. 2 dB
c. 3 dB
d. 6 dB
70. Telephone channel has a band-pass
characteristic occupying the frequency
range of _______.
a. 300-400 Hz
b. 300-3400 Hz
c. 300-3000 Hz
d. 300-2700 Hz

71. The first Strowger step-by-step switch


was used in _______.
a. 1875
b. 1890
c. 1897
d. 1913
72. What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz
voice signal if the phase shift is 15
degrees?
a. 52usec
b. 1.25usec
c. 83.33usec
d. 26usec
73. What is the CCITT recommendation for
a preparation of loss plan, a variable loss
plans and a fixed loss plan?
a. G. 133
b. G. 141
c. G. 132
d. G. 122
74. What is the diameter of a copper wire to
be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop
resistance of 100 ohms/km?
a. 0.838 mm
b. 0.465 mm
c. 1.626 mm
d. 2.159 mm
75. What kind of cell is appropriate for load
management, fast moving mobiles and
low-usage areas?
a. Pico cells
b. Micro cells
c. Nano cells
d. Umbrella cells

76. In cellular networks, standard base


station antennas are placed by _______.
a. adaptive array
b. flat plate antenna
c. dipole array
d. focused antenna
77. What is the basis of the first generation
wireless local loop?
a. Digital cellular technology
b. Analogue cellular technology
c. PSTN
d. AMPS technology
78. When the calling party hears a busy
tone on his telephone, the call is
considered
a. lost
b. disconnected
c. completed
d. incomplete
79. Short-circuited stubs are preferred to
open circuited stubs because the latter
are
a. more difficult to make and connect
b. made of a transmission line with a
different characteristic impedance
c. liable to radiate
d. incapable of giving a full range of
reactances
80. What is the ratio of the reflected voltage
to the incident voltage?
a. VSWR
b. ISWR
c. SWR
d. Coefficient of reflection

81. One method of determining antenna


impedance.
a. Sub matching
b. Trial and error
c. Smith chart
d. Quarter-wave matching
82. ________ is a single conductor running
from the transmitter to the antenna.
a. Single-wire line
b. Microstrip
c. Twin-lead
d. Coaxial line
83. Coaxial cable impedance is typically
_______.
a. 150 to 300 ohms
b. 50 to 75 ohms
c. 30 to 45 ohms
d. 300 to 600 ohms
84. Waveguide becomes compulsory above
what frequencies?
a. Above 3 GHz
b. Above 10 kHz
c. At 300 MHz
d. Above 10 GHz
85. Nominal voice channel bandwidth is
_______.
a. 20 to 30 kHz
b. 0 to 3 kHz
c. 4 kHz
d. 55 kHz above
86. Echo suppressors are used on all
communications system when the round
trip propagation time exceeds _______.
a. 50 ms

b. 30 ms
c. 100 ms
d. 1 ms
87. A radio transmission line of 300 ohms
impedance is to be connected to an
antenna having an input impedance of
150 ohms. What is the impedance of a
quarter-wave matching line?
a. 212 ohms
b. 250 ohms
c. 200 ohms
d. 150 ohms
88. Quarter-wavelength line is used as
_______.
a. impedance transformer
b. lecher line
c. transmission line
d. harmonic suppressor
89. The transmission lines which can convey
electromagnetic waves only in higher
modes is usually called
a. coaxial cable
b. waveguide
c. power lines
d. twisted wire of telephone line
90. Why is nitrogen gas sometimes used in
waveguide?
a. To increase the distributed
capacitance
b. To keep the waveguide dry
c. To reduce the skin effect at the walls
of the guide
d. To raise the guides wave impedance

91. The apparent speed of propagation along


a waveguide based on the distance
between wavefronts along the walls of
the guide is called
a. group velocity
b. phae velocity
c. normal velocity
d. abnormal velocity
92. How do you couple in and out of a
waveguide?
a. Wrap a coil of wire around one end
of the waveguide
b. Insertion of an E-probe into the
waveguide
c. Insertion of an H-loop into the
waveguide
d. Both B and C
93. A rectangular waveguide is operating in
the dominant TE10 mode. The associated
flux lines are established
a. transversely across the narrow
dimension of the waveguide
b. transversely across the wide
dimension of the waveguide
c. in the metal walls parallel to the
direction of propagation
d. in the metal walls perpendicular to
the direction of propagation
94. For dominant mode of a rectangular
waveguide, the distance between two
instantaneous consecutive positions of
maximum field intensity (in a direction
parallel to the walls of the waveguide) is
referred to as half of the

a. free-space wavelength
b. cutoff wavelength in the wide
dimension
c. guide wavelength
d. group wavelength
95. The guide wavelength, in a rectangular
waveguide is
a. equal to the free-space wavelength at
the cutoff frequency
b. equal to the free-space wavelength
for the same signal frequency
c. less than the free-space wavelength
at the cut-off frequency
d. greater than the free-space
wavelength at the same signal
frequency
96. Using the TE10 mode, microwave power
can only be transmitted in free
rectangular guide provided
a. the wider dimension is less than onehalf of the wavelength in free space
b. the narrow dimension is less than
one-quarter of the wavelength in free
space
c. the wide dimension is greater than
one-half of the guide wavelength
d. the wide dimension is greater than
one-half of the wavelength in free
space
97. If the signal frequency applied to a
rectangular guide is increased and the
dominant mode is employed
a. the free space wavelength is
increased

b. the phase velocity increased


c. the guide wavelength is increased
d. the group velocity, Vg, is increased
98. If a 6 GHz signal is applied to a
rectangular waveguide and the reflection
angle is 20o, what is the value of the
guide wavelength?
a. 6.10 cm
b. 5.32 cm
c. 4.78 cm
d. 5.00 cm
99. The inner dimensions of a rectangular
wavelength are 1.75 cm by 3.5 cm. The
cutoff wavelength for the dominant
mode is
a. 1.75 cm
b. 3.5 cm
c. 7.0 cm
d. 0.4375 cm
100.
A signal whose wavelength is 3.5
cm is being propagated along a guide
whose inner dimensions are 2 cm by 4
cm. What is the value of the guide
wavelength?
a. 3.12 cm
b. 3.89 cm
c. 3.57 cm
d. 6.30 cm
101.
The frequency range over which
a rectangular waveguide is excited in the
dominant mode is limited to
a. the difference between the frequency
for which the reflection angle is 90o

and the frequency for which angle is


zero
b. the difference between the frequency
for which the free-space wavelength
is equal to the cutoff value and the
frequency for which the free-space
wavelength is equal to the guide
wavelength
c. the difference between the frequency
at which the cutoff wavelength is
twice the narrow dimension
d. none of these
102.
If a rectangular waveguide is to
be excited in the dominant mode, the Eprobe should be inserted
a. at the sealed end
b. at a distance of one quarter
wavelength from the sealed end
c. at a distance of one-half wavelength
from the sealed end
d. at a distance of three-quarters of a
wavelength from the sealed end
103.
A quarter-wave line is connected
to an RF generator and is shorted out at
the far end. What is the input impedance
to the line generator?
a. A low value of resistance
b. A high value of resistance
c. A capacitive resistance which is
equal in the value to the lines surge
impedance
d. An inductive resistance which is
equal to the value to the lines surge
impedance

104.
If the SWR on a transmission
line has a high value, the reason could be
a. an impedance mismatch between the
line and the load
b. that the line is non-resonant
c. a reflection coefficient of zero at the
load
d. that the load is matched to the line
105.
If a quarter-wave transmission
line is shorted at one end
a. there is minimum current at the
shorted end
b. the line behaves as a parallel-tuned
circuit in relation to the generator
c. the line behaves as a series-tuned
circuit in relation to the generator
d. there is a minimum voltage at the
shorted end
106.
A 50-ohm transmission line is
feeding an antenna which represents a 50
ohm resistive load. To shorten the line,
the length must be
a. any convenient value
b. an odd multiple of three quarters of a
wavelength
c. an odd multiple of half a wavelength
d. an even multiple of a quarter of a
wavelength
107.
The outer conductor of the
coaxial cable is usually grounded
a. at the beginning and at the end of the
cable
b. only at the beginning of the cable
and only at the end of the cable

c. only at the end of the cable


d. at the middle of the cable
108.
A feature of an infinite
transmission line is that
a. its input impedance at the generator
is equal to the lines surge
impedance
b. its phase velocity is greater than the
velocity of light
c. no RF current will be drawn from the
generator
d. the impedance varies at different
positions on the line
109.
When the surge impedance of a
line is matched to a load, the line will
a. transfer maximum current to the load
b. transfer maximum voltage to the
load
c. transfer maximum power to the load
d. have a VSWR equal to zero
110.
A lossless line is terminated by a
resistive load which is not equal to the
surge impedance. If the value of the
reflection coefficient is 0.5, the VSWR
is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 15
111.
Ratio of the mismatch between
the antenna and the transmitter power.
a. Standing wave pattern
b. Reflection coefficient
c. SWR

d. Index of refraction
112.
Emission designation for a
facsimile.
a. H3E and A4E
b. R3E and A4E
c. F4E and J3E
d. F3C and A3E
113.
Commonly used telephone wire.
a. AWG #19
b. AWG #18
c. AWG #30
d. AWG #33
114.
What is the distance traveled by a
wave in the time of one cycle?
a. Frequency
b. Hop
c. Wavelength
d. Crest
115.
The velocity factor is inversely
proportional with respect to the
_______.
a. square of the dielectric constant
b. square root of the dielectric constant
c. dielectric current
d. square root of refractive index
116.
________ is a hollow structure
that has no center conductor but allows
waves to propagate down its length.
a. Waveguide
b. Hybrid
c. Pipe
d. Directional coupler
117.
To connect a coaxial line to a
parallel wire line, _______ is used.

a.
b.
c.
d.

hybrid circuit
balun
directional coupler
quarter-wave transformer matching
circuit
118.
What length for which the input
power has been halved for a
transmission line with an attenuation of
6 dB/km?
a. 1.5 km
b. 0.5 km
c. 63 km
d. 2 km
119.
In a waveguide, _______ is a
specific configuration of electric and
magnetic fields that allows a wave to
propagate.
a. set-up
b. coupler
c. channel
d. mode
120.
A rectangular waveguide has
dimensions of 3 cm x 5 cm. What is the
dominant mode cut-off frequency?
a. 2 GHz
b. 3 GHz
c. 2.5 GHz
d. 3.5 GHZ
121.
________ are transmission lines
which can convey electromagnetic
waves only in higher order modes?
a. Coaxial cables
b. Twisted pairs of telephone wire
c. Power cables

d. Waveguides
122.
The amount of uncertainty in a
system of symbols is also called
a. bandwidth
b. loss
c. entropy
d. quantum
123.
The twists in twisted wire pairs
a. reduced electromagnetic interference
b. occur at a 30-degree angle
c. eliminate loading
d. were removed due to cost
124.
An example of a bounded
medium is
a. coaxial cable
b. waveguide
c. fiber-optic cable
d. all of the above
125.
Loading means the addition of
a. resistor
b. capacitor
c. bullet
d. inductance
126.
What is the most commonly used
transmission line for high frequency
application?
a. Two-wire balance line
b. Single wire
c. Three-wire line
d. Coaxial
127.
The characteristic impedance of a
transmission line does not depend upon
its
a. length

b. conductor diameter
c. conductor spacing
d. dielectric material
128.
One of the following is not a
common transmission line impedance.
a. 50 ohms
b. 75 ohms
c. 120 ohms
d. 300 ohms
129.
For maximum absorption of
power at the antenna, the relationship
between the characteristic impedance of
the line Zoand the load impedance ZL
should be
a. Zo = ZL
b. Zo > ZL
c. Zo < ZL
d. Zo = 0
130.
The mismatch between antenna
and transmission line impedance cannot
be corrected for by
a. using LC matcging network
b. adjusting antenna length
c. using a balun
d. adjusting the length of transmission
line
131.
________ is a pattern of voltage
and current variations along a
transmission line not terminated in its
characteristic impedance.
a. An electric field
b. Radio waves
c. Standing waves
d. A magnetic field

132.
Which is the desirable SWR on a
transmission line?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. Infinity
133.
A 50ohm coax is connected to a
73-ohm antenna. What is the SWR?
a. 0.685
b. 1
c. 1.46
d. 2.92
134.
What is the most desirable
reflection coefficient?
a. 0
b. 0.5
c. 1
d. Infinity
135.
What is the ratio expressing the
percentage of incident voltage reflected
on a transmission line?
a. Velocity factor
b. Standing-wave ratio
c. Reflection coefficient
d. Line efficiency
136.
The minimum voltage along a
transmission line is 260 V, while the
maximum is 390 V, the SWR is
a. 0.67
b. 1.0
c. 1.2
d. 1.5
137.
One meter is one wavelength at a
frequency of

a. 150 MHz
b. 164 MHz
c. 300 MHz
d. 328 MHz
138.
At very high frequencies,
transmission lines act as
a. Tuned circuits
b. Antennas
c. Insulators
d. Resistors
139.
A shorted quarter-wave line at
the operating frequency acts like a/an
a. Capacitor
b. Inductor
c. Series resonant circuit
d. Parallel resonant circuit
140.
A shorted half-wave line at the
operating frequency acts like a/an
a. Capacitor
b. Inductor
c. Series resonant circuit
d. Parallel resonant circuit
141.
A medium least susceptible to
noise?
a. Shielded pair
b. Twisted pair
c. Fiber-optic
d. Coaxial
142.
A medium most widely used in
LANs?
a. Parallel-wire line
b. Twisted pair
c. Fiber-optic cable
d. Coaxial

143.
The most commonly used
transmission line in television system.
a. Parallel-wire line
b. Coaxial cable
c. Waveguide
d. Open-wire ceramic supports
144.
The impedance of a TV
transmission line depends on several
factors. Which is not one of those
factors?
a. Diameter
b. Length of the wire
c. Dielectric material
d. Separation between conductors
145.
DC blocks are used in coaxial
transmission line for the purpose of
a. passing DC while blocking AC
b. passing AC voltage but prevent DC
c. preventing AC voltage from reaching
the pre-amplifier
d. preventing AC power supply voltage
from being shorted by a balun or
band splitter
146.
_______ is a type of interference
caused by off-air TV channels 2 and
4, plus a satellite dish operating on
channel 3.
a. Adjacent channel interference
b. Ghost
c. Co-channel interference
d. Crosstalk
147. Dithering (in TVRO
communication) is a process of

148.

149.

150.

151.

152.

a. Reducing the effect of noise on


the TVRO video signal
b. Centering the video fine tuning
on TVRO channels
c. Moving the feedhorn rotor to the
precise angle
d. Moving the actuator exactly onto
the desired satellite beam
A network that has an input of 75dB
and an output of 35dB. The loss of
the network is
a. -40db
b. 40db
c. 40dBm
d. -4dBm
Important useful quantities
describing waveforms.
a. Time and frequency
b. Voltage and current
c. Frequency and voltage
d. Power and frequency
Halving the power means
a. 6-dB gain
b. 3-dB loss
c. 3-dB gain
d. 6-dB loss
One Neper (Np) is how many
decibels?
a. 8.866
b. 8.686
c. 8.688
d. 8.868
A signal is amplified 100 times in
power. The dB gain is

153.

154.

155.

156.

a. 20dB
b. 119dB
c. 15dB
d. 25dB
Which of the following is used to
measure SWR?
a. Spectrum analyzer
b. Reflectometer
c. Oscilloscope
d. Multimeter
214-056 twin lead which is
commonly used for TV lead-in has a
characteristic impedance of
a. 52 ohms
b. 75 ohms
c. 600 ohms
d. 300 ohms
What is the characteristic impedance
of a transmission line which is to act
a s a quarterwave matching
transformer between a 175 ohms
transmission line and 600 ohms
load?
a. 300.04 ohms
b. 324.04 ohms
c. 310.04 ohms
d. 320.04 ohms
What is the EIRP in dBW of a 50dB
antenna connected to a transmitter
with an output of 10kW through a
transmission line with loss of 5dB?
a. 85dBW
b. 955 dBW
c. 90 dBW

157.

158.

159.

d. 80 dBW
A coaxial cable is a good example of
a/an
a. Unbounded medium
b. Transmission channel
c. Non-metallic medium
d. Bounded medium
If a quarterwave transformer is
required to match a 180 ohm load to
a transmission line with and
impedance of 300 ohms, what
should be the characteristic
impedance of the matching
ransformer? Assume that the
matching transformer is to be
connected directly to the load.
a. 180 ohms
b. 232 ohms
c. 300 ohms
d. 480 ohms
A transmitter of 100W RF power
output, 100% modulated is operating
on a frequency of 169MHz. The
antenna transmission line consists of
a 50 ohms coaxial cable 150ft long.
The coaxial inner conductor outer
diameter is 0.162in. determine the
outside diameter of the outer
conductor if the outer conductor has
a thickness of 0.05 in(assume K=1).
a. 1.0 in
b. 0.9in
c. 0.7in
d. 0.5in

160.

161.

162.

163.

In the preceding problem , calculate


the line current.
a. 1.7A
b. 1.3A
c. 1.5A
d. 1.0A
Determine also the total attenuation
of the line in the preceding problem.
a. 2.0dB
b. 1.5 dB
c. 2.5 dB
d. 1.0 dB
What is the maximum subscriber
loop length, in ft, of a telephone
system if the signalling resistance is
1800ohms using a telephone cable
pair of gauge #26 with loop
resistance of 83.5 ohms per 100ft.
Assume the telephone set resistance
is equal to 200 ohms.
a. 15,161.7 feet
b. 19,161 feet
c. 15,300 feet
d. 20,000 feet
If the same subscriber loop above
limits the voice attenuation to a
maximum of 6dB, what is the
maximum allowable subscriber loop
length, in feet, using the same gauge
#26 telephone wire? Assume a
2.7dB loss per mile.
a. 20,000 ft
b. 13,900 ft
c. 15,280ft

164.

165.

166.

167.

168.

d. 11,733ft
The input is 0.1W and the network
gain is 13dB, the output is
a. 2.0W
b. 2.5W
c. 1.5W
d. 1.8W
Known as one-tenth of a neper.
a. dB
b. dBm
c. dBp
d. dNp
the input impedance of a
quarterwave short-circuited
transmission line at its resinant
frequency is
a. 0 ohms
b. Infinite or an open circuit
c. Ohm
d. 70 ohms
The ratio of the largest rms value to
the smallest rms value of the voltage
in the line is called
a. SWR
b. ISWR
c. VSWR
d. Coefficient of reflection
An open-wire, two-wire
transmission line is to be connected
to a dipole antenna through a
quarter-wave matching stub. At a
frequency of 10 MHz, compute the
length of the dipole
a. 20 meters

169.

170.

171.

b. 7.5 meters
c. 15 meters
d. 25 meters
From the preceding problem,
compute also the length of the
quarterwave stub.
a. 15 meters
b. 7.5 meters
c. 20 meters
d. 25 meters
To find the characteristic impedance
of a coaxial cable, measurements are
made with (a) the far end open
circuited and (b) far end short
circuited, the corresponding readings
being a) Ro=3ohms and Xc=55
ohms, capacitive b) RS = 10 ohms
and XL = 90 ohms, inductive. What
is the characteristic impedance Zo of
the line?
a. 75.7-j2.0 ohms
b. 70.7+j1.19 ohms
c. 87.5 j5 ohms
d. 70.7 j1.97 ohms
A TV antenna receives a signal
measured at 200mV and is
immediately amplified by a
preamplifier with a 15dB gain. This
amplified signal then passes through
a coaxial cable with 3dB loss, what
is the resulting input to the TV set,
in dBmV?
a. 1.98
b. 13.98

172.

173.

174.

175.

c. -1.98
d. -13.98
The characteristic impedance of a
transmission line does not depend
upon its___________.
a. Conductor spacing
b. Conductor diameter
c. Length
d. Conductor radius
What does a power difference of 3dB mean?
a. A loss of one third of the power
b. A loss of one half of the power
c. A loss of three watts of power
d. No significant change
Which of the following is an
advantage of the balance
transmission line?
a. Easy installation
b. Outer shield eliminates radiation
losses
c. Low attenuation
d. None of these
Waveguides are used mainly for
microwave transmission because
a. They are bulky at lower
frequencies
b. Losses are heavy at lower
frequencies
c. They depend on straight line
propagation
d. No generators are powerful
enough to excite them

176.

177.

178.

179.

180.

The input is 1W and the network


loss is 27dB, the output is
a. 1mW
b. 3mW
c. 2mW
d. 4mW
A combiner has two inputs +30dBm
and +30dBm, what is the resultant
output?
a. +36 dBm
b. +30 dBm
c. +60 dBm
d. +33 dBm
The ratio of the smallest to the
largest rms current value is called
a. SWR
b. VSWR
c. ISWR
d. Coefficient of reflection
If the ratio of the maximum current
to minimum current in a
transmission line is 2:1 then the ratio
of the maximum voltage to
minimum voltage is
a. 4:1
b. 1:2
c. 1:4
d. 2:1
Two wires of 600 ohms
characteristic impedance is to be
constructed out of a number 12 wire
(81 mils). Find the attenuation of the
line at 0.6GHz per 100feet length
a. 0.05 dB

181.

182.

183.

184.

185.

b. 0.55 dB
c. 0.44 dB
d. 0.35 dB
In the preceding problem, determine
the spacing between wires from
center to center.
a. 6 in
b. 4 in
c. 5 in
d. 3 in
A lossless transmission line has a
shunt capacitance of 100nF/m and a
series inductance of 4mH/m. What is
the characteristic impedance?
a. 500 ohms
b. 400ohms
c. 300ohms
d. 200hms
A ten times power change in
transmission system is equivalent to
a. 10dBm
b. 1dB
c. 20dB
d. 100dB
A type of transmission line
employed where balanced properties
are required.
a. Balun
b. Parallel-wire line
c. Coaxial line
d. Quarterwave line
What is the characteristic impedance
of a transmission line which has a

186.

187.

188.

189.

capacitance of 40nF/ft and an


inductance of 0.5mH/ft
a. 111.8 ohms
b. 110.8 ohms
c. 112.8 ohms
d. 109.8 ohms
The input power to a loss-free cable
is 5W. If the reflected power is 7dB
down on the incident power, the
output power to the load is
a. 4W
b. 5W
c. 6W
d. 7W
To be properly matched the ratio of
a maximum voltage along a
transmission line should be equal to
a. 1
b. 10
c. 50
d. 2
A coaxial line with an outer
diameter of 6mm has a 50 ohms
characteristic impedance. If the
dielectric constant of the insulation
is 1.60., calculate the inner diameter.
a. 2.09cm
b. 2.09in
c. 2.09mm
d. 2.09mm
If an amplifier has equal input and
out impedance, what voltage ratio
does the gain of 50dB represent?
a. 316.2

190.

191.

192.

193.

b. 325.2
c. 320.1
d. 315.0
What is the inductance per foot of a
cable that has a capacitance of 50
pF/ft and a characteristic impedance
of 60 ohms?
a. 0.167uH/ft
b. 0.178 uH/ft
c. 0.19 uH/ft
d. 0.18 uH/ft
The ratio between the energy
absorbed by a surface to the total
energy received by the surface.
a. Reflection coefficient
b. Absorption coefficient
c. Linear coefficient
d. Thermal coefficient
When the diameter of the conductors
of a wire transmission line is held
constant, the effect of decreasing the
distance between the conductors is
a. Increase the surge impedance
b. Increase the radiation resistance
c. Decrease the SWR
d. Decrease the impedance
The higher the gauge number if a
conductor
a. The bigger the diameter
b. The higher the resistance or the
smaller the diameter
c. The higher the resistance
d. None of the above

194.

195.

196.

197.

198.

A short length transmission line used


to reduce/eliminate standing waves
in the main transmission line.
a. Stub
b. Balun
c. /4 transformer
d. slot
ratio of reflected power to incident
power?
a. Incidence
b. Reflectance
c. Reflection index
d. None of these
A quarter wave transformer is used
to match a 600 ohms lad antenna to
a ling of 52 ohms impedance, the
characteristic impedance of the
matching transformer is
a. 200 ohms
b. 150 ohms
c. 176 ohms
d. 300 ohms
What is the capacitance of 55 miles
#44 copper wire spaced 18 inches?
From wire tables, #44 wire has a
radius to 0.10215 in.
a. 0.476uF
b. 0.476nF
c. 0.476pF
d. 0.476fF
A two-transmission line consists of
No. 12 wire AWG (81mils). The
distance between wire centers is 10

199.

200.

inches. What is the characteristic


impedance of the line?
a. 650 ohms
b. 300 ohms
c. 600 ohms
d. 660 ohms
In the preceding problem, what is
the attenuation in dB per 100ft of the
line for a frequency of 4 MHz?
a. 0.05
b. 0.03
c. 0.04
d. 0.06
What is the SWR when a
transmission line is terminated in a
short circuit?
a. Zero
b. One
c. Infinite
d. indeterminate

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

1. Typical speech power


A. 10 to 1000 W
B. 100 to 1000 mW

7.

C. 10 to 1000 nW
D. 100 to 1000 pW
The maximum intelligibility for voice
frequency is located between
A. 250 and 500 Hz
B. 1000 and 3000 Hz
C. 500 and 1000 Hz
D. 3000 and 5000 Hz
The maximum voice energy is located
between
A. 250 and 500 Hz
B. 1000 and 3000 Hz
C. 500 and 1000 Hz
D. 3000 and 5000 Hz
A device used to measure speech
volume.
A. speech meter
B. volume meter
C. volume unit meter
D. speedometer
By definition, for a sine wave
A. 0 dBm = 0 V.U.
B. 0 dBW = 0 V.U.
C. 0 dBa = 0 V.U.
D. 0 dBf = 0 V.U.
Presently, this is the standard
frequency bandwidth for voice
transmission.
A. 0 to 4000 Hz
B. 100 to 3400 Hz
C. 300 to 3400 Hz
D. 300 to 3000 Hz
Which of the following is commonly
used wire for subscriber loop design?

A. AWG # 19
B. AWG # 18
C. AWG # 30
D. AWG # 33
8. The resistance limit for No. 2 Crossbar
Exchange (US) is
A. 1300
B. 2000
C. 1250
D. 1200
9. AWG # 26 has a typical loss of
A. 0.21 dB/1000 ft.
B. 0.32 dB/1000 ft.
C. 0.41 dB/1000 ft.
D. 0.51 dB/1000 ft.
10. What is the standard voice channel
spacing?
A. 44 MHz
B. 40 kHz
C. 4 kHz
D. 40 MHz
11. Which tester is used to measure SWR?
A. Multimeter
B. Oscilloscope
C. Spectrum analyzer
D. Reflectometer
12. What is singing?
A. The result of intermodulating two or
more signals of different frequencies
to produce a tone having a frequency
equal to the sum of the frequencies
of the signals intermodulated.
B. The result of intermodulating two or
more signals of different frequencies

to produce a tone having a frequency


higher than that of the signal having
the highest frequency.
C. An undesired self-sustained
oscillation in a system, generally
caused by excessive positive
feedback.
D. An art or form of entertainment that
can make one rich.
13. Which stage increases the selectivity of
the circuit in an AM receiver?
A. Detector
B. IF stage
C. Modulator
D. Mixer
14. The ________ of radio receiver amplify
weak signal and produce a desirable
intelligence at the output speaker.
A. sensitivity
B. selectivity
C. reliability
D. fidelity
15. Full-duplex transmission means
A. One-way transmission
B. 24-hour transmission
C. Broadcast transmission
D. Two-way simultaneous transmission
16. What is a multidrop line?
A. A piece of wire with a thick
insulating material that serves to
protect the conductive materials from
damage in the event the wire is
dropped.

B. A line designed to withstand high


pressure.
C. A line or circuit interconnecting
several situations.
D. A bus line
17. A passive _________ is an electronic
device which reduces signal strength by
a specified amount in dB.
A. Splitter
B. Filter
C. Trimmer
D. Attenuator
18. The signal quality of the calls is
constantly monitored by the base
station, when the quality of the calls
drops below a certain specified level.
The base request the MTSO to try and
find a better cell site.
A. Hand-off
B. Cell splitting
C. Roaming
D. Frequency reuse
19. A digital identification associated with
a cellular system.
A. SAT
B. SID
C. ESN
D. MIN
20. How many seconds does facsimile
transmit a stranded page?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 25

21. A kind of recording used in facsimile.


A. Electrolytic recording
B. Electrothermal recording
C. Electropercussive recording
D. Electrostatic recording
22. A type of distortion a facsimile produce
when it becomes out of
synchronization?
A. Pincushion
B. Barrel
C. Skewing
D. Fattening
23. What is an acoustic coupler?
A. A device that radiates audible signals
via a transmitting antenna
B. A device that converts electric
signals into audio signals, enabling
data to be transmitted over the public
telephone network via a conventional
telephone handset
C. A device that receives audible
signals and retransmits them at VHF
frequencies
D. A transducer
24. Cause a herringbone pattern in
facsimile
A. Single-frequency interference
B. Crosstalk
C. Phase jitter
D. Noise
25. The _______ in an FM receiver causes
a stronger signal to dominate over a
weaker signal on the same frequency.
A. Capture effect

B. Flywheel effect
C. Hall effect
D. Skin effect
26. A device that converts a 2-wire circuit
to a 4-wire circuit.
A. RS-232 interface
B. Hybrid circuit
C. Balun
D. Stub
27. ______ theory is deciding between a set
of hypothesis when given a collection
of imperfect measurements.
A. Estimation
B. Traffic
C. Decision
D. Nyquist
28. ______ of a data reduction says that
when reducing a set of data into the
form of an underlying mode, one
should be maximally non-committal
with respect to missing data.
A. Jaynes maximum entropy principle
B. Kullback principle of minimum
discrimination
C. Minimum discrimination\
D. Maximum entropy
29. _______ is selecting the best value of a
parameter from a continuum of possible
values when gives a collection if
imperfect measurements
A. Estimation
B. Traffic
C. Decision
D. Nyquist

30. Combination of madulator, channel,


and detector.
A. Transceiver
B. Transponder
C. T/R channel
D. Discrete channel
31. What is the frequency band of DECT?
A. 1.88 1.90 GHz
B. 1.68 1.70 GHz
C. 1.48 1.50 GHz
D. 1.28 1.30 GHz
32. How many simultaneous calls does
each DECT system can support?
A. 96
B. 12
C. 24
D. 49
33. How many simultaneous calls does a
DECT radio transceiver can assess at
any given time?
A. 120
B. 240
C. 480
D. 960
34. The AGC voltage of a radio receiver is
always _______.
A. Present before adjustments can be
made
B. DC, but may have either polarity
positive DC
C. Positive DC
D. Negative
35. What is a concentrator?

A. A system that improves the signalto-noise ratio by compressing the


volume range of a signal.
B. A device that varies the
characteristics of a carrier signal in
accordance with the waveform of a
modulating signal which contains
useful information
C. A switching system that lets a large
number of telephone or data
processing subscribers use a lesser
number of transmission lines or a
narrow bandwidth
D. Equipment in the central office.
36. If you find that an SAW filter output is
6 dB down from the input of a receiver
during test, ______
A. This is normal.
B. The device if faulty
C. The receiver is improperly
terminated
D. The filter is not resonating
37. A triple conversion superheterodyne
receiver, diode mixer stages are
A. Operated in the linear region
B. Operated in the nonlinear region
C. Operated as Class-A amplifiers
D. Operated as Class-B amplifiers
38. What is a leased line?
A. A piece of wire used in a local area
network in one building
B. A piece of wire connecting a
telephone set to a PABX

C. A temporary connection of one


computer to a mainframe via a
modern and a telephone line
D. A permanent circuit for a private
use within a communication
network
39. If two FM signals of different strengths
are received on the same frequency
A. One steady heterodyne will appear
in the AM output
B. Both will appear in the AF output
C. Only the stronger will appear in the
AF output
D. Neither signal will be intelligence
unless the weaker signal is at least
10 times
40. Cellular mobile system was first
operated in
A. 1979
B. 1981
C. 1983
D. 1985
41. TACS is a cellular system with ______
channels.
A. 666
B. 1000
C. 832
D. 200
42. Supervisory Audio Tone (SAT) has
_______ frequency.
A. 5960 Hz
B. 6000 Hz
C. 6040 Hz
D. 1004 z

43. What is the number of channels of a


cellular system with an allocated
spectrum of 25 MHz and with a channel
of 30 kHz bandwidth?
A. 833
B. 240
C. 1000
D. 666
44. GSSM uses what digital modulation
technique?
A. QAM
B. GFSK
C. BPSK
D. GMSK
45. What is the power output of Personal
Communication System (PCS)?
A. 10 mW
B. 75 mW
C. 150 mW
D. 10 W
46. RG-B8 cable has a loss of about
______ dB at cellular frequencies up to
15 ft. length.
A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 3
47. The signals designed to keep the
receivers and transmitters aligned.
A. Carrier frequencies
B. Pilot carrier signals
C. Synchronizing signals
D. Reference signals

48. If the spacing of a two-wire open air


transmission line is 12 inches and the
conductor diameter is 0.25 inch, the
characteristic impedance is
A. 547
B. 357
C. 273
D. 300
49. The impedance of the quarterwave
transformer used to match a 600 line
to a 300 load is
A. 382
B. 424
C. 565
D. 712
50. When a line and a load are match the
reflection coefficient is
A. Unity
B. Zero
C. Positive infinity
D. Negative infinity
51. When line is terminated in an open
circuit load, the reflection coefficient is
A. Unity
B. Zero
C. Positive infinity
D. Negative infinity
52. A 300 ohms line is terminated in a
resistance load of 200 ohms, the VSWR
is
A. 0.65
B. 1.5
C. Unity
D. Zero

53. If the reflection coefficient is 0.5, the


standing wave ratio is
A. 0.33
B. Unity
C. 3
D. Zero
54. To least the fault of the given line, a
signal is fed to the line, 30 s later the
signal returned. What is the distance of
the fault?
A. 9000 m
B. 300 m
C. 100 m
D. 4500 m
55. The telephone set is powered by the
central office on the ring side at
A. 42 to 52 Vdc
B. 42 to -52 Vdc
C. 24 to 64 Vdc
D. 24 to 64 Vdc
56. The telephone voice band frequency is
from
A. 300 to 4 kHz
B. 400 to 3400 Hz
C. 300 to 3400 Hz
D. 400 to 4 kHz
57. Which of the following wire is used to
transmit the signal?
A. Black
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Green
58. The corresponding frequency for digit 7
in the touch tone telephone is

A. 770 & 1477 Hz


B. 852 & 1209 Hz
C. 852 & 1336 Hz
D. 770 & 1336 Hz
59. The physical connection between the
telephone set and the switching
equipment is called the
A. Trunk line
B. Link
C. Subscriber loop
D. Leased line
60. What is the local loop of a telephone
system?
A. It is a two-wire or four-wire
communication circuit between the
customers premise and the central
office
B. It is a group of wires connecting a
telephone set to a modern
C. It is a four-wire circuit connecting a
facsimile machine to a computer
D. It is a single piece of wire
connecting the subscribers
telephone set to another set in an
adjacent room.
61. Which of the ff. equipment is used in
long loop design?
A. Dial long lines
B. Voice repeater
C. Loop range extender
D. All of the above
62. What is a two-wire circuit?

A. A circuit usually in the subscriber


loop, between the telephone set and
the local central office.
B. A circuit having only two terminals,
both terminals having the same
instantaneous voltage.
C. A circuit with one input terminal,
one output terminal, and a common
ground.
D. A circuit consisting of two
transmission lines.
63. 1 mW is equal to
A. 90 dBm
B. 0 dBm
C. -30 dBm
D. 120 dBm
64. Which of the following responds to the
request of a subscriber by sending a dial
tone?
A. Line finder
B. First selector
C. Connector
D. Line equipment
65. The other name of Class 2 office in the
North American Switching Plan.
A. Primary center
B. Section
C. Regional center
D. Toll points
66. A cell in the cellular telephone system
means
A. A power source
B. Small area
C. Large area

D. Service area
67. What is the linking point between cell
phone and regular telephone?
A. Base station
B. Control office
C. C.O.
D. MTSO
68. What is the typical power output of a
cellular phone?
A. 5 W
B. 10 W
C. 1 W
D. 3 W
69. When a single cell is divided into
smaller cells that process is called
A. Cell splitting
B. Cell division
C. Reuse
D. Cell sharing
70. The first cell shape is a square
A. Square
B. Circle
C. Rectangle
D. Triangle
71. In order to provide 100% coverage
without overlap, cellular telephone
system can use
A. Hexagon cell shape
B. Triangle
C. Rectangular
D. All of the above
72. What is the beamwidth of the reflector
of the receiving antenna in the base
station

A. 20 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 50 degrees
D. 60 degrees
73. A cellular phone operates on
A. Half duplex
B. Full duplex
C. Echoplex
D. Lincomplex
74. Cellular phones transmit in the band
from
A. 825 to 845 MHz
B. 835 to 855 MHz
C. 825 to 855 MHz
D. 825 to 865 MHz
75. Cell phone receives in the band from
A. 860 to 880 MHz
B. 870 to 890 MHz
C. 870 to 880 MHz
D. 860 to 890 MHz
76. What is the frequency separation
between the transmit and the receive
channels?
A. 30 MHz
B. 45 MHz
C. 55 MHz
D. 40 MHz
77. For channel 1, transmit/receive
frequency is
A. 825.030/870.030 MHz
B. 835.03/880.03 MHz
C. 825.015/870.015 MHz
D. 825.15/870.15 MHz

78. The number of transmit/receive


channels in the cellular system is
A. 625
B. 645
C. 655
D. 666
79. The transmission range of cellular
telephony is generally about
A. 80 km
B. 65 km
C. 160 km
D. 16 km
80. One of the following is not an
advantage of a cellular telephone
system
A. Privacy
B. Large service area
C. No interference
D. Mobility
81. When the message is transferred from
one cell site transmitter to another cell
site transmitter as the caller crosses a
boundary __________ process takes
place.
A. Shifting
B. Hand off
C. Give off
D. Turn over
82. What is the sensitivity of a cellular
receiver?
A. 20 dB
B. 40 dB
C. 50 dB
D. 60 dB

83. What is the frequency deviation of the


cellular telephone system?
A. 15 kHz
B. 30 kHz
C. 12 kHz
D. 75 kHz
84. Hailing channel is otherwise known as
A. Conversation channel
B. Calling channel
C. Signaling channel
D. Remote channel
85. What is an Erlang?
A. It is a unit of magnetic field
intensity measured around a
conductor
B. It is the number of erroneous bits
received per unit of time
C. It a unit of electrical energy radiated
in space.
D. It is equal to the number of
simultaneous calls originated during
a specific hourly period.
86. All of the cell base stations are linked
together by _______ which serves as
the central office and management node
for the group.
A. MTS
B. IMTS
C. MSTO
D. MTSO
87. Provides interface between the mobile
telephone switching office and the
mobile units.
A. Database

B. Cell site
C. Terrestrial link
D. Radio transmitter
88. A phone call over the cellular network
actually requires
A. Simplex channels
B. Half duplex channels
C. Full duplex channels
D. Full/full duplex
89. A method of expressing the amplitudes
of complex non-periodic signals such as
speech.
A. Volume
B. Pitch
C. Frequency
D. Wavelength
90. _______ is signal returned to the talker
after one or more round trips between
the talker and the listener.
A. Singing
B. Echo
C. Jitter
D. Crosstalk
91. ______ is a voice operated device that
inserts a high loss in the opposite
direction of transmission of the talking
party.
A. Hybrid
B. 2-wire circuit
C. Echo suppressor
D. VNL
92. _____ is picking up of the same station
at two nearby points on the receiver
dial.

