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Insights Prelims Test Series Test No. 1 Solutions

1. Solution: d)
Explanation: Both Wild life (protection) act, 1972 and Forest (conservation) act,
1980 have provisions for fire management in forests to protect wildlife. Thus,
statement 1 and 4 are correct.
Public liability insurance act, 1991 provides for insurance to give immediate relief to
the persons affected by accident occurring while handling any hazardous substance
and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Thus, it covers disaster
management and statement 2 is correct.
Food safety and standards act 2006 prohibits manufacture, storage and use of
products unsafe of human consumption. It also provides for quality standards and
testing so that food consumption does not result in mass poisoning, disease and
death. Thus, it covers disaster management and statement 3 is correct.
Indian Sale of Goods Act 1930 defines buyers, sellers etc. So, statement 3 is incorrect.
Learning & Q Source: NDMA: Compendium of laws on Disaster Management
https://ndma.gov.in/images/pdf/COMPENDIUM-OF-LAWS-ON-DISASTERMANAGEMENT.pdf
2. Solution: c)
Explanation: Option (a) related to Mission Indradhanush which was launched in
December 2014. Hence, it is incorrect.
Options (b) relates to solar park projects, thus incorrect.
Option (d) is also incorrect as GoI does not have any mission/scheme that targets
increasing rain in water deficient areas through cloud seeding.
Learning: Major points under the Indradhanush strategy are:
Bank Investment Company will be setup. It will have holding interest in PSBs.
Bank Boards bureau to be setup to search for head of banks; advise banks on
ways to raise capital; and monitor key performance indicators.
Repeal of the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings),
1969
State-owned banks will be incorporated under the Companies Act
Capitalization of state-owned banks

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Speedy project approvals to reduce the NPAs of banks

More flexibility to banks for hiring staff
Q Source: http://articles.economictimes.indiatimes.com/2015-0816/news/65525479_1_public-sector-banks-rating-agency-crisil-raman-uberoi
3. Solution: a)
Explanation & Learning: In his autobiography, Gandhi calls Gokhale his mentor
and guide.
In 1912, Gokhale visited South Africa at Gandhi's invitation. As a young barrister,
Gandhi returned from his struggles against the Empire in South Africa and received
personal guidance from Gokhale, including a knowledge and understanding of India
and the issues confronting common Indians.
Despite his deep respect for Gokhale, however, Gandhi would reject Gokhale's faith
in western institutions as a means of achieving political reform and ultimately chose
not to become a member of Gokhale's Servants of India Society.
The Servants of India Society was formed in Pune, Maharashtra, in 1905 by Gopal
Krishna Gokhale. The Society organized many campaigns to promote education,
sanitation, health care and fight the social evils of untouchability and discrimination,
alcoholism, poverty, oppression of women and domestic abuse. The publication of
The Hitavada, the organ of the Society in English from Nagpur commenced in 1911.
Q Source: Improvisation: http://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/iwas-law-officer-no-3/
4. Solution: b)
Explanation: OPEC is a cartel of countries. So, it is incorrect to refer to it as a joint
private firm. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
Other options can be eliminated as it does not confirm to the definition of a cartel.
Learning: A cartel is a collection of businesses or countries that act together as a
single producer and agree to influence prices for certain goods and services by
controlling production and marketing. A cartel has less power than a monopoly. This
is because cartels do not control the entire market, as monopolists usually do.
OPEC was formed when the international oil market was largely dominated by a
group of multinational companies known as the 'seven sisters'. The formation of


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OPEC represented a collective act of sovereignty by oil exporting nations, and

marked a turning point in state control over natural resources.
OPEC's mandate is to "coordinate and unify the petroleum policies" of its members
and to "ensure the stabilization of oil markets in order to secure an efficient,
economic and regular supply of petroleum to consumers, a steady income to
producers, and a fair return on capital for those investing in the petroleum industry.
In 2014 OPEC comprised twelve members: Algeria, Angola, Ecuador, Iran, Iraq,
Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates, and
Venezuela.
Q Source: Improvisation:
http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/markets/commodities/arab-opec-producersbrace-for-oilprice-weakness-for-rest-of-2015/article7600332.ece
5. Solution: a)
Explanation: Ammonium nitrate is often found in improvised explosive devices
(IEDs), or homemade bombs. So, option (a) is correct.
AN is so dangerous that the Home Ministry, in its latest order, has made it
mandatory to make provision for two arm guards with GPS system to provide
security for vehicles transporting AN inside India.
Learning: Ammonium nitrate, or NH4-NO3, is frequently added to improve a
fertilizer's nitrogen content. It's relatively stable under most conditions and is
inexpensive to manufacture, according to Slate, making the chemical a popular
alternative to other, more expensive nitrogen sources.
Manual handling in loose form has chances of material loss and there is potential
risk to national security. Besides, ammonium nitrate, lying scattered on the wharf,
also poses risk of explosion like the recent one at port of Tianjin in China.
Q Source: http://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/govt-bans-import-ofammonium-nitrate-in-loose-form/article7629926.ece
6. Solution: b)
Explanation: The Indian government has signed neither the Refugee Convention
nor its Protocol, and Indian law does not offer any special language or provisions for
refugees. So, option (a) is a correct statement, and cant be the answer. This also
means that (d) cant be the answer.


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However, India is a member of the UNHCR executive committee. This makes option
(b) as the answer.
Learning: A possible reason for India not signing the Refugee convention may be
that a protection framework will encourage refugee inflow in India putting pressure
on resources. South-Asian borders are also very porous and any conflict can result in
a mass movement of people.
However, India does protect refugees. The Indian refugee protection framework is
based on executive decisions; judicial pronouncements; and international
conventions (1984 Convention against torture which prevents forcible repatriation of
refugees). For e.g. under the RTA, even refugees can claim right to education. They
are also entitled to public health facilities; justice systems etc.
Q Source: http://www.livemint.com/Opinion/bePZQScFIq1wEWv9Tqt4QO/WhyIndia-wont-sign-Refugee-Treaty.html
7. Solution: d)
Explanation & Learning: Burning coal, whether local or imported, generates
large quantities of fly ash containing toxic pollutants like lead, zinc, arsenic,
cadmium, sulphur, mercury and radioactive uranium/ thorium isotopes, which
adversely affect the health of the people near the power stations, often the rural poor,
whose disadvantage is worsened by these health impacts.
Studies on people residing near coal-based power plants along the border of Uttar
Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh have revealed unsafe levels of mercury in their blood
samples, at times as high as 110 parts per billion. Similarly, studies around a coal
power plant in the Punjab have indicated widespread radioactive contamination of
the environment, impacting the health of pregnant women and children.
Q Source: http://www.theguardian.com/commentisfree/2015/aug/07/coal-is-notthe-answer-to-indias-energy-poverty-whatever-tony-abbott-says
8. Solution: d)
Explanation: Fiscal discipline was a criterion used by earlier Finance
Commissions. It has been discontinued by the 14th FC. So, statement 3 is wrong.
Learning: The finance Commission is responsible for distribution of resources
(taxes) between the Centre and the states (vertical distribution), and between the
states (horizontal distribution). It does so using an objective formula which contains
several factors such as backwardness of a state; SC, ST population etc.


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As per the new formula, there are changes both in the variables included/excluded as
well as the weights assigned to them.
Relative to the Thirteenth Finance Commission, the FFC has incorporated two new
variables: 2011 population and forest cover; and excluded the variable relating to
fiscal discipline.
Q Source: http://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/unequal-states/
9. Solution: b)
Explanation: Fixed capital formation (growth of productive infrastructure etc) is
directly related with economic growth rate. So, option (a) is incorrect.
Option (c) is incorrect, as only short-term growth may be achieved if such diversion
occurs. In the long-term quality and quantity of infrastructure is a major
determinant of economic growth.
Dwellings form more than 50% of the fixed capital formation in India. See below.
Since dwellings do not add to the productive capacity of the economy, even if its
growth rate reduces, the economy can still grow. So, option (b) is correct.
Learning: Fixed capital is assets used in the productive process.
Examples of Fixed Capital Formation
Building or expanding existing factory

Road and bridge construction
Purchase of transport equipment
Office equipment, such as computers, printers
Machinery used in the productive process
Energy infrastructure etc
Generally, the higher the capital formation of an economy, the faster an economy can
grow its aggregate income. Increasing an economy's capital stock also increases its


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capacity for production, which means an economy can produce more. Producing
more goods and services can lead to an increase in national income levels.
Q Source: Economic Survey 2014-15: Volume 2: Chapter 1: Page 11
10. Solution: c)
Explanation: As crude oil prices declined, Indias import bill fell down, which
reduced fiscal deficit (subsidies) and domestic prices in India. This reduced inflation
to a great extent. So, statement 1 is correct.
Due to competitive global markets, soft global prices led to reduction in Indian
domestic prices. So, statement 2 is also correct.
Tight monetary policy contained the growth of money supply in India, which helped
the moderation of inflation and inflationary expectations. Thus, statement 3 is also
correct.
However, rupee did not appreciate. It only became more stable since the beginning of
the year. Therefore, statement 4 is wrong.
Moderation in wage rate growth reduced demand pressures on protein based items.
Base effect also contributed to the decline in headline inflation.
Learning: Inflation is caused by increases in the supply of money available for use
in a nation's economy. It means that too much money is chasing too few goods.
Inflation can also occur when the economy 'overheats' because of excess aggregate
demand (this is called demand-pull inflation). The causes of disinflation are the
opposite, either a decrease in the growth rate of the money supply, or a business
cycle contraction (recession).
If the central bank of a country enacts tighter monetary policy, that is to say, the
government start selling its securities, this reduces the supply of money in an
economy. This contraction of the monetary policy is known as quantitative tightening
technique.
You can read more in the article below.
Q Source: http://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/no-proof-requiredwhy-inflation-fell/
11. Solution: a)


