IBPS CWE Clerical Examination November 2013 December 2013

IBPS CWE clerical examination November 2013 December 2013 groups of students sharing their
experiences. IBPS Question Bank of general awareness, gk, current affairs questions with answers
Question asked in IBPS Clerk-III Exam on 30-11-2013 and December 2013
IBPS clerical aptitude was difficult reasoning moderate questions time management is important For cracking
IBPS cwe examinations questions practice more aptitude reasoning part Here some memory based general
awareness questions with answers asked in IBPSCWE common written examination this years, this will help
you guys your upcoming IBPS Spl-III officers examinations
1) Swarozgar Yojana comes under which department - Ministry of Rural Development
2) What is the Full form of NEFT National Electronic Fund Transfer
3)Sachin Tendulkar played last one day at Dhaka
4)What is the new name of account launch by RBI BSBDA
5.PLR is replaced - Base rate
6.What is CTS: Cheque Truncation System
7.KYC norms issued by Reserve Bank of India
8.Swarn Jayanti Rojgar Yojna is for - Ministry of Rural Development/Gramin vikas mantralay/
9.What is the name of card for farmer - kisan credit card
10.Name the wife of the PM of India: Gursharan Kaur
11.IIFA 2013 Award for best film Barfi
12.India won how many medals in London Olympic Games 2012 Six
13.What happens if RBI reduces the CRR : Credit Supply increases, loans get cheaper.
14.Largest Tea exporter Country in World ? Sri Lanka
15.RBI Provide loans to bank is called? Repo Rate
16.Which organization deals with complaints of Consumers?
17..Who is the Author of Satanic Verses Salman Rushdie
18..Which of the following contains 11 digit alphanumeric codes? IFSC code
19.Loan can't be provided below which rate: Base Rate
20.Name the scheme to include every people under banking system Financial Inclusion
21.Venue of Olympic 2020 Tokyo
22.Yerevon is the capital of Armenian
23.Full form of EDC Electronic Data Capture Machine
24.Name of the leader, whose statue was inaugurated by Dr. Manmohan Singh in Gujarat?
Sardar Vallabbhai
25.Martha
Dodray
Patel
Work
for
Polio
(Note:
He
is
from
Bihar
and
aearded
by
26.Which of the following software used in Banking System? - Core Banking software(CBS)
27.9 digit code written on Cheque is known as MICR code
28.Who controls Cobra Post
and
Tehelka?
29.What is the Current
Base Rate? 9.80 10.25%
30.What is the Current Bank Rate: 8.75%
31.What is the full form of BSBDA Basic Saving Bank Deposit Account.
32.EFT stands for -- Electronic Fund
Transfer
33.About IFSC Code
34.New account name launched by RBI BSBDA -Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account'
35.Name of card for farmer -- Kisan Credit Card(KCC)
36.The Rate at which RBI Provide loans to bank is called -- Repo Rate
37.If RBI reduces CRR, what happens: Credit Supply increases, loans get cheaper.
38.Why RBI decreases Bank Rate ?
39.Name of the scheme to include every people under banking system -- Financial Inclusion
40.Banks Calculate interest on basis of what time and capital? digit code written on Cheque is known as -MICR code
41.Largest Tea exporter in World -- Sri Lanka
UN)
42.Sachin Tendulkar played last ODI at Dhaka PLR replaced -- Base rate Martha Dodrey works for Polio
Bancassurance is provided by Bank Swarn Jayanti Rojgar Yojna under which ministry -- Gramin vikas
mantralay
43.Name the wife of the PM of India -- Gursharan Kaur
44.Loan cant be provided below which rate -- Base Rate
45.India won how many medals in London Olympic Games 2012 -- 6 (4 Bronze & 2 Silver)
46.who deals with bank complaints of Consumers -- Banking Ombudsman
47.Author of Satanic Verses -- Salman Rushdie
48.IIFA 2013 Award for best film Barfi
49.Venue of Olympic 2020 Tokyo
50.Yerevan is the capital of Armenian
51.Full form of EDC Electronic Data Capture
52.Name of the leader , whose statue was inaugurated by Manmohan Singh in Gujarat -- Sardar Vallabbhai Patel
53.About CTS-2010 -- Cheque Truncation System
54.Software used in Banking System Finacle
55.Bank Braches Connected using -- CBS(Core Banking Solution)
One question related to MSME?
56.About KYC Norms
57.which of following is a public sector bank
58.About Electronic Data Interchange
59.which of the following does not not include retail banking options were Home Loan, Personal Loan,
Investment Consultancy etc.
60.Who Controls Cobra Post and Tehelka
61.Current Base Rate -- 9.80-10.25%
IBPS clerical question papers aptitude, reasoning, english,general awareness
bank based, computer knowledge with answers
1 How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ADIC using each
letter only once in each word? (1) None (2) One (Ans) (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than
three
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group, which is the
one that does not belong to that group? (1) Violin 2) Harp (3) Guitar (4) Flute (Ans) (5)
Sitar
3 In a certain language 'give me more' is coded as '7 3 5', 'she has more' is coded as
'9 7 1' and 'she asked me gently' is coded as '6 3 2 1'. Which of the following is the code
for 'give' in that language?
(1) 5 (Ans) (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 9(5) 1
Explanation : give me more 7 3 5 she has more 9 7 1 she asked me gently = 6
3 2 1 So, give = 5
4. If each of the vowels in the word GOLIATHS is changed to the next letter in the
English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the
English alphabetical series, and then the alphabets so formed are arranged in
alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following will be sixth from the left of
the new arrangement thus formed?
(1) S (2) P (Ans) (3) G (4) J (5) F
Explanation : After changing the word GOLIATHS will be F P K J B S G R The new word
will be in alphabetical order B F G J K P R S So, sixth letter from left = P
5. In a certain language 'WEAK' is coded as 4$9' and REST' is coded as 7$8#' and
'WREK' is ceded as '4$7'. How will 'KEWRA' be coded in the same code?
(1) 7 4 $ # (2) 7 $ 8 #(3) # 9 7 4 (4) $ 7 9 4
Explanation : WEAK 4 $ 9 8, REST 7 $ 8 # and
So,
(Ans) (5) 4 7 8 $
WREK 4 $ 8 7
KEWRA 4 $ 9 8 7
6. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FORMATION each of which has
as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as
they have between them in the English alphabetical order?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two (Ans)
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Explanation : FORMATION
F _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ N, ON
Ans
Two
7. If the digits in the number 79246358 are arranged in descending order from left to
right, what will be the difference between the digits which are third from the right and
second from the left in the new arrangement?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (Ans) (5) 5
Explanation : In descending order the number 79246358 will be 98765432
Difference between 8 and 4
=8-4=4
8. 'Music' is related to 'Notes' in the same way as 'Language' is related to _____
(1) Sentences (2) Combinationm (3) Grammar (4) Alphabets (Ans) (5) Syntax
Explanation : Music Notes
So, language Alphabet
Directions : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which
follow :
If 'P * Q means 'P is the mother of Q'.
If 'P x Q' means 'P is the father of Q'.
If 'P + Q' means 'P is the sister of Q'.
If 'P - Q' means 'P is the brother of Q'.
If 'P > Q' means 'P is the son of Q'.
If 'P < Q' means 'P is the daughter of Q'.
9. In the expression 'A x B + R > S' how is S related to A?
(1) Daughter (2) Son (3) Niece (Ans) (4) Nephew(5) Cannot be determined
Explanation : A x B + R > S
Which of the following means P is the father of S ?
(1) P x Q < R * S (Ans)
(2) R x P < Q - S
(3) R + S > Q + P
(4) S + Q - R * P
(5) Cannot be determined
Explanation : P x Q < R * S
mother
P
Father
son
So, P is father of S
10. In the expression 'P + Q> A - B' how is P related to B?
(1) Daughter (2) Son (3) Niece
(Ans) (4) Nephew (5) Cannot be determined
Explanation : P + Q > A - B
brother
sister
So, P is niece of B
11. Which of the following means D is the aunt of C?
son
(1) D > B * A * Cm(2) D + B - C * A
(Ans) (3) D - B - A x C (4) D + B x A x C
(5) None of these

Explanation : D + B - C * A
12. In the expression 'W > X < Y * Z 'how is W related to Z?
(1) Nephew
(Ans) (2) Uncle (3) Son (4) Brother-in-law (5) None of these
Explanation : W > X < Y * Z

13. If it is possible to mark only one meaningful word with the first, fourth, fifth and
tenth letters of the word TELEVISION, which of the fallowing would be the second letter
of that word from the right end? If no such word can be made, give 'X' as your answer
and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as 'Y'.
(1) X (2) L (3) N (Ans) (4) E (5) Y
Explanation : The First, fourth, fifth and tenth letters of the word TELEVISION are
= T, E, V, N
useful will be VENT.
so, second letter from right is N
14. In a certain code TRUMP is written SUTQN. How is FIRED written in that code?
(1) GJQEF (2) JGEQF (3) JQFEF (4) JGQFE (5) JGQEF (Ans)
IBPS CWE clerical cadre bank based general awareness questions with
answers
1. Which of the following bodies tightened the norms for foreign exchange risk cover in
India mentioning that only companies with a networth of Rs 200 crore can use
derivatives to hedge against risk of volatility in currency rates?
a. IMF
b. Reserve Bank of India
c. SEBI
d. Union Ministry of Finance
Ans: b
2. Which body in India finally provided tax exemption on the 9.5 per cent interest
income on PF deposits for 2010-11?
a. Reserve Bank of India
b. Income Tax Department
c. Employees Provident Fund Organisation
d. Corporate Affairs Ministry
Ans: b
3. (1) The report on Customer Service in Banks by a committee chaired by M.
Damodaran, former Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) that
was released on 3 July 2011 recommended an increased deposit insurance cover of Rs.5
lakh so as to encourage individuals to keep all their deposits in banks.
(2) The panel also suggested blocking of lost ATM cards through SMS and immediate
restoration of funds in case of non-dispensation of cash at an ATM within 5 working days.
Which of the above is not true?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 & 2
d. None of the above
Ans: b
4. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a bid to tame inflationary pressure hiked the shortterm indicative policy rate (repo rate) by 50 basis points on 26 July 2011. The repo rate
currently stands at what percentage?
a. 7%
b. 7.5%
c. 8%
d. 8.5%
Ans: c
5. Which bank posted a 99 per cent drop in net profit at Rs 21 crore for the fourth
quarter ended 31 March 2011 against Rs 1867 crore during the corresponding period in
2010?
a. Indian Overseas Bank
b. State Bank of India
c. Bank of India
d. United Bank of India
Ans: b
6. Who did global payments processing company MasterCard appoint as the General
Manager, South Asia and Country President, India?
a. T. V. Seshadri
b. Vicky Bindra
c. Tunde Lemo
d. Ajay Banga
Ans: a
7. Government of India on 19 July 2011 appointed Usha Ananthasubramanian, former
general manager of Bank of Baroda (BoB) as executive director of which public sector
lender?
a. Central Bank of India
b. Punjab National Bank
c. United Bank of India
d. Gramin Bank
Ans: b
8. Name the public sector lender that selected Metlife as its partner for a proposed foray
into the life insurance segment.
a. Syndicate Bank
b. Punjab National Bank
c. Corporation Bank
d. United Bank of India
Ans: b
9. Which bank signed a memorandum of understanding with Dewan Housing Finance
Corporation (DHFL) under which DHFL will distribute home loans to Yes Bank's
customers?
a. Canara Bank
b. ABN Amro bank
c. Yes Bank
d. HSBC
Ans: c
10. Which life insurance company in India launched a new non-linked health insurance
plan, Jeevan Arogya?
a. HDFC Standard Life Insurance Co. Ltd
b. Life Insurance Corporation of India
c. IDBI Fortis Life Insurance Company Ltd.
d. SBI Life Insurance Co. Ltd
Ans: b
IBPS PO CWE Clerical free solved sample placement papers,IBPS PO CWE

aptitude,reasoning english and general awareness based on bank questions with
answers and detailed soultions
Directions (1-5) What approximate value should come in place of question mark(?) in the following
questions ?(You are not expected to calculate the exact value).
1. (56)2 x 2.5385 = ?
(1) 4740
(2) 5570
(3) 6600
(4) 7960 - Ans
(5) 8880
2. (775% of 523) 777 = ?
(1) 5 - Ans
(2) 12
(3) 19
(4) 26
(5) 29
3. 783.559 + 49.0937 x 31.679 - 58.591 = ?
(1) 26600
(2) 5000
(3) 12800
(4) 2550
(5) 2280 - Ans
4. (4438 - 2874 - 559) (269 - 106 -83)
(1) 55
(2) 13 - Ans
(3) 47
(4) 29
(5) 31
5. (12.51)4 = ?
(1) 22300
(2) 23400
(3) 24500 - Ans
(4) 25600
(5) 26700
Directions (Q. 6-10) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ?
6. 2187 729 243 81 27 9 ?
(1) 36
(2) 3 - Ans
(3) 18
(4) 6
(5) 12
7. 522 1235 2661 4800 7652 11217 ?
(1) 15495 - Ans
(2) 16208
(3) 14782
(4) 16921
(5) 14069
8. 51975 9450 2100 600 240 160 ?
(1) 80
(2) 120
(3) 320 - Ans
(4) 240
(5) 300
9. 4 18
48 100 294 ?
(1) 416
(2) 480
(3) 512
(4) 384
(5) 448 - Ans
10.
(1)
(2)
(3)
6 26 134 666 3334 16666 ?

84344
83443
84434
(4) 83334
(5) 83344
- Ans
Directions 11-20) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?
11. 4895 + 364 x 0.75 - 49 = ?
(1) 5119 - Ans
(2) 3895
(3) 3907
(4) 5210
(5) None of these
12. 5 and 1/4 +6 and 2/3+ 7 and 1/6 = ?
(1) 19.5
(2) 19 and 11/12
(3) 19 and 1/12 - Ans
(4) 19
(5) None of these
13. [(144)2 48 x 18] 36 = ?
(1) 23328
(2) 36
(3) 216
(4) 46656 - Ans
(5) None of these
14. (27)18 (27)3 = ?
(1) (27) 54
(2) (27) 21
(3) (27) 15 - Ans
(4) (27) 6
(5) None of these
Expl : (3)? = (27)18 (27)3
= (27)18-3
(:. am an = am-n)
= (27)15
15. 156 + 16 x 1.5 - 21 = ?
(1) 126
(2) 258
(3) 237
(4) 159 - Ans
(5) None of these
16. 434.43 + 43.34 + 3.44 + 4 + 0.33 = ?
(1) 421.45
(2) 455.54
(3) 485.54 - Ans
(4) 447.45
(5) None of these
17. 24336 ? = 78 x 24
(1) 6
(2) 13 - Ans
(3) 11
(4) 17
(5) None of these
18. (98)45 x (98)-35 = ?
(1) 98
(2) (98)2
(3) (98) -5
(4) (98)10 - Ans
(5) None of these
19. (78.95) - (43.35) = ?
(1) 4353.88 - Ans
(2) 4305
(3) 4235.78
(4)4148
(5) None of these
20. (23.6 % of 1254) - (16.6 % of 834) = ?
(1) 159.5
(2) 157.5 - Ans
(3) 155.5
(4) 153.5
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 21-25) In each of these questions, two equations I and II with variables a and b are
given. You have to solve both the equations to find the values of a and b.
Mark answer if
(1) a<b
(2) a<b
(3) relationship between a and b cannot be established
(4) a>b
(5) a>b
21.
I. 16a2 = 1
II.
3b2 +7b +2 = 0
Ans : 4
From statement I, 16a2 = 1
==>
a = + 1/4
From Statement II
==>
==>
3b2 +7b +2 = 0
3b2 +6b +b+2 = 0
3b(b+2) +1(b+2) = 0
(3b+1) (b+2) = 0
b = -2 or -1/3
:. a>b
22. I. a2 + 5a + 6= 0
II. b2 +7b +12 = 0
Ans : 5
From statement I, a2 + 5a + 6= 0
==>
a2 + 2a + 3a+6= 0
==>
a(a+2) (a+3)= 0
==>
(a+2) (a+3)= 0
a=-2, -3
From statement II,

b2 +7b +12 = 0
==> 2
b +4b +3b+12 = 0
==>
b(b+4) +3(b+4)= 0
==> (b+3) (b+4) = 0
b= -3, -4
:.
a>b
I. a2 +2a +1 = 0
II. b2 = + 4
Ans : 3
23.
I. a2 -5a + 6=0
II. 2b2 - 13b +21 = 0
Ans : 2
24.
I. 2a2 + a-1 =0
II. 12b2 - 17b +6 =0
Ans :1
25.
26. A 200m long train crosses a platform of double its length in 36s. What is the speed of the train in
km/h. ?
(1) 60 - Ans
(2) 48
(3) 64
(4) 66
(5) None of these
27. Work done by A in one day is half of the work done by B in one day. Work done by B is half of the
work done by C in one day. If C along can complete the work in 7 days, in how many days can A, B and
C together complete the work ?
(1) 28
(2) 14
(3) 4 - Ans
(4) 21
(5) None of these
28. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DAILY be arranged ?
(1) 60
(2) 48
(3) 160
(4) 120 - Ans
(5) None of these
29. The number obtained by interchanging the digits of a two digit number is less than the original
number by 63. If the sum of the digits of the number is 11, what is the orginal number ?
(1) 29
(2) 92 - Ans
(3) 74
(5) None of these
30. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator is increased by 300%, the
resultant fraction is 15/16. What was the original fraction ?
(1) 8/11
(2) 10/11
(3) 9/13
(4) 10/13 - Ans
(5) None of these
31. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs.996 is the same as loss incurred after selling the
article for Rs.894. What is the cost price of the article ?
(1) Rs.935
(2) Rs.905
(3) Rs.945 - Ans
(4) Rs.975
(5) None of these
32. The ages of Nishi and Vinnee are in the ratio of 6:5 respectively. After 9 yr the ratio of their ages will
be 9:8. what is the difference in their ages ?
(1) 9 yr
(2) 7 Yr
(3) 5 Yr
(4) 3 Yr - Ans
(5) None of these
33. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs.84000 at the end of 3 yr is Rs.30240. What would
be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the same period ?
(1) Rs.30013.95
(2) Rs. 31013.95
(3) Rs.32013.95
(4) Rs.33013.95
(5) Rs.34013.95 - Ans
34. The total of the ages of a class of 75 girsl is 1050, the average age of 25 of them is 12 yr and that of
another 25 is 16 yr. find the average age of the remaining girls.
(1) 12 yr
(2) 13 yr
(3) 14 yr - Ans
(4) 15 yr
(5) None of these
35. One-fifth of the number is 81. What will 68% of that number be ?
(1) 195.2
(2) 275.4 - Ans
(3) 225.6
(4) 165.8
(5) None of these
36. In a class of 40 students and 8 teachers, each student got sweets that are 20 % of the total number
of students and each teacher got sweets that are 25% of the total number of students. How many
sweets were there?
(1) 420
(2) 400 - Ans
(3) 320
(4) 360
(5) None of these
37. What is 35% of 45% of 7/9th of 3600?
(1) 441 - Ans
(2) 414
(3) 444
(4) 411
(5) None of these
38. A committee of 3 members is to be selected out of 3 men and 2 women. What is the probability that
the committee has at least one woman ?
(1) 1/10
(2) 9/20
(3) 9/10 - Ans
(4) 1/20
(5) None of these
39. By how much is 5/12th of 516 lesser than 4/5th of 495 ?
(1) 22
(2) 15
(3) 12
(4) 27
(5) None of these - Ans
40. Ms. Deepthi jain invests 11% of her monthly salary, ie, Rs.5236 in Fixed Deposits. Later, she invests
19% of her monthly salary on Life Insurance Policies; also she invests another 7% of her monthly
salary on Mutual Funds. what is the total annual amount invested by Ms. Deepti Jain ?
(1) Rs.211344 - Ans
(2) Rs.17612
(3) Rs.105672
(4) Rs.35224
(5) Non of the above
IBPS clerical cadre clerical aptitude model questions with answers and explanation,IBPS
section wise practice quesions IBPS Model question paper for practice
Directions-(Q.1 - 5) In each of these questions a group of numbers are given which are to be
coded as per the scheme given below. You have to find out which of the answers (A), (B). (C) or
(D) has the correct coded form of the given numbers and indicate it on your answer sheet. If
none of the coded forms are correct mark (E) i.e. 'None of these' as the answer.
Numbers : 6 8 3 4 0 1 2 5 7 9
Codes : S L V K M R Y D B Z
(Letters)
1. 824301
(A) YLKVMR
(B) LVKYMR
(C) L YKVMR -answer
(D) L YKVRM
(E) None of these
2. 734025
(A) VBKMYD
(B) BVKMYD -answer
(C) BVMKYD
(D) BVKMDY
(E) None of these

3. 432908
(A) KVYZML -answer
(B) KYVZML
(C) VKYZML
(D) KVYZLM
(E) None of these
4. 578914
(A) DBLZRK -answer
(B) BDLZRK
(C) DBLRZK
(D) DBLZKR
(E) None of these
5. 215963
(A) YRDSZV
(B) RYDZSV
(C) YRDZVS
(D) YRDZSV-answer
(E) None of these
Directions-(Q.6 - 10) In each question five words are given. Which of them will come at the third
place if arranged alphabetically?
6.
(A) Jovial
(B) Journey
(C) Jumble
(D) Juggle
(E) Judicial -answer
7.
(A) Magus
(B) Magneto
(C) Magnolia -answer
(D) Magnum
(E) Magnify
8.
(A) Concoct -answer
(B) Concourse
(C) Concierge
(D) Condense
(E) Concise
9.
(A) Thistle
(B) Thorough
(C) Thirsty
(D) Thole -answer
(E) Thorium
10.
(A) Resemble
(B) Rescind
(C) Reside
(D) Residue
(E) Reserve-answer
Directions-(Q.11 - 15) The news item in each question below is to be classified into one of the
following five areas(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment -answer
The letter of the area (A) or (B) or (C) or (D) or (E), as the case may be is your answer.
11. Famous actress offered a three film deal by a leading production house.
(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
12. Scientists discover 4 new Alzheimer genes.
(A) Sports
(B) Health -answer
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment
13. 1500 students were vaccinated against Hepatitis B last week .
(A) Sports
(B) Health -answer
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment
14. Only 1164 tigers left in India.
(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment -answer
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment
15. Majority Asian stocks hit a 3 year high this week.
(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(D) Economics -answer
(E) Entertainment
Directions-(Q.16 - 20) In each of these questions a group of numbers are given which are to be
coded as per the scheme given below. You have to find out which of the answers (A), (B), (C) or
(D) has the correct coded form of the given numbers and indicate it on your answer sheet. If
none of the coded forms are correct mark (E) i.e. 'None of these' as the answer.
Numbers : 3 4 5 2 1 8 9 7 6 0
Codes : U H L D J Y R M S A
(Letters)
16. 786301
(A) MYSAUJ
(B) YMSUAJ
(C) MYSUAJ -answer
(D) MYSUJA
(E) None of these
17. 596142
(A) LRSJOH
(B) RLSJHO
(C) LRSJHO -answer
(D) LRJSHO
(E) None of these
18. 057218
(A) LAMOJY
(B) ALDMJY
(C) ALMOY J
(D) ALMOJY -answer
(E) None of these
19. 634159
(A) SUHJLR -answer
(B) SUJHLR
(C) SUHJRL
(D) USHJLR
(E) None of these
20. 841035
(A) HY JAUL
(B) YHJAUL -answer
(C) YHAJUL
(D) YHJALU
(E) None of these
Directions-(Q.21 - 25) In each question five words are given. Which of them will come at the third
place if arranged alphabetically?
21.
(A) Nitrate
(B) Nimbus
(C) Niobium -answer
(D) Nirvana
(E) Nineteen
22.
(A) Gazebo -answer
(B) Gauze
(C) Gazette
(D) Gavotte
(E) Gazump
23.
(A) Coffee
(B) Coffin -answer
(C) Cogent
(D) Coeval
(E) Cogitate
24.
(A) Alliance
(B) Alley
(C) Allotrope
(D) Allowance
(E) Alligator -answer
25.
(A) Dimple
(B) Dinar
(C) Dinner
(D) Dinette -answer
(E) Dingle
Directions-(Q.26 30) The news item in each question below is to be classified into one of the
following five areas(A) Sports
(B) Health -answer
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment
The letter of the area (A) or (B) or (C) or (D) or (E), as the case may be is your answer.
26. Vitamin consumption was found to be lower in the girls from the rural areas as compared to the
males.
(A) Sports
(B) Health -answer
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment
27. Four new talent shows to be launched on television in the coming weeks.
(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
28. 7% hike in stock prices of a leading car manufacturing company.

(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(D) Economics -answer
(E) Entertainment
29. Team's victory in the world championship series has done the nation proud.
(A) Sports -answer
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment
30. Famous choreographer has turned director for a leading production company
(A) Sports
(B) Health
(C) Environment
(D) Economics
(E) Entertainment-answer
Directions-(Q.31 - 35) The letter group in each question below is to be codified in the following
number codes
Letters : M T V B S A Z R P C
Number 7 4 1 9 6 8 2 5 0 3
Codes : You have to find out which of the answers (A) or (B) or (C) or (D) has the correct coded
form of the given letters and indicate it on the answersheet. If none of the coded form is correct
mark (E) as the answer.
31. TACZMBP
(A) 4832790 -answer
(B) 4328790
(C) 4823970
(D) 4823790
(E) None of these
32. SRMVPBA
(A) 6751098
(B) 6571089
(C) 6571098 -answer
(D) 6750198
(E) None of these
33. VZBMPRC
(A) 1927053
(B) 1279503
(C) 1297503
(D) 1297053 -answer
(E) None of these
34. ZTCAVSP
(A) 2483160
(B) 2438160 -answer
(C) 2348160
(D) 2431860
(E) None of these
35. SMAVPTC
(A) 6871043
(B) 6780134
(C) 6781034
(D) 6870143
(E) None of these -answer
Directions-(Q.36 - 40) Below in each of the question, five words are given. Which of them will
come at the third position if all of them are arranged alphabetically as in the dictionary.
36.
(A) Lamp
(B) Little
(C) Low
(D) Lick-answer
(E) Late
37.
(A) Sack
(B) Shame
(C) Sick
(D) Shy
(E) Show-answer
38.
(A) Dog
(B) Dig
(C) Dress
(D) Dull
(E) Doll-answer
39.
(A) Bill-answer
(B) Book
(C) Bake
(D) Bind
(E) Bank
40.
(A) Negotiate
(B) Natural
(C) Neglect
(D) Name-answer
(E) Note
Directions-(Q.41 45) The news items in each question below is to be classified into one of the
following five areas(A) Politics