A. Double spotting
B. Hot shot
C. Image frequency
D. Bail shot
93. When one channel picks up the signal
carried by another channel.
A. Echo
B. Crosstalk
C. Party line
D. Crosslink
94. What type of connector arrangement
wherein a customer may move to
another location and still retain the
same telephone number.
A. TPL
B. Bridge
C. TPS
D. Party line
95. It is an advantage of sidetone.
A. Transmission efficiency is increased
B. Speaker increase his voice resulting
in a strengthened signal
C. No dissipation of energy in the
balancing network
D. Assures the customer that the
telephone is working
96. Radio communications between points
using a single share frequency.
A. Simplex
B. Full duplex
C. Half-duplex
D. Full/full duplex

97. The transmission of information from


multiple sources occurring on the same
facility but not as the same time.
A. FDM
B. TDM
C. WDM
D. CDM
98. When human voice and music are
transmitted, the type of communication
employed is known as
A. Raditechnology
B. Audio frequency
C. Wired audio
D. Radiotelephony
99. Printed documents to be transmitted by
fax are converted into baseband electric
signal by the process of
A. Copying
B. Scanning
C. Modulation
D. Light variation
100.
What is the most commonly used
light sensor in a modern fax machine?
A. Phototube
B. Phototransistor
C. Liquid-crystal display
D. Charge couple device
101.
In FM fax, the frequencies for
black and white are ______ repectively.
A. 1500 and 2300 Hz
B. 2300 and 1500 Hz
C. 1300 and 2400 Hz
D. 1070 and 1270 Hz

102.
Which resolution produces the
best quality fax?
A. 96 lines per inch
B. 150 lines per inch
C. 200 lines per inch
D. 400 lines per inch
103.
Group 2 fax uses which
modulation?
A. SSB
B. FSK
C. Vestigial sideband AM
D. PSK
104.
The most widely used fax
standard is
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4
105.
Group 3 fax uses which
modulation?
A. QAM
B. ASK
C. PSK
D. GFSK
130.
Block calls held condition
specified the held probability at a time
period equal to an average holding
time.
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang C
C. Erlang D
D. Poisson
131.
What is an Echo?

A. A signal of the same amplitude but


180 degrees out of phase from the
original signal and mixed with the
original signal at the transmitter to
produce a more intelligible output
signal
B. A wave which has been reflected or
otherwise returned with the
sufficient magnitude and delay for it
to be perceptible in some manner as
a wave distinct from that directly
transmitted.
C. The signal having a higher
frequency than the original and
transmitted back to earth by a
passive satellite.
D. A reflected signal.
132.
What is the system used by
Personal Communication Network
(PCN)?
A. TACS
B. Modified GSM
C. AMPS
D. CDMA
133.
Termination refers to
A. Cutting both ends of a conductor
B. Disconnecting a line from a
transmitter
C. Looking back impedance of a line
with no load
D. Load connected to the output end of
a transmission line

134.
The multiple access used by
Digital European Cordless Telephone
(DECT)
A. CDMA
B. FDMA
C. TDMA
D. CDMA/FDMA
135.
Blocked calls delay condition
specified delay probability
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang C
C. Erlang D
D. Poisson
136.
Status information provided by
telephone signaling.
A. Busy tone, dial tone and ringing
B. Congestion and call charge data
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
137.
The modulation technique used
by DECT.
A. GFSK
B. ASK
C. QAM
D. PSK
138.
What is a four-wire circuit?
A. Is used between serving central
offices for long-distance
connections, with one pair being
used for each direction of
transmission.
B. Is a circuit with three output
terminals and one input terminal

C. Is an oscillator that produces four


different frequencies simultaneously
D. A circuit consisting of four
transmission lines.
139.
Cellular CDMA system uses
what modulation method?
A. GFSK
B. ASK
C. QAM
D. BPSK
140.
PABX means
A. Private All-purpose Broadcasting
Exchange
B. Private Automatic Branch
Exchange
C. Public Access Bi-directional
Exchange
D. Public Automatic Branch Exchange
141.
What is the voted cellular digital
standard at TIA?
A. Digital AMPS
B. GSM
C. CDMA
D. TACS
142.
What is the number of channels
for Band A and for Band B in Digital
AMPS
A. 832
B. 416
C. 666
D. 888
143.
The mobile-to-base frequency
assignment for GSM system is
A. 890-915 MHz

B. 935-960 MHz
C. 870-890 MHz
D. 825-845 MHz
144.
The range (in miles) of a cellular
CDMA system.
A. 13
B. 30
C. 45
D. 20
145.
In a cellular system, ________ is
used to measure the spectrum
efficiency.
A. Radio efficiency
B. Diversity
C. Frequency reuse
D. Radio capacity
146.
Which of the following echo is
completely out of control?
A. Worst echo
B. Reverberation
C. Singing
D. Feedback
147.
Which of the following devices
increase the battery voltage on a loop
and extends its signaling range?
A. Loop extender
B. VF repeater
C. VF amplifier
D. All of these
148.
Under ordinary circumstances,
the CCITT recommends that the
number of circuits in tandem must not
exceed
A. 9

C. baseband frequency
D. broadband frequency
5. Which test instrument displays the carrier
and the sidebands amplitude with frequency
to frequency?
A. oscilloscope
B. spectrum analyzer
C. frequency analyzer
D. amplitude analyzer
6. Mixer is also known as a ________.
A. modulator
B. suppressor
C. converter
D. beater
7. Which one of the following emission
transmits the lower sideband and half of the
upper sideband?
A. A5C
______ is the maximum sideband
B. J3E
suppression value using filter system.
C. A3J
A. 50 dB
D. A3H
B. 60 dB
8. An FM receives signal ______.
C. 40 dB
A. vary in amplitude with modulation
D. 30 dB
B. vary in frequency with modulation
_______ determines the number of sideband
C. vary in frequency and amplitude with
components in FM.
wideband modulation
A. carrier frequency
D. is not immune to noise
B. modulation frequency
9. The process of impressing intelligence on
C. modulation index
the carrier is called
D. deviation ratio
A. modulation
One of the following transmits only one
B. detection
sideband.
C. mixing
A. H3E
D. impression
B. R3E
10. ______ is an electronic instrument used to
C. A3E
show both the carrier and the sidebands of a
D. B8E
modulated signal in the frequency domain.
What produces the sidebands on FM?
A. spectrum analyzer
A. signal amplitude
B. oscilloscope
B. carrier harmonics
C. digital counter

B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
149.
What is the system capacity of
AMPS?
A. 30,000
B. 60,000
C. 100,000
D. 120,000
150.
NAM means
A. Non Alternable Memory
B. Numeric Allocation Module
C. Numeric Assignment Module
D. Numeric Access Module
Modulation Chapter 3
1.

2.

3.

4.

D. frequency counter
11. What part of the carrier is varied by the
intelligence during modulation in an AM
system?
A. phase
B. frequency
C. amplitude
D. both a and c
12. The difference between the RF carrier and
the modulating signal frequencies is called
the
A. USB
B. LSB
C. Sideband
D. Carrier frequency
13. What stage in a radio transmitter isolates the
oscillator from the load?
A. Oscillator
B. Buffer
C. Separator
D. Mixer
14. The frequency of the unmodulated carrier in
FM system is
A. modulating frequency
B. center frequency
C. carrier frequency
D. deviation frequency
15. The ratio of maximum deviation to the
maximum modulating frequency is called
A. carrier swing
B. deviation ratio
C. modulation factor
D. modulation index
16. A carrier signal has
A. constant amplitude
B. a frequency of 20 kHz and above
C. a varying amplitude
D. the information content

17. The modulated peak value of a signal is 125


V and the unmodulated carrier value is 85
V. What is the modulation index?
A. 0.47
B. 0.68
C. 0.32
D. 1.47
18. An 891 kHz carrier having an amplitude of
80 V is modulated by a 4.5 kHz audio signal
having an amplitude of 45 V. The
modulation factor is
A. 0.56
B. 0.65
C. 1.78
D. 1.25
19. What is the modulation index of an FM
signal having a carrier swing of 75 kHz
when the modulating signal has frequency of
3 kHz?
A. 25
B. 12.5
C. 0.04
D. 0.08
20. In a FM system, if modulation index is
doubled by having the modulating
frequency, what will be the effect on the
maximum deviation?
A. No effect
B. Maximum deviation doubles
C. Decreases by
D. Increases by
21. Which of the following is considered as an
indirect method of generating FM?
A. Reactance modulator
B. Balanced modulator
C. Varactor diode modulator
D. Armstrong system
22. To generate an SSB or DSB signal one must
use a circuit known as

A. filter modulator
B. ring modulator
C. balanced modulator
D. reactance modulator
23. Which is the first radio receiver?
A. TRF receiver
B. Superheterodyne receiver
C. Crystal radio receiver
D. Heterodyne receiver
24. An interfering signal with a frequency equal
to the received signal plus twice the IF is
called
A. image frequency
B. center frequency
C. rest frequency
D. interference frequency
25. Double sideband full carrier emission type
A. A3J
B. H3E
C. R3A
D. A3E
26. Single sideband reduced carrier emission
type
A. H3E
B. R3E
C. J3E
D. B8E
27. A single sideband suppressed carrier
emission type.
A. H3e
B. R3E
C. J3E
D. B8E
28. Independent sideband emission type
A. H3E
B. R3E
C. J3E
D. B8E
29. Vestigial sideband emission type

A. C3F
B. J3E
C. R3E
D. B8E
30. Single sideband full carrier emission type.
A. R3E
B. H3E
C. J3E
D. B8E
31. Phase modulation emission type.
A. F3E
B. F3C
C. F3F
D. G3E
32. Which one is not an advantage of SSB over
AM?
A. Power saving
B. Requires half the bandwidth
C. Wider area of reception
D. Better fidelity
33. The advantage of a high level modulated
AM transmitter is
A. Less audio power required
B. Better fidelity
C. Higher value of operating power
D. Less distortion
34. The advantage of a low-level modulated AM
transmitter is
A. Less audio power required
B. Better fidelity
C. Higher value of operating power
D. Less distortion
35. _____ is the bad effect caused by
overmodulation in AM transmission.
A. Increase in noise
B. Deviation in the operating frequency
C. Interface to other radio services
D. Decrease in the output power

36. Which characteristic of a radio receiver


refers to its ability to reject an unwanted
signal?
A. Sensitivity
B. Selectivity
C. Fidelity
D. Quality
37. What type of emission is frequency
modulation?
A. F3E
B. G3E
C. A3E
D. B3E
38. AM transmission power increases with
________.
A. Frequency
B. Source
C. Load
D. Modulation
39. _______ locks the FM receiver to a stronger
signal.
A. Hall effect
B. Capture effect
C. Image frequency
D. Homing
40. What is the highest percentage of
modulation for AM?
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 100%
D. 80%
41. In FM, the Carsons Rule states that the
bandwidth is equal to twice the sum of the
modulating frequency and ______.
A. Carrier signal
B. Modulating signal
C. Frequency deviation
D. Image frequency

42. What is the carrier swing of an FM


transmitter when modified by 75%?
A. 53.2 kHz
B. 48 kHz
C. 56.25 kHz
D. 112.5 kHz
43. The modulation system inherently more
resistant to noise
A. Single sideband suppressed carrier
B. Frequency modulation
C. Pulse-position modulation
D. Amplitude shift keying
44. Subcarriers that are arranged so that the
channels occupying adjacent frequency
bands with some frequency space between
them is known as
A. Guard bands
B. AM bands
C. Band gap
D. Void band
45. Modulation of an RF amplifier carrier
results in
A. Multiple channels
B. Smaller antennas
C. Directional propagation
D. All of the above
46. A process which occurs in the transmitter
A. Mixing
B. Modulation
C. Heterodyning
D. Demodulation
47. A process which occurs in the receiver
A. Beating
B. Modulation
C. Mixing
D. Demodulation
48. One part of the transmitter that protects the
crystal oscillator from pulling.
A. Buffer amplifier

B. Modulator
C. Power amplifier
D. Antenna coupler
49. What aspect of the carrier is changed by
modulation?
A. Frequency
B. Phase
C. Amplitude
D. Depends on the type of modulation
50. The amplitude of a sine wave which is
modulated by a musical program will
A. Be complex
B. Contain fundamental frequencies
C. Contain harmonic frequencies
D. All of the above
51. What will be the result of the gain level
being too high for signals entering the
modulator?
A. Receiver noise
B. Excessive volume of receiver output
C. Oscillator disturbances
D. Distortion and splatter
52. Amplitude modulation causes the amount of
transmitter power to
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. Double
53. When a carrier is modulated 100%, the total
power increases by what percentage over
that of the carrier alone?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
54. When the amplitude of the modulating
voltage is increased for AM, the antenna
current will
A. Increase

B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. Decrease exponentially
55. An increase in transmitter power from 25W
to 30W will cause the antenna current to
increase from 700mA to
A. 800 mA
B. 750 mA
C. 767 mA
D. 840 mA
56. A second modulating tone having the same
amplitude but a different frequency is added
to the first at the input to the modulator. The
modulation index will be increased by a
factor of
A.
B.
C. 2
D. 3
57. A 1000 kHz carrier is modulated by a
2500Hz tone. One frequency component of
the modulated signal is
A. 1200 Hz
B. 5000 Hz
C. 1002.5 kHz
D. 2500 Hz
58. A 1200 kHz carrier is amplitude-modulated
by two tones of 500 Hz and 700 Hz. Which
one is a frequency component of the
modulated wave?
A. 1195 kHz
B. 1199.3 kHz
C. 1199.7 kHz
D. 1205 kHz
59. Identify a modulation method, or methods in
use for a common-emitter configuration
A. Base modulation
B. Emitter modulation

C. Collector modulation
D. Both A and C
60. The RF signal injected into a balanced
modulator is 10MHz and the modulating
frequency is 1 kHz. Which frequency, or
frequencies, will not appear in the output?
A. 9.999 MHz
B. 10 MHz
C. 10.0001 MHz
D. Both A and B
61. Unwanted sidebands in SSB equipment can
be suppressed by one or more of the
following methods.
A. Phasing method
B. Filter method
C. Decoder method
D. Both A and B
62. Envelope detection is concerned with the
process of
A. Mixing
B. Heterodyning
C. Modulation
D. Rectification
63. Diagonal clipping in envelope detection will
result in
A. Distortion
B. Phase reversal
C. Reduced sensitivity
D. Amplitude damage
64. Product detection requires the process of
A. Rectification
B. Heterodyning
C. Decoding
D. Phase shifting
65. A sine wave which is coherent with carrier
has identical
A. Amplitude
B. Frequency
C. Phase angle

D. Both B and C
66. Frequency modulation and phase
modulation are collectively referred to as
A. Stereo
B. Angle modulation
C. High fidelity modulation
D. FCC modulation
67. In FM, the change in carrier frequency is
proportional to what attribute of the
modulating signal?
A. Angle
B. Frequency
C. Amplitude
D. Tone
68. A louder sound, when generating the
modulating waveform for FM, will cause a
greater
A. Carrier amplitude
B. Angle amplitude
C. Distortion at the receiver
D. Frequency deviation
69. If a positive change in modulation signal
level of 200 mW will cause a positive
frequency deviation of 10 kHz, what will be
the frequency deviation for a negative
change of 10 mV in the level of the
modulating signals?
A. 0
B. -5 kHz
C. +5 kHz
D. +0 kHz
70. A particular 15 kHz modulation tone results
in a peak frequency deviation of 75 kHz.
What is the modulation index?
A. 5
B. 15
C. 75
D. 3

71. A 15 kHz sine wave frequency modulates an


88 MHz carrier. A sideband frequency will
be found at
A. 87.970 MHz
B. 87.985 MHz
C. 88.015 MHz
D. All of these
72. A device whose capacitance is deliberately
made to be a function of the applied voltage
A. Varactor diode
B. UJT
C. SAW
D. Variable capacitor
73. A reactance modulator is one method of
obtaining
A. Indirect FM
B. Direct FM
C. Demodulation
D. Low frequency filtering
74. A device, now available in IC form, is useful
for direct FM and as one element in the
phse-locked loop.
A. AFC
B. AGC
C. VCO
D. LPF
75. _____ is a frequency change process,
whereby the phase deviation and frequency
deviation are multiplied by some fixed
constant.
A. Translation
B. Multiplication
C. Division
D. Addition
76. A circuit that has the function of
demodulating the frequency-modulated
signal.
A. AFC
B. Envelope detector

C. Decoder
D. Foster-Seeley discriminator
77. The ratio detector is superior to the slope
detector because
A. It is less sensitive to phase modulation
B. It is less sensitive to noise spikes
C. It is less sensitive to interference
causing AM
D. Both B and C
78. One implementation of a pulse averaging
discriminator is
A. A free-running multivibrator
B. A crystal-controlled oscillator
C. A quartz crystal filter
D. A triggered multivibrator
79. A 10% increase in the frequency of a
constant-width pulse train should cause what
change in its average value?
A. -10%
B. -1%
C. +1%
D. +10%
80. Two different signals can be coherent if they
A. Have the same amplitude
B. Are both sine waves of different
frequencies
C. Originate in the same physical
equipment simultaneously
D. Have the same frequency
81. A quadrature detector requires that
A. Four gates bee provided
B. The inputs are coherent
C. The inputs are incoherent
D. The inputs are identical
82. In a phase-locked loop, the VCO is the
abbreviation for
A. Variable coherent output
B. VHF communication oscillator
C. Voltage-controlled oscillator

D. Vien-count oscillator (neutralized)


83. Identify an advantage, or advantages of a
properly designed FM system.
A. Relative immunity to atmospheric noise
(lightning)
B. Reduced bandwidth required
C. No noise of any kind
D. The noise figure is inversely
proportional to the modulation index
84. The output of a balanced modulator
A. LSB and USB
B. LSB
C. USB
D. Carrier
85. If the modulation index of an AM wave is
changed from 0 to 1, the transmitted power
is
A. Unchanged
B. Halved
C. Doubled
D. Increased by 50%
86. Which of the following is not a baseband
signal of modulation?
A. Audio signal
B. Video signal
C. RF carrier
D. Binary coded pulses
87. If the unmodulated level peak carrier
amplitude is doubled in an AM signal, the
perfect modulation is ________.
A. 20
B. 50
C. 100
D. 200
88. Balanced modulator circuit when inserted in
the equivalent suppresses the ___________
A. Carrier
B. Upper sideband
C. Lower sideband

D. Baseband signal
89. The carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave
is suppressed, the percentage power saving
is __.
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 83%
D. 66.66%
90. If the modulation index if an AM wave is
doubled, the antenna current is also doubled,
the AM system being used is
A. H3E
B. J3E
C. C3F
D. A3E
91. 100% modulation in AM means a
corresponding increase in total power by
_______.
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 25%
92. A single-tone amplitude modulated wave
has _______.
A. 2 components
B. 3 components
C. 4 components
D. 2n + 1 components
93. A carrier signal has ________.
A. Constant peak amplitude
B. Frequency range of 20 20,000 Hz
C. A varying amplitude
D. The information
94. The modulating system is _________ if the
modulating frequency is doubled, the
modulation index is halved, and the
modulating voltage remains constant.
A. Amplitude modulation
B. Phase modulation

C. Frequency modulation
D. Pulse modulation
95. What is the modulation index of an FM
signal if its modulating frequency is
doubled?
A. No effect
B. Twice the original index
C. Four times the original index
D. One-half the original index
96. An AM transmitter is rated 1000 W at 100%
modulation. How much power required for
the carrier?
A. 1000 W
B. 666.6 W
C. 333.3 W
D. 866.6 W
97. Standard way of designating AM
A. A3E
B. B3E
C. AHE
D. C3F
98. _____ is the circuit used to detect frequency
modulated signal.
A. Discriminator
B. Modulator
C. Modem
D. Detector
99. _____ is an information signal that is sent
directly without modulating any carrier.
A. C-band
B. Q-band
C. Baseband
D. Broadband
100. Both frequency and phase modulation
utilize ______ modulation.
A. Digital
B. Phase
C. Amplitude
D. Angle

101. It is the width of frequencies within the


spectrum occupied by a signal and used by
the signal for conveying information.
A. Band
B. Bandwidth
C. Electronic spectrum
D. Frequency band
102. Which transmit only one sideband?
A. H3E
B. C3F
C. A3E
D. B8E
103. ______ is kind of modulation in which
the modulated wave is always present.
A. Carrier modulation
B. Continuous modulation
C. Log-periodic modulation
D. Square-wave modulation
104. A type of modulation in which no signal
is present between pulses.
A. Pulse modulation
B. FSK
C. QAM
D. PAM
105. What describes the amount of amplitude
change present in an AM waveform?
A. Percent modulation
B. Modulation constant
C. Envelope of modulation
D. Coefficient of modulation
106. _______ is a form of amplitude
distortion introduced when the positive and
negative alternations in the AM modulated
signals are not equal.
A. Envelope distortion
B. Spurious emission
C. Carrier shift
D. Johnson noise

107. What is the advantage of phase


modulation over direct FM frequency
modulation?
A. Multipliers can be used
B. The deviation is smaller
C. Simplicity and practicality
D. The oscillator is crystal-controlled
108. If the spectrum is shifted in frequency
with no other changes, this is known as
A. Frequency multiplication
B. Sideband movement
C. Baseband reorientation
D. Frequency translation
109. A device which is capable of causing
frequency translation
A. High-Q tank circuit
B. Balanced modulator
C. Low-Q tank circuit
D. IF strip
110. If the frequency of each component in a
signal spectrum is increased by the same
fixed amount, this known as
A. Modulation
B. Frequency translation
C. Up conversion
D. Both B and C
111. A particular amplifier is designed to be a
frequency doubler. If the input signal
frequency is 15.4 MHz, a circuit in the
output will be tuned to
A. 7.7 MHz
B. 15.4 MHz
C. 30.8 MHz
D. 61.6 MHz
112. A sine wave of 293 MHz is phasemodulated to achieve a maximum phase
deviation of 0.2 radian. After passing
through a frequency tripler, the maximum
phase deviation will be

A.
B.
C.
D.

0.2 radian
0.3 radian
0.4 radian
0.6 radian
113. Any device to be used as a frequency
multiplier must be
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Linear
D. Nonlinear
114. A particular amplifier circuit used for
frequency doubling.
A. Push-push
B. Push-pull
C. Pull-push
D. Pull-pull
115. Frequency division is useful in the
implementation of a
A. AM demodulator
B. Frequency synthesizer
C. AGC circuit
D. FM demodulator
116. Frequency division by 12 will require
how many flip-flops in the counter?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 12
117. Identify an electronic device, not
specifically designed for the purpose, which
can be used as a phase detector.
A. Wien bridge
B. Colpitts oscillator
C. Balanced modulator
D. Butterworth filter
118. A particular frequency synthesizer
contains only a single crystal. What words
describe this synthesizer?
A. Crystal modulated

B. Inexact
C. Indirect
D. Deficient
119. A recognizable feature of a CW
transmitter is
A. Keyed transmitter
B. Power amplification
C. Frequency generation
D. All of these
120. The term pulling refers to
A. The change of the crystal oscillator
frequency by loading
B. One half-cycle operation of a push-pull
amplifier
C. Loading on the transmitter caused by
the antenna connection
D. Reduction of the power supply terminal
voltage as the transmitter is keyed.
121. When frequency modulation is achieved
by initial phase modulation, this is called
A. Angular modulation
B. Direct FM
C. Indirect FM
D. Indirect synthesis
122. A disadvantage of direct FM is the need
for
A. AGC
B. AFC
C. A frequency synthesizer
D. Phase modulation
123. Direct FM can be achieved by
A. A reactance tube modulator
B. A varactor diode
C. And AGC circuit
D. Both A and B
124. A receiver in which all RF amplifier
stages require manual tuning to the desired
RF is called
A. Superheterodyne

B. Autodyne
C. TRF
D. AFC
125. Why is it often necessary to precede the
demodulator by amplifier stages in a
receiver?
A. To improve fidelity
B. To reduce receiver noise
C. To eliminate image response
D. Weak antenna signals
126. A serious disadvantage of the TRF
receiver.
A. Bandwidth variations over the tuning
range
B. The weight and cost
C. The requirements for a closely
regulated power supply
D. The requirements for a half-wave
antenna
127. Identify which is not a part of a
superheterodyne receiver.
A. Local oscillator
B. Modulator
C. IF amplifier
D. Demodulator
128. Which major element will not be found
in every superheterodyne receiver?
A. RF amplifier
B. Mixer
C. Local oscillator
D. IF amplifier
129. Which major element of a
superheterodyne receiver must be nonlinear?
A. R-F amplifier
B. Mixer
C. Local oscillator
D. IF amplifier

130. The change of the modulated carrier


frequency from the original RF to the IF of
the superheterodyne receiver is known as
A. Frequency multiplication
B. Frequency allocation
C. Frequency substitution
D. Frequency translation
131. The key to achieving receiver sensitivity
is the reduction of
A. Image response
B. Mixer harmonic products
C. Spurious frequency response
D. Internal noise
132. Which of the following receiver design
objectives is not impossible?
A. Elimination of galactic noise
B. Elimination of atmospheric noise
C. Elimination of man-made noise
D. Reduction of receiver internal noise
133. In comparing the S/N ratio for the input
to the receiver with the S/N ratio for the
output, the latter is
A. Smaller
B. The same
C. Greater
D. Infinite
134. The characteristic of a receiver that
specifies the self-generated noise.
A. Noise immunity
B. Noise factor
C. Noise figure
D. Noise margin

135. An FM receiver with an I-F of 10.7 MHz


is tuned to 98.7 MHz. What is the numerical
value of the image frequency?
A. 77.3 MHz
B. 88.0 MHz
C. 109.4 MHz
D. 120.1 MHz
136. A source of RF interference exists at
109.9 MHz. For which frequency in the FM
broadcast band will this be the image
frequency?
A. 21.4 MHz
B. 88.5 MHz
C. 99.2 MHz
D. 110.7 MHz
137. The ratio of the superheterodyne
receiver response at the desired carrier
frequency to that at the image frequency is
called
A. The sensitivity
B. The selectivity
C. The image frequency
D. The image rejection ratio
138. The core of an IF transformer usually
contains
A. Teflon
B. Computer nylon
C. Powdered iron
D. Laminated steel
139. Shape factor is a measure of
A. Bandwidth
B. Skirt steepness
C. Coupling coefficient
D. Critical coupling

140. _______ is the function which tends to


maintain the sound volume level of a voice
receiver nearly constant for a large signal
strength range.
A. Squelch
B. Muting
C. AGC
D. AFC
141. The function which tends to silence the
receiver in the absence of transmitted
carrier.
A. Squelch
B. Muting
C. AGC
D. AFC
142. What device is incorporated in a
communications receiver to reduce impulse
noise?
A. Front-end processor
B. Squelch circuit
C. AGC
D. Noise blanker
143. What type of signal in which a receiver
selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the I-F circuitry is
optimum?
A. FM voice
B. Double-sideband AM voice
C. FSK data
D. SBB voice
144. If the input to a detector stage is an
amplitude-modulated (A3E) IF signal then
the output from the stage is
A. A lower frequency carrier
B. The audio voice information

C. A Morse-code signal
D. The upper or lower set of sidebands
145. In a capacitive type, reactance-tube
modulator connected across an oscillator
tuned circuit, a more negative voltage on the
grid of the reactance tube will cause
A. An increase of the oscillator frequency
B. An decrease of oscillator frequency
C. An increase of the reactance-tube
capacitance
D. An increase of the reactance tube ac
plate current
146. The limiting condition for sensitivity in a
communications receiver is
A. The noise floor of the receiver
B. Power supply output ripple
C. The two-tone intermodulation distortion
D. The input impedance to the detector
147. When a communications receiver is
tuned to a strong signal, the AGC bias is
measured and found to be zero. The fault
cannot be caused by a/an
A. Defective IF stage
B. Defective local oscillator
C. Defective RF stage
D. Open circuit in the AGCs filter
capacitor
148. The term used to refer to the condition
where the signals from a very strong station
are superimposed on other signals being
received
A. Cross-modulation interference
B. Intermodulation interference
C. Receiver quieting

D. Capture effect
149. The limiter stage of an FM receiver
A. Behaves as a low-pass filter
B. Limits the amplitude of the IF signal to
the required level
C. Behaves as a high-pass filter
D. Behaves as a bandstop filter
150. Motorboating (low-frequency
oscillations) in an amplifier can be stopped
by
A. Grounding the screen grid
B. Connecting a capacitor between the B+
and lead ground
C. By passing the screen grid resistor with
a 0.1 F capacitor
D. Grounding the plate
151. An effect in which, the modulation of an
unwanted signal is transferred to the desired
carrier.
A. Crossmodulation
B. Intermodulation
C. Modulation mixing
D. Image-channel interference
152. Leads should be kept as short as possible
in radio circuit so that
A. Skin effect is reduced
B. There is less hysteresis effect
C. There is less dielectric loss
D. Stray coupling is minimized
153. The number of voice transmissions that
can be packed into a given frequency band
for amplitude-compandored single-sideband
systems over conventional FM-phone
systems.

A.
B.
C.
D.

2
18
16
4
154. Neutralization of an RF amplifier stage
can be necessary in order to
A. Increase the amplifiers gain
B. Prevent the generation of spurious
oscillations
C. Reduce the amplifiers gain
D. Reduce the level of the output
harmonics
155. The ability of a communications receiver
to perform well in the presence of strong
signals outside the band of interest is
indicated by what parameter?
A. Blocking dynamic range
B. Noise figure
C. Signal-to-noise ratio
D. Audio output
156. Stages that are common to both AM and
FM receivers
A. Tuner, local oscillator, detector, AF
amplifier
B. RF amplifier, mixer, IF amplifier, AF
amplifier
C. Local oscillator, RF amplifier,
frequency discriminator, detector
D. Tuner, IF amplifier, detector, AF amp
157. Occurs during CW reception if too
narrow a filter bandwidth is used in the IF
stage of a receiver
A. Filter ringing

B. Undesired signals will reach the audio


stage
C. Output-offset overshoot
D. Cross-modulation distortion
158. What stage mainly determines a
communication receivers sensitivity?
A. IF amplifier
B. Mixer stage
C. Detector stage
D. RF amplifier
159. What is the main advantage of FM over
AM?
A. Better signal-to-noise-ratio
B. Narrower bandwidth
C. Greater propagation range
D. Total freedom from adjacent-channel
interference
160. An amplitude modulation created in an
amplifier before the final RF stage.
A. Low-level modulation
B. High-level modulation
C. Direct modulation
D. Indirect modulation
161. Receiver desensitizing can be reduced
by
A. Increasing the transmitter audio gain
B. Decreasing the receiver squelch gain
C. Increasing the receiver bandwidth
D. Ensuring good RF shielding between
the transmitter
162. In a narrow-band FM system, the
deviation ratio is commonly one and the
highest audio frequency is generally limited
to

A.
B.
C.
D.

300 Hz
10,000 Hz
3,000 Hz
7,500 Hz
163. A type of emission is produced when an
amplitude modulated transmitter is
modulated by a facsimile signal
A. A3F
B. F3F
C. A3C
D. F3C
164. Where is the noise generated which
primarily determines the signal to noise ratio
in a VHF (150 MHz) marine band receiver?
A. In the detector
B. In the atmosphere
C. In the ionosphere
D. In the receiver front end
165. Cross-modulation in a receiver can be
reduced by
A. Installing a filter at the receiver
B. Using a filter at the receiver
C. Increasing the receivers RF gain while
decreasing the AF
D. Adjusting the pass-band tuning
166. What is the emission designation for FM
telephony?
A. F3E
B. G3E
C. J3E
D. H3E
167. What is the cause of receiver
desensitizing?

A. The presence of a strong signal on a


nearby frequency
B. Audio gain adjusted too low
C. Squelch gain adjusted too high
D. Squelch gain adjusted too low
168. In a phase-modulated signal (indirect
FM), the frequency deviation is directly
proportional to the
A. Carrier amplitude only
B. Amplitude of the modulating tone and
frequency of the carrier
C. Carrier frequency only
D. Modulating signal amplitude only
169. An RF stage precedes the mixer stage in
a superhet receiver. One advantage of
including this RF stage is
A. Better selectivity
B. Better rejection ratio
C. Greater sensitivity
D. Improved signal-to-noise-ratio
170. Two factors that determine the
sensitivity of a receiver.
A. Dynamic range and third-order
intercept
B. Cost and availability
C. Bandwidth and noise figure
D. Intermodulation distortion and dynamic
range
171. What is an undesirable effect of using
too-wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section
of a receiver?
A. Undesired signals will reach the audio
stage
B. Output-offset overshoot

C. Thermal-noise distortion
D. Filter ringing
172. A system containing a limiter stage, a
discriminator, and a de-emphasis circuit?
A. Direct FM transmitter
B. Indirect FM transmitter
C. Single sideband AM receiver
D. FM receiver
173. The limiter stage of an FM receiver
A. Prevents any amplitude modulation of
the IF signal
B. Limits the amount of frequency
deviation in the IF signal
C. Limits the overall bandwidth of the IF
stages
D. Corrects any deviation in carrier
frequency
174. High selectivity occurs when the degree
of coupling between a receivers RF stages
is
A. Tight
B. Loose
C. Critical
D. Adjusted for maximum power transfer
175. A carrier is phase modulated by a test
tone. If the amplitude and the frequency of
the tone are both doubled, the amount of the
deviation is
A. Doubled
B. Unchanged
C. Halved
D. Multiplied by four
176. The degree of selectivity desirable in the
IF circuitry of a single-sideband receiver.