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Explanation & Learning: BoP is composed of current account as well as capital

account. Current account deficit is shown as CAD which comprises of trade
surplus/deficit; invisibles surplus/deficit, remittances outflow/inflow etc.
Capital account consists of external commercial borrowings, loans taken by
government, long-term investments abroad, FDI, FII etc.
So, even if CAD is in surplus, it is possible that foreign debt and capital outflows
(capital account) are more than CAD. This makes the BoP negative, and there is a net
outgo of foreign exchange reserves in this case. So, option (b) is not always correct.
Same is true for option (c). Even if trade is in surplus, total CAD and BoP may be
negative. So, option (c) is also incorrect.
Similarily even if capital account is in surplus, it is possible that CAD is highly in
deficit. Thus, there may be a net outgo of foreign exchange. So, option (d) is also
incorrect.
http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/forex/indias-forex-reserves-falls-2billion-to-below-350-billion-again/articleshow/49195937.cms
12. Solution: a)
Explanation: Indias foreign exchange reserves was at US$ 350 billion as in
September 2015 mainly comprised foreign currency assets amounting about 92.5 per
cent of the total. So, option (a) is correct.
Learning: Forex Reserves are maintained by countries for meeting their
international payment obligations both short and long terms, including sovereign
and commercial debts, financing of imports, for intervention in the foreign currency
markets during periods of volatility, besides helping to boost the confidence of the
market in the ability of a country to meet its external obligations and to absorb any
unforseen external shocks, contingencies or unexpected capital movements.
India's foreign exchange reserves comprise foreign currency assets, gold and special
drawing rights allocated to it by the International Monetary Fund (IMF)in addition
to the reserves it has parked with the fund.
Foreign exchange reserves are held and managed by the RBI.
http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/forex/indias-forex-reserves-falls-2billion-to-below-350-billion-again/articleshow/49195937.cms


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13. Solution: b)
Explanation: Interest rates are the returns that investors enjoy in a particular
country. If the US hikes interest rates, FIIs will get better returns in US (even though
interest rates in India are higher). This is because US is considered a less risky
market than India. Therefore, this will lead to capital outflow from India. It will be
mostly hot money which travels (speculates) around the globe in search of better
returns.
It will bring short-term instability to Indian money markets.
So, options (a) and (d) will be wrong.
Indian banking system will not be affected by such short-term volatility in money or
Capital markets. So, option (c) is also incorrect.
Learning: The Federal Reserve kept rates near zero since 2008 financial crisis in a
bid to kick-start the US economy. The sustained low interest rate regime led to
outflow of money from US, and inflow of liquidity across the globe.
If the Fed hikes rates, some foreign investors are expected to book profit in their
holdings in Indian shares and bonds; they will likely repatriate funds back to the US,
where buying high interest rate bearing bonds will become an attractive bet.
Q Source: http://www.financialexpress.com/article/markets/indianmarkets/deferred-us-fed-rate-hike-likely-to-soothe-jittery-investor-nerves-arrest-fiioutflow/137562/
14. Solution: a)
Explanation: Mauritius is considered a tax haven, but it has signed DTAAs with
several nations. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
DTAA aims at avoiding taxing a company doubly by both the host nation and the
home nation. For e.g. Microsoft is a US based company also operating in India. If
both countries charge it at the normal corporate tax rates, the company will end up
paying at least 60% of its profits as taxes. To avoid this situation, countries enter into
DTAA and agree for a reasonable mutual division of taxes.
Learning: The term tax haven has been widely used since the 1950s. However,
there is no precise definition of the term. Mauritius, cayman Islands etc are counted
as Tax havens. Some common characteristics are:
typically small countries/ jurisdictions, with low or nil taxation for foreigners
who decide to come and settle there


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Offer strong confidentiality or secrecy regarding wealth and accounts, making

them very attractive locations for safe keeping of unaccounted wealth
offer a very liberal regulatory environment and allow opaque existence, where
an entity can easily be set up without indulging in any meaningful commercial
activity and yet claim to be a genuine business unit, merely by getting itself
incorporated or registered in that jurisdiction.
lack of adequate capital controls
Offshore Financial Centres: Some of the old tax havens have adopted the more
benign designation of offshore financial centre (OFC) and tend to describe
themselves as financial centres specializing in non-residential financial transactions.
Q Source: http://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/Seychelles-No-Longer-aTax-Haven-for-Indians/2015/08/27/article2995261.ece
15. Solution: a)
Explanation: Multilateral Carbon Credit Fund (MCCF) is maintained by the
European Investment Bank (EIB) with the European Bank for Reconstruction and
Development (EBRD). So, statement 3 is incorrect.
Learning: An independently operating financial organization (with 183 countries),
the GEF provides grants for projects related to biodiversity, climate change,
international waters, land degradation, the ozone layer, and persistent organic
pollutants. It was established in 1992 on the eve of Rio Summit.
The GEF also serves as financial mechanism for the following conventions:
Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)

United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
Minamata Convention on Mercury
The GEF, although not linked formally to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that
Deplete the Ozone Layer (MP), supports implementation of the Protocol in countries
with economies in transition.
The GEF also manages two separate adaptation-focused funds under the UNFCCC
the Least Developed Countries Fund and the Special Climate Change Fund which
mobilize funding specifically earmarked for activities related to adaptation.
http://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/indias-great-barrier-reef/


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16. Solution: b)
Explanation & Learning: Golden triangle is one of Asia's two main opiumproducing areas. It overlaps the mountains of three countries of Southeast Asia:
Myanmar, Laos and Thailand.
Along with Afghanistan in the Golden Crescent, it has been one of the most extensive
opium-producing areas of Asia and of the world since the 1950s.
The Golden Triangle designates the confluence of the Ruak River and the Mekong
River, since the term has been appropriated by the Thai tourist industry to describe
the nearby border tripoint of Thailand, Laos and Myanmar.
Q Source: http://indianexpress.com/article/explained/in-fact-in-tale-of-drugsguns-reason-why-end-of-war-might-not-mean-peace-for-myanmar/
17. Solution: d)
Explanation & Learning: RE-Invest 2015 was the first Renewable Energy Global
Investors Meet & Expo. The meet was organised by the Union Ministry of New and
Renewable Energy as a follow-up to the Make in India initiative of the Prime
Minister.
The central theme of RE-Invest is to attract large scale investments for the renewable
energy sector in India.


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The aim of the meet is to evolve innovative financial models for funding and to
ensure the partnership of states and the Centre in harnessing renewable energy.
Germany is the partner country for Re-Invest 2015.
Q Source: http://www.narendramodi.in/pms-address-at-the-inauguration-of-reinvest-2015-the-first-renewable-energy-global-investors-meet-and-expo-7260
18. Solution: a)
Explanation & Learning: The India Aspiration Fund is expected to catalyse tens
of thousands of crores of equity investment into start-ups and MSMEs (micro and
small enterprises).
This will create gainful employment for lakhs of persons, mostly educated youth,
over the course of next four to five years.
Life Insurance Corp. of India (LIC) will be a partner and co-investor in the fund.
The second fund is a debt fund called SIDBI Make in India Loan for Enterprises
(SMILE), which was announced in the Union budget in February. The fund will
provide soft term loans and loans in the nature of quasi-equity to MSMEs to meet
debt-to-equity norms and pursue growth opportunities in existing MSMEs.
The India Aspiration Fund will have an initial corpus of Rs.2,000 crore
Q Source: http://articles.economictimes.indiatimes.com/2015-0819/news/65592281_1_indian-angel-network-finance-minister-arun-jaitley-startups
19. Solution: b)
Explanation & Learning: Kaalapottu is an ox race which is celebrated in January
month. This is the well known agrarian sport celebrated in Palakkad.
At the annual Maramadi festival during the post harvest season in the villages of
Kerala in southern India, a peculiar bull race takes place. It usually coincides with the
Onam celebrations.
Q Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Thiruvananthapuram/actionagainst-cruelty-to-animals/article6817768.ece
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/kochi/Not-just-Jallikattu-Kalapoottu-isalso-banned-Kerala-HC/articleshow/48875389.cms
20. Solution: a)


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Explanation: Option (b) is incorrect as the Disinvestment department exists in the

Ministry of Finance.
Option (a) is correct, as even after announcements in Budget 2015-16, an official
policy is yet to come. This does not mean that Indian government does not have any
institutional view or strategy of disinvestment. The strategy of disinvestment was to
sell minority stakes in PSU for a long period of time (except 1999-2004). Now,
government is focussing on strategic sale of PSUs (transfer of management to private
sector).
Learning: Disinvestment typically refers to sale from the government, partly or
fully, of a government-owned enterprise. It is an active tool to reduce the burden of
financing the PSUs. The following main objectives of disinvestment were outlined:
To reduce the financial burden on the Government
To improve public finances
To introduce, competition and market discipline
To fund growth
To encourage wider share of ownership
To depoliticise non-essential services
Q Source: http://indianexpress.com/article/explained/in-fact-the-gradualevolution-of-indias-disinvestment-policy/
20. Solution: d)
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect as not even a single Palaeolithic site is found
even 100 Kms around Kolkata.
Statement 2 is also incorrect as there is no such site in Mumbai, but Inamgaon (an
archaeological site) is close to Mumbai. Hunsgi is a Palaeolithic site near Bengaluru,
but more than 300 Kms apart.
Learning: Archaeologists name the periods that they are studying. They call the
earliest period the Palaeolithic. The Palaeolithic period extends from 2 million years
ago to about 12,000 years ago. This long stretch of time is divided into the Lower,


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Middle and Upper Palaeolithic. This long span of time covers 99% of human history.
Q Source: Page 14: Our Pasts-I, VIth NCERT
21. Solution: c)
Explanation: Match 1 is wrong as Mehrgarh is in Pakistan. It is located in a fertile
plain, near the Bolan Pass, which is one of the most important routes into Iran.
Match 3 is wrong as Hallur is in Andhra Pradesh. By looking at a name like
Burzahom, you should be able to guess its state, which is J&K.
Learning: Archaelogists studies the domestication of animals in several sites and
here are their findings.