(B) Social Issues
(C) Science and Health
(D) Sports
(E) Miscellaneous
41. Meditation is the best cure for Stress Disorders.
(A) Politics
(B) Social Issues
(C) Science and Health -answer
(D) Sports
(E) Miscellaneous
42. Fashion Designer seen as a Fashion Disaster in a party.
(A) Politics
(B) Social Issues
(D) Sports
(E) Miscellaneous -answer
43. Pregnancy amongst the teenagers is on a rise.
(A) Politics
(B) Social Issues -answer
(D) Sports
(E) Miscellaneous
44. Car Racing is the latest fad amongst the youngsters.
(A) Politics
(B) Social Issues
(D) Sports -answer
(E) Miscellaneous
45. With election campaign at its peak, the politicians come up with new promises.
(A) Politics -answer
(B) Social Issues
(D) Sports
(E) Miscellaneous
Directions-(Q.46 - 50) The news item in each question below is to be classified into one of the
following five areas(A) Science and Technology -answer
(B) Politics
(C) Sports
(D) Social issues
(E) Environment
The letter of the area (A) or (B) or (C) or (D) or (E) as the case may be is the answer.
46. Scientists have discovered a new gene responsible for causing diabetes.
(A) Science and Technology
(B) Politics
(C) Sports -answer
(D) Social issues
(E) Environment
47. Indian duo beat their Russian counterparts to reach the semi finals of the Australian open.
(B) Politics
(C) Sports -answer
(D) Social issues
(E) Environment
48. An NGO has been making best efforts to provide shelter to the thousands of homeless people in the
country.
(B) Politics
(C) Sports
(D) Social issues -answer
(E) Environment
49. In the recent assembly elections, less than 50% citizens cast their vote.
(B) Politics -answer
(C) Sports
(D) Social issues
(E) Environment
50. An alarming rise in the cases of Asthma was reported in the city due to increased levels of
pollutants from the nearby factories.
(B) Politics
(C) Sports
(D) Social issues
(E) Environment-answer
Directions-(Q.51 - 55) Following table shows the number of students from colleges A, B, C, D, E,
F and G participating in an annual inter-college festival having the events as mentioned in the
table. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions which follow
Fields A B C D E F G
Elocution 14 7 10 5 8 11 9
Quiz 19 15 14 20 11 15 19
Dancing 12 20 15 18 21 16 19
Painting 23 16 17 10 15 9 17
Sports 32 29 41 30 19 26 21
Singing 26 17 14 14 21 24 19
Extempore 8 12 3 9 10 6 11
51. In College D, maximum number of participants is from which of the following fields?
(A) Quiz
(B) Sports -answer
(C) Elocution
(D) Painting
(E) None of these
52. Which college has the highest number of participants in Dancing?
(A) B
(B) D
(C) E -answer
(D) G
(E) None of these
53. Which two colleges have the same number of participants in Dancing?
(A) None -answer
(B) A and D
(C) C and G
(D) B and E
(E) C and F
54. Which is true in the following about the college F?
(A) Minimum participants in the Painting
(B) The number of participants of Quiz are more in the college F with the comparison of college B
(C) The number of participants in Elocution and Dancing are same
(D) Maximum students participating in the Sports -answer
(E) None of these
55. Which college has maximum students participate in the Extempore competition?
(A) E
(B) G
(C) C
(D) A
Directions-(Q. 56 - 60) The letter group in each question below is to be codified in the following number
codesLetters # D J M E N H L B K G
Codes # 3 9 5 0 7 1 6 4 2 8
56. KJBGLM
(A) 298465
(B) 294865 -answer
(C) 294685
(D) 249865
(E) None of these
57. HLBJND
(A) 169473
(B) 164793
(C) 146973
(D) 164973 -answer
(E) None of these
58. MGJHBL
(A) 589146 -answer
(B) 581946
(C) 598146
(D) 589416
(E) None of these
59. NJBMEG
(A) 794580
(B) 749508
(C) 794058
(D) 754908
60. NBDKHE
(A) 723410
(B) 742310
(C) 743210 -answer
(D) 743120
(E) None of these
Directions-(Q.61 - 65) In each of these questions a group of numbers and symbols are given which are
to be coded as per the scheme given below. You have to find out which of the answers (A), (B), (C) or
(D) has the correct coded form of the given numbers and symbols and indicate it on your answer sheet.
If none of the coded forms are correct mark (E) i.e. 'None of these' as the answer.
Numbers and Symbols : 4 & 6 $ ? 3 + @ 9 2 # 7 5 8
Codes (Letters) : A T Y O L R K Z X E W J B H
61. 753+$?:
(A) JBRKLO
(B) BJRKOL
(C) JBKROL
(D) JBRKOL -answer
(E) None of these
62. #73&+4:
(A) WJTRKA
(B) WJRTAK
(C) JWRTKA
(D) WJRTKA -answer
(E) None of these
63. 65&?+4:
(A) YBTLKA -answer
(B) YBLTKA
(C) BYTLKA
(D) YBTLAK
(E) None of these
64. 9263?+:
(A) XERYLK
(B) EXYRLK
(C) XEYRLK -answer
(D) XEYRKL
(E) None of these
65. @?7943:
(A) LZJXAR
(B) ZLJXAR -answer
(C) ZLXJAR
(D) ZLJXRA
(E) None of these
Directions-(Q.66 - 70) In each question five words are given. Which of them will come at the third place
if rranged alphabetically?
66.
(A) Hostage -answer
(B) Hospital
(C) Hospice
(D) Hostile
(E) Hostel
67.
(A) Psalm
(B) Psychic
(C) Psephology
(D) Psyche
(E) Pseudo-answer
68.
(A) Ligament
(B) Ligneous
(C) Lignite
(D) Ligature
(E) Lighting -answer
69.
(A) Requisite
(B) Request -answer
(C) Requiem
(D) Reputable
(E) Repulsion
70.
(A) Glycerin
(B) Gluten -answer
(C) Glucose
(D) Glycogen
(E) Glowing
Question 1
Bala buys an equal number of pens, pencils, sketch pens of Rs.2.50, Rs.3, Rs.5 respectively. How
many of each did he buy if he spends Rs.168 ?
a)12 b)16 c)18 d)20
Answer: b)16
Solution:
Let us assume that he buy X number of pens, pencils and sketch pens.
Then 2.50 x X + 3 x X + 5 x X = 168
10.50X = 168
X = 168 / 10.5 = 16
Hence he buys 16 numbers of pencils, pens, sketch pens respectively.
Question 2
Prabha and Aarthi paid a total of Rs.600 for some good. If Prabha paid 120 more than that of Aarthi,
then how much is already paid?
a)Rs.250 b)Rs.150 c)RS.550 d)Rs.240
Answer : d)Rs.240
Solution :
Let the amount paid by Aarthi be Rs.X
Then, the amount paid by Prabha = Rs. X + 120
The total amount paid = Rs.600 = X + X + 120 = 2X + 120 = X = 240
Thus the amount paid by Aarthi is Rs.240
Question 3
A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 30% apples at the rate of Rs.30 per apple and the remaining
315 apples at the rate of Rs.20 per apple. The total selling price is :
a)Rs.15900 b)Rs.10350 c)RS.11550 d)Rs.12420
Answer :b)Rs.10350
Solution :
Let the total number of apples be X.
Then X = 30X / 100 + 315
70X / 100 = 315
X=3150 / 7 = 450
Now 30% of X = 30 x 450 / 100 = 135
He sells 135 apples at the rate of Rs.30 per apple and 315 at the rate of Rs.20 per apple
Then the total selling price = 135 x 30 + 315 x 20 = 4050 + 6300 =Rs.10350
Hence the answer is Rs.10350
Question 4
Devi buys some material worth Rs.X.She gets a deduction of Rs.650 on it. After getting deduction she
pays tax of Rs.169. Then find X the value if she pays Rs.6000 for that material.
a)Rs.6481 b)Rs.5689 c)RS.6819 d)Rs.5181
Answer :Rs.6481
Solution :
Let the total amount be Rs.X
After getting deduction the amount will be X - 650
And after paying the tax Rs.169,
Rs.6000 = X - 650 + 169 = X - 481.
X =6481
Hence she buys material worth Rs.6481

Question 1
The percentage of numbers from 11 to 75 which are divided by 5 or 7 is:
a)31 b)35 c)36 d)41
Answer : a)31
Solution:
Clearly, the numbers which divided by 5 or 7 from 11 to 75 are 14, 15, 20, 21, 25, 28, 30, 35, 40, 42, 45,
49, 50, 55, 56, 60, 63, 65, 70, 75.
The number of such numbers = 20
Total numbers from 11 to 75 = 65
Then the required percentage = (20/65) x 100 = 30.76% = 31 %
Hence the answer is 31%
Question 2
If P is X% of Y and Q is Y% of X then the relationship between P and Q is :
a)P < Q b)P > Q c)cannot be determined d)none of these
Answer :d) none of these
Solution:
P = X% of Y = (X/100)xY
= (XY/100)
= (Y/100)xX
= Y% of X = Q
i.e., P = Q
Thus the relationship between P and Q is P = Q.
Question 3
If A has weight 9kg more than B and his weight is 56% of the sum of their weights then their weights are
:
a)31,40 b)33,42 c)36,45 d)41,50
Answer :b) 33,42
Solution:
Let B's weight be X then A's weight is X+9.
And,
X+9 = 56% of X+X+9
= 56/100 (2X+9)
25(X+9)= 14(2X+9)
3X = 99 => X=33 and X+9 = 42
So, their weights are 33kg,42kg
Question4
What will be the Y% of 25 when 24% of X = Y
a)16% of X b)26% of X c)36% of X d)6% of X
Answer :d) 6% of X
Solution:
Given that,
24% of X = Y i.e, 24X/100 = Y
and, Y% of 25 = 25Y/100
= (25Y/100) x (24X/100)
= (1/4) x (24X/100)
= (6/100)x X
= 6% of X
Hence the answer is 6% of X.
Question 5
What will come in the place of ? in the following question?
(88.128 / ? ) / {(2.4 x 0.3)/(0.2 x 1.5)} = 18
a)1.04 b)2.04 c)3.04 d)4.04
Answer : b)2.04
Solution:
Given that (88.128 / ? ) / {(2.4 x 0.3)/(0.2 x 1.5)} = 18
Let us take ? as X.
Then, (88.128/X)/{(0.72) / (0.3)} = 18
(88.128/X)/2.4 = 18
88.128/X = 18 x 2.4
88.128/X = 43.2
43.2 x X = 88.128
X = 88.128 / 43.2
X = 2.04
Hence the answer will be 2.04
Question 6
One-fifth of sqrt(X) x 3 = 37.2 - sqrt(12.96)
a)2601 b)2916 c)3136 d)2704
Answer : c)3136
Solution:
Given that one-fifth of sqrt(X) x 3 = 37.2 - sqrt(12.96)
i.e., 1/5 x sqrt(X) x 3 = 37.2 - 3.6

3/5 x sqrt(X) = 33. 6
sqrt(X) = 33.6 x 5/3
sqrt(X) = 11.2 x 5 = 56
X = 562 = 3136.
Hence the answer is 3136.
Question 7
What will come in the place of X in the following question:
3.5 { 2.5 [6.5 - (1.4/X)]} x 8.24 /(0.2)2 = 813.08
a)20 b)25 c)40 d)5.5
Answer : a)20
Solution:
3.5-{2.5-(6.5-(1.4/X))}x(8.24/0.04) = 813.08
3.5-{2.5-{(6.5X-1.4)/X)}x(824/4) = 813.08
3.5-{(2.5X-6.5X+1.4)/X} x 206 = 813.08
3.5-{(-4X+1.4)/X} x 206 = 813.08
3.5-{(-824X-288.4)/X} = 813.08
(3.5X+824X-288.4)/X = 813.08
827.5X-288.4 / X = 813.08
827.5X-288.4 = 813.08X
827.5X-813.08X = 288.4
14.42X = 288.4
X = 288.4 / 14.42
GENERAL AWARENESS (WITH SPECIAL REFERENCE TO BANKING INDUSTRY)IBPS Marekting
aptitude general awareness and aptitude questions with answers,IBPS free solved sample
placement papers
1. Government of India has signed an agreement with which of the following bank for the loan to
support the provision of reliable, 24-hour electricity to rural households in Madhya Pradesh?
1. World Bank
2. International Development Association
3. Asian Development Bank -Answer
4. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
5. International Finance Corporation
2. Which state-run company has won a Rs. 774-crore contract for supplying onshore drilling rigs to
upstream oil company ONGC?
1. SAIL
2. BHEL -Answer
3. HAL
4. Jindal
5. NTPC
3. According to the World Bank report, the number of poor in the developing world declined to how
much during 2005-08?
1. 3.50 billion
2. 1.00 billion
3. 4.90 billion
4. 3.00 billion
5. 1.29 billion-Answer
4. Which company has become the first Indian firm to be certified as Responsible Care
Companyunder the American Chemistry Council?
1. Britannia Industries Ltd
2. Reliance Industries Ltd -Answer
3. Apeejay Tea Ltd
4. Lotus Chocolate Company Ltd
5. Hindustan Unilever Ltd
5. RCom, in a consortium led by which IT firm, have bagged the Rs. 300 crore network and
subscribercontract for governments national identity card programme, Aadhaar?
1. Aplab Ltd
2. Patni Computers Systems Ltd
3. Tata Consultancy Services
4. TECH Mahindra
5. HCL Infosystems-Answer
6. The theme of which of the following summit in 2012 was The Great Transformation shaping New
Models ?
1. BRICS
2. G8
3. G20
4. WEF -Answer
5. ASEAN
7. Which company has signed a five-year outsourcing agreement for IT infrastructure services with
Helsinki-based UPM?
1. TVS Electronics Ltd

2. HCL Technologies Ltd-Answer
3. Sony Electricals Ltd
4. Dell India
5. Acer Aspire India
8. Who among the following is the new CEO and MD of L & T?
1. Natarajan Chandashekaran
2. S. Gopalakrishnan
3. K. Venkataraman -Answer
4. Malvinder M Singh
5. None of these
10. The market size of Indian Media and Entertainment (M & E) industry is expected to touch Rs. 1,457
billion by which year?
1. 2012
2. 2013
3. 2014
4. 2015
5. 2016-Answer
11. RBI will bring out Rs. 5 coin to commemorate which of the following freedom fighter and martyr?
1. Mahatma Gandhi
2. Shahid Bhagat Singh-Answer
3. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
4. Chandra Shekhar Azad
5. Dadabhai Naoroji1
12. Which of the following has announced the formation of a joint venture with the US-based Iconix
Brand to hawk the latters brands?
1. Reliance Brands -Answer
2. Apgenco
3. Apple India
4. Sony India
5. Toshiba
13. The average annual compensation for a CEO in which of the following country stands at over
Rs.two crore as per a new study?
1. Libya
2. India -Answer
3. United Arab Emirates
4. China 5. Russia
14. CCI has approved the merger of which of the following company with its parent firm
ReliancePower?
1. GE Power Money
2. Digital Power Infrastructure
3. Sasan Power Infrastructure -Answer
4. Reliance Energy
5. Reliance Fresh
15. The Indian Army successfully test fired which of the following 290 km range supersonic cruise
missile at the Pokharan range?
1. C-803
2. P-270 Poskit
3. Brah Mos -Answer
4. P-500 Bazait
5. KD 88
16. Which state Government signed a Memorandum of Understanding with NABARD Consultancy
Services Pvt Ltd?
1. Nagaland -Answer
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Assam 4. Manipur
5. None of these
17. Which bank appointed Madhukant Girdharlal Sanghvi as its new Chairman ?
1. Syndicate Bank -Answer
2. Bank of Maharashtra
3. Bank of India
4. Central Bank of India
5. None of these
18. The Indian Railways proposes to target carrying ----- Million Tonnes of revenue earning traffic during
2012-13.
1. 1025 -Answer
2. 2025
3. 3025
4. 4025
5. 5025
19. India and Indonesia are set to reach their target of trade worth US $ 25 billion by ----.
1. 2015 -Answer
2. 2020
3. 2025
4. 2030
5. 2035
20. Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) during the Month of February, 2012 was ------- lakh.
1. 2.77
2. 3.77
3. 4.77
4. 5.77
5. 6.77-Answer
21. Which country has clinched the first womens Kabaddi World Cup championship title?
1. Iran
2. India -Answer
3. Canada
4. Germany
5. None of these
22. Which State Government introduced the Mamoni scheme in the state under the National Rural
Health Mission?
1. West Bengal
2. Bihar
3. Assam -Answer
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. None of these
23. Who has been elected a judge in the US state of Louisiana?
1. Dr. Terence DSouza
2. Bernadette DSouza -Answer
3. Howard Stern
4. Shirley Chisholm
5. None of these
24. The World Environment Day was observed across the globe on 5 June 2012. Theme for the World
Environment Day 2012 was
1. Green Economy: Does it include you -Answer
2. Forests-Nature At Your Service
3. Water- all we need
4. Both 2 & 3
5. None of these
25. Who took over as 28th chief secretary of Madhya Pradesh succeeding Avani Vaish?
1. Neela Gangadharan
2. D. S. Poonia
3. S. S. Kapur
4. Sanjay Kumar Srivastava
5. R.Parasuram1 -Answer
26. Which states Chief Minister has demanded law to deal with cases of discrimination against
northeastern students?
1. Meghalaya -Answer
2. Nagaland
3. Gujarat
4. Uttarakhand
5. Assam
27 The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has provided assistance of how many USD aid to India?
1. $8.25 billion
2. $5.25 billion
3. $3.25 billion
4. $6.25 billion -Answer
5. $7.25 billion
28. Who is the EU Ambassador to India visited Nagaland to interact with chamber of commerce and
industry recently?
1. Joao Cravinho -Answer
2. Ettore Sequi
3. Franz Jessen
4. Richard Jones
5. Aivo Orav
29. What value of overseas inflow was injected into Indian markets in January 2012?
1. Rs.20,000 crore
2. Rs.26,000 crore -Answer
3. Rs.32,000 crore
4. Rs.25,000 crore
5. Rs.30,000 crore
30. Who is the Chief of Lashkar e-Taiba, a reward money of $10 million has been announced on him by
America?
1. Hafiz Saeed -Answer
2. Abdullah Azzam
3. Yusuf Muzammil
4. Nasr Javed
5. None of these
31. Indias which board was admitted as the 11th member of Multinational Design Evaluation
Programme recently?
1. Nuclear Energy Agency
2. Atomic Energy Regulatory-Answer
3. Permanent Court of Arbitration
4. East Asia Regulatory Summit
5. None of these
32. Commemorative Postage Stamp of which president was released to mark the birth centenary
recently?
1. Giani Zail Singh
2. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
3. K.R.Narayanan
4. R.Venkataraman -Answer
5. None of these
33. According to the World Economic Outlook report what is the lowered economic growth of India in
2012?
1.5.25%
2. 6.9% -Answer
3. 7.6%
4. 5.8%
5. 7.0%
34. Who had been appointed as UNHCR special envoy recently?
1. Kofi Annan
2. Sophia Loren
3. Angelina Jolie -Answer
4. Richard Burton
5. Muazzez Ersoy
35. Who had been appointed as the President of World Heart Federation ?
1. Srinath Reddy-Answer
2. Sidney C Smith
3. Deborah Chen
4. Roberto Ferrari
5. None of these
36 Nomura, the global financial services firm, on 26 June 2012 slashed the country's growth forecast
for the fiscal year 2012-13 to what per cent?
1. 5.8% -Answer
2. 5%
3. 4.6%
4. 3%
5. None of these
37 Indu Chaudhary and Sakshi Malik won gold Medals in Asian Junior Wrestling Championship
2012.Asian Junior Wrestling Championship 2012 was organised in which of the following country?
1. Iran
2. China
3. Kazhakhistan -Answer
4. South Korea
5. None of these
38. Which one of the following cities has been slated to host the United Nations Conference on
Sustainable Development 2012?
1. Rio de Janeiro -Answer
2. Buenos Aires
3. Hawana
4. Toronto
5. None of these
39 The World Bank on 12 June 2012 released its report on Global Economic Prospect, which of the
following given statements are not true according to the World Bank report?
A. Indian economy will grow by 6.9 per cent in the financial year 2012-13
B. The World Bank predicted Indias growth 7.2 per cent and 7.4 per cent in fiscal years 2012-13
C. The World Bank report estimated the global economy to expand 2.5% in the fiscal year 2012-13
D. The World Bank report predicted western economy to grow significantly in the fiscal year 2012-13
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Only C
4. Only D -Answer
5. None of these
40. Indias gross direct tax collections grew by what per cent in April-May 2012?
1. 3.62 per cent -Answer
2. 3 per cent
3. 2.62 per cent
4. 4.62 per cent
5. None of these
41. The Commerce Ministry of India on 14 June 2012 released the export-import data for the month of
May 2012. Which of the following given statement are not true according to the data?
A. India's export dropped by 4.16 per cent at 25.68 billion dollar in May 2012
B. Indias imports also registered a decline of 7.36 per cent at 41.9 billion dollar in May 2012
C. The trade deficit figure also shrank to 16.3 billion dollar during the May 2012, from 18.5 billion dollar
in May 2011
D. Import of crude oil witnessed a decline
1. Only A
2. Both C & D
3. Only D -Answer
4. All the statements are true
5. None of the
MARKETING & COMPUTER
1. Which concept of marketing is based on customer satisfaction key point ?
1. Entity concept of business
2. Old concept of marketing
3. Modern concept of marketing -Answer
4. Determination of the marketing objects
5. None of these
2. Marketing is a -1. quantitative process
2. logical process
3. mathematical process
4. managerial process -Answer
5. qualitative process
3. What is Product Line ?
1. Group of different products -Answer
2. More than one product
3. Group of different brands
4. Group of markets
5. All of these
4. Marketing Aggregation is
1. Just like segmentation
2. Just opposite of segmentation-Answer
3. Target market
4. All of these
5. None of these
5. Marketing is related with
1. exchange
2. transferring
3. selling-Answer
4. distribution 5. sending
6. The element of marketing mix is
1. selling
2. costing
3. creating
4. product -Answer
5. buying
7. What is Marketing Information System ?
1. Gathering information from the market -Answer
2. Gathering information related with sale
3. Gathering information related with purchase
4. All of these
5. None of these
8. Which of the following is a survey technique?
1. Personal interview
2. Questionnaire
3. Telephonic interview
4. All of these -Answer
5. None of these
9. Capital goods market deals with
1. non durable goods
2. consumable goods
3. all products
4. durable goods -Answer
5. All of these
10. Marketing audit helps a business in
1. Identification of challenges -Answer
2. marketing research
3. marketing planning
4. audit planning
5. All of these
11. Advertising is a part of
1. Sales promotion -Answer
2. distribution
3. brand image
4. brand equity
5. All of these
12. What is Strategy ?
1. Setting a goal
2. Creating a vision
3. Allocation of resources -Answer
4. All of these
5. None of these
13. Marketing environment consists of
1. a set of interacting forces -Answer
2. external forces
3. internal forces
4. information about the product
5. None of these
14. Product label is concerned with
1. monogram
2. information about the product
3. information about the market
4. 1 and 2 -Answer
5. None of these
15. What is Standardisation ?
1. standard of living
2. charateristics of product-Answer
3. pricing of product
4. brand image of product
5. All of these
16. Product life cycles third stage is related with
1. maturity -Answer
2. decline
3. introduction
4. growth
5. None of these
17. Marketing techniques include
1. good arguing skill
2. observation skill
3. effective negotiation skill -Answer
4. watching skill
5. listening skill
18. A prospect means
1. newly designed product
2. a team leader
3. a likely buyer -Answer
4. ATM usage
5. internet transaction
19. Savings Account can be opened by
1. all individuals fulfilling KYC norms -Answer
2. all individuals earning more than Rs.1,00,000 per annum
3. all individuals above the age of 18
4. all salaried persons
5. all students below the age of 18
20. Marketing is
1. a skilled persons job -Answer
2. a oneday function
3. a one - time act

4. required only when a new product is launched
5. None of these
21. Which of the following is the Indias fastest Super Computer ?
1. K - Computer
2. PARAM
3. SAGA 220-Answer
4. Stuxnet
5. None of these
22. Which technology is used to remote login into a computer system ?
1. Telnet -Answer
2. Intranet
3. Extranet
4. Internet
5. Ethernet
23. Hard disk drives are considered as storage.
1. non Volatile -Answer
2. flash
3. temporary
4. permanent
5. None of these
24. Speed of super computers can be measured in the unit is known as
1. Gelops -Answer
2. MHZ
3. MB
4. HZ
5. None of these
25. The extension name for powerpoint document is
1. .pwrpt
2. .pt
3. .ppt -Answer
4. .ppoint
5. .pxpt
26. Printed copy is often called
1. hard copy -Answer
2. soft copy
3. true copy
4. printed copy
5. None of these
27. The operations like AND, NOT, OR which can be used while searching for information using any
search engine is
1. boolean operator
2.operators
3. logical operators -Answer

4. relational operators
5. none of these
28. The unauthorised use of computer and network resources is called
1. netiquette
2. hacking -Answer
3. pass code
4. phishing
5. none of these
29. Commercially produced first computer
1. IBM
2. EDSAC
3. UNIVAC-1 -Answer
4. MIPS
5. ENIAC1
30. Which of the following can be used to browse the internet ?
1. Amiga OS
2. Perl
3. Foxpro
4. NCSA Mosaic -Answer
5. None of these
31. Which menu is selected to cut, copy and paste ?
1. File
2. Tools
3. Edit -Answer
4. Help
5. Format
32. The speed at which the monitor accepts data is called
1. band width -Answer
2. interfacing
3. maximum speed
4. response time
5. None of these
33. MS Excel is a
1. DOS based spreadsheet Package
2. Windows based accounting package
3. Windows based spreadsheet package -Answer
4. Dos based accounting package
5. None of these
34. A magnetic disc is coated by
1. phosphorus penta oride
2. iron oxide -Answer
3. magnesium oxide
4. sodium peroxide
5. None of these
35. Punched card system were first introduced by
1. Blaise Pascal
2. James Gosling
3. John Vonn Newmann
4. Herman Hollerith -Answer
5. None of these
36. Ellipse motion is a/an
1. colour scheme
2. layout collection
3. design template
4. sound format
5. animation scheme-Answer
37. cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected cells
1. Splitting
2. Formatting
3. Merging-Answer
4. Compressing
5. None of these
38. Which of the following is not a special program in MS Office ?
1. Clip art
2. Word art
3. Paint art-Answer
4. All of these
5. None of these
39. Which part of system performs the housekeeping chores ?
1. Operating system -Answer
2. Interpreter
3. Translator
4. Compiler
5. Converter
40. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage ?
1. Giga byte
2. Mega byte
3. Terra byte
4. Kilo byte
5. Peta byte-Answer
IBPS 2012
General Awareness Questions
1 RBI, in its annual policy for 2011-12, has estimated the wholesale price inflation at about which among the
following fractions by March 2012?

(A)5% (B)6% (C)8% (D)9%
Ans(B)6%
2 Who amongst the following was Indias official candidate for the post of UNOs Secretary Gene- ral ?
(A) Mr. Shyam Saran (B) Dr. C. Rangarajan (C) Mr. Shashi Tharoor D) Mr. Vijay Nambiar (E) None of these
Ans (C) Mr. Shashi Tharoor
3 In India Census is done after a gap of every____________
(A) Five years (B) Seven years (C) Eight years (D) Ten years (E) Fifteen years Ans (D) Ten years
4 Which of the following pheno-menon is considered responsible for Global Warming?

(A) Greenhouse Gas Effect B) Fox Fire (C) Dry Farming (D) Radioactivity\ (E) None of these
Ans (A) Greenhouse Gas Effect
5 Which of the following Satellites recentlydedicatedtonation helps Direct to Home Television Service in India ?
(A) Matsat (B) Edusat (C) Insat4b (D) InsatIB (E) None of these Ans (C) Insat4b
6 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently raised the interest rate on savings bank deposits and the
repo rate by 50 basis points (bps). In this context, consider the following:
1. CASA Ratio 2. Net Interest Margin Which among the above of the commercial banks would be
affected by the above step taken by the Reserve Bank of India ?
(A)Only 1 (B)Only 2 C)Both 1 & 2 (D)Neither 1 nor 2 Ans C Both1 & 2
7 The purchase of shares and bonds of Indian companies by Foreign Institutional Investors is called?
[A]FDI [B]Portfolio Investment [C]NRI Investment [D]Foreign Indirect Investment
Ans [D]Foreign Indirect Investment
8 In which year, the World Bank revised the common international poverty line to $1.25 at the 2005
purchasing power parity?
[A]2006 [B]2007 [C]2008 [D]2009
Answer [C]2008
9 As per the recent estimates, Indias overall foodgrain production is expected to be 241.56 million
tonnes, which is highest ever. Which among the following shares the maximum quantity in this ?
[A]Rice [B]Wheat [C]Coarse cereals [D]Maize Ans[A]Rice
10. Recently RBI governor D Subbarao has pointed out that recent global macro economic
developments pose some risks to domestic growth. What does he refer to by using the term domestic
growth?
(A)Per Capita Income (B)Gross Domestic Product (C)Net National product (D)Net National Product
per capita
Ans (B)Gross Domestic Product
11 Lending rates are expected to rise further in the coming months because the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) is likely to .. Which among the following would fill the space correctly?
(A)Increase policy ratesm (B)Decrease Policy Rates (C)Conduct Open Market Operations
(D)Conduct Repo Auctions
Ans (A)Increase policy rates
12 . Recently we read in the newspapers that in the country , there are undoubtedly, negative risks to
the fiscal deficit target of 4.6 per cent for 2011-12. Which among the following does not poses such risk
to the fiscal deficit targets?
(A)The higher Fuels, Food and Fertilizers prices B)Burden of Subsidy (C)Low collection of Tax
Revenue (D)Lower external commercial borrowings Ans (D)Lower external commercial borrowings
13 What was the initial growth target of the Eleventh Plan (2007-08 to 2011-12) on an average a
year?
(A)7% (B)8% (C)9% (D)10%
Ans (C)9%
14 In the first four years of the Eleventh Plan, Indian economy expanded by which among the
following fractions?
(A)8.15% (B)8.30% (C)8.45% (D)8.65%
Ans (A)8.15%
15 OPEC is a group of countries which are_______

(A) exporting oil B) producting cotton C) rich and developed (D) developing and poor (E) nuclear
powers
Answer (A) exporting oil
16 Recently we read in the newspapers that World Bank has now endorsed a longstanding proposal
that governments should impose a carbon levy. What is Carbon Levy?
(A)Its a tax levied on jet and shipping fuel to finance climate change mitigation (B)Its a tax levied on
carbon fuel (C)Its a tax levied on production of fossil fuel and coal (D)Its a tax levied on production of
coal only
Ans (B)Its a tax levied on carbon fuel
17 Sandhyarani Devi Wangkhem, was a winner of a Silver Medal in the 2010 Asian Games in
Guangzhou , China . In which sports she won this medal?
(A)Shooting (B)Taekwando C)Squash (D)Wushu
Ans (D)Wushu
18: Who is the VC and CEO of HDFC bank?