A.
B.
C.
D.

1 kHz
2.4 kHz
4.2 kHz
4.8 kHz
177. The component most apt to break down
in the radio circuit is the
A. Crystal
B. Resistor
C. Transformer
D. Diode
178. The base in an RF amplifier is grounded
in order to
A. Avoid the requirement of neutralizing
the stage
B. Raise the input impedance
C. Lower the output impedance
D. Obtain maximum power output
179. The AM detector performs two basic
functions in the receiver.
A. Rectifies and filters
B. Amplifiers and filters
C. Buffer and amplifier
D. Buffer and detector
180. A varactor diode can be used in a/an
A. Direct FM modulator circuit
B. AFC circuit in a direct FM transmitter
C. Phase-modulator circuit
D. All of these
181. Receiver interference is not reduced by
including a/an
A. Crystal filter
B. Insulating enclosures around the
receiver
C. Wave trap

D. RF stage
182. What is the emission C3F?
A. RTTY
B. SSB
C. Television
D. Modulated CW
183. What is the approximate dc input power
to a class AB RF power amplifier stage in an
unmodulated carrier transmitter when the
PEP output is 500 W?
A. Approximately 1000 W
B. Approximately 800 W
C. Approximately 250 W
D. Approximately 600 W
184. Which of the following stages in an FM
receiver is responsible for drastically
reducing the effect of static noise during the
reception of a signal
A. De-emphasis circuit
B. Mixer stage
C. Squelch circuit
D. Limiter stage
185. The letters SSSC stands for
A. Single sideband, single carrier
B. Suppressed sideband, single channel
C. Suppressed sideband, single carrier
D. Single sideband, suppressed carrier
186. For many types of voices, what is the
ratio of PEP-to-average power during a
modulation peak in a single-sideband phone
signal?
A. Approximately 1.0 to 1
B. Approximately 25 to 1
C. Approximately 100 to 1

D. Approximately 2.5 to 1
187. In most mixers, the oscillator frequency
is ______ than the carrier frequency of the
input signal.
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. The same
D. 10 kHz above
188. Features of a transmitters buffer stage
include
A. High stage
B. Harmonic generation
C. Improvement in frequency stability of
the oscillator
D. Low input impedance
189. Type of emission produced when an
amplitude modulated transmitter is
modulated by a television signal
A. F3F
B. A3C
C. F3C
D. A3F
190. A network is
A. A network consisting entirely of four
inductors or four capacitors
B. A power incidence network
C. An antenna matching network that is
isolated from ground
D. A network consisting of one inductor
and two capacitors
191. How is G3E FM-phone signals
produced?
A. A network consisting modulator on the
audio amplifier

B. With a reactance modulator on the final


amplifier
C. With a reactance modulator on the
oscillator
D. With a balanced modulator on the
oscillator
192. A way of eliminating auto interference
to radio reception
A. Installing resistive spark plugs
B. Installing capacitive spark plugs
C. Installing resistors in series with the
spark plugs
D. Installing two copper-braid ground
strips
193. The carrier in an AM transmitter is the
A. Transmitters output signal when the
modulation is present
B. Transmitters output signal when the
modulation is zero
C. Output signal from the crystal oscillator
D. RMS value of the AM signal
194. What stage feeds the discriminator of an
FM receiver?
A. Local oscillator
B. Mixer stage
C. Final IF amplifier, which also acts as a
limiter stage
D. Buffer
195. In an FM receiver, the stage that has the
IF signal is input and the audio signal
output.
A. Limiter
B. Audio amplifier
C. IF amplifier

D. Discriminator
196. What is capture effect?
A. All signals on a frequency are
demodulated by an FM receiver
B. The loudest signal received is the only
demodulated signal
C. All signals on a frequency are
demodulated by an AM receiver
D. The weakest signal received is the only
demodulated signal
197. A double-sideband phone signal can be
generated by
A. Feeding a phase-modulated signal into
a low-pass filter
B. Modulating the plate voltage of a classC amplifier
C. Using a balanced modulator followed
by a filter
D. Detuning a Hartley oscillator
198. Pre-emphasis is used in FM transmitters
to improve the signal-to-noise ratio of
A. High modulating frequencies
B. Low modulating frequencies
C. All modulating frequencies
D. Frequencies carrier
199. The result of cross-modulation is that
A. The modulation of an unwanted signal
is heard on the desired signal
B. A decrease in modulation level of
transmitted signals
C. Of receiver quieting
D. Of inverting sidebands in the final stage
of the amplifier

200. Which of the following contains deemphasis circuit?


A. FM transmitter
B. FM receiver
C. VHF transmitter
D. VHF receiver
201. What is emission F3F?
A. AM
B. Facsimile
C. Television
D. RTTY
202. What type of emission is produced when
a frequency modulated transmitter is
modulated by a facsimile signal?
A. F3C
B. A3C
C. F3F
D. A3F
203. Two AM transmitting antennas are close
together. As a result the two modulated
signals are mixed in the final RF stage of
both transmitters. What is the resultant
effect on other station?
A. Harmonic interference
B. Intermodulation interference
C. Spurious interference
D. Crossmodulation interference
204. The term used to refer to the reduction of
receiver gain caused by the signal of a
nearby station transmitter in the same
frequency band?
A. Quieting
B. Cross-modulation interference
C. Squelch gain rollback

D. Desensitizing
205. What is the bandwidth occupied by the
carrier, both sidebands and harmonics?
A. Authorized bandwidth
B. Bandwidth of emission and occupied
bandwidth
C. Operating bandwidth
D. All of these
206. A class-C RF amplifier is collector
amplitude modulated and its average dc
level collector current does not change. This
means
A. A normal condition
B. Excessive drive to the base
C. Insufficient drive to the base
D. Insufficient audio modulation
207. What determines the percentage
modulation of an FM transmitter?
A. Amplitude of the carrier
B. Modulating frequency
C. Carrier frequency
D. Amplitude of the modulating signal
208. Deviation ratio of an FM transmitter is
the ratio of the
A. Maximum frequency swing to the
highest modulating frequency
B. Operating frequency of the assigned
frequency
C. Frequency swing to the modulating
frequency
D. Highest modulating frequency to the
minimum frequency
209. The main purpose of the beat frequency
oscillator (BFO) is to generate

A. A 1 kHz not for Morse reception


B. Aid in the reception of weak voicemodulated signals
C. An output, whose frequency differs
from the IF by 1 kHz
D. A signal, whose frequency is the same
as intermediate frequency
210. Normally, a linear class BRF power
amplifier operates with a bias approximately
equal to
A. Twice cut-off
B. Ten times cut-off value
C. 50% of cut-off value
D. Projected cut-off
211. The purpose why an RF amplifier is
operated under linear class-B conditions (as
opposed to class-C) is to
A. Generate only even harmonics
B. Generate only odd harmonics
C. Increase the efficiency
D. Amplify of an AM signal
212. The term used to refer to the condition
where the signal from a very strong station
are superimposed on other signal being
received.
A. Cross-modulation interference
B. Intermodulation distoriotion
C. Receiver quieting
D. Capture effect
213. _________ is the amplitude of the
maximum negative excursion of a signal as
viewed on an oscilloscope.
A. Peak-to-peak voltage
B. Inverse peak positive voltage

C. RMS voltage
D. Peak negative voltage
214. The type of emission that suffer most
from selective fading.
A. CW and SSB
B. SSB and TV
C. FM and double sideband AM
D. SSTV and CW
215. In an FM-phone signal, ________ is the
ratio between the actual frequency deviation
to the maximum frequency deviation.
A. FM compressibility
B. Modulating index
C. Percentage of modulation
D. Quieting index
216. _______ is used to refer to the reception
blockage of one FM-phone signal by another
FM-phone signal.
A. Capture effect
B. Desensitization
C. Cross-modulation interference
D. Frequency discrimination
217. A receiver selectivity of 10 kHz in the IF
circuitry is optimum for what type of
singals?
A. SSB voice
B. Facsimile
C. FM
D. Double-sideband AM
218. If the envelope of modulation is constant
in amplitude this means
A. Zero beat
B. Under-modulation
C. Zero-modulation

D. Over-modulation
219. What is the approximate bandwidth of
an FM with a modulation factor of 12.5 and
a modulating frequency of 10 kHz?
A. 20 kHz
B. 270 kHz
C. 250 kHz
D. 45 kHz
220. Amplitude modulation is the same as
A. Linear mixing
B. Analog multiplication
C. Signal summation
D. Multiplexing
221. The negative half of the AM wave is
supplied by a/an _______ on a diode
modulator.
A. The tuned circuit
B. Transformer
C. Capacitor
D. Inductor
222. One of the following can produce AM.
A. Having the carrier vary a resistance
B. Having the modulating signal vary a
capacitance
C. Varying the carrier frequency
D. Varying the gain of an amplifier
223. Amplitude modulators that vary the
carrier amplitude with the modulating signal
by passing it through an attenuator network
is the principle of
A. Rectification
B. Amplification
C. Variable resistance
D. Absorption

224. Which component is used to produce


AM at very high frequencies?
A. Varactor diode
B. Thermistor
C. Cavity resonator
D. PIN diode
225. A collector modulator has a supply
voltage of 48 V. What is the peak-to-peak
amplitude of the modulating signal for 100
percent modulation?
A. 24 V
B. 48 V
C. 96 V
D. 120 V
226. What circuit recovers the original
modulating information from an AM signal?
A. Modulator
B. Demodulator
C. Mixer
D. Crystal set
227. What is the most commonly used
amplitude demodulator?
A. Envelope detector
B. Balanced modulator
C. Mixer
D. Crystal set
228. What circuit generates the upper and
lower sidebands and suppresses the carrier?
A. Amplitude modulator
B. Diode detector
C. Class C amplifier
D. Balanced modulator
229. _________ is a widely used balanced
modulator.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Diode bridge circuit


Full-wave bridge rectifier
Lattice modulator
Balanced bridge modulator
230. In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act
like
A. Variable resistors
B. Switches
C. Rectifiers
D. Variable capacitors
231. The output of a balanced modulator is
A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. DSB
232. The principal circuit in the popular
1496/1596 IC balanced modulator is a
A. Differential amplifier
B. Rectifier
C. Bridge
D. Constant current source
233. The most commonly used filter in SSB
generators uses
A. LC networks
B. Mechanical resonators
C. Crystals
D. RC networks and op amps
234. In the phasing method of SSB
generation, one sideband is canceled out due
to
A. Phase shifting
B. Sharp selectivity
C. Carrier suppression
D. Phase inversion

235. A balanced modulator used to


demodulate a SSB signal is call a/an
A. Transponder
B. Product detector
C. Converter
D. Remodulator
236. Frequency translation is done with a
circuit called a
A. Summer
B. Multiplier
C. Divider
D. Mixer
237. Mixing for frequency conversion is the
same as
A. Rectification
B. AM
C. Linear summing
D. Filtering
238. Which of the following is not a major
advantage of FM over AM?
A. Greater efficiency
B. Noise immunity
C. Capture effect
D. Lower complexity and cost
239. The primary disadvantage of FM is its
A. Higher cost and complexity
B. Excessive use of spectrum space
C. Noise susceptibility
D. Lower efficiency
240. Noise is primarily
A. High-frequency spikes
B. Lowe-frequency variations
C. Random level shifts
D. Random frequency variations

241. The receiver circuit that rids FM of noise


is the
A. Modulator
B. Demodulator
C. Limiter
D. Low-pass filter
242. The AM signals generated at a low level
may only be amplified by what type of
amplifier?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. All of the above
243. SSB means
A. Single sideband with suppressed carrier
B. Single sideband with carrier
C. Double sideband with no carrier
D. Single sideband with reduced carrier
244. A circuit used to select the desired
output from a mixer
A. Transformer
B. Resonant circuit
C. Filter
D. Phase-shift circuit
245. What is the output of a balanced
modulator?
A. AM
B. DSB
C. SSB
D. ISB
246. The acronym SSSC refer to
A. Suppressed sideband, single carrier
B. Suppressed sideband, suppressed carrier
C. Single sideband, suppressed carrier

D. Single sideband, single carrier


247. Which process occurs in the receiver?
A. Demodulation
B. Reception
C. Modulation
D. Recreation
248. What is usually used to demodulate SSB
or CW signal?
A. PLL
B. BFO
C. Ratio detector
D. All of these
249. Which of the following is the most
widely used amplitude modulator
A. Diode detector
B. PLL circuit
C. VCO
D. All of these
250. Which of the following is the most
widely used balanced modulator
A. Full-wave bridge circuit
B. Balanced bridge modulator
C. Lattice modulator
D. None of these

MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN

ELECTRONI
CS SYSTEMS
AND
TECHNOLO
GIES
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED
BY:
ANDRADE, Caroline T.

GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.


GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
LORENZO, Luer Breech B.
RIVERA, Billy Joe S.
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
SANTOLLO, Dan Alvin

MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN

BROADCAST
ENGINEERIN
G
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
ANDRADE, Caroline T.

1. In stereophonic broadcast, the center


frequency of each SCA subcarrier shall
be kept at all times within ____ Hz of
the authorized frequency.
A.
B.
C.
D.

200
300
400
500

2. Sawtooth generator circuits produce the


scanning raster, but the sync pulses are
needed for
A.
B.
C.
D.

Linearity
Timing
Keystoning
Line pairing

3. Which of the following camera tubes has


minimum lag?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Vidicon
Plumbicon
Saticon
Iconoscope

4. The service area in standard AM


broadcast is described as ____ if there is
no fading signal.
A. Class A
B. Secondary
C. Class B

D. Primary
5. The vertical field-scanning frequency is
_____ Hz.
A.
B.
C.
D.

30
60
525
15,750

6. A 4.5-MHz signal which is equal to the


difference between the picture and sound
RF carrier frequencies in a 6-MHz TV
channel.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Audio frequency
Video frequency
Intercarrier frequency
Subcarrier frequency

7. A system where the modulated RF


picture and sound carrier signals are
distributed in a cable network, instead of
wireless system.
A.
B.
C.
D.

CCTV
MATV
CATV
SATV

8. A class A FM station is limited in


antenna height of _____ feet above
average terrain.

A.
B.
C.
D.

1000
2000
4000
5000

9. What circuit in the TV receiver is used


to develop the high voltage needed to
operate the picture tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Low-voltage power supply


Horizontal output
Vertical output
Sync separator

10. The modulated picture carrier wave


includes the composite video signal as
the
A. Average carrier level
B. Symmetric envelope of amplitude
variations
C. Lower sideband without the upper
sideband
D. Upper envelope without the lower
envelope
11. With which emission type is the captureeffect more pronounced?
A.
B.
C.
D.

CW
FM
SSB
AM

12. The hue of color sync phase is


A.
B.
C.
D.

Red
Cyan
Blue
Yellow-green

13. How much is the equivalent internal


resistance of the electron beam with a
1.2-mA beam current at 25 kV?
A.
B.
C.
D.

48 nano ohms
30 ohms
20.8 mega ohms
15.6 kilo ohms

14. The difference between the picture and


sound carrier frequencies for channel 3
is ____ MHz.
A.
B.
C.
D.

3.58
64.5
4.5
6.75

15. Refers to the deviation of the operating


frequency of a crystal oscillator from its
nominal value due to temperature
variations.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Drift
Flashover
Frequency deviation
Deviation ratio

16. It is the measure of how many picture


elements can be reproduced
A.
B.
C.
D.

Definition
Resolution
Detail
Any of these

17. A 3.58-MHz subcarrier signal for color


in television
A.
B.
C.
D.

Hue signal
Video signal
Audio signal
Chroma signal

18. A class D FM station shall have an


authorized power not exceeding _____
watts.
A.
B.
C.
D.

20
15
10
5

19. Which of the following is not a benefit


of cable TV?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Lower-cost reception
Greater stability
Less noise, stronger signal
Premium cable channels

20. The width of the vertical sync pulse in


the Philippine TV system is
A.
B.
C.
D.

21H
3H
H
0.5H

21. Term in communication which is


referred, to send out in all direction
A.
B.
C.
D.

Announce
Broadcast
Transmit
Media

22. The number of frames per second in the


Philippine TV system is
A.
B.
C.
D.

60
262
4.5
30

23. It means multiple outlines of edges to


the right in the picture.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Ghosting
Ringing
Fading
Snowing

24. In the sawtooth waveform for linear


scanning,

D. Frequency modulation
A. The linear rise is for flyback
B. The complete cycle includes trace
and retrace
C. The sharp reversal in amplitude
produces trace
D. The beam moves faster during trace
and retrace
25. The purpose of pre-emphasis and deemphasis in FM broadcasting is to :
A. Increase the high frequency
amplitude
B. Improve the audio harmonic
C. Decrease the low frequency
amplitude
D. Improve the S/N ratio

28. A video or audio signal that can be used


directly to reproduce the picture and
sound.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Baseband signal
Broadband signal
Electromagnetic wave signal
Modulated signal

29. Class B FM station should have an ERP


not exceeding ____ kW.
A.
B.
C.
D.

50
40
30
20

D. Flyback
32. In the Philippine color television system,
the intercarrier frequency, in MHz, is
A.
B.
C.
D.

3.58
3.579545
4.5
45.75

33. In channel 14 (470 to 476 MHz), the


3.58-MHz color signal is transmitted at
A.
B.
C.
D.

471.25 MHz
473.25 MHz
474.83 MHz
475.25 MHz

34. Interfaced scanning eliminates


26. The part of the visible spectrum where
camera pickup tubes have the greatest
output is
A.
B.
C.
D.

Red
Blue
Yellow-green
Infrared

27. The type of modulation of the sound


carrier signal is ________.
A. Pulse modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Amplitude modulation

30. What technique is used to permit


hundreds of TV signals to share a
common cable?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Frequency modulation
Mixing
Frequency division multiplexing
Time division multiplexing

31. Another name for the horizontal retrace


in a TV receiver is the
A. Ringing
B. Burst
C. Damper

A.
B.
C.
D.

Snowing
Flicker
Distortion
Fading

35. Beam alignment magnets for the camera


tube are adjusted while rocking which
control?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Optical focus
Electrical focus
Beam current
Shading

36. What is the frequency discriminator?


A. An FM generator
B. A circuit for detecting FM
C. A circuit for filtering two closely
adjacent signals
D. An automatic bandwidth circuit
37. A system used in television field
operation to make on the spot video tape
recordings using portable TV cameras
and VTRs.
A.
B.
C.
D.

SNG
ENG
HAFC
MATV

38. Class B FM station shall have an


authorized transmitter power not
exceeding ______ kW.
A.
B.
C.
D.

10
100
1000
10000

39. The total bandwidth of an NTSC TV


signal is
A.
B.
C.
D.

3.58 MHz
4.5 MHz
6 MHz
10.7 MHz

D. The saturation of the color


40. Referred to the oscillator signal leak
through from a property neutralized
amplifier such as a master oscillator
power amplifier.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Carrier
Stray signal
Back wave
Loss wave

41. Interfacing is used in television to


A. Produce the illusion of motion
B. Ensure that all lines on the screen are
scanned, not merely the alternate
ones
C. Simplify the vertical sync pulse train
D. Avoid flicker
42. Coaxial cable for distribution system has
an impedance of
A.
B.
C.
D.

50 ohms
75 ohms
150 ohms
300 ohms

43. The average voltage value of the 3.58MHz modulated chrominance signal is
A. Zero for most colors
B. Close to black for yellow
C. The brightness of the color

44. When does broadcast station conduct an


equipment test?
A.
B.
C.
D.

During day time


During night time
During experimental period
At any time

45. It causes the picture information to


spread out or crowded at one end of the
raster compared to the opposite end.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Linear scanning
Interfaced scanning
Non-linear scanning
Retrace

46. If the camera cannot be placed far away


enough to include everything in the
scene, change the lens to one with a
A.
B.
C.
D.

Lower f rating
Higher f rating
Longer focal length
Shorter focal length

47. Type of radio communication


transmission utilizing frequency
modulation technique
A. Television video
B. Broadcasting in 535-1606 kHz

C. Single sideband HF transmission


D. Television audio
48. The amount of color in the picture or
color intensity is the ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Color level
Chroma level
Saturation
Any of these

49. One of the early radio transmitters which


produced keyed carrier generating purer
waveform than spark transmitter, used
for high powered RF transmission and
are limited to radio frequency of about
500 kHz.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Arc transmitter
Hartley transmitter
Spark transmitter
Frequency transmitter

51. A class C FM station has an authorized


radiated power not exceeding ____watts
of ERP.
A.
B.
C.
D.

500
750
1000
2000

52. The assembly around the neck of a


picture tube that produces the magnetic
fields that deflect and scan the electron
beams is called the
A.
B.
C.
D.

Shadow mask
Phosphor
Electron gun
Yoke

53. An odd number of lines per frame forms


part of every one of the worlds TV
systems. This is

A.
B.
C.
D.

4.5 MHz
1.25 MHz
0.92 MHz
0.25 MHz

55. In color television, it is made for


uniform color in the raster.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Beam-landing adjustment
Degaussing
Internal blanking adjustment
Background control

56. Which of the following camera tubes


uses load oxide for the photoconductive
target plate?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Vidicon
Plumbicon
Saticon
Image orthicon

57. The number of fields is _____ per frame.


50. A technique where segments of
videotape are joined by electronic
erasing and recording to create a single
program.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Masking
Segmenting
Editing
Programming

A. Done to assist interlace


B. Purely an accident
C. To ensure that line and frame
frequencies can be obtained from the
same original source
D. Done to minimize interference with
the chroma subcarrier
54. The difference between the sound carrier
and the color signal is

A.
B.
C.
D.

2
60
525
262

58. An RF carrier wave that is frequencymodulated by the baseband audio signal


in TV broadcasting.
A. Audio signal

B. Video Signal
C. Intercarrier signal
D. Color signal
59. A class B FM station is limited in
antenna height of _____ feet.
A.
B.
C.
D.

1000
500
250
100

60. The HV anode supply for the picture


tube of a TV receiver is generated in the
A.
B.
C.
D.

Mains transformer
Vertical output stage
Horizontal output stage
Horizontal deflection oscillator

61. A tap for the subscriber drop line has a


A.
B.
C.
D.

High insertion loss


High tap loss
Low tap loss
300-ohm

62. Which system can be used for both


recording and playback?
A.
B.
C.
D.

CED
VHD
Laser disk
VHS

63. The hue 180 degrees out of phase with


red is
A.
B.
C.
D.

Cyan
Yellow
Green
Blue

64. It is used around the phosphor dots to


make a darker black which improves
contrast in the picture.
A. Black masking
B. Convergence adjustment
C. Shadow masking
D. Color purity adjustment
65. A lens lower f rating is ____ lens that
allows more light input.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Slower
Wider
Narrower
Faster

66. Picture frames are repeated at the rate of


____ per second.
A.
B.
C.
D.

30
60
45
50

67. The effective radiated power of a class A


FM station should not exceed _____
kW.
A.
B.
C.
D.

125
30
10
1

68. In television, 4:3 represents the


A.
B.
C.
D.

Interface ratio
Maximum horizontal deflection
Aspect ratio
Ratio of the two diagonals

69. Titling the video head gaps is necessary


with the
A.
B.
C.
D.

Color-under
Zero guard bands
FM luminance signal
Long-play tapes

70. It is a special camera tube with a test


pattern in the image plate.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Vidicon
Monoscope
Oscilloscope
Iconoscope

71. The number of lines scanned per frame


in the raster on the picture tube screen is

A.
B.
C.
D.

525
262
20
10

72. One of the following is a high powered


RF ac basic transmitter that has two or
more stages, the oscillator stage which
determines the frequency of operation
and RF amplifier stage or stages that
develop the high power output. The
purpose of which is to develop a good
frequency stability.
A.
B.
C.
D.

MOPA
Hartley
Alexanderson
Goldsmith

73. Camera signal output without sync is


called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Black burst
Generator lock video
Composite video
Non-composite video

74. The tint of the color is its


A.
B.
C.
D.

Brightness
Contrast
Chroma
Hue

75. Which frequency band is the standard


AM radio broadcast?
A.
B.
C.
D.

HF
UHF
MF
VHF

76. The I and Q composite color signals are


multiplexed onto the picture carrier by
modulating a 3.58 MHz subcarrier using
A.
B.
C.
D.

FM
PM
DSB AM
Vestigial sideband AM

77. The shadow mask in a color picture tube


is used to
A. Reduce X-ray emission
B. Ensure that each beam hits only its
own dots
C. Increase screen brightness
D. Provide degaussing for the screen
78. The video heads rotate at high velocity
to increase the
A.
B.
C.
D.

Tape speed
Writing speed
Reel rotation
Tape tension

79. How ho you eliminate radio frequency


variation of an oscillator transmitter
caused by its supply voltage?
A. Use of regulated power supply
B. Use of new power supply
C. Use of high capacitor in the supply
circuit
D. Loosen power supply shielding
80. The composite video signal includes the
camera signal with the following except
A.
B.
C.
D.

Picture information
Sync pulses
Blanking pulses
Camera signal

81. A lens has an 8-cm focal length and 4cm diameter. Its f rating is
A.
B.
C.
D.

2
4
8
32

82. Which of the following is a possible


cause for an abrupt frequency variation
in a self-excited transmitter oscillator
circuits resulting a poor frequency
stability to hold a constant frequency
oscillation?

A. DC and RF AC heating of resistor


which cause a change in values
B. Heating and expansion of oscillator
coil
C. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
D. Power supply voltage changes
83. How long does it take to scan 2 picture
elements when 400 are scanned in 50
microseconds?
A.
B.
C.
D.

25 microsec
0.25 microsec
2.5 microsec
0.5 microsec

84. Anode voltage for the picture tube,


developed from the output of the
horizontal deflection circuit.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Yoke voltage
Flyback voltage
Aquadag voltage
Tube voltage

85. The channel spacing in the Philippine


FM broadcast standards

86. What is the black-and-white or


monochrome brightness signal in TV
called?
A.
B.
C.
D.

RGB
Color subcarrier
Q and I
Luminance Y

87. Which of the following is a midband


cable TV channel?
A.
B.
C.
D.

6
7
14
23

88. What is the primary purpose of an RF


amplifier in a receiver?
A. To vary the receiver image rejection
by utilizing the AGC
B. To provide most of the receiver gain
C. To develop the AGC voltage
D. To improve the receivers noise
figure
89. The color with the most luminance is

A.
B.
C.
D.

400 kHz
800 kHz
600 kHz
200 kHz

A.
B.
C.
D.

Red
Yellow
Green
Blue

90. It is the light flux intercepted by onefoot-square surface that is one foot from
one-candlepower source.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Candela
Footcandle
Lux
Lumens

91. Refers to the possible cause for an


abrupt frequency variations in a selfexcited transmitter oscillator circuit
resulting to a poor frequency stability to
hold a constant oscillator.
A. Poor soldered connections
B. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
C. DC and AC heating of resistors
which cause change in values
D. Aging which cause change in
condition in parts characteristics
92. It is the difference in intensity between
the black parts and white parts of the
picture.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Brightness
Hue
Contrast
Illumination

93. The stereophonic subcarrier suppression


level in the Philippines standards

A. Less than 4% modulation of the main


carrier
B. Less than 3% modulation of the main
carrier
C. Less than 2% modulation of the main
carrier
D. Less than 1% modulation of the
main carrier

A.
B.
C.
D.

AB
C
B
A

98. In a picture tube, it is the total angle that


the beam can be deflected without
touching the sides of the envelope.

A.
B.
C.
D.

2.5 microsec
0.25 microsec
1.25 microsec
125 microsec

102.
In basic radio transmitter, the
main advantage of a single-tube
transmitter is

94. The sound IF in a TV receiver is


A.
B.
C.
D.

4.5 MHz
10.7 MHz
41.25 MHz
45.75 MHz

95. The circuit separates sync pulse from the


composite video waveform is
A.
B.
C.
D.

The keyed AGC amplifier


A clipper
An integrator
A differentiator

96. In the CED system, the disk capacitance


varies with the
A.
B.
C.
D.

Pit depth
Disk size
Speed of rotation
Wavelength of the scanning light

97. The final power amplifier in an FM


transmitter usually operates class _____

A.
B.
C.
D.

Screen angle
Tube angle
Picture angle
Deflection angle

99. It is necessary to time the scanning with


respect to picture information.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Flyback
Synchronization
Blanking
Scanning

100.
The intermediate frequency used
in for FM broadcasting Philippine
standards.
A.
B.
C.
D.

455 kHz
10.7 MHz
11.4 MHz
12.5 MHz

101.
What is the horizontal scanning
time for 20 pixels?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Frequency instability
Non-portable
Heating effect
Bulky

103.
The carrier transmitted 1.25 MHz
above the bottom frequency in a
Philippine TV channel is the
A.
B.
C.
D.

Sound carrier
Chroma carrier
Intercarrier
Picture carrier

104.
In camera tubes, it means that the
old image remains too long after the
picture information on the target plate
has changed.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Light lag
Switch lag
Image lag
Camera lag

105.
What is the maximum color TV
bandwidth?
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.6 MHz
0.5 MHz
1.0 MHz
1.3 MHz

106.
Class of FM station where its
authorized power should not exceed 15
kW.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D

107.
What is the name of the solid
state imaging device used in TV cameras
that converts the light in a scene into an
electrical signal?
A.
B.
C.
D.

CCD
Phototube matrix
Vidicon
MOSFET array

108.
The signals sent by the
transmitter to ensure correct scanning in
the receiver is called
A. Sync
B. Chroma
C. Luminance

D. Video
109.
What signals are transmitted by a
SSBSC transmitter when no modulating
signal is present?
A.
B.
C.
D.

The upper sideband only


Both the upper and lower sideband
The lower sideband
No signal transmitted

110.
The second IF value for color in
receivers, for any station, is
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.5 MHz
1.3 MHz
3.58 MHz
4.5 MHz

111.
In the frame for which interfaced
scanning is used, alternate lines are
skipped during vertical scanning because
A. The trace is slower than retrace
B. The vertical scanning frequency is
doubled from 30 to 60 Hz
C. The horizontal scanning is slower
than vertical scanning
D. The frame has a 4:3 aspect ratio
112.
A typical value of vidicon dark
current is
A. 0.2 microampere

B. About 200 microampere


C. 8 milliampere
D. 800 milliampere
113.
The smallest are of light or shade
in the image is a picture element called
A.
B.
C.
D.

Chroma
Hue
Contrast
Pixel

114.
An entry of the time the station
begins to supply power to the antenna
and the time it stops.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Operating log entries


Program log entries
Operating schedule
Any of these

115.
What type of circuit is used to
modulate and demodulate the color
signals?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Phase-locked loop
Differential peak detector
Quadrature detector
Balanced modulator

116.
This is referred to as a fixed
radio station that broadcast program
material from audio to transmitter by
radio link.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Aural BC intercity relay


Aural broadcast STL
Short wave station
Remove pick-up

117.
Indicate which of the following
frequencies will not be found in the
output of a normal TV receiver tuner.
A.
B.
C.
D.

4.5 MHz
41.25 MHz
45.75 MHz
42.17 MHz

118.
In all standard television
broadcast channels , the difference
between the picture and sound carrier
frequencies is
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.25 MHz
1.25 MHz
4.5 MHz
6 MHz

119.
It is caused by phase distortion
for video frequencies of about 100 kHz
and lower.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Streaking
Snowing
Ringing
Fading

120.
Special effects and production
switching are done by the
A.
B.
C.
D.

CCU
ENG camera
SEG
Sync generator

121.
A picture has 400 horizontal and
300 vertical picture elements. What is
the total number of details in the picture?
A.
B.
C.
D.

120,000
700
0.75
100

122.
After the IF stages have been
aligned, the next stage to align in FM
receiver is
A.
B.
C.
D.

Local oscillator
Limiter stage
RF amplifier
Mixer stage

123.
What ensures proper color
synchronization at the receiver?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Sync pulses
Quadrature modulation
4.5-MHz intercarrier sound
3.58-MHz color burst

124.
The interfering beat frequency of
920 kHz is between the 3.58-MHz color
subcarrier and the
A.
B.
C.
D.

4.5-MHz intercarrier sound


Picture carrier
Lower adjacent sound
Upper adjacent picture

125.
Light is converted to video signal
by the _____ tube.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Camera tube
Picture tube
Anode tube
Cathode tube

126.
The frequency spectrum of the
stereophonic FM signal.
A.
B.
C.
D.

67 kHz
59.5 to 74.5 kHz
19 to 38 kHz
30 to 53 kHz

127.
Equalizing pulses in TV are sent
during
A.
B.
C.
D.

Horizontal blanking
Vertical blanking
The serrations
The horizontal retrace

128.
Which signal has color
information for 1.3 MHz bandwidth?
A.
B.
C.
D.

I
Y
R-Y
B-Y

129.
It is the distance from the center
of the lens of the camera to the point at
which parallel rays from a distant object
come to a common focal point.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Focal length
Latus rectum
Major axis
Minor axis

130.
The method of generating FM
used by broadcast station is
A.
B.
C.
D.

Direct
Indirect
Insertion
All of these

131.
The picture and sound carrier
frequencies in a TV receiver IF are
respectively.
A.
B.
C.
D.

41.25 and 45.75 MHz


45.75 and 41.25 MHz
41.75 and 45.25 MHz
45.25 and 41.75 MHz

132.
The channel width in the
Philippine TV system, in MHz, is
A.
B.
C.
D.

41.25
6
4.5
3.58

133.
The cable converter output or the
TV receiver is usually on channel
A.
B.
C.
D.

3
6
7
9

134.
One-half line spacing between
the start positions for scanning even and
odd fields produces
A.
B.
C.
D.

Linear scanning
Line pairing
Fishtailing
Exact interlacing

135.
Precise scanning size and
linearity are most important in
A.
B.
C.
D.

A black-and-white camera
Plumbicon
A single-tube color pickup
A saticon

136.
A signal in which the sum of all
signals which frequency-modulates the
main carrier.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Composite baseband signal


FM baseband
Main channel signal
Stereophonic signal

137.
What is the total number of
interlaced scan lines in one complete
frame of a NTSC Philippine TV signal?
A.
B.
C.
D.

262
525
480
625

138.
The video voltage applied to the
picture tube of a television receiver is
fed in
A.
B.
C.
D.

Between grid and ground


To the yoke
To the anode
Between the grid and cathode

139.
How many dBmV units
correspond to a 1-mV signal level?
A.
B.
C.
D.

0
1
3
6

140.
In color television, it is made to
maintain neutral white from low to high
levels of brightness.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Internal color adjustment


Color-temperature adjustments
Shadow masking
Convergence adjustment

141.
Average power of a radio
transmitter supplied to the antenna
transmission line by a transmitter during
one radio frequency cycle taken under
the condition or no modulation.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Peak envelope power


Rated power
Carrier power
Mean power

142.
The number of scanning lines is
____ per second.
A.
B.
C.
D.

525
262
15,750
30

143.
The ratio of the actual frequency
swing to the frequency swing defined as
100 percent modulation, expressed in
percentage.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Modulation index
Deviation ration
Maximum deviation
Percentage modulation

144.

In a TV receiver, the color killer

A. Cuts off the chroma stages during


monochrome reception
B. Ensures that no color is transmitted
to monochrome receivers
C. Prevents color coding
D. Make sure that the color burst is not
mistaken for sync pulses, by cutting
off reception during the back porch.
145.
How many TV fields are
recorded on one slant track of tape?
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
4
60

146.
A communication circuit using
class C amplifier is considered a narrow
band amplifier if the bandwidth is less
than _____ % of its resonant frequency.
A.
B.
C.
D.

15
13
10
20

147.
The width of a vertical sync
pulse with its serrations includes the
time of
A.
B.
C.
D.

Six half-lines, or three lines


Five lines
Three half-lines
Five half-lines

148.
A low-contrast picture in which
white seems flat and lacking in detail
suggests
A.
B.
C.
D.

Low beam current


High gain in the pre-amplifier
Excessive gamma
Insufficient scanning width

149.
The product of the transmitter
power multiplied by the antenna power
gain of the antenna field gain squared.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Field intensity
Field gain
ERP
Electric field strength

150.
What keeps the scanning process
at the receiver in step with the scanning
in the picture tube at the receiver?
A. Nothing
B. Sync pulses
C. Color burst

D. Deflection oscillators
151.
The number of lines per second
in the TV system is
A.
B.
C.
D.

31,500
15,700
262
525

152.
In a basic transmitter,
________is a kind of transmitter that
develops type B emission.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Arc
Spark
Alexanderson
High end

153.
It is a number that indicates how
contrast is expanded or compressed.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Alpha
Beta
Gamma
Sigma

154.
Color picture tubes have ______
guns for its phosphors.
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
4

D. 2.5 MHz
155.
The FM broadcast band is
divided into _____ channels are
suggested by KBP.
A.
B.
C.
D.

200
100
50
25

156.
The output of the vertical
amplifier, applied to the yoke in a TV
receiver, consists of
A.
B.
C.
D.

Direct current
Amplified vertical sync pulse
A sawtooth voltage
A sawtooth current

157.
The frequency spectrum of the
stereophonic FM signal.
A.
B.
C.
D.

67 kHz
59.5 kHz to 74.5 kHz
19 kHz to 38 kHz
30 kHz to 53 kHz

158.
What is the video frequency
response corresponding to the horizontal
resolution of 200 lines?
A. 4 MHz
B. 1.5 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz

159.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The gamma of the picture tube is


0.4545
1.0
1.4
2.2

160.
It is the instantaneous departure
of the frequency of the emitted wave
from the center frequency resulting from
modulation.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Deviation
Frequency swing
Phase shift
Deviation ratio

161.
If a TV sound transmitter has a
carrier frequency of 197.75 MHz, the
picture carrier is
A.
B.
C.
D.

191.75 MHz
193.25 MHz
202.25 MHz
203.75 MHz

162.
The number of lines per field in
the Philippine TV system is
A. 262
B. 525
C. 30

D. 60
163.
What is the best site of an AM
broadcast transmitter?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Marshy land
Dry land
Highly elevated
Average terrain

164.
What is the hue of a color 90
degrees leading sync burst phase?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Yellow
Cyan
Blue
Orange

165.
The two black conductive
coatings of picture tubes are made up of
A.
B.
C.
D.

Phosphor
Aquadag
Cavity
Nickel

166.
The maximum power allocation
of AM transmitter in Metro Manila in
kW is
A.
B.
C.
D.

10 kW
20 kW
40 kW
30 kW

167.
The function of the serrations in
the composite video waveforms is to
A. Equalize the change in the integrator
before the start of vertical retrace
B. Help vertical synchronization
C. Help horizontal synchronization
D. Simplify the generation of the
vertical sync pulse
168.
Which system uses a light beam
for playback?
A.
B.
C.
D.

CED
VHD
Betamax
VLP

169.
Weak emission from one cathode
in a tricolor picture tube causes
A. A weak picture
B. A long warmup time
C. A color imbalance in the raster and
picture
D. All of these
170.
In AM broadcast, the current
carrier shift at any percentage of
modulation shall not exceed
A. 5%
B. 15%

C. 20%
D. 2.5%
171.
Indicate which voltages are not
found in the output of a normal
monochrome receiver video detector.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Sync
Video
Sweep
Sound

172.
The sawtooth waveform for
deflection provides _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Horizontal deflection
Distortions
Linear scanning
Flicker

173.
In AM broadcast, the transmitter
must be capable of maintaining the
operating frequency within the limits of
______.
A.
B.
C.
D.

+/- 10 Hz
+/- 20 Hz
+/- 25 Hz
+/- 75 Hz

174.
How much illumination in lux a
400-candlepower make that is 3 meters
from the surface?

A.
B.
C.
D.

133.3
1200
200
44.4

175.
Brightness variations of the
picture information are in which signal?
A.
B.
C.
D.

I
Q
Y
R-Y

176.
How many octaves is the
frequency range of 1 to 8 MHz?
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
8

177.
For television, the maximum
deviation of the FM sound signal in kHz.
A.
B.
C.
D.

10
25
75
100

178.
Indicate which of the following
signals is not transmitted in color TV
A. Y
B. Q

C. R
D. I
179.
Emission outside of the assigned
channel, as a result of the modulation
process.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Overmodulation
Spurious emission
Out-of-band emission
In band emission

180.
Determine which of the
following is not part of RF section of a
radio transmitter.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Master oscillator
Buffer amplifier
AF voltage amplifier
Frequency amplifier

181.
The power of any conducted
spurious emission shall be attenuated
below the maximum level of carrier
frequency in accordance with the
following formula:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Attenuation (dB) = 43 + 20 log P


Attenuation (dB) = 43 + log P
Attenuation (dB) = 43 + 10 log P
Attenuation (dB) = 43 + log P/10

182.
In television, gamma affects
_____

A.
B.
C.
D.

Color
Contrast
Brightness
Hue

183.
In the IRE scale for the
composite video signal, what is the
number of IRE units for sync?
A.
B.
C.
D.

7.5
92.5
40
10

184.
As prescribed by the technical
standards for Cable Television operation
and in order to be compatible for any
value added services in the future, Trunk
cable should have a minimum diameter
of _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.25 inch
0.5 inch
0.75 inch
1.0 inch

185.
Compared with 100 percent
saturation, the desaturated color have
A.
B.
C.
D.

More luminance for the Y signal


Less luminance for the Y signal
More chrominance for the C signal
Less hue for the C signal

186.
What is the practical baseband
frequency for the color video signal?
A.
B.
C.
D.

1 MHz
2 MHz
0.2 MHz
0.5 MHz

187.
What is the diagonal screen size
for the 19CP4 picture tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.

21
23
4
19

188.
What is the phase angle between
B Y and R Y?
A.
B.
C.
D.

180 deg
45 deg
90 deg
270 deg

189.
How many gray scale steps are in
the EIA test pattern in television?
A.
B.
C.
D.

10
40
50
15

190.
In TV, degaussing is done with
_____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Direct current
Pulsed current
Alternating current
Any of these

191.
R, G and B video drive controls
set for ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Black
Dark gray
White
Light gray

192.
What is the phase difference
between the color sync burst and the B
Y video?
A.
B.
C.
D.

180 deg
45 deg
90 deg
270 deg

193.
What is the hue of the color sync
burst?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Yellow-green
Red
Blue
Orange

194.
What synchronizes the horizontal
of the TV picture tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.

HSC
HAFC
HFC
HAC

195.
What is the typical anode voltage
for a 25-inch color picture tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.

3 kV
20 kV
10 kV
30 kV

196.
In television, what is the
phosphor number for monochrome
picture tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.

P4
P21
P22
P3

197.
In television picture tube, what is
the color of the P1 phosphor?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Red
Green
Yellow
Blue

198.
What video frequency
corresponds to 240 lines of horizontal
resolution?
A.
B.
C.
D.

1 MHz
3 MHz
2 MHz
4 MHz

199.
The minimum FM broadcast
transmitter power in metro manila and
metro cebu is
A.
B.
C.
D.

25 kW
10 kW
1 kW
30 kW

200.
The maximum power suggested
by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast
station in Metro Manila.
A.
B.
C.
D.

10 kW
20 kW
15 kW
5 kW

201.
What are the frequency limits of
the standard AM broadcast band?
A.
B.
C.
D.

565 to 1605 kHz


535 to 1605 kHz
575 to 1615 kHz
535 to 1615 kHz

202.
What is the width of an AM
broadcast channel?
A.
B.
C.
D.

30 kHz
25 kHz
15 kHz
200 kHz

203.
The following are designations of
service areas of AM broadcast station,
except:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Intermittent

204.
The following are parts of the
AM broadcast day, except:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Daytime
Night time
Mid-day
Experimental period

205.
Why is it desirable to have
broadcast antennas on marshy land?
A.
B.
C.
D.

For better reflection


For ground wave radiation
For greater absorption
For sky wave propagation

206.
What is another name for a
console pot?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Attenuator
Gain control
Fader
Any of these

207.
The highest peaks of modulation
in AM should be held between what two
percentages?
A.
B.
C.
D.

85-100%
65-70%
50-75%
75-90%

208.
What is the name of the second
transmitter used when a station operates
24 hours a day?
A.
B.
C.
D.
209.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Alternate
Reserve
Spare
Diversity
What is a combo operator?
Announcer
Disk jockey
Engineer
All of these

210.
What term is used to indicate
intercom operation in a broadcast
station?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Communication
Talk-back
Respond
Remote talk

211.
What does a red light glowing in
a studio indicate?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Off the air


Floating
Experimental
On the air

212.
What is the attenuator which
controls the the output of the program
amplifier called?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Master gain control


Auxiliary gain control
Reserve frequency control
Auxiliary frequency control

213.
The following are important
operational requirements during a
broadcast, except:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Timing
Modulation
Fidelity
AF amplitude

214.
What are the names of two
unbalanced pads used in broadcasting?
A.
B.
C.
D.

T and L
K and P
R and I
H and L

215.
What is the advantage of using
balanced lines in audio systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Receive balanced sound


Improve fidelity
Reduce noise pickup
Improve carrier level

216.
What is the advantage of using
T-pad attenuators over potentiometers?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Better energy conversion


Better attenuation
Match impedance better
Any of these

217.
What device is used to make up
for the high-frequency losses in long AF
lines?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Signal booster
Noise suppressor
Line equalizer
Compander

218.
What is another term meaning
operating power
A.
B.
C.
D.

Licensed power
Sideband power
Audio power
Harmonic power

219.
What does maximum rated
carrier power referred to?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Buffer amplifier power rating


Intermediate amplifier power rating
Speech amplifier power rating
Final-amplifier power rating

220.
A.
B.
C.
D.

When are equipment tests made?