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Q Source: Page 25: Our Pasts-I, VIth NCERT
22. Solution: d)
Learning: In 1860s, when railway lines were being laid down for the first time in
the Punjab, engineers stumbled upon the site of Harappa in present-day Pakistan.
Then, in 1930s archaeologists found the site, and realised that this was one of the
oldest cities in the subcontinent. As this was the first city to be discovered, all other
sites from where similar buildings (and other things) were found were described as
Harappan. These cities developed about 4700 years ago.
Q Source: Page 32: Chapter 4: Our Pasts- I
23. Solution: d)
Explanation: You can easily know that Stone weights were used, because there was
a market where goods were traded. International trade was also in practice.


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Jewellery has also been excavated. This tells us that Indus valley people were fashion
conscious.
Use of seals was used to depict authority in official transactions.
Learning: Archaeologists have found a set of unique objects in almost all these
cities: red pottery painted with designs in black, stone weights, seals, special beads,
copper tools, and long stone blades.
A number of urban amenities like bath structures, pukka houses, drainage system etc
were present in these cities.
Q Source: Pages 33-35: Chapter 4: Out Pasts I
24. Solution: d)
Explanation: Answer is D because metals mentioned in all the other three options
were used by Harappans. Iron was, however, not known to Harappans.
Learning: Most of the things that have been found by archaeologists are made of
stone, shell and metal, including copper, bronze, gold and silver. Copper and bronze
were used to make tools, weapons, ornaments and vessels. Gold and silver were used
to make ornaments and vessels. Copper was probably sourced from present-day
Rajasthan and even from Oman; Gold from Karnataka.
Q Source: page 36: Our Pasts-I
25. Solution: c)
Explanation: The evidence of domesticating animals has been shown in a previous
explanation. Bones of dog, cattle, sheep were found in Harappan sites in Kashmir.
So, option 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is correct as great bath; and other storage structures were used by the
community.
Statement 3 is incorrect as there is no such evidence. We do not have any Happran
scripture which can testify the claim. However, they did have deities like Pashupati
which they even inscribed on seals.
Statement 4 is correct as several sculptures such as dancing girl; meditative man etc
were found in excavations.
Q Source: Chapter 4: Our pasts I


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26. Solution: d)
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect as there were women composers. NCERT
says Most of the hymns were composed, taught and learnt by men. A few were
composed by women.
Statement 2 is also incorrect as there were women thinkers like Gargi who was
famous for her learning, and participated in debates held in royal courts. However,
most Upanishadic thinkers were men, especially brahmins and rajas.
Q source: Chapter 4 and 7: Our pasts-I
27. Solution: b)
Explanation: PGWs discovery suggested that Indus Valley civilization had declined
when it was being used. So, option (a) is wrong.
Option (c) is also wrong as Palaeolithic period corresponds to the earliest periods of
human history. PGW was non-existent then.
Option (d) is wrong as Bronze age refers to the period 3000-1300 BCE, whereas
PGW refer to 1200-230 BCE also known as Iron age.
Learning: PGW are extremely fine to touch, with a nice, smooth surface. Perhaps
these were used on special occasions, for important people, and to serve special food.
PGW culture is contemporary to, and a successor of the Black and red ware culture.
Q Source: Chapter 6: Page 55: Our Pasts-I
28. Solution: a)
Explanation: Option (b) is vague and unreasonable.
Option (c) is not true as Jaina practices involved asceticism, and not expensive
rituals/sacrifices which farmers could not perform. Moreover, the assertion that
farmers were relatively poor can be disputed.


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Option (d) is also incorrect as most famers rarely belonged to higher castes. Even
some higher castes had welcomes Jain ideas.
Learning: Non-violence was at the core of Jainism as it believed all beings desire to
live. All things in the Universe were living. Thus, to kill any was considered
retrogressive to ones spiritual progress. Farmers could hardly adhere to the doctrine
as they must do agriculture, which involved cutting crops; killing insects, to sustain
themselves.
Q Source: Chapter 7: page 70: Our Pasts-I
29. Solution: b)
Explanation: All other options (a), (c) and (d) refer to the purposes served by
present-day monasteries, and not earliest Viharas.
Learning: Buddhist monks went from place to place throughout the year, teaching
people. The only time they stayed in one place was during the rainy season, when it
was very difficult to travel. Then, their supporters built temporary shelters for them
in gardens, or they lived in natural caves in hilly areas.
As time went on, many supporters of the monks and nuns, and they themselves, felt
the need for more permanent shelters and so monasteries were built. These were
known as viharas.
Q Source: Chapter 7: Our Pasts-I
30. Solution: c)
Explanation: Ashokan edicts performed an important role in spreading Buddhist
ideas. While Sri Lanka served as a centre for propagation of Buddhist ideas, and
Ashoka also sent messengers to SL for spreading Dhamma, Ashokan edicts could not
be found here. Hence, statement 5 is not correct.
Learning: The Edicts of Ashoka are a collection of 33 inscriptions on the Pillars of
Ashoka as well as boulders and cave walls during his reign in 269-232 BCE. These
inscriptions are dispersed throughout the areas of modern-day Bangladesh,
Afghanistan, India, Nepal and Pakistan and represent the first tangible evidence of
Buddhism. The edicts describe in detail the Ashoka's view about dhamma. He was
the first ruler who tried to take his message to the people through inscriptions. Most
of Ashokas inscriptions were in Prakrit and were written in the Brahmi script.


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31. Solution: d)
Explanation: Option (c) is incorrect as these poet Sangams were held in the city of
Madurai.
Learning: Sangam literature, were composed around 2300 years ago. Sangam
literature deals with emotional and material topics such as love, war, governance,
trade and bereavement. These poems were later collected into various anthologies,
edited, and with colophons added by anthologists and annotators around 1000 AD.
Sangam literature fell out of popular memory soon thereafter, until they were
rediscovered in the 19th century by scholars such as Arumuga Navalar, C. W.
Thamotharampillai and U. V. Swaminatha Iyer.
Q Source: Page 89: Chapter 9: Our Pasts-I
32. Solution: c)
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect, as poems belonging to Sangam literature
were composed by both men and women, from various professions and classes of
society.
Statement 3 is incorrect as it deals with matters of war, governance and trade. It also
deals with ethics, and on the various issues of life like wealth, virtue and love.
Q Source: Wikipedia: Improvisation from Chapter 9: Our Pasts-I
33. Solution: a)
Explanation & Learning: Shrenis or Ancient Indian guilds are a unique and
multi-faceted form of organisation, which combined the functions of a democratic
government, a trade union, a court of justice and a technological institution.
Many crafts persons and merchants formed these associations. These shrenis of
crafts persons provided training, procured raw material, and distributed the finished
product. Then shrenis of merchants organised the trade.
Shrenis also served as banks, where rich men and women deposited money. This was
invested, and part of the interest was returned or used to support religious
institutions such as monasteries.
34. Solution: c)


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Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong because Arthashastra did not deal with division
of natural resources; it occasionally dealt with how to best use these resources (e.g.
minerals, wildlife).
Statement 4 and 5 are correct as Arthashastra also explores issues of welfare (for
instance, redistribution of wealth during a famine) and the collective ethics that hold
a society together. It also deals with ethics of economics (e.g. equity in wealth
distribution) and the duties and obligations of a king.
Learning: "Arthashastra" is translated to "the science of wealth," but the book
Arthashastra has a broader scope. Part of the book explains how to manage the
economy in the Maurya Empire. Beyond these sections on statecraft, the book
outlines an entire legal and bureaucratic administration of a kingdom. These sections
include descriptive cultural details on topics such as mineralogy, mining and metals,
agriculture, animal husbandry, medicine and the use of wildlife.
Q Source: Wikipedia: Improvisation: Page 95: Chapter 9: Our Pasts-I
35. Solution: c)
Explanation: UPSC may trick you by giving close options. Biography of Buddha is
not the same thing as a treatise of his teachings. Please bear this is mind while
attempting UPSC questions.
Moreover, you can clearly discard option (b) as Mahayana Buddhism started
spreading a little later, and it would be impossible for Ashvaghosha to comment on
them in his book published before.
Learning: Buddhacharita is an epic poem in the Sanskrit mahakavya style on the
life of Gautama Buddha by Avaghoa, composed in the early second century CE
Q Source: Page 103: Chapter 9: Our Pasts-I
36. Solution: d)
Explanation: Fa Xian, came to the Indian subcontinent about 1600 years ago.
Xuan Zang (who came around 1400 years ago) and I-Qing, came about 50 years after
Xuan Zang. They came to visit places associated with the life of the Buddha as well as
famous monasteries.
Learning: Xuan Zang carried back with him statues of the Buddha made of gold,
silver and sandalwood, and over 600 manuscripts. He spent the rest of his life
translating the remaining manuscripts from Sanskrit into Chinese.