Keki Mistry
19 Which bank has entered into pact with SBI Mutual Fund?
Indian Bank
20 ASBA (application Supported by Blocked Amounts) is a term used in which of the following
sectors?
(a) Aviation b) Real Estate Insurance (d) Capital Markets Ans (d) Capital Markets
21 Which of the following started production at Indias largest naphtha cracker project recently?
(a) ONGC (b) Essar Oil Indian Oil (d) Reliance Industries Ltd Ans Indian Oil
22 Which of the following is/are correctly matched after RBIs Third Quarter Review of Monetary
Policy 2010-11 on January 26, 2011?
I. Repo rate 6.5% II. Reserve Repo rate 5.5% III. Cash Reserve Ratio 6%
(a) I only (b) I and II only (c) II and III only (d) I, II and III Ans (d) I, II and III (d) Rs 902000 crore
23 The union finance Ministry raised the tax collection target for 2010-11 to _________ recently.
(a) Rs 782000 crore (b) Rs 834000 crore Rs 871000 crore (d) Rs 902000 crore
Ans(a) Rs 782000 crore
24 Which of the following became the first oil & Gas Company to find shale gas deposits in India
recently?
(a) Reliance Industries Ltd. b) Carin India Essar Oil (d) ONGC Ans (d) ONGC
25 . Who among the following has been recently appointed as chairman of Central Board of Direct
Taxes?
(A)Prakash Chandra (B)Sudhir Chandra (C)Satyanand Mishra (D)Sri Kumar
Ans (A)Prakash Chandra
26 According to the state-wise cotton crop data released by the Agriculture Ministry for 2010-11 on 25
July 2011 which variety of cotton emerged as the largest cotton crop in all the major cotton producing
states?
a. V-797 b. RS2013 c. Digvijay d. Bt cotton
Ans: (d) Bt cotton
27 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a bid to tame inflationary pressure hiked the short-term
indicative policy rate (repo rate) by 50 basis points on 26 July 2011. The repo rate currently stands at
what percentage?
a. 7% b. 7.5% c. 8% d. 8.5% Answer: (c) 8%
28 The Union government on 26 July 2011 announced restoration of the popular duty entitlement
pass book (DEPB) scheme for export of cotton. Which of the following is/are not true with regard to the
following?
1. Restoration of the popular duty entitlement pass book (DEPB) scheme was announced for export of
cotton with retrospective effect from 1 April 2011 and on cotton yarn from 1 October 2010.
2. Cotton yarn had been placed under Open General Licence for exports from 1 October 2011.
3. Exports of cotton were dis-incentivised by virtue of export tax, following a sharp rise in prices in
January 2011.
4. Restrictions continue to remain on export of cotton, that is, 65 lakh bales this year.
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 & 2 d. Only 4
Ans: (b) Only 2
29 Who among the following had written the books Reintegrating India with the World Economy and
Understanding Reforms.?
(A)C Rangrajan m(B)Amartya Sen (C)Suresh Tendulkar (D)C K Prahalad Ans (C)Suresh Tendulkar
30. As per the recent Data released by the Central Statistical Organization, what is India s Percapita
income in 2010-11?
(A)Rs. 54835 B)Rs. 52165 (C)Rs. 56115(D)Rs. 50143
Ans (A)Rs. 54835
The RBI decreased the RR (Repo Rate) and the RRR (Reverse Repo Rate) by 50 basis points on
April 17, 2012. The Reserve Bank of India cut the repurchase rate to 8.00%.
Repo Rate, or repurchase rate, is the rate at which RBI lends to banks for short periods. This is done by
RBI buying government bonds from banks with an agreement to sell them back at a fixed rate. If the
RBI wants to make it more expensive for banks to borrow money, it increases the repo rate. Similarly, if
it wants to make it cheaper for banks to borrow money, it reduces the repo rate.
Please note that Bank Rate and Repo Rate seem to be similar terms because in both of them RBI
lends to the banks. However, Repo Rate is a short-term measure and it refers to short-term loans and
used for controlling the amount of money in the market, Bank Rate is a long-term measure and is
governed by the long-term monetary policies of the RBI. In broader term, bank rate is the rate of
interest which a central bank charges on the loans and advances that it extends to commercial banks
and other financial intermediaries. RBI uses this tool to control the money supply.
How Repo Rate Works?
When RBI reduces the Repo Rate, the banks can borrow more at a lower cost. This contributes to
lowering of the rates. The effects can be seen on the markets in short term.
Illustrative Questions
Directions (Q.Nos. 1-5) : - Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group.
1.Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(1) Pear 2) Mango (3) Orange (4) Apple (5) Radish

Ans : Radish - Except radish, all others are fruits. Radish is a modified root.
2. (1) Sun (2) Moon (3) Star (4) Mars (5) Universe
Ans : Universe - All except Universe form part of the Universe.
3. (1) Tailor (2) Barber (3) Engineer (4) Carpenter (5) Blacksmith
Ans : Barber - All except barber require raw material to work.
4.(1) X-ray (2) Radio (3) Telephone (4) Computer (5) Television
Ans : X-ray - All except X-ray are media instruments.
5. (1) Arc (2) Diagonal (3) Tangent (4) Radius (5) Diameter
Ans : Diagonal - All except diagonal are terms associated with circle.
Directions (Q.Nos. 1-11) : - Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a
group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
1.(1) IJK(2) AB (3) OPQ 4) EFG (5) VWX
Ans : VWX - In all the other groups, the first letters is the odd-numbered letter in the English alphabet.
9 10 11
I J K
1 2 3
A B C
15 16 17
O P Q
5 6 7
E F G
But
22 23 24
V W X
2.
(1) Tiger (2) Cow (3) Bitch (4) Mare (5) Lioness
Ans : Tiger - Except tiger, all others are of feminine gender.
3. (1) 13 (2) 17 (3) 19 (4) 27 (5) 23
Ans : 27 - Except 27, all others are prime numbers.
4. (1) Pound (2) Yen 3) Ounce (4) Franc (5) Dollar
Ans : Ounce - All except ounce are names of currencies of different countries, while ounce is a unit of
weight.
5 (1) Lemon (2) Orange (3) Malta (4) Banana (5) Pineapple
Ans : Banana - All except banana are juicy fruits.
6. (1) Lake (2) Tank (3) River (4) Pool (5) Pond
Ans : River - All except river contain stagnant water.
7. (1) Carrot (2) Guava (3) Tomato (4) Pear (5) Brinjal
Ans : Brinjal - All except brinjal can be eaten raw.
8. (1) Sit (2) Hit (3) Kit (4) Fit (5) Knit
Ans : Kit - Except kit, the rest all are verbs. Kit is a noun.
9. (1) Tab (2) Pot (3) Reed (4) Level (5) Hold
Ans : Hold - Other words when read backwards give meaningful words.
10. (1) CFI (2) UXA (3) RUX (4) SVZ (5) LOR Ans : SVZ
+3
+3
C F I
+3
+3
U X A
+3
+3
R U X
+3
+3
L O R
But,
+3
+4
S V Z
Therefore, 'SVZ' does not belong to the group.
11. (1) 117 (2) 74(3) 153 (4) 108 (5) 99

Ans : 74 - Except 74, all other numbers are completely divisible by 3.
Directions (Q.Nos. 12-16) : - The following questions consist of two words that have a certain
relationship with each other, followed by five pairs of words. Select the pair that has the same
relationship as the original pair of words.
12. Escape : Abscond
(1) Endless : Eternal (2) Flee : Surrender(3) Exult : Jubilate (4) Escalate : Weaken(5) Confront : Submit
Ans : Endless : Eternal - Escape and abscond are nearly similar in meaning like endless and eternal.
13. Host : Hospitable (1) Artist : Imitative (2) Guest : Rude (3) Humanitarian : Altruistic(4) Idealist :
Cynical (5) Pollyanna : Pessimistic
Ans : Humanitarian : Altruistic - As a host is supposed to be hospitable, in the same way, a
humanitarian is expected to be altruistic.
14. Editor : Magazine
(1) Director : Film (2) Novel : Writer (3) Psychiatrist : Neurotic (4) Librarian : Library (5) Poem : Poet
Ans : Director : Film - Like all actions of a magazine are interpreted by the editor, in the same way, all
the actions of a film are interpreted by the director.
15. Pain : Misery

(1) Disease : poverty (2) Despair : loneliness (3) Ignorance : confusion (4) Superstition : peasant
(5) Ignore : greet
Ans : Ignorance : Confusion - Pain causes misery and ignorance causes confusion.
16. ABD : EJL
(1) GFH : IPR (2) IPR : URT (3) IPR : OTY (4) IPR : ORT (5) GHI : PRT
Ans : IPR : ORT - This is a vowel-consonant based relationship. In the question pair, the first letters of
each term are 'A' and 'E' which are first two vowels (AEIOU). In the same manner, the first term of the
answer pair will begin with 'I' and the second term of the answer pair will begin with 'O'. In the question
pair, we have ABD i.e. the third letter in first term is obtained by skipping 'C'. In the second term, 'EJL',
'L' is obtained by skipping 'K'. So, the answer is (4) IPR : ORT.
IBPS clerical cadre written test examination questions with answers and explanations,
IBPS aptitude, Reasoning Arithmetic, logical Reasoning questions with answer
1. Ram went 15km to the west from his house, then he turned left and walked 20 km. He then turned
east and walked 25 km and finally turning left covered 20 kms.How far was he from his house
5 kms
10kms-Answer
40 kms
80 kms
2. Vishnu ranks 16th from the top and 49th from the bottom in a class . How many students are there in
the class
66
65-Answer
64
63
3. Mahesh is older than Samir and Jayanth.Navin is older than Samir but younger than Jacob.Jayanth
is older than Jacob.Who among them is the oldest
Jayanth
Jacob
Navin
Mahesh-Answer
4. Choose the option related to the given numbers
21, 37, 53
19, 36, 55
23, 39, 55-Answer
35, 62, 79
47, 64, 80
5. Find out the next term in the given series
34, 18, 10, 6, 4, ....
3-Answer
2
1
0
6. DWH : WDS :: FUL : .........
ELV
OFU
UFO-Answer
FOU
7. Pointing to a photograph, a man said, I have no brother or sister but that man's father is my father's
son.Whose photograph was it
His own
His son's-Answer
His father's
His nephew's
8. In an examination 36 % is the pass mark.If an examinee gets 17 marks and fails by 10 marks, what
was the maximum mark
70
75-Answer
65
55
9. If 76 is divided into four parts proportional to 7: 5: 3: 4 the smallest part is
12-Answer
15
16
19
10. A train 280 m long, running with a speed of 63 km/hr.will pass an electric pole in .........seconds
20 sec
16sec-Answer
15 sec
18 sec
11. Articles which are bought for Rs 400 are sold for Rs 560.Find the profit percent
45
60
40
65
12. If the total rainfall in a month is 75cm, then the average daily rainfall is
3.5 cm
2.5 cm-Answer
1.5 cm
4 cm
13. A man sells an article for Rs 330, at a gain of 10 %.What did it cost him
300-Answer
340
330
360
14. 2.65 - 0.5 = ..........
2.60
3.70
3.15
2.15-Answer
15. If 27 x 29 = 783, then 0.27 x 290 = .........
7830
783
78.3-Answer
7.83
16. Which of the following names will be second in an alphabetical list ?
Andhra Pradesh
17 Haryana1. Which of the following names will be second in an alphabetical list ?
Andhra Pradesh
Haryana-Answer
Himachal Pradesh
Kerala
18 . Which of the following names would be fourth in the telephone directory ?
Sita Ram Agrawal-Answer
Seeta Ram Agrawal
Seta Ram Agarwal
Seeta Ram Agarawal
19 . Ina military mode, TARGET is written as RATTEG. Using the same code BRIDGE should be
written as
DGEBRI-Answer
IRBDGE
BRIEGD
IRBEGD
20 . If x means , - means x , means +, and + means -, then the value of the expression
(3- 15 11) x 8 + 6 will be
1-Answer
0
8
4
21. A number exceeds its one fifth by 20, what is the number
Answer : 25
22. Pointing to Veena in the photograph, Vishnu said, She is the daughter of my Grandfather's only
son.How is Veena related to Vishnu
Answer : Sister
23. If 27 x 29 = 783, then 0.27 x 290 = .........
Answer : 78.3
24. A man sells an article for Rs 330, at a gain of 10 %.What did it cost him
Answer : 300
25. If the total rainfall in a month is 75cm, then the average daily rainfall is
Answer : 2.5 cm
26. Which number should come in the blank space to complete the series
2, 6, 12, 36, 72, ........
Answer : 216
27. Find the value of 7 + 8 = ...........
Answer : 2
28. If the radius of a circle is increased by 6 % , then its area is increased by ..........%
Answer : 12.36 %
29. Which is the number that comes next in the following series.
4, 6, 12, 14, 28, 30, ........

Answer : 60
30. The downstream speed of a boat is 15 kmph. and the speed of the stream is 2 kmph.Then the
upstream speed of the boat is ...
Answer : 11 kmph
31. When a number x is divided by 4 we get the cube of another number y.Find x if y3<10.
Answer : 32
32. The smallest number which if divided by 9, 12, and 16 each time 5 remains. The number is ..........
Answer : 149
33. Some boys are standing in a queue. If the 10th boy from behind is 5 behind the 12th boy from the
front. how many boys are there in the queue
Answer : 26
34. A cube is to be painted. No two adjacent faces can be coloured the same. What is the least number
of colours needed
Answer : 3
35. There are four roads. I have come from the south and want to go to the temple. The road to the
right leads me away from the coffee house, straight ahead it leads only to a college. In which direction
is the temple
Answer : East
36. A , B, C are intelligent.A, D, E are laborious. D, C, E are honest. A, B, E are ambitious. Which of the
following are not honest
Answer : A, B
37. The average age of a husband and wife was 22 years when they were married five years back.
What is the present average age of the family if they have a three year old child
Answer : 19 years
38. A father tells his son, I was your present age when you were born. If father is 36 now, how old was
the son five years back
Answer : 13
39. If 3 + 3 = 27: 4 +7 = 84 and 5 +7 = 105, then 6 + 7= .........
Answer : 126
40. Find out the number that comes in the missing position of the following number series:
0, 7, 26, 63, 124,.....
Answer : 215
41. What will be the next number if the series of numbers is as follows 3, 11, 27, 59,..........
Answer : 123
42. What will be the next number in the following series of numbers 2,4,16,......
Answer : 256
43. Bangladesh : Dhaka ; Austria : ...........
Answer : Vienna
44. Pareekkutty: Madhu; Chemban Kunju : ...........
Answer : Kottarakara Sreedharan Nair
45. Pather Panjali: Sathyajith Ray ;Athithi : .................
Answer : K . P. Kumaran
Free online mock test for IBPS-CWE Clerical 2012 Exam

(Just same as IBPS Pattern - Fully solved Questions with answer and Explanation)
Try It Now
1 Two students fought a college election. The winning student got 60 % of the total votes and won the
election by 144 votes only. What was the total number of votes polled
Answer : 720
2. 200 20 100 = ........

Answer : 0.1
3. If 75% of a number is added to 75 the result is the number itself, then the number is
Answer : 300
4. 375 25 - 19 = ..........
Answer : -4
5. 2.65 - 0.5 = ..........

Answer : 2.15
6. Articles which are bought for Rs 400 are sold for Rs 560.Find the profit percent
Answer : 40
7. A train 280 m long, running with a speed of 63 km/hr.will pass an electric pole in .........seconds
Answer : 16sec
8. If 76 is divided into four parts proportional to 7: 5: 3: 4 the smallest part is
Answer : 12
9. In an examination 36 % is the pass mark.If an examinee gets 17 marks and fails by 10 marks, what
was the maximum mark
Answer : 75
10. The smallest prime number is
Answer : 2
11. What is the largest number that divides 10 and 15 without a remainder
Answer : 5
12. The ratio between two numbers is 2: 3. Their LCM is 36. What is the smaller number.
Answer : 12
13. The marks obtained by a student in five subjects are 68, 73, 62, 85 and 79. Find the average score.
Answer : 73.4
14. 21 3 ( 10 - 3 ) - 20 + 1 =
Answer : 30
15. 0.0076 1.9 = ............
Answer : 0.004
16. Which term of the progression 4, 7, 10, .........is 76
Answer : 25
17. When 8 % of 630 is added to 12 % of 315, the sum is
Answer : 88.2
18. One half of the students at an Indian University study German and 1/3 of others study French.The
remaining 600 do not study any foreign language. How many students are there in the university.
Answer : 1800
19. A 300 m long train passes a pole in 12 secs. What is its speed in km/hr
Answer : 90 km/hr
20. A train runs for 2 hrs at the speed of 35 km/hr. It runs for 3 1/2 hrs at the speed of 60 km/hr and then
runs for 2 1/2 hrs at the speed of 70 km/hr. Find the average speed of the train
Answer : 56.87 km/hr
21. In an examination 40 % students fail in maths, 30 % in English and 15 % in both.Find the pass
percentage
Answer : 45 %
22. A class has R rows of desks with D desks in each row. On a particular day when all the pupils were
present, three seats were found vacant. The number of pupils in the class is
Answer : DR - 3
23. Nalini purchases a cycle for Rs. 660 including sales tax.If the rate of sales tax is 10 % find out the
sale price of the cycle
Answer : Rs 600
24. Which one of the following is having greater value
Answer : 5:3
25. What must be added to the numbers 6, 10, 14 and 22 so that they became successive proportional
Answer : 2
Reserve Bank of India- Monetary and Credit Policies (1999-2012)
Dr. D. Subbarao, RBI Governor announces the First Quarter Review of Monetary Policy for the
year 2011-12 ...
Bank Rate & CRR retained at 6.0%.However policy repo rate increased by 50 basis points
RBI increase the repo rate under LAF by 25 basis points to 7.5 per cent in Mid-Quarter Monetary Policy
Review: June 2011 .
RBI announces Annual Monetary Policy Statement for the Year 2011-12
Policy repo rates hiked 50 bps, Bank Rate & CRR retained at 6%, Savings Bank Interest increased to
4%
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Extends Liquidity Management Measures up to May 6, 2011The Reserve
Bank of India releases Mid-Quarter Monetary Policy Review: March 2011RBI increases the repo &
reverse repo rates by 25 basis points
Repo & Reverse Repo rates hiked by 25bp but CRR & bank rate retained at 6%
Bank Rate & CRR retained at 6.0%.However, repo & reverse repo rate increased by 25 basis points
IBPS PO (CWE) General awareness IBPS Clerical IBPS Gramin Bank General Awareness
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General Awareness Questions
1RBI, in its annual policy for 2011-12, has estimated the wholesale price inflation at about which among
the following fractions by March 2012?
(A)5%
(B)6%
(C)8%
(D)9%
Ans(B)6%
2 Who amongst the following was Indias official candidate for the post of UNOs Secretary Gene- ral ?
(A) Mr. Shyam Saran
(B) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(C) Mr. Shashi Tharoor
(D) Mr. Vijay Nambiar
(E) None of these
Ans (C) Mr. Shashi Tharoor
3 In India Census is done after a gap of every____________

(A) Five years
(B) Seven years
(C) Eight years
(D) Ten years
(E) Fifteen years
Ans (D) Ten years
IBPS PO (CWE) IBPS (CWE) clerickal and IBPS (Gramin Bank)RRBs (CWE) Bank
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4 Which of the following pheno-menon is considered responsible for Global Warming?

(A) Greenhouse Gas Effect
(B) Fox Fire
(C) Dry Farming
(D) Radioactivity
(E) None of these
Ans (A) Greenhouse Gas Effect
5 Which of the following Satellites recentlydedicatedtonation helps Direct to Home Television Ser-vice in
India ?
(A) Matsat
(B) Edusat
(C) Insat4b
(D) InsatIB
(E) None of these
Ans (C) Insat4b
6 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently raised the interest rate on savings bank deposits and the
repo rate by 50 basis points (bps). In this context, consider the following:
1. CASA Ratio
2. Net Interest Margin
Which among the above of the commercial banks would be affected by the above
step taken by the Reserve Bank of India ?
(A)Only 1
(B)Only 2
(C)Both 1 & 2
(D)Neither 1 nor 2
Ans C Both1 & 2
7The purchase of shares and bonds of Indian companies by Foreign Institutional

Investors is called?
[A]FDI
[B]Portfolio Investment
[C]NRI Investment
[D]Foreign Indirect Investment
Ans [D]Foreign Indirect Investment
8 In which year, the World Bank revised the common international poverty line to
$1.25 at the 2005 purchasing power parity?
[A]2006
[B]2007
[C]2008
[D]2009
Answer [C]2008
9As per the recent estimates, Indias overall foodgrain production is expected to be 241.56 million
tonnes, which is highest ever. Which among the following shares the maximum quantity in this ?
[A]Rice
[B]Wheat
[C]Coarse cereals
[D]Maize
Ans[A]Rice
10. Recently RBI governor D Subbarao has pointed out that recent global macro
economic developments pose some risks to domestic growth. What does he refer to by using the term
domestic growth?
(A)Per Capita Income
(B)Gross Domestic Product
(C)Net National product
(D)Net National Product per capita
Ans (B)Gross Domestic Product
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11 Lending rates are expected to rise further in the coming months because the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to .. Which among the following would fill the space
correctly?
(A)Increase policy rates
(B)Decrease Policy Rates
(C)Conduct Open Market Operations
(D)Conduct Repo Auctions
Ans (A)Increase policy rates
12 .Recently we read in the newspapers that in the country , there are undoubtedly, negative risks to
the fiscal deficit target of 4.6 per cent for 2011-12. Which among the following does not poses such risk
to the fiscal deficit targets?
(A)The higher Fuels, Food and Fertilizers prices
(B)Burden of Subsidy
(C)Low collection of Tax Revenue
(D)Lower external commercial borrowings
Ans (D)Lower external commercial borrowings
13What was the initial growth target of the Eleventh Plan (2007-08 to 2011-12) on an average a year?
(A)7%
(B)8%
(C)9%
(D)10%
Ans (C)9%
14In the first four years of the Eleventh Plan, Indian economy expanded by which among the following
fractions?
(A)8.15%
(B)8.30%
(C)8.45%
(D)8.65%
Ans (A)8.15%
15 OPEC is a group of countries which are_______

(A) exporting oil
(B) producting cotton
(C) rich and developed
(D) developing and poor
(E) nuclear powers
Answer (A) exporting oil
16Recently we read in the newspapers that World Bank has now endorsed a longstanding proposal
that governments should impose a carbon levy. What is Carbon Levy?
(A)Its a tax levied on jet and shipping fuel to finance climate change mitigation
(B)Its a tax levied on carbon fuel
(C)Its a tax levied on production of fossil fuel and coal
(D)Its a tax levied on production of coal only
Ans (B)Its a tax levied on carbon fuel
17 Sandhyarani Devi Wangkhem, was a winner of a Silver Medal in the 2010 Asian Games in
Guangzhou , China . In which sports she won this medal?
(A)Shooting
(B)Taekwando
(C)Squash
(D)Wushu
Ans (D)Wushu
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18: Who is the VC and CEO of HDFC bank?

Keki Mistry
19 Which bank has entered into pact with SBI Mutual Fund?
Indian Bank
20ASBA (application Supported by Blocked Amounts) is a term used in which of the following sectors?
(a) Aviation
(b) Real Estate
Insurance
(d) Capital Markets
Ans (d) Capital Markets
21Which of the following started production at Indias largest naphtha cracker project recently?
(a) ONGC
(b) Essar Oil
Indian Oil
(d) Reliance Industries Ltd
Ans Indian Oil
22Which of the following is/are correctly matched after RBIs Third Quarter Review of Monetary Policy
2010-11 on January 26, 2011?
I. Repo rate 6.5%
II. Reserve Repo rate 5.5%
III. Cash Reserve Ratio 6%
(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III
Ans (d) I, II and III
(d) Rs 902000 crore

23The union finance Ministry raised the tax collection target for
2010-11 to _________ recently.
(a) Rs 782000 crore
(b) Rs 834000 crore
Rs 871000 crore
(d) Rs 902000 crore
Ans(a) Rs 782000 crore
24 Which of the following became the first oil & Gas Company to find shale gas deposits in India
recently?
(a) Reliance Industries Ltd.
(b) Carin India
Essar Oil
(d) ONGC
Ans (d) ONGC
25 . Who among the following has been recently appointed as chairman of Central
Board of Direct Taxes?
(A)Prakash Chandra
(B)Sudhir Chandra
(C)Satyanand Mishra
(D)Sri Kumar
Ans (A)Prakash Chandra
26 According to the state-wise cotton crop data released by the Agriculture Ministry for 2010-11 on 25
July 2011 which variety of cotton emerged as the largest cotton crop in all the major cotton producing
states?
a. V-797
b. RS2013
c. Digvijay
d. Bt cotton
Ans: (d) Bt cotton
27 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a bid to tame inflationary pressure hiked the short-term indicative
policy rate (repo rate) by 50 basis points on 26 July 2011. The repo rate currently stands at what
percentage?
a. 7%
b. 7.5%
c. 8%
d. 8.5%
Answer: (c) 8%
28The Union government on 26 July 2011 announced restoration of the popular duty entitlement pass
book (DEPB) scheme for export of cotton. Which of the following is/are not true with regard to the
following?
1. Restoration of the popular duty entitlement pass book (DEPB) scheme was announced for export of
cotton with retrospective effect from 1 April 2011 and on cotton yarn from 1 October 2010.
2. Cotton yarn had been placed under Open General Licence for exports from 1 October 2011.
3. Exports of cotton were dis-incentivised by virtue of export tax, following a sharp rise in prices in
January 2011.
4. Restrictions continue to remain on export of cotton, that is, 65 lakh bales this year.
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 & 2
d. Only 4
Ans: (b) Only 2
29Who among the following had written the books Reintegrating India with the
World Economy and Understanding Reforms.?
(A)C Rangrajan
(B)Amartya Sen
(C)Suresh Tendulkar
(D)C K Prahalad
Ans (C)Suresh Tendulkar
30. As per the recent Data released by the Central Statistical Organization, what is India s Percapita
income in 2010-11?
(A)Rs. 54835
(B)Rs. 52165
(C)Rs. 56115
(D)Rs. 50143
Ans (A)Rs. 54835
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31 Who won the womens Kabaddi World Cup championship?

Ans:India
32 Who is expected to visit India with export of gas and investment on agenda?
Ans:Qatars Emir Sheikh Hamad bin Khalifa al Thani
33 Who has been elected as Russian President?

Ans:Vladimir Putin
34. Which 4 financial institutions have agreed to form countrys first $2 billion (about Rs.10,000 crore)
Infrastructure Development Fund to finance infrastructure projects in India?
Ans:Bank of Baroda, ICICI Bank, LIC and Citi Financial
35 Who has been appointed as MD of Hyundai Motor India Ltd.?

Ans:Bo Shin Seo
36. Which Chinese Electric company has started office in India?

Ans:Shangai Electric
37 Which university conferred honoris causa(as honorary academic degree) during its 12th convocation
to the finance minister Pranab Mukherjee?
Ans:Assam University
38 Which Indias leading commodity exchange would be listed on the BSE making it Indias first
exchange to be listed?
Ans:Multi Commodity Exchange
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and Bank based General awareness
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39. Which western India university will start the Institute of International Studies?
Ans:M S University
40 HSBC will sell its general insurance for US $914 million to which 2 companies?
Ans:AXA Group and QBE Insurance Group
41 Against which team India will play one-off Twenty20 International cricket on March 30th 2012 to
commemorate the 150 years of settlement of Indians in that country?
Ans:South Africa
42 Who retained his title of being the worlds richest Indian in Forbes magazines annual list of the
worlds richest people?
Ans:Mukesh Ambani
43 Name the music director king of soft melodies who passed away recently.
Ans:Ravi Shankar Sharma
44 Who has been appointed as head coach of the Pakistan cricket team?
Ans:Dav Whatmore
45 Name the bank that has entered into a partnership with Remit2home to offer Sri Lankans to transfer
money back home.
Ans:Nations Trust Bank
. Where is Kerala a film city is to be built?

Ans:Varikkassery Mana at Ottapalam
46. Who will be appointed as CEO of L&T?

Ans:K Venkataraman
47 Who is appointed as ISI chief of Pakistan Government?

Ans:Lt. Gen. Zaheerul Islam
48. Which Indian NGO has been chosen for Americas first Innovation Award for the Empowerment of
Women and Girls, for training and organising wastepickers and eliminating child labour from recycling?
Ans:Chintan
49 What is the reduced CRR of scheduled banks as revised by RBI at 75 basis points?
Ans:4.75%
50. At what value did Euro zone finance ministers release 2nd bailout package for debt-hit Greece?
Ans:$46.9 billion
51. Where was the International Financial Hub inaugurated in India recently?
Ans:New Town, Kolkata
52. What is the extended number of days for advance reservation of Indian railway tickets?
Ans:120
53 Which state has recorded an increase in foodgrains production that touched 50.22 lakh tonnes
during Kharif 2011 season?
Ans:Haryana
54 Expand NBFC
Ans:Non-Banking Finance Companies
55Who is appointed as Wipros banking head?

Ans:Rajan Ko
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English Language
Directions(Q. 15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given
below it.
Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some
of the questions.
There was a famous temple on a high hill in Assam. The priest of this temple was widely respected and
was known to be a great scholar. When he grew old, he started searching for a younger priest who
could take charge of the temple after his death. But, much to his dismay, he could not find any suitable
person. As the priest lay on his deathbed, he called the trustee of the temple and told him, After my
death, make sure that only a human being replaces me as the priest of this temple. As soon as he
said these words, he died. Information travelled far and wide that the head priest of the famous temple
had died and now there was an urgent need for a replacement. A day was set for the selection of the
successor. That day, starting at dawn, aspirants started trekking the steep and torturous climb to the
temple. The route to the temple was indeed difficult; it was full of thorns, and stones. By the time most
people managed to reach the temple, they had received minor cuts and bruises on their feet and
hands.
After breakfast, the selection process started. The trustee asked all the aspirants to recite difficult
shlokas, or verses from the sacred texts, and explain various procedures of priesthood. By afternoon,
as the selection process was about to end, one young man walked slowly into the temple. The trustee
noticed him and said, Young man, you are very late. What took you so long ? And what happened to
your clothes, why are they torn ? Your feet and hands are bleeding so badly. The man replied, I know
sir, I am late, so I will not participate in the competition. If I have your permission, I will just get my
wounds treated, rest for a while and then go back to my village. But the trustee was curious to know
about this man. He asked again, But how did you manage to hurt yourself so badly, did you not follow
the same route as the others ? Yes sir, I did, replied the man,But I thought I must remove the thorns
and other sharp, stones from the path so that when people come to pray in this temple they must not
get hurt. That is why I got late and that is how I hurt myself. I apologize for the delay, but as I said, I
know I am late and hence I dont wish to participate in the competition. It will not be fair to the others if I
participated. Hearing this, the trustee smiled and said, Congratulations, you have been chosen. I am
sure that when our noble priest was dying and he said that he wanted a human being to be his
successor, he meant that he wanted someone like you. This statement infuriated the other participants.
What do you mean ? they demanded. Are we not humans ? This man just said that he did not wish to
participate. How can you choose him as he has not gone through any of the tests ? The trustee
replied, Our old priest used to say that even animals know how to watch for their self interest; they
know how to avoid danger, search food and so on. Only a human being knows how to watch for other
peoples interests and well being. All of you climbed the same torturous path. But only this man thought
about the others and cleared the path so that no one would get hurt. By this definition, only he qualifies
as a human being and hence only he should be the successor of the great old priest.
1. What happened immediately after the old priest died ?
1. The trustee shut the temple and started mourning for the old priest
2. The trustee took the old priests position and appointed a younger trustee
3. Word spread that there was an urgent need for the old priests successor-Answer
4. Everyone started searching for younger priests
5. Everyone refused to become the old priests successor
2. Why was the old priest looking for a younger priest ?
1. So that the younger priest became his successor 2. So that the old priest had a student
3. So that the younger priest searched for a successor
4. Because in those days younger priests were more educated than older priests
5. Because the trustee wanted a younger priest to take care of the temple-Answer
3. Why was the young man late for the competition ?