Mid-day
Daytime
Night time
Experimental period

221.
What is the maximum allowable
distortion at 80% modulation?
A.
B.
C.
D.

3%
4%
5%
6%

222.
On what are proof-ofperformance tests in broadcasting made?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Omnidirectional antennas
Directive antennas
High gain antennas
Any of these

223.
Within what limits must the
antenna current ratios of a directional
antenna be held?
A.
B.
C.
D.

3%
5%
4%
1%

224.
What monitor is required at the
operating position in a broadcast station?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Frequency
Modulation
Fidelity
Carrier

225.
What monitor may also give an
indication of carrier amplitude
regulation?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Modulation
Carrier
Fidelity
Frequency

226.
What device can give the most
accurate instantaneous peak-ofmodulation indications?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Spectrum analyzer
Fourier analyzer
CRT oscilloscope
Frequency probe

227.
log?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Identification
Program description
Sponsors and network name
All of these

228.
log?
A.
B.
C.
D.

The item required in program

The item required in an operating

Antenna power and programs on-off


EBS tests
Any of these
Antenna lights and meter readings

229.
The item required in a
maintenance log?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Any of these
Antenna current checks
Meter replacements
Light inspection and experimental
period operation

230.
What is the minimum time
broadcast station logs must be held?

A.
B.
C.
D.

One year
Two years
Three years
Five years

231.
What class operator has no
restrictions on technical work in a
broadcast station?
A.
B.
C.
D.

1st phone
2nd phone
3rd phone
4th phone

232.
What classes of operators are
restricted on technical work in a
broadcast station?
A.
B.
C.
D.

3rd phone
2nd phone
4th phone
2nd and 3rd phone

233.
If improper transmitter
indications are given at the remotecontrol point, what should be done?
A. First phone operator to
transmitter
B. Second phone operator to transmitter
C. Third phone operator to transmitter
D. Fourth phone to transmitter

234.
How often must IDs be made in a
broadcast station?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Quarter of an hour
Half an hour
On the hour
On the day

235.
Where must station license be
posted?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Tower
Modulators
Transmitter
Receiver

236.
Where operator licenses must be
posted?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Operating desk
Operating position
Operating console
Anywhere

237.
What device is usually used
today to measure the frequency of a
broadcast station?
A.
B.
C.
D.
238.

Multivibrators
Counter
Ripper
Wave meter
What does EBS stand for?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Electronic Broadcast System


Emergency Broadcast System
Electronic Base Station
Emergency Base Station

239.
How often must EBS tests be
made?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Weekly
Daily
Monthly
Yearly

240.
What must non-EBS station
have?
A.
B.
C.
D.

EBS signal monitor


EAN signal monitor
EAT signal monitor
CPCS signal monitor

241.
What stylus material is used in
broadcast station?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Ruby
Gamet
Emerald
Diamond

242.
What advantage is there to
having heavy turntables?
A. Constant speed

B. Less vibration
C. Rumble
D. All of these
243.
What is the width of recording
tapes?
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.5 inch
0.75 inch
0.125 inch
1 inch

244.
What frequency is used to erase
tapes?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Supersonic
Subsonic
Ultrasonic
Infrasonic

245.
What tape speed produces
highest fidelity of audio?
A.
B.
C.
D.

20 in/sec
15 in/sec
10 in/sec
5 in /sec

246.
What should be used to clean
recording heads?
A. Methanol
B. Ethyl Alcohol
C. Isopropyl alcohol

D. Rubbing alcohol
247.
What impedance is usually used
with broadcast microphones?
A.
B.
C.
D.

All of these
150 ohms
250 ohms
600 ohms

248.
In what log is antenna-light
information entered?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Maintenance log
Program log
Operating log
Logging log

249.
What was the name of the first
TV camera tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Vidicon
Iconoscope
Image orthicon
Kinescope

250.
Which camera tube requires
electron multipliers?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Vidicon
Iconoscope
Image orthicon
Kinescope

251.
TV?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which is used in closed-circuit

Vidicon
Iconoscope
Image orthicon
Kinescope

252.
What is the waveform of the
sweep voltages?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Trapezoidal
Sawtooth
Trigger
Square

253.
If the pulse peak is 100%
modulation, what is the blanking level?
A.
B.
C.
D.

25%
50%
65%
75%

254.
What device allows one camera
to accept pictures from three or more
projectors?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Film multipliers
Film demultiplexers
Film multiplexers
Film acceptor

255.
What is the order of scanning
four successive motion-picture frames
for TV?
A.
B.
C.
D.

3,2,3,2
2,3,2,3
2,2,3,3
3,3,2,2

256.
From the low-frequency end of a
channel, what is the visual carrier
frequency?
A.
B.
C.
D.

3.58 MHz
0.25 MHz
1.25 MHz
4.5 MHz

257.
The circuits make up the front
end of a TV receiver, except:
A.
B.
C.
D.

RF
Mixer
IF
Oscillator

258.
What is the impedance at the
antenna input terminals of a TV
receiver?
A.
B.
C.
D.

300 ohms
150 ohms
50 ohms
100 ohms

259.
Why are triodes and MOSFETs
best for TV RF amplifiers?
A.
B.
C.
D.

High power
Efficiency
Low noise
High gain

260.
In what circuit configuration are
triodes and MOSFETs used?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Cascade
Darlington
Cascade
Shunt

261.
The signal might a video
amplifier amplify?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Aural IF
Video
Blanking
Any of these

262.
When coupling from a sync
separator, what is used to obtain the
horizontal sync pulses?
A. Integrator
B. Corrector
C. Differentiator
D. Separator

263.
When coupling from a sync
separator, what is used to obtain the
vertical sync pulses?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Integrator
Corrector
Differentiator
Separator

264.
The type of active device used in
horizontal output stages, except:?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Vacuum tube
FET
BJT
SCR

265.
What should be produced by
weak blue, weak green, and weak red
signals on a color CRT?
A.
B.
C.
D.

White
Shade
Gray
Off white

266.
How many such mirrors are
required in a color TV camera?
A.
B.
C.
D.

One
Two
Three
Four

267.
What is the combining circuit
called in TV?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Combiner
Multiplexer
Integrator
Mixer

268.
What is the letter symbol for the
luminance signal?
A.
B.
C.
D.

R
Q
I
Y

269.
What is the total R + G + B for a
Y signal?
A.
B.
C.
D.

0
1
2
1.5

270.
If a white scene is picked up
what is the Y value?
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
0
2.5

271.
If a black scene is being picked
up, what is the Y value?

A.
B.
C.
D.

One
0.5
Zero
1.5

272.
kill?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Bandstop filter
High-pass filter
Low-pass filter
Bandpass filter

Top
Left side
Right aside
Center

274.
How many cathodes in a
shadow-mask picture tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
4

What circuit does a color killer

273.
If the blue dot is always at the
bottom of a triad, what position must the
blue gun always have?
A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
4

275.
How many guns in a shadow
mask picture tube?

MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN

TRANSMISSI
ON LINES
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
ANDRADE, Caroline T.
1. Category of media with some form of
conductor that provides a conduit in
which electromagnetic signals are
contained.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Guided
Balanced
Unguided
Unbalanced

2. The conductive connections between


elements which carry signals.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Transmission Lines
Antenna
Frequency allocations
Load

3. Calculate the characteristic impedance


for a line that exhibits an inductance of 4
nH/m and 1.5pF/m
A.
B.
C.
D.

36.6 ohms
51.6 ohms
22 ohms
24.5 ohms

4. Category of media which are wireless

A.
B.
C.
D.

Guided
Balanced
Unguided
Unbalanced

5. It is a medium or any physical facility


used to propagate electromagnetic
signals between two locations in a
communications system.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Transmission medium
Channel allocation
Frequency allocation
Any of these

6. It is a metallic conductor system used to


transfer electrical energy from one point
to another using electrical current flow.
A. Transmitter
B. Multiplexers
C. Receiver
D. Transmission line
7. A kind of wave where the displacement
is in the direction of propagation.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Transverse
Longitudinal
Reverse
Perpendicular

8. Calculate the capacitance per meter of a


50-ohm load cable that has an
inductance of 55 nH/m.
A.
B.
C.
D.

13 pF
18 pF
20 pF
22 pF

9. The desirable SWR on a transmission


line is
A.
B.
C.
D.

0
1
2
Infinity

10. A kind of wave where the direction is


displacement is perpendicular to the
direction of propagation.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Transverse
Longitudinal
Reverse
Perpendicular

11. A short-circuited half-wavelength line


acts like a
A.
B.
C.
D.

Parallel resonant circuit


Series Resonant Circuit
Oscillator
LC circuit

12. Electromagnetic waves that travel along


a transmission line from the source to
the load.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Reverse waves
Transverse waves
Incident waves
Longitudinal waves

13. Electromagnetic waves that travel from


the load back toward the source.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Incident waves
Transverse waves
Forward waves
Reflected waves

14. Sound travels approximately


A.
B.
C.
D.

2200 feet per second


1100 feet per second
550 feet per second
600 feet per second

15. Determine the surge impedance for a


parallel wire, air dielectric with a ratio of
the spacing between conductors and the
diameter of 3
A.
B.
C.
D.

250 ohms
210 ohms
180 ohms
215 ohms

16. The rate at which the periodic wave


repeats
A.
B.
C.
D.

Wavelength
Amplitude
Period
Frequency

17. The distance of one cycle occurring in


space
A.
B.
C.
D.

Wavelength
Amplitudes
Period
Frequency

18. Classification of transmission line where


both conductors carry current; one
conductor carries the signal, the other
conductor is the return path
A.
B.
C.
D.

Differential transmission lines


Unbalanced lines
Coaxial cables
Balun

19. A shorted half-wave line at the operating


frequency acts like
A.
B.
C.
D.

Capacitor
Inductor
Series resonant circuit
Parallel resonant circuit

20. What is the characteristic impedance of a


coaxial line, air dielectric with a ratio of
the diameter of the outer and inner
conductor equal to 1.5?
A.
B.
C.
D.

24.3 ohms
25.6 ohms
13.2 ohms
18 ohms

21. Currents that flow in opposite direction


in a balanced wire pair is called
A.
B.
C.
D.

Longitudinal currents
Reverse circuit currents
Transverse circuit currents
Metallic circuit currents

22. Currents that flow in same direction in a


balanced wire pair is called
A.
B.
C.
D.

Longitudinal currents
Reverse circuit currents
Transverse circuit currents
In-phase currents

23. A circuit device used to connect a


balanced transmission line to an
unbalanced load
A.
B.
C.
D.

Slotted lines
Stub
Balun
Quarterwave lines

24. The most common type of balun used in


relatively high frequency
A.
B.
C.
D.

Narrowband
Choke
Sleeve
All of these

25. A pattern of voltage and current


variations along the transmission line not
terminated in its characteristic
impedance is called
A.
B.
C.
D.

An electric fluid
Radio waves
Standing waves
A magnetic field

26. A type of parallel-conductor


transmission lines consists of simply of
two parallel wires, closely-spaced and
separated by air.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Twisted pair
Open-wire lines
Coaxial cables
Twin pair

27. A type of parallel-conductor


transmission lines which is essentially
the same as open-wire transmission line
except that the spacers between the
conductors are replaced with a

continuous solid dielectric that ensures


uniform spacing along the entire cable
A.
B.
C.
D.

Twisted pair
Open-wire lines
Coaxial cables
Twin lead

28. What is the range of size of wires of a


twisted pair?
A.
B.
C.
D.

AWG 16 to AWG 26
AWG 14 to AWG 25
AWG 10 to AWG 20
AWG 12 to AWG 28

29. What is the characteristic impedance of a


coaxial line, polyethylene dielectric with
the ratio of the diameter of the outer and
the inner conductor of 2.5?
A.
B.
C.
D.

43.5 ohms
23.4 ohms
36.2 ohms
29.8 ohms

30. In AWG, the higher the wire gauge


______
A. The higher the diameter and the
lower the resistance
B. The smaller the diameter and the
higher the resistance

C. The smaller the diameter and the


higher the conductance
D. The larger the diameter and the
higher the resistance
31. Type of twisted pair wire cable that
consists of two copper wires where each
wire is separately encapsulated in PVC
insulation.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Shielded twisted pair


Twin lead
Unshielded twisted pair
Open wire frame

32. A shorted quarter-wave line at the


operating frequency acts like
A.
B.
C.
D.

Series resonant circuit


Parallel resonant circuit
Capacitor
Inductor

33. The minimum number of twist for UTP


is
A.
B.
C.
D.

Two twist per foot


Two twist per meter
Three twist per foot
Three twist per meter

34. A delay line using RG-8A/U cable is to


exhibit a 5-ns delay. Calculate the
required length of the cable.
A. 4.57 ft
B. 1.23 ft
C. 6.2 ft

D. 3.4 ft
35. An open-circuited quarter-wavelength
line acts like a
A.
B.
C.
D.

Parallel resonant circuit


Series resonant circuit
Oscillator
LC circuit

36. Level for category of UTP cable which


is suitable only for voice grade telephone
signals and very low-speed data
applications
A.
B.
C.
D.

Level 1 or Cat 1
Level 3 or Cat 3
Level 2 or Cat 2
Cat 4

37. An antenna is being fed by a properly


terminated two-wire transmission line.
The current in the line at the input end is
3A. The surge impedance of the line is
500 ohms. How much power is being
supplied to the line?
A.
B.
C.
D.

3.1 kW
2.5 kW
1.6 kW
4.5 kW

38. Level or Category of UTP cable which


was developed for IEEE 802.5 token
ring local area networks operating at a
transmission rates of 4Mbps

A.
B.
C.
D.

Level 1 or Cat 1
Level 3 or Cat 3
Level 2 or Cat 2
Cat 4

39. If the period of one complete cycle of a


radio wave is 0.000001 s, what is the
wavelength?
A.
B.
C.
D.

300 m
200 m
100 m
400 m

40. If the two towers of a 950-kHz antenna


are separated by 120 electrical degrees,
what is the tower separation in feet?
A.
B.
C.
D.

231 ft
235 ft
176 ft
345 ft

41. Category of UTP used for virtually any


voice or data transmission rate up to 16
Mbps, has a minimum of 3 turns per
inch.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Category 5e
Category 4
Category 5
Category 3

42. The mismatch between the antenna and


transmission line impedances cannot be
corrected for by

A.
B.
C.
D.

Using an LC matching network


Adjusting antenna length
Using a balun
Adjusting the length of
transmission line

43. Category of UTP that was designed for


data transmission rates up to 20 Mbps
A.
B.
C.
D.

Category 5e
Category 4
Category 5
Category 3

44. Variation of CAT5 cables that are


intended for data transmission rates up to
250 Mbps
A.
B.
C.
D.

Category 5e
Category 2
Category 6
Category 3

45. A type of twisted-pair wherein its wires


and dielectric are enclosed in a
conductive metal sleeve called a foil.
A.
B.
C.
D.

STP
Twin lead
UTP
Unshielded Twin lead

46. It is the name given to the area between


the ceiling and the roof in a single-story
building or between the ceiling and the
floor of the next higher level in a
multistory building.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Attic
Rooftop
Plenum
Ceiling

47. It consists of center conductor


surrounded by dielectric material, then a
concentric shielding, and an
environmental protection outer jacket.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Twisted pair
Coaxial cable
Twin lead
Open wire

48. In a transmission line, it refers to the


woven stranded mesh or braid that
surround some types of coaxial cables
A.
B.
C.
D.

Grounding
Shielding
Degaussing
Any of these

49. A coaxial cable with one layer of foil


insulation and one layer of braided
shielding.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Backup shielding
Temporary shielding
Dual shielding
Interference shielding

50. At very high frequencies, transmission


lines are used as
A. Tuned circuits

B. Antennas
C. Insulators
D. Resistors
51. A coaxial cable with two layers of foil
insulation and two layers of braided
shielding.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Quad shielding
Double shielding
Triple shielding
Shielding

52. A type of coaxial cable that has a tubular


outer conductor surrounds the center
conductor coaxially and the insulating
material is air
A.
B.
C.
D.

Rigid air coaxial cable


Gas-filled coaxial cable
Solid coaxial cable
Flexible cable

53. If the length of an open-circuited stub is


less than quarter-wavelength but greater
than 0, the stub behaves as
A.
B.
C.
D.

Inductor
Capacitor
Resistor
Complex

54. Type of coaxial cable where the outer


conductor is braided, flexible, and
coaxial to the center conductor.
A. Gas-filled coaxial cable

B. Rigid air coaxial cable


C. Solid flexible coaxial cable
D. Flexible cable
55. A 50-ohm coax is connected to a 73ohm antenna. The SWR is
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.685
1
1.46
2.92

56. Defined as the impedance seen looking


at an infinitely long line or the
impedance seen looking into a finite
length of the line that is terminated in a
purely resistive load with the resistance
equal to the characteristic impedance of
the line.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Input impedance
Surge impedance
Output impedance
Circuit impedance

57. Determine the characteristic impedance


for an air dielectric two-wire parallel
transmission line with a D/r ratio of
12.22
A.
B.
C.
D.

150 ohms
120 ohms
75 ohms
300 ohms

58. Determine the characteristic impedance


for an RG-59A coaxial cable with the
following specifications: d=0.025

inches, D=0.15 inches, and dielectric


constant of 2.23
A.
B.
C.
D.

120 ohms
72 ohms
150 ohms
75 ohms

59. Determine the characteristic impedance


for an RG-59A coaxial cable with the
following specifications: L=0.118 uH/ft
and C=21 pF/ft
A.
B.
C.
D.

150 ohms
72 ohms
75 ohms
100 ohms

60. It is used to express the attenuation or


signal loss and the phase shift per unit
length of the transmission line.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Propagation coefficient
Propagation constant
Propagation factor
Any of these

61. For matched condition, what is the


relationship of load and characteristic
impedance?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Greater than
Less than
Equal
Impossible to say

62. It is defined simply as the ratio of the


actual velocity of propagation of an
electromagnetic wave through a given
medium to the velocity of propagation
through a vacuum or free space.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Velocity factor
Velocity propagation
Index of refraction
Phase delay

63. It is simply the permittivity of the


material
A.
B.
C.
D.

Permittivity
Insulation constant
Dielectric constant
Resistivity

64. For a given length of RG 8A/U coaxial


cable with distributed capacitance of
96.6 pF/m, a distributed inductance of
241.56 nH/m, and a relative dielectric
constant of 2.3, determine the velocity of
propagation
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.07 x 10^8 m/s


2.3 x 10^7 m/s
3.28 x 10^8 m/s
2.07 x 10^8 m/s

65. For a given length of RG 8A/U coaxial


cable with distributed capacitance of
96.6 pF/m, a distributed inductance of
241.56 nH/m, and a relative dielectric
constant of 2.3, determine the velocity
factor

A.
B.
C.
D.

1.2
0.66
0.7
0.5

66. If the length of an open-circuited stub is


greater than quarter-wavelength but less
than half-wavelength, the stub behaves
as
A.
B.
C.
D.

Inductor
Capacitor
Resistor
Complex

67. Delay line is a function of what two


parameters?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Resistance and capacitance


Resistance and susceptance
Inductance and resistance
Inductance and capacitance

68. How is the time delay calculated in a


coaxial cables with a dielectric constant
of 0.66?
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.56 sec
0.67 sec
0.45 sec
1.2 sec

69. Three feet is one wavelength at a


frequency of
A. 100 MHz
B. 164 MHz

C. 300 MHz
D. 328 MHz
70. When current flows through a conductor,
the loss introduced as a function of
resistance and current is called _______
A.
B.
C.
D.

Inductance loss
Conductor loss
Voltage loss
Skin effect

71. For maximum absorption of power at the


antenna, the relationship between the
characteristic impedance of the line Zo
and the load impedance ZL should be
A.
B.
C.
D.

Zo = ZL
Zo > ZL
Zo < ZL
Zo = 0

72. The ratio of the AC resistance and the


DC resistance
A.
B.
C.
D.

Impedance ratio
Susceptance ratio
Resistance ratio
Conductance ratio

73. The difference in potential between two


conductors of a metallic transmission
line causes ______.
A. Conductor loss
B. Dielectric heating
C. Radiation loss

D. Corona
74. If the length of a short-circuited stub is
greater than quarter-wavelength but less
than half-wavelength, the stub behaves
as
A.
B.
C.
D.

Inductor
Capacitor
Resistor
Complex

75. If the separation between the conductors


in a metallic transmission line is an
appreciable fraction of a wavelength, the
electrostatic and electromagnetic fields
that surround the conductor cause the
line to act as if it were an antenna and
transfer energy to any nearby material.
This energy radiated is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Radiation loss
Power loss
Coupling loss
Corona

76. The minimum voltage along a


transmission line is 260 V, while the
maximum is 390 V. The SWR is
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.67
1.0
1.2
1.5

77. It occurs whenever a connection is made


to or from a transmission line or when

two sections of transmission line are


connected together
A.
B.
C.
D.

Power loss
Coupling loss
Radiation loss
Resistance loss

78. Which of the following is not a common


transmission line impedance?
A.
B.
C.
D.

50 ohms
75 ohms
120 ohms
300 ohms

79. It is a luminous discharge that occurs


between the two conductors of a
transmission line when the difference in
potential between them exceeds the
breakdown voltage of a dielectric
insulator.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Resistance loss
Corona
Radiation loss
Power loss

80. Voltage that propagates down the load


A.
B.
C.
D.

Reflected voltage
Standing wave ratio
Incident voltage
Reflection voltage

81. Voltage that propagates from the load


towards the source

A.
B.
C.
D.

Reflected voltage
Standing wave ratio
Reflection coefficient
Incident voltage

82. A transmission line with no reflected


power
A.
B.
C.
D.

Flat
Resistive
Non resonant line
Any of these

83. It is a vector quantity that represents the


ratio of reflected voltage to incident
voltage or the reflected current and the
incident current
A.
B.
C.
D.

Reflection coefficient
Reactive load diagram
Standing wave ratio
Traveling waves

84. With a mismatched line, two


electromagnetic waves traveling in
opposite direction, present on the line on
the same time.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Standing wave ratio


Reflection coefficient
Standing waves
Traveling waves

85. The two traveling waves sets up an


interference pattern called _______.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Standing wave ratio


Reflection coefficient
Standing waves
Traveling waves

86. It is defined as the ratio of the maximum


voltage to the minimum voltage or the
maximum current to the minimum
current of a standing wave in a
transmission line.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Standing wave ratio


Normalized impedance
Reflection coefficient
Any of these

87. For a transmission line with an incident


voltage of 5V and a reflected voltage of
3V, determine the reflection coefficient.
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.4
0.6
0.5
0.7

88. A ratio expressing the percentage of


incident voltage reflected on a
transmission line is known as the
A.
B.
C.
D.

Velocity factor
Standing wave ratio
Reflection coefficient
Line efficiency

89. There is an impedance inversion in every


______.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Half wavelength
Quarter wavelength
Full wavelength
Three-eights of a wavelength

90. The characteristic impedance of a


transmission line does not depend upon
its
A.
B.
C.
D.

Length
Conductor diameter
Conductor spacing
None of these

91. ______ are used to match transmission


lines to purely resistive loads whose
resistance is not equal to the
characteristic impedance of the line.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Stub
Slotted lines
Quarter-wavelength transformer
Short circuited lines

92. To match a transmission line with a


reactive load _______
A.
B.
C.
D.

Use stub matching


Use a slotted line
Used a Q-section
Use an open circuited lines

93. A technique that can be used to locate an


impairment in metallic cable
A. TDR
B. Wattmeter

C. Voltmeter
D. SWR meter
94. A pulse is transmitted down a cable that
has a velocity of propagation of 0.8c.
The reflected signal is received 1us later.
How far down the cable is the
impairment?
A.
B.
C.
D.

240 m
15 m
60 m
120 m

95. Using TDR, a transmission line


impairment is located 3000m from the
source. For a velocity propagation of
0.9c, determine the time elapsed from
the beginning of the pulse to the
reception of the echo
A.
B.
C.
D.

11.11 us
10.12 us
22.22 us
21.14 us

96. A flat conductor separated from a


ground plane by an insulating dielectric
material
A.
B.
C.
D.

Stripline
Waveguide
Microstrip
Coaxial cable

97. A flat conductor sandwich between two


ground planes.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Stripline
Waveguide
Microstrip
Coaxial cable

98. Indicate the false statement. The SWR


on a transmission line is infinity; the line
is terminated in
A.
B.
C.
D.

A short circuit
A complex impedance
An open circuit
A pure reactance

99. The most commonly used transmission


line is a
A.
B.
C.
D.

Two-wire balance line


Singe wire
Three-wire line
Coax

100. A short-circuited half-wavelength line


acts like a
A.
B.
C.
D.

Parallel resonant circuit


Series resonant circuit
Oscillator
LC circuit

101. A (75-j50)-ohm is connected to a


coaxial transmission line of Zo = 75
ohms, at 10 GHz. The best method of
matching consists of connecting
A. A short-circuited stub at the load
B. An inductive at the load

C. A capacitance at some specific


distance from the load
D. A short-circuited stub at some
specific distance from the load
102. The velocity factor of a transmission
line
A. Depends on the dielectric constant
of the material used
B. Increases in velocity along the
transmission line
C. Is governed by the skin effect
D. Is higher for a solid dielectric than
for air.
103. Impedance inversion may be obtained
with
A.
B.
C.
D.

A short-circuited stub
An open-circuited stub
A quarter-wave line
A half-wave line

104. The most desirable reflection


coefficient is
A.
B.
C.
D.

0
0.5
1
Infinity

105. Short circuited stubs are preferred to


open-circuited stub because the latter are
A. More difficult to make and connect

B. Made of a transmission line with


different characteristic impedance
C. Liable to radiate
D. Incapable of giving a full range of
reactance
106. For transmission-line load matching
over a range of frequencies, it is best to
use a
A.
B.
C.
D.

Balun
Broadband directional coupler
Double stub
Single stub of adjustable position

107. The main disadvantage of the two-hole


directional coupler is
A.
B.
C.
D.

Low directional coupling


Poor directivity
High SWR
Narrow bandwidth

108. To couple a coaxial line to a parallelwire line, it is best to use a


A.
B.
C.
D.

Slotted line
Balun
Directional coupler
Quarter-wave transformer

109. A short-circuited quarter-wavelength


line acts like a
A. Parallel resonant circuit
B. Series resonant circuit
C. Oscillator

D. LC circuit
110. If the length of a short-circuited stub is
less than a quarter-wavelength but
greater than 0, the stub behaves as
A.
B.
C.
D.

Inductor
Capacitor
Resistor
Complex

111. The depth of penetration of current


density resulting from skin effect
A.
B.
C.
D.

Skin depth
Wire depth
Line depth
Medium depth

112. Transmission line must be matched to


the load to
A. Transfer maximum voltage to the
load
B. Transfer maximum current to the
load
C. Reduce the load current
D. Transfer maximum power to the
load
113. Referred to the dielectric constant of a
transmission line material
A.
B.
C.
D.

Inductance and capacitance


Velocity factor
Characteristic impedance
Propagation velocity

114. A transmission line containing of two


conductors that have equal resistance per
unit length
A.
B.
C.
D.

Unbalanced line
Open-wire line
Balanced line
Coaxial cable

115. Which of the following determines the


characteristics of a transmission line?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Inductance
Capacitance
Physical dimension
Length

116. Category of UTP that was designed for


data transmission rates up to 20 Mbps
A.
B.
C.
D.

Category 5e
Category 4
Category 5
Category 3

117. Level 2 or category 2 UTP cables


comply with IBMs _______
specification.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Type 1
Type 3
Type 2
Type 4

118. Level 3 or Category 3 UTP cables


should have at least ____ twist per inch.

A.
B.
C.
D.

1
2
3
4

119. Which of the following is NOT a color


code for Category 5 UTP?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Blue/white stripe and blue


Orange/white stripe and orange
Red/white stripe and red
Brown/white stripe and brown

120. Shielded-screen twisted-pair cable or


SSTP is also known as ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Cat 5e
Cat 7
Cat 6
Cat 8

121. An open-circuited transmission line


quarter wavelength long is equivalent to
A.
B.
C.
D.

Parallel resonant circuit


Series resonant circuit
Inductive
Capacitive

122. A short-circuited transmission line


more than quarter-wavelength long but
shorter than half wavelength is
equivalent to _______.
A. Series resonant circuit
B. Inductive

C. Capacitive
D. Parallel resonant circuit
123. A short-circuited transmission line less
than quarter-wavelength long.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Inductive
Capacitive
Parallel resonant circuit
Series resonant circuit

124. The quarter-wavelength transformer


line acts as a transformer with a 1:1 turns
ratio when the load resistance is with
what relationship with the characteristic
impedance of the quarter-wavelength
transformer?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Equal
Less than
Greater than
None of these

125. The characteristic impedance of a


microstrip is equal to _____ ohms.
A.
B.
C.
D.

50 to 200
25 to 50
100 to 200
50 to 75

126. The quarter-wavelength transformer


line acts as a step down transformer
when the load resistance is with what
relationship with the characteristic
impedance of the quarter-wavelength
transformer?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Equal
Less than
Greater than
None of these

127. The typical value of the velocity factor


of an open-wire transmission line is
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.8
0.7
0.6
0.9

128. If a transmission line is not terminated


in its characteristic impedance, _______
will develop along the line.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Traveling waves
Standing waves
Surge impedance
Infinite impedance

129. If a load and a line have mismatched


impedances, power not absorbed by the
load will be _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Absorbed
Rejected
Reflected
Removed

COMMUNIC
ATIONS
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

at the output reads 240 microvolts rms.


Assuming operation of 37 degrees,
calculate the resistors resistance.
a. 4 kilo ohms
b. 5 kilo ohms
c. 6 kilo ohms
d. 7 kilo ohms
3. The first electronic communications
system was develop in what century?
a. 17th
b. 19th
c. 18th
d. 20th
4. Who was the first to successfully
transmit wireless radio signals through
Earths atmosphere?
a. Samuel Morse
b. Howard Armstrong
c. Lee DeForest
d. Guglielmo Marconi

MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN

INTRODUCT
ION TO

ENCODED BY:
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
1. It is the transmission, reception, and
processing of information between two
or more locations using electronic
circuits.
a. Electronic communications
b. Electronic transfer
c. Electronic mode
d. Electronic codes
2. The noise produced by a resistor is to be
amplified by a noiseless amplifier
having a voltage gain of 75 and a
bandwidth of 100 kHz. A sensitive meter

5. Who invented frequency modulation?


a. Guglielmo Marconi
b. Thomas Watson
c. Alexander Graham Bell
d. Howard Armstrong
6. A component of the electronic
communication system that provides a
means of transporting signals from a
transmitter to a receiver.
a. Information
b. modulator
c. medium
d. transmitter

7. Calculate the noise power outputs of a 1


kilo ohm resistor at 27 degrees C over a
100-kHz bandwidth.
a. 4.14 fW
b. 0.414 fW
c. 14.1 fW
d. 141 fW
8. _________ is a collection of electronic
devices and circuits that accepts the
transmitted signals from the transmission
medium and converts them back to their
original form.
a. channel
b. receiver
c. transmitter
d. antenna
9. A signal that carries the information
through the system.
a. information
b. modulating signal
c. intelligence
d. carrier
10. A signal that modulates a highfrequency signal or carrier in order to
transfer information from one location to
another
a. intelligence
b. modulated signal
c. carrier
d. intelligence or modulated signal
11. Fourier series shows that a sawtooth
wave consists of the following except
a. fundamental and subharmonic
sine waves

b. a fundamental sine wave and an


infinite number of harmonics
c. fundamental and harmonic sine
waves whose amplitude decreases
with the harmonic number
d. sinusoidal voltages, some of which
are small enough to ignore in
practice
12. Determine the noise current for a diode
with a forward bias of 1mA over a 1
MHz bandwidth.
a. 19.8 nA
b. 17.9 nA
c. 12.3 nA
d. 15 nA
13. The process of changing one or more
properties of the carrier in proportion
with the information signal?
a. demodulation
b. transmission
c. modulation
d. reception
14. A system where digital pulses are
transferred between two points in a
communication system.
a. digital transmission
b. analog transmission
c. digital radio
d. analog communications system
15. It is the transmittal of digitally
modulated analog carriers between two
or more points in a communication
system.
a. analog transmission
b. digital radio

c. digital communications
d. digital reception
16. Type of modulation where the carrier
amplitude is varied proportional to the
information signal.
a. AM
b. PM
c. FM
d. Pulse modulation
17. In FM, the _________ is varied
proportional to the information signal.
a. phase
b. time
c. amplitude
d. frequency
18. A circuit that performs modulation
a. demodulator
b. synthesizer
c. modulator
d. limiter
19. Calculate the signal to noise ratio for a
receiver output of 4V signal and 0.48V
noise in dB
a. 18.5 dB
b. 69 dB
c. 25.4 dB
d. 9.25 dB
20. Modulation used is to the following
except
a. reduce the bandwidth used
b. separate differing transmission
c. ensure that intelligence may be
transmitted over long distance
d. allow the use of practicable antennas

21. It performs the reverse process of


modulation and converts the modulated
carrier back to the original information.
a. oscillator
b. demodulator
c. synthesizer
d. mixer
22. Indicate the false statement. The reasons
why modulation is necessary in
electronic communications is because:
a. It is extremely difficult to radiate
low-frequency signals from antenna
in the form of electromagnetic
energy.
b. Information signals often occupy the
same frequency band and, if signals
from two or more sources at the
same time, they would interfere with
each other.
c. To reduce the size of the capacitors
and inductors of the tuned circuit.
d. To increase the size of the
transmitting
and
receiving
antenna.
23. The process of converting a frequency or
band of frequencies to another location
in the total frequency spectrum is called:
a. translation
b. demodulation
c. modulation
d. oscillation
24. An intricate part of electronic
communication system because of its
up-and-down-conversion functions as
they are transported through a channel.

a.
b.
c.
d.

oscillation
modulation
demodulation
translation

25. _________ is simply the number of


times a periodic motion occurs in a
given unit of time
a. frequency
b. time
c. period
d. phase
26. The difference between the highest and
the lowest frequencies contained in the
information.
a. noise
b. bandwidth
c. interference
d. frequency
27. It is a highly theoretical study of the
efficient use of bandwidth to propagate
information
through
electronic
communications systems.
a. information capacity
b. information bandwidth
c. information theory
d. information entropy
28. It is the measure of how much
information can be transferred through a
communications system in a given
period of time.
a. information bandwidth
b. information capacity
c. information density
d. information theory

29. The law that states that the wider the


bandwidth and the longer the time of
transmission, the more information that
can be conveyed through the system.
a. Information theory
b. Information density law
c. Hartleys law
d. Information entropy law
30. A circuit configuration that involves one
wire for the signal and one for the
reference or ground.
a. 2-wire
b. 4-wire
c. 3-wire
d. 1-wire
31. A circuit configuration that involves two
for signal and two for reference or
ground.
a. 2-wire
b. 4-wire
c. 3-wire
d. 1-wire
32. It is used to match impedances and
provide isolation between the two
directions of signal flow.
a. 2-wire
b. hybrid set
c. 4-wire transmission
d. suppressors
33. An interface circuit that is used when a
two-wire circuit is connected to a fourwire circuit, as in long-distance
telephone call.
a. suppressors
b. echo limiter

c. codec
d. terminating set
34. An amplifier with a noise figure of 6dB
has an input signal-to-noise ratio of
25dB. Calculate the output signal-tonoise ratio in dB.
a. 31 dB
b. 19 dB
c. 20 dB
d. 25 dB

room temperature. Assume that the


external noise is negligible and that a 1mV signal is applied to the amplifiers
input. Calculate the output noise voltage
if the amplifier has a 5-dB NF and the
input noise is generated by a 2-kilo ohm
resistor.
a. 56.58 nV
b. 458 uV
c. 595.6 nV
d. 356 uV

35. It is the process of combining two or


more signals and is an essential process
in electronic communications.
a. oscillation
b. mixing
c. damping
d. modulation

39. In a communication system, which of


the following reduces the information
capacity of the system.
a. linear-phase filtering
b. mixing
c. bandlimiting
d. modulation

36. _________ occurs when two or more


signals combine in a linear device, such
as a passive network or a small-signal
amplifier.
a. non-linear mixing
b. linear-phase filtering
c. linear summing
d. bandlimiting

40. _________ occurs when two or more


signals are combined in a non-linear
device such as a diode or large-signal
amplifier.
a. modulation
b. non-linear summing
c. oscillation
d. non-linear filtering
41. Measuring physical condition of some
remote location and transmitting this
data for analysis is the process of
a. Telemetry
b. Instrumentation
c. Modulation
d. Multiplexing

37. One of the following is not a useful


quantity for comparing the noise
performance of receivers:
a. input noise voltage
b. equivalent noise resistance
c. noise temperature
d. noise figure
38. A single-stage amplifier has a 200-kHz
bandwidth and a voltage gain of 100 at

42. It is defined as any undesirable electrical


energy that falls within the passband of
the signal.

a.
b.
c.
d.

interference
noise
splatter
out-of-band signalling

43. _________ noise that is present


regardless of whether there is a signal
present or not.
a. atmospheric noise
b. correlated
c. uncorrelated
d. internal
44. A three stage amplifier has an input
stage with noise ratio of 5 and power
gain of 50. Stages 2 and 3 have a noise
ratio of 10 and power gain of 1000.
Calculate the noise figure for the overall
system.
a. 4.55 dB
b. 7.14 dB
c. 6 dB
d. 5.18 dB
45. In communication system, noise is most
likely to affect the signal
a. at the transmitter
b. in the channel
c. in the information source
d. at the information
46. Which of the following is not true?
a. HF mixers are generally noisier than
HF amplifiers
b. Impulse
noise
voltage
is
independent of bandwidth
c. Thermal noise is independent of the
frequency at which it is measured.

d. Industrial noise is usually of the


impulse type
47. It is a type of noise that is generated
outside the device of circuit.
a. shot noise
b. noise voltage
c. thermal noise
d. external noise
48. _________ noise is a naturally occurring
electrical
disturbances
which
is
commonly called static electricity.
a. Transit-time noise
b. Extraterrestrial noise
c. Solar noise
d. Atmospheric noise

51. Which of the following is not another


name of thermal agitation noise?
a. White noise
b. Pink noise
c. Johnson noise
d. Brown noise
52. Any modification to a stream of carriers
as they pass from the input to the output
of a device produces an irregular,
random variation is called _________
noise.
a. Transit-time noise
b. Man-made noise
c. Thermal noise
d. Internal noise

49. What is the noise whose source is in a


category different from that of the other
three.
a. solar noise
b. cosmic noise
c. atmospheric noise
d. galactic noise

53. One of the following types of noise


becomes of great importance at high
frequencies. It is the
a. shot noise
b. random noise
c. impulse noise
d. transit-time noise

50. A microwave antenna with an equivalent


noise temperature of 25 K is coupled
through a network with an equivalent
noise temperature of 30 K to a
microwave receiver with an equivalent
noise temperature of 60 K referred to its
input. Calculate the noise power at its
input for a 2-MHz bandwidth.
a. 3.15 fW
b. 4.35 fW
c. 2.12 fW
d. 1.24 fW

54. The noise that was first observed in the


anode current of a vacuum tube
amplifier
and
was
described
mathematically by W. Schottky in 1918.
a. Shot noise
b. Transit-time noise
c. External noise
d. Thermal agitation noise
55. Also known as black-body noise
a. cosmic noise
b. extraterrestrial noise
c. solar noise
d. man made noise