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Xuan Zang, and other pilgrims spent time studying in Nalanda, (Bihar) the most
famous Buddhist monastery of the period. This helped Buddhism spread to China,
and South-East Asia.
37. Solution: d)
Learning: The ur was a village assembly found in areas where the land owners
were not Brahmins, and the nagaram was an organisation of merchants. It is likely
that these assemblies were controlled by rich and powerful landowners and
merchants. Many of these local assemblies continued to function for centuries.
Other assemblies mentioned in the inscriptions usually include the sabha, which
was an assembly of brahmin land owners. This assembly functioned through
subcommittees, which looked after irrigation, agricultural operations, making roads,
local temples etc.
38. Solution: d)
Explanation: In statement 3, peasant revolts were sometimes caused by the
pressures of mounting taxes.
Learning: Other reasons were:
The Mughals did not follow any definite law of succession. After the death of
every emperor, there ensued a bloody war of succession amongst his sons.
The successors of Aurangzeb were both weak and incompetent. This reduced
the effectiveness of imperial administration.
New powers such as the Sikhs, Jats and Marathas came onto the scene.
Gradually they broke off from the Mughal domination and established their
own independent states.
Governors (subadars) often controlled the offices of revenue and military
administration (diwani and faujdari) as well. This gave them extraordinary
political, economic and military powers over vast regions of the Mughal
Empire. As the governors consolidated their control over the provinces, the
periodic remission of revenue to the capital declined.
The Europeans, especially the British, by way of diwani rights; fortification etc
played an important role in putting an end to the Mughal Empire.
The invasions of Nadir Shah and Ahmad Shah Abdali proved fatal for the
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39. Solution: c)
Explanation: If you see a question on Mughal military, look for the keyword fauj.
If its not there, you can safely remove such option, such as (d) here.
You can also eliminate option (b) as Mughals would have never allowed any external
intervention in the management of treasury.
Learning: The ijaradari system was introduced by Warren Hastings according to
this the right to collect revenue was given to the highest bidder called contractor for a
period of five years. Once they got the right to collect the taxes, the bankers had to
promise to pay a fixed some of amount to the state.
This system was a failure because bidding was often not related to the actual
productivity of the land.
The ijaradars were not interested in making improvements in land since the
land was auctioned periodically.
The peasants were exploited by the contractors to extract more and more
revenue.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 146: Chapter 10: Our Pasts-II, VIIth NCERT
40. Solution: a)
Explanation & Learning: The background of Basholi is first dealt, and then its
features.
With the decline of the Mughal Empire, many painters moved out to the courts of the
emerging regional states such as Rajasthan, Deccan and Himachal.
Moreover, Nadir Shahs invasion and the conquest of Delhi in 1739 resulted in the
migration of Mughal artists to the Himalayan foothills to escape the uncertainties of
the plains.
Therefore, the modern-day state of Himachal Pradesh attracted artisans. By the late
seventeenth century this region had developed a bold and intense style of miniature
painting called Basohli.
The most popular text to be painted here was Bhanudattas Rasamanjari. With the
help of patrons, Kangra school of painting was found here.
41. Solution: a)


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Explanation: Path of Bhakti was suggested by Alvars, Nayanars, Vaishnavites,

Virashaivas, Ramanuja, Kabir, Mira and others. Therefore, option (b) can be
eliminated.
Option (c) can also be eliminated as no path prescribes self-inflicted pain to attain
salvation.
Option (d) was the path of the Buddha. So, this can be eliminated too.
The word Siddha in Siddhacharas should then straight lead you to option (a).
Learning: A number of religious groups emerged during 13th-17th century that
criticised the ritual and other aspects of conventional religion and the social order,
using simple, logical arguments. Among them were the Nathpanthis, Siddhacharas
and Yogis.
They advocated renunciation of the world. To them the path to salvation lay in
meditation on the formless Ultimate Reality and the realisation of oneness with it. To
achieve this they advocated intense training of the mind and body through practices
like yogasanas, breathing exercises and meditation.
These groups became particularly popular among low castes. Their criticism of
conventional religion created the ground for devotional religion to become a popular
force in northern India.
Q Source: Page 110: Chapter 8: Our Pasts-II
42. Solution: c)
Explanation: Pallava kingdom was located on the banks of Vegavathy River. So,
option (a) can be eliminated.
Option (b) can also be eliminated as Pandyas were based on the bank of the river
Thamirabarani in Tirunelveli.
Chera dynasty occupied land between the river Perar and river Periyar. So, you can
eliminate option (d) as it does not related to Kaveri as mentioned in statement 2.
Therefore, you need not know all the statements in order to answer a question.
Learning: Under Emperor Rajaraja Chola I and his successors Rajendra Chola I,
Rajadhiraja Chola, Virarajendra Chola and Kulothunga Chola I the dynasty became a
military, economic and cultural power in South and Southeast Asia.
The power of the new empire was proclaimed to the eastern world by the expedition
to the Ganges in northern India which Rajendra Chola I undertook and by the
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by the repeated embassies to China. The Chola fleet represented the zenith of ancient
Indian sea power.
Q Source: Improvisation: Chapter 6: Our pasts-II
43. Solution: c)
Explanation: Statement 2 is wrong, as being self-sufficient in resources is not an
accepted criterion. Arabian Peninsula is also recognized as a sub-continent, but is not
self-sufficient in resources. Moreover, South Asia is not self-sufficient in all resources
for e.g. minerals.
Learning: Certain parts of continents are recognized as subcontinents, particularly
those on different tectonic plates from the rest of the continent. The most notable
examples are the Indian subcontinent and the Arabian Peninsula. Greenland,
generally reckoned as the world's largest island on the northeastern periphery of the
North American Plate, is sometimes referred to as a subcontinent.
South Asia is often called a subcontinent because although it is smaller than a
continent, it is very large, and is separated from the rest of Asia by seas, hills and
mountains.
Q Source: Page 3: Our Pasts-I, VIth NCERT.
44. Solution: c)
Explanation: Statement 2 is wrong as Tribals do organize themselves in political
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For e.g. all tribe members are related by blood, and have their own political
organization with a chief exercising authority over all the members, even
recommending marriage of young boys with girls whom they have found suitable for
marriage.
Statement 3 is correct as social hierarchies like caste, class are generally not found in
tribes. However, it does not mean that all tribals are considered equal socially and
economically. For e.g. Tribal societies generally follow the rule of patriliny. There are
many strong cases of organised matriarchy in existence in the tribal zones to this day.
It is the women who organise matters such as relationships and marriages, the
inheritance of land, and the distribution of wealth.
You can read
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Adivasi#Tribal_classification_criteria_and_demands
for more understanding.
Q Source: Page 27: Our pasts- I: VIth NCERT
45. Solution: b)
Explanation: Oceans are part of hydrosphere, and thus statement 1 is wrong.
Other two are landforms, and thus form part of lithosphere.
Learning: Lithosphere is the solid crust or the hard top layer of the earth. It is made
up of rocks and minerals and covered by a thin layer of soil. It is an irregular surface
with various landforms such as mountains, plateaus, plains, valleys, etc.
Other spheres include hydrosphere, atmosphere, and the combination of all i.e.
biosphere.
Q Source: Page 3: Chapter 1: Our Environment
46. Solution: d)
Explanation: Option (d) is the answer as the theme mentioned was of WED 2010,
not 2015.
Theme for 2015 was Seven Billion Dreams; One Planet; Consume with Care.


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Learning: World Environment Day (WED) is celebrated every year on 5 June to

raise global awareness to take positive environmental action to protect nature and
the planet Earth. It is run by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
It was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1972 on the day that
United Nations Conference on the Human Environment began.
The theme for 2014 was:-'Small Islands and Climate Change',
Q Source: Wikipedia: Improvisation: Page 5: Chapter 1: Our Environment
47. Solution: b)
Explanation: Option (a) refers to sedimentary rocks. But, Basalt is an igneous rock.
So, option is incorrect.
Option (c) talks about metamorphic rocks, hence incorrect.
Option (d) talks about a combination of both, which is also incorrect.
Learning: Lava is fiery red molten magma coming out from the interior of the earth
on its surface. When this molten lava comes on the earths surface, it rapidly cools
down and becomes solid. Rocks formed in such a way on the crust are called
extrusive igneous rocks. They have a very fine grained structure. For example, basalt.
The Deccan plateau is made up of basalt rocks.
Sometimes the molten magma cools down deep inside the earths crust. Solid rocks
so formed are called intrusive igneous rocks. Since they cool down slowly they form
large grains. Granite is an example of such a rock.
48. Solution: c)
Explanation: There is no gravitation anomaly in the core of the earth. Thus, option
(a) is incorrect.
Movements of ocean water do not transport continent floors. It is not capable of
doing so. Thus, option (b) is also wrong.
Periodic expansion and contraction of earths crust may happen due to temperature
changes. But, these are not significant enough to cause large scale movement of
tectonic plates. So, option (d) is also wrong.
Learning: The lithosphere is broken into a number of plates known as the
Lithospheric plates. These plates move around very slowly just a few millimetres


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each year. This is because of the movement of the molten magma inside the earth.
The molten magma inside the earth moves in a circular manner.
49. Solution: a)
Explanation & Learning: The highest waterfall is Angel Falls of Venezuela in
South America. So, statement 1 is correct.
The other waterfalls are Niagara falls located on the border between Canada and USA
in North America; and Victoria Falls on the borders of Zambia and Zimbabwe in
Africa. Thus, statements (b) and (c) are incorrect.
50. Solution: c)
Explanation: Not all banks in a river course are eroded. There is deposition on
some banks and erosion on some. So, options (a) and (d) are wrong.
For e.g. when a river rushes into a bend, there is likely to be erosion of one bank, and
deposition on the opposite one. This is because velocity of water on the two sides of
bank is different. Where velocity is more, erosion takes place, and where it is less
deposition takes place.
Option (b) is also wrong, as river bed erosion does not solely lead to the formation of
ox-bow lakes. However, it is true that the silt carried by the river is due to this bed
erosion only.
Learning: As the river enters the plain it twists and turns forming large bends
known as meanders. Due to continuous erosion and deposition along the sides of the
meander, the ends of the meander loop come closer and closer. In due course of time
the meander loop cuts off from the river and forms a cut-off lake, also called an oxbow lake.