1. He had forgotten his way and thus had taken a longer route to the temple
2. He was removing all the stones and thorns from the path which led to the temple-Answer
3. He was giving water to the other participants when they were on their way to the temple
4. He had some household chores to complete
5. He had forgotten all about the competition in the morning
4. What was the trustees decision when the young man gave his explanation for being late ?
1. He immediately selected the young man as the successor to the old priest-Answer
2. He scolded him and said that he should have been careful
3. He asked the young man to go and get his wounds treated
4. He asked the other participants to leave the temple premises
5. He gave a huge sum of money to the young man
5. What was the old priests definition of a human being ?
1. Those who succeed in life and earn a lot of money are human beings
2. Those who watch for other peoples interests and well being are human beings-Answer
3. Those who put stones and thorns in other peoples path are human beings
4. Those who know how to make other people laugh are human beings
5. Those who know how to recite shlokas are human beings
6. How did the other participants react to the trustees decision ?
1. They took it sportingly and learnt a lesson from the incident
2. They congratulated the trustee for being so wise and fair
3. They got angry and objected to the trustee's decision-Answer
4. They decided to get even with the trustee and the young man
5. They cursed the trustee and stomped out of the temple premises
7. What did the trustee ask during the selection process ?
1. He asked the aspirants to recite shlokas and verses from sacred texts
2. He asked the aspirants to explain the various procedures of priesthood
3. He asked the aspirants to give an introduction of themselves
4. He asked the aspirants to tell him the qualities of an ideal priest
5. Both 1. and 2.-Answer
8. What would be an appropriate title for this passage ?
1. The famous temple
2. The old priest
3. The torturous path
4. The true successor -Answer
5. The unjust trustee
9. Why did the young man say that he didn't wish to participate in the competition ?
1. He was scared of losing the competition

2. He was not sure about the duties of priesthood
3. His parents forbade him from becoming a priest
4. He wanted to become the priest of some other temple
5. He was late and did not want to be unfair to others-Answer
10. When did the aspirants get cuts and bruises on their hands and feet ?
1. While they were reciting difficult shlokas and verses
2. While they were going through the selection process
3. While they were talking about the old priest
4. While they were climbing the torturous path that led to the temple-Answer
5. While the trustee was torturing them during the selection process
Directions(Q. 1113) Choose the word / group of words which is most similar in the meaning to the
word / group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. Qualifies
1. Is trained in 2. Meets the criteria-Answer 3. Excels in 4. Is impressive 5. Is dynamic
12. Noticed
1. Recognised 2. Liked 3. Saw -Answer 4. Informed 5. Accepted
13. Demanded
1. Claimed 2. Questioned-Answer 3. Stated 4. Requested 5. Inquired
Directions(Q. 1415) Choose the word / group of words which is most similar in the meaning
to the word / group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. Minor
1. Chief 2. Main 3. Complete 4. Distinct 5. Severe-Answer
15. Torturous
1. Trouble-free-Answer 2. Liberating 3. Exciting 4. Demanding 5. Boring
Directions (Q. 1620)Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or
idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is
the
answer. If there is no error the answer is 5.. (Ignore errors of punctuation if any.)
16. They did not follow the 1. / directions properly so 2. / they had difficult 3. -Answer/ in reaching my
house. 4. No Error 5.
7. The group members 1. / had to suffer a 2. / lot of problems as 3. / their leader were biased. 4.Answer No Error 5.
18. He was supposed 1. / to pick them 2. / up from the airport 3. / but he reaches late. 4-Answer. No
Error 5.
19. He gained admission 1. / to one of the 2-Answer. / best commerce colleges 3. / in the city. 4. No
Error 5.
20. His friends tried 1. / to convince him to 2. / participate in the competition 3. / but he refused. 4. No
Error 5.-Answer
21. The judges were so 1. / impressed by her perform 2.-Answer / that they gave her3. / a standing
ovation. 4. No Error 5.
22. They win the 1-Answer . / match but they 2. / did not play 3. / a fair game. 4. No Error 5.
23. The servant not only 1. / robbed them house 2-Answer . / but also betrayed 3. / their trust. 4. No
Error 5.
24. He have to 1.-Answer / leave on a very 2. / short notice as 3. / it was an emergency. 4. No Error 5.
25. No one is allowed to go 1. / out of the hostel after 9 p.m. 2. / but still some students 3. / sneaks out
last night. 4.-Answer No Error 5.
Directions(Q. 2630) In each question below, four words print in bold type are given. These
are lettered 1., 2., 3. and 4.. One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or
inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly
spelt, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly
spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark 5. i.e. All Correct as your
answer.
26. All the officers 1. were asked 2. to report to duty 3. at sharp 4. 7 a.m. All Correct 5.-Answer
27. She fell ill due 1. to anxiety just 2. one week 3. before the ecsam. 4-Answer . All Correct 5.
28. They requested 1. everyone to take their 2. seats-Answer 3. and maintain silence.4. All Correct 5.
29. They spoke 1. in such a laud 2. -Answer voice that even their neighbours 3. could hear them. 4. All
Correct 5.
30. Manish accused 1. his rival 2. of steeling 3-Answer . his designs. 4. All Correct 5.
Directions(Q. 3135) Rearrange the following 6 sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph then answer the questions given below them.
1. I cant bear it ! he screamed, III pay the fine.
2. After he had received a few strokes he began to turn and twist to avoid the whip.
3. So he paid the fine and was let off, but he became the laughing-stock of the city for having taken
three punishments for one crime.
4. A man was caught stealing a bag of onions and was taken to the court where the judge gave him a
choice of three punishments : eat the stolen onions in one sitting; submit to a hundred lashes of the
whip or pay a fine.
5. I cant eat the onions so give me the lashes instead, he said.
6. The man said he would eat the onions and began confidently, but after eating a few, his eyes began
to burn, his nose started running and his mouth felt as if it was on fire.
31. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence in the rearrangement ?
1. 4 2. 2 3. 1 -Answer 4. 6 5. 5
32. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence in the rearrangement ?
1. 4-Answer 2. 2 3. 3 4. 1 5. 6
33. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence in the rearrangement?
1. 2 2. 5 3. 4 4. 1 5.3-Answer
34. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence in the rearrangement?
1. 1 2. 3-Answer 3. 2 4. 6 5. 4
35. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence in the rearrangement?
1. 2 2. 6-Answer 3. 4 4. 5 5. 1
Directions(Q. 3640) Each sentence below has a blank/s, each blank indicating that something
has been omitted. Choose the word/s that best fit/s the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
36. Wedecidedbuy a new car.
1. have, to-Answer 2. has, is 3. are, in 4. is, to 5. can, are
37. Rohanasleep while watching the film.
1. is 2. found 3. fall 4. fell -Answer 5. find
38. Priti passed her exams with colours.
1. falling 2. seeing 3. different 4. flying-Answer 5. single
39. She translated an English passage to Hindi without using a
1. meaning 2. dictionary -Answer 3. symbols 4. language 5. adjective
40. Tina finds it difficult to talk to people as sheintrovert.
1. was a 2. can the 3. is an -Answer 4. being a 5. thought an
IBPS clerical cadre solved question papers,IBPS aptitude reasoning computer knowledge
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previous years solved question papers
IBPS REASONING ABILITY

1. Four teams, Team A, B, C and D participated in a tournament. Team C scored the least. Team B
scored more than team D but not as much as Team A. Who amongst the four teams scored third
highest ?
1. Team A
2. Team B
3. Team C
4. Team D -Answer
5. Cannot be determined
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JOURNEY each of which has as many letters
between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the
English alphabetical order ?
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three -Answer
5. More than three
3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group, which is the one that does
not belong to that group ?
1. Jute
2. Cotton
3. Wool
4. Silk
5. Rayon-Answer
Directions (Q. 4 and 5) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which
follow
If A B means A is to the South of B.
If A + B means A is to the North of B
If A % B means A is to the East of B
If A B means A is to the West of B.
4. Which of the following means P is to the East of Q ?
1. H % P S + Q
2. Q + R S P
3. P % A Q + B -Answer
4. Q Z % S P
5. None of these
5. In the equation F % Q + R S, S is in which direction with respect to Q ?

1. East
2. South
3. West
4. South-West
5. South-East-Answer
Directions (Q. 6 - 8) The following questions are based on the five four digit numbers given
below 3475 2791 6458 1826 7534
6. What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is subtracted from the third digit of
the second lowest number ?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 6
5. 4-Answer
7. If all the digits in each of the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right within the
number, whichof the following will be the sum of all the four digits of the number which is third highest in
the new arrangement?
1. 19
2. 18
3. 22
4. 17 -Answer
5. 23
8. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the
second lowest number ?
1. 3475
2. 2791
3. 6458
4. 1826
5. 7534-Answer
Directions - (Q. 9 - 13) In each question/set of questions below are statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give
Answers 1. If only conclusion I follows
2. If only conclusion II follows
3. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
4. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
5. If both conclusions I and II follow
1--Answer
9. Statements :
All gems are precious
Some gems are stones.
All stones are diamonds
Conclusions :
I. At least some stones are precious
II. All diamonds are precious.
10. Statements :
All dreams are fantasies.
Some fantasies are pleasant
All pleasant are everlasting
Some everlasting are memories
Conclusions :
I. Some dreams are memories
II. Some fantasies are everlasting
2--Answer
11. Statements :
All black are blue.
All blue are green
All green are emerald
Conclusions :
I. Some emeralds are green
II. All black and blue are green
5-Answer
Directions - (Q. 12 and 13)
Statements :
No design is fashion
All fashions are temporary
Some temporary are permanent
12. Conclusions :
I. Some designs are permanent
II. No fashion is permanent
4-Answer
13. Conclusions :
I. At least some temporary are fashions.
II. At least some temporary are not designs.
5-Answer
Directions - (Q.14 - 17) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions
-Seven trees namely mango, lemon, apple, ashoka, banana, guava and papaya are planted in a
straight row, not necessarily in the same order. (Assume as if the trees are facing North)
a. The papaya tree is planted fourth to the right of the lemon tree
b. The Ashoka tree is planted at the extreme right end of the row
c. The mango and guava trees are immediate neighbours of the lemon tree
d. The banana tree is planted immediately next to the mango tree
14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement
and so forma group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
1. lemon, mango
2. banana, apple
3. mango, banana
4. guava, lemon
5. apple, ashoka-Answer
-Answer
15. Which trees are planted at the extreme ends of the row ?
1. guava, apple
2. lemon, ashoka
3. guava, ashoka -Answer
4. lemon, papaya
5. guava, papaya
16. Which of the following tree is planted exactly in the middle of the row ?
1. papaya
2. mango
3. banana -Answer
4. lemon
5. apple
17. What is the position of the apple tree with respect to the guava tree ?
1. Second to the right
2. Fourth to the right -Answer
3. Immediate left
4. Third to the right
5. Third to the left3
Directions - ( 18 - 21 ) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions A, B, C, D, F, G, H and J are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.
a. D sits exactly between J and F.
b. J sits second to the left of F and second to the right of B.
c. H sits third to the left of G.
d. A is not an immediate neighbour of B.-Answer
18. How many people sit between G and H when counted in an anti-clockwise direction from G ?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four -Answer
5. Five
19. If H : F then J : ?
1. B -Answer
2. F
3. H
4. G
5. None of these
20. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order in anticlock-wise direction, starting from A, the
positions of how many (excluding A) will remain nchanged as compared to their original seating
positions ?
1. None
2. One -Answer
3. Two
4. Three
5. Four
21. In which of the following pairs is the second person sitting to the immediate left of the first person ?
1. GJ
2. FA
3. CH -Answer
4. AH
5. DF
Directions (Q. 22 - 26) Study the following arrangement of digits and symbols carefully and
answer the questions given below 4 3 9 8 7 2 3 4 2 6 8 7 5 4 3 2 9 $ 1 6 5 3 7 # 9 8 6 @ 2 1 4 3
22. How many 2s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a
perfect square ?
(1 is also a perfect square)
1. None
2. One
3. Two -Answer
4. Three
5. Four
23. Which of the following is fifth to the right of the eighteenth from the left end of the above
arrangement ?
1. $
2. 9
3. 2 4. @
5. 6-Answer
24. How many symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded as
well as followed by an even number in the above arrangement ?
1. One
2. Two -Answer
3. Three
4 Four
5. Five
25. If all the digits that are perfect squares are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the
following will be the thirteenth (digit/symbol) from the left end of the above arrangement ?(1 is also a
perfect square)
1. $ 2. 6 3. # 4. 7 5. 5-Answer
26. How many pairs of digits are there in the number highlighted in bold in the above arrangement each
of which has as many digits between them (in both forward and backward directions) as they have
between them in the numerical series ?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four -Answer
5. Five
Directions - (Q. 27 - 30) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by five
combinations of number / symbol codes lettered 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. You have to find out which of
the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding
system and the conditions and mark the letter of that combination as your answer -
Letter P I R S E J L O D N X A B C K
9 5 4 # 3 8 @ 7 2 1 $ 6 Number Symbol code:/ :
Conditions :
(i) If both the first and the fifth elements are vowels, the codes for both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the group of letters contains no vowel, the codes for the first and the last elements are to be
interchanged
(iii) If the third element is a vowel and the fourth a consonant, the fourth element is to be coded as the
code for the second element.
27. JDRALS
1. 8246@# -Answer
2. 8246#@
3. 8264@#
4. 8@426#
5. 2846@#
28. ORNKEL
7@ 1. 314
1@ 2. 374
3@ 3. 741
7@ -Answer4. 341
3@5. 714
29. EPBCOK
-Answer931. 7
972. 3
793. 3
7934.
975. 3
30. RXISCN
1. $45$91
2. 4$9$51
3. 4$5$91 -Answer
4. 4$$951
5. 4$$519
IBPS clerical QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Directions (Q. 1 - 10) : What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions ?
1. (124)2+ 0.4624 = ?
1. 1.7024
2. 154.2224 -Answer
3. 2 4. 1.542
5. None of these
2.
256/ 337 *1011/ 1024 = ?
1. 4/3
2. 3/4-Answer
3. 1/2
4. 2/3
5. None of these
3.961/1681 =?
1. 29/39
2. 31/49
3. 31/41-Answer
4. 21/39
5. None of these
4. 2/7(54*2-6)*?=1/4 of 3024
1. 24
2. 756
3. 92.41
4. 29.41
5. 31.50-Answer
5. 0.006 0.2 0.35 = ?
1. 0.000042
2. 0.00042 -Answer
3. 0.0042
4. 0.000004
2 5. None of these
6. 7 of 64 +(7 +9)?
1. 28
2. 14 -Answer
3. 17
4. 73
5. None of these
7.80/0.4 +0.8/8 = ?
1. 1125
2. 2000 -Answer
3. 200
4. 20
5. None of these
8.of 0.9 =?
1. 0.3
2. 0.0
3 3. 0.949 -Answer
4. 0.992
5. 0.45
9. If 16/49=?/ 49
1. 4
2. 7
3. 16
4. 28 -Answer
5. 29
10. 9 + 99 + 999 + 9999 = ?
1. 111006
2. 11007
3. 12006
4. 11106 -Answer
5. None of these
Directions (Q. 11 - 15) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in
following equations.
11. 35% of 121 + 85% of 230.25 = ?
1. 225
2. 230
3. 240 -Answer
4. 245
5. 228
12. 3.2 8.1 + 3185 / 4.95 = ?
1. 670
2. 660 -Answer
3. 645
4. 690
5. 685
13. 2508 / 15.02 + ? 11 = 200
1. 13
2. 8
3. 3 -Answer
4. 4
5. 6
14. 42.07 7.998 + (?)2 = 202
1. 6
2. 12
3. 32
4. 64
5. 8-Answer
15. 2375.85 / 18.01 4.525 8.05 = ?
1. 105
2. 96
3. 88
4. 94 -Answer
5. 112
Directions (Q.16 - 20) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number
series.
16. 21, 24, 33, 48, 69, 96, ?
1. 129 -Answer
2. 126
3. 132
4. 135
5. None of these
17. 540, 316, 204, 148, 120, 106 ?
1. 92
2. 89
3. 98
4. 99 -Answer
5. None of these
18. 135, 124, 111, 96, 79, 60 ?
1. 37
2. 41
3. 43
4. 35
5. 39-Answer
19. 23, 32, 50, 77, 113, 158 ?
1. 213
2. 212 -Answer
3. 203
4. 221
5. None of these
20. 37, 101, 150, 186, 211, 227, ?
1. 235
2. 231
3. 238
4. 236 -Answer
5. None of these
21. A mixture of 40 litres of milk and water contains 10% water. How much water must be added to
make water 20% in the new mixture ?
1. 9 ltrs
2. 7 ltrs
3. 5 ltrs -Answer
4. 10 ltrs
5. None of these
22. What would be the cost of building a fence around a square plot with area equal to 361 sq.ft. If the
price per foot of building the fence is Rs. 62?
1. Rs.4026
2. Rs. 4712 -Answer
3. Rs. 3948
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these
23. When the price of an item was reduced by 15%, the sale of the item increased by 20%. What was
the effect on the sales
1. 2% increase -Answer
2. 2% decrease
3. 1% increase
4. 1% decrease
5. None of these
24. In how many different ways can the letters of the word TRUST be arranged ?
1. 240
2. 120
3. 80
4. 25
5. 60-Answer
25. Manish travels at the speed of 40 km/hr for 3 hours and the speed of 60 km/hr for 4.5 hours. In this
way he covers three fifths of the total distance. At what average speed should he travel to cover the
remaining distance in 4 hours ?
1. 60 km/hr
2. 70 km/hr
3. 62 km/hr
4. 65 km/hr -Answer
5. None of these
26. An empty pipe can empty 1/4 of a cistern in 15 minutes. In 5 minutes, what part of the cistern will be
emptied?.
1.3/4
2. 1/3
3. 1/2
4. 1/12-Answer
5. None of these
27. Alok, a marine student, has to secure 60% to get first division. He gets 450 marks and misses the
first class by 30 marks. Find the maximum marks
1. 600
2. 650
3. 700
4. 750
5. 800-Answer
28. The difference between simple and compound interests on a certain sum for 3 years at 5% is
Rs.61/- Find the sum
1. Rs.9000
2. Rs.9261
3. Rs. 9200
4. Rs.8000 -Answer
5. None of these
29. The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the two digits
of the number is 9. If the sum of the two digits of the number is 15, then what is the original number?
1. 89
2. 67
3. 87
4. 96
5. None of these-Answer
30. A man has Rs. 480 in the denomination of one-rupee notes, five rupee notes and ten - rupee notes.
The number of notes are equal. What is the total number of notes ?
1. 90 -Answer
2. 75
3. 60
4. 45
5. 30
Directions (Q. 111 - 115) : In each of these questions, two equations numbered I and II are given.
Youhave to solve both the equations and - Give Answer if
1. x < y
2. x < y
3. x > y
4. x > y
5. x = y or the relationship can not be established
Directions (Q. 31 - 35) : Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow :
Number of Females and Males working in five different organisations
31. What is the ratio of the number of females to the number of males from organisation A ?
1. 11 : 8
2. 7 : 6
3. 8 : 11
4. 6 : 7 -Answer
5. None of these
32 The number of males in the Organisation D forms what percent of the total number of employees
from that organisation ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
1. 54.17 -Answer
2. 62.64
3. 52.25
4. 61.47
5. None of these
33. What is the total number of employees working in Organisation C and B together ?
1. 8950
2. 9520
3. 8250
4. 9500
5. 9250-Answer
34. The number of females from Organisation E forms approximately what percent of the total number
of employees from that Organisation ?
1. 58
2. 60
3. 52 -Answer
4. 62
5. 55
35. What is the total number of females from all the Organisations together ?
1. 11540
2. 11750 -Answer
3. 12440
4. 10250
5. None of these
36. The number of females from Organisation E forms approximately what percent of the total
number of employees from that Organisation ?
1. 58
2. 60
3. 52 -Answer
4. 62
5. 55
37 . What is the total number of females from all the Organisations together ?
1. 11540
2. 11750 -Answer
3. 12440
4. 10250
5. None of these
IBPS banking Terms Computer knowledge questions with answers,IBPS previous years
solved question papers,IBPS aptitude, reasoning general awareness computer knowledge
questions with answers
Banking Terms
Anytime Banking
:With introduction of ATMs, Tele-Banking and internet banking, customers can conduct their business
anytime of the day and night. The 'Banking Hours' is not a constraint for transacting banking business.
Anywhere Banking :
Refers to banking not only by ATMs, Tele-Banking and internet banking, but also to core banking
solutions brought in by banks where customer can deposit his money, cheques and also withdraw
money from any branch connected with the system. All major banks in India have brought in core
banking in their operations to make banking truly anywhere banking.
Bank Ombudsman :
Bank Ombudsman is the authority to look into complaints against Banks in the main areas of collection
of cheque / bills, issue of demand drafts, non-adherence to prescribed hours of working, failure to
honour guarantee / letter of credit commitments, operations in deposit accounts and also in the areas of
loans and advances where banks flout directions / instructions of RBI. This Scheme was announced in
1995 and is functioning with new guidelines from 2007. This scheme covers all scheduled banks, the
RRBs and co-operative banks.
Bancassurance :
Bancassurance refers to the distribution of insurance products and the insurance policies of insurance
companies which may be life policies or non-life policies like home insurance - car insurance, medipolicies and others, by banks as corporate agents through their branches located in different parts of
the country by charging a fee.
Banker's Lien :
Bankers lien is a special right of lien exercised by the bankers, who can retain goods bailed to them as
a security for general balance of account. Bankers can have this right in the absence of a contract to
the contrary.
Banking :
Accepting for the purpose of lending or investment of deposits of money from Public, Repayable on
demand or otherwise and withdrawable by cheques, drafts, order, etc.
Basel-II : The Committee on Banking Regulations and Supervisory Practices, popularity known as
Basel Committee, submitted its revised version of norms in June, 2004. Under the revised accord the
capital requirement is to be calculated for credit, market and operational risks. The minimum
requirement continues to be 8% of capital fund (Tier I & II Capital) Tier II shall continue to be not more
than 100% of Tier I Capital.
Brick & Mortar Banking :
Brick and Mortar Banking refers to traditional system of banking done only in a fixed branch premises
made of brick and mortar. Now there are banking channels like ATM, Internet Banking,tele banking etc.
Business of Banking :
Accepting deposits, borrowing money, lending money, investing, dealing in bills, dealing in Foreign
Exchange, Hiring Lockers, Opening Safe Custody Accounts, Issuing Letters of Credit, Traveller's
Cheques, doing Mutual Fund business, Insurance Business, acting as Trustee or doing any other
business which Central Government may notify in the official Gazette.
Bouncing of a cheque :
Where an account does not have sufficient balance to honour the cheque issued by the customer , the
cheque is returned by the bank with the reason "funds insufficient" or "Exceeds arrangement".This is
known as 'Bouncing of a cheque' .
Certificate of Deposit :
Certificate of Deposits are negotiable receipts in bearer form which can be freely traded among
investors. This is also a money market instrument,issued for a period ranging from 7 days to f one
year .The minimum deposit amount is Rs. 1 lakh and they are transferable by endorsement and
delivery.
Cheque :
Cheque is a Bill of Exchange drawn on a specified banker ordering the banker to pay a certain sum of
money to the drawer of cheque or another person. Money is generally withdrawn by clients by cheques.
Cheque is always payable on demand.
Cheque Truncation :
Cheque truncation, truncates or stops the flow of cheques through the banking system. Generally
truncation takes place at the collecting branch, which sends the electronic image of the cheques to the
paying branch through the clearing house and stores the paper cheques with it.
Collecting Banker :
Also called receiving banker, who collects on instruments like a cheque, draft or bill of exchange,
lodged with himself for the credit of his customer's account.
Consumer Protection Act :
It is implemented from 1987 to enforce consumer rights through a simple legalprocedure. Banks also
are covered under the Act. A consumer can file complaint for deficiency of service with Consumer
District Forum for amounts upto Rs.20 Lacs in District Court, and for amounts above Rs.20 Lacs to
Rs.1 Crore in State Commission and for amounts above Rs.1 Crore in National Commission.
Co-operative Bank :
An association of persons who collectively own and operate a bank for the benefit of consumers /
customers, like Saraswat Co-operative Bank or Abhyudaya Co-operative Bank and other such banks.
Co-operative Society : When an association of persons collectively own and operate a unit for the
benefit of those using its services like Apna Bazar Co-operative Society or Sahakar Bhandar or a Cooperative Housing Society.
Core Banking Solutions (CBS) :
Core Banking Solutions is a buzz word in Indian banking at present, where branches of the bank are
connected to a central host and the customers of connected branches can do banking at any breach
with core banking facility.
Creditworthiness :
It is the capacity of a borrower to repay the loan / advance in time alongwith interest as per agreed
terms.
Crossing of Cheques :
Crossing refers to drawing two parallel lines across the face of the cheque.A crossed cheque cannot be
paid in cash across the counter, and is to be paid through a bank either by transfer, collection or
clearing.A general crossing means that cheque can be paid through any bank and a special crossing,
where the name of a bank is indicated on the cheque, can be paid only through the named bank.
Current Account :
Current account with a bank can be opened generally for business purpose. There are no restrictions
on withdrawals in this type of account. No interest is paid in this type of account.
Customer :
A person who maintains any type of account with a bank is a bank customer. Consumer Protection Act
has a wider definition for consumer as the one who purchases any service for a fee like purchasing a
demand draft or a pay order. The term customer is defined differently by Laws, softwares and countries.
Debit Card :
A plastic card issued by banks to customers to withdraw money electronically from their accounts.
When you purchase things on the basis of Debit Card the amount due is debited immediately to the
account . Many banks issue Debit-Cum-ATM Cards.
Debtor :
A person who takes some money on loan from another person.
Demand Deposits :
Deposits which are withdrawn on demand by customers.E.g. savings bank and current account
deposits.
Demat Account :
Demat Account concept has revolutionized the capital market of India. When a depository company
takes paper shares from an investor and converts them in electronic form through the concerned
company, it is called Dematerialization of Shares. These converted Share Certificates in Electronic form
are kept in a Demat Account by the Depository Company, like a bank keeps money in a deposit
account. Investor can withdraw the shares or purchase more shares through this demat Account.
Dishonour of Cheque :
Non-payment of a cheque by the paying banker with a return memo giving reasons for the nonpayment.
Debit Card : A plastic card issued by banks to customers to withdraw money electronically from their
accounts. When you purchase things on the basis of Debit Card the amount due is debited immediately
to the account . Many banks issue Debit-Cum-ATM Cards.
E-Banking :
E-Banking or electronic banking is a form of banking where funds are transferred through exchange of
electronic signals between banks and financial institution and customers ATMs, Credit Cards, Debit
Cards, International Cards, Internet Banking and new fund transfer devices like SWIFT, RTGS belong
to this category.
EFT (Electronic Fund Transfer) : EFT is a device to facilitate automatic transmission and processing of
messages as well as funds from one bank branch to another bank branch and even from one branch of
a bank to a branch of another bank. EFT allows transfer of funds electronically with debit and credit to
relative accounts.
Either or Survivor :
Refers to operation of the account opened in two names with a bank. It means that any one of the
account holders have powers to withdraw money from the account, issue cheques, give stop payment
instructions etc. In the event of death of one of the account holder, the surviving account holder gets all
the powers of operation.

Electronic Commerce (E-Commerce):
E-Commerce is the paperless commerce where the exchange of business takes place by Electronic
means.
Endorsement :
When a Negotiable Instrument contains, on the back of the instrument an endorsement, signed by the
holder or payee of an order instrument, transferring the title to the other person, it is called
endorsement.
Endorsement in Blank :
Where the name of the endorsee or transferee is not mentioned on the instrument.
Endorsement in Full :
Where the name of the endorsee or transferee appears on the instrument while making endorsement.
Execution of Documents :
Execution of documents is done by putting signature of the person, or affixing his thumb impression or
putting signature with stamp or affixing common seal of the company on the documents with or without
signatures of directors as per articles of association of the company.
Factoring :
Business of buying trade debts at a discount and making a profit when debt is realized and also taking
over collection of trade debts at agreed prices.
Foreign Banks :
Banks incorporated outside India but operating in India and regulated by the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI),. e..g., Barclays Bank, HSBC, Citibank, Standard Chartered Bank, etc.
Forfaiting :
In International Trade when an exporter finds it difficult to realize money from the importer, he sells the
right to receive money at a discount to a forfaiter, who undertakes inherent political and commercial
risks to finance the exporter, of course with assumption of a profit in the venture.
Forgery :
when a material alteration is made on a document or a Negotiable Instrument like a cheque, to change
the mandate of the drawer, with intention to defraud.
Garnishee Order :
When a Court directs a bank to attach the funds to the credit of customer's account under provisions of
Section 60 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
General Lien :
A right of the creditors to retain possession of all goods given in security to him by the debtor for any
outstanding debt.
Guarantee :
A contract between guarantor and beneficiary to ensure performance of a promise or discharge the
liability of a third person. If promise is broken or not performed, the guarantor pays contracted amount
to the beneficiary.
Holder : Holder means any person entitled in his own name to the possession of the cheque, bill of
exchange or promissory note and who is entitled to receive or recover the amount due on it from the
parties. For example, if I give a cheque to my friend to withdraw money from my bank,he becomes
holder of that cheque. Even if he loses the cheque, he continues to be holder. Finder cannot become
the holder.
Holder in due course :

A person who receives a Negotiable Instrument for value, before it was due and in good faith, without
notice of any defect in it, he is called holder in due course as per Negotiable Instrument Act. In the
earlier example if my friend lends some money to me on the basis of the cheque, which I have given to
him for encashment, he becomes holder-in-due course.
Hypothecation :
Charge against property for an amount of debt where neither ownership nor possession is passed to
the creditor. In pledge, possession of property is passed on to the lender but in hypothecation, the
property remains with the borrower in trust for the lender.
Identification :
When a person provides a document to a bank or is being identified by a person, who is known to the
bank, it is called identification. Banks ask for identification before paying an order cheque or a demand
draft across the counter.
Indemnifier :
When a person indemnifies or guarantees to make good any loss caused to the lender from his actions
or others' actions.
Indemnity :
Indemnity is a bond where the indemnifier undertakes to reimburse the beneficiary from any loss arising
due to his actions or third party actions.
Insolvent :
Insolvent is a person who is unable to pay his debts as they mature, as his liabilities are more than the
assets . Civil Courts declare such persons insolvent. Banks do not open accounts of insolvent persons
as they cannot enter into contract as per law.