56. Also known as deep-space noise


a. solar noise
b. cosmic noise
c. extraterrestrial noise
d. galactic noise
57. _________ noise is noise that is
mutually related to the signal and cannot
be present in a circuit unless there is an
input signal input.
a. solar noise
b. uncorrelated noise
c. correlated noise
d. noise voltage
58. The square of the thermal noise voltage
generated by a resistor is proportional to
a. its resistance
b. its temperature
c. Boltzmanns constant
d. The bandwidth over which it is
measured
59. It is a type of distortion that when
unwanted harmonics of a signal are
produced
through
a
nonlinear
amplification.
a. intermodulation distortion
b. buck-shot
c. splatter
d. harmonic distortion
60. Which of the following is not used for
communications
a. X-rays
b. Millimeter waves
c. Infrared
d. Microwaves

d. S/N ratio
61. _________ are integer multiples of the
original input signal.
a. interference
b. harmonic
c. fundamental
d. distortion
62. A type of distortion that results from the
generation of unwanted sum and
difference frequencies when two or more
signals are amplified in a linear device,
such as a large-signal amplifier.
a. harmonic distortion
b. intermodulation distortion
c. interference
d. cross talk
63. A form of noise that is characterized by
its capability to disturb or distract.
a. impulse noise
b. man-made noise
c. solar noise
d. interference
64. A type of noise that is characterized by
high-amplitude peaks of short duration
in the total noise spectrum.
a. transit-time noise
b. solar noise
c. thermal noise
d. impulse noise
65. _________ is a figure of merit used to
indicate how much the signal-to-noise
ratio deteriorates as a signal passes
through a circuit or series of circuits.
a. SINAD
b. Q-factor
c. Noise figure

66. The value of resistor creating thermal


noise is doubled. The noise power
generated therefore
a. halved
b. quadrupled
c. doubled
d. unchanged
67. Electromagnetic
waves
primarily by heat are called
a. Infrared
b. Microwaves
c. Shortwaves
d. X-ray

produced

68. Receiving electromagnetic emission


from stars is called
a. Astrology
b. Optical astronomy
c. Radio astronomy
d. Space surveillance
69. It is a collection of electronic
components and circuits designed to
convert the information into a signal
suitable for transmission over a given
communication medium.
a. receiver
b. medium
c. transmitter
d. mixer
70. It is where the electronic signal is sent
from one place to another.
a. receiver
b. transmitter
c. source
d. channel

71. It is a broad general term applied to any


form of wireless communication from
one point to another.
a. radio
b. frequency
c. signal
d. spectrum
72. Collection of electronic components and
circuits that accept the transmitted
message from the channel and convert it
back into a form understandable by
humans.
a. receiver
b. medium
c. transmitter
d. converter
73. It is a random, undesirable, electric
energy that enters a communications
system via the communicating medium
and interferes with the transmitted
message.
a. interference
b. noise
c. distortion
d. fluctuations
74. A system that transmits information
about the physical status of the satellite
including the position and temperature.
a. telecommand
b. telemovement
c. television
d. telemetry

75. Regardless of whether information is


analog or digital, these signals are
referred to as _________.
a. broadband
b. composite
c. baseband
d. any of these
76. Putting the original voice, video, or
digital data directly into the medium is
referred to as _________.
a. baseband transmission
b. composite transmission
c. broadband transmission
d. data transmission
77. It is the process of having a baseband
voice, video, or digital signal modify
another, higher-frequency signal.
a. mixing
b. summing
c. heterodyning
d. modulation
78. It is the process of transmitting two or
more signals simultaneously over the
same channel.
a. modulation
b. multiplexing
c. summing
d. demodulation
79. The entire range of frequencies is
referred to as _________.
a. frequency spectrum
b. signals spectrum
c. electromagnetic spectrum
d. radio spectrum

80. What is the wavelength in meters, if the


frequency is 10 MHz?
a. 30
b. 0.3
c. 3
d. 300
81. Musical instruments
usually in what range?
a. LF
b. VLF
c. VF
d. HF

makes

sounds

82. Range of electromagnetic spectrum used


in navy to communicate submarines
a. VLF
b. LF
c. HF
d. UHF
83. Frequencies above 1 GHz range is called
_________.
a. milliwaves
b. microwaves
c. centiwaves
d. hectowaves
84. The range of long infrared is
a. 0.01 mm to 1000 nm
b. 0.01 mm to 700 nm
c. 1000nm to 700 nm
d. 0.4 um to 0.8 um
85. A radiation that is generally associated
with heat.
a. ultraviolet
b. visible light
c. infrared
d. EHF

86. Infrared occupies approximately


a. 0.01 mm to 1000nm
b. 0.01 mm to 700 nm
c. 1000nm to 700 nm
d. 0.4 um to 0.8 um
87. Light is a special type of electromagnetic
radiation which has a wavelength range
of
a. 0.01 mm to 1000nm
b. 0.01 mm to 700 nm
c. 1000nm to 700 nm
d. 0.4 um to 0.8 um
88. The approximate frequency of a red
a. 8000 Angstrom
b. 800 Angstrom
c. 4000 Angstrom
d. 400 Angstrom
89. It is the portion of electromagnetic
spectrum occupied by the signal.
a. spectrum
b. composite
c. bandwidth
d. multiplexed
90. It is the frequency range over which an
information signal is transmitted or over
which a receiver or other electronic
equipment operate.
a. composite
b. bandwidth
c. summed frequency
d. signals
91. The range of frequencies required to
transmit the desired information.

a.
b.
c.
d.

channel bandwidth
information capacity
information bandwidth
channel capacity

92. The first complete system of wireless


communications was provided by
a. Samuel Morse
b. Guglielmo Marconi
c. James Maxwell
d. Heinrich Hertz
93. Calculate the noise power at the input of
a microwave receiver with an equivalent
noise temperature of 45 K. It is fed from
an antenna with a 35 K equivalent noise
temperature and operates over a 5-MHz
bandwidth.
a. 3.56 fW
b. 1.34 fW
c. 2.98 fW
d. 5.52 fW
94. It is the process of putting information
onto a high-frequency carrier for
transmission.
a. multiplexing
b. modulation
c. mixing
d. heterodyning
95. It is generally a device that converts
energy from one form to another.
a. transformer
b. motor
c. transducer
d. generator

96. Man-made noise occurs randomly at


frequencies up to around
a. 100 Hz
b. 300 kHz
c. 200 MHz
d. 500 MHz
97. What is the seventh harmonic of 360
kHz?
a. 2520 kHz
b. 46.08 MHz
c. 3.6 x 10^12 Hz
d. 1980 kHz
98. Atmospheric noise is not a significant
factor for frequencies exceeding about
_________.
a. 30 MHz
b. 50 MHz
c. 10 MHz
d. 25 MHz
99. Space noise contains less energy below
a. 9 MHz
b. 15 MHz
c. 20 MHz
d. 8 MHz
100. The process of converting a frequency
or band of frequencies to another
location in the
total frequency spectrum
a. modulation
b. detection
c. frequency translation
d. amplification
101.What is frequency range of EHF?
a. 3 30 GHz
b.30 300 GHz

c. 30 300 MHz
d. 300 3000 MHz
102.Calculate the wavelength in free space
corresponding to a frequency of AM
radio
broadcast band of 1 MHz
a. 300 m
b. 7.5 m
c. 11.1 m
d. 3.25 m
103.When the input power is reduced in half
at the output, the signal power is said to
be
reduced by:
a. 2 dB
b. 6 dB
c. 4 dB
d. 3 dB
104. A current change that is equal to twice
its original value will correspond to a change of
a. 3 dB
b. 9 dB
c. 10 dB
d. 6 dB
105.There are four networks in series. The
first network has a gain of 15 dB, the
second has
a loss of 4 dB, the third gain of 35 dB,
and the fourth a loss of 5 dB. The input
of the first network is +3dBm. What is
the output to the last network in mW.
a. 15913.1
b. 19922.9
c. 25118.9
d. 29523.6

106. The PLL is often combined with


_________ circuits to produce multiple
frequencies.
a. Local oscillator
b. Mixer
c. RF amplifier
d. AF amplifier
107. Flicker noise may be completely
ignored above about _________.
a. 500 Hz
b. 350 Hz
c. 225 Hz
d. 300 Hz
108. Determine the noise figure for an
equivalent noise temperature of 75 K.
a. 1 dB
b. 3 dB
c. 2 dB
d. 1.25 dB
109.What is the other name for HF?
a. microwaves
b. short waves
c. millimeter waves
d. audio waves
110.It is a resistive network that is used to
introduce a fixed amount of attenuation
between the source and a load.
a. limiter
b. clipper
c. mixer
d. attenuator
111.A technique used in improving
communication when a high peak-to-

average power ratio of atmospheric


noise occurs, the receiver is disabled
during the duration of these burst.
a. quieting
b. noise blanking
c. limiting
d. mixing
112.It is the ratio of the signal power level to
noise power level
a. noise figure
b. signal-to-noise ratio
c. SINAD
d. noise improvement factor
113.It is a figure of merit used to indicate
how much the signal-to-noise ratio
deteriorates as a signal passes through a
circuit or series of circuits.
a. Q-factor
b. signal-to-noise ratio
c. noise factor
d. numerical aperture
114.What is the major contributor of
transistor noise?
a. thermal agitation noise
b. pink noise
c. flicker noise
d. shot noise
115.Which of the following is not known as
excess noise?
a. pink noise
b. 1/f noise
c. flicker noise
d. brown noise

116.It is the relative measure of the desired


signal power to the noise power
a. noise factor
b. signal-to-noise ratio
c. noise figure
d. noise improvement factor
117.Which of the following is a desirable
value of signal-to-noise ratio in dB?
a. 0
b. 100
c. 1
d. 50
118.It is the range of frequency in which the
upper frequency is double the lower
frequency
a. decade
b. pentade
c. octave
d. none of these
119.Which of the following noise figure is
more desirable?
a. 0 dB
b. 100 dB
c. 1 dB
d. infinity
120.The formula used to measure the total
noise figure due to amplifiers in cascade
is called _________.
a. Johnsons formula
b. Shannons formula
c. Hartleys formula
d. Friss formula
121.It is defined as to fluctuate between two
states or conditions.

a. oscillate
b. synchronization
c. amplify
d. signal generation
122.An oscillator is _________ when the
changes in a waveform are continuous
and repetitive and occurs in a periodic
rate.
a. locking
b. one-shot
c. triggered
d. self-sustaining
123.A free-running oscillator is also called
_________.
a. one-shot
b. triggered
c. locking
d. self-sustaining
124.Oscillators that are not self-sustaining
are called _________.
a. free-running
b. feedback
c. triggered
d. regenerative
125.An oscillator that is an amplifier with a
feedback loop.
a. signal generator
b. feedback oscillator
c. frequency synthesizer
d. frequency synchronization circuit
126.For a feedback circuit to sustain
oscillation, the net voltage gain around
the feedback loop must be unity or
greater, and the net phase shift around

the loop must be positive integer


multiply of 360 degrees.
a. Barkhausen criterion
b. Butterworth criterion
c. Flywheel effect
d. Feedback criterion
127.A circuit which comprises of a voltage
amplifier with an open-loop voltage
gain,
a
frequency-determining
regenerative feedback path with a
feedback ratio and either a summer or
subtractor circuit.
a. amplifier
b. closed-loop
c. power source
d. open-loop
128.It is the overall voltage gain of the
complete circuit with the feedback loop
closed and is always less than the openloop voltage gain.
a. feedback ratio
b. closed-loop voltage gain
c. open-loop current gain
d. close-loop current gain
129.It is the transfer function of the
feedback network.
a. feedback ratio
b. closed-loop current gain
c. open-loop voltage gain
d. open-loop current gain
130.It is an untuned RC shift oscillator that
uses both positive and negative
feedback.
a. LC tank circuit
b. Colpitts oscillators

c. Hartley oscillators
d. Wein-Bridge oscillators
131.Its operation involves an exchange of
energy between kinetic and potential.
a. Wein-Bridge oscillators
b. LC tank circuit
c. Clapp oscillators
d. Hartley oscillators
132.It is the ability of an oscillator to remain
at as fixed frequency and is of primary
importance in a communications system
a. oscillation
b. synchronization
c. frequency stability
d. filtering
133.It is a function of component aging and
changes in the ambient temperature and
humidity.
a. short-term stability
b. damping
c. long-term stability
d. filtering
134.It is the study of the form, structure,
properties and classifications of crystals
a. Crystallography
b. Stalactitomy
c. Crystallomagraphy
d. Stalagmitophy
135.It deals with lattices, bonding and
behaviour of splices of crystal material
that have been cut at various angles with
respect to the crystals axes.
a. Crystallography
b. Stalactitomy

c. Crystallomagraphy
d. Stalagmitophy
136. It occurs when oscillating mechanical
stresses applied across a crystal lattice
structure generate electrical oscillations
and vice-versa.
a. crystal effect
b. photoelectric effect
c. piezoelectric effect
d. solar effect
137.Which of the following crystals is
commonly used in microphones?
a. Quartz
b. Rochelle salt
c. Tourmaline
d. ADP
138.Which of the following crystals is often
used for frequency control in
oscillators?
a. EDT
b. Synthetic quartz
c. Tourmaline
d. Rochelle salt
139.An increase in temperature causes an
increase in frequency and a decrease in
temperature causes an increase in
frequency.
a. negative temperature coefficient
b. positive temperature coefficient
c. constant temperature coefficient
d. temperature coefficient
140.It is a specially constructed diode whose
internal capacitance is enhanced when
reverse biased, and by varying the

reverse bias voltage, the capacitance of


the diode can be adjusted.
a. tunnel diode
b. SAW
c. backward diode
d. varactor
141.It is often used when describing
varactor diode fabrication.
a. graded junction
b. reverse junction
c. barrier junction
d. capacitive junction
142.It is an oscillator circuit that generates
well-defined, stable waveforms that can
be externally modulated or swept over a
given frequency range.
a. swept generator
b. frequency synthesizer
c. wave generator
d. frequency synchronizer
143.It is a free-running oscillator with a
stable frequency of oscillation that
depends on an external timing
capacitance, timing resistance, and
control voltage.
a. multiplier
b. monolithic controlled oscillator
c. voltage-controlled oscillator
d. phase-locked loop

c. bandwidth
d. free-running frequency
145.The
voltage-controlled
oscillator
operates at a set frequency called
a. free-running frequency
b. capture range
c. lock range
d. bandwidth
146.Free-running frequency is also known
as _________.
a. capture range
b. lock range
c. tracking range
d. natural
147. Also known as lock range
a. capture range
b. free-running frequency
c. natural frequency
d. tracking range
148. It is defined as the band of frequencies
in the vicinity of the natural frequency
where the
PLL can establish or acquire lock with
an input signal.
a. tracking range
b. capture range
c. lock range
d. hold-in range

144.It is defined as the range of frequencies


149. It is an oscillator with stable frequency
in vicinity of the VCOs natural of oscillation that depends on an external bias
frequency over which the PLL can
voltage.
maintain lock with an input signal.
a. multiplier
a. capture range
b. monolithic controlled oscillator
b. lock range
c. voltage-controlled oscillator

d. phase-locked loop
150. Also known as phase comparator
a. phase detector
b. phase-lock loop
c. voltage controlled oscillator
d. frequency synthesizer
151. It means to form an entity by
combining parts or elements.
a. oscillate
b. integrate
c. amplify
d. synthesize

b. resolution
c. octave
d. decade
155. Zero beat is also known as _________.
a. phase acquisition
b. loop acquisition
c. push-in acquisition
d. frequency acquisition
156. Capture range is also known as
_________.
a. pull-in range
b. lock range
c. acquisition range
d. hold-in range

152. It is used to generate many output


frequencies through the addition, subtraction,
multiplication, and division of a smaller
157. Half of the lock range is equal to
number of fixed frequency sources.
_________.
a. power amplifier
a. capture range
b. frequency synchronizer
b. hold-in range
c. oscillator
c. pull-in range
d. free-running frequency
d. frequency synthesizer
153. A type of frequency synthesis in which
multiple output frequencies are generated by
mixing the outputs from two or more
crystal-controlled frequency sources or by
dividing
or multiplying the output frequency
form a single-crystal oscillator.
a. direct frequency synthesis
b. constant frequency synthesis
c. indirect frequency synthesis
d. multiple frequency synthesis
154. It is the minimum frequency separation
between output frequencies for the synthesizer.
a. dynamic range

158. The _________ gain for a PLL is


simply the product of the individual gains or
transfer
function for the loop.
a. loop
b. capture
c. lock
d. closed
159. Considered as the main source of an
internal noise.
a. Flicker
b. Thermal agitation
c. Device imperfection
d. Temperature change

160. What is the first symbol of a radio


signal emission having amplitude modulated
main
carrier?
a. C
b. B
c. H
d. A
161. The method of determining the
bandwidth requirements for any processing
system is
referred to as:
a. frequency spectrum
b. frequency analysis
c. spectral analysis
d. bandwidth analysis
162. When two-equal frequencies are mixed
together, the result is
a. zero-bias
b. zero-beat
c. zero-modulation
d. off-beat
163. Noise uniformly distributed over the
voice frequency band is called _________
noise.
a. impulse
b. quantizing
c. intermodulation
d. white
164. In psophometric noise weighting, one
picowatt is equivalent to 800 Hz tone with a
power of
a. -90 dBm
b. -85 dBm

c. -65 dBm
d. none of the above
165. What is the reference tone level for
dBa?
a. -90 dBm
b. -82 dBm
c. -67 dBm
d. -85 dBm
166. What is the reference tone level for
dBm?
a. -90 dBm
b. -82 dBm
c. -67 dBm
d. -85 dBm
167. At what power level does a 1 kHz tone
causes zero interference (144 weighted)?
a. 90 dB
b. 90 dBm
c. -90 dB
d. -90 dBm
168. A tone of _________ Hz causes more
interference than do other frequencies, in a
voice
channel.
a. 300
b. 1000
c. 3400
d. 4000
169. A power of a standard test tone is
normally _________.
a. 0 mW
b. 1 W
c. 1 dB
d. 1 mW

170. The standard test tone has a frequency


of _________ Hz.
a. 1000
b. 10
c. 100
d. none of these
171. In an analog voice frequency channel,
the unwanted change in phase or frequency
caused by modulation of another signal
is;
a. Intrinsic noise
b. white noise
c. intermodulation
d. phase-jitter
172. The kind of noise that is caused by
mismatched lines;
a. echo noise
b. impulse noise
c. partition noise
d. intermodulation noise
173. What is the reference tone level for
random noise measurement, F1A weighted?
a. -90 dBm
b. -82 dBm
c. -67 dBm
d. -85 dBm
174. A ten times power change in a
transmission system is equivalent to:
a. 10 dB
b. 100 dB
c. 20 dB
d. 10 dB
175. If the transmitter output power of 10
watts is doubled, the gain derived is about:

a. 6 dB
b. 4 dB
c. 13 dB
d. noise of the above
176. When the power ratio of the input to
output is 1/100, the loss of the circuit, in dB, is
a. 20
b. -20
c. -10
d. 3
177. An antenna which has a power gain of
30 dB would mean it could increase the output
of
the transmitter by:
a. 10,000 times
b. 1,000 times
c. 100 times
d. 1 million times
178. In a double-tuned circuit, and peak
output with _________ coupling.
a. under
b. over
c. optimum
d. medium
179. The frequency band used by cellular
telephones and cellular telephones and mobile
communication services is _________.
a. UHF
b. EHF
c. VHF
d. VLF
180. The radio wavelength known as
_________ falls within the medium frequency
range.

a. centimetric
b. decametric
c. hectometric
d. myriametric
181. In a double-tuned circuit, maximum
bandwidth with _________ coupling
a. under
b. over
c. optimum
d. critical
182. Decreasing the Q of a resonant circuit
causes its bandwidth to _________.
a. increase
b. decrease
c. become constant
d. become narrow

c. white noise
d. flicker noise
186. The electromagnetic spectrum is
managed worldwide by the _________
organization.
a. FCC
b. SI
c. ANSI
d. ITU
187. Unwanted mixer output signals are
eliminated by a _________.
a. filter
b. multiplexer
c. mixer
d. amplifier

188. The bandwidth of a double-tuned


183. Most impedance-matching networks
transformer depends upon the degree of
are _________ filters, so they eliminate
_________
harmonics.
between primary and secondary
a. high-pass
windings.
b. low-pass
a. mutual inductance
c. bandpass
b. coupling coefficient
d. bandstop
c. limiting factor
184. _________ are types of noise generated
d. filtering
by equipments that produces sparks.
189. In a double-tuned circuit, minimum
a. equipment noise
b. atmospheric noise
bandwidth is obtained with _________
c. space noise
coupling.
d. internal noise
a. under
b. over
185. A high-frequency noise occurs when
c. optimum
the time taken by change carriers to cross a
d. critical
junction is comparable to the period of
the signal
190. A basic circuit of a frequency of a
a. pink noise
synthesizer is a _________.
b. transit-time noise
a. PLL

b. LC oscillator
c. Crystal oscillator
d. RC oscillator
191. The output frequency of a synthesizer
is changed by varying the _________ of the
divider between the VCO and the phase
detector.
a. Mixer output
b. IF output
c. Frequency division ratio
d. Voltage division ratio
192. The PLL is often combined with
_________ circuits to produce multiple
frequencies.
a. Local oscillator
b. Mixer
c. RF amplifier
d. AF amplifier
193. A crystal oscillator has superior
_________ over an LC oscillator.
a. amplitude stability
b. frequency stability
c. phase stability
d. voltage stability
194. If a parallel LC circuit is at resonance,
increasing C will cause the current to
_________
the applied voltage.
a. lead
b. lag
c. lead-lag
d. lag-lead

195. Information sent in the form of coded


dots and dashes is called _________
transmission.
a. baudot
b. continuous-wave
c. digital
d. any of these
196. Fixed-frequency or channel operation
of a transmitter is obtained by using a
_________.
a. LC oscillator
b. RC oscillator
c. crystal oscillator
d. synthesizers
197. Combining a feedback capacitor with
the internal capacitance of the transistor forms a
_________ circuit which is used to
cancel the self-oscillation.
a. filter
b. tank
c. bridge
d. feedback
198. Untuned RF transformers permit
_________ operation over a wide frequency
range.
a. narrowband
b. middleband
c. broadband
d. any of these

MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN

WAVE
PROPAGATI
ON
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
1. The cumulative sum of the direct,
ground-reflected, and surface waves is
reflected to as _________.
a. Space wave

b. Ground wave
c. Sky wave
d. Direct waves
2. The D layer of the ionosphere reflects
_________ waves.
a. MF and HF
b. VLF and MF
c. MF and VHF
d. VLF and LF
3. A diversity scheme wherein the same
radio signal is repeated or transmitted
more than once.
a. polarization diversity
b. field component diversity
c. time diversity
d. frequency diversity
4. The disadvantage of ground wave
propagation is
a. Ground waves require a relatively
high transmission power
b. Ground waves are limited to very
low, low and medium frequencies
requiring large antennas
c. Ground losses very considerably
with surface material
d. Any of these
5. A range of microwave frequencies more
easily passed by the atmosphere than the
others is called a
a. window

b. critical frequency
c. gyro frequency range
d. resonance in the atmosphere
6. It is simply the orientation of the electric
field vector in respect to the surface of
the Earth
a. Polarization
b. Wavefront
c. Rays
d. Power density
7. For an isotropic antenna radiating 100W
of power, what is power density 1000m
from the source?
a. 1.99 uW/m^2
b. 7.96 uW/m^2
c. 3.22 uW/m^2
d. 9.17 uW/m^2
8. The ground wave eventually disappears,
as moves away from the transmitter,
because of
a. interference from the sky wave
b. loss of line-of-sight conditions
c. maximum single hop distance
limitations
d. tilting
9. If the electric field is propagating
parallel to the surface of the Earth, the
polarization is _________.
a. Circular
b. Vertical

c. Horizontal
d. Elliptical
10. A taxi company uses a central
dispatcher, with an antenna at the top of
a 15m tower, to communicate with taxi
cabs. The taxi antennas are on the roofs
of the cars, approximately 1.5m above
the ground. What is the maximum
communication distance between the
dispatcher and a taxi?
a. 21 km
b. 30 km
c. 25 km
d. 33 km
11. The E layer of the ionosphere aid
_________ propagation and reflects
_________ waves
a. MF, HF
b. HF, MF
c. LF, MF
d. MF, LF
12. When microwave signals follows the
curvature of the earth, it is known as
a. the Faraday effect
b. ducting
c. tropospheric scatter
d. ionospheric scatter
13. If the polarization vector rotates 360
degrees as the wave moves one
wavelength through space and field
strength is equal at all angles of

polarization, the polarization is


_________.
a. Vertically polarized
b. Horizontally polarized
c. Circularly polarized
d. Elliptically polarized
14. _________ travels essentially in a
straight line between the transmit and the
receive antennas
a. Direct waves
b. Sky waves
c. Space waves
d. Surface waves
15. Variations brought about the revolution
of the earth around the sun
a. weather variation
b. cyclical variation
c. diurnal variation
d. seasonal variation
16. The dielectric strength of air is about
3MV/m. Arching is likely to take place
at field strengths greater than that. What
is the maximum power density of an
electromagnetic wave in air?
a. 40 GW/m^2
b. 15.5 GW/m^2
c. 23.9 GW/m^2
d. 18.9 GW/m^2
17. It is a single location from which rays
propagate equally in all directions

a.
b.
c.
d.

point source
omnidirectional source
ideal polarization
isotropic polarized

18. Diffraction of electromagnetic waves


a. is caused by reflections from the
ground
b. arises only with spherical waveforms
c. will occur when the waves pass
through a large slot
d. may occur around the edge of a
sharp obstacle
19. The critical frequency at a particular
time is 11.6MHz. What is the MUF for a
transmitting station if the required angle
of incidence for propagation to a desired
destination is 70 degrees?
a. 34 MHz
b. 45 MHz
c. 40 MHz
d. 15.5 MHz
20. The rate at which energy passes through
a given surface area in free space is
called _________.
a. capture power
b. capture area
c. captured power density
d. power density
21. A radio wave moves from air (relative
permittivity is 1) to glass (relative
permittivity is 7.8). Its angle of

incidence is 30 degrees. What is the


angle of refraction?
a. 10.3 degrees
b. 11.2 degrees
c. 20.4 degrees
d. 0.179 degrees
22. It is the intensity of the electric and the
magnetic fields of the electromagnetic
wave propagating in free space
a. field intensity
b. field density
c. power intensity
d. power intensity
23. Radio propagation was predicted
mathematically by
a. Heinrich R. Hertz
b. Guglielmo Marconi
c. James Clerk Maxwell
d. Alexander Graham Bell
24. Tropospheric scatter is used with
frequencies in the following range
a. HF
b. VHF
c. UHF
d. VLF
25. A point source that radiates power at a
constant rate uniformly in all directions.
a. isotropic source
b. isotropic radiator
c. point source
d. any of these

26. The transmitting distance with direct


waves is limited to short distances and
strictly a function of the _________ of
the transmitting and receiving antenna.
a. frequency
b. phase
c. power
d. height

30. The signal refracted back from the


ionosphere strikes the earth and is
reflected back up to the ionosphere again
to be bent and sent back to earth.
a. skip transmission
b. multi-hop transmission
c. multi transmission
d. hop transmission

27. One nautical mile is equal to _________


statute miles.
a. 2.12
b. 1.15
c. 2.54
d. 1.90

31. Electromagnetic waves are refracted


when they
a. pass into a medium of different
dielectric constant
b. are polarized at right angles to the
direction of propagation
c. encounter a perfectly conducting
surface
d. pass through a small slot in a
conducting plane

28. It is the deflection or bending of


electromagnetic waves such as radio
waves, light or even sound when the
waves cross the boundary line between
two mediums with different
characteristics.
a. reflection
b. diffraction
c. refraction
d. dispersion
29. The reduction of power density with
distance is equivalent to a power loss.
a. absorption
b. attenuation
c. distance loss
d. power dissipation

32. The reduction in power density due to


nonfree-space propagation
a. absorption
b. attenuation
c. power dissipation
d. distance loss
33. _________ is the signal that is radiated
by the antenna into the atmosphere
where it is bent or reflected back to
earth.
a. ground wave signal
b. sky wave signal

c. space wave signal


d. direct waves signal
34. It is a type of fading having different
effect different frequencies
a. Selective fading
b. Polarization fading
c. Interference fading
d. Absorption fading
35. It is defined as the modulation or
redistribution of energy within a wave
front as it passes near the edge of an
opaque object.
a. refraction
b. scattering
c. reflection
d. diffraction
36. What type of modulation is primarily
used in ground wave propagation?
a. Frequency modulation
b. Amplitude modulation
c. Phase modulation
d. Pulse modulation
37. It states that every point on a given
spherical wavefront can be considered as
a secondary point source of
electromagnetic waves from which other
secondary waves or wavelets are
radiated outward.
a. Hertzian principle
b. Maxwells principle

c. Huygens principle
d. Marconis principle
38. Calculate the electric field intensity, in
volts per meter, 20 km from a 1-kW
source.
a. 3.44 mW/m
b. 7.65 mW/m
c. 8.66 mW/m
d. 1.45 mW/m
39. The absorption of radio waves by the
atmosphere depends on
a. their frequency
b. their distance from the transmitter
c. the polarization of waves
d. is always vertical in an isotropic
medium
40. Calculate the radio horizon for a 500-ft
transmitting antenna and receiving
antenna of 20 ft.
a. 23.1 mi
b. 31.2 mi
c. 14.8 mi
d. 37.9 mi
41. Calculate the power received from a 20W transmitter, 22,000 miles from earth,
if the receiving antenna has an effective
area of 1600m^2
a. 4.06 x 10^-12 W
b. 2.03 x 10^-12 W
c. 1.02 x 10^-12 W

d. 0.91 x 10^-12 W
42. As electromagnetic waves travel in free
space, only one of the following can
happen to them
a. absorption
b. attenuation
c. refraction
d. reflection
43. Electromagnetic waves travelling within
Earths atmosphere is called
a. Space wave
b. Surface wave
c. Terrestrial wave
d. Sky-wave

46. The constant temperature stratosphere is


called _________.
a. E-layer
b. S-layer
c. isothermal region
d. ionosthermal region
47. It is the tendency of the sun to have
grayish-black blemishes, seemingly at
random times and at random place, on its
fiery surface.
a. solar intensity
b. sunspot
c. solar flare
d. solar flux

44. Calculate the power density in watts per


square meter (on earth) from a 10-W
satellite source that is 22,000 miles from
earth.
a. 3.17 x 10^ -16 W/m^2
b. 6.35 x 10^ -16 W/m^2
c. 2.31 x 10^ -16 W/m^2
d. 1.21 x 10^ -16 W/m^2

48. In electromagnetic waves, polarization


a. is caused by reflection
b. is due to the transverse nature of
the waves
c. results from the longitudinal nature
of waves
d. is always vertical in an isotropic
medium

45. It is termed used to describe variations in


signal strength that occur at the receiver
during this time a signal is being
received.
a. skipping
b. attenuation
c. absorption
d. fading

49. It is an earth-guided electromagnetic


wave that travels over the surface of the
Earth
a. Surface waves
b. Sky waves
c. Direct waves
d. Space waves

50. Frequencies in the UHF range normally


propagate by means of
a. Ground waves
b. Sky waves
c. Surface waves
d. Space waves
51. The curvature of the Earth presents a
horizon to space wave propagation
commonly called _________.
a. Optical horizon
b. Radio horizon
c. Horizontal horizon
d. Vertical horizon
52. Electromagnetic waves that are directed
above the horizon level is called
_________.
a. direct waves
b. sky waves
c. space waves
d. surface waves
53. The refracting and reflecting action of
the ionosphere and the ground is called
a. sliding
b. skipping
c. hopping
d. boosting
54. An electrical energy that is escaped in
free space
a. Electrical signal
b. Electromagnetic waves

c. Magnetic waves
d. Electromagnetism
55. The layer of the ionosphere which
farthest from the sun
a. D layer
b. E layer
c. F1 layer
d. F2 layer
56. A condition which manifest itself in the
form of double-image distortion
a. running
b. fading
c. ghosting
d. snowing
57. The D layer of the ionosphere absorbs
_________ waves.
a. LF and MF
b. MF and HF
c. HF and VHF
d. VHF and UHF
58. The E layer of the ionosphere is
sometimes called _________
a. Kennely-Heavisides
b. Sporadic-E layer
c. E-densed layer
d. Kennely layer
59. It is defined as the higher frequency that
can be propagated directly upward and

still be returned to earth by the


ionosphere
a. critical angle
b. maximum usable frequency
c. critical frequency
d. virtual height
60. The maximum vertical angle at which
electromagnetic waves can be
propagated and still be reflected back by
the ionosphere
a. numerical aperture
b. incident angle
c. critical angle
d. refracted angle
61. It is defined as the plane joining all
points of equal phase
a. rays
b. electromagnetic wave
c. wavefront
d. isotropic source
62. It is the height above Earths surface
from which a reflected wave appears to
have been reflected.
a. virtual height
b. maximum height
c. vertical height
d. horizontal height
63. It is the highest frequency that can be
used for sky wave propagation between
two specific points on Earths surface

a.
b.
c.
d.

optimum working frequency


maximum usable frequency
critical frequency
maximum frequency

64. The polarization of electromagnetic


waves can be determined by the
direction of the
a. E field
b. H field
c. propagation
d. both E and H field
65. 85 percent of the maximum usable
frequency (MUF) is called _________.
a. maximum usable frequency
b. optimum working frequency
c. critical frequency
d. maximum frequency

a.
b.
c.
d.

Pedersen ray
Light ray
Huygens ray
Millers ray

68. Undesired radiated energy from a radio


transmitter or in another source.
a. ESD
b. EMI
c. RFI
d. ESI
69. The area between where the surface
waves are completely dissipated and the
point where the first sky wave returns to
earth is called _________.
a. skip distance
b. skip distance zone
c. optical horizon
d. quiet zone

a.
b.
c.
d.

free-space path loss


free space loss
path loss
any of these

72. To increase the transmission distance of


a UHF signal, which of the following
should be done?
a. increase the antenna gain
b. increase antenna height
c. increase transmitter power
d. increase receiver sensitivity

66. It is defined as the minimum distance


from the transmit antenna that a sky
wave at a given frequency will be
returned to earth.
a. skip distance
b. skip zone
c. skip frequency distance
d. skip zone frequency

70. The undesired radiated energy that may


cause interference with other electronic
equipment in the vicinity.
a. ESD
b. EMI
c. RFI
d. ESI

73. For a carrier frequency of 6 GHz and a


distance of 50 km, determine the freespace path loss
a. 132 dB
b. 123 dB
c. 142 dB
d. 152 dB
74. A microwave-transmitting antenna is
550 ft high. The receiving antenna is 200
ft high. The maximum transmission
distance is
a. 20 mi
b. 33.2 mi
c. 38.7 mi
d. 53.2 mi

67. At distance greater than the skip


distance, two rays can take different
paths and still be returned to the same
point on Earth. The two rays are called
lower rays and _________.

71. It is defined as the loss incurred by an


electromagnetic wave as it propagates in
a straight line through a vacuum with no
absorption or reflection of energy from
nearby objects.