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51. Solution: d)
Explanation & Learning: You may call sand dunes as Dune barriers. But,
technically dune barrier is not a term. So, option (a) is wrong.
Hemiboreal means halfway between the temperate and subarctic (or boreal) zones.
So, option (b) is also wrong.
There is no such term as Dunestack. So, option (c) is also wrong.
The correct answer is Loess. Large deposits of Loess is found in China.


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52. Solution: a)
Explanation: CO2 does not trap direct solar radiation (as explained below). So,
option (b) is wrong.
Heat conduction is done by contact of air with surface of earth, not by carbon
dioxide. So, option (c) is also wrong.
It does not also capture UV rays (that is done by Ozone layer). So, option (d) is
wrong.
Learning: Fossil fuels such as gasoline, methane and propane contain mostly
carbon. When these fuels are burned, they react with oxygen and produce carbon
dioxide.
Most of the light energy from the sun is emitted in wavelengths shorter than 4,000
nanometers. The heat energy released from the earth, however, is released in
wavelengths longer than 4,000 nanometers. Carbon dioxide doesn't absorb the
energy from the sun, but it does absorb some of the heat energy released from the
earth.
When a molecule of carbon dioxide absorbs heat energy, it goes into an excited
unstable state. It can become stable again by releasing the energy it absorbed. Some
of the released energy will go back to the earth and some will go out into space.
So in effect, carbon dioxide lets the light energy in, but doesn't let all of the heat
energy out, similar to a greenhouse.
53. Solution: d)
Explanation: When air is heated, it expands, becomes lighter and goes up. Cold air
is denser and heavy. Lighter air tends to rise, and denser air tends to sink. Since it
affects air circulation, statement 1 is correct.
Air temperature is one of most important factors affecting its density. Other factor is
moisture. So, statement 2 is also correct.
Air pressure is an outcome of the total atmospheric conditions in an area. From
higher pressure areas, air flows to lower pressure areas. So, statement 3 is also
correct.


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High air columns (in which Jet streams etc. flow) blow at the height of 2-8 kms in
troposphere. Their characteristics like temperature, pressure or density is not
affected by the near earth air. However, they have a peculiar air circulation pattern.
So, statement 4 is also correct.
Learning: When hot air rises, cold air from surrounding area rushes there to fill in
the gap. That is how air circulation takes place. This can be affected by the factors as
mentioned above.
54. Solution: d)
Explanation: Mesosphere, i.e. option (a) cant be the answer as Meteorites burn up
to this layer.
Thermosphere, i.e. option (c) cant be the answer as Ozone is not found here.
Moreover, here temperature increases with height.
All weather phenomena take place in Troposphere. Thus, option (b) cant also be the
answer.
Learning: Ozone which protects us from UV rays is found here. Stratosphere is also
stratified in temperature, with warmer layers higher up and cooler layers farther
down. This is in contrast to the troposphere near the Earth's surface, which is cooler
higher up and warmer farther down.
At moderate latitudes the stratosphere is situated between about 1013 km and 50
km altitude above the surface, while at the poles it starts at about 8 km altitude, and
near the equator it may start at altitudes as high as 18 km.
55. Solution: a)
Explanation: It is correct that heat at 106 degree Celsius will be unbearable to
humans. But, this is not the reason, why air is filled in their protective suits. So,
option (b) is wrong in this context.
Option (c) is also incorrect, as the air in the suit will not protect them against the
effects of gravity. The astronauts can float even after wearing protective suits.


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Moons surface does not emit any harmful radiation as such. So, option (d) is wrong.
Learning: The air pressure is zero at Moon. If astronauts did not wear these space
suits, the counter pressure exerted by the body of the astronauts would make the
blood vessels burst. The astronauts would bleed.
56. Solution: c)
Explanation: Since Westerlies and Easterlies blow throughout the year, they
cannot be called seasonal winds. So, option (a) is wrong.
Trade winds are confined the area near equator, whereas Westerlies and Easterlies
blow even beyond the sub-tropics. So, both options (b) and (d) are wrong.
Learning: Winds can be broadly divided into three types.
1. Permanent winds The trade winds, westerlies and easterlies are the
permanent winds. These blow constantly throughout the year in a particular
direction.
2. Seasonal winds These winds change their direction in different seasons. For
e.g. monsoons in India.
3. Local winds These blow only during a particular period of the day or year in
a small area. For example, land and sea breeze; Loo in India.
57. Solution: a)
Explanation & Learning:


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58. Solution: b)
Explanation: Average wave height is not associated with Tsunami. Tsunami is
related more with sudden movements of very large volumes of water. So, statement 1
is incorrect.
The effect of seismic activity is given in Learning. Statement 2 is correct.
Learning: Tsunami are waves caused by sudden movement of the ocean due to
earthquakes, landslides on the sea floor, land slumping into the ocean, large volcanic
eruptions or meteorite impact in the ocean. While the earthquake cannot be
predicted in advance, it is possible to give a three-hour notice of a potential tsunami.
Such early warning systems are in place across the Pacific Ocean, but not in the
Indian Ocean as tsunamis are rare here due to less seismic activity.
59. Solution: c)
Explanation: When all in the same line, high (spring) tides are formed. So, option
(a) is wrong.
Options (b) and (c) do not lead to low neap tides. Moreover, it is not possible for
earth to be centred between Sun and Moon.
Learning: The strong gravitational pull exerted by the sun and the moon on the
earths surface causes the tides. The water of the earth closer to the moon gets pulled
under the influence of the moons gravitational force and causes high tide.
During the full moon and new moon days, the sun, the moon and the earth are in the
same line and the tides are highest. These tides are called spring tides. But when the
moon is in its first and last quarter, the ocean waters get drawn in diagonally
opposite directions by the gravitational pull of sun and earth resulting in low tides.
These tides are called neap tides.


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60. Solution: b)
Explanation: Inter-tidal zones are regions between the high tide and low tide area.
They are biologically productive, but foggy weather is not experienced there. So,
option (a) is wrong.
Marine upwelling zones are rich in nutrients, as nutrient rich water is upwelled to
come to the top. But, again foggy weather is not experienced. So, option (c) is wrong.
Learning:
Areas where warm and cold currents meet tend to have regular foggy
conditions, as the overlying warm and cold air come in contact with each
other.
They also tend to have high biological productivity, because plankton growth
is encourage by the mixing of warm and cold currents.
Some of the world's most productive fishing grounds are located where warm
and cold currents converge.
For example, where Labrador current (cold) and Gulf stream (warm) meet, a
dense fog is there and it is one of the richest fishing grounds of the world.


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61. Solution: c)
Explanation: Figs are found in Mediterranean vegetation. Manali to Rohtang pass
journey is temperate vegetation. So, statement 2 is wrong.
Learning: At lower altitudes, Chir pines is found. As you trek higher, deodars and
silver oaks can be found.
Rhododendron is present in abundance near the Rohtang pass. You can also find at
least 24 species of Medicinal value there.
Q Source: Improvisation: Our Environment: page 39: Chapter 6
http://www.researchgate.net/publication/225385733_Species_diversity_and_popu
lation_status_of_threatened_plants_in_different_landscape_elements_of_the_Ro
htang_Pass_western_Himalaya
62. Solution: b)
Explanation: Mediterranean vegetation is very different from Tropical deciduous
forests. Mediterranean regions are marked by hot dry summers and mild rainy
winters. So, option (c) is wrong.
Other options do not come even close to Tropical deciduous forests.
Learning: Tropical deciduous are the monsoon forests found in the large part of
India, northern Australia and in Central America. These regions experience seasonal
changes. Trees shed their leaves in the dry season to conserve water.
The hardwood trees found in these forests are sal, teak, neem and shisham.
Hardwood trees are extremely useful for making furniture, transport and
constructional materials. Tigers, lions, elephants, langoors and monkeys are the
common animals of these regions.
Q Source: Our Environment: page 40: Chapter 6
63. Solution: c)
Explanation: Small patches of evergreen forests are found in Odisha. So, statement
4 is correct.
In A&M Islands, Mangroves, Decidous, Evergreen, all kinds of vegetation are found.
So, statement 3 is also correct.
Karnataka falls under both leeward (less rainy) and windward (more rainy) sides of
Western Ghats. So, both types of forests are found here. Statement 1 is correct.