Interest Warrant :
When cheque is given by a company or an organization in payment of interest on deposit , it is called
interest warrant. Interest warrant has all the characteristics of a cheque.
International Banking :
involves more than two nations or countries. If an Indian Bank has branches in different countries like
State Bank of India, it is said to do International Banking.
Introduction :
Banks are careful in opening any account for a customer as the prospective customer has to be
introduced by an existing account holder or a staff member or by any other person known to the bank
for opening of account. If bank does not take introduction, it will amount to negligence and will not get
protection under law.
JHF Account :
Joint Hindu Family Account is account of a firm whose business is carried out by Karta of the Joint
family, acting for all the family members.. The family members have common ancestor and generally
maintain a common residence and are subject to common social, economic and religious regulations.
Joint Account :
When two or more individuals jointly open an account with a bank.
Karta :
Manager of a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) who handles the family business. He is usually the eldest
male member of the undivided family.
Kiosk Banking :
Doing banking from a cubicle from which food, newspapers, tickets etc. are also sold.
KYC Norms:
Know your customer norms are imposed by R.B.I. on banks and other financial institutions to ensure
that they know their customers and to ensure that customers deal only in legitimate banking operations
and not in money laundering or frauds.
Law of Limitation :
Limitation Act of 1963 fixes the limitation period of debts and obligations including banks loans and
advances. If the period fixed for particular debt or loan expires, one can not file a suit for is recovery, but
the fact of the debt or loan is not denied. It is said that law of limitation bars the remedy but does not
extinguish the right.
Lease Financing :
Financing for the business of renting houses or lands for a specified period of time and also hiring out
of an asset for the duration of its economic life. Leasing of a car or heavy machinery for a specific
period at specific price is an example.
Letter of Credit :
A document issued by importers bank to its branch or agent abroad authorizing the payment of a
specified sum to a person named in Letter of Credit (usually exporter from abroad). Letters of Credit are
covered by rules framed under Uniform Customs and Practices of Documentary Credits framed by
International Chamber of Commerce in Paris.
Limited Companies Accounts :
Accounts of companies incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956 . A company may be private or
public. Liability of the shareholders of a company is generally limited to the face value of shares held by
them
.
Mandate :
Written authority issued by a customer to another person to act on his behalf, to sign cheques or to
operate a bank account.
Material Alteration :
Alteration in an instrument so as to alter the character of an instrument for example when date, amount,
name of the payee are altered or making a cheque payable to bearer from an order one or opening the
crossing on a cheque.
Merchant Banking :
When a bank provides to a customer various types of financial services like accepting bills arising out of
trade, arranging and providing underwriting, new issues, providing advice, information or assistance on
starting new business, acquisitions, mergers and foreign exchange.
Micro Finance:
Micro Finance aims at alleviation of poverty and empowerment of weaker sections in India. In micro
finance, very small amounts are given as credit to poor in rural, semi-urban and urban areas to enable
them to raise their income levels and improve living standards.
Minor Accounts :
A minor is a person who has not attained legal age of 18 years. As per Contract Act a minor cannot
enter into a contract but as per Negotiable Instrument Act, a minor can draw, negotiate, endorse,
receive payment on a Negotiable Instrument so as to bind all the persons, except himself. In order to
boost their deposits many banks open minor accounts with some restrictions.
Mobile Banking : With the help of M-Banking or mobile banking customer can check his bank balance,
order a demand draft, stop payment of a cheque, request for a cheque book and have information
about latest interest rates.
Money Laundering :
When a customer uses banking channels to cover up his suspicious and unlawful financial activities, it
is called money laundering.

Money Market :
Money market is not an organized market like Bombay Stock Exchange but is an informal network of
banks, financial institutions who deal in money market instruments of short term like CP, CD and
Treasury bills of Government.
Moratorium :
R.B.I. imposes moratorium on operations of a bank; if the affairs of the bank are not conducted as per
banking norms. After moratorium R.B.I. and Government explore the options of safeguarding the
interests of depositors by way of change in management, amalgamation or take over or by other
means.
Mortgage :
Transfer of an interest in specific immovable property for the purpose of offering a security for taking a
loan or advance from another. It may be existing or future debt or performance of an agreement which
may create monetary obligation for the transferor (mortgagor).
NABARD :
National Bank for Agriculture & Rural Development was setup in 1982 under the Act of 1981. NABARD
finances and regulates rural financing and also is responsible for development agriculture and rural
industries.
Negotiation :
In the context of banking, negotiation means an act of transferring or assigning a money instrument
from one person to another person in the course of business.
Non-Fund Based Limits :
Non-Fund Based Limits are those type of limits where banker does not part with the funds but may
have to part with funds in case of default by the borrowers, like guarantees, letter of credit and
acceptance facility.
Non-Resident :
A person who is not a resident of India is a non-resident.
Non-Resident Accounts :
Accounts of non-resident Indian citizens opened and maintained as per R.B.I. Rules.
Notary Public :
A Lawyer who is authorized by Government to certify copies of documents .
NPA Account :
If interest and instalments and other bank dues are not paid in any loan account within a specified time
limit, it is being treated as non-performing assets of a bank.
Off Balance Sheet Items :

Those items which affect the financial position of a business concern, but do not appear in the Balance
Sheet E,g guarantees, letters of credit . The mention "off Balance Sheet items" is often found in
Auditors Reports or Directors Reports.
Online Banking :
Banking through internet site of the bank which is made interactive.
Pass Book :
A record of all debit and credit entries in a customer's account. Generally all banks issue pass books to
Savings Bank/Current Account Holders.
Personal Identification Number (PIN) :
Personal Identification Number is a number which an ATM card holder has to key in before he is
authorized to do any banking transaction in a ATM .
Plastic Money :
Credit Cards, Debit Cards, ATM Cards and International Cards are considered plastic money as like
money they can enable us to get goods and services.
Pledge :
A bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise, e.g pledge of stock
by a borrower to a banker for a credit limit. Pledge can be made in movable goods only.
Post-Dated Cheque :
A Cheque which bears the date which is subsequent to the date when it is drawn. For example, a
cheque drawn on 8th of February, 2007 bears the date of 12th February, 2007.
Power of Attorney :
It is a document executed by one person - Donor or Principal, in favour of another person , Donee or
Agent - to act on behalf of the former, strictly as per authority given in the document.
Premature Withdrawals :
Term deposits like Fixed Deposits, Call Deposits, Short Deposits and Recurring Deposits have to
mature on a particular day. When these deposits are sought to be withdrawn before maturity , it is
premature withdrawal.
Prime Lending Rate (PLR) : The rate at which banks lend to their best (prime) customers.
Priority Sector Advances :
consist of loans and advances to Agriculture, Small Scale Industry, Small Road and Water Transport
Operators, Retail Trade, Small Business with limits on investment in equipments, professional and self
employed persons, state sponsored organisations for lending to SC/ST, Educational Loans, Housing
Finance up to certain limits, self-help groups and consumption loans.

Promissory Note :
Promissory Note is a promise / undertaking given by one person in writing to another person, to pay to
that person , a certain sum of money on demand or on a future day.
Provisioning :
Provisioning is made for the likely loss in the profit and loss account while finalizing accounts of banks.
All banks are supposed to make assets classification . and make appropriate provisions for likely losses
in their balance sheets.
Public Sector Bank :
A bank fully or partly owned by the Government.
Rescheduling of Payment :
Rearranging the repayment of a debt over a longer period than originally agreed upon due to financial
difficulties of the borrower.
Restrictive Endorsement :
Where endorser desires that instrument is to be paid to particular person only, he restricts further
negotiation or transfer by such words as "Pay to Ashok only". Now Ashok cannot negotiate the
instrument further.
Right of Appropriation :
As per Section 59 of the Indian Contract Act, 1972 while making the payment, a debtor has the right to
direct his creditor to appropriate such amount against discharge of some particular debt. If the debtor
does not do so, the banker can appropriate the payment to any debt of his customer.
Right of Set-Off :
When a banker combines two accounts in the name of the same customer and adjusts the debit
balance in one account with the credit balance in other account, it is called right of set-off. For example,
debit balance of Rs.50,000/- in overdraft account can be set off against credit balance of Rs.75,000/- in
the Savings Bank Account of the same customer, leaving a balance of Rs.25,000/- credit in the savings
account.
Safe Custody : When articles of value like jewellery, boxes, shares, debentures, Government bonds,
Wills or other documents or articles are given to a bank for safe keeping in its safe vault,it is called safe
custody.. Bank charges a fee from its clients for such safe custody.
Savings Bank Account :
All banks in India are having the facility of opening savings bank account with a nominal balance. This
account is used for personal purposes and not for business purpose and there are certain restrictions
on withdrawals from this type of account. Account holder gets nominal interest in this account.
Teller : Teller is a staff member of a bank who accepts deposits, cashes cheques and performs other
banking services for the public.

Underwriting :
is an agreement by the underwriter to buy on a fixed date and at a fixed rate, the unsubscribed portion
of shares or debentures or other issues. Underwriter gets commission for this agreement.
Universal Banking :
When Banks and Financial Institutions are allowed to undertake all types of activities related to banking
like acceptance of deposits, granting of advances, investment, issue of credit cards, project finance,
venture capital finance, foreign exchange business, insurance etc. it is called Universal Banking.
Virtual Banking :
Virtual banking is also called internet banking, through which financial and banking services are
accessed via internet's world wide web. It is called virtual banking because an internet bank has no
boundaries of brick and mortar and it exists only on the internet.
Wholesale Banking :
Wholesale banking is different from Retail Banking as its focus is on providing for financial needs of
industry and institutional clients.
What is Open Market operations(OMO)?
The buying and selling of government securities in the open market in order to expand or contract the
amount of money in the banking system by RBI. Open market operations are the principal tools of
monetary policy.
What is Micro Credit?
It is a term used to extend small loans to very poor people for self-employment projects that generate
income, allowing them to care for themselves and their families.
What is Liquidity Adjustment Facility(LAF)?
A tool used in monetary policy that allows banks to borrow money through repurchase agreements.
This arrangement allows banks to respond to liquidity pressures and is used by governments to assure
basic stability in the financial markets.
What is RTGS System?
The acronym RTGS stands for Real Time Gross Settlement. RTGS system is a funds transfer
mechanism where transfer of money takes place from one bank to another on a real time and on
gross basis. This is the fastest possible money transfer system through the banking channel.
Settlement in real time means payment transaction is not subjected to any waiting period. The
transactions are settled as soon as they are processed. Gross settlement means the transaction is
settled on one to one basis without bunching with any other transaction.
What is Bancassurance?
It is the term used to describe the partnership or relationship between a bank and an insurance
company whereby the insurance company uses the bank sales channel in order to sell insurance
products.
What is Wholesale Price Index(WPI)?
The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is the index used to measure the changes in the average price level
of goods traded in wholesale market. A total of 435 commodity prices make up the index. It is available
on a weekly basis. It is generally taken as an indicator of the inflation rate in the Indian economy. The
Indian Wholesale Price Index (WPI) was first published in 1902, and was used by policy makers until it
was replaced by the Producer Price Index (PPI) in 1978.
What is Consumer price Index(CPI)?
It is a measure estimating the average price of consumer goods and services purchased by
households.
What is Venture Capital?
Venture capital is money provided by an outside investor to finance a new, growing, or troubled
business. The venture capitalist provides the funding knowing that theres a significant risk associated
with the companys future profits and cash flow. Capital is invested in exchange for an equity stake in
the business rather than given as a loan, and the investor hopes the investment will yield a better-thanaverage return.
What is a Treasury Bills?
Treasury Bills (T-Bills) are short term, Rupee denominated obligations issued by the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) on behalf of the Government of India. They are thus useful in managing short-term liquidity.
At present, the Government of India issues three types of treasury bills through auctions, namely, 91day, 182-day and 364-day. There are no treasury bills issued by State Governments.
What is Banking Ombudsmen Scheme?
The Banking Ombudsman Scheme enables an expeditious and inexpensive forum to bank customers
for resolution of complaints relating to certain services rendered by banks.
The Banking Ombudsman is a senior official appointed by the Reserve Bank of India to redress
customer complaints against deficiency in certain banking services.
The Banking Ombudsman Scheme was first introduced in India in 1995, and was revised in 2002. The
current scheme became operative from the 1 January 2006, and replaced and superseded the banking
Ombudsman Scheme 2002.
What is Subsidy?
A subsidy is a form of financial assistance paid to a business or economic sector. Most subsidies are
made by the government to producers or distributors in an industry to prevent the decline of that
industry or an increase in the prices of its products or to encourage it to hire more labor.
What is a Debenture? How many types of debentures are there? What are they?
A debenture is basically an unsecured loan to a corporation. A type of debt instrument that is not
secured by physical asset. Debentures are backed only by the general creditworthiness and reputation
of the issuer.
i)Convertible Debentures: Any type of debenture that can be converted into some other security or it
can be converted into stock..
ii)Non-Convertibility Debentures(NCB): Non Convertible Debentures are those that cannot be converted
into equity shares of the issuing company, as opposed to Convertible debentures. Non-convertible
debentures normally earn a higher interest rate than convertible debentures do.
What is a hedge fund?
Hedge means to reduce financial risk.
A hedge fund is an investment fund open to a limited range of investors and requires a very large initial
minimum investment. It is important to note that hedging is actually the practice of attempting to reduce
risk, but the goal of most hedge funds is to maximize return on investment.
What is FCCB?
A Foreign Currency Convertible Bond (FCCB) is a type of convertible bond issued in a currency
different than the issuers domestic currency. In other words, the money being raised by the issuing
company is in the form of a foreign currency. A company may issue an FCCB if it intends to make a
large investment in a country using that foreign currency.
What is Capital Account Convertibility(CAC)?
It is the freedom to convert local financial assets into foreign financial assets and vice versa at market
determined rates of exchange. This means that capital account convertibility allows anyone to freely
move from local currency into foreign currency and back.
The Reserve Bank of India has appointed a committee to set out the framework for fuller Capital
Account Convertibility.
Capital account convertibility is considered to be one of the major features of a developed economy. It
helps attract foreign investment. capital account convertibility makes it easier for domestic companies
to tap foreign markets.
What is Current Account Convertibility?
It defines at one can import and export goods or receive or make payments for services rendered.
However, investments and borrowings are restricted.
What is Arbitrage?
The opportunity to buy an asset at a low price then immediately selling it on a different market for a
higher price.
What is Capitalism?
Capitalism as an economy is based on a democratic political ideology and produces a free market
economy, where businesses are privately owned and operated for profit; in capitalism, all of the capital
investments and decisions about production, distribution, and the prices of goods, services, and labor,
are determined in the free market and affected by the forces of supply and demand.
What is Socialism?
Socialism as an economy is based on a collectivist type of political ideology and involves the running of
businesses to benefit the common good of a vast majority of people rather than of a small upper class
segment of society.
What is corporate governance?
The way in which a company is governed and how it deals with the various interests of its customers,
shareholders, employees and society at large. Corporate governance is the set of processes, customs,
policies, laws, and institutions affecting the way a corporation (or company) is directed, administered or
controlled.Is defined as the general set of customs, regulations, habits, and laws that determine to what
end a firm should be run.
Functions of RBI?
The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank of India, was established on April 1, 1935 in accordance
with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The Reserve Bank of India was set up on
the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission. The commission submitted its report in the year
1926, though the bank was not set up for nine years.To regulate the issue of Bank Notes and keeping
of reserves with a view to securing monetary stability in India and generally to operate the currency and
credit system of the country to its advantage. Banker to the Government: performs merchant banking
function for the central and the state governments; also acts as their banker.Banker to banks: maintains
banking accounts of all scheduled banks.
What is monetary policy?
A Monetary policy is the process by which the government, central bank, of a country controls (i) the
supply of money, (ii) availability of money, and (iii) cost of money or rate of interest, in order to attain a
set of objectives oriented towards the growth and stability of the economy.
What is Fiscal Policy?
Fiscal policy is the use of government spending and revenue collection to influence the economy.
These policies affect tax rates, interest rates and government spending, in an effort to control the
economy. Fiscal policy is an additional method to determine public revenue and public expenditure.
What is Core Banking Solutions?
Core banking is a general term used to describe the services provided by a group of networked bank
branches. Bank customers may access their funds and other simple transactions from any of the
member branch offices. It will cut down time, working simultaneously on different issues and increasing
efficiency. The platform where communication technology and information technology are merged to
suit core needs of banking is known as Core Banking Solutions.
What is bank and its features and types?
A bank is a financial organization where people deposit their money to keep it safe.Banks play an
important role in the financial system and the economy. As a key component of the financial system,
banks allocate funds from savers to borrowers in an efficient manner.
Regional Rural Banks were established with an objective to ensure sufficient institutional credit for
agriculture and other rural sectors. The RRBs mobilizefinancial resources from rural / semi-urban areas
and grant loans and advancesmostly to small and marginal farmers, agricultural labourers and rural
artisans. The area of operation of RRBs is limited to the area as notified by GoI covering one or more
districts in the State.
ii. Banking services for individual customers is known as retail banking.
iii. A bank that deals mostly in but international finance, long-term loans for companies and
underwriting. Merchant banks do not provide regular banking services to the general public
iv. Online banking (or Internet banking) allows customers to conduct financial transactions on a secure
website operated by their retail or virtual bank.
v. Mobile Banking is a service that allows you to do banking transactions on your mobile phone without
making a call , using the SMS facility. Is a term used for performing balance checks, account
transactions, payments etc. via a mobile device such as a mobile phone.
vi. Traditional banking is the normal bank accounts we have. Like, put your money in the bank and they
act as a security and you will get only the normal interests (decided by RBI in our case, FED bank in
US).
vii. Investment banking is entirely different. Here, people who are having so much money (money in
excess which will yield only less interest if in Banks) will invest their money and get higher returns. For
example, If i have more money instead of taking the pain of investing in share market, buying properties
etc. I will give to investment banks and they will do the money management and give me higher
returns when compared to traditional banks.
What is E-Governance?
E-Governance is the public sectors use of information and communication technologies with the aim of
improving information and service delivery, encouraging citizen participation in the decision-making
process and making government more accountable,transparent and effective.
What is Right to information Act?
The Right to Information act is a law enacted by the Parliament of India giving citizens of India access
to records of the Central Government and State overnments.The Act applies to all States and Union
Territories of India, except the State of Jammu and Kashmir which is covered under a State-level law.
This law was passed by Parliament on 15 June 2005 and came fully into force on 13 October 2005.
Credit Rating Agencies in India?
The credit rating agencies in India mainly include ICRA and CRISIL. ICRA wasformerly referred to the
Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency of India Limited. Their main function is to grade the
different sector and companies in terms of performance and offer solutions for up gradation. The credit
rating agencies in India mainly include ICRA and CRISIL(Credit Rating Information Services of India
Limited)
What is demand Draft?
A demand draft is an instrument used for effecting transfer of money. It is a Negotiable Instrument.
Cheque and Demand-Draft both are used for Transfer of money. You can 100% trust a DD. It is a
bankers check. A check may be dishonored for lack of funds a DD can not. Cheque is written by an
individual and Demand draft is issued by a bank. People believe banks more than individuals.
What is a NBFC?
A non-banking financial company (NBFC) is a company registered under the
Companies Act, 1956 and is engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of
shares/stock/bonds/debentures/securities issued by government, but does not include any institution
whose principal business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, sale/purchase/construction of
immovable property.
NBFCs are doing functions akin to that of banks; however there are a few differences:
(i)A NBFC cannot accept demand deposits (demand deposits are funds deposited at a depository
institution that are payable on demand immediately or within a very short period like your current
or savings accounts.)
(ii) it is not a part of the payment and settlement system and as such cannot issue cheques to its
customers; and
(iii) Deposit insurance facility of DICGC is not available for NBFC depositors unlike in case of banks.
Diff between banking & Finance?
Finance is generally related to all types of financial, this could be accounting, insurances and policies.
Whereas banking is everything that happens in a bank only.The term Banking and Finance are two very
different terms but are often associated together. These two terms are often used to denote services
that a bank and other financial institutions provide to its customers.
What is NASSCOM ?
The National Association of Software and Services Companies (NASSCOM), the Indian chamber of
commerce is a consortium that serves as an interface to the Indian software industry and Indian BPO
industry. Maintaining close interaction with the Government of India in formulating National IT policies
with specific focus on IT software and services maintaining a state of the art information database of IT
software and services related activities for use of both the software developers as well as interested
companies overseas. Mr. Som Mittal President. Chairman-Pramod Bhasin
What is ASSOCHAM?
The Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM), Indias premier apex
chamber covers a membership of over 2 lakh companies and professionals across the country. It was
established in 1920 by promoter chambers, representing all regions of India. As an apex industry body,
ASSOCHAM represents the interests of industry and trade, interfaces with Government on policy
issues and interacts with counterpart international organizations to promote bilateral economic issues.
President-Swati Piramal
What is NABARD?
NABARD was established by an act of Parliament on 12 July 1982 to implement the National Bank for
Agriculture and Rural Development Act 1981. It replaced the Agricultural Credit Department (ACD) and
Rural Planning and Credit Cell (RPCC) of Reserve Bank of India, and Agricultural Refinance and
Development Corporation (ARDC). It is one of the premiere agency to provide credit in rural areas.
NABARD is set up as an apex Development Bank with a mandate for facilitating credit flow for
promotion and development of agriculture, small-scale industries, cottage and village industries,
handicrafts and other rural crafts.
What is SIDBI?
The Small Industries Development Bank of India is a state-run bank aimed to aid the growth and
development of micro, small and medium scale industries in India. Set up in 1990 through an act of
parliament, it was incorporated initially as a wholly owned subsidiary of Industrial Development Bank of
India.
What is SENSEX and NIFTY?
SENSEX is the short term for the words Sensitive Index and is associated with the Bombay (Mumbai)
Stock Exchange (BSE). The SENSEX was first formed on 1-1-1986 and used the market capitalization
of the 30 most traded stocks of BSE. Where as NSE has 50 most traded stocks of NSE.SENSEX IS
THE INDEX OF BSE. AND NIFTY IS THE INDEX OF NSE.BOTH WILL SHOW DAILY TRADING
MARKS. Sensex and Nifty both are an index. An index is basically an indicator it indicates whether
most of the stocks have gone up or most of the stocks have gone down.
What is SEBI?
SEBI is the regulator for the Securities Market in India. Originally set up by the
Government of India in 1988, it acquired statutory form in 1992 with SEBI Act 1992 being passed by the
Indian Parliament. Chaired by C B Bhave.
What is Mutual funds?
Mutual funds are investment companies that pool money from investors at large and offer to sell and
buy back its shares on a continuous basis and use the capital thus raised to invest in securities of
different companies. The mutual fund will have a fund manager that trades the pooled money on a
regular basis. The net proceeds or losses are then typically distributed to the investors annually.
What is Asset Management Companies?
A company that invests its clients pooled fund into securities that match its declared financial
objectives. Asset management companies provide investors with more diversification and investing
options than they would have by themselves. Mutual funds, hedge funds and pension plans are all run
by asset management companies. These companies earn income by charging service fees to their
clients.
What are non-perfoming assets?
Non-performing assets, also called non-performing loans, are loans,made by a bank or finance
company, on which repayments or interest payments are not being made on time. A debt obligation
where the borrower has not paid any previously agreed upon interest and principal repayments to the
designated lender for an extended period of time. The nonperforming asset is therefore not yielding any
income to the lender in the form of principal and interest payments.
What is Recession?
A true economic recession can only be confirmed if GDP (Gross Domestic Product)growth is negative
for a period of two or more consecutive quarters.
What is foreign exchange reservers?

Foreign exchange reserves (also called Forex reserves) in a strict sense are only the foreign currency
deposits and bonds held by central banks and monetary authorities.However, the term in popular usage
commonly includes foreign exchange and gold,SDRs and IMF reserve positions.
IBPS computer knowledge objective type questions
1. UNIVAC is
a. Universal Automatic Computer
b. Universal Array Computer
c. Unique Automatic Computer
d. Unvalued Automatic Computer
Explanation: There are no computers with the name as in other options. UNIVAC was the first
general purpose electronic digital computer designed for commercial use, produced by
Universal Accounting Company of John
Mauchly and J.P.Eckert in 1951.
2. CD-ROM stands for
a. Compactable Read Only Memory
b. Compact Data Read Only Memory
c. Compactable Disk Read Only Memory
d. Compact Disk Read Only Memory
Correct Answer: d. Compact Disk Read Only Memory
Explanation: There are no objects with the name as in other options. CD-ROM is a non-volatile
optical data storage medium using the same physical format as audio compact disk, readable
by a computer with a CD-ROM
drive. The standard 12 cm diameter CD-ROM store about 660 megabytes.
3. ALU is
a. Arithmetic Logic Unit
b. Array Logic Unit
c. Application Logic Unit
d. None of above
Explanation: ALU is a unit in Central Processing Unit in a computer system that is responsible
for arithmetic calculations and logical operations. Apart from ALU, the CPU contains MU
(Memory Unit) and CU (Control Unit).
4. VGA is
a. Video Graphics Array
b. Visual Graphics Array
c. Volatile Graphics Array

d. Video Graphics Adapter
Explanation: VGA is a type of Graphics Adapter. Graphic Adapter is an electronic board that
controls the display of a monitor. This device helps the motherboard to work with the monitor
and in VGA and SVGA the last letter
A stands for Array whereas in MDA, CGA, MCGA the last letter A stands for Adapter.
5. IBM 1401 is
a. First Generation Computer
b. Second Generation Computer
c. Third Generation Computer
d. Fourth Generation Computer
Explanation: IBM 1401 is a Second Generation Computer and is the first computer to enter
Nepal in 2028 BS for census. Government of Nepal had brought this computer on rent and later
purchased for data processing in
Bureau of Statistics. After this computer, another ICL 2950/10, a British computer, was
purchased by the fund of UNDP and UNFPA for the census of 2038 BS is second computer in
Nepal.
6. MSI stands for
a. Medium Scale Integrated Circuits
b. Medium System Integrated Circuits
c. Medium Scale Intelligent Circuit
d. Medium System Intelligent Circuit
Explanation: After the invention of IC chips the development of computers plunged into next
phase. Small Scale Integration and Medium Scale Integration (SSI and MSI) were used in third
generation of computers and Large
Scale Integration and Very Large Scale Integration (LSI and VLSI) are being used in fourth
generation of computers. People are now expecting ULSI (Ultra Large Scale Integration) Circuits
to be used for fifth generation
computers.
7. The capacity of 3.5 inch floppy disk is
a. 1.40 MB
b. 1.44 GB
c. 1.40 GB
d. 1.44 MB
Explanation: Microfloppy disks (3.5 inch) if it is high density (MF2HD) can store 1.44 MB and if it
is low density (MF2DD), it can store 720 KB. Mini Floppy disks (5.25 inch) if it is high density
(MD2HD) can store 1.2 MB and low
density (MD2DD) stores 360 KB of data.
8. The first computer introduced in Nepal was
a. IBM 1400
b. IBM 1401
c. IBM 1402
d. IBM1402
Explanation: IBM 1401, a second generation computer was brought in Nepal by the Government
of Nepal paying One Lakh and twenty five thousands per month to use in the census in 2028
B.S. Before this computer, Nepal
was using a calculating device called Facit for statistical tasks.
9. WAN stands for
a. Wap Area Network
b. Wide Area Network
c. Wide Array Net
d. Wireless Area Network
Explanation: There are three different classes of computer network namely, Local Area Network (LAN)
that covers a small geographical area such as a room, a building or a compound; Metropolitan Area
Network (MAN) that
has a citywide coverage; and Wide Area Network (WAN) that covers the whole globe or beyond
the globe.
10. MICR stands for
a. Magnetic Ink Character Reader
b. Magnetic Ink Code Reader
c. Magnetic Ink Cases Reader
d. None
Explanation: MICR (Magnetic Ink Character Reader) is kind of scanner that can scan and identify
the writing of magnetic ink. This device is used in banks to verify signatures in Checks.
11. EBCDIC stands for
a. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
b. Extended Bit Code Decimal Interchange Code
c. Extended Bit Case Decimal Interchange Code
d. Extended Binary Case Decimal Interchange Code
Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
Explanation: EBCDIC is an 8-bit binary code for larger IBMs primarily mainframes in which each
byte represent one alphanumeric character or two decimal digits. 256 characters can be coded
using EBCDIC.
12. BCD is
a. Binary Coded Decimal
b. Bit Coded Decimal
c. Binary Coded Digit
d. Bit Coded Digit
Explanation: BCD is a binary coded notation in which each of the decimal digits is expressed as
a 8-bit binary numeral. For example in binary coded decimal notation 12 is 0001 0010 as
opposed to 1100 in pure binary.

13. ASCII stands for
a. American Stable Code for International Interchange
b. American Standard Case for Institutional Interchange
c. American Standard Code for Information Interchange
d. American Standard Code for Interchange Information
Explanation: ASCII is a code which converts characters letters, digits, punctuations and
control characters such as Alt, Tab etc into numeral form. ASCII code is used to represent data
internally in micro-computers. ASCII
codes are 7 bits and can represent 0 to 127 and extended ASCII are 8 bits that represents 0 to
255.
14. Which of the following is first generation of computer

a. EDSAC
b. IBM-1401
c. CDC-1604
d. ICL-2900
a. EDSAC
Explanation: IBM-1401, CDC-1604 is second generation computer. ICL-2900 is a fourth
generation computer. EDSAC is important in the development of computer since it was the first
computer to use John von. Neumanns
Stored Program Concept. It used 3000 vacuum tubes and computers with vacuum tubes are of
first generation computers.
15. Chief component of first generation computer was
a. Transistors
b. Vacuum Tubes and Valves
c. Integrated Circuits
d. None of above
Explanation: Transistors were used for second generation computers and integrated circuits in
third generation. First generation computers used vacuum tubes and valves as their main
electronic component. Vacuum Tubes
were invented by Lee DeForest in 1908.
16. FORTRAN is
a. File Translation
b. Format Translation
c. Formula Translation
d. Floppy Translation
Explanation: FORTRAN (Formula Translation) is one of the earlier High Level programming
languages used to write scientific applications. It was developed by IBM in 1956.
17. EEPROM stand for
a. Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
b. Easily Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
c. Electronic Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
Explanation: There are three types of ROM namely, PROM, EPROM and EEPROM. PROM cant
be reprogrammed, EPROM can be erased by exposing it in high intensity ultraviolet light and
EEPROM can be erased and
reprogrammed electrically. It is not needed to be removed from the computer to be modified.
18. Second Generation computers were developed during

a. 1949 to 1955
b. 1956 to 1965
c. 1965 to 1970
d. 1970 to 1990
Correct Answer: 1956 to 1965
Explanation: Second generation computers used transistors as their main electronic
component. Transistor was invented by Bell Lab Scientists John Burdeen, Walter Brattain and
William Shockley in 1947 and won the Nobel
Prize in 1956 but it was not used in computers till 1956. The second generation continued until
the implementation of IC chips invented by Jack Kilby in Texas Instruments in 1958.
19. The computer size was very large in
a. First Generation
b. Second Generation
c. Third Generation
d. Fourth Generation
a. First Generation
Explanation: It is obvious that computers developed with more power, reliability, speed and
smaller sizes due to the enhancement of technology. First generation computers used 1000s of
vacuum tubes that required lot of
space made them gigantic in size. Single transistor could replace 1000 vacuum tubes and a
single IC chip replaced 1000s of transistors made computers smaller and more speedy.
20. Microprocessors as switching devices are for which generation computers

a. First Generation
c. Third Generation
Fourth Generation
Explanation: Microprocessors further revolutionized the development of computers. Personal
microcomputers were possible due to the microprocessors. The first microprocessor called
Intel 4004 was developed by
American Intel Corporation in 1971. Microprocessors are used in the computers of fourth
generation computers.
What do you call the programs that are used to find out possible faults and their causes?
21. Who invented the high level language C?