75. Indicate which one of the following term


applies to troposcatter propagation
a. SIDs
b. Fading
c. Atmospheric storms

d. Faradays rotation
76. Line-of-sight communications is not a
factor in which frequency range?
a. VHF
b. UHF
c. HF
d. Microwave
77. VLF waves are used for some types of
services because
a. of the low powers required
b. the transmitting antenna are of
convenient size
c. they are very reliable
d. affected by the solar cycle
78. Microwave signals propagate by way of
the
a. direct wave
b. sky wave
c. surface wave
d. standing wave
79. Indicate which of the following
frequencies cannot be used for reliable
beyond-the-horizon terrestrial
communications without repeaters:
a. 20 kHz
b. 15 MHz
c. 900 MHz
d. 12 GHz

80. The type of radio wave responsible for


long-distance communications by
multiple skips is the
a. ground wave
b. direct wave
c. surface waves
d. sky wave
81. High-frequency waves are
a. absorbed by the F2 layer
b. reflected by the D layer
c. capable of use for long-distance
communications on the moon
d. affected by the solar cycle
82. The ionosphere has its greatest effect on
signals in what frequency range?
a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz
c. 30 to 300 MHz
d. above 300 MHz
83. Distances near the skip distance should
be used for sky-wave propagation
a. to avoid tilting
b. to prevent sky-wave and upper ray
interference
c. to avoid Faraday effect
d. so as not to exceed the critical
frequency
84. Ground-wave communications is most
effective in what frequency range?
a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz

b. 3 to 30 MHz
c. 30 to 300 MHz
d. above 300 MHz
85. The ionosphere causes radio signals to
be
a. diffused
b. absorbed
c. refracted
d. reflected
86. Helical antenna are often used for
satellite tracking at VHF because of
a. troposcatter
b. superrefraction
c. ionospheric refraction
d. the Faraday effect
87. A ship-to-ship communication system is
plagued by fading. The best solution
seem to use of
a. a more directional antenna
b. a broadband antenna
c. frequency diversity
d. space diversity
88. It is defined as the ratio of the electric
field intensity of the reflected wave to
that of the incident wave
a. refractive index
b. numerical aperture
c. reflection coefficient
d. absorption coefficient

89. It is the measure of energy received per


unit time, per unit area, per unit
frequency interval.
a. solar intensity
b. sunspot
c. solar flare
d. solar flux
90. A long period with lack of any solar
activity
a. El Nio
b. La Nia
c. Maunder period
d. Sunspots

communication between two given


points by the way of the ionosphere.
a. MUF
b. LUF
c. OWF
d. MMF
94. It is the area that lies between the outer
limit of the ground-wave range and the
inner edge of energy return from the
ionosphere
a. skip distance
b. skip zone
c. virtual height
d. optical horizon

91. As a ground-wave signal moves away


from the transmitter, the ground wave
eventually disappears due to the
a. absorption
b. tilting
c. refraction
d. diffraction

95. Variations brought about by the rotation


of the earth around its axis.
a. cyclical rotation
b. seasonal variation
c. diurnal variation
d. weather variation

92. It is the lowest layer of the atmosphere


where all weather disturbances takes
place
a. D layer
b. Stratosphere
c. Ionosphere
d. Troposphere

96. Ionospheric irregularity caused by solar


flares, which are gigantic emissions of
hydrogen from the sun.
a. Sudden ionospheric disturbances
b. Dillenger fadeouts
c. Mogul-Delliger fadeouts
d. Any of these

93. It is the lower limit of the range of


frequencies that provide useful

97. It is a type of fading caused by so-called


Faraday effect or Faraday rotation
a. interference fading

b. absorption fading
c. selective fading
d. polarization fading
98. Radio horizon is _________ greater than
the optical horizon.
a. one-third
b. four-third
c. two-third
d. twice
99. An increase in temperature with height
which gives rise to superrefraction or
ducting is known as _________.
a. height inversion
b. depth inversion
c. temperature inversion
d. ionospheric inversion
100. A region in which superrefraction
occurs which is formed in the
troposphere when the
layer of cool air becomes trapped
underneath a layer of warmer air.
a. duct
b. dielectric area
c. gateway
d. window
101. A range of frequency little attenuated
by the atmosphere is called
a. slide
b. door
c. window
d. frame

102. It is defined as either of two acute


angles formed by the intersection of the
two portions
of the tropospheric
scatter beam tangent to the earths
surface.
a. critical angle
b. scatter angle
c. backscatter angle
d. sidescatter angle
103. It is a device that permits two different
transmitters to operate with a single
antenna
a. duplexer
b. diplexer
c. isolator
d. circulator
104. It is a gradual shift in polarization of
the signal in the medium.
a. fading
b. faraday effect
c. ghosting
d. multipath fading
105. A diversity scheme wherein the
receiver receives two fading signals
from two different
directions
a. frequency diversity
b. time diversity
c. angle diversity
d. space diversity
106. The radio wavelength known as
_________ falls within the medium
frequency range
a. centimetric wave
b. decametric wave

c. hectometric wave
d. myriametric wave
107. The most dense of all ionized layer of
the ionosphere
a. E
b. F1
c. F2
d. D
108. The frequency band used as subcarriers, or signals which carry the
baseband modulating information but in
turn modulate another higher-frequency
carrier is _________.
a. LF
b. MF
c. VLF
d. VH
109. The range of frequency band termed as
super high frequency (SHF) is within
_________.
a. 30-300 GHz
b. 30-300 MHz
c. 3-30 GHz
d. 300-3000 MHz

b. is horizontal
c. is circular
d. cannot be determined from the
information given
112. The surface wave is effective only at
frequencies below about _________
MHz.
a. 30
b. 3
c. 300
d. 0.3
113. What wave propagation are attenuated
within a few miles?
a. space
b. sky
c. ground
d. direct
114. What happens to wave velocity as it
passes from air to ionosphere?
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remain the same
d. not a factor

110. Electric field that lies in a plane


perpendicular to the earths surface.
a. circular polarization
b. vertical polarization
c. horizontal polarization
d. elliptical polarization

115. What wavelength radiations tend to be


transmitted entirely between ionosphere
and earth?
a. long
b. short
c. medium
d. millimeter

111. The magnetic field of an antenna is


perpendicular to the earth. The
antennas polarization
a. is vertical

116. What effect do sunspots have on the


ionosphere?
a. makes more rare and regular
b. makes more dense and irregular

c. makes less dense and regular


d. makes less dense and irregular

b. to conserve the energy used


c. to create diversity
d. to improve noise performance

117. What is a double-hop signal?


a. ground, ionosphere, ground and back
122. Scatter transmission is used at what
to ionosphere
frequencies?
b. ground, ground, ionosphere, and
a. EHF and VLF
ionosphere
b. HF and VHF
c. ionosphere, ionosphere, ground and
c. VHF and UHF
ground
d. ELF and VLF
d. ionosphere, ground, ionosphere and
123. Over what areas ducts often form?
back to ground
a. desert
118. What is the major cause of fading?
b. water
a. phase difference
c. forest
b. topographic variation
d. mountain
c. climate
124. Polarization named for _________
d. ionosphere variation
component of the wave?
119. Where is the skip zone?
a. static
a. between the sky and the first reflected
b. magnetic
wave
c. direction
d. propagation
b. between end of ground and first
reflected wave
c. between end of ground and farthest
125. What polarization is employed in an
reflected wave
AM broadcasting?
d. between the end of sky to the farthest
a. horizontal
reflected wave
b. parallel
c. transverse
120. What wave is the same day or night?
d. vertical
a. sky
b. space
c. direct
d. ground
121. Why do HF communications system
shift frequencies at different times of day?
a. to take advantage of best reflected
signals

MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN

DIGITAL
AND DATA
COMMUNIC
ATIONS
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

D. secure communications
6. A LAN device that use to interconnect two
ENCODED BY: networks that use different protocols and
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D. formats
1. It is defined as knowledge or intelligence that
A. Gateways
is communicated between two or more points.
B. Routers
A. Carrier
C. Bridges
B. Sideband
D. Hubs
7. A pulse modulation technique as the width of
C. Information
D. Broadband
a constant amplitude pulse is varied proportional
2. What is the category of data transmission if
to the amplitude of the analog signal at the time
the binary pulse is maintained for the entire bit
the signal is sampled.
time?
A. Pulse Width Modulation
A. Return to zero
B. Pulse Length Modulation
B. Bipolar
C. Pulse Duration Modulation
C. Unipolar
D. All of these
8. The FDM telephone systems accommodate
D. Non return to zero
3. Which medium is most widely used in
many channels by
LANs?
A. Increasing the multiplexer size
A. Twin lead
B. Using many final carriers
B. Fiber-optic cable
C. Narrowing the bandwidth of each
C. Twisted pair
D. Using multiple levels of
D. Coax
multiplexing
4. These are used for transmission of PCM
9. It is the transmittal of digitally modulated
encoded time-division multiplexed digital signal analog signals (carrier) between two or more
A. I carriers
points in a communications system.
B. E carriers
A. Digital Modulation
C. A carriers
B. Digital Transmission
C. Digital Communications
D. T carriers
5. Which of the following is not a typical FDM
D. Pulse Modulation
application?
10. Indicate which of the following systems is
A. telemetry
digital
B. stereo broadcasting
A. Pulse-position modulation
C. telephone
B. Pulse-code modulation

C. Pulse-width modulation
D. Pulse-frequency modulation
11. Classification of protocol that interprets a
frame of data as a group of successive bit
combined into predetermined pattern of fixed
length, usually 8 bits each.
A. Character-oriented protocols
B. Byte-oriented protocols
C. Bit-oriented protocol
D. Character and Byte-oriented
protocols
12. Dividing the data block by a constant
produces a remainder that is used for error
detection. It is called the
A. Vertical redundancy checking
B. Horizontal redundancy checking
C. Block check character
D. Cyclic redundancy check
13. Which of the following is not a benefit of
spread spectrum?
A. Jam-proof
B. Security
C. Immunity to fading
D. Noise proof
14. Converting analog signals to digital is done
by sampling and _________.
A. quantizing
B. companding
C. pre-emphasis
D. mixing
15. It is a process of converting an infinite
number of possibilities to a finite number of
conditions
A. Sampling

B. Coding
C. Quantization
D. Aliasing
16. In T1, it is equal to the reciprocal of the
sample rate
A. Slot time
B. Transmission time
C. Frame time
D. Bit rate
17. What is the final output of a multiplexer?
A. Baseband
B. Composite baseband
C. Information
D. Composite carrier
18. The baud rate
A. is always equal to the bit transfer rate
B. is equal to the twice the bandwidth
of an ideal channel
C. is not equal to the signaling rate
D. is equal to one-half the bandwidth of
an ideal channel
19. Bit errors in data transmission are usually
caused by
A. equipment failures
B. typing mistakes
C. noise
D. Poor S/N ratio at receiver
20. A digital modulation technique which is a
form of constant-amplitude angle modulation
similar to standard frequency modulation except
the modulating signal is binary signal that varies
between two discreet voltage levels.
A. QAM
B. ASK

C. PSK
D. FSK
21. Start and stop bits, respectively, are
A. Mark, space
B. Space, mark
C. Space, space
D. Mark, mark
22. It is the processing of analog signals using
digital methods and includes bandlimiting and
signals with filters, amplitude equalization, and
phase shifting
A. Digital communications
B. Digital signal processing
C. Data communications
D. Carrier recovery method
23. It is a network access method used primarily
with LANs configured in a ring topology using
either baseband or broadband transmission
formats.
A. Ethernet
B. Token passing
C. Token ring
D. Token bus
24. A small telephone switching system that can
be used as a LAN is called
A. Ring
B. WAN
C. UART
D. PBX
25. The most common method used for
sampling voice signals in PCM systems.
A. unnatural sampling
B. flat top smpling
C. natural sampling

D. free sampling
26. In PCM, it converts the PAM samples to
parallel PCM codes
A. Analog-to-digital Converter
B. Digital-to-analog Converter
C. Pre-emphasis circuit
D. Compander
27. The OSI layer that provides the control
functions necessary to establish manage, and
terminate the connections as required to satisfy
the user request.
A. Application layer
B. Network layer
C. Session layer
D. Physical layer
28. In PAM demultiplexing, the receiver clock
is derived from
A. standard radio station WWW
B. a highly accurate internal oscillator
C. the PAM signal itself
D. the 60-Hz power line
29. It is also known as digital modulation
A. digital transmission
B. digital sampling
C. digital radio
D. data transmission
30. Time-division multiplex
A. can be used with PCM only
B. combines five groups into a
supergroup
C. stacks 24 channels in adjacent
frequency slots
D. interleaves pulses belonging to
different transmissions

31. It is a numerical indication of how


efficiently a PCM code is utilized
A. Coding efficiency
B. Companding
C. Pre-emphasis
D. Dynamic Range
32. Type of PCM which is designed to take
advantage of the sample-to sample redundancies
in the typical speech waveform
A. Single-bit PCM code
B. Pulse code modulation
C. Differential PCM
D. Data modulation
33. The Basic Rate Interference (BRI) of ISDN
has a total bit rate of ______
A. 192 kbps
B. 148 kbps
C. 64 kbps
D. 1.544 Mbps
34. A form of angle-modulated, constant
amplitude digital modulation similar to
conventional phase modulation except its input
is binary digital signal and there are limited
number of output phase possible
A. ASK
B. PSK
C. FSK
D. QAM
35. The main circuit in a PSN generator is
A. XOR
B. Multiplexer
C. Shift register
D. Mixer

36. The circuit that performs demultiplexing in


an FDM is _____
A. Op-amp
B. Bandpass filter
C. Discriminator
D. Subcarrier oscillator
37. _____ defines how a user gets control of the
channel so as to allow transmission.
A. channel access
B. collision detection
C. collision avoidance
D. carrier sense
38. The fastest LAN topology is
A. ring
B. bus
C. star
D. square
39. It is a theoretical expectation of the bit error
rate in the system
A. probability of errors
B. error detection
C. error control
D. bit error rate
40. It is simply the data rate at which serial
PCM bits are clocked out of the PCM encoder
onto the transmission line.
A. line speed
B. baud rate
C. output rate
D. bit rate
41. A quantizing is _____
A. Multiplexer
B. Demultiplexer
C. A/D converter

D. D/A converter
42. Refers to the rate of change of a signal on a
transmission medium after encoding and
modulation have occurred
A. baud rate
B. phase shift
C. bit rate
D. frequency deviation
43. The magnitude difference between adjacent
steps in quantization is called _____
A. Quantum
B. Step size
C. Resolution
D. Any of these
44. It is a set of rules implementing and
governing an orderly exchange of data between
layers of two devices, such as line control units
and front-end processors.
A. Data Link Protocol
B. Network Protocol
C. Pont to Point Protocol
D. File Transfer Protocol
45. A signaling system in which each letter of
the alphabet is represented by a different symbol
is not used because
A. it would be too difficult for an
operator to memorize
B. it is redundant
C. noise would introduce too many
errors
D. too many pulses per letter are
required

46. A modulation process that involves


conversion of a waveform from analog to digital
form by means of coding
A. PDM
B. PCM
C. PLM
D. PAM
47. What is the bandwidth required to transmit
at a rate of 10 Mbps in the presence of a 28-Db
S/N ratio?
A. 1.075 MHz
B. 10 MHz
C. 5 MHz
D. 10.75 MHz
48. The slope of the analog signal is greater than
the delta modulator can maintain
A. overload distortion
B. granular noise
C. slope overload
D. peak limiting
49. A scheme in which several channels are
interleaved and then transmitted together is
known as
A. frequency division multiplex
B. time-division multiplex
C. a group
D. a supergroup
50. The best frequency demodulator is
A. PLL discriminator
B. Pulse-averaging discriminator
C. Foster-Seeley discriminator
D. Ratio detector

51. What property distinguishes digital radio


systems from conventional analog
communications system?
A. the type of carrier used in
transmission of data
B. the nature of the modulating signal
C. the type of modulation of data to be
used
D. the nature of the transmitter and
receiver to be used
52. The circuit switch is a _____ switch.
A. See-through
B. Transparent
C. Vague
D. Opaque
53. A carrier recovery circuit is not needed with
A. FSK
B. BPSK
C. DPSK
D. QAM
54. The Hartley-Shannon theorem sets a limit on
the
A. the highest frequency that may be
sent over a given channel
B. maximum capacity of a channel
with a given noise level
C. maximum number of coding levels in
a channel with a given noise level
D. maximum number of quantizing
levels in a channel of a given bandwidth
55. The phase relationship between signaling
elements for BPSK is the optimum signaling
format and occurs only when two binary signal

levels are allowed and when one signal is the


exact negative of the other
A. Antipodal signaling
B. Carrier recovery
C. Squaring loop
D. Phase referencing
56. Pulse-amplitude modulation signals are
multiplexed by using
A. Subcarrier
B. Bandpass filters
C. A/D Converters
D. FET switches
57. It is the ratio of the transmission bit rate to
the minimum bandwidth required for a
particular modulation scheme.
A. Bandwidth efficiency
B. All of these
C. Information density
D. Spectral efficiency
58. Ethernet is a baseband transmission system
designed by _____
A. Thomas Murray and Robert Metcalfe
B. David Boggs and Thomas Murray
C. Thomas Murray and Emile Baudot
D. Robert Metcalfe and David Boggs
59. It is a system where the digital signals are
placed directly on the coaxial cable.
A. Broadband
B. Baseband
C. CSMA/CD
D. Token ring
60. A basic group B
A. occupies the frequency range from
60 to 108 kHz

B. consists of erect channels only


C. is formed at the group translating
equipment
D. consists of five supergroups
61. Which of the following is not primarily a
type of data communications?
A. telephone
B. teletype
C. telegraph
D. CW
62. Packets which is self-contained and travels
through the network independent of other
packets of the same message by whatever means
available.
A. Packet
B. Frame
C. Datagram
D. Data
63. Transmitting the data signal directly over the
medium is referred to as
A. baseband
B. broadband
C. ring
D. bus
64. The main reason that serial transmission is
preferred to parallel transmission is that?
A. serial is faster
B. serial requires only a single channel
C. serial requires multiple channels
D. parallel is too expensive
65. Which of the following is not a LAN?
A. PBX system
B. Hospital system
C. Office building system

D. Cable TV system
66. A modulation technique where data rates in
excess of 56 kbps can be achieved over
telephone circuits
A. ASK
B. Trellis code modulation
C. GSK
D. any of these
67. It is how the primary designates the
secondary as a designation or recipient of data.
A. Line turnaround
B. Selection
C. Line control
D. Control protocol
68. It is the process of compressing and
expanding and is a means of improving the
dynamic range of a communications system.
A. Pre-emphasis
B. Filtering
C. De-emphasis
D. Companding
69. The supergroup pilot is
A. applied at each multiplexing bay
B. used to regulate the gain of individual
repeaters
C. applied at each adjustable equalizer
D. fed in at a GTE
70. The time it takes to transmit one TDM frame
is called _____
A. Slot time
B. Frame time
C. Transmission time
D. any of these

71. It is the thermal noise power normalized to


1-Hz bandwidth
A. power density ratio
B. thermal noise
C. noise power density
D. ambient temperature noise
72. It is the procedure used to decide which
device has the permission to transmit at any
given time.
A. Flow control
B. Sequence control
C. Line control
D. Frame
73. Any rounded-off errors in the transmitted
signal are reproduced when the code is
converted back to analog in the receiver
A. Aperture error
B. Quantization error
C. Aperture distortion
D. Slope overload
74. The biggest disadvantage of PCM is
A. its inability to handle analog signals
B. the high error rate which is quantizing
noise introduces
C. its incompatibility with TDM
D. the large bandwidths that are
required for it
75. T1 stands for
A. Transmission one
B. Telecommunication one
C. Telex one
D. Transmission line one
76. Involves compression in the transmitter after
the input pulse has been converted to a linear

PCM code and then expansion in the receiver


prior to PCM coding
A. analog companding
B. A-law companding
C. digital companding
D. u-law companding
77. Mark and space refer respectively to
A. dot and dash
B. message and interval
C. binary 1 and binary 0
D. on and off
78. Variation of biphase that is used for
encoding SMPTE (Society of Motion Picture
and Television Engineers) time code data and
for recording on video tapes
A. Biphase-M
B. B8Z
C. Manchester
D. UPNRZ
79. Pulse-width modulation may be generated
A. by differentiating pulse-position
modulation
B. with a monostable multivibrator
C. by integrating the signal
D. with a free-running multivibrator
80. The ISDN channel D designates _____
which contains control information.
A. Data
B. Flow
C. Control
D. Bearer
81. A transmission of binary data which
involves the transmission of two non-zero
voltage level

A. Unipolar
B. Polar
C. Bipolar
D. Nonreturn to Zero
82. Switching systems
A. improve the efficiency of data
transfer
B. are not used in data systems
C. require additional lines
D. are limited to small data networks
83. It involves converting standard logic levels
to a form more suitable to telephone
transmission lines
A. Transmission line encoding
B. Physical line encoding
C. Digital line encoding
D. Multiplexing
84. The primary advantage of digital
transmission
A. economical
B. reliability
C. noise immunity
D. efficiency
85. Part of the PCM system that prevents
aliasing or foldover distortion
A. Bandpass filter
B. Anti-foldover distortion
C. Anti-aliasing
D. Any of these
86. It is defined as the process of transforming
messages or signals in accordance with a
definite set of rules.
A. Quantizing
B. Sampling

C. Coding
D. Decoding
87. The PCM code for each channel occupies a
fixed time slot called
A. Frame time
B. Baud
C. Transmission line
D. Epoch
88. The building block of a parity or BCC
generator is _____.
A. Shift register
B. XOR
C. 2-to-4 level converter
D. UART
89. An IC that contains A/D and D/A
converters, companders, and parallel-to-serial
converters is called a
A. Codec
B. Data converter
C. Multiplexer
D. Modem
90. Data Communications refers to the
transmission of
A. voice
B. video
C. computer data
D. all of above
91. The number of amplitude, frequency, or
phase changes that take place per second is
known as the
A. data rate in bits per second
B. frequency of operation
C. speed limit
D. baud rate

92. The basic modulator and demodulator


circuits in PSK are
A. PLLs
B. Balanced modulators
C. Shift registers
D. Linear summers
93. What is the result if the input of ADC is
changing while performing vonersion?
A. Aperture error
B. Overload distortion
C. Aliasing
D. Aperture distortion
94. Information capacity is convenient to
express as
A. baud
B. bits
C. dot length
D. bits per second or bps
95. Which medium is the least susceptible to
noise?
A. twin lead
B. fiber-optic cable
C. twisted pair
D. coax
96. The RS-232 interface
A. interconnects data sets and
transmission circuits
B. uses several different connectors
C. permits custom wiring of signal lines
to the connector pins as desired
D. all of the above
97. The ISDN channel B designates _____
A. Bearer
B. Data

C. Control
D. Flow
98. Data transmission of the character at a time
with start and stop bits is known as what type of
transmission?
A. asynchronous
B. serial
C. synchronous
D. parallel
99. Sampling technique that when the tops of
the sample pulses retain their natural shape
during the sample interval
A. unnatural sampling
B. flat top sampling
C. natural sampling
D. free sampling
100. A modem converts
A. Analog signals to digital
B. Digital signals to analog
C. Digital signals to analog and viceversa
D. none of these
101. It is a large scale integration chip designed
for use in telecommunication industry for
private branch exchanges, central office
switches, digital handsets and digital echo
suppressors.
A. Vocoder
B. Modem
C. Codec
D. Muldem
102. What is the type of mastergroup used for
low-capacity microwave systems?
A. A600

B. U600
C. L600
D. L400
103. An FDM hierarchy which is formed by
frequency-division multiplexing five groups
containing 12 channels each for a combined
bandwidth of 240 kHz
A. Supergroup
B. Group
C. Mastergroup
D. Jumbogroup
104. The result whenever the sampling rate is
less than the twice the highest audio frequency
A. peak limiting
B. overload distortion
C. alias
D. quantizing noise
105. The most critical and difficult part of
receiving a direct-sequence spread spectrum is
A. Frequency synthesis
B. Synchronism
C. PSN code generation
D. Carrier recovery
106. An FDM hierarchy which is formed by
frequency-division multiplexing 10 supergroups
together for a combined capacity of 600 voice
band message channels
A. Supergroup
B. Group
C. Mastergroup
D. Jumbogroup
107. It is the transmittal of digital signals
between two or more points in a
communications system.

A. digital transmittal
B. digitals communications
C. digital radio
D. data communications
108. It is logically equivalent to making
telephone call through the DDD network except
no direct end-to-end connection is made
A. Normal call
B. Completed call
C. Logical call
D. Virtual call
109. It is a proposed network designed by major
telephone companies in conjunction with the
ITU-T with the intent of providing worldwide
telecommunications support for voice, data,
video, and facsimile information within the
same network.
A. ISDN
B. Broadband communications
C. ATM
D. Ethernet
110. Full duplex operation
A. requires two pairs of cables
B. can transfer data in both directions at
once
C. requires modem at both ends of the
circuit
D. all of these
111. The most widely used data
communications code is
A. Morse
B. ASCII
C. Baudot
D. EBCDIC

112. Ten bit errors in two million transmitted.


The bit error rate is
A.
B.
C.
D.
113. It is a type of FSK where the mark and
space frequencies are synchronized with the
input binary rate
A. QFSK
B. GFSK
C. CPFSK
D. GSK
114. A form of digital modulation similar to
PSK except the digital information is contained
in both the amplitude and the phase of the
transmitted carrier.
A. ASK
B. FSK
C. QAM
D. PSK
115. For a 16-PSK and a transmission system
with a 10 kHz bandwidth, determine the
maximum bit rate
A. 40,000 bps
B. 80,000 bps
C. 20,000 bps
D. 16,000 bps
116. It is an empirical record of a systems
actual bit error performance.
A. probability of error
B. error detection
C. error control
D. bit error rate

117. It is a function of the carrier-to-noise


power ration and the number of possible
encoding conditions used
A. probability of error
B. error detection
C. error control
D. bit error rate
118. It is used to compare two or more digital
modulation systems that use different
transmission rates, modulation scheme or
encoding techniques
A. Energy per bit-to-noise power
density ratio
B. Noise power density
C. power density ratio
D. carrier-to-noise ratio
119. Indicate which of the following is not a
binary code.
A. Morse
B. Baudot
C. CCITT-2
D. ARQ
120. To permit the selection of 1 out of 16
equiprobable events, the number of bits required
is
A. 2
B. log 16 base 10
C. 8
D. 4
121. The type of modulation most often used
with direct-sequence spread spectrum is
A. QAM
B. SSB
C. FSK

D. PSK
122. Indicate the false statement. In order to
combat noise,
A. the channel bandwidth may be
increased
B. redundancy may be used
C. the transmitted power may be
increased
D. the signaling rate may be reduced
123. Which of the following is not commonly
used method of error detection?
A. Parity
B. BCC
C. CRC
D. redundancy
124. Quantizing noise occurs in
A. time-division multiplex
B. frequency-division multiplex
C. pulse-code modulation
D. pulse width modulation
125. In order to reduce quantizing noise, one
must
A. increase the number of standard
amplitudes
B. send pulses whose sides are more
nearly vertical
C. use an RF amplifier in the receiver
D. increase the number of samples per
second
126. Companding is used
A. to overcome quantizing noise in PCM
B. in PCM transmitters, to allow
amplitude limiting in the receivers

C. to protect small signals in PCM


from quantizing distortion
D. in PCM receivers, to overcome
impulse noise
127. Transmitting data as serial binary words is
called _____.
A. digital communications
B. quantizing
C. PAM
D. PCM
128. Emphasizing low-level signals and
compressing higher-level signals is called
A. quantizing
B. companding
C. pre-emphasis
D. sampling
129. Which circuit is common to both
frequency-hopping and direct-sequence spread
spectrum transmitters?
A. Correlator
B. Frequency synthesizer
C. PSN code generator
D. Sweep generator
130. One of the most important aspect of any
communication system because its costly and
limited
A. bandwidth
B. equipments
C. time
D. personnel
131. It consist essentially of sampling analog
information signals and then converting those
samples into discreet pulses of transporting the

pulses from a source to destination over a


physical transmission medium
A. pulse modulation
B. amplitude modulation
C. frequency modulation
D. digital modulation
132. He is credited with inventing PCM in 1937
A. N.S. Kapany
B. A.H. Reeves
C. E.H. Alpine
D. A.C.S. Van Heel
133. Data communications uses
A. analog methods
B. digital methods
C. either of these
D. neither of these
134. An integrated circuit that performs the
PCM encoding and decoding functions
A. Codec
B. Modem
C. Muldem
D. Digital-to-analog converter
135. A synchronous transmission usually begins
with which character?
A. SYN
B. STX
C. SOH
D. ETB
136. A theorem that establishes the minimum
sampling rate that can be used for a given PCM
systems
A. Nyquist sampling theorem
B. Nyquist minimum bandwidth
C. Nyquist minimum bandwidth

D. Any of these
137. Sixteen different levels (symbols) are used
to encode binary data. The channel bandwidth is
36 MHz. the maximum channel capacity is
A. 187 Mbps
B. 72 Mbps
C. 288 Mbps
D. 2.176 Gbps
138. Assigning PCM codes to absolute
magnitudes
A. Coding
B. Quantizing
C. Sampling
D. Any of these
139. A popular PC protocol is
A. Parity
B. Xmodem
C. CRC
D. LRC
140. It is the ratio of the largest possible
magnitude to the smallest possible magnitude
that can be decoded by the digital-to-analog
converter in the receiver
A. Coding efficiency
B. Companding
C. Pre-emphasis
D. Dynamic range
141. Devices used for digitizing speech signals
only
A. codec
B. muldem
C. vocoders
D. modem

142. What is the minimum bandwidth required


to transmit 56 kbps binary signal with no noise?
A. 14 kHz
B. 56 kHz
C. 28 kHz
D. 112 kHz
143. Type of PCM that uses single-bit PCM
code to achieve digital transmission of analog
signals
A. Adaptive delta modulation
B. Pulse code modulation
C. Differential modulation
D. Delta modulation
144. It is a delta modulation system where the
step size of the Digital-to-Analog converter is
automatically varied, depending on the analog
input signal
A. Adaptive delta modulation
B. Pulse code modulation
C. Differential modulation
D. Delta modulation
145. A QAM modulator does not use _____
A. XNOR
B. Bit splitter
C. Balanced modulator
D. 2-to-4 level converter
146. It is a form of phase-division multiplexing
where two data channels modulate the same
carrier frequency that is shifted 90 degrees in
phase.
A. PSK
B. FSK
C. QAM
D. ASK

147. One eight0bit PCM code is called ______


A. FDM frame
B. TDM time slot
C. TDM frame
D. FDM time slot
148. It is a communication system that uses
digital pulse rather than analog signals to
encode information
A. Digital carrier system
B. Digital baseband system
C. Digital service system
D. Digital broadband system
149. A special device that upgrades signals from
one level to a higher level of the hierarchy in
multiplexing
A. Muldem
B. Vocoder
C. Modem
D. Codec
150. A transmission of binary data which
involves the transmission of only a single nonzero voltage level.
A. Unipolar
B. Polar
C. Bipolar
D. Nonreturn to zero
151. If the active time of the binary pulse is less
than 100% of the bit time
A. Non return to zero
B. Bipolar
C. Unipolar
D. Return to zero

152. It is a popular type of line encoding that


produces a strong timing component for clock
recovery and does not cause wandering
A. Digital biphase
B. diphase
C. Manchester code
D. Any of these
153. Statistical TDMs are also called
A. Intelligent TDMs
B. Asynchronous TDM
C. Stat mux
D. Any of these
154. A chip that combines the codec and filter
functions in the same LSI chip
A. Monolithic
B. Combo chip
C. Film IC
D. Hybrid chip
155. It is the basic building block of FDM
hierarchy
A. Character channel
B. Broadband channel
C. Message channel
D. Information capacity
156. It is the next higher level in the FDM
hierarchy above the basic message channel and
consequently is the first multiplexing step for
combining message channels
A. Supergroup
B. Group
C. Mastergroup
D. Jumbogroup
157. It is the modulating signal in a
communications system

A. Broadband
B. Baseband
C. Carrier
D. Any of these
158. What type of mastergroup that can be
further multiplexed and used for higher-capacity
microwave radio systems?
A. A600
B. U600
C. L600
D. L400
159. It is essentially the same with FDM, where
several signals are transmitted using different
carriers, occupying non-overlapping bands of
frequency and wavelengths.
A. Time division multiplexing
B. Wave division multiplexing
C. Space division multiplexing
D. Frequency division multiplexing
160. In order to separate channels in the TDM
receiver, it is necessary to use
A. AND gates
B. bandpass filters
C. differentiation
D. integration
161. To separate channels in an FDM receiver,
it is necessary to use
A. AND gates
B. bandpass filters
C. differentiation
D. integration
162. In FDM, multiple signals
A. transmit at different times
B. share a common bandwidth

C. use multiple channels


D. modulate one another
163. Frequency modulation in FDM usually
accomplished with a
A. reactance modulator
B. varactor
C. VCO
D. PLL
164. Which of the following is not a common
LAN medium?
A. twin lead
B. twisted pair
C. fiber-optic cable
D. coax
165. A mainframe computer connected to
multiple terminals and PCs usually uses which
configuration?
A. bus
B. ring
C. star
D. tree
166. How many voice channels are there in
supermaster group?
A. 300
B. 900
C. 3600
D. 10800
167. In a PAM/TDM system, keeping the
multiplexer and DEMUX channels step with
one another is done by a
A. clock recovery circuit
B. sync pulse
C. sampling
D. sequencer

168. It is the process of volume compression


before transmission and expansion after
detection.
A. pre-emphasis
B. de-emphasis
C. coding
D. companding
169. Which of the following is correct?
A. The bit rate may be greater than
the baud rate
B. The baud rate may be greater than the
bit rate
C. The bit and baud rate are always the
same
D. The bit and baud rates are not related
170. Function of data link protocol that
coordinates the rate at which data are
transported over a link and generally provides
an acknowledgement mechanism that ensures
that data are received in the destination.
A. Flow control
B. Line discipline
C. Polling
D. Selection
171. A classification of protocol, which is a
discipline for a serial-by-bit information transfer
over data communications channel.
A. Message oriented
B. Bit-oriented protocol
C. Clock oriented protocol
D. Asynchronous protocol
172. A LAN device that interconnects two or
more device running identical internetwork
protocols.

A. Bridges
B. Gateways
C. Switches
D. Routers
173. The magnitude of a quantum in
quantization of PCM codes.
A. Maximum decodable voltage
B. Dynamic range
C. Resolution
D. Coding level
174. It comprises of either a single L600
mastergroup or up to three U600 mastergroups
A. Message channel
B. Radio channel
C. Baseband channel
D. Wide channel
175. It is a multiplexing system similar to
conventional time-division multiplexing except
that it was developed to be used with optical
fibers
A. SONET
B. Frame relay
C. ATM
D. X.25
176. Higher order TDM levels are obtained by
A. dividing pulse widths
B. using the a-law
C. using u-law
D. forming supermastergroups
177. Results when the sample exceeds the
highest quantization interval
A. Overload distortion
B. Quantization error
C. Quantization noise

D. Granular noise
178. The event which marked the start of the
modern computer age was
A. design of the ENIAC computer
B. development of Hollerith code
C. development of the transistor
D. development of disk drives for data
storage
179. A forward error correcting code corrects
errors by
A. requiring partial transmission of the
entire signal
B. requiring retransmission of the entire
signal
C. requiring no part of the signal to be
transmitted
D. using parity to correct the errors in all
cases
180. The carrier used with a BPSK demodulator
is
A. Generated by an oscillator
B. The BPSK signal itself
C. Twice the frequency of the
transmitted carrier
D. Recovered from the BPSK signal
181. Digital signals
A. do not provide a continuous set of
values
B. represent values as discrete steps
C. can utilize decimal or binary systems
D. all of these
182. Each signal in an FDM signal
A. modulates the main carrier
B. modulates the final carrier

C. is mixed with all the others before


modulation
D. serves as a subcarrier
183. In digital modulation, if the information
signal is digital and the amplitude of the carrier
is varied proportional to the information signal.
A. Quartenary Shift Keying (QAM)
B. Phase Shift Keying (PSK)
C. Frequency Shift Keying (FSK)
D. Amplitude Shift Keying (ASK)
184. Slow speed modems
A. FSK
B. BPSK
C. QPSK
D. QAM
185. The data rate for IEEE 802.11b is _____.
A. 10 Mbps
B. 1.544 Mbps
C. 2.048 Mbps
D. 11 Mbps
186. Type of analog companding used in the
United States and Japan
A. log-PCM companding
B. A-law companding
C. u-law companding
D. any of these
187. A rule of procedure that defines how data
is to be transmitted is called
A. handshake
B. error-detection
C. data specifications
D. protocol
188. A longitudinal redundancy check produces
A. block check character

B. parity bit
C. CRC
D. error correction
189. Multiplexing is the process of
A. Several signal sources transmitting
simultaneously to a receiver on common
frequency
B. Sending the same signal over multiple
channels to multiple destinations
C. Transmitting multiple signals over
multiple channels
D. Sending multiple signals
simultaneously over a single channel
190. What is the relationship of bit rate and
baud in QPSK and 8-PSK?
A. bit rate is greater than baud
B. bit rate is always less than the baud
C. bit rate is never greater than the baud
D. bit rate is slightly less than the baud
191. A common method of achieving carrier
recovery for BPSK
A. Trellis code
B. Bandwidth efficiency
C. Squaring loop
D. Carrier recovery
192. What is the relationship of bit rate and
baud in FSK and PSK?
A. greater than
B. slightly greater than
C. less than
D. equal
193. The modulation used in FDM telephone
system is
A. AM

B. FM
C. SSB
D. PSK
194. In digital modulation, a diagram which is
similar to phasor diagram except that the entire
phasor is not drawn and only the peaks of the
phasor are shown
A. constellation diagram
B. Venn diagram
C. phasor diagram
D. schematic diagram
195. Digital signals may be transmitted over the
telephone network if
A. their speed is low enough
B. they are converted to analog first
C. they are ac instead of dc
D. they are digital only
196. Most FDM telemetry system use
A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. PSK
197. In TDM, multiple signals
A. share a common bandwidth
B. modulate subcarriers
C. are sampled at high speeds
D. take turns transmitting
198. It is highly theoretical study of efficient use
of bandwidth to propagate information through
electronic communications system
A. information capacity
B. data communications
C. information theory
D. information technology

199. Another name for parity is


A. Vertical redundancy check
B. Block check character
C. Longitudinal redundancy check
D. Cyclic redundancy check
200. It is the process of gathering data on some
particular phenomenon without the presesnce of
human monitors
A. Telemetry
B. Telecommand
C. Telecommunications
D. Remote control
201. A convenient technique for determining the
effects of the degradations introduced into the
pulses as they travel to the regenerator.
A. Standing wave ratio
B. Eye patterns
C. Reflection coefficient
D. Any of these
202. Spread spectrum stations sharing a band
are identified by and distinguished from one
another
A. PSN code
B. Frequency of operation
C. Clock rate
D. Modulation type
203. The ASCII code has
A. 4 bits
B. 5 bits
C. 7 bits
D. 8 bits
204. The first file transfer protocol designed to
facilitate transferring data between two personal

computers over the public switched telephone


network
A. X modem protocol
B. Y modem protocol
C. Z modem protocol
D. BLAST
205. For a single-channel PCM system with a
sample rate of 6000 samples per second and a
seven-bit compressed PCM code, what is the
line speed?
A. 21,000 bps
B. 42,000 bps
C. 14,000 bps
D. 12,000 bps
206. It is often used to compare the performance
of one digital modulation technique to another
A. Bandwidth efficiency
B. Spectral efficiency
C. Information density
D. All of these
207. It is the process of extracting a phasecoherent reference carrier from a receiver signal
A. Phase referencing
B. Trellis code
C. Squaring loop
D. any of these
208. It is the measure of how much information
can be propagated through a communication
system and is a function of a bandwidth of the
transmission line
A. information theory
B. information capacity
C. information technology
D. digital communications

209. In delta modulation, the modulator is


sometimes called _____.
A. continuous ADC
B. tracking ADC
C. variable slope ADC
D. slope ADC
210. The code which provides for parity checks
is
A. Baudot
B. ASCII
C. CCITT-2
D. EBCDIC
211. Form of multiplexing that constitutes
propagating signals from different cables that
sre contained within the same trench
A. Wavelength division multiplexing
B. Wave division multiplexing
C. Space division multiplexing
D. Frequency division multiplexing
212. For an 8-PSK system, operating with an
information bit rate of 24 kbps, determine the
bandwidth efficiency
A. 8 bits/cycle
B. 2 bits/cycle
C. 3 bits/cycle
D. 4 bits/cycle
213. Element of a PCM system that periodically
samples the analog input signal and converts
those samples to a multilevel PAM signal
A. Bandpass filter
B. Sample-and-hold circuit
C. Analog-to-digital converter
D. Digital-to-analog converter

214. It is the ratio of the average carrier power


to the thermal noise power
A. Signal-to-noise ratio
B. Noise figure
C. Noise factor
D. Carrier-to-noise ratio
215. A form of switching which is hold and
forward
A. Packet switching
B. Message switching
C. Circuit switching
D. Digital switching
216. It can be used to categorize the type of
transmission
A. Duty cycle
B. Companding
C. Coding efficiency
D. Dynamic range
217. Type of multiplexing where multiple
sources that originally occupied the same
frequency spectrum are each converted to a
different frequency band and transmitted
simultaneously over a single transmission
medium.
A. FDM
B. ATM
C. TDM
D. Spread spectrum
218. It is a solicitation sent from the primary to
a secondary to determine if the secondary has
data to transmit
A. Selection
B. Polling
C. Error control

D. Master control
219. Function of data link control that specifies
the means of detecting and correcting
transmission errors
A. Error control
B. Selection
C. Protocol
D. Synchronization
220. The Hartley law states that
A. the maximum rate of information
transmission depends on the channel
bandwidth
B. the maximum rate of information
depends on the depth of modulation
C. redundancy is essential
D. only binary codes may be used
221. It represents the number of independent
symbols that can be carried through a system in
a given unit of time.
A. information theory
B. information capacity
C. information technology
D. digital communications
222. The Shannon-Hartley law
A. refers to distortion
B. defines the bandwidth
C. describes signaling rates
D. refers to noise
223. The most basic digital symbol used to
represent information
A. bit
B. baud
C. bits per second
D. any of these

224. Function of data link protocol that


coordinates hop-to-hop data delivery where a
hop maybe a computer, a network controller or
a network-connecting device such as router.
A. Flow control
B. Error control
C. Line discipline
D. Selection
225. Quadrature amplitude modulation is
A. Amplitude modulation only
B. QPSK only
C. AM plus QPSK
D. AM plus FSK
226. The most common modulation system used
for telegraphy is
A. frequency-shift keying
B. two-tone modulation
C. pulse-code modulation
D. single-tone modulation
227. It is used to encode the minimum amount
of speech information necessary to reproduce a
perceptible message with a fewer bits that those
needed by a conventional encoder/decoder
A. codec
B. muldem
C. vocoders
D. modem
228. It is the transmission of information in any
form from one source to one or more destination
A. Modulation
B. Multiplexing
C. Encoding
D. Decoding

229. A form of switching which is stored and


forward
A. Packet switching
B. Message switching
C. Circuit switching
D. Digital switching
230. In digital modulation, it is similar to
standard amplitude modulation except there is
only two amplitudes possible
A. frequency shift keying
B. quartenary amplitude modulation
C. amplitude shift keying
D. phase shift keying
231. The technique of using modulation and
FDM to transmit multiple data channels of a
common medium is known as
A. baseband
B. broadband
C. ring
D. bus
232. Which of the following is not a benefit of
companding
A. minimizes noise
B. minimizes number of bits
C. minimizes quantizing error
D. minimizes signal bandwidth
233. Transmissions from multiple sources occur
in the same facility but not at the same time
A. Time Division Multiplexing
B. Frequency Division Multiplexing
C. Wave Division Multiplexing
D. Space Division Multiplexing

234. A 9600-baud rate signal can pass over the


voice grade telephone line if which kind of
modulation is used?
A. BPSK
B. QPSK
C. DPSK
D. QAM
235. Indicate which of the following pulse
modulation systems is analog
A. PCM
B. PWM
C. Differential PCM
D. Delta
236. The modulation system inherently most
noise-resistant is
A. SSB, suppressed carrier
B. frequency modulation
C. pulse-position modulation
D. pulse-code modulation
237. It is simply the number of bits transmitted
during one second and expressed in bits per
second
A. baud
B. bits
C. bit rate
D. pulse repetition rate
238. It is the most prevalent encoding technique
used for TDM signals
A. PAM
B. PLM
C. PPM
D. PCM

239. The characters making up the message in a


synchronous transmission are collectively
referred to as the data
A. set
B. sequence
C. block
D. collection
240. A virtual circuit which is logically
equivalent to a two-point dedicated private-line
circuit except slower
A. Switched Virtual Circuit
B. Permanent Virtual Circuit
C. Switched Leased Circuit
D. Permanent Leased Circuit
241. To a conventional narrowband receiver, a
spread spectrum signal appears to be like
A. Noise
B. Fading
C. A jamming signal
D. An intermittent connection
242. It is a low-quality video transmission for
use between non-dedicated subscribers
A. Digital phone
B. Picturephone
C. Cameraphone
D. Cellphone with camera
243. Pulse code modulation is preferred to PAM
because of its
A. resistance to quantizing errror
B. simplicity
C. lower cost
D. superior noise immunity
244. A CRC generator uses which component?
A. balanced modulator

B. shift register
C. binary adder
D. multiplexer
245. A signaling element is sometimes called
A. information
B. data
C. symbol
D. intelligence
246. Which of the following words has the
correct parity bit? Assume odd parity. The last
bit is the parity bit.
A. 1111111 1
B. 1100110 1
C. 0011010 1
D. 0000000 0
247. It is a digital interface that provides the
physical connection to the digital carrier
network
A. Modem
B. Codec
C. Muldem
D. DSU/CSU
248. It is the only digitally encoded modulation
technique that is commonly used for digital
transmission
A. PAM
B. PCM
C. PLM
D. PPM
249. The most common circuit used for
demodulating binary FSK signals
A. phase locked loop
B. Foster-Seeley discriminator
C. varactor

D. phase shift method


250. A digital modulation technique also known
as on-off keying
A. PSK
B. FSK
C. QUAM
D. OOK

ENCODED BY:
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.

MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN

MISCELLAN
EOUS
TOPICS
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

1. It is the provision of voice communication


using Internet Protocol (IP) technology, instead
of traditional circuit switched technology
A. VOIP
B. Bluetooth
C. WIFI
D. WIMAX
2. Bluetooth enabled electronic devices connect
and communicate wirelessly through shortrange, ad hoc networks known as _____.
A. nanonet
B. scatternet
C. piconet
D. netnet
3. Each device can simultaneously communicate
with up to ______ other devices with a single
piconet.
A. 8
B. 5
C. 10
D. 7
4. The core specification version of Bluetooth
that uses Enhanced Data Rate (EDR)

A. Version 1.0
B. Version 2.0
C. Version 1.2
D. Version 2.1
5. Bluetooth technology operates in the _____
band.
A. ISM
B. C band
C. MSI
D. Ku band
6. Bluetooth technology operates in the band
A. 2.4 to 2.485 GHz
B. 2.42 to 2.44 GHz
C. 2.48 to 2.52 GHz
D. 2.3 to 2.45 GHz
7. The hopping rate of Bluetooth is
A. 1000 hops/sec
B. 1600 hops/sec
C. 1500 hops/sec
D. 2500 hops/sec
8. Technology used by Bluetooth designed to
reduce interference between wireless
technologies sharing the 2.4 GHz spectrum
A. AFH
B. DSSS
C. OFDM
D. FHSS
9. The signal hops among ______ frequencies at
1 MHz intervals to give a high degree of
interference immunity
A. 80
B. 78
C. 81
D. 79

10. Class 3 radios used for Bluetooth technology


have a range of up to
A. 1 ft
B. 2 ft
C. 3 ft
D. 4 ft
11. Class 2 radios used for Bluetooth most
commonly found in mobile devices have a range
of ______.
A. 10 ft
B. 20 ft
C. 15 ft
D. 30 ft
12. Class 1 radios used primarily in industrial
use cases have a range of
A. 100 meters
B. 25 meters
C. 10 meters
D. 50 meters
13. Bluetooth technology uses ______ of power.
A. 2.6 mW
B. 2.5 mW
C. 2,8 mW
D. 2.7 mW
14. What is the data rate used by Bluetooth
technology using version 1.2 specification?
A. 1 Mbps
B. 2 Mbps
C. 3 Mbps
D. 4 Mbps
15. What is the data rate used by Bluetooth
technology using version 2.0 + EDR
specification?
A. 1 Mbps

B. 3 Mbps
C. 2 Mbps
D. 4 Mbps
16. Bluetooth technology has built-in security
such as _____ bit encryption
A. 64
B. 16
C. 32
D. 128
17. The symbol rate for Bluetooth is
A. 1 Mega symbol per sec
B. 3 Mega symbol per sec
C. 2 Mega symbol per sec
D. 4 Mega symbol per sec
18. In satellite communications, for an angle of
inclination 0f 63.4 degrees, the rotation of the
line of apsides is ____ degrees
A. 0
B. 5
C. 15
D. 3
19. An international agreement initially
mandated that all satellites placed in the Clarke
or Geosynchronous orbit must be separated by
at least
A. 22,300 mi
B. 3400 mi
C. 1833 mi
D. 5544 mi
20. The radiation pattern of earth coverage
antennas of satellites have a beamwidth of
approximately ______.
A. 15 degrees
B. 17 degrees

C. 10 degrees
D. 11 degrees
21. ______ is a new nonvoice value added
service that allows information to be sent and
received across a mobile telephone network.
A. WiFi
B. Wimax
C. GPRS
D. HSCSD
22. Theoretical maximum speeds of up to _____
kbps are achievable with GPRS using all _____
timeslots at the same time.
A. 64, 8
B. 171.2, 8
C. 128, 7
D. 183.5, 7
23. It is the latest standard of MPEG under
development that will support download and
execution of multimedia applications.
A. MPEG-21
B. MPEG-A
C. MPEG-7
D. MPEG-E
24. A new standard line of MPEG standard
called multimedia application format is _____.
A. MPEG-A
B. MPEG-C
C. MPEG-B
D. MPEG-D
25. MPEG standard on which such products as
Digital Television set top boxes and DVD are
based
A. MPEG-1
B. MPEG-4

C. MPEG-2
D. MPEG-7
26. MPEG standard on which such products as
Video CD and MP3 are based
A. MPEG-1
B. MPEG-7
C. MPEG-21
D. MPEG-3
27. MPEG standard for multimedia for the fixed
and mobile web
A. MPEG-1
B. MPEG-4
C. MPEG-2
D. MPEG-7
28. MPEG standard for description and search
of audio and visual content.
A. MPEG-1
B. MPEG-7
C. MPEG-21
D. MPEG-3
29. The MPEG standard for the Multimedia
Framework
A. M3W
B. MPEG-4
C. MPEG-7
D. MPEG-21
30. Coding of moving pictures and associated
audio for digital storage media at up to about 1.5
Mbps.
A. MPEG-3
B. MPEG-2
C. MPEG-4
D. MPEG-1

31. Used in MPEG to remove spatial


correlation.
A. Discrete Shine Transform
B. Discreet Cosine Transform
C. Discreet Secant Transform
D. Discreet Cosecant Transform
32. MPEG-4 builds on the proven success on
one of the following fields
A. Digital television
B. Interactive multimedia
C. Interactive graphics applications
D. Any of these
33. The maximum effective power allowed for
RFID is _____.
A. 0.5 watt
B. 3 watts
C. 1 watt
D. 0.25 watt
34. The use and operation of RFIDs shall be
allowed in the following frequency bands
except:
A. 13.533-13.567 MHz
B. 2446-2454 MHz
C. 918-920 MHz
D. 254-365 MHz
35. _____ are radio systems based on local area
networking solutions that require higher data
rates and consequently greater bandwidth for
new multimedia applications spectrum
requirements
A. WIFI
B. HiperLAN
C. WIMAX
D. VOIP

36. _____ refers to the determination of the


position, velocity and/or other characteristics of
an object, or the obtaining of information
relating to these parameters, by means of the
propagation properties of radio waves.
A. position determination
B. radio determination
C. velocity determination
D. range determination
37. Radio microphones has power of _____ mW
or less.
A. 20
B. 40
C. 30
D. 50
38. _____ referred to as wireless microphones
or cordless microphones, are small, low power,
unidirectional transmitters designed to be worn
on the body, or hand held, for the transmission
of sound over short distances for personal use.
A. directional microphone
B. parabolic microphone
C. radio microphone
D. spy microphone
39. _____ are intended to carry data in suitable
transporters, generally known as tags, and to
retrieve data, by hand- or manine-readable
means, at a suitable time and place to satisfy
particular application needs.
A. RFID
B. HiperLan
C. transponder tags
D. bluetooth

40. _____ also referred to as dedicated shortrange communications for transport information
and control systems are systems providing data
communication between two or more road
vehicles and between road vehicles and the road
infrastructure for various information-based
travel and transport applications, including
automatic toll-collection, route and parking
guidance, collision avoidance and similar
applications.
A. RTTY
B. TICS
C. RTTT
D. RSSD
41. _____ for use with implanted medical
devices, like pacemakers, implantable
defibrillators, nerve stimulators, and other types
of implanted devices.
A. MICS
B. TICS
C. AIDS
D. PACER
42. What is the frequency band for biomedical
devices?
A. 40.66-40.70 MHz
B. 13.90-14.40 MHz
C. 50.44-51.09 MHz
D. 32.10-33.89 MHz
43. The electric field intensity of biomedical
devices?
A. 1000 V/m at 3m
B. 10 V/m at 3m
C. 100 V/m at 3m
D. 1 V/m at 3m

44. _____ refers to the use of radio


communication devices for the transmission of
signals to initiate, modify or terminate functions
of equipment at a distance.
A. telemetry
B. wireless application
C. telecommand
D. radio beacon
45. The data rate used by IEEE 802.11b
A. 11 Mbps
B. 55 Mbps
C. 54 Mbps
D. 12 Mbps
46. The operating frequency of IEEE 802.11b
A. 2.4 GHz
B. 5.5 GHz
C. 5 GHz
D. 2.5 GHz
47. The operating frequency of IEEE 802.11a
A. 2.5 GHz
B. 5 GHz
C. 5.5 GHz
D. 2.1 GHz
48. The data rate of IEEE 802.11a
A. 55 Mbps
B. 53 Mbps
C. 54 Mbps
D. 50 Mbps
49. _____ is a standards-based wireless
technology that provides high-throughput
broadband connections over long distances.
A. Wimax
B. Wibro
C. Wifi

D. Winar
50. _____ is a wireless broadband technology
being developed by the Korean telecoms
industry.
A. Wimax
B. Wibro
C. Wifi
D. Winar
51. What is the operating frequency of Wibro?
A. 2.1 GHz
B. 2.3 GHz
C. 2.2 GHz
D. 2.4 GHz
52. What is the base station data throughout for
Wibro?
A. 30 to 50 Mbps
B. 40 to 60 Mbps
C. 50 to 70 Mbps
D. 60 to 80 Mbps
53. The maximum radius for Wibro is ____.
A. 2 km
B. 3 km
C. 4 km
D. 5 km
54. _____ is a published specification set of
high level communication protocols designed to
use small, low-power digital radios based on the
IEEE 802.15.4 standard for wireless personal
area networks.
A. bluetooth
B. wpan
C. zigbee
D. wlan

55. In a Zigbee network, a single device that


controls the network is called _____.
A. master
B. server
C. coordinator
D. pointer
56. Devices being controlled in a zigbee
network are known as _____.
A. end devices
B. clients
C. slaves
D. beggars
57. The modulation scheme used by IEEE
802.11b
A. OFDM
B. CCK
C. QPSK
D. FDM
58. The modulation scheme used by IEEE
802.11a
A. OFDM
B. CCK
C. QPSK
D. FDM
59. The World Wide Web or WWW was
invented in the year _____.
A. 1991
B. 1990
C. 1989
D. 1995
60. He invented the World Wide Web or WWW
A. Karel Capek
B. Tim Berners-Lee
C. Jon Von Neumann

D. Bill Gates
61. The number of satellites used by GLONASS
A. 30
B. 26
C. 24
D. 31
62. A 3G technology that delivers broadbandlike data speeds to mobile devices.
A. EDGE
B. HSCSD
C. VOIP
D. 3GSM
63. ADSL has maximum distance of _____.
A. 16,000 feet
B. 8,000 feet
C. 18,000 feet
D. 12,000 feet
64. ______ is an implementation of ADSL that
automatically adjusts the connection speed to
adjust for the quality of the telephone line.
A. ADSL
B. SDSL
C. RADSL
D. HDSL
65. A type of DSL that was developed to
support exceptionally high-bandwidth
applications such as High-Definition Television
(HDTV).
A. VDSL
B. SDSL
C. ADSL
D. XDSL
66. A method for moving data over regular
phone lines which is much faster than a regular

phone connection and the wires coming into the


subscribers premises are the same copper wires
used for regular phone service.
A. VOIP
B. DSL
C. Cable Internet
D. POTS
67. What is the IEEE designation for Bluetooth?
A. 802.15
B. 802.14
C. 802.10
D. 802.16
68. The IEEE designation for wireless LAN
A. 802.12
B. 802.13
C. 802.5
D. 802.11
69. The IEEE designation for broadband
wireless network
A. 802.16
B. 802.15
C. 802.14
D. 802.13
70. The file extension for jpeg
A. .jpg
B. .jpe
C. .jfif
D. any of these
71. In SMS, the number of characters being sent
in the network is _____ when Latin alphabet is
used.
A. 80
B. 160
C. 65

D. 100
72. In SMS, the number of characters being sent
in the network is _____ when non-Latin
alphabet is used.
A. 50
B. 60
C. 70
D. 80
73. It is an enhancement of data services of all
current GSM networks, it allows you to access
nonvoice services at 3 times faster
A. GPRS
B. HSCSD
C. VOIP
D. 3GSM
74. A language derived from HTML especially
for wireless network characteristics.
A. Delphi
B. PHP
C. Pearl
D. WML
75. The founding father of the Internet
A. Tim Burners-Lee
B. Vinton Gray Cerf
C. Jon Von Neumann
D. Carel Kapek
76. What term is used by in asynchronous
transfer mode (ATM) system to describe a byte?
A. harmonic
B. octet
C. actave
D. bit
77. The relative permittivity of silicon is _____
A. 11.7

B. 1.17
C. 1.18
D. 11.8
78. One of the following is NOT classified as a
Customer Premises Equipment (CPE) by the
NTC.
A. Automatic Teller Machine
B. Videophone Terminal Equipment
C. VSAT
D. ISDN Terminal Equipment
79. Zigbee network layer supports the following
topologies except:
A. tree
B. bus
C. star
D. mesh
80. An Internet Messaging service can be either
_____.
A. user-based or company based
B. sender-based or receiver based
C. network-based or device-based
D. feature-based or attachment-based
81. The level of ____ within an IM program
brings up the issue of privacy.
A. users signed up
B. advertising
C. technology
D. presence awareness
82. One reason behind the success of the
Internet is the fact that it is built on _____.
A. open standard
B. user trust
C. safe architecture
D. solid ground

83. Which of the following is not an additional


revenue opportunity offered by advance
messaging services?
A. electronic commerce
B. advertising
C. targeted marketing
D. taxes
84. ADSL increases existing twisted-pair access
capacity by _____.
A. twofold
B. threefold
C. thirtyfold
D. fiftyfold
85. What appears to be the practical limit for
analog modems over a standard telephone?
A. 33 kbps
B. 28.8 kbps
C. 24 kbps
D. 19.2 kbps
86. Which of the parameters will need to be
incorporated into next generation billing
solutions to calculate new 3G charges?
A. number of packets
B. location
C. quality of service
D. any of these
87. Which of the following is not considered as
3G service?
A. streaming video
B. wireless voice
C. interactive shopping
D. on-line banking and stock trading
88. ATM timing requirements feature _____
elements.

A. 3
B. 4
C. 32
D. 64
89. All are required for broadband media
services delivery over IP except:
A. high bandwidth
B. a broadband connection
C. a narrowband connection
D. DSL
90. All are network components for broadband
media services except
A. video server
B. catv box
C. set-top box
D. video encoder
91. A Cable Modem Termination System
(CMTS) provides an Ethernet network with a
geographic reach of up to _____.
A. 1 mile
B. 10 miles
C. 100 miles
D. any of these
92. The upstream data channel specification
requirement for cable modem feature which of
the following?
A. 64 and 256 QAM formats
B. data rates from 320 kbps to 10
Mbps
C. 6 MHz-occupied spectrum that
coexists with other signals in the cable plant
D. all of the above
93. DWDM enables different formats, such as
______, to be transmitted over the optical layer.

A. IP and ATM
B. ATM and SONET
C. SONET and SDH
D. all of the above
94. Future DWDM terminals will have the
capacity to transmit _____ volumes of an
encyclopedia in one second.
A. 90
B. 250
C. 1500
D. 90000
95. DWDM allows the transmission of _____
over the optical layer.
A. voice and e-mail
B. multimedia and video
C. data
D. all of the above
96. Which of the following is expected to take
the largest share of the three DSL varieties?
A. SDSL
B. HDSL
C. ADSL
D. IDSL
97. Which of the following standards defines
procedures and message sequences used for fax
communications?
A. T.10
B. T.30
C. T.37
D. T.38
98. The _____ is a particular set of standards
that allows the internetworking of products from
different vendors. It usually embodies a fiber-

optic ring that will permit transmission in both


directions.
A. local-area network (LAN)
B. wide-area network (WAN)
C. synchronous optical network
(SONET)
D. common channel signaling network
99. H.255 can be defined as _____.
A. media stream control
B. control signaling
C. call signaling
D. media stream transport
100. H.245 can be defined as _____.
A. media stream control
B. control signaling
C. media stream transport
D. registration and admission
101. H.323 can be defined as _____.
A. multimedia services over B-ISDN
B. multimedia services over guaranteed
QoS networks
C. multimedia services over packet
networks
D. multimedia services over SCN
102. H.320 can be defined as _____.
A. multimedia services over B-ISDN
B. multimedia services over guaranteed
QoS networks
C. multimedia services over packet
networks
D. multimedia services over ISDN
103. One of the major advances that result from
implementing intelligent networks is that _____.

A. computers no longer have control


over the network
B. wide-area service outages are much
less likely
C. services can be adapted to user
needs more efficiently
D. service providers are now limited to a
single equipment provider
104. The development of the intelligent network
places increased emphasis on a consistent
_____.
A. switch model
B. network model
C. intelligence model
D. call model
105. How many layers are there to the PCS air
resistance?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
106. What is the maximum possible number of
characters in a PCS message?
A. 64
B. 256
C. 1021
D. 239
107. Signaling units are broken up into units of
how many bits?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64

108. Two digital signals whose transitions occur


at almost the same rate are _____.
A. asynchronous
B. synchronous
C. plesiochronous
D. none of these
109. Which of the following are not basic
SONET network elements?
A. switch interference
B. digital loop carrier
C. service control point
D. add/drop multiplexer
110. Higher-order SDH cross-connects route
what entity?
A. 1.5 Mbps
B. ATM cells
C. management data channels
D. payload within 155 Mbps
111. Scrambling is used in SDH for which
reason?
A. to randomize the bit sequence for
better transmission performance
B. to reduce the power consumption of
equipment
C. to allow for upgrade to higher bit
rates
D. to prevent unauthorized access
112. FDMA allocated ____ users per channel.
A. 1
B. 3
C. 6
D. 10
113. The G.723.1 specification for audio codecs,
recommended by the VoIP Forum, requires:

A. 6.3 kbps
B. 7.9 kbps
C. 8.4 kbps
D. 10.4 kbps
114. ITUs H.320 standard defines the protocols
for transporting voice, data and video over;
A. PSTN
B. ISDN networks
C. the public internet
D. GSM network
115. Which of the following is not a layer in the
WAP gateway stack?
A. WDP
B. context manager
C. TCP
D. WSP
116. Queries to the HLR are performed to find
the location of the serving MSC in _____.
A. TDMA
B. CDMA
C. GSM
D. all of the above
117. The SMSC delivers messages directly to
the _____.
A. HLR
B. VLR
C. MSC
D. BSC
118. Which of the following pairs of
technologies use IS-41?
A. GSM and TDMA
B. CDMA and GSM
C. TDMA and CDMA
D. all of the above

119. Which of the following technologies has


significant advantages in medium-density and
high-density population areas because it is
capable of carrying higher levels of traffic,
provides better voice quality, and can transmit
data at higher rates?
A. GSM
B. PCS
C. CT-2
D. DECT
120. IS-41 is a standard currently being
embraced by wireless providers because it
encourages _____.
A. increased network capabilities
B. paging
C. roaming
D. all of the above

MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN

CELLULAR
TELEPHONY
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
1. Base station transmitter output power of
Improved Mobile System (IMTS)

A.100-W to 200-W range


B. 200-W to 300-W range
C. 150-W to 400-W range
D. 300-W to 400-W range
2. The chipping rate of WCDMA (UMTS)
A. 3.84 Mcps
B. 3.6484 Mcps
C. 1.25 Mcps
D. 1.22 Mcps
3. A technique that divides the group of
channels into smaller groupings or
segments of mutually exclusive
frequencies; cell sites, which are within
the reuse distance is assigned their own
segment of the channel group
A.
B.
C.
D.

sectoring
dualization
partitioning
segmentation

4. The actual voice channel where mobile


users communicate directly with other
mobile or wireline subscriber through
the base station
A.
B.
C.
D.

control channel
forward channel
reverse channel
voice channel

5. Supervisory Audio Tones(SAT) have the


following frequencies except:

D. 5.1 ms
A.
B.
C.
D.

5940 Hz
5970 Hz
6000 Hz
6030 Hz

6. Each cell site contains a


A.
B.
C.
D.

Repeater
Control computer
Direct-link to a branch exchange
Touch-tone processor

7. A class II mobile phone using AMPS


has an ERP of
A.
B.
C.
D.

-6dBW
-4dBW
2dBW
6dBW

8. The wideband designation in WidebandCDMA (WCDMA) denotes a bandwidth


of
A.
B.
C.
D.

2.5 MHz
3 MHz
4.5 MHz
5MHz

9. An automobile travels at 60km/hr. Find


the time between fades in the car uses a
PCS phone at 1900 MHz.
A. 2.4 ms
B. 3.4 ms
C. 4.7 ms

10. A cellular system is capable of coping


with handoffs once every 2 minutes.
Suppose this system is in the city with
maximum car speeds of 65km/hr. What
is the maximum cell radius for this urban
system?
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.08 km
3 km
5 km
2 km

11. How wide is the spectrum bandwidth of


a single GSM carrier?
A.
B.
C.
D.

16 kHz
200 kHz
100 kHz
50 kHz

12. Changing the time order of digital


information before transmission to
reduce the effect of burst errors in the
channel.
A.
B.
C.
D.

progression
interleaving
epoch
raking

13. The bandwidth of WCDMA is ___ times


larger than GSM.
A. 5
B. 15

C. 20
D. 25
14. It is the process in which the same set of
frequencies can be allocated to more
than one cell, provided that the cells are
separated by a sufficient distance
A.
B.
C.
D.

frequency reuse
handoff
clustering
radio survey

15. A connection is momentarily broken


during the cell-to-cell transfer is called
______.
A.
B.
C.
D.

hard handoff
soft handoff
medium handoff
light handoff

16. Transmission from mobile stations to the


base stations is called
A.
B.
C.
D.

forward link
reverse link
control link
user link

17. It is a database in the PCS network that


stores information about the user,
including home subscription information
and what supplementary services the
user is subscribed to.
A. visitor location register

B. home location register


C. equipment identification register
D. authentication register
18. Determine the transmit power for a
CDMA mobile unit that is receiving a
signal from the base station at 100 dBm
A.
B.
C.
D.

12 dBm
24 dBm
36 dBm
14 dBm

19. When transmitting digital information,


voice transmission is inhibited, this is
called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.

quieting
muting
blank-and-burst
any of these

20. A metropolitan area of 1000 square km


is to be covered by cells with a radius of
2 km. How many cell sites would be
required, assuming hexagonal cells?
A.
B.
C.
D.

72
73
74
75

21. Refers to a land station in a maritime


mobile services
A. coast station
B. maritime station

C. coast earth station


D. ship earth station
22. Class of orthogonal spreading coded
used in CDMA communication.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Color code
Walsh code
PCS code
CDMA

23. In a spread spectrum system, the


tendency for a stronger signals to
interfere with the reception of weaker
signals.
A.
B.
C.
D.

near-far field
near-far effect
direct-sequence
spread-spectrum

24. Macrocells have base stations transmit


power between _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

3W to 7W
1W to 6W
2W to 8W
0.1W to 5W

25. It is when the area of a cell, or


independent component coverage areas
of a cellular system, is further divided,
thus creating more cell areas.
A. cell splitting
B. cell clustering
C. cell partitioning

D. cell sectoring
26. It is when a mobile unit moves from one
cell to another from one company's
service area to another company's
service area.
A.
B.
C.
D.

roaming
handoff
handover
paging

27. It is a 34-bit binary code that represents


the 10-digit telephone number
A.
B.
C.
D.

electronic serial number


system identification
digital color code
mobile identification number

28. The bandwidth of WCDMA is __ times


larger than CDMAone.
A.
B.
C.
D.

4
5
6
7

29. Receive channel 22 is 870.66 MHz.


Receive channel 23 is
A.
B.
C.
D.

870.36 MHz
870.63 MHz
870.96 MHz
870.69 MHz

30. In mobile wireless communication, the


radio equipment and the propagation
path
A.
B.
C.
D.

FSL
air interface
direct link
mobile interface

31. The signaling fone may be transmitted


on the voice channel during a call in
what frequency?
A.
B.
C.
D.

25 kHz
20 kHz
15 kHz
10 kHz

32. Station in the mobile service not


intended to be used while in motion.
A.
B.
C.
D.

base station
fixed station
coast station
land station

33. In the GSM system, a "smart card"


containing all user information, which is
inserted into the phone before use.
A.
B.
C.
D.

IMSI
IMEI
IMTS
SIM

34. Determine the number of channels per


cluster of a cellular telephone area

comprised of 10 clusters with seven cells


in each cluster and 10 channels in each
cell.
A.
B.
C.
D.

70 channels per cluster


700 channels per cluster
7000 channels per cluster
7 channels per cluster

35. Determine the channel capacity if 7


macrocells with 10 channels per cell is
split into 4 minicells
A.
B.
C.
D.

120 channels per area


360 channels per area
280 channels per area
460 channels per area

36. Technique of spread spectrum that


breaks message into fixed-size blocks of
data with each block transmitted in
sequence except on the different carrier
frequency.
A.
B.
C.
D.

spread spectrum
time-division multiplexing
frequency-hopping
direct sequence

37. A base and mobile is separated by 5 km.


What is the propagation time for a signal
traveling between them?
A.
B.
C.
D.

14.5 usec
18.9 usec
20.8 usec
16.7 usec

38. A digital identification associated with a


cellular system
A.
B.
C.
D.

MIN
ESN
SAT
SIM

39. A new regulation issued by the National


Telecommunications Commission
providing for the guideline for mobile
personal communication having a global
coverage using satellite.
A.
B.
C.
D.

NMT
GMPCS
GSM
TACS

40. The following are the typical cluster size


except
A.
B.
C.
D.

3
7
12
15

41. Provides a centralized administration


and maintenance point for the entire
network end interfaces with the public
telephone network through the telephone
wireline voice trunks and data links
A.
B.
C.
D.

PSTN
MTSO
central offices
MSC

42. It is a digital telephone exchange located


in the MTSO that is the heart of a
telephone system
A.
B.
C.
D.

mobile switching center


electronic switching center
gateway switching center
electronic mobile switching
center

43. A database in the PCS network that


stores information pertaining to the
identification and type of equipment that
exist in the mobile unit.
A. visitor location register
B. home location register
C. equipment identification
register
D. authentication register
44. When a signal from a mobile cellular
unit drops below a certain level, what
action occurs?
A. The unit is "handed off" to a
closer cell.
B. The call is terminated.
C. The MTSO increases power
level.
D. The cell site switches antenna.
45. A method of transmitting data on AMPS
cellular telephone voice channels that
are temporary unused.
A. cellular digital packet data
B. digital color code

C. control mobile attenuation code


D. electronic serial code
46. A vehicle travels through a cellular
system at 100 km per hour.
Approximately how often will handoffs
occur if the cell radius is 10 km.
A.
B.
C.
D.

12 min
14 min
16 min
18 min

47. In the GSM system, a telephone number


that is unique to a given user,
worldwide.
A.
B.
C.
D.

IMTS
IMEI
IMSI
SIM

48. An area divided into hexagonal shapes


that fit together to form a honeycomb
pattern is called ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.

cluster
transport area
cell
area of responsibility

49. Determine the channel capacity of a


cellular telephone area comprised of
twelve macrocell with ten channels per
cell
A. 12 channels per area

B. 120 channels per area


C. 1200 channels per area
D. 12000 channels per area
50. Transmission from base stations to
mobile stations is called ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

forward link
reverse link
control link
user link

51. The output power of a cellular radio is


controlled by the
A.
B.
C.
D.

user or caller
cell site
called party
MTSO

52. EDGE channel size is about


A.
B.
C.
D.

250 kHz
200 kHz
150 kHz
100 kHz

53. A switching facility connecting cellular


telephone base stations to each other and
to the public switched telephone
network.
A.
B.
C.
D.

MTSO
MSC
VLR
AuC

54. A radio land station in the land mobile


service
A.
B.
C.
D.

land station
ship earth station
base station
mobile station

55. Transmission of brief text messages,


such as pages or e-mail, by cellular radio
or PCS.
A.
B.
C.
D.

SMS
MMS
paging
raking

56. The point when the cell reaches


maximum capacity occurs when the
number of subscribers wishing to place a
call at any given time equals the number
of channels in the cell
A.
B.
C.
D.

saturation
blocking traffic
maximum traffic load
any of these

57. In IS-41 standard, it is a process where


the mobile unit notifies a serving MTSO
of its presence and location through a
base station controller.
A.
B.
C.
D.

dependent registration
autonomous registration
air interface
BTS to BSC interface

58. Cellular telephones use which operation?


A.
B.
C.
D.

simplex
half-duplex
full-duplex
triplex

59. A receiver capable of receiving several


versions of the same signal with
different arrival times and combining the
received versions into a single signal
with better quality
A.
B.
C.
D.

scanners
rake receivers
mobile subscriber unit
mobile stations

60. In CMTS, the most important database


for GSM is ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

VLR
HLR
BTS
AUC

61. In CMTS, the number of duplex voice


channels for AMPS is ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

676
285
395
790

62. A geographic cellular radio coverage


area containing three of more group of
cells

A.
B.
C.
D.

cluster
cell
radio channel
MSC/VLR area

63. A flawless cell-to-cell transfer is called


____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

hard handoff
soft handoff
heavy handoff
light handoff

64. The bit length of System Identification


(SID)
A.
B.
C.
D.

32
15
10
8

65. The RF power output of a transmitter in


a cellular mobile telephone system
authorized by NTC for use in the
Philippines.
A.
B.
C.
D.

20.5 dBm
31.5 dBm
34.8 dBm
22.1 dBm

66. A class III mobile phone using AMPS


has an ERP of
A. 4 W
B. 1.6 W

C. 600 mW
D. 1.4 W
67. ____ is measuring the propagated field
strength over the projected service area.
A.
B.
C.
D.

radio monitoring
radio sounding
radio survey
none of these

68. Transmission of data in two directions


on a channel by using different time
slots for each directions.
A.
B.
C.
D.

time-division multiplexing
time-division multiple access
time-division duplexing
time-division

69. When the cluster size is reduced with a


constant cell size, what happens to the
total channel capacity?
A.
B.
C.
D.

decreases
increases
stays constant
depends on the number of cell
cites

70. The transfer of a mobile unit from one


base station's control to another base
station's control
A. handoff
B. paging
C. roaming

D. dualization
71. What is the frequency deviation of
AMPS?
A.
B.
C.
D.

12 kHz
6 kHz
3 kHz
18 kHz

72. The bit length of Digital Color Code


(DCC)
A.
B.
C.
D.

2
3
4
5

73. A transmit channel has a frequency of


837.6 MHz. The receive channel
frequency is
A.
B.
C.
D.

729.6 MHz
837.6 MHz
867.6 MHz
882.6 MHz

74. A frequency-hopping spread-spectrum


system hops to each of 100 frequencies
every 10 seconds. How long does it
spread on each frequency?
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.2 sec/hop
0.4 sec/hop
0.3 sec/hop
0.1 sec/hop

75. What is the transmission rate of a GSM


cellular system?
A.
B.
C.
D.

128 kbps
240 kbps
64 kbps
270 kbps

76. A card with an embedded integrated


circuit that can be used for functions
such as storing subscriber information
for a PCS system.
A.
B.
C.
D.

smart card
SIM
Intelligent card
Credit card

77. It is a means of avoiding full-cell


splitting where the entire area would
otherwise need to be segmented into
smaller cells.
A.
B.
C.
D.

segmentations
dualization
sectoring
splitting

78. A channel used for transferring control


and diagnostic information between
mobile users and a central cellular
telephone switch through the base
stations.
A.
B.
C.
D.

forward channel
voice channel
control channel
reverse channel

79. It is the provision of voice


communication using internet protocol
technology, instead of traditional circuit
switched technology.
A.
B.
C.
D.

WAP
GPRS
VOIP
WIFI

80. Determine the total number of channel


capacity of a cellular telephone area
comprised of 10 clusters with seven cells
in each cluster and 10 channels in each
cell.
A.
B.
C.
D.

7 channels
70 channels
700 channels
7000 channels

81. Technique used in spread spectrum that


adds a high-bit rate pseudorandom code
to a low bit rate information signal to
generate a high-bit rate pseudorandom
signal closely resembling noise that
contains both the original data signal and
pseudorandom noise.
A.
B.
C.
D.

direct-sequence
frequency-division multiplexing
frequency hopping
CDMA

82. Refers to the first generation of local


loop system in telecommunication
technology

A.
B.
C.
D.

TACS
DECT
Analog cellular
GSM

83. An information sent by the base station


in a cellular radio system set the power
level of the mobile transmitter.
A. cellular digital packet data
B. digital color code
C. control mobile attenuation
code
D. electronic serial code
84. A 32-bit binary code permanently
assigned to each of the mobile unit
A.
B.
C.
D.

supervisory audio tone


station class mark
electronic serial number
visitor location register

85. It serves as central control for all users


within that cell
A.
B.
C.
D.

base stations
antennas
transceivers
mobile subscriber units

86. What modulation technique is used by


Advanced Mobile Phone System
(AMPS)
A. WBFM

B. VSB
C. NBFM
D. FSK
87. A database in the PCS network that
stores information about subscribers in a
particular MTSO serving area
A. international mobile subscriber
identification
B. visitor location register
C. home location register
D. authentication register
88. In cellular phone, a memory location
that stores the telephone number(s) to be
used on the system.
A.
B.
C.
D.

EPROM
UVPROM
EEPROM
NAM

89. A province in the Philippines has an area


2000 sq. kms. It has to be covered by a
cellular mobile telephone service using
cells with a radius of 3 kms. Assuming
hexagonal cells, find the number of cell
sites needed.
A.
B.
C.
D.

100
500
166
145

90. The modulation technique used by GSM


cellular system.

A. QAM
B. Phase Shift Keying
C. Gaussian Minimum Shift
Keying
D. Frequency Shift Keying
91. Microcells have base stations transmit
power between ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.4W to 0.7W
1W to 6W
0.5W to 8W
0.1W to 1W

92. Determine the receive carrier


frequencies for AMPS channel 3 and
channel 991
A.
B.
C.
D.

870.09 MHz and 869.04 MHz


879.09 MHz and 859.04 MHz
869.09 MHz and 870.04 MHz
869.04 MHz and 870.09 MHz

93. Decreasing co-channel interference


while increasing capacity by using
directional antenna is called ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

clustering
splitting
partitioning
sectoring

94. Soft handoff normally takes ____ of


time delay.
A. 400 ms
B. 300 ms

C. 200 ms
D. 100 ms
95. Component of a cellular telephone
network that manages each of the radio
channels at each site.
A.
B.
C.
D.

base station controllers


base transceiver stations
mobile switching center
mobile telephone switching
center

96. The bit length of Station Class Mark


(SCM).
A.
B.
C.
D.

4
5
8
10

97. The master control center for a cellular


telephone system is the
A.
B.
C.
D.

Cell site
MTSO
Central office
Branch office

98. The maximum frequency deviation of an


FM cellular transmitter is
A.
B.
C.
D.

6 kHz
12 kHz
30 kHz
45 kHz

99. A receiver channel has a frequency is


872.4 MHz. to develop an 82.2 MHz IF,
the frequency synthesizer must apply an
local oscillator signal of ____ (The local
oscillator is usually higher than the
receive frequency)
A.
B.
C.
D.

790.2 MHz
827.4 MHz
954.6 MHz
967.4 MHz

100.
A class I mobile phone using
AMPS has an ERP of
A.
B.
C.
D.

6 dBW
2 dBW
-2 dBW
-6 dBW

101.
A mobile telephone service using
trunked channels but not cellular nature
A.
B.
C.
D.

IMTS
MTSO
IMSI
IMEI

102.
The GSM cellular radio system
uses GMSK in a 200-kHz, with a
channel data rate of 270.833 kbps.
Calculate the frequency shift between
mark and space in kHz?
A.
B.
C.
D.

135.4165
153.6514
315.4651
513.1654

D. PCS
103.
A cellular system is capable of
coping with a handoffs once every 2
minutes. What is the maximum cell
radius if the system must be capable of
working with cars traveling at highway
speed of 120 km/hr?
A.
B.
C.
D.

3 km
1 km
4 km
6 km

104.
Radio communication operation
service between mobile and land stations
or between mobile stations.
A.
B.
C.
D.

land mobile
land mobile satellite service
mobile service
maritime mobile service

105.
A multiple access technique used
in GSM cellular system.
A.
B.
C.
D.

FDMA
CDMA
TDMA
TACS

106.
This is the Nordic analog mobile
radio telephone system originally used in
Scandinavia
A. NMT
B. GSM
C. PCN

107.
The combination of the mobile
cellular phone and the cell-site radio
equipment is known as
A.
B.
C.
D.
108.

forward link
base transceiver station
air interface
base station controller
The duplex frequency of GSM

A.
B.
C.
D.

40 MHz
80 MHz
120 MHz
30 MHz

109.
The channel separation of GSM
channel
A.
B.
C.
D.

270 kHz
200 kHz
120 kHz
60 kHz

110.
The number of control channels
for AMPS
A.
B.
C.
D.

25
23
21
19

111.
The modulation technique used
audio signal for TACS

A.
B.
C.
D.
112.

FM
FSK
TFSK
QAM

D. BSC
116.
It is the functional entity from
which the operator monitors and controls
the mobile communication system.

B. Quarterwavelength Shifted
QPSK
C. GFSK
D. Trellis coding

Speech coding rate for GSM


A.
B.
C.
D.

113.