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Learning: Evergreen forests are mainly found in the areas recording over 150 cm of
average annual rainfall where the temperature varies between 25C to 27C. NorthEast India, parts of Western Ghats, the Andaman and Nicobar, upper Assam, lower
slopes of Eastern Himalayas, Orissa, along the foot-hills of Himalayas, Bhabhar and
Tarai regions.
Decidous can be further found in Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, Chattisgarh, AP, Kerala,
Karnataka, MP, TN etc.
Q Source: Improvisation: Our Environment: page 41: Chapter 6
64. Solution: c)
Explanation: Statement 4 is not correct, because even if average temperature
increases, it will not be so much as to affect marine life. Thermal pollution can sap
out oxygen from water, but not in very large water bodies like Ganga.
Learning: The Ganges River dolphin, or susu, inhabits the Ganges-BrahmaputraMeghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh. This
vast area has been altered by the construction of more than 50 dams and other
irrigation-related projects, with dire consequences for the river dolphins.
The Ganges River dolphin lives in one of the world's most densely populated areas,
and is threatened by removal of river water and siltation arising from deforestation,
pollution and entanglement in fisheries nets. In addition, alterations to the river due
to barrages are also separating populations. A recent survey conducted by WWFIndia and its partners in the entire distribution range in the Ganga and
Brahamaputra river system - around 6,000 km - identified fewer than 2,000
individuals in India.
65. Solution: a)
Explanation: If you know that Pir Panjal is the further South than both Zanskar
and Karakoram, you can easily choose option (a).
We have marked the ranges in YELLOW and BLUE in the map below.
Learning:


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66. Solution: b)
Explanation & Learning: The exceptionally fine underfur of the Tibetan antelope
or chiru insulates it against the harsh climate of the Tibetan plateau. Unfortunately,
this fur, known as shahtoosh, also makes the chiru a target for illegal hunters.
Demand for shahtoosh, which is used to make luxury shawls, has pushed the Tibetan
antelope to the brink of extinction. The wool is so fine, the shawls can be pulled
through a wedding ring.
However, the antelope must be killed for the fur to be collected, and it takes around 4
chiru to make a single shawl.
Shahtoosh shawls were traditionally given as wedding gifts in India. Despite strict
controls on trade of shahtoosh products and CITES listing, there is still demand for
these luxury items. Within India, shawls are worth $1,000-$5,000, internationally
the price can reach as high as $20,000.
67. Solution: b)


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Explanation: Option (a) points to Monsoon, and not retreating Monsoon. So, it is
wrong.
The wind flow mentioned in options (c) and (d) do not correspond to any Monsoonal
activity in India. So, both are wrong.
Learning: During the onset and advance of monsoon winds blow from Arabian Sea
and Bay of Bengal towards the land. They carry moisture with them. When these
winds strike the mountain barriers, rainfall occurs.
During the season of retreating Monsoon, winds move back from the mainland to the
Bay of Bengal. The southern parts of India, particularly Tamil Nadu and Andhra
Pradesh receive rainfall in this season.
Q Source: Page 57: Chapter 8: The Earth Our Habitat
68. Solution: a)
Explanation: Mt. Kilimanjaro is a volcanic mountain. So, statement 3 is wrong.
Vosges, Europe is a block mountain. So, statement 4 is also wrong.
Other two are old and new fold mountains.
Learning: There are three types of mountains- Fold Mountains, Block Mountains
and the Volcanic Mountains. The Himalayan Mountains and the Alps are young fold
mountains with rugged relief and high conical peaks.
Block Mountains are created when large areas are broken and displaced vertically.
The uplifted blocks are termed as horsts and the lowered blocks are called graben.
The Rhine valley and the Vosges mountain in Europe are examples of such mountain
systems.
Volcanic mountains are formed due to volcanic activity. Mt. Kilimanjaro in Africa
and Mt.Fujiyama in Japan are examples of such mountains.
Q Source: Chapter 6: The Earth Our Habitat
69. Solution: b)
Explanation: Even if the Earth did not rotate, South and North Pole would be
sunlit for six months each. Same is true of equator. So, both statements 1 and 2 are
wrong.


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See the diagram below.
Learning: Seasons on earth are caused due to a) tilt of the earth; and b) revolution
of earth around the Sun. Notice this in the diagram above.
If the earth stopped rotating, it would affect day and night cycle; coriolis force (thus
affecting wind circulation). Wind is responsible for circulating heat across the earth.
So, heat distribution will also be affected. Thus, statement 3 is correct.
Q Source: Chapter 3: The Earth Our Habitat
70. Solution: a)
Explanation & Learning: Before we explain it in words here, do watch this video
http://study.com/academy/lesson/using-the-sun-stars-to-determine-latitudelongitude.html
Latitude is basically the angle of your place from the centre of the Earth (equatorial
position). Now, you can either find out this angle OR find out the angle of your place
with respect to the North Pole. Finding the latter is easier as Pole Star is always
found vertically above the North Pole.
If you can find your places angle from the Pole star (North Pole), just subtract it
from 90 degrees to arrive at your places latitude.
This cannot be done using a compass, as it merely shows North direction, and not the
direction vertically above towards Pole star. So, option (c) is incorrect.
Other options can be eliminated in the same way.
Q Source: Page 11: Chapter 2: The Earth Our Habitat


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71. Solution: a)
Explanation: Since Lichen is a symbiotic relationship between Fungi and algae,
options (b) and (c) can be easily eliminated.
When you face such questions in the UPSC exam, try to see simple solutions behind
the elaborate scheme of things.
Even if fungi and algae appear in more than one options, as are here, you should
know that Fungi cannot prepare its own food. Therefore, option (d) can also be easily
eliminated.
The only remaining option is (a).
Learning: Lichens are composite, symbiotic organisms made up from members of
as many as three kingdoms.
The dominant partner is a fungus. Fungi are incapable of making their own food.
They usually provide for themselves as parasites or decomposers. The lichen fungi
cultivate partners that manufacture food by photosynthesis. Sometimes the partners
are algae, other times cyanobacteria, formerly called blue-green algae. Some
enterprising fungi exploit both at once.
Lichens occur from sea level to high alpine elevations, in a very wide range of
environmental conditions, and can grow on almost any surface.
There can be used for a variety of things. Check out here
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lichen#Human_use
Q Source: Chapter 1: VIIth Science
72. Solution: c)
Explanation: Since Diarrhoea cannot spread through a vector, statement 4 is
wrong.
Also, because Diarrhoea leads to excessive loss of water and fluids, ORS is
recommended.
Learning: Diarrhoea is characterized by frequent need to pass watery stool. It may
be caused by an infection, food poisoning or indigestion.
It is very common in India, particularly among children. Under severe conditions it
can be fatal. This is because of the excessive loss of water and salts from the body.
Even before a doctor is consulted the patient should be given plenty of boiled and
cooled water with a pinch of salt and sugar dissolved in it. This is called Oral
Rehydration Solution (ORS).


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Q Source: Page 17: Chapter 2: VIIth Science
73. Solution: d)
Explanation & Learning: It is clear and straightforward question.
Silk industry began in China and was kept a closely guarded secret for hundreds of
years. Later on, traders and travellers introduced silk to other countries. The route
they travelled is still called the silk route.
It is also an ancient network of trade and cultural transmission routes that were
central to cultural interaction through regions of the Asian continent connecting the
West and East by merchants, pilgrims, monks, soldiers, nomads, and urban dwellers
from China and India to the Mediterranean Sea during various periods of time.
In June 2014 UNESCO designated the Chang'an-Tianshan corridor of the Silk Road
as a World Heritage Site.
74. Solution: c)
Explanation: Button cell batteries use Mercury, not Laptop batteries. So, statement
1 is wrong.


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Learning: Mercury is a highly toxic element that can harm the brain, kidney, and
lungs. As the only element or metal that is liquid at room temperature, it is used in
many common household products and fixtures. Mercury can enter our bodies
through our lungs and skin, or more commonly, by eating mercury-contaminated
fish.
It is contained in the following products: thermometers (looks like a silvery liquid);
thermostats; blood-pressure cuffs; barometers; fluorescent and high-intensity
discharge (HID) lamps; mercurochrome; auto switches; float switches; button-cell
batteries; old latex paint; some oil-based paints; old alkaline batteries; chemistry
sets; old fungicides for seeds and turf; dental amalgam; some imported jewellery
(glass ampoules with silver liquid); weight/counterweight in grandfather clocks.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 40: Chapter 4: VIIth Science
75. Solution: b)
Explanation: Lead cannot mix with water to produce acid rain. Hence, statement 1
is wrong.
Carbon monoxide reacts with water vapour only at high temperatures, forming
carbon dioxide and hydrogen. So, statement 4 is also wrong, as no acid rain is formed
under normal conditions.
Learning: The rain becomes acidic because carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide and
nitrogen dioxide (which are released into the air as pollutants) dissolve in rain drops
to form carbonic acid, sulphuric acid and nitric acid respectively. Acid rain can cause
damage to buildings, historical monuments, plants and animals.
76. Solution: b)
Explanation & Learning: Excessive use of chemical fertilisers makes the soil
acidic. Plants do not grow well when the soil is either too acidic or too basic.
When the soil is too acidic, it is treated with bases like quick lime (calcium oxide) or
slaked lime (calcium hydroxide). If the soil is basic, organic matter is added to it.
Organic matter releases acids which neutralises the basic nature of the soil.
77. Solution: a)


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Explanation: Burning of Wood is a chemical changes as after burning the

properties and composition of wood change irreversibly. So, statement 1 is correct.
Freezing a mixture is reversible, as well as, its properties does not change. So,
statement 2 is incorrect.
The same applies to a blotting paper. By absorbing the ink, its physical properties or
composition has not changed. So, statement 3 is incorrect.
Learning: Properties such as shape, size, colour and state of a substance are called
its physical properties. A change in which a substance undergoes a change in its
physical properties is called a physical change. A physical change is generally
reversible. In such a change no new substance is formed.
On the other hand, a change in which one or more new substances are formed is
called a chemical change. A medicine is the end product of a chain of chemical
reactions. Useful new materials, such as plastics and detergents, are produced by
chemical reactions.
78. Solution: b)
Explanation & Learning: The ozone layer acts as a filter for the shorter
wavelength and highly hazardous ultraviolet radiation (UVR) from the sun,
protecting life on Earth from its potentially harmful effects. Ozone absorbs this UV
radiation and breaks down to oxygen. Oxygen is different from ozone.
There is an inverse relationship between stratospheric ozone and solar UVR
measured at the Earths surface, i.e. the lower the ozone levels, the higher the solar
UVR. The formation of ozone holes severely affects ozones ability to filter UV rays.
79. Solution: d)
Explanation: Earths hydrological cycle is only partly responsible for the weather.
For e.g. rainfall pattern, movements of ocean water etc. So, option (a) is incorrect.
Primordial heat inside the earth manifests itself in form of moving molten magma
inside the earth. This however is responsible for tectonic and geo-morphological
processes, not weather phenomenon. So, option (b) is also wrong.