A) Dennis M. Ritchie
B) Niklaus Writh
C) Seymour Papert -Answer
D) Donald Kunth
22. Which of the following is not a type of Software
A) System Software
B) Application Software
C) Utility Software
D) Entertainment Software -Answer
23. Which of the following is not the classification of computers based on application?
A) Electronic Computers
B) Analog Computers
C) Digital Computers -Answer
D) Hybrid Computers
24 Which of the following registers is used to keep track of address of the memory location
where the next instruction is located?
A) Memory address register
B) Memory data register
C) Instruction register
D) Program counter -Answer
25 Networking such as LAN, MAN started from

A) First generation
B) Second generation -Answer
C) Third generation
D) Fourth generation
26. Which characteristic of computer distinguishes it from electronic calculators?

A) Accuracy
B) Storage -Answer
C) Versatility
D) Automatic
27. Which of the following is the largest manufacturer of Hard Disk Drives?
A) IBM
B) Seagate -Answer
C) Microsoft
D) 3M
28 LSI, VLSI & ULSI chips were used in which generation?

A) First
B) Second
C) Third -Answer
D) Fourth
29. Which is the type of memory for information that does not change on your computer?
A) RAM
B) ROM
C) ERAM
D) RW / RAM -Answer
30 Which generation of computer is still under development
a. Fourth Generation
b. Fifth Generation
c. Sixth Generation
d. Seventh Generation
b. Fifth Generation
Explanation: Todays computer fall under the fourth generation computers that uses the LSI and
VLSI Integrated Circuits. For fifth generation computers it is expected for Ultra Large Scale
Integrated Circuits (ULSI). The study for using Gallium Arsenide instead of silicon chips is
underway. Electrons can travel 5 times faster in Gallium Arsenide compared to the silicon.
Similarly, genetically engineered protein molecules are being tried for processors. Fifth
generation computers are expected to have artificial intelligence, ability to use natural language.
31 Artificial Intelligence is associated with which generation?
a. First Generation
c. Fifth Generation
d. Sixth Generation
c. Fifth Generation
Explanation: A computer is a slave in a box. This is a saying due to the lack of intelligence in
computer in spite of their speed, accuracy, diligence and reliability. A computer can only
perform instructed task in the way already programmed. Thus, scientists are trying to develop
artificial intelligence in computers so that they can think and make decisions themselves. This
is expected for fifth generation computers.
32 Which operation is not performed by computer
a. Inputting
b. Processing
c. Controlling
d. Understanding
d. Understanding
Explanation: Computers cant understand since they dont have intelligence. Lets hope in fifth
generation they will achieve artificial intelligence and be able to understand.
33 Fifth generation computer is also known as
a. Knowledge information processing system
b. Very large scale integration (VLSI)
c. Both of above
d. None of above
Explanation: Fifth Generation computers will have artificial intelligence and will be able to
understand making knowledge information processing system possible,
34 Central Processing Unit is combination of
a. Control and storage

b. Control and output unit
c. Arithmetic logic and input unit
d. Arithmetic logic and control unit
Explanation: Arithmetic logic and control unit along with memory unit forms a complete central
processing unit and central processing unit along with input/output unit forms a computer
system.
35 The brain of any computer system is
a. Control Unit
b. Arithmetic Logic Unit
c. Central Processing Unit
d. Storage Unit
Explanation: Control unit or arithmetic logical unit alone can not represent the function of brain
to compare with neither does storage unit only. Central Processing Unit is the combination of
control, arithmetic logic and memory units thus can be compared with brain that controls the
body, processes its functions and remembers.
36 Pick the one that is used for logical operations or comparisons such as less than equal to or
greater than.
a. Arithmetic and Logic Unit
b. Control Unit
c. Both of above
d. None of above
Explanation: Logical sub-unit of ALU performs all the comparisons such as less than equal to or
greater than. Arithmetic sub-unit of ALU performs calculations such as addition, subtraction
and so on.
37 Analog computer works on the supply of
a. Continuous electrical pulses
b. Electrical pulses but not continuous
c. Magnetic strength
Explanation: Analog computers works on the continuous electrical pulses and digital computers
work on the discrete electrical pulses. Analog computers need to process physical quantities
such as temperature, pressure,
speed etc.
38 Digital devices are
a. Digital Clock
b. Automobile speed meter

c. Clock with a dial and two hands
d. All of them
a. Digital Clock.
Explanation: Automobile speed meter and clock with a dial and two hands are analog devices.
Speed meter works on speed of wheel and the later works on tension of dialed spring.
39 The computer that process both analog and digital is called
a. Analog computer
b. Digital computer
c. Hybrid computer
d. Mainframe computer
c. Hybrid Computer
Explanation: Analog, Digital and Hybrid are the three classes of computers based on the work or
principle on which computer work. Hybrid computers can perform both the tasks of analog
computers as well as hybrid computers. These computers are used in aircraft, hospitals where
measuring physical quantities and converting them into digital data to analyze is required.
40 Offline device is
a. A device which is not connected to CPU
b. A device which is connected to CPU
c. A direct access storage device
d. An I/O device
Offline device is
a. A device which is not connected to CPU
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1. What is the population of India ?
(A) 98 crores
(B) More than 2 billion
(C) More than 1 billion-Answer
(D) Less than 96 crores
(E) 96 crores
2. Thermostat is an instrument used to"
(A) measure flow of current
(B) measure intensity of voltage

(C) regulate temperature-Answer
(D) regulate velocity of sound
(E) None of these
3. Wimbledon Trophy is associated with"
(A) Football
(B) Cricket
(C) Hockey
(D) Basketball
(E) Lawn Tennis-Answer
4. GNP stands for"
(A) Gross National Product-Answer
(B) Group Net Product
(C) Grand Nuclear Process
(D) Group Networking Process
(E) None of these
5. 'Acoustics' is the science of the study of"
(A) Light
(B) Sound-Answer
(C) Electricity
(D) Magnetism
(E) None of these
6. Noise pollution is measured in the unit called"
(A) micron
(B) nautical miles
(C) ohms
(D) ampere
(E) decibel-Answer
7. 'Heavy Water' is used in which of the following types of indus-tries ?
(A) Sugar
(B) Nuclear Power-Answer
(C) Textile
(D) Coal
(E) None of these
8. Who amongst the following is the author of the book 'Indomi-table Spirit'?
(A) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(A) Indomitable Spirit is a book authored by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam the ex-President of India. The
book brings together the values, thoughts and ideas of President Kalam as reflected in his
speeches and addresses. Interspersed with interesting ancedotes and observations,

indomitable Spirit represents the quintessential A.P.J. Abdul Kalam"the man, the scientist, the
teacher and the President.
(B) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(C) Justice K. G. Balakrishna
(D) Mr. Natwar Singh
(E) None of these
9. Which of the following is not the name of popular IT/Software Company ?
(A) Wipro
(B) Mastek
(C) Toyota -Answer
(D) IBM
(E) Infosys
10. 'Yen' is the currency of"
(A) South Korea
(B) China
(C) Indonesia-Answer
(D) Malaysia
(E) None of these
11. Baichung Bhutia whose name was in news is a well known"
(A) Music Director of Indian films
(B) English author of Indian origin
(C) Journalist
(D) Politician
(E) Sports Personality-Answer
12. 'Richter Scale' is used to measure which of the following ?
(A) Intensity of Tsunami Waves
(B) Intensity of Earthquake-Answer
(C) Density of salt in Sea water
(D) Flow of electric current
(E) None of these
13. Which of the following best explains 'e-governance'?
(A) Improving the functioning of government
(B) Teaching government emp-loyees the basics of computing
(C) Delivery of public services through internet-Answer
(D) Framing of cyber-laws of chatting on internet
(E) Convergence of e-mail and video-conferencing
14. CAS is associated with which of the following ?
(A) Legal System Reforms

(B) Piped gas line
(C) Cable T.V.-Answer
(D) Mobile phone regulation
(E) None of these
15. Tata Steel recently acquired the Corus, a steel giant situated in"
(A) South Africa
(B) Ukraine
(C) Australia
(D) Italy
(E) Britain-Answer
16. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the Organi-zation/Agency working in the field of
Space Research ?
(A) ISBN
(B) ISRO-Answer
(C) INTELSET
(D) INTACH
(E) None of these
17. 'Handshaking' in Networking parlance means"
(A) connecting computers to a hub-Answer
(B) distributed Networks
(C) having same operating system on different computers
(D) sending e-mail
(E) None of these
18. VAT stands for"
(A) Value And Tax
(B) Value Added Tax-Answer
(C) Virtual Action Tasks
(D) Virtual Assessment Tech-nique
(E) None of these
19. Alzheimer'sdiseaseistheailment of which of the following organs /parts of the human body ?
(A) Kidney
(B) Heart
(C) Liver
(D) Stomach
(E) Brain-Answer
20. Global warming is a matter of concern amongst the nations these days. Which of the follo-wing
countries is the largest emitter of greenhouse gases in the World ?
(A) U.S.A.
(B) China-Answer
(C) India
(D) Britain
(E) None of these
21. Which of the following books has been written by Bill Gates ?
(A) Microsoft Secrets
(B) The Road Ahead-Answer
(C) The Elephant Paradigm
(D) e-commerce
(E) None of these
22. Which of the following is the name of the social network service run by the Google on the internet ?
(A) Online Space
(B) Orkut
(C) Net-Space
(D) Wikipedia
(E) None of these
23. Which of the following states is a relatively new addition ?
(A) Goa
(B) Delhi-Answer
(C) Uttarakhand-Answer
(D) Himachal Pradesh
(E) Bihar
24. DOT stands for"
(A) Disc Operating Therapy
(B) Department of Telephones
(C) Directorate of Technology
(D) Damage on Time
(E) None of these-Answer
Dot stands for Department of Telecommunications.
25. Which of the following States/ parts of India is completely land locked having no contact with sea ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Orissa
(C) Maharashtra
(D) North-East-Answer
(E) None of these
26. TRAI regulates the functioning of which of the following servi-ces ?
(A) Telecom -Answer
(B) Trade
(C) Port
(D) Transport
(E) None of these
27. At present for the ATMs in India, the most commonly used net-work communication mode is"
(A) Very Small Aperture Termi-nal (VSAT)-Answer
(B) General Packet Radio Ser-vice (GPRS)
(C) Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)
(D) Dial-in Connection
(E) None of these
28. Which of the following is not a foreign bank operating in India ?
(A) DBS Bank Ltd.
(B) Sonali Bank
(C) J. P. Morgan Chase Bank
(D) Shinhan Bank
(E) All are Foreign Banks-Answer
29. Who is the author of the book 'Future Shock' ?
(A) Alvin Toffler-Answer
(B) Tom Peters
(C) Napoleon Hill
(D) Kenneth Blanchard
(E) None of these
30. Apex fares are"
(A) more than the normal fare
(B) less than the normal fare-Answer
(C) offered only to corporate clients
(D) applicable to late night flights only
(E) applicable to international flights only
31. Who amongst the following is the Director of the film 'Water' which was in news ?
(A) Vidhu Vinod Chopra
(B) Mrinal Sen
(C) Gulzar
(D) Mahesh Bhatt
32. The 10th plan period is upto"
(A) 2007 -Answer
(B) 2008
(C) 2009
(D) 2010
(E) None of these
33. OPEC is a group of countries which are"
(A) exporting oil-Answer
(B) producting cotton
(C) rich and developed
(D) developing and poor
(E) nuclear powers
34. Intel Company mainly pro-duces"
(A) Hard disks
(B) VCDs
(C) Monitors
(D) Software
35. Who amongst the following is the M.D./Chairman of one of the major Steel Companies ?
(A) Shri L. N. Mittal-Answer
(B) Shri K. K. Birla
(C) Shri Vijaypat Singhania
(D) Shri Mukesh Ambani
(E) Shri Anil Agarwal
36. Who is the President of Nass-com?
(A) Kiran Karnik-Answer
(B) Narayana Murthy
(C) Pramod Desai
(D) Devang Mehta
(E) None of these
37. Which of the following awards is not given for excellence in the field of literature ?
(A) Booker Prize
(B) Nobel Prize
(C) Pulitzer Price
(D) Arjun Award-Answer
(E) Bharatiya Gnanpith Award
38. 'Singur' which was in news is a place in"
(A) Orissa
(B) West Bengal
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Bihar
(E) Maharashtra
39. Who amongst the following is the author of the book series named as 'Harry Potter' ?
(A) J. K. Rowling-Answer
(B) Lindsay Lohan
(C) Julia Roberts
(D) Sandra Bullock
(E) None of these
40. Which of the following Satellites recentlydedicatedtonation helps Direct to Home Television Ser-vice
in India ?
(A) Matsat
(B) Edusat
(C) Insat"4b-Answer
(D) Insat"IB
(E) None of these
41. Many a times we read some news items about the 'West Bank'. 'West Bank' is situated at the
western side of the river"
(A) Mississippi
(B) Amazon
(C) Nile
(D) Jordan-Answer
(E) None of these
42. Which of the following pheno-menon is considered responsible for 'Global Warming' ?
(A) Greenhouse Gas Effect-Answer
(B) Fox Fire
(C) Dry Farming
(D) Radioactivity
(E) None of these
43. Which of the following instru-ments is not issued by a bank ?
(A) Demand Draft
(B) Pay Order
(C) Debit Card
(D) Credit Card
(E) National Saving Certificate-Answer
44. Name of Jyoti Randhawa is asso-ciated with which of the follo-wing games ?
(A) Golf-Answer
(B) Badminton
(C) Hockey
(D) Chess
(E) None of these
45. Which of the following Software Companies recently launched its education portal 'Unlimited
Potential' in India ?
(A) Microsoft -Answer
(B) Infosys
(C) Wipro
(D) TCS
(E) None of these
46. Polly Umrigar who died was a well known"
(A) Cricketer-Answer
(B) Tennis Player
(C) Golfer
(D) Chess Player
(E) Hockey Player
47. In India Census is done after a gap of every"
(A) Five years
(B) Seven years
(C) Eight years
(D) Ten years-Answer
(E) Fifteen years
48. Prof. Muhammad Yunus the recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize 2006 is the exponent of which of the
following concepts in the field of banking ?
(A) Core Banking
(B) Micro Credit-Answer
(C) Retail Banking
(D) Real Time Gross Settlement
(E) Internet Banking
49. Who amongst the following was India's official candidate for the post of UNO's Secretary General ?
(A) Mr. Shyam Saran
(B) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(C) Mr. Shashi Tharoor-Answer
(D) Mr. Vijay Nambiar
(E) None of these
50. Mr. Gordon Brown has taken over as the Prime Minister of"
(A) Italy
(B) Canada
(C) France
(D) South Africa

(E) Britain-Answer
English Lanuage
Directions"(Q. 1"15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
Crude oil has had a long history, and interesting one. It is probably one single natural resource that has
been instrumental in producing maximum conflicts and wars during the last century. With such a track
record, it is surprising that in the given environment, where in oil prices are breaking all records, and
has become the biggest cause of concern across the globe, why is it that there is silence from some
parts of the world`? It is intriguing especially when some have been paying a much higher price on fuel,
as compared to their poorer counterparts. It is surprising, more so, when one realizes that the number
of oil producing nations is only a handful as compared to the number of oil consuming nations. While a
proactive action from the mighty and powerful can bring in a huge respite for the world, why is it that
they choose to be silent ? Also, keeping in mind the fact that a few nations"both powerful and weak
have some of the largest unused oil reserves,their silence and lack of any serious action look all the
more aberrant. Looking at the manner things are shaping up, it just cannot be ruled out that possibly
these nations have a definite interest in the increasing prices of oil. The question then is what could
their underlying interest be ?
In all probability, what we are seeing right now is just a precursor to the larger picture, well laid out by
them may be for the good. With rising prices, the OPEC might be delighted right now, but perhaps they
are unable to see what is going to hit them. For this unprecedented rise in oil is creating a most
demanding environment for alternative fuels. As and when the reserves deplete and demand really
grows, more than anyone else, it is OPEC that would be badly hit, much to the glee of some nations
having unused reserves which have the most to gain by using blackmailing tactics. Eventually, the
countries at the receiving end would be forced to create an enabling environment for alternative energy.
This trend is already visible, with India showing the way with its nuclear deal and other countries
dangling the carrot of complete conversion to natural gas towards other countries in order to boost their
own business. By doing so they are creating a tactical pressure on countries. As they know that the
further the oil prices get pushed, the more the globe would become attracted and ready for alternative
and non-conventional fuel. Moreover, for many of the countries, it might become more expensive to
invest in newer technologies to conform to the emission norms than to shift to alternative sources,
making the market even more attractive. And it is then that the organizations which have already
invested billions of dollars in alternate fuels would mop up the global energy market completely.
The second possible reason why some nations of the world are not too enthusiastic to mitigate the
price of oil is because the rising oil price is perhaps one of the major deterrents to growth of other
countries. Perhaps they were hand in glove in the mechanism to raise the oil price and knowing well
that this would make these nations feel the pinch. And now, the rising oil prices have put these nations
in a fix. As the pressure of inflationary tendencies increases these countries cannot afford either to sit
back and remain entrapped in the larger conspiracy. No wonder then that these are frantically looking
around the globe " especially Africa " for newer reserves ! As it is said, oil has a long history and the
legacy continues.
1. What, according to the passage, is the step that the nations are likely to take with an intolerable rise
in oil prices ?
(A) Shift to alternate forms of energy
(B) Come to a state of war with other nations
(C) Put tactical pressure on countries having oil reserves
(D) Formulate more stringent emission norms and apply these across the globe
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
2. Why is the author surprised with the stance which various nations have taken pertaining to the
current global oil crisis ?
(A) The stance is leading to war among the nations for control over oil fields
(B) Powerful nations have been selling oil at a very inflated rate to under developed nations
(C) Many nations have shifted to alternative forms of energy boycotting the use of oil due to inflated
prices
(D) Eventhough oil has been a matter of conflict among the nations earlier, many nations have a kept a
silence on the current crisis
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. Which nations does the author refer to in the phrase 'these nations have a definite interest in the
increasing prices of oil' ?
(A) The mighty and powerful nations
(B) Nations having unused oil reserves
(C) Nations which have exhausted their oil reserves
(D) The nations which have shifted to non-conventional fuels
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
4. Which of the following is not true in context of the passage ?
(A) Some nations have kept a silence upon the rising oil price in order to inhibit the growth of other
nations
(B) It is more cost effective to shift to alternative forms of energy than to invest in technology for
conforming to the emission norms
(C) Some nations have unused oil reserves which would earn these nations heavy profits once the oil
reserves elsewhere deplete
(D) India has had a nuclear deal for its energy needs
(E) All are true
Ans : (E)
5. What does the author mean by 'dangling the carrot' in the passage ?
(A) Some countries are stringently opposing the conversion to alternative forms of fuel
(B) Some countries have been luring other countries to change over to alternate fuels in order to boost
their own business
(C) Some countries are making the effort to save environment by using natural gas instead of oil as a
fuel
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. Which of the following is intended in the given passage ?
(A) To highlight the plight of OPEC with rising fuel prices
(B) To urge to the government to shift from oil to natural gas since it is more environment friendly
(C) To highlight the vested interest of some nations in maintaining the indifference to rising oil prices
(D) To urge to save the environment by conforming to the emission norms and using alternate energy
sources
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
7. Why, according to the author, OPEC though delighted currently, would be in difficult situation later ?
(A) All the oil reserves on the earth will soon be exhausted
(B) Powerful nations will try and dominate OPEC later on
(C) As the oil reserves which are being used currently deplete in the time to come, nations having
unused oil reserves would arm-twist OPEC
(D) Nations will lose faith in OPEC owing to very high fuel prices
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. What, according to the author, makes the market of alternative sources very attractive ?
(A) Many countries have already made a substantial profit in the industry of alternative fuel
(B) Such measures do not cause harm to the environment
(C) Only a few countries of the world will have the access to alternative forms of fuel
(D) The use of alternative sources has been forced upon certain countries by powerful countries
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the given passage ?
(A) Reasons behind silence on increase in oil prices
(B) Nuclear power as an alternative source of energy
(C) The monopoly of oil reserves by powerful countries
(D) The repercussion of shifting to alternative forms of energy
(E) Oil reserves as deterrent of growth of the nations
Ans : (A)
Directions"(Q. 10"12) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word
printed in bold as used in the passage.
10. INSTRUMENTAL
(A) Non-vocal
(B) Reasonable
(C) Creditable
(D) Responsible
(E) Liable
Ans : (D)
11. ABERRANT
(A) Curious
(B) Abnormal
(C) Spoilt
(D) Inferior
(E) Nonfunctional
Ans : (B)
12. PUSHED
(A) Dominated
(B) Pressed
(C) Diverted
(D) Thrown
(E) Increased
Ans : (E)
Directions"(Q. 13"15) Choose the word / phrase which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word
printed in bold as used in the passage.
13. PROACTIVE
(A) Quick
(B) Over powered
(C) Dormant
(D) Delicate
(E) Brittle
Ans : (C)
14. GLEE
(A) Disappointment
(B) Dishonour
(C) Appreciation
(D) Disillusion
(E) Defeat
Ans : (A)
15. MITIGATE
(A) Fright
(B) Decline
(C) Degeneration
(D) Worsen
(E) Deprivation
Ans : (D)
Directions"(Q. 16"25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the letter of that part will be the answer. If there is no
error, mark (E) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
16. The merchant counted (A) / the number of pearls (B) / to make sure that (C) / none of them were
missing. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
17. When deep sea diving, (A) / one should always take care (B) / that oxygen cylinder is (C) / tied to
the back tightly. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
18. As the salary (A) / did not match (B) / his expectations, he did not (C) / accept the job. (D) No error
(E)
Ans : (B)
19. The reason behind his success (A) / in the recent past (B) / is due to hard-work (C) / and presence
of mind. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
20. No sooner did the students (A) / seen the principal approach (B) / than they ran (C) / from the
playground. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
21. My elder sister and I am (A) / interested in painting (B) / and therefore have joined (C) / the
coaching classes. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
22. Only after a lot of persuasion, (A) / did the illiterate villager allow (B) / himself's girl child (C) / to
study in the school. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
23. The need for alternate (A) / sources of energy are (B) / essential to conserve (C) / the environment.
(D) No error (E)

Ans : (B)
24. I have being working (A) / in that organization for five years (B) / but now I work (C) / for a different
company. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
25. There is no argument against (A) / the fact that (B) / humans are the most intelligent (C) / of all other
species. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
Directions"(Q. 26"30) Which of the phrases (A), (B) (C) and (D) given below each statement should
replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is
correct as it is given and 'No correction is required', mark (E) as the answer.
26. Many students waits anxiously at the college gate to know their results"
(A) student waited anxiously
(B) students waiting anxiously
(C) students waited anxiously
(D) students waited anxious
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
27. Through a fortuitous circumstance Rakhi met her childhood friend on the bus in which she was
travelling.
(A) she was travelled
(B) she did travel
(C) she has travelling
(D) she were travelling
Ans : (E)
28. The opposition party has alleged that the prices of essential commodities are soaring like never
before on the last three decades"
(A) before on the next
(B) before in the last
(C) before at the last
(D) previously in the next
Ans : (B)
29. The salaries and the perks of the employees in this institution are not in according with the rest of
the industry"
(A) are not in accordance
(B) is not in accordance

(C) are not according
(D) is not on accordance
Ans : (A)
30. The soldiers deployed in the town were instructed exercising restraint and handle the situation
peacefully.
(A) was instructed to exercising
(B) were instructed for exercise
(C) were instructed to exercise
(D) was instructing to exercising
Ans : (C)
Directions"(Q. 31"35) Rearrange the following sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) to make a
meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow"
1. The only way in which this problem can be solved is by making artificial blood which has remained a
distant dream for science.
2. Donation of blood is considered to be the most noble of all the charities.
3. If they succeed, it would be noted as one of the most important inventions in the history of mankind.
4. This is because this donated magic potion can give life to another person in an emergency.
5. A group of scientists, however, has dedicated themselves towards making this a reality.
6. A growing problem however is that the requirement for safe blood is increasing whereas the number
of donors is decreasing.
31. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)
32. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (D)
33. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)
34. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (D)
35. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)
Directions"(Q. 36"40) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has
been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a
whole.
36. One of the TV cameramen was in the leg by a bullet when he was in the middle of a gun fight
between two gangs.
(A) hurt, entered
(B) shot, caught
(C) injured, came
(D) stabbed, trapped
(E) beaten, engulfed
Ans : (B)
37. Although the fire was very small everyone and rushed out of the cinema hall complete chaos.
(A) shouted, leading
(B) died, producing
(C) injured, resulting
(D) scared, making
(E) panicked, causing
Ans : (E)
38. The of pesticides and fertilizers while growing the vegetables and fruits is one of the greatest to the
health these days.

(A) production, dangers
(B) consumption, problem
(C) overuse, threats
(D) application, rewards
(E) amount, injury
Ans : (C)
39. The group's mission is to peace between the nations and help different people each other better.
(A) maintain, understand
(B) remain, address
(C) keep, interact
(D) advise, find
(E) communicate, friendly
Ans : (A)
40. History the Kings and influential leaders whereas the real battle was by the soldiers who remain
little known and celebrated in the texts.
(A) remembers, played
(B) highlights, underwent
(C) biased, lead
(D) glorifies, fought
(E) writes, done
Ans : (D)
Directions"(Q. 41"50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are
suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Without doubt there is one thing (41) to all of us-We have played a game at some time in our lives.
Most of us play to relax or have fun, but for many playing a game or a sport is a way to (42) poverty
behind. Infact, in many African countries, playing a sport professionally can (43) the lives of a person's
entire family.
For example, in the samll town of Bekoji, in Ethiopia (44) than a hundred boys and girls can be seen
running at dawn everyday. Each of these youth is (45) and serious and their coach is (46) that one of
them will be a world champion. This seems like an idle (47) but it is virtually a guarantee in this small
community (48) mainly farmers. Many of the fastest male and female distance runners in the world hail
from this small town. A small handpainted sign which greets visitors outside Bekoji (49) "Welcome to
the Village of Athletes. Children here start running at an early age, (50) great distance to fetch water
and firewood or to reach, school. At the Olympics, runners from this small town are likely to win more
medals than those from developed countries. It will give their families a way out of poverty.
41. (A) accepted
(B) common
(C) alike
(D) similar
(E) popular
Ans : (B)
42. (A) alleviate
(B) forgot
(C) prevent
(D) reduce
(E) leave
Ans : (E)
43. (A) changes
(B) arrange
(C) control
(D) transform
(E) shift
Ans : (D)
44. (A) further
(B) more
(C) greater
(D) over
(E) larger
Ans : (B)
45. (A) concentrated
(B) rival
(C) focused
(D) playful
(E) performed
Ans : (C)
46. (A) convince
(B) optimist
(C) intended
(D) privilege
(E) confident
Ans : (E)
47. (A) boast
(B) suspicion
(C) risk
(D) worship
(E) precaution
Ans : (A)
48. (A) existing
(B) that
(C) comprising
(D) consisting
(E) for
Ans : (C)
49. (A) warn
(B) inform
(C) notices
(D) reads
(E) wish
Ans : (D)
50. (A) covering
(B) driving
(C) measuring
(D) following
(E) competing
Ans : (A)
IBPS clerical aptitude questions answers All banks free solved question papers,IBPS PO,clerical SBT
SBI,RRB,RBI,PSU companies model practice questions with answers and detailed explanations,
1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the
clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes-Answer
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 28 minutes
(d) 34 minutes
2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
(a) 4096
(b) 8192 -Answer
(c) 512
(d) 1024
3. Find the number missing at question mark:

10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100 -Answer
(b) 103
(c) 78
(d) 128
4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from 'Trivandrum' and reaches 'Attingal' in 45 minutes with an average
speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?
(a) 34 minutes
(b) 36 minutes -Answer
(c) 38 minutes
(d) 40 minutes
5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?
(a) 12
(b) 9
(c) 7 -Answer
(d) 6
6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
(a) 4
(b) 6-Answer
(c) 9
(d) 18
7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
(a) 4.5
(b) 0.45
(c) 0.045 -Answer
(d) 45
8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40
marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 180
(d) 150-Answer
9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135
(a) 16
(b) 15
(c) 17-Answer
(d) 14
10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
(a) 16.67
(b) 20-Answer
(c) 23
(d) 17
11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is .
(a) 1:40
(b) 1:4000 -Answer
(c) 9:10
(d) 1:400
12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
(a) 204-Answer
(b) 250
(c) 240
(d) 210
13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
(a) 25
(b) 00
(c) 75
(d) 50-Answer
14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80
meters long?
(a) 30 seconds
(b) 36 seconds
(c) 20 seconds
(d) 18 seconds-Answer
15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be .
(a) 90 seconds-Answer
(b) 70 seconds
(c) 60 seconds
(d) 100 seconds
16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
(a) Rs. 30
(b) Rs. 24
(c) Rs. 36-Answer
(d) Rs. 40
17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do
the same work?
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 6-Answer
18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
(a) 5050-Answer
(b) 5005
(c) 9900
(d) 9050
19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12
meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
(a) 12m
(b) 5m
(c) 13m-Answer
(d) 11m
20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?
(a) 4
(b) 8-Answer
(c) 16
(d) 2
21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ..
(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3
(b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3
(c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3-Answer
(d) No solution
22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
(a) 2/3
(b) 1/6 -Answer
(c) 1/3 (
d) 1/2
23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?
(a) 10% -Answer
(b) 7.5%
(c) 16%
(d) 15%
24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 9 -Answer
(d) 5
25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
(a) 900
(b) 1200 -Answer
(c) 1500
(d) 2400
26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes
30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
(a) 20 minute-Answer
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 7 minutes 30 seconds
(d) 10 minutes
27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
(a) 1 minutes
b) 10 minute-Answer
(c) 100 minutes
(d) 10000 minutes
28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
(a) 250
(b) 750
(c) 400
(d) 300-Answer
29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join
them?
(a) 6 days
(b) 7 days
(c) 10 days -Answer
(d) 8 days
30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
(a) 25
(b) 28-Answer
(c) 26
(d) 27
31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his
profit?
(a) 33 1/8 %
(b) 66 2/3 %
(c) 25 %
(d) 50 %-Answer
32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The
area of the field is:
(a) 7,200m2
(b) 15,000m2
(c) 54,000m2
(d) 13,500m2-Answer
33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is
that number?
(a) 1.5
(b) 1.0-Answer
(c) 2.5
(d) 2.0
34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum
marks?
(a) 400
(b) 500
(c) 475
(d) 450-Answer
35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
(a) Interior of the triangle
(b) Midpoint of the diameter
(c) Exterior of the triangle-Answer
(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle
36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
(a) 360
(b) 90
(c) 270
(d) -Answer180
37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
(a) Circumcentre
(b) Centroid-Answer
(c) Orthocenter
(d) Incentre
38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is 'r' what is its slant height?
(a) 3r
(b) 4r
(c) -Answer5r
(d) ?3r
39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
(a) 4:9
(b) 2:3
(c) 8:27-Answer
(d) 4:6
40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3?2, 6, 6?2 ?