80 kbps
25 kbps
21 kbps
13 kbps

A. Operation and Maintenance


System
B. Mobile Switching Center
C. Gateway Mobile Switching
Center
D. Operation and Support System

Number of channels for GSM


A.
B.
C.
D.

333
666
124
248

114.
It is a database that contains
information about the identity of mobile
equipment that prevents calls from
stolen, unauthorized, or defective mobile
stations.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Equipment Identity Register


Authentication Center
Home Location Register
Visitor Location Register

115.
It provides all the control
functions and physical links between the
MSC and BTS
A. OSS
B. OMC
C. MSC

117.
A node in the switching system
of GSM that provides integrated voice,
fax and data messaging.
A. Gateway Mobile Switching
Center
B. Mobile Service Node
C. GSM Internetworking Unit
D. Message Center
118.
It is a node in the switching
system of GSM that handles mobile
intelligent network services.
A. Message Center
B. Gateway Mobile Switching
Center
C. Mobile Service Unit
D. Mobile Switching Center
119.
The modulation scheme used for
NADC
A. NFSK

MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN

SATELLITE
COMMUNIC
ATIONS
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

D. 25,000 km/hr
4. The circuit that provides channelization
in a transponder is the

ENCODED BY:
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
1. It is a celestial body that orbits around a
planet.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Primary body
Satellite
Heavenly bodies
Quasars

2. It is a position and timing service that is


available to all GPS users on a
continuous, worldwide basis with no
direct charge.
A.
B.
C.
D.

PPI
PPS
SPS
SSP

3. The geometric shape of a non-circular


orbit of a satellite is ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Ellipse
Parabolic
Hyperbolic
Paraboloid

A.
B.
C.
D.

Mixer
Local oscillator
Bandpass filter
HPA

5. The three axes referred to the three-axis


attitude stabilization are; except
A.
B.
C.
D.

Pitch
Yaw
Roll
Speed

6. A ground station is operating to a


geostationary satellite at a 5 degrees
angle of elevation. Calculate the roundtrip time between ground station to
satellites in a geostationary orbit.
A.
B.
C.
D.

456.45 ms
275.58 ms
137.79 ms
126.89 ms

7. The escape velocity of the earth is


approximately
A. 30,000 km/hr
B. 25,000 mi/hr
C. 35,000 m/s

8. A satellite radio repeater is called ____.


A.
B.
C.
D.

Repeater
Transponder
Satellite
Mixer

9. Calculate the angle of declination for an


antenna using a polar mount at a latitude
of 45 degrees.
A.
B.
C.
D.

3.2 degrees
1.3 degrees
4.2 degrees
6.81 degrees

10. The time transfer accuracy used with


reference to the Universal Transmitter
Mercator Grid is ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

UTC
UTMG
GMT
UTM

11. It is caused by the inertia of the satellite


balanced by the earths gravitational
pull.
A. Centrifugal force
B. Centripetal force
C. Speed

D. Earths rotation
12. In satellites, it includes control
mechanism that support the payload
operation.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Bus
Payload
Ground segment
Space segment

13. A satellite transmitter operates at a 4


GHz with a transmitter power of 7W and
an antenna gain of 40 dBi. The receiver
has antenna gain of 30 dBi, and the path
length is 40,000 km. calculate the signal
strength at the receiver.
A.
B.
C.
D.

-88 dBm
-98 dBm
-77 dBm
-79.8 dBm

14. The satellite subsystem that monitors


and controls the satellite is the
A.
B.
C.
D.

Propulsion system
Power subsystem
Communications subsystem
Telemetry,
tracking,
command subsystems

15. Standard positioning service has time


transfer accuracy to Universal Transfer
Mercator Grid within ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

140 nanoseconds
340 nanoseconds
230 nanoseconds
530 nanoseconds

16. A satellite remains in orbit because the


centrifugal force caused by its rotation
around the Earth is counterbalanced by
Earths ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Centripetal force
Inertia
Gravitational pull
Speed

17. A TVRO installation for use with Cband satellite (download frequency at 4
GHz), has a diameter of about 3.5 meters
and an efficiency of 60%. Calculate the
gain.
A.
B.
C.
D.

41 dB
19 dB
29 dB
9 dB

and
18. Which of the following is not a typical
output from the GPS receiver?
A. Latitude

B. Speed
C. Altitude
D. Longitude
19. The law that states that a satellite will
orbit a primary body following an
elliptical path.
A.
B.
C.
D.

1st law of Kepler


2nd law of Kepler
3rd law of Kepler
4th law of Kepler

20. Telephone communication takes place


between two earth stations via a satellite
that is 40,000 km from each station.
Suppose Bill, at station 1, asks a
question and Sharon, at station 2,
answers immediately, as soon as she
hears the question. How much time
elapses between the end of Bills
question and the beginning of Sharons
reply, as heard by Bill?
A.
B.
C.
D.

0.26 sec
3.2 sec
0.52 sec
1.6 sec

21. In GPS, it is accomplished by


manipulating navigation message orbit
data (epsilon) and/or the satellite clock
frequency (dither).

A.
B.
C.
D.

Selective availability
Reverse error notification
Forward error notification
Two dimensional reporting

22. The modulation normally used with


digital data is
A.
B.
C.
D.

AM
FM
SSB
QPSK
nd

23. Keplers 2 law is known as


A.
B.
C.
D.

Law of gravity
Law of areas
Newtons law of motion
Harmonic law

24. A receiving antenna with a gain of 40 dB


looks at a sky with a noise temperature
of 15 K. the loss between the antenna
and the LNA input, due to the feedhorn
is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise
temperature of 40K. Calculate the G/T?
A.
B.
C.
D.

13.4 dB
39 dB
20.6 dB
11.2 dB

25. The operational satellites of Navstar


GPS are revolving around Earth in ____
orbital planes.
A.
B.
C.
D.

4
3
5
6

26. Keplers 3rd law is also known as


A.
B.
C.
D.

Law of gravity
Law of areas
Newtons law of motion
Harmonic law

27. The basic technique used to stabilize a


satellite is
A.
B.
C.
D.

Gravity-forward motion balance


Spin
Thruster control
Solar panel orientation

28. Calculate the length of the path to a


geostationary satellite from an earth
station where the angle of elevation is 30
degrees.
A.
B.
C.
D.

55 x 10^3 km
13 x 10^3 km
23 x 10^3 km
39 x 10^3 km

29. Navstar GPS is a ____.


A.
B.
C.
D.

LEO
MEO
HEO
GEO

30. The satellite is orbiting in the same


direction as the Earths rotation and at
angular velocity greater than that of the
Earth.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Retrograde
Synchronous
Posigrade
Asynchronous

31. Find the orbital period of the satellite in


a circular orbit 500 km above the Earths
surface
A.
B.
C.
D.

1.6 hrs
3.2 hrs
2.4 hrs
6.4 hrs

32. Satellite orbiting in the opposite


direction as the Earths rotation and at
angular velocity less than that of the
Earth
A. Asynchronous
B. Synchronous
C. Posigrade

D. Retrograde
33. A transponder that demodulates the
baseband signals and then demodulates a
carrier is known as ____ transponder.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Single-conversion
Double-conversion
Regenerative
Degenerative

34. Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellite orbits


around the earth at a height of
approximately ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

3000 miles
1000 miles
575 miles
370 miles

35. Power amplification in a transponder is


usually provided by
A.
B.
C.
D.

klystron
TWT
Transistor
Magnetron

36. Which of the following clocks is


developed for Galileo satellite?
A. Cesium Atomic Frequency Standard
B. Rubidium Atomic
Frequency
Standard

C. Ruby Atomic Frequency Standard


D. Hydrogen Frequency Standard
37. Master control station of GPS is located
in ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Colorado
California
Alaska
New York

38. Medium Earth Orbit (MEO) satellite


orbits around the earth at a height
approximately ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

3,000 miles to 6,000 miles


4,000 miles to 8,000 miles
6,000 miles to 12,000 miles
8,000 miles to 10,000 miles

39. A satellite stays in orbit because the


following two factors are balanced
A.
B.
C.
D.

Satellite weight and speed


Gravitational pull and inertia
Centripetal force and speed
Satellite weight and the pull of the
moon and sun

40. A ____ circuit in the transponder


performs the frequency conversion.
A. HPA
B. Mixer

C. Local oscillator
D. LPA
41. Geosynchronous satellites are highaltitude earth-orbit satellites with heights
about ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

22,300 miles
21,000 miles
8,000 miles
10,400 miles

42. The input circuit to a transponder is the


____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

BPF
HPA
LPA
Any of these

43. The access scheme used by GPS


A.
B.
C.
D.

FDMA
OFDMA
TDMA
CDMA

44. The point in an orbit which is located


farthest from earth
A.
B.
C.
D.

Perigee
Apogee
Line of apsides
Point of shoot

45. Using very narrow beamwidth antennas


to isolate signals on the same frequency
is known as ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Spatial isolation
Footprint
Frequency reuse
Boresight

46. The point in an orbit which is located


closest to Earth
A.
B.
C.
D.

Point of shoot
Apogee
Line of apsides
Perigee

C. Orbit
D. Center
49. In satellite communications, the type of
modulation used in voice and video
signals is
A.
B.
C.
D.

AM
FM
SSB
QPSK

50. In satellite communications, type of orbit


which is virtually all orbits except those
travel directly above the equator or
directly over the North or the South
poles.

52. It is the angle between the earths


equatorial plane and the orbital plane of
the satellite measured counterclockwise.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Angle of elevation
Angle of azimuth
Angle of inclination
Angle of tetrahedron

53. Which of the following types of HPA is


not used in earth stations?
A.
B.
C.
D.

TWT
Klystron
Transistors
Magnetron

54. Galileo satellites mass is ____.


47. The most popular satellite frequency
range is 4 to 6 GHz and is called the
____ band.
A.
B.
C.
D.

C
L
Ka
Ku

48. All satellites rotate around the earth in


an orbit that forms a plane that passes
through the center of gravity of earth
called ____.
A. Focus
B. Geocenter

A.
B.
C.
D.

Equatorial orbit
Polar orbit
Geosynchronous orbit
Inclined orbit

51. A common up-converter and downconverter IF insatelite communications


is
A.
B.
C.
D.

36 MHz
40 MHz
70 MHz
500 MHz

A.
B.
C.
D.

880 kg
675 kg
900 kg
540 kg

55. The point where a polar or inclined orbit


crosses the equatorial plane traveling
from north to south
A.
B.
C.
D.

Ascending node
Line of nodes
Descending node
Diagonal nodes

56. The receive GCE system in an earth


station performs what function/s
A.
B.
C.
D.

Modulation and multiplexing


Up conversion
Demodulation and demultiplexing
Down conversion

57. The term generally associated with the


table showing the position of a heavenly
body on the number of dates in a regular
sequence.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Astronomical almanac
Smith
Ephemeris
Space reporting

58. The point where a polar or inclined orbit


crosses the equatorial plane traveling
from south to north.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Ascending node
Descending node
Diagonal node
Inclined node

59. The line joining the ascending and


descending node is called ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Line of apsides
Line of nodes
Line of shoot
Any of these

60. When the satellite rotates in an orbit


directly above the equator, usually in
circular pattern. This type of orbit is
called ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Polar orbit
Synchronous orbit
Geosynchronous satellite
Equatorial orbit

61. The Navstar GPS satellite system was


declared fully operational as of ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

April 17, 1995


April 24, 1995
April 27, 1995
April 10, 1995

62. The HPAs in most satellites are


A.
B.
C.
D.

TWTs
Vacuum tubes
Klystrons
Magnetrons

63. The physical location of a satellite is


determined by its
A.
B.
C.
D.

Distance from the earth


Latitude and longitude
Reference to the stars
Position relative to the sun

64. When the satellite rotates in a path that


takes it over the north and south poles in
an orbit perpendicular to the equatorial
plane. This type of orbit is called ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Inclined orbit
Polar orbit
Geosynchronous orbit
Diagonal orbit

65. The azimuth angles and the angle of


elevation is collectively known as ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Antennas look angles


Antennas see angles
Antennas keep angles
Antennas satellite angles

66. The point on the surface of the Earth


directly below the satellite.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Satellite point
Latitude
Longitude
Subsatellite point

67. It is the vertical angle formed between


the direction of travel of an
electromagnetic wave radiated from an
earth station antenna pointing directly
toward a satellite and the horizontal
plane.
A. Angle of depression

B. Angle of inclination
C. Angle of elevation
D. Angle of azimuth
68. The unique number used to encrypt the
signal from that of the GPS satellite.
A.
B.
C.
D.

SV
UV
PRN
ESN

69. The minimum acceptable angle of


elevation
A.
B.
C.
D.

6 degrees
4 degrees
5 degrees
7 degrees

70. It is the horizontal angular distance from


a reference direction either the southern
or northern most point of the horizon.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Angle of elevation
Latitude
Longitude
Azimuth

71. It is defined as the horizontal pointing


angle of an earth station antenna.
A. Angle of inclination
B. Azimuth angle

C. Latitude
D. Longitude
72. Determines the farthest satellite away
that can be seen looking east or west of
the earth stations longitude
A.
B.
C.
D.

Radio horizon
Optical horizon
Terrestrial limits
Limits of visibility

73. The spatial separation of a satellite is


between ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

3 to 6 degrees
1 to 2 degrees
5 to 8 degrees
8 to 16 degrees

74. The geographical representation of a


satellite antennas radiation pattern is
called a ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Field intensity
Footprint
Radiation propagation
Polarization

75. The GPS satellite identification which is


assigned according to the order of the
vehicles launch.
A. SV

B. EV
C. PRN
D. ESN
76. The smallest beam of a satellite that
concentrates their power to very small
geographical areas.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Hemispherical beam
Global beam
Spot beam
Any of these

77. Satellites radiation pattern that typically


target up to 20% of the Earths surface.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Hemispherical beam
Global beam
Spot beam
Any of these

78. The key electronic component in a


communications satellite is the
A.
B.
C.
D.

Telemetry
Command and Control system
On-board computer
Transponder

79. The radiation pattern that has a satellites


antenna beamwidth of 17 degrees and
are capable of covering approximately
42% of the earths surface.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Hemispherical beam
Earth beam
Spot beam
Any of these

84. Navstar GPS satellite grouping that can


operate continuously for 180 days
between uploads from the ground.
A.
B.
C.
D.

80. The first active satellite


A.
B.
C.
D.

Moon
Sputnik I
Score
Echo

81. Sputnik
I
transmitted
information for
A.
B.
C.
D.

Block III
Block IIa
Block II
Block IIR

85. It was the first artificial satellite used for


relaying terrestrial communications
telemetry

1 week
21 days
15 days
30 days

A.
B.
C.
D.

Score
Explorer I
Sputnik I
Syncom I

86. Which of the following satellite


rebroadcast President Eisenhowers
1958 Christmas message?

82. The US counterpart of Sputnik I


A.
B.
C.
D.

Syncom
Telstar
Echo
Explorer I

83. Explorer I lasted for ____.


A.
B.
C.
D.

5 months
6 months
12 months
2 months

A.
B.
C.
D.

Telstar I
Telstar II
Echo
Score

87. The satellite or space segment of Navstar


GPS is consist of ____ operational
satellites.
A.
B.
C.
D.

30
24
14
20

88. It was the first satellite to accomplish


transatlantic transmission.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Courier
Echo
Telstar
Syncom

89. It is the first transponder-type satellite


A.
B.
C.
D.

Telstar I
Sputnik I
Syncom
Courier

90. The
first
active
satellite
to
simultaneously receive and transmit
radio signals.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Telstar I
Telstar II
Intelsat
Syncom

91. The satellite communications channel in


a transponder are defined by the
A.
B.
C.
D.

LNA
Bandpass filter
Mixer
Input signals

92. The satellite that was damaged by


radiation from a newly discovered Van
Allen Belts and consequently lasted for
two weeks.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Telstar I
Telstar II
Intelsat
Syncom

93. As the height of a satellite orbit gets


lower, the speed of the satellite
A.
B.
C.
D.

Increases
Decreases
Remains the same
None of the above

94. The satellite that was lost in space in its


first attempt to place it in a
geosynchronous orbit.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Syncom I
Telstar I
Telstar II
Courier

95. Intelsat I which was the first commercial


telecommunications satellite is called
____.
A. Domsat
B. Molniya
C. Early bird

D. Courier
96. Block II Navstar GPS satellites can
operate for approximately ____ between
the receiving updates and corrections
from the control segment of the system.
A.
B.
C.
D.

5.5 days
3.5 days
6 days
7 days

97. The angle of inclination of a satellite in


polar orbit is nearly ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

45 degrees
90 degrees
30 degrees
60 degrees

98. It is the time it takes earth to rotate back


to the same constellation
A.
B.
C.
D.

Revolution
Rotation
Sidereal period
Year

99. Satellites with orbital pattern like


Molniya are sometimes classified as
A. LEO
B. MEO
C. GEO

D. HEO
100.
The process of maneuvering a
satellite within a preassigned window is
called
A.
B.
C.
D.

Satellite keeping
Station controlling
Station keeping
Satellite controlling

101.
Navstar GPS satellite grouping
capacble of detecting certain error
conditions,
then
automatically
transmitting a coded message indicating
that it is out of service.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Block I
Block IIa
Block II
Block IIR

102.
Galileo Satellites has a lifespan
of ____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

> 12 years
> 15 years
> 20 years
> 25 years

103.
The height of a satellite in a
synchronous equatorial orbit is
A. 100 mi

B. 6800 mi
C. 22,300 mi
D. 35,860 mi

D. Angle of azimuth
108.
A circular orbit around the
equator with 24-h period is called

104.
An orbit that is 36,000 km away
from the geocenter of the earth is called
A.
B.
C.
D.

Geosynchronous orbit
Clarke orbit
Clarke belt
Any of these

105.
The main function
communications satellite is as
A.
B.
C.
D.

of

Repeater
Reflector
Beacon
Observation platform

106.
Navstar GPS grouping intended
to be used only for self testing.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Block I
Block III
Block II
Block IIR

107.
It is the direction of maximum
gain of the earth station antenna
A. Footprint
B. Boresight
C. Angle of elevation

A.
B.
C.
D.

Elliptical orbit
Geostationary orbit
Polar orbit
Transfer orbit

109.
A classification of satellite that
uses the angular momentum of its
spinning body to provide roll and yaw
stabilization.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Roll stabilizer satellite


Yaw stabilizer satellite
Spinner stabilizer satellite
Three-axis stabilizer satellite

110.
Most satellites operate in which
frequency band?
A.
B.
C.
D.

30 to 300 MHz
300 MHz to 3 GHz
3 to 30 GHz
Above 300 GHz

111.
The method of assigning adjacent
channels
different
electromagnetic
polarization is called
A. Frequency reuse
B. Polarization

C. Multi-accessing
D. Interference
112.
It implies that more than one user
has an access to one or more radio
channels
A.
B.
C.
D.

Co-channel interference
Satellite multi-accessing
Frequency reuse
Diversity

113.
The main power sources for a
satellite are
A.
B.
C.
D.

Batteries
Solar cells
Fuel cells
Thermoelectric generators

114.
A type of satellites multipleaccessing method that allows all users
continuous and equal access of the entire
transponder bandwidth by assigning
carrier frequencies on a temporary basis
using statistical assignment process.
A.
B.
C.
D.

TDMA
FDMA
DAMA
CDMA

115.
Batteries are used to power all
satellite subsystems

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

All the time


Only during emergencies
During eclipse periods
To give the solar arrays a rest

116.
The highly accurate timing
clocks onboard the GPS satellite.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Plutonium clocks
Cesium atomic clocks
Hydrogen clocks
Fossil clocks

A.
B.
C.
D.

A.
B.
C.
D.

121.
to

Wandering
Celestial navigation
Piloting
Radio navigation
The jet thrusters are usually fired

A. Main attitude
B. Put the satellite into transfer orbit
C. Inject the satellite into the
geosynchronous orbit
D. Bring the satellite back to earth

Ranging
Detection
Navigation
Driving

118.
Galileo satellite
positioned in ____.

120.
The
most
ancient
and
rudimentary method of navigation is
____.
A.
B.
C.
D.

117.
It is defined as the art or science
of plotting, ascertaining, or directing the
course of movement.

Perigee
Apex
Zenith
Apogee

system

is

5 circular orbits
3 circular orbits
2 circular orbits
6 circular orbits

119.
The maximum height of an
elliptical orbit is called the

122.
A method of navigation where
direction and distance are determined
from precisely timed sightings of
celestial bodies, including the stars and
the moon.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Electronic navigation
Heavenly navigation
Radio navigation
Celestial navigation

123.
Navstar
satellite
takes
approximately ____ hours to orbit Earth.
A.
B.
C.
D.

20
6
12
18

124.
A method of navigation where it
fixes a position or direction with respect
to familiar, significant landmarks such as
railroad tracks, water towers, barns,
mountain peaks and bodies or water.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Dead reckoning
Radio navigation
Wandering
Piloting

125.
How can multiple earth stations
share a satellite on the same frequencies?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Frequency reuse
Multiplexing
Mixing
They cant

126.
A navigation technique that
determines position by extrapolating a
series of measured velocity increments.
A. Piloting
B. Wandering
C. Radio navigation

D. Dead reckoning
127.

A geostationary satellite

A. Is motionless in space (except for its


gain)
B. Is not really stationary at all, but
orbits the Earth within a 24-hr
period
C. Appears stationary over the Earths
magnetic pole
D. Is located at a height of 35,800 km to
ensure global coverage
128.
The average elevation of Navstar
GPS satellite is ____ statue miles above
the Earth.
A.
B.
C.
D.

6724
7689
5978
9476

129.
Most
commercial
satellite
activity occurs in which band(s)
A.
B.
C.
D.

L
C and Ku
X
S and P

130.
Indicate the correct statement
regarding satellite communications

A. If two earth stations do not face a


common satellite, they should
communicate via a double-satellite
hop.
B. Satellites are allocated so that it is
impossible for two earth stations not
to face the same satellite.
C. Collocated earth stations are used for
frequency diversity.
D. Satellite earth station must have as
many receive chains as there are
carriers transmitted to it.
131.
Satellite used for intercontinental
communications are known as
A.
B.
C.
D.

Comsat
Domsat
Marisat
Intelsat

132.
Identical telephone numbers in
different parts of the country are
distinguished by their
A.
B.
C.
D.

Language digits
Access digits
Area codes
Central office codes

133.
The GPS satellites has an angle
of elevation at the ascending node of
____ with respect to the equatorial
plane.

A.
B.
C.
D.
134.
A.
B.
C.
D.

30 degrees
55 degrees
50 degrees
45 degrees
Telephone traffic is measured
With echo cancellers
By the relative congestion
In terms of the grade of service
In erlangs

135.
Indicate which of the following
is not a submarine cable
A.
B.
C.
D.

TAT-7
INTELSAT V
ATLANTIS
CANTAT 2

136.
The typical bandwidth of a
satellite band is
A.
B.
C.
D.

36 MHz
40 MHz
70 MHz
500 MHz

137.
The operational satellites of
Navstar GPS are revolving around Earth
in orbital planes are approximately ____
degrees apart with ____ satellites in each
plane.

A.
B.
C.
D.

60, 4
30, 5
50, 5
40, 3

138.
Indicate which of the following
is an American domsat system
A.
B.
C.
D.

INTELSAT
TELSTAR
COMSAT
INMARSAT

139.
Which of the following is not
usually a part of a transponder?
A.
B.
C.
D.
140.
A.
B.
C.
D.

LNA
Mixer
Modulator
HPA
Who is the oldest man in space?
John Glenn
Neil Armstrong
Yuri Gagarin
Edwin Aldrin

141.
It refers to the satellite
orientation with respect to the earth.
A. Satellites attitude
B. Satellite position

C. Satellite location
D. Satellite orbit
142.
Precise positioning service has
time transfer accuracy to UTC within
A.
B.
C.
D.

100 nanoseconds
300 nanoseconds
200 nanoseconds
400 nanoseconds

143.
The fully deployed Galileo
satellite system consists of ____
satellites.
A.
B.
C.
D.
144.
A.
B.
C.
D.

27 operational + 3 active spares


26 operational + 4 active spares
28 operational + 2 active spares
25 operational + 5 active spares
Galileo satellite is ____.
Medium Earth Orbit (MEO)
Low Earth Orbit (LEO)
Geosynchronous Earth Orbit (GEO)
Highly Elliptical Orbit (HEO)

145.
Galileo satellites are at circular
planes at ____ altitude above Earth.
A.
B.
C.
D.

23,500 mi
36,500 km
35,800 mi
23,222 km

146.
Galileo satellites are inclined at
the orbital planes of ____ with reference
to the equatorial plane.
A.
B.
C.
D.

64 degrees
17 degrees
56 degrees
34 degrees

c) waveguides
d) load

MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS IN

ANTENNA
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

6) Calculate the angle of declination for an


antenna using a polar mount at a latitude of
45 degrees.
2) A directional antenna with two or more
a) 3.2 degrees
elements is known as
b) 1.3 degrees
a) folded dipole
c) 4.2 degrees
b) ground plane
d) 6.81 degrees
c) loop
d) array
3) The ratio of the focal length to the diameter 7) The cone angle of the flare angle of a
of the mouth of the parabola is called _____.
conical horn antenna is approximately
a) 55 degrees
a) aperture
b) focal point
b) 45 degrees
c) foci
c) 40 degrees
d) major axis
d) 50 degrees
4) The impedance of a dipole is about
a) 50-ohm
b) 73-ohm
c) 93-ohm
d) 300-ohm

8) Electrical energy that has escaped into free


space in the form of transverse
electromagnetic waves
a) radio waves
b) frequency
c) signal
5) A special type if transmission lint that
d) wavelength
consists of a conducting metallic tube
through
which
high-frequency 9) The length of the ground plane vertical at
electromagnetic energy is propagated.
146 MHz is
ENCODED BY:
a) medium
a) 1.6 ft.
LORENZO, Luer Breech B.
b) microstrip
b) 1.68 ft.
1) It is a metallic conductor system capable of
c) stripline
c) 2.05 ft.
radiating and capturing electromagnetic
d) 3.37 ft.
d) waveguide
energy.
a) transmission lines
10) Using a small reflector to beam waves to the
b) antenna
larger parabolic reflector is known as

a)
b)
c)
d)

focal feed
horn feed
cassegrain feed
coax feed

d) wavelength

19) It is a polar diagram representing field


strengths or power densities at various
angular relative to an antenna
a) sidelobe
b) front lobe
c) radiation pattern
d) radiation constant

15) A popular half-wavelength antenna is the


a) ground plane
b) end-fire
11) The plane parallel to the mutually
c) collinear
perpendicular line in the electric and
d) dipole
magnetic fields is called _____
16) Calculate the gain of a parabolic antenna 20) For a transmit antenna with a radiation
a) wavefront
b) point source
using a 2.5-m radius dish operating at 10
resistance of 72 ohms, an effective antenna
c) isotropic source
GHz.
resistance of 8 ohms, a directivity gain of 20
d) rays
a) 166.673 dB
and an input power of 100W, determine the
b) 83.7 dB
antenna gain.
12) What is the beamwidth of a parabolic
c) 52.2 dB
a) 12.55 dB
antenna with a diameter of 5 meters and an
d) 45.6 dB
b) 10.43 dB
operating frequency to 10 GHz?
c) 11.21 dB
a) 0.5 degrees
17) It is the ratio of the radiated to the reflected
d) 9.78 dB
b) 0.675 degrees
energy
a) radiation resistance
21) The radiation pattern plotted in terms of
c) 0.348 degrees
d) 3.48 degrees
electric field strength or power density
b) radiation efficiency
c) radiation constant
a) absolute radiation pattern
d) radiation antenna
b) relative radiation pattern
13) The horizontal radiation pattern of a dipole
c) absolute front lobe pattern
is a
18) The feed mechanism in a parabolic antenna
d) absolute sidelobe pattern
a) circle
that radiates the electromagnetic energy
22) Calculate the characteristic impedance of a
b) figure of eight
a) primary antenna
c) clover leaf
b) reflectors
quarter-wavelength section used to connect
d) narrow beam
c) secondary antenna
a 300-ohm antenna to a 75-ohm line
d) focal point
a) 150 ohms
14) The size of the antenna is inversely
b) 120 ohms
proportional to _____
c) 130 ohms
d) 110 ohms
a) frequency
b) power
c) radiation resistance

23) Plots of field strength or power density with


d) 95.5 %
respect to the value at a reference point
a) absolute frontlobe pattern
28) The line bisecting the major lobe, or
b) relative radiation pattern
pointing from the center of the antenna in
c) relative frontlobe pattern
the direction of maximum radiation is called
_____.
d) relative radiation pattern
a) line of shoot
24) What must be the height nof a vertical
b) diagonal shoot
radiator one-half wavelength high if the
c) bisecting shoot
operating frequency is 1100 kHz?
d) antenna shoot
a) 120 m
29) The ammeter connected at the base of a
b) 136 m
c) 115 m
Marconi antenna has a certain reading. If
d) 124 m
this reading is increased 2.77 times, what is
the increase in output power?
25) Lobes adjacent to the front lobe
a) 3.45
a) diagonal lobes
b) 1.89
c) 2.35
b) side lobes
c) front lobes
d) 7.67
d) back lobes
30) Refers to a field pattern that is close to the
26) Lobes in a directional exactly opposite of
antenna
the front lobe
a) induction field
a) side lobes
b) far field
b) adjacent lobes
c) radiation
c) front lobes
d) capture field
d) back lobes
31) A half-wave dipole is driven a 5-W signal at
27) Calculate the efficiency of an antenna that
225MHz. A receiving dipole 100 km.
has a radiation resistance of 73 ohms and an
Calculate the received power into a 73-ohm
effective dissipation resistance of 5 ohms.
receiver.
a) 98.3 %
a) 23.5 pW
b) 7.57 pW
b) 93.6 %
c) 90.7 %
c) 5.64 pW

d) 1.26 pW
32) It is the resistance that, if it replaced the
antenna, would dissipate exactly the same
amount of power that the antenna radiates.
a) directivity gain
b) antenna efficiency
c) radiation resistance
d) antenna resistance
33) What is the effective radiated power of a
television broadcast station if the output of
the transmitter is 1000W, antenna
transmission line loss is 50W, and the
antenna power gain is 3.
a) 1250 W
b) 2370 W
c) 2130 W
d) 2850 W
34) It is the ratio of the power radiated by an
antenna to the sum of the power radiated and
the power dissipated.
a) radiation resistance
b) coupling resistance
c) antenna efficiency
d) antenna beamwidth
35) It is the ratio of the power radiated by the
antenna to the total input power.
a) antenna efficiency
b) reflection coefficient
c) standing wave ratio
d) radiation resistance

39) If the field intensity of 25 mV/m develops


b) power gain
2.7 V in a certain antenna, what is its
c) directive gain
effective height?
d) total gain
a) 110 m
b) 100 m
43) A ship-radio telephone transmitter operates
36) If a 500-kHz transmitter of a constant power
c) 98 m
on 2738 kHz. At a certain point distant from
produces field strength of 100 V/m at a
the transmitter, the 2738-kHz signal is
d) 108 m
distance of 100 mil from the transmitter,
measured field at 147 mV/m, the second
what would be the field strength at a 40) The magnetic field of an antenna is
harmonic field at the same decibels, how
distance of 200 mi from the transmitter?
perpendicular to the earth. The antennas
much has the harmonic emission been
a) 45V/m
polarization ______.
attenuated
below
the
2738-kHz
b) 100 V/m
a) is vertical
fundamental?
a) 43.2 dB
c) 50 V/m
b) is horizontal
d) 35 V/m
c) is circular
b) 51.2 dB
d) cannot be determined from the
c) 35.1 dB
37) An antenna that transmits or receives
information given
d) 25.1 dB
equally well in all directions is said to be
______.
44) It is the equivalent power that an isotropic
antenna would have to radiate to achieve the
a) omnidirectional
b) bi-directional
same power density in the chosen direction
c) unidirectional
41) If the power of a 500-kHz transmitter is
at a given point as another antenna.
d) quadsidirectional
increased from 150W to 300W, what would
a) EIRP
be the percentage change in field intensity at
b) ERP
38) It is the ratio of the power density radiated
a given distance from the transmitter?
c) IRL
in a particular direction to the power density
d) RSL
a) 141 %
radiated to the same point by a reference
b) 150 %
antenna, assuming both antennas are
c) 100 %
45) When energy is applied to the antenna at a
radiating the same amount of power.
d) 133 %
point of high-circulating current.
a) power gain
a) voltage-fed antenna
42) It is the same with directive gain except that
b) power-fed antenna
b) directive gain
c) total gain
the total power fed to the antenna is used
c) current-fed antenna
d) system gain
and the antenna efficiency is taken into
d) impedance-fed antenna
account.
a) system gain

c) 98 %
d) 96 %
46) For a transmitter antenna with a power gain
of 10 and an input power of 100W, 50) The field surrounding the antenna do not
determine the EIRP in watts.
collapse their energy back into the antenna
but rather radiate it out into space.
a) 30 dBW
b) 40 dBW
a) induction field
c) 50 dBW
b) near field
d) 20 dBW
c) radiation field
d) magnetic field
47) If the energy is applied at the geometrical
center of antenna, the antenna is said to be
________.
a) center-fed
b) end-fed
51) For receive power density of 10W/m2 and a
c) quarterwave-fed
receive antenna with a capture area of 0.2
d) halfwave-fed
m2, determine the captured power.
a) 0.5 W
48) For a transmit antenna with a power gain of
b) 2 W
10 and an input power of 100W, determine
c) 1 W
the power density at a point 10 km from the
d) 1.5 W
transmit antenna
a) 0.574 W/m2
52) The property of interchangeability for the
2
transmitting and receiving operations is
b) 0.796 W/m
2
c) 1.24 W/m
known as _____.
2
d) 0.981 W/m
a) efficiency
b) accuracy
49) For a transmit antenna with a radiation
c) reciprocity
resistance of 72 ohms, an effective antenna
d) polarization
resistance of 8 ohms, a directive gain of 20
and an input power of 100W, determine the 53) The length of a doublet at 27 MHz is
antenna efficiency.
_____.
a) 8.67 ft.
a) 90 %
b) 96 %
b) 17.3 ft.

c) 18.2 ft.
d) 34.67 ft.
54) Refers to the orientation of the electric field
radiated from an antenna.
a) efficiency
b) beamwidth
c) polarization
d) accuracy
55) At frequencies below 2 MHz, what type of
antenna is usually used?
a) Marconi antenna
b) Hertzian antenna
c) Herzt antenna
d) Elementary doublet
56) The angular separation between two halfpower points in the major lobe of the
antennas plane radiation pattern.
a) bandwidth
b) polarization
c) efficiency
d) beamwidth

57) Hertz antenna are predominantly used with


frequencies above
a) 3 MHz
b) 4 MHz
c) 5 MHz
d) 2 MHz

58) Defined as the frequency range over which


antenna operation is satisfactory.
a) beamwidth
b) channel
c) bandwidth
d) baseband
63) The feedpoint presents and ac load to the
transmission line called
59) One of the following is not a
a) antenna output impedance
omnidirectional antenna.
b) antenna input impedance
a) half-wave dipole
c) feedpoint impedance
d) center feed impedance
b) log-periodic
c) discone
d) marconi
64) A helical antenna is used for satellite
tracking because of its
60) The point on the antenna where the
a) circular polarization
transmission line is connected is called
b) maneuverability
_____.
c) broad bandwidth
a) center feed
d) good front to back ratio
b) end feed
65) The simplest type of antenna
c) feedpoint
d) voltage feed
a) elementary doublet
b) half-wave dipole
61) A popular vertical antenna is the _____.
c) quarterwave dipole
a) collinear
d) 5/8 wavelength dipole
b) dipole
66) Zoning is used with a dielectric antenna in
c) ground plane
d) broadside
order to
a) reduce the bulk of the lens
62) The discone antenna is
b) increase the bandwidth of the lens
a) a useful direction-finding antenna
c) permit pin-point focusing
b) used as a radar receiving antenna
d) correct the curvature of the wavefront
c) circularly polarized like other circular
from a horn that is too short
antennas
67) It is an electrically short dipole.
d) useful as a UHF receiving antenna

a)
b)
c)
d)

short dipole
quarterwave dipole
half-wave dipole
yagi antenna

68) Cassegrain feed is used with parabolic


reflector to
a) increase the gain of the system
b) increase the bandwidth of the system
c) reduce the size of the main reflector
d) allow the feed to be placed at a
convenient point

69) The half-wave dipole is generally referred to


as ______.
a) Yagi antenna
b) Hertzian antenna
c) Marconi antenna
d) Hertz antenna
70) Top loading is sometimes used with an
antenna in order to increase its
a) effective height
b) bandwidth
c) beamwidth
d) input capacitance
71) What is the directivity of a Hertz antenna?
a) 1.64
b) 2.18

c) 2.15
d) 1.75

d) top hat

d) series inductors

76) Which of the following terms does not apply 80) Indicate the antenna that is not wideband;
72) The standard reference antenna for the
to the Yagi-Uda array
a) discone
directive gain is the _____.
a) good bandwidth
b) folded dipole
a) infinitesimal dipole
b) parasitic elements
c) helical
c) folded dipole
b) isotropic antenna
d) Marconi
c) elementary doublet
d) high gain
d) half-wave dipole
77) It effectively cancels out the capacitance
73) An antenna which is one-quarter wavelength
component of the antenna input impedance.
long, mounted vertically with the lower end
a) ground plane
81) It is formed when two or more antenna
either connected directly to ground or
b) top hat
elements are combined to form a single
grounded through the antenna coupling
antenna.
c) loading coil
network.
d) shunt capacitance
a) antenna elements
a) loop antenna
b) antenna arrays
b) hertzian antenna
78) Indicate which of the following reasons for
c) driven elements
the use of an earth mat with antennas is
d) parasitic elements
c) monopole antenna
d) turnstile antenna
false:
a) impossibility of a good ground 82) One of the following is not a reason for the
74) An antenna that is circularly polarized is the
conduction
use of an antenna coupler:
b) provision of an earth for the antenna
a) to make the antenna look resistive
a) helical
b) small circular loop
b) to provide the output amplifier with the
c) protection of personnel working
c) parabolic reflector
correct load impedance
underneath
d) Yagi-Uda
d) improvement of the radiation pattern of
c) to discriminate against harmonics
the antenna
d) to prevent reradiation of local
oscillators
79) A metallic array that resembles a spoke
wheel placed at the top of an antenna, it 83) It is an individual radiator, such as half or
75) It is a wire structure placed below the
increases the shunt capacitance to ground
quarter-wave dipole
antenna and erected above the ground.
reducing the overall antenna capacitance.
a) antenna element
a) ground plane
a) loading coil
b) antenna array
c) reflector
b) counterpoise
b) top loading
c) ground lines
c) series capacitance
d) director

d) must be horizontally polarized


84) Indicate which of the followin