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Rotation of earth does cause wind movements; change of day and night; distribution
of heat on earth etc. However, it does not explain several other phenomena such as
seasons on earth; extreme heat and cold in Poles etc. So, option (c) is also incorrect.
Suns energy causes all these, and is ultimately responsible for life and activity on
earth, which also subsumes weather phenomena. Hence, option (d) is the answer.
Learning: sun is the primary source of energy that causes changes in the weather.
Energy absorbed and reflected by the earths surface, oceans and the atmosphere
play important roles in determining the weather at any place.
Heat from Sun causes changes in temperature; pressure; evaporation; biological
activity etc. All these in turn determine the weather at a place.
80. Solution: b)
Explanation: Blue-eyed black lemur belongs to Madagascar. So, option (c) is
wrong.
Nilgiri langur is only a vulnerable primate as per IUCN. Hence, option (a) is also
wrong.
Slow Loris is not endemic to Western Ghats, and instead found in NE India,
Bangladesh and SE Asia. So, option (d) is also wrong.
However, all are primates, not necessarily rare and threatened.
Learning: The lion-tailed macaque or the wanderoo, is an Old World monkey
endemic to the Western Ghats of South India.
It is a good climber and spends majority of its life in the upper canopy of tropical
moist evergreen forests. Unlike other macaques, it avoids humans.
Their range has become increasingly isolated and fragmented by the spread of
agriculture and tea, coffee, teak and cinchona, construction of water reservoirs for
irrigation and power generation, and human settlements to support such activities.
They do not live, feed or travel through plantations. Destruction of their habitat and
their avoidance of human proximity have led to the drastic decrease of their
population.
Q Source: Wikipedia: Improvisation: Page 76: Chapter 7: VIIth Science
81. Solution: b)


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Explanation: Land surfaces break cyclone as supply of moisture is cut-off. So,

option (a) is wrong.
Absence of clouds reduces the strength of a cyclone. The process of formation of
clouds involves evaporation of water, and then rainfall. As explained below, rainfall
will involve condensation which will enhance the strength of a cyclone. So, option (c)
is also wrong.
Lowering temperature of sea water will reduce formation of water vapour and
increase the pressure of the eye of cyclone. This will reduce the strength instead of
increasing it.
Learning: Before cloud formation, water takes up heat from the atmosphere to
change into vapour. When water vapour changes back to liquid form as raindrops,
this heat is released to the atmosphere. The heat released to the atmosphere warms
the air around. The air tends to rise and causes a drop in pressure. More air rushes to
the centre of the storm. This cycle is repeated. The chain of events ends with the
formation of a very low-pressure system with very high-speed winds revolving
around it.
It is this weather condition that we call a cyclone. Factors like wind speed, wind
direction, temperature and humidity contribute to the development of cyclones.
82. Solution: a)
Explanation: As root hair cells do not carry out photosynthesis they do not contain
chloroplasts, and thus dont prepare food. So, statement 2 is wrong.
Learning: Root hair cells are outgrowths at a tip of the plants roots. The root hair
increase the surface area of the root for the absorption of water and mineral
nutrients dissolved in water. The root hair is in contact with the water present
between the soil particles.
Root hair cells can survive for 2 to 3 weeks and then die off,at the same time new root
hair cells are continually being formed at the tip of the root.
83. Solution: a)
Explanation: Option (b) is not used in quartz clocks, hence wrong.
Option (c) is used in atomic clocks, hence wrong.


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Option (d) is used in pulsar clocks, hence also wrong.

Learning: A quartz clock is a clock that uses an electronic oscillator that is regulated
by a quartz crystal to keep time. This crystal oscillator creates a signal with very
precise frequency, so that quartz clocks are at least an order of magnitude more
accurate than mechanical clocks.
Chemically, quartz is a compound called silicon dioxide. Many materials can be
formed into plates that will resonate. However, quartz is also a piezoelectric material:
that is, when a quartz crystal is subject to mechanical stress, such as bending, it
accumulates electrical charge across some planes. In a reverse effect, if charges are
placed across the crystal plane, quartz crystals will bend. Since quartz can be directly
driven (to flex) by an electric signal, no additional speaker or microphone is required
to use it in a resonator.
The electronic circuit is an oscillator, an amplifier whose output passes through the
quartz resonator, and that is how the clock counts time.
Q Source: Wikipedia: Improvisation: Page 147: Chapter 13: VIIth Science
84. Solution: a)
Explanation & Learning: In a plane mirror, image is always at the same distance
behind the mirror as the object is in front of it. So, if your distance from the mirror is
1m, image will be formed 1m behind the mirror.
This is because the plane mirror does not bend light as other spherical mirrors do. It
simply reflects and projects it.
85. Solution: b)
Explanation & Learning: A convex lens converges (bends inward) the light
generally falling on it. Therefore, it is called a converging lens. On the other hand, a
concave lens diverges (bends outward) the light and is called a diverging lens.
The opposite is true in case of mirrors, i.e. concave mirror will converge light falling
on it, and convex mirror will diverge the same.


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86. Solution: a)
Explanation: Diffraction is the slight bending of light as it passes around the edge
of an object. Dispersion is splitting of light into its 7 colour components. These do
not explain the phenomenon of rainbow formation. So, option (b) is wrong.
Refraction, reflection, and total internal reflection of light do take place in the
process, but they do not explain the entire phenomenon of rainbow phenomenon. So,
option (a) is the most appropriate.
Learning: Since the phenomenon needs to be described at length (and it is
important for UPSC), refer to any of the links below.
http://electronics.howstuffworks.com/question52.htm
http://www.thenakedscientists.com/HTML/experiments/exp/colours-in-cds/
87. Solution: d)
Explanation & Learning: According to the UN & World Health Organization
(WHO), between 50 and 100 litres of water per person per day are needed to ensure
that most basic needs are met and few health concerns arise.
Refer to the following link for more information:
http://www.un.org/waterforlifedecade/quality.shtml


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88. Solution: c)
Explanation & Learning: Conventional disinfectants may not be used costeffectively in rural areas, especially where awareness and income levels are low.
These traditional disinfectants can be substituted with natural low cost herbs. There
is now substantial evidence of their effectiveness in treating contaminated water.
However, this does not displace the use of other disinfectants.
See the link http://www.ijerd.com/paper/vol5-issue10/B05100710.pdf
Q Source: Improvisation: Chapter 16: VIIth Science
89. Solution: c)
Explanation & Learning: Railways is national property and a strategic sector. It is
thus operated by the Central government as under the 7th schedule of the
Constitution. So, statement 2 is wrong.
Education comes under concurrent list in 7th schedule. So, a state government may
revise a decision on which the Central government does not have an overarching
decision. So, statement 1 is correct.
Irrigation; agriculture; Taxes on the consumption or sale of electricity etc come
under the State list; and electricity comes under the Concurrent List in 7th schedule.
So, state government is authorized under the Constitution to provide free electricity
to farmers.
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 30: Social and Political life I
90. Solution: a)
Explanation & Learning: In a democracy the elected government has to explain
its actions and defend its decisions to the people.
However, in a monarchy, the monarch (king or queen) has the power to make
decisions and run the government. The monarch may have a small group of people to
discuss matters with but the final decision-making power remains with the monarch.
Unlike in a democracy, kings and queens do not have to explain their actions or
defend the decisions they take.
Q Source: Page 31: Social and Political life I


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91. Solution: c)
Explanation: Elections take place when State Election Commission organizes it. So
both options (a) and (b) are wrong.
Local bureaucracy cannot dictate terms to a body of voters who elect the Panchayat.
The duty of the bureaucracy is to help the Gram Sabha in the discharge of its duties.
So, option (d) is also wrong.
Learning: The Gram Sabha is a meeting of all adults who live in the area covered by
a Panchayat. This could be only one village or a few villages. In some states, as in the
example above, a village meeting is held for each village.
Anyone who is 18 years old or more and who has the right to vote is a member of the
Gram Sabha.
Q Source: Chapter 5: Social and Political life I
92. Solution: b)
Explanation & Learning: For e.g. in Andaman & Nicobar, the following functions
have been assigned to Panchayat Secretary (he may be given additional or fewer
responsibilities in other states/UTs as PRIs is a state subject):
The duties/functions of the Panchayat Secretary:
He will be in charge of the office of the Panchayat.