(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) ?2-Answer
(d) ?3
41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in
both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
(a) 25 -Answer
(b) 30
(c) 50
(d) 45
42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in
three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?

(a) 3 km/hr-Answer
(b) 4 km/hr
(c) 4.5 km/hr
(d) 5 km/hr
43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If
his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
(a) 20
(b) 26-Answer
(c) 30
(d) 32
44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
(a) 48 sq.cm
(b) 34 sq.cm
(c) 24 sq.cm-Answer
(d) 42 sq.cm
45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54,
(a) 81-Answer
(b) 69
(c) 63
(d) 57
46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 25-Answer
(d) 30
47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
(a) 5 (
b) 2 -Answer
(c) 6
(d) 21
48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
(a) 800
(b) 600
(c) 1050
(d) 750-Answer
49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
(a) 306
(b) 765-Answer
(c) 700
(d) 510
50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
(a) 36
(b) 37-Answer
(c) 38
(d) 31
IBPS bank po clerical and specialists officers Quantitative Aptitude Directions (Q. Nos.1 to 5)
What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
1. 348 29 x 15 + 156 = (?)3 + 120
(1) 12
(2) 6 (Ans)
(3) 36
(4) 9
(5) None of these
Ans : 348 29 x 15 + 156 = (?)3 + 120
12 x 15 + 156 = (?)3 + 120
180 + 156 - 120 = (?)3
216 = (?)3
(6)3 = (?)3
?=6
2. (4 x 4)3 (512 8)4 x (32 x 8)4 = (2 x 2)? + 4

(1) 8
(2) 12
(3) 6 (Ans)
(4) 14
(5) None of these
Ans : (4 x 4)3 (512 8)4 x (32 x 8)4 = (2 x 2)? + 4
(16)3 (64)4 x (256)4 = (4)? + 4
(4)2x3 (4)3x4 x (4)4x4 = (4)? + 4
(4)6 (4)12 x (4)16 = (4)? + 4
(4)6-2+16 = (4)? + 4
(4)10 = (4)? + 4
10 = ? + 4
?=6
3. (2392 - 21) + (8 - 7)2 = (?)2

(1) 4
(2) -4
(3) 12
(4) 2
(5) 6 (Ans)
Ans : (2392 - 21) + (8 - 7)2 = (?)2
(2 x 142 - 21) + (8 - 7)2 = (?)2
282 - 21 + (8)2 - 2 x 8 x 7 + (7)2 = (?)2
282 - 21 + 8 - 282 + 49 = (?)2
- 21 + 8 + 49 = (?)2
36 = (?)2
?=6
4. 1 1/4 + 1 1/6 - 1 1/8 = ? + 1 1/12

(1) 5/24 (Ans)
(2) 7/24
(3) 5/12
(4) 7/12
(5) None of these
Ans : 1 1/4 + 1 1/6 - 1 1/8 = ? + 1 1/12
1 1/4 + 1 1/6 - 1 1/8 - 1 1/12 = ?
(1 + 1 - 1 - 1) + (1/4 + 1/6 - 1/8 - 1/12) = ?

0 + (6 + 4 - 3 - 2/24) = ? 0 + 5/24 = ?
? = 5/24
5. 76% of 1285 = 35% of 1256 + ?

(1) 543
(2) 537 (Ans)
(3) 547
(4) 533
(5) None of these
Ans : 76% of 1285 = 35% of 1256 + ?
976.6 = 439.6 + ?
976.6 - 439.6 = ?
? = 537
Directions (Q. Nos. 6 to 10) What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the
following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value)
Solutions (106 to 110)
You can take approximate value of any number
6. 499.99 + 1999 39.99 x 50.01 = ?
(1) 3200
(2) 2700
(3) 3000 (Ans)
(4) 2500
(5) 2400
Ans : 499.99 + 1999 39.99 x 50.01 = ?
500 + 2000 40 x 50 = ?
500 + 50 x 50 = ?
500 + 2500 = ?
3000 = ?
7. [(7.99)2 - (13.001)2 + '(4.01)3]2 = ?
(1) -1800
(2) 1450
(3) -1660
(4) 1660 (Ans)
(5) -1450
Ans : [(7.99)2 - (13.001)2 + '(4.01)3]2 = ?
[(8)2 - (13)2 + (4)3]2 = ?
[64 - 169 + 64]2 = ?
(-41)2 = ?
? = 1681
1660
8. 601/49 x 399/81 29/201 = ?

(1) 520
(2) 360
(3) 460
(4) 500
(5) 420 (Ans)
Ans : 601/49 x 399/81 29/201 = ?
601/49 x 399/81 x 201/29 = ?
600/50 x 400/80 x 200/30 = ?
(- x - +)
400 = ?
420 ?
9. 441.01 - 232.99 + 1649.99 = ? + 1225.92

(1) 600
(2) 630 (Ans)
(3) 660
(4) 690
(5) 720
Ans : 441.01 - 232.99 + 1649.99 = ? + 1225.92
441 - 233 + 1650 - 1226 = ?
2091 - 1459 = ?
? = 623 630
10. (21.5% of 999)1/3 + (43% of 601)1/2 = ?

(1) 18
(2) 22 (Ans)
(3) 26
(4) 30
(5) 33
Ans : (21.5% of 999)1/3 + (43% of 601)1/2 = ?
(1000 X 21.5%)1/3 + (600 X 43%)1/2 = ?
(215)1/3 + (258)1/2 = ?
(216)1/3 + (256)1/2 = ?
(6)3X1/3 + (16)2X1/2 = ?
6 + 16 = ?
22 = ?
Directions (Q. Nos. 11 to 15) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number
series?
11. 15 21 39 77 143 (?)
(1) 243
(2) 240
(3) 253
(4) 245
(5) None of these (Ans)
Ans : - Solutions - Qn Ans -111
12. 33 39 57 87 129 (?)8

(1) 183 (Ans)
(2) 177
(3) 189
(4) 199
(5)
Ans : Solutions - Qn Ans -112
13. 15 19 83 119 631 (?)

(1) 731 (Ans)
(2) 693
(3) 712
(4) 683
(5) None of these
14. 19 26 40 68 124 (?)

(1) 246
(2) 238
(3) 236 (Ans)
(4) 256
(5) None of these
15. 43 69 58 84 73 (?)
(1) 62
(2) 98
(3) 109
(4) 63
Directions (Q. Nos. 16 to 20) In the following questions, two equations numbered I and II are given.
You have to solve both the equations and give answer
(1) if x > y
(2) if x y
(3) if x < y
(4) if x y
(5) if x = y or the relationship cannot be established
Ans :
16. I. x2 - 11x + 24 = 0
II. 2y2 - 9y + 9 = 0
Ans : 2
I. x2 - 11x + 24 = 0
x2 - 8x - 3x + 24 = 0
x (x - 8) - 3 (x - 8) = 0
(x - 8)(x - 3) = 0
x = 8 or 3
II.
2y2 - 9y + 9 = 0
2y2 - 6y - 3y + 9 = 0
2y(y - 3) - 3 (y - 3) = 0
(2y - 3) (y - 3) = 0
y = 3/2 or 3
So,
xy
17. I. x3 * 13 = x2 * 247
II. y1/3 * 14 = 294 y2/3

Ans : 3 I. x3 * 13 = x2 * 247
or x3 / x2 = 247/13
x = 19
y1/3 * 14 = 294 y2/3
II.
or, (y)1/3 * (y)2/3 = 294/14

(y)1/3+2/3 = 21
or,
y = 21
So,
y>x
18. I. 12 * 4 / x4/7 - 3 * 4 / x4/7 = x10/7

II. y3 + 783 = 999
Ans : 4
I. 12 * 4 / x4/7 - 3 * 4 / x4/7 = x10/7
or,
48 - 12 = (x)10/7 * (x)4/7
or,
36 = (x)7 = (x)2
II.
x = 6
y3 + 783 = 999
y3 = 999 - 783
y3 = 216
y = 6
yx
19. I. 500 x + 402 = 0

II. 360 y + (200)1/2 = 0
Ans : 5
or,
I. 500 x + 402 = 0
500 x = - 402
By squaring both sides, we get
500 x2 = 402
x = 402 /500 = 0.897
II. 360 y + (200)1/2 = 0

(200)1/2 = - 360 y
or,
By squaring both sides, we get

Solutions - Qn Ans -119 = (-360 y)2
200 = 360 y2
y = 200/360 = 0.75
relationship cannot established.
20. I. (17)2 + 114 18 = x

II. (26)2 - 18 * 21 = y
I. (17)2 + 114 18 = x
Ans : 3
289 + 8 = x
x = 297
II. (26)2 - 18 * 21 = y
676 - 378 = y
298 = y
So,
y>x
21. The respective ratio between the present age of Ram and Rakesh is 6 : 11. Four years ago, the
ratio of their ages was 1 : 2 respectively. What will be Rakesh's age after five years?
(1) 45 years
(2) 29 years
(3) 49 years (Ans)

(5) None of these
Ans : Let the age of Ram = x and Rakesh = y then x/y = 6/11
x = 6y/11
According to question, x - 4/y - 4 = 1/2
2x - 8 = y - 4
2 * 6y/11 - 8 = y - 4
12y/11 - y = - 4 + 8
y/11 = 4
y = 44 yr
Age of Rakesh after 5 yr

= 44 + 5 = 49 yr
22. The circumference of two circles is 83 m and 220 m respectively. What is the difference between
the area of the larger circle and the smaller circle?
(1) 3422 sq m
(2) 3242 sq m
(3) 3244 sp m
(4) 3424 sq m
(5) None of these
(Ans)
Ans : 2 r = 88
r = 88 * 7/44 = 14 m
Area = r2
= 22/7 * 14 * 14
= 616 m2
2 r1 = 220
r1 = 220 * 7/2 * 22 = 35 m
Area = r12 = 22/7 * 35 * 35 = 3850 m2
Difference = 3850 - 616 = 3234 m2
23. One of the angles of a triangle is two-third angle of sum of adjacent angles of parallelogram.
Remaining angles of the triangle are in ratio 5 : 7 respectively. What is the value of second largest
angle of the triangle?
(1) 250
(2) 400
(3) 350 (Ans)
(5) None of these
Ans : An angle of a triangle = 2/3 * 1800 = 1200
Remaining 1800 - 1200 = 600 is the ratio of 5 : 7.
So,
5x + 7x = 60
12x = 60
x=5
So, angles are 5 * 5 = 250

and 7 * 5 = 350
and
1200
So, value of second largest angle of triangle is 35 0

24. Pradeep invested 20% more than Mohit. Mohit invested 10% less than Raghu. If the total sum of
their investment is Rs. 17880, how much amount did Raghu invest?
(1) Rs.6000 (Ans)
(2) Rs.8000
(3) Rs.7000
(4) Rs.5000
(5) None of these
Ans : Let the investment by Raghu = x

then Mohit = x * 90/100 = 9x/10
Pradeep = 9x/10 * 120/100 = 108x/100
According to question, x + 9x/10 + 108x/100 = 17880
100x + 90x + 108x/100 = 17880
298x/100 = 17880
x = 6000
25. Average score of Rahul, Manish and Suresh is 63. Rahul's score is 15 less than Ajay and 10 more
than the average scores of Rahul, Manish and Suresh, what is he sum of Manish's and Suresh's scores
?
(1) 120
(2) 111 (Ans)
(3) 117
(5) None of these
Ans : Let the score of Ajay = x
Rahul
= x - 15
Manish
= x - 25
According to question, x = 63 + 30
x = 93
Score of Ajay
= 93
then Rahul
= 93 - 15 =78
then Manish
= 93 - 25 = 68
Total marks of Rahul, Manish and Suresh = 3 * 63 = 189

Suresh = 189 - (78 + 68) = 43
Manish + Suresh = 68 + 43 = 111
26. Fifty-three per cent of a number is 358 less than the square of 26. What is the value of three-fourth
of 23 per cent of that number?
(1) 101
(2) 109.5
(3) 113
(4) 103.5 (Ans)
(5) None of these
Ans : (26)2 - 358 = x * 53/100
318 = x * 53/100
x = 600
Again 600 * 3/4 * 23/100 = 103.5

27. The average speed of a car is 1 4/5 times the average speed of a bus. A tractor covers 575 km in
23 hours. How much distance will the car cover in 4 hours if the speed of the bus is twice speed of the
tractor?
(1) 340 km
(2) 480 km
(3) 360 km (Ans)
(4) 450 km
(5) None of these
Ans : Average speed of a tractor =575/23 = 25 km/h
The speed of a bus in an hour = 25 * 2 = 50 km
The speed of a car in an hour = 50 * 9/5 = 90 km
So, the distance covered by car in 4 h is
90 * 4 = 360 km
28. The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain principal is Rs.2000 in five years at the rate of 4%
per annum. What would be the compound interest accrued on same principal at same rate in two
years?
(1) Rs.716
(2) Rs.724
(3) Rs.824
(4) Rs.816 (Ans)
(5) None of these
Ans : 2000 = P * 4 * 5/100
P = 10000
Now,
CI = 10000[(1 + 4/100)2 - 1]
= 10000 * 0.0816
= 816
29. Rehaan purchased a bike for Rs.54000. He sold it at a loss of 8 per cent. With that money he again
purchased another bike and sold it at a profit of 10 per cent. What is his overall loss/profit?
(1) Loss of Rs.657
(2) Profit of Rs.567
(3) Loss of Rs.648
(4) Profit of Rs.648 (Ans)
(5) None of these
Ans : Cost price = 54000
Selling price = 54000 * (100-8)/100 = 49680
Now, the cost price of another bike = 49680
Selling price of another bike = 49680 * 110/100 = 54648
Overall profit = 54648 - 54000 = 648
30. Two men alone or three women alone can complete a piece of work in 4 days. In how many days
can one woman and one man together complete the same piece of work?
(1) 6 days
(2) 24/5 days (Ans)
(3) 12/1.75 days

(5) None of these
Ans : 2M = 3W
1M = 3/2 W
1M + 1W = 3/2 W + 1W = 5/2 W
Number of days = 3 * 4/5/2 = 24/5 days
Directions (Q. Nos. 31 to 35) Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow
Number of employees working in four different companies in five different years
Company
Yea
A
B
C
D
r Mal Fema Mal Fema Mal Fema Mal Fema
e le e le e le e le
200 200 400 250 450 350 600 400 450
4 250 150 400 100 550 350 550 600
200 400 250 850 400 350 500 650 450
5 650 400 500 150 650 500 700 600
200 750 300 600 350 400 300 650 400
6
200
7
200
8
31. What was the total number of males working in Company-A in the year 2007, males working in
Company-B in the year 2005 and females working in Company-D in the year 2006 together?
(1) 1550
(2) 1600
(3) 1450
(4) 1400
Ans : Required number
= 650 + 400 + 450 = 1500
32. What was the average number of female employees working in all the companies together in the
year 2004?
(1) 475 (Ans)
(2) 385
(3) 450
(4) 300
(5) None of these
Ans : Average = 400 + 450 + 600 + 450/4
= 1900/4 = 475
33. Total number of male employees working in Company-C over all the years together was
approximately what percentage of total number of employees working in the year 2007 in all the
companies together?
(1) 41
(2) 46
(3) 51
(4) 55 (Ans)
(5) 59
Ans : Total number of male employees working in company. C over all the years together
= 350 + 550 + 350 + 650 + 400 = 2300
Total number of employees working in the companies in the year 2007 together
= 650 + 400+ 500 + 150 + 650 + 500 + 700 + 600 = 4150
Required percentage = 2300/4150 * 100
55%
34. If 20 per cent of male and 30 per cent of female employees in Company-B in the year 2004 were
handicapped, then what was the total number of handicapped candidates in that company in that year?
(1) 185 (Ans)
(2) 170
(3) 190
(4) 195
(5) None of these
Ans : Handicapped employees in company. B in the year 2004
= 250 * 20/100 + 450 * 30/100
= 50 + 135 = 185
35. What was the respective ratio between the number of males in Company-D in the year 2005,
number of females in Company-A in the year 2006 and the number of males in Company-B in the year
2005?
(1) 11 : 5 : 8 (Ans)
(2) 11 : 6 : 8
(3) 12 : 5 : 9
(4) 12 : 5 : 7
(5) 11 : 5 : 9
Ans : Ratio = 550 : 250 : 400
= 11 : 5 : 8
(Dividing by 50 to all)
Directions (Q. Nos. 36 to 40) Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Number of students (in hundreds) from two different schools who qualified in an exam in six
different years
- Qn (136 to 140)
36. What was the approximate per cent increase in the number of students who qualified in the exam
from School-Q in the year 2007 as compared to the precious year ?
(1) 30
(2) 36
(3) 45 (Ans)
(4) 49
(5) 26
Ans : Number of students in school Q in 2007
= 8000
and in year 2006 = 5500
Increase = 8000 - 5500 = 2500
% increase = 2500/5500 * 100 45%
37. What was he respective ratio between the number of students who qualified in the exam from
School- P in the year 2005 and the number of students who qualified in the exam from School-Q in the
year 2008?
(1) 13 : 18
(2) 17 : 18
(3) 17 : 19
(4) 13 : 19
(5) None of these
Ans : Ratio = Student qualified from School P in 2005
Student qualified from School Q in 2008
= 85/90 = 17 : 18
38. What was the difference between the total number of students who qualified in the exam in the year
2005 from both the schools together and the total number of students from School-Q who qualified in
the exam over all the years together?
(1) 30000 (Ans)
(2) 30500
(3) 29000
(4) 29500
(5) None of these
Ans : Students qualified in 2005 from both the schools together
= (85 + 60) * 100 = 145 * 100 = 14500
Total number of students qualified from school over all the years together
= (60 + 55 + 80 + 90 + 75 + 85) * 100
= 445 * 100 = 44500
Difference = 44500 - 14500 = 30000
39. Total number of students who qualified in the exam from School-P over all the years together was
approximately what percentage of total number of students who qualified in the exam from both the
students who qualified in the exam from both the schools together in the year 2006 and 2007 together ?
(1) 143
(2) 159
(3) 155
(4) 165
(5) 147 (Ans)
Ans : Total number of students, who qualified in the exam from school P over all the years together
= (85 + 80 + 95 + 65 + 40 + 90) * 100

= 455 * 100 = 45500
Total number of students, who qualified in the exam from both the schools together in the 2006 and
2007 years together
= (80 + 55 + 95 + 80 +) * 100
= 310 * 100 = 31000
Required percentage = 45500/31000 * 100 147%
40. If 40 per cent of the total students who qualified in the exam from both the schools together over all
the years are females, then what was the total number of males who qualified in the exams over all the
years from both the schools together?
(1) 51000
(2) 54000 (Ans)
(3) 56000
(4) 52000
(5) None of these
Ans : Total number of students, who qualified in the exam over all the years from both the schools
together
= (85 + 60 + 80 + 55 + 95 + 80 + 65 + 90 + 40 + 75 + 90 + 85) * 100
= 900 * 100 = 90000
Required number of males
= 90000 * 60/100
= 54000
[Since females are 40%]
Directions (Q. Nos. 41 to 45) Study the following pie-chart carefully to answer the questions that
follow:
Qno (141 to 145)
41. What was the approximate average number of passengers in Train-S, Train-M and Train-L
together?
(1) 1521
(2) 1641
(3) 1651
(4) 1671 (Ans)
(5) 1691
Ans : Average number = 8500 * (24 + 20 + 15) 1671
100
3
42. If in Train-R 34 per cent of the passengers are females and 26 per cent are children, what is the
number of males in that train?
(1) 306 (Ans)
(2) 316
(3) 308
(4) 318
(5) None of these
Ans : Number of passengers in train R
= 8500 * 9/100 = 765
Number of males = 765 * (100-34-26) = 306
100
43. Number of passengers in the Train-Q is approximately what percentage of the total number of
passengers in Train-A and Train-R?
(1) 90
(2) 70
(3) 75
(4) 80
(5) 86 (Ans)
Ans : Number of passengers in train Q
= 8500 * 19/100 = 1615
Total number of passengers in train A and train R
= 8500 * 13 + 9 /100 = 1870
Required percentage = 1615/1870 * 100
86%
44. Which train has second highest number of passengers?
(1) A
(2) Q
(3) S
(4) M (Ans)
(5) L
Ans : Train M (because having second highest percentage ).
45. How much more per cent (approximately) number of passengers are there in Train-M as compared
to the number of passengers in Train-L?
(1) 29
(2) 49
(3) 4 (4) 33 (Ans)
(5) 39
Ans : Number of passengers in train M

= 8500 * 20/100 = 1700
Number of passengers in train L
= 8500 * 15/100 = 1275
Required percentage = 1700 - 1275 * 100 33%
1275
Directions (Q. Nos. 46 to 50) Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Monthly rent (in Rs. thousands) at five different places in six different years
Place
Year
2005
Churchgate
5.3
2006
12.5
8.3
3.4
4.8
2.1
2007
16.7
11.7
5.5
6.6
1.8
2008
20.9
13.6
9.8
12.7
3.6
2009
25.8
14.5
11.5
14.1
5.5
2010
30.3
20.9
15.6
15.9
7.8
Dadar
Kandivali
Borivali
Virar
3.8
1.5
2.7
1.1
46. In which place, the monthly rent did not increase consistently from year 2005 to 2010?
(1) Churchgate
(2) Dadar
(3) Kandivali
(4) Borivali
(5) Virar (Ans)
47. In which year at Churchgate, the monthly rent increased more than 100% from the previous year?
(1) 2006 (Ans) (2) 2007
(3) 2008
(4) 2009
(5) 2010
Ans : 2006 [12.5 - 5.3/5.3 * 100 = 135.85%]
48. What was the difference between the monthly rent at Dadar in the year 2009 and Borivali in the
year 2007?
(1) Rs. 7600
(2) Rs. 7900 (Ans)
(3) Rs. 8100
(4) Rs. 8600
(5) None of these
Ans : Required difference = (14.5 - 6.6) 1000 = 7900
49. Monthly rent at Kandivali in the year 2008 was approximately what per cent of the total montly rent
at Virar over all the years together?
(1) 30
(2) 33
(3) 38
(4) 42
(5) 45 (Ans)
Ans : Required percentage
=
9.8 * 100
45%
1.1 + 2.1 + 1.8 + 3.6 + 5.5+ 7.8
50. Which city was most expensive in terms of rent?

(1) Churchgate (Ans)
(2) Dadar
(3) Kandivali
(4) Borivali
(5) Virar
Ans : Because of highest average among all.
IBPS CWE clerical Probationary officers PO and specialists officers SO computer

general awareness bank based questions with answers,I BPS rrbs regional banks
questions with answers, All Bank and PSU companies free solved questions with
answers and detailed explanations, SBI, SBT, RRB TCS Infosys, Accenture,
Wipro.CTS,questions with answers, IBPS Aptitude ,Reasoning, Clerical aptitude
questions with answers
IBPS computer awareness questions with answers
1. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT:
A. hackers.
B. spam.
C. viruses.
D. identity theft.
Answer: B
2. A process known as ____________ is used by large retailers to study trends.
A. data mining
B. data selection
C. POS
D. data conversion
Answer: A
3. ____________terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to
complex inventory and sales computer systems.
A. Data
B. Point-of-sale (POS)
C. Sales
D. Query
Answer: B
4. A (n) ____________ system is a small, wireless handheld computer that scans an
items tag and pulls up the current price (and any special offers) as you shop.
A. PSS
B. POS
C. inventory
D. data mining
Answer: A
5. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminals computer is
an example of a law enforcement specialty called:
A. robotics.
B. simulation.
C. computer forensics. D. animation. Answer: C
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major data processing functions of a
computer?
A. gathering data
B. processing data into information
C. analyzing the data or information
D. storing the data or information
Answer: C
7. ____________ tags, when placed on an animal, can be used to record and track in a
database all of the animals movements.
A. POS
B. RFID
C. PPS
D. GPS
Answer: B
8. Surgeons can perform delicate operations by manipulating devices through computers
instead of manually. This technology is known as:
A. robotics.
B. computer forensics.
C. simulation.
D. forecasting.
Answer: A
9. Technology no longer protected by copyright, available to everyone, is considered to
be:
A. proprietary.
B. open.
C. experimental.
D. in the public domain.
Answer: A
10. ____________ is the study of molecules and structures whose size ranges from 1 to
100 nanometers.
A. Nanoscience
B. Microelectrodes
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence
Answer: A
11. ____________ is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the
same type of intelligence that humans do.
A. Nanoscience
B. Nanotechnology
C. Simulation
D. Artificial intelligence (AI)
Answer: D
12. ____________ is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion.
A. A process
B. Software
C. Storage
D. Information
Answer: D
13. The name for the way that computers manipulate data into information is called:
A. programming.
B. processing.
C. storing.
D. organizing.
Answer: B
14. Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to ____________ data.
A. present
B. input
C. output
D. store
Answer: B
15. After a picture has been taken with a digital camera and processed appropriately, the
actual print of the picture is considered:
A. data.
B. output.
C. input.
D. the process.
Answer: B
16. Computers use the ____________ language to process data.
A. processing
B. kilobyte
C. binary
D. representational
Answer: C
17. Computers process data into information by working exclusively with:
A. multimedia.
B. words.
C. characters.
D. numbers.
Answer: D
18. In the binary language each letter of the alphabet, each number and each special
character is made up of a unique combination of:
A. eight bytes.
B. eight kilobytes.
C. eight characters. D. eight bits. Answer: D
19. The term bit is short for:

A. megabyte.
B. binary language.
C. binary digit.
D. binary number.
Answer: C
20. A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a:
A. megabyte.
B. byte.
C. kilobyte.
D. gigabyte.
Answer: B
21. A ____________ is approximately one billion bytes.
A. kilobyte
B. bit
C. gigabyte
D. megabyte
Answer: C
22. A ____________ is approximately a million bytes.
A. gigabyte
B. kilobyte
C. megabyte
D. terabyte
Answer: C
23. ____________ is any part of the computer that you can physically touch.
A. Hardware
B. A device
C. A peripheral
D. An application
Answer: A
24. The components that process data are located in the:
A. input devices.
B. output devices.
C. system unit.
D. storage component.
Answer: C
25. All of the following are examples of input devices EXCEPT a:
A. scanner.
B. mouse.
C. keyboard.
D. printer.
Answer: D
26. Which of the following is an example of an input device?

A. scanner
B. speaker
C. CD
D. printer
Answer: A
27. All of the following are examples of storage devices EXCEPT:
A. hard disk drives.
B. printers.
C. floppy disk drives.
D. CD drives.
Answer: B
28. The ____________, also called the brains of the computer, is responsible for
processing data.
A. motherboard
B. memory
C. RAM
D. central processing unit (CPU)
Answer: D
29. The CPU and memory are located on the:
A. expansion board.
B. motherboard.
C. storage device.
D. output device.
Answer: B
30. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are examples of:
A. application software.
B. system software.
C. operating system software.
D. platform software.
Answer: A
31. ____________ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to help perform
tasks.
A. An instruction
B. Software
C. Memory
D. A processor
Answer: B
32. System software is the set of programs that enables your computers hardware devices
and ____________ software to work together.
A. management
B. processing
C. utility
D. Application Answer: D
33. The PC (personal computer) and the Apple Macintosh are examples of two different:
A. platforms.
B. applications.
C. programs.
D. storage devices.
Answer: A
34. Apple Macintoshes (Macs) and PCs use different ____________ to process data and
different operating systems.
A. languages
B. methods
C. CPUs
D. storage devices
Answer: C
35. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a:
A. network.
B. mainframe.
C. supercomputer.
D. client.
Answer: A
36. Smaller and less expensive PC-based servers are replacing ____________ in many
businesses.
A. supercomputers
B. clients
C. laptops
D. mainframes
Answer: D
37. ____________ are specially designed computers that perform complex
calculationsextremely rapidly.
A. Servers
B. Supercomputers
C. Laptops
D. Mainframes
Answer: B
38. DSL is an example of a(n) ____________ connection.
A. network
B. wireless
C. slow
D. broadband
Answer: D
39. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those
without this access is known as the:
A. digital divide.
B. Internet divide.
C. Web divide.
D. broadband divide. Answer:
40. ____________ is the science revolving around the use of nanostructures to build
devices on an extremely small scale.
A. Nanotechnology
B. Micro-technology
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence
Answer: A
41. Which of the following is the correct order of the four major functions of a computer?
A. Process an Output an Input a Storage
B. Input an Output Process a Storage
C. Process an Storage an Input a Output
D. Input a Process a Output a Storage
Answer: D
42. ____________ bits equal one byte.
A. Eight
B. Two
C. One thousand
D. One million
Answer: A
43. The binary language consists of ____________ digit(s).
A. 8
B. 2
C. 1,000
D. 1
Answer: B
44. A byte can hold one ____________ of data.
A. bit
B. binary digit
C. character
D. kilobyte
Answer: C
45. ____________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a
means by which users can interact with the computer.
A. The platform
B. The operating system
C. Application software
D. The motherboard
Answer: B
46. The operating system is the most common type of ____________ software.
A. communication
B. application
C. system
D. word-processing software
Answer: C
47. ____________ are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices,
such as your car or your electronic thermostat.
A. Servers
B. Embedded computers
C. Robotic computers
D. Mainframes
Answer: B
48. The steps and tasks needed to process data, such as responses to questions or clicking
an icon, are called:
A. instructions.
B. the operating system.
C. application software.
D. the system unit.
Answer: A
49. The two broad categories of software are:
A. word processing and spreadsheet.
B. transaction and application.
C. Windows and Mac OS.
D. system and application.
Answer: D
50. The metal or plastic case that holds all the physical parts of the computer is the:
A. system unit.
B. CPU.
C. mainframe.
D. platform.
Answer: A
51. UNIVAC is
b. Universal Array Computer
c. Unique Automatic Computer
d. Unvalued Automatic Computer
UNIVAC is
Correct Answer: a. Universal Automatic Computer
Explanation: There are no computers with the name as in other options. UNIVAC was
the first general purpose electronic digital computer designed for commercial use,
produced by Universal Accounting Company of John Mauchly and J.P.Eckert in 1951.
52.
CD-ROM stands for
a. Compactable Read Only Memory

b. Compact Data Read Only Memory
c. Compactable Disk Read Only Memory
d. Compact Disk Read Only Memory
CD-ROM stands for

Correct Answer: d. Compact Disk Read Only Memory
Explanation: There are no objects with the name as in other options. CD-ROM is a
non-volatile optical data storage medium using the same physical format as audio
compact disk, readable by a computer with a CD-ROM drive. The standard 12 cm
diameter CD-ROM store about 660 megabytes.
53. ALU is
a. Arithmetic Logic Unit
b. Array Logic Unit
c. Application Logic Unit
d. None of above
ALU is
Correct Answer: a. Arithmetic Logic Unit
Explanation: ALU is a unit in Central Processing Unit in a computer system that is
responsible for arithmetic calculations and logical operations. Apart from ALU, the
CPU contains MU (Memory Unit) and CU (Control Unit).
54. VGA is
a. Video Graphics Array
b. Visual Graphics Array
c. Volatile Graphics Array
d. Video Graphics Adapter
VGA is
Correct Answer: a. Video Graphics Array
Explanation: VGA is a type of Graphics Adapter. Graphic Adapter is an electronic
board that controls the display of a monitor. This device helps the motherboard to
work with the monitor and in VGA and SVGA the last letter A stands for Array
whereas in MDA, CGA, MCGA the last letter A stands for Adapter.
55. IBM 1401 is
a. First Generation Computer
b. Second Generation Computer
c. Third Generation Computer
d. Fourth Generation Computer
IBM 1401 is
Correct Answer: b. Second Generation Computer
Explanation: IBM 1401 is a Second Generation Computer and is the first computer to
enter Nepal in 2028 BS for census. Government of Nepal had brought this computer
on rent and later purchased for data processing in Bureau of Statistics. After this
computer, another ICL 2950/10, a British computer, was purchased by the fund of UNDP
and UNFPA for the census of 2038 BS is second computer in Nepal.