He will work under the direct supervision of the Pradhan of the Gram
Panchayat and shall be responsible to the Panchayat in all matters.
He will be responsible for all office work like Preparation of budget and
Annual Administration Report; keeping all records of the Panchayat in safe
custody and producing of all records to the authorities as and when required.
Allotment of duties to the staff posted in the Gram Panchayat.
Submission of application for grant-in- aid.
Maintenance of grant-in-aid register and preparation of utilization
certificates.
Inspection of worksites for assessing the works in progress and to submit
reports to the authority.
Attend to complaints relating to developmental works in progress and to
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Visit the sites where works are undertaken by individuals who are granted
loan by the Panchayat and report to the competent authority if the loans are
misused and to cause recovery of loss there of.
Q Source: Unit 3: Social and Political life I
93. Solution: c)
Explanation: The gram sevak is appointed by the government and is responsible
for the administrative functioning of the panchayat in the village. She assists the
development officers and panchayat in proper administration. He does not maintain
or measure or land records. So, option (a) is incorrect.
BDO is at a relatively senior hierarchy in a District. He supervises and implements
major development programmes. While he has access to all land records, he does not
measure and keep them in his custody. So, option (b) is also incorrect.
Panchayat Samiti is a block level organization and comes in the 2nd tier structure of
PRIs. It oversees issues with Gram Panchayats. It does not measure, keep or
maintain land records. So, option (d) is also wrong.
Learning: The Patwari is known by different names in different states in some
villages such officers are called Lekhpal, in others Kanungo or Karamchari or Village
Officer etc.
Each Patwari is responsible for a group of villages. The Patwari maintains and
updates the records of the village. Measuring land and keeping land records is his
main work
The Patwari is also responsible for organising the collection of land revenue from the
farmers and providing information to the government about the crops grown in this
area.
94. Solution: d)
Explanation: CEO, Zila Parishad is usually an IAS officer who is incharge of
executing decision taken by the Ward Councillors. He does not take such public
decisions himself. He can advise the councillors though. So, option (a) is incorrect.
District Collector in a metropolitan area does not enjoy as many powers as he does in
a small town or a village. Municipal Corporation enjoys greater authority in
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There is no official local MLAs committee as such. Even if the MLAs were to form
such committee, they can only recommend establishing a public park. The final
decision would rst with the Ward Councillors. So, option (c) is also incorrect.
Learning: The city is divided into different wards and ward councillors get elected.
The complicated decisions that affect the entire city are taken by groups of
councillors who form committees to decide and debate issues. For example, if bus
stands need to be improved, or a crowded market-place needs to have its garbage
cleared more regularly, or there is a drain that cuts through the city that needs
cleaning etc. It is these committees for water, garbage collection, street lighting etc.
that decide on the work to be done.
When the problems are within a ward then the people who live in the ward can
contact their councillors. For example, if there are dangerous electrical wires hanging
down then the local Councillor can help them get in touch with the electricity
authority.
While the Councillor's Committees and the councillors decide on issues, the
Commissioner and the administrative staff implement these. The Commissioner and
the administrative staff are appointed. Councillors are elected.
95. Solution: a)
Explanation: PHC usually serves a group of villages and a population of 3,0005,000. PHC supervises sub-centres which usually exist at village level. So, option (b)
is wrong.
Community Health Centre is for a large group of villages usually serving a larger
population of around 15-20,000 people. It is not dedicated to a village. It supervises
3-5 PHCs. So, option (c) is also wrong.
Sub-divisional hospitals exist at the sub-division level, which is one level lower than
the District Hospital. So, option (d) is also wrong.
Learning: The public health service is a chain of health centres and hospitals run by
the government. They are linked together so that they cover both rural and urban
areas and can also provide treatment to all kinds of problems from common
illnesses to special services.
At the village level there are health centres (sub-centres) where there is usually a
nurse and a village health worker. They are trained in dealing with common illnesses
and work under the supervision of doctors at the Primary Health Centre (PHC).


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Such a centre covers many villages in a rural area. At the district level is the District
Hospital that also supervises all the health centres.
Therefore the hierarchy of Indian PHS is as follows: Sub-centre<PHC<CHC<Subdivisional Hospital<District Hospital
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 24: Chapter 2: Social and Political life II
96. Solution: a)
Explanation: Option (c) refers to the case of Sakshi vs Union of India (2004); it is
thus incorrect.
Option (d) refers to Tulasamma v. Reddi, 1977, and thus wrong.
SC has not issued any specific guidelines for prevention of domestic. A Parliamentary
enactment of 2005 deals with the same. So, option (b) is also wrong.
Learning: The Supreme Court in the Vishakha judgment in 1977 has held that each
incident of sexual harassment results in the violation of the fundamental rights of
Gender Equality and the Right to Life and Liberty. Sexual harassment is a clear
violation of womans right to gender equality as guaranteed under Articles 14 and 15,
her right to live with dignity under Article 21 and her right to work with dignity in a
safe environment under Article 19 (1) (g) of the Constitution of India.
SC thus makes it obligatory for every employer and other responsible persons to
follow the guidelines laid down by the Court and to evolve a specific policy to combat
sexual harassment in the workplace. The 1997 Supreme Court judgment makes it
mandatory for each Committee to have a woman chairperson.
Refer to this link for knowing about all landmark cases related to women in India.
http://www.livelaw.in/womens-day-special-15-judgments-that-made-india-a-betterplace-for-women/
Q Source: Improvisation: Page 64: Chapter 5: Social and Political life II
97. Solution: c)
Explanation: No option given here is an exact definition of fundamental rights. You
should use elimination in such cases.
Option (a) is incorrect as fundamental rights do not envisage a perfect life; DPSP
may do so in a sense.


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Option (b) is also incorrect, as fundamental rights are generally given by the
Constitution.
Option (d) is incorrect because fundamental rights can be restricted on grounds of
national security, moral order, safety etc.
Most appropriate here is option (c).
Learning: The Fundamental Rights are defined as basic human freedoms that every
Indian citizen has the right to enjoy for a proper and harmonious development of
personality. These rights universally apply to all citizens, irrespective of race, place of
birth, religion, caste or gender.
These include individual rights common to most liberal democracies, such as
equality before law, freedom of speech and expression, and peaceful assembly,
freedom to practice religion, and the right to constitutional remedies for the
protection of civil rights by means of writs such as habeas corpus. Violation of these
rights result in punishments as prescribed in the Indian Penal Code or other special
laws, subject to discretion of the judiciary.
Q Source: Chapter 10: Social and Political Life -II
98. Solution: b)
Explanation: Even if both nations are signatory of the Vienna conventions, the host
nation can deny keeping and maintaining of embassy to a foreign nation. Thus,
statement 1 is wrong.
Learning: 1961 Vienna conventions and the Convention on Consular Relations,
1963 have been ratified by 187 countries, including India. This means, it is a law
under the Indian legal framework and cannot be violated.
1961 Vienna Conventions says diplomats "shall enjoy immunity from the criminal
jurisdiction of the receiving state and also from its civil and administrative
jurisdiction.
The Vienna Convention classifies diplomats according to their posting in the
embassy, consular or international organisations such as the UN. A nation has only
one embassy per foreign country, usually in the capital, but may have multiple
consulate offices, generally in locations where many of its citizens live or visit.
Diplomats posted in an embassy get immunity, along with his or her family
members. While diplomats posted in consulates too get immunity, they can be
prosecuted in case of serious crimes, that is, when a warrant is issued. Besides, their
families dont share that immunity.


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The Convention was meant to enable diplomats to carry out their duties without
obstruction in the Cold War environment.
Q Source: http://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/immunity-is-notimpunity/
99. Solution: d)
Explanation: All citizens are not treated alike by the state. For e.g. disabled and
transgender are provided reservation in public jobs and social security. This is much
greater than that provided to normal public. There are numerous examples of
positive discrimination (SCs, STs, women etc). Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
The state can discriminate reasonably when it comes to public employment. For e.g.
a state government can prescribe domicile requirement for local jobs. But,
unreasonable discrimination (e.g. on the basis of religion) is not allowed. So,
statement 2 is correct.
Same legal provisions do not apply to all citizens. For e.g. women cannot be called to
police station for inquiry in night; men can be. Punishment for sexual abuse is more
severe for a civil servant than for a normal citizen. Take another example, civil
servants cannot be dismissed without giving them a chance to be heard. The same is
not true for all government employees. So, statement 3 is incorrect.
Therefore, Right to equality does not mean complete equality. It simply means
absence of unreasonable discrimination.
Learning & Q Source: Entire Chapter 10: Social and Political Life -II
100. Solution: d)
Explanation: If a state government does not work within the constitutional
framework or if the state government disregards centres directions, the Governor
can recommend to the Centre the imposition of Presidents rule in the State. So,
options (a) and (c) are functions of the governor.
Governor also reserves state bills which a) seem ultra vires the constitution; b) seem
to be breach of Centres laws; c) seems to endanger the position of High Court etc. He
also has the authority to veto a state legislation. Therefore, option (c) is also a
function of the Governor.
Thus, the only option (d) can be the answer.


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Learning & Q Source: Chapter 3: Social and Political Life -II


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Insights Prelims Test Series Test No. 1 Solutions

Speedy project approvals to reduce the NPAs of banks

OPEC represented a collective act of sovereignty by oil exporting nations, and

Building or expanding existing factory

Explanation & Learning: BoP is composed of current account as well as capital

Offer strong confidentiality or secrecy regarding wealth and accounts, making

lack of adequate capital controls

Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)

Explanation: Option (b) is incorrect as the Disinvestment department exists in the

Q Source: Page 14: Our Pasts-I, VIth NCERT

Q Source: Page 25: Our Pasts-I, VIth NCERT

Q Source: Chapter 6: Page 55: Our Pasts-I

Explanation: Path of Bhakti was suggested by Alvars, Nayanars, Vaishnavites,

Q Source: Page 3: Our Pasts-I, VIth NCERT.

Learning: World Environment Day (WED) is celebrated every year on 5 June to

Q Source: Page 17: Chapter 3: Our Environment

Q Source: Page 32: Chapter 5: Our Environment

Q Source: Page 36: Chapter 5: Our Environment

Q Source: Page 37: Chapter 5: Our Environment

Q Source: Page 74: Chapter 10: Our Environment

See the diagram below.

Q Source: Page 17: Chapter 2: VIIth Science

Q Source: Page 30: Chapter 3: VIIth Science

Explanation: Burning of Wood is a chemical changes as after burning the

Explanation: Land surfaces break cyclone as supply of moisture is cut-off. So,

Option (d) is used in pulsar clocks, hence also wrong.

Q Source: Chapter 15: VIIth Science

He will be in charge of the office of the Panchayat.

Q Source: Unit 3: Social and Political life I

Learning & Q Source: Chapter 3: Social and Political Life -II

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