56. MSI stands for
a. Medium Scale Integrated Circuits
b. Medium System Integrated Circuits
c. Medium Scale Intelligent Circuit
d. Medium System Intelligent Circuit
MSI stands for
Correct Answer: a. Medium Scale Integrated Circuits
Explanation: After the invention of IC chips the development of computers plunged
into next phase. Small Scale Integration and Medium Scale Integration (SSI and MSI)
were used in third generation of computers and Large Scale Integration and Very
Large Scale Integration (LSI and VLSI) are being used in fourth generation of
computers. People are now expecting ULSI (Ultra Large Scale Integration) Circuits to
be used for fifth generation computers.
57. The capacity of 3.5 inch floppy disk is
a. 1.40 MB
b. 1.44 GB
c. 1.40 GB
d. 1.44 MB
The capacity of 3.5 inch floppy disk is
Correct Answer: d. 1.44 MB
Explanation: Microfloppy disks (3.5 inch) if it is high density (MF2HD) can store 1.44
MB and if it is low density (MF2DD), it can store 720 KB. Mini Floppy disks (5.25 inch)
if it is high density (MD2HD) can store 1.2 MB and low density (MD2DD) stores 360 KB
of data.
58. The first computer introduced in Nepal was
a. IBM 1400
b. IBM 1401
c. IBM 1402
d. IBM1402
The first computer introduced in Nepal was
Correct Answer: b. IBM 1401
Explanation: IBM 1401, a second generation computer was brought in Nepal by the
Government of Nepal paying One Lakh and twenty five thousands per month to use
in the census in 2028 B.S. Before this computer, Nepal was using a calculating device
called Facit for statistical tasks.
59. WAN stands for
a. Wap Area Network
b. Wide Area Network
c. Wide Array Net

d. Wireless Area Network
WAN stands for
Correct Answer: b. Wide Area Network
Explanation: There are three different classes of computer network namely, Local Area
Network (LAN) that covers a small geographical area such as a room, a building or a
compound; Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) that has a citywide coverage; and Wide Area
Network (WAN) that covers the whole globe or beyond the globe.
60. MICR stands for
a. Magnetic Ink Character Reader
b. Magnetic Ink Code Reader
c. Magnetic Ink Cases Reader
d. None
MICR stands for
Correct Answer: a. Magnetic Ink Character Reader
Explanation: MICR (Magnetic Ink Character Reader) is kind of scanner that can scan
and identify the writing of magnetic ink. This device is used in banks to verify
signatures in Checks.
61. EBCDIC stands for
a. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
b. Extended Bit Code Decimal Interchange Code
c. Extended Bit Case Decimal Interchange Code
d. Extended Binary Case Decimal Interchange Code
EBCDIC stands for
Correct Answer: a. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
Explanation: EBCDIC is an 8-bit binary code for larger IBMs primarily mainframes in
which each byte represent one alphanumeric character or two decimal digits. 256
characters can be coded using EBCDIC.
62. BCD is
a. Binary Coded Decimal
b. Bit Coded Decimal
c. Binary Coded Digit
d. Bit Coded Digit
BCD is
Correct Answer: a. Binary Coded Decimal
Explanation: BCD is a binary coded notation in which each of the decimal digits is
expressed as a 8-bit binary numeral. For example in binary coded decimal notation 12
is 0001 0010 as opposed to 1100 in pure binary.
63. ASCII stands for

a. American Stable Code for International Interchange
b. American Standard Case for Institutional Interchange
d. American Standard Code for Interchange Information
ASCII stands for
Correct Answer: c. American Standard Code for Information Interchange
Explanation: ASCII is a code which converts characters letters, digits, punctuations
and control characters such as Alt, Tab etc into numeral form. ASCII code is used to
represent data internally in micro-computers. ASCII codes are 7 bits and can
represent 0 to 127 and extended ASCII are 8 bits that represents 0 to 255.
64. Which of the following is first generation of computer
a. EDSAC
b. IBM-1401
c. CDC-1604
d. ICL-2900
Correct Answer: a. EDSAC
Explanation: IBM-1401, CDC-1604 is second generation computer. ICL-2900 is a
fourth generation computer. EDSAC is important in the development of computer
since it was the first computer to use John von. Neumanns Stored Program Concept.
It used 3000 vacuum tubes and computers with vacuum tubes are of first generation
computers.
65. Chief component of first generation computer was
a. Transistors
c. Integrated Circuits
d. None of above
Correct Answer: b. Vacuum Tubes and Valves
Explanation: Transistors were used for second generation computers and integrated
circuits in third generation. First generation computers used vacuum tubes and
valves as their main electronic component. Vacuum Tubes were invented by Lee
DeForest in 1908.
66. FORTRAN is
a. File Translation
b. Format Translation
d. Floppy Translation
Correct Answer: c. Formula Translation
Explanation: FORTRAN (Formula Translation) is one of the earlier High Level

programming languages used to write scientific applications. It was developed by
IBM in 1956.
67. EEPROM stand for
b. Easily Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
c. Electronic Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
Correct Answer: a. Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
Explanation: There are three types of ROM namely, PROM, EPROM and EEPROM.
PROM cant be reprogrammed, EPROM can be erased by exposing it in high intensity
ultraviolet light and EEPROM can be erased and reprogrammed electrically. It is not
needed to be removed from the computer to be modified.
68. Second Generation computers were developed during
a. 1949 to 1955
b. 1956 to 1965
c. 1965 to 1970
d. 1970 to 1990
Correct Answer: 1956 to 1965
Explanation: Second generation computers used transistors as their main electronic
component. Transistor was invented by Bell Lab Scientists John Burdeen, Walter
Brattain and William Shockley in 1947 and won the Nobel Prize in 1956 but it was not
used in computers till 1956. The second generation continued until the
implementation of IC chips invented by Jack Kilby in Texas Instruments in 1958.
69. The computer size was very large in
a. First Generation
c. Third Generation
Correct Answer: a. First Generation
Explanation: It is obvious that computers developed with more power, reliability,
speed and smaller sizes due to the enhancement of technology. First generation
computers used 1000s of vacuum tubes that required lot of space made them
gigantic in size. Single transistor could replace 1000 vacuum tubes and a single IC
chip replaced 1000s of transistors made computers smaller and more speedy.
70. Microprocessors as switching devices are for which generation computers
a. First Generation
c. Third Generation
Correct Answer: Fourth Generation
Explanation: Microprocessors further revolutionized the development of computers.
Personal microcomputers were possible due to the microprocessors. The first

microprocessor called Intel 4004 was developed by American Intel Corporation in
1971. Microprocessors are used in the computers of fourth generation computers.
71. Which generation of computer is still under development
a. Fourth Generation
b. Fifth Generation
c. Sixth Generation
d. Seventh Generation
Correct Answer: b. Fifth Generation
Explanation: Todays computer fall under the fourth generation computers that uses
the LSI and VLSI Integrated Circuits. For fifth generation computers it is expected for
Ultra Large Scale Integrated Circuits (ULSI). The study for using Gallium Arsenide
instead of silicon chips is underway. Electrons can travel 5 times faster in Gallium
Arsenide compared to the silicon. Similarly, genetically engineered protein molecules
are being tried for processors. Fifth generation computers are expected to have
artificial intelligence, ability to use natural language.
72. Artificial Intelligence is associated with which generation?
a. First Generation
c. Fifth Generation
d. Sixth Generation
Correct Answer: c. Fifth Generation
Explanation: A computer is a slave in a box. This is a saying due to the lack of
intelligence in computer in spite of their speed, accuracy, diligence and reliability. A
computer can only perform instructed task in the way already programmed. Thus,
scientists are trying to develop artificial intelligence in computers so that they can
think and make decisions themselves. This is expected for fifth generation
computers.
73. Which operation is not performed by computer
a. Inputting
b. Processing
c. Controlling
d. Understanding
Correct Answer: d. Understanding
Explanation: Computers cant understand since they dont have intelligence. Lets
hope in fifth generation they will achieve artificial intelligence and be able to
understand.
74. Fifth generation computer is also known as
b. Very large scale integration (VLSI)
c. Both of above
d. None of above
Correct Answer: a. Knowledge information processing system
Explanation: Fifth Generation computers will have artificial intelligence and will be
able to understand making knowledge information processing system possible,
75. Central Processing Unit is combination of
a. Control and storage
b. Control and output unit
c. Arithmetic logic and input unit
Correct Answer: d. Arithmetic logic and control unit
Explanation: Arithmetic logic and control unit along with memory unit forms a
complete central processing unit and central processing unit along with input/output
unit forms a computer system.
76. The brain of any computer system is
a. Control Unit
b. Arithmetic Logic Unit
d. Storage Unit
Correct Answer: c. Central Processing Unit
Explanation: Control unit or arithmetic logical unit alone can not represent the
function of brain to compare with neither does storage unit only. Central Processing
Unit is the combination of control, arithmetic logic and memory units thus can be
compared with brain that controls the body, processes its functions and remembers.
77. Pick the one that is used for logical operations or comparisons such as less than equal
to or greater than.
b. Control Unit
c. Both of above
d. None of above
Correct Answer: a. Arithmetic and Logic Unit
Explanation: Logical sub-unit of ALU performs all the comparisons such as less than
equal to or greater than. Arithmetic sub-unit of ALU performs calculations such as
addition, subtraction and so on.
78. Analog computer works on the supply of
b. Electrical pulses but not continuous
c. Magnetic strength
Correct Answer: a. Continuous electrical pulses
Explanation: Analog computers works on the continuous electrical pulses and digital
computers work on the discrete electrical pulses. Analog computers need to process
physical quantities such as temperature, pressure, speed etc.
79. Digital devices are
a. Digital Clock
b. Automobile speed meter
c. Clock with a dial and two hands

d. All of them
Correct Answer: a. Digital Clock.
Explanation: Automobile speed meter and clock with a dial and two hands are analog
devices. Speed meter works on speed of wheel and the later works on tension of
dialed spring.
80. The computer that process both analog and digital is called
a. Analog computer
b. Digital computer
c. Hybrid computer
d. Mainframe computer
Correct Answer c. Hybrid Computer
Explanation: Analog, Digital and Hybrid are the three classes of computers based on
the work or principle on which computer work. Hybrid computers can perform both
the tasks of analog computers as well as hybrid computers. These computers are
used in aircraft, hospitals where measuring physical quantities and converting them
into digital data to analyze is required.
81. To navigate to a new web page for which you know the URL, type that URL in the
browser's ........ and press Enter.
(1) Address bar (Ans)
(2) Domain bar
(3) Address button
(4) Name button
(5) None of these
82. The CPU, also called the .... when talking about PCs, does the vast majority of the
processing for a computer.
(1) Maicroprocessor
(2) RAM
(3) Memory system
(4) Microprocessor (Ans)
(5) None of these
83. A computer's type, processor, and operating system define its ........ .
(1) brand
(2) size
(3) platform
(4) speed (Ans)
(5) None of these
84.
A kiosk
(1) is data organized and presented in a manner that has additional value beyond the value
of the data itself
(2) combines microscopic electronic components on a single integrated circuit that
processes bits according to software instructions
(3) is a computer station that provides the public with specific and useful information
and services (Ans)
(4) describes a computer's type, processor, and operating system
(5) None of the above
85. The part of the CPU that accesses and decodes programme instructions, and
coordinates the flow of data among various system components is the
(1) ALU
(2) control unit (Ans)
(3) megahertz
(4) motherboard
(5) None of these
86. Computer programs are written in a high level programming language, however, the
human-readable version of a program is called
(1) cache
(2) instruction set
(3) source code (Ans)

(4) word size
(5) None of these
87.
What is the difference between a CD-ROM and a CD-RW ?
(1) They are the same-just two different terms used by different manufacturers
(2) A CD-ROM can be written to and a CD-RW cannot
(3) A CD-RW can be written to, but a CD-ROM can only be read from (Ans)
(4) A CD-ROM holds more information than a CD-RW
88.
What is the term for how words will appear on a page?
(1) Text formatting (Ans)

(2) Character formatting
(3) Point size
(4) Typeface
(5) None of these
89. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the Internet is
known as
(1) pulling
(2) pushing
(3) downloading (Ans)
(4) transferring
(5) None of these
90.
When sending an e-mail, the .... line describes the contents of the message.
(1) subject (Ans)

(2) to
(3) contents
(4) cc
(5) None of these
91.
All the deleted files go to
(1) Recycle bin (Ans)

(2) Task bar
(3) Tool bar
(4) My Computer
(5) None of these
92.
You organize files by storing them in
(1) archives
(2) folders (Ans)
(3) indexes
(4) lists
(5) None of these
93.
A website address in a unique name that identifies a specific ...... on the web.
(1) web browser (Ans)

(2) website
(3) PDA
(4) lin
(5) None of these

94. ........... are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such as
your car or your electronic thermostat.
(1) Servers
(2) Embedded computers (Ans)
(3) Robotic computers
(4) Mainframes
(5) None of these
95. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to
largest ?
(1) Character, file, record, field, database
(2) Character, record, field, file, database
(3) Character, field, record, file, database
(4) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database (Ans)
96.
Which of the following, statements is false concerning file names ?
(1) Files may share the same name or the same extension but not both
(2) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name
(3) File extension is another name for file type
(4) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the files
(5) None of the above (Ans)
97. A disk's content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be
changed or erased by the user is
(1) memory-only
(2) write-only
(3) read-only (Ans)
(4) run-only
(5) None of these
98.
Distributed processing involves
(1) solving computer component problems from a different computer

(2) solving computing problems by breaking them into smaller parts that are
separately processed by different computers (Ans)
(3) allowing users to share files on a network
(4) allowing users to access network resources away from the office
99. The operating system determines the manner in which all of the following occurs
except
(1) user creation of a document
(2) user interaction with the processor (Ans)
(3) printer output
(4) data displayed on the monitor
100. Office LANs that are spread geographically apart on a large scale can be connected
using a corporate
(1) CAN
(2) LAN (Ans)
(3) DAN
(4) WAN (5) TAN
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IBPS clerical cadre Quantitative Aptitude Model Paper Questions Test 1 model questions for
practice
1. By what number less than 1000 must 43259 be multiplied So that the last three figures to
the right of the product may be 437?
(a) 743 (b) 658 (c) 701 (d) None of these
Answer-a
2. By what least number must 217800 be multiplied in order to make it a perfect square?
Answer-a
3. Find the least number by which 19404 must be multiplied or divided so as to make it a
perfect square.
Answer-c
4. Find the smallest number which is a perfect square and contains 1400 as a factor.
Answer-b
5. Find in the blank indicated by a star in the number 456 so as to make it divisible by 33
Answer-a
6. By what least number must 6796 by multiplied or divided in order that the resulting number
may be a perfect square?
Answer-b
7. Find the greatest number that will divide 964, 1238 and 1400 leaving remainders 41,31 and
51 respectively.
Answer-a
8. Find the greatest number that will divide 19409 and 43037 leaving remainders 17 and 29
respectively.
Answer-b
9. Find the greatest number that will divide 964, 1238, 1400 leaving remainders 41, 31 and 51
respectively.
Answer-b
10. Find the greatest number which will divide 12288, 28200, and 44333 so as to leave the same
remainder in each case.
Answer-a
Directions (questions 1 to 5): Read the following information and answer the questions given
below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same
order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.
1. Which of the following statements may be false?

(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
2. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D

(e) None of these
Ans (d)
3. Who is at the extreme right?
(a) Data inadequate
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
5. What is the position of F?
(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out
which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)
7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 4
exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which
immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6.
How many such 4s and 6s together are there?
54462635642843766483
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter
indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when
the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without
altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel
in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is
substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.
9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are
taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the
alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new
arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these

Ans (a)
12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters
between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)
13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not
belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)
14. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters
with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)
15. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)
16. If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(d) ADAMRAN
(e)None of these
Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park

17. If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are
working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled
day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and
walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by
using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.
21. ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these

Ans (c) There is no alphabet S in the question
22. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
23. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
24. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
25. ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
Directions (questions 26 to30 ):Read the following information and answer the questions given
below.

(e) None of these
Ans (d)
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
(a) Data inadequate
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
31 Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different. Find out
which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)
32 . In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 4
exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which
immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6.
How many such 4s and 6s together are there?
54462635642843766483
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
33. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter
indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when
the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without
altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
Directions (Q.34 & 35): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a
vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is
substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.
34 . How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
35 . How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
36 . If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the alphabet are
taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the remaining letters of the
alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th letter from the left in the new
arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)
37 . How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters
between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)
38 . Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not
belong to the group?
Ans (d)
39 . Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters
with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)
40 . Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)
41 . If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(d) ADAMRAN
(e)None of these
42 . If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
43. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women are
working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
44. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the scheduled
day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
45 . Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right and
walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
Directions (Questions 46 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed by
using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.
46 ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
47. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
48. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
49. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
50 ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
IBPS Bank PO CWE previous years written test examination questions with answers,IBPS
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1. As per a report, India received $2.21 billion in foreign direct investment in February 2012. Which
among the following countries is the top source of FDI to India?
[A]Singapore
[B]Mauritius
[C]USA
[D]Japan
Mauritius
2. Recently we read in the newspapers that Central Bureau of Investigations (CBI) has been
investigating some companies for alleged violations of provisions of FCRA, 2010. What is this FCRA
2010?
[A]Foreign Companies Regulation Act 2010
[B]Fiscal Control & Regulation Act 2010
[C]Foreign Commercial Representation Act 2010
[D]Foreign Contribution Regulation Act 2010
Foreign Contribution Regulation Act 2010
3. In India, the Foreign Exchange Reserves are kept in the custody of which among the following?
[A]Ministry of Finance
[B]EXIM Bank
[C]Reserve Bank of India
[D]Select Public Sector Banks
Reserve Bank of India
4. Which among the following country has started paying Indian Exporters in Indian Rupees, after an
arrangement to that effect has been done by Government of India?
[A]Pakistan
[B]Iran
[C]Myanmar
[D]South Korea
Iran
India's exporters have begun receiving the first rupee payments from Iran, thus kicking off the
mechanism to skirt Western sanctions from March 2012.
5. Many banks in India have gone for ISO 27001:2005 certification for compliance with which among
the following?
[A]Best Customer Service
[B]Best Security Practices
[C]Excellent Financial strength
[D]Excellent Business Values
Best Security Practices
ISO/IEC 27001:2005 is for Information technology -- Security techniques -- Information security
management systems -- Requirements
6. Which among the following data are released in India on monthly basis?
1. CPI
2. WPI
3. IIP
[A]Only 1 & 3
[B]Only 2 & 3
[C]Only 1
[D]1,2 & 3
1,2 & 3
7. Republic of Tatarstan was recently making news as an Indian company has reportedly decided to
invest in petrochemical or refining facility in the region. Which among the following statements is correct
about Republic of Tatarstan?
[A]Its an independent Country in Central Asia
[B]It?s a foreign territory administered by UK
[C]It?s a federal subject of Russia
[D]It?s a sovereign country in Middle East
It?s a federal subject of Russia
8. Which of the following state Governments in India has recently launched the gram suraj abhiyan
(village contact programme) to reach to the door of the people in the remote areas of the state?
[A]Rajasthan
[B]Madhya Pradesh
[C]Chhattisgarh
[D]Punjab
Chhattisgarh
9. Which among the following organization is largely funding the National Dairy Plan?Phase I ?
[A]International Development Association
[B]Asian Development Bank
[C]IBRD
[D]UNDP
International Development Association
The new central sector scheme, National Dairy Plan?Phase I (NDP-I) with an outlay of Rs 2,242 crore
will be launched on April 19, 2012 at National Dairy Development Board, Anand by Sharad Pawar,
union agriculture minister, government of India. Gujarat chief minister, Narendra Modi will remain
present at the event. The plan is for six years and will be implemented in the 14 major milk producing
states. The scheme will be largely financed with loan from the International Development Association of
the World Bank and implemented by NDDB through end implementing agencies.
10. Which among the following is the short name of highest authority in India for Indirect Taxes?
[A]CBED
[B]CBDT
[C]CBEC
[D]CBIT
Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC)
11. Which among the following can not be called an ant inflationary measure?
[A]Raising the Bank Rates
[B]Raising the Reserve Ratio Requirements
[C]Purchase of securities in the Open Markets
[D]Rationing of the Credit
Purchase of securities in the Open Markets
The C is correct option. This is because Purchase of securities in the Open Markets would lead to more
liquidity system and more liquidity means more money will chase the same goods.
12. If the Reserve Bank of India wants to increase the Cash Reserves commercial Banks, which among
the following would be the most probable step taken by it ?
[A]Release Gold from its reserves
[B]Buy bonds in the open market
[C]Prohibit the transactions that involve bill of exchange
[D]Increase the tranche reserves with the IMF
Buy bonds in the open market
When RBI buys bonds in the open market, Banks get money and Cash Reserves would increase.
13. The Government of India has recently launched a ?Youth to the Edge? pilot scheme in North East
India for which among the following purposes?
[A]To encourage the youth of the North East India to take active participation in development
programmes
[B]To provide laptops to the Youth of the North East India
[C]To introduce youth from rest of India to the North Eastern Culture
[D]To provide vocational education to the youth of North East
To introduce youth from rest of India to the North Eastern Culture
The Pilot Scheme aims to introduce youth from rest of India to the North Eastern Region (NER) and
organise combined adventure activities along with the youth from NER. They will also be given
exposure about local culture, traditions and life style. Conduct of adventure training will benefit the
participants by inculcating spirit of adventure, environmental awareness, national integration, casualty
evacuation, promotion of adventure tourism, channelizing youth energy in positive direction, sense of
self employment and self recognition.
14. What is the approximate average fertilizer consumption in India per hectare of land?
[A]120 Kg
[B]140 Kg
[C]170 Kg
[D]200 Kg
140 Kg
With average fertilizer consumption at 144.14 kg per hectare India is using much less quantities of
chemical fertilizers compared to other developing countries. But imbalanced use of chemical fertilizers
coupled with low addition of organic matter and neglect of micro and secondary nutrients over the years
has resulted in nutrient deficiency and deterioration of soil health in many parts of the country,
particularly in the intensively cultivated Indo-Gangetic plains.
15. The new variety Rajarajan 1000 is of which among the following?
[A]Cotton
[B]Wheat
[C]Coffee
[D]Rice
Rice
16 Barclays Chairman 'Marcus Agius' was recently compelled to resign for being involved in a scandal
which has dealt a devastating blow to the bank's reputation.The scandal is related to:
[A]Insider trading
[B]LIBOR interest rates
[C]Money laundering
[D]Credit Default Swap
LIBOR interest rates
17. Who among the following has become the third cricketer from India, after Mohammed Azharuddin
and Ajay Sharma in 2000, to suffer a life ban for bringing the game into disrepute?
[A]T.Sudhindra
[B]Abhinav Bali
[C]Shalabh Srivastava
[D]Mohnish Mishra
T.Sudhindra
18. Which online travel portal has acquired 'Travelguru', the Indian arm of US travel services provider
Travelocity, to become the largest provider of hotel bookings in the country?
[A]Tripadvisor.com
[B]Yatra.com
[C]Makemytrip.com
[D]Cleartrip.com
Yatra.com
19. Sistema Shyam Teleservices Ltd.(SSTL) lost 21 licences after the Indian Supreme Court cancelled
all 2G spectrum licences in February, 2012. Sistema, which holds a 53 per cent stake in SSTL is a
_______ conglomerate.
[A]German
[B]Ukrainian
[C]Russian
[D]Italian
Russian
20. Which of the following places was recently attacked by armed militants from the fundamentalist
'Ansar Dine' group just two days after it was named as an endangered world heritage site by UNESCO?
[A]Baku,Azerbaijan
[B]Zabid,Yemen
[C]Timbuktu, Mali
[D]Bamiyan Valley, Afghanistan
Timbuktu, Mali
21. Who among the following was recently appointed as the director of ISRO Satellite Centre (ISAC)?
[A]S.K.Shivakumar
[B]T.K.Alex
[C]Roddam Narasimha
[D]A.Sivathanu Pillai
S.K.Shivakumar
22. Which among following has recently been included by UNESCO in its coveted list of World Heritage
Sites?
[A]Silk Route sites in India
[B]Matheran Light Railway Network
[C]Riverine Island of Majuli
[D]Western Ghats
Western Ghats
29 Consider the following Statements:
1.There are 12 Millenium Development Goals(MDGs) which have to be met by 2015.
2.According to the latest United Nations Report, India is likely to miss the Millennium Development Goal
(MDG) related to maternal health.
Which among the above Statement(s) is/are correct?
[A]Only 1
[B]Only 2
[C]Both 1 and 2
[D]Neither 1 nor 2
Only 2
30 The 2012 UEFA European Football Championship, commonly referred to as Euro 2012 was won by :
[A]Spain
[B]Italy
[C]Portugal
[D]Germany
Spain
31 Which Panel/Committee has recently given recommendations for deletion of cartoons on politicians
and bureaucrats from the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) textbooks?
[A]Yash Pal Committee
[B]D.S Kothari Committee
[C]G.V.Ramakrishna Panel
[D]S.K.Thorat Panel
S.K.Thorat Panel
32. Which among the following organization has been conducting surveys of the strength of financial
markets of various countries and ranks them accordingly in its flagship annual "Financial Development
Report"?
[A]G-20
[B]UNCTAD
[C]World Economic Forum
[D]World Bank
World Economic Forum
33 Which among the following sector has been the most affected sector in Global Economy by the
Global Financial Crisis?
[A]Banking & Finance
[B]Agriculture
[C]Manufacturing Industries
[D]Auto Industries
Banking & Finance
Banking & Finance sector were hit most followed by Auto sector. The sub prime lending was the reason
and Banks from US Govt. wished to provide bail out packages to them
34. In context with the Mid Day Meal Scheme, consider the following statements:
1. It?s a social Sector programme
2. The scheme has a long history especially in Tamil Nadu and Gujarat
3. Its precursor programme was National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education (NPNSPE) in 1995
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A]Only 1
[B]1 & 2
[C]2 & 3
[D]1, 2 & 3
2&3
First statement is not correct , because its not a social sector programme. Please note that today, Mid
day Meal scheme is serving primary and upperprimary school children in entire country.
35. Many a times, we read in Financial Newspapers about a term called "Loan Syndication". What
exactly is Loan Syndication?
[A]In Loan Syndication, more than one debtors applying for a loan to one creditor
[B]In Loan Syndication, more than one creditors coming together to provide single loan
[C]In Loan Syndication, more than one creditors coming together to provide multiple loans
[D]All of above
In Loan Syndication, more than one creditors coming together to provide single loan
36. Many a times, we read in the newspapers about the "Indian Depository Receipts". Which among the
following is not a correct statement about the "Indian Depository Receipts"?
[A]They are derivative instruments
[B]They have shares as the underlying assets
[C]They are non-negotiable Financial instruments
[D]They are regulated by RBI as well as SEBI
They are non-negotiable Financial instruments C is incorrect Global Depository Receipts (GDRs) and
American depository receipts (ADRs) & Indian Depository Receipts all are negotiable instruments.
37. The Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF) for promotion of investors? awareness and
protection of the interests of investors, is under which among the following ministries in India?
[A]Ministry of Finance
[B]Ministry of Corporate Affairs
[C]Ministry of Commerce
[D]Ministry of Overseas Affairs
Ministry of Corporate Affairs
38 The "Malwa Trophy" is related to which of the following sports?
[A]Cricket
[B]Hockey
[C]Football
[D]Volleyball
Football
39. Many a times, we read about the Teaser Rates in newspapers. What exactly comprises "Teaser
Rates" ?
[A]A bank advertises heavily on higher interest rates on the fixed deposits and other debt instruments
and then lowers the rate suddenly
[B]A bank advertises heavily on to draw potential customers by offering them rewards on home loan
agreements and following acceptance, the buyer is forced to pay back a higher interest rate on the
loans
[C]A Bank offers a low introductory rate in the beginning on a home loan, which increases after a
certain period and higher than the normal rate
[D]A Bank offers high introductory rate in deposit instruments which later on goes down after a certain
period
A Bank offers a low introductory rate in the beginning on a home loan, which increases after a certain
period and higher than the normal rate
40. In context with various Banking Related terms, what is the correct full form of PCR?
[A]Profit Credit Ratio
[B]Provision Credit Ratio
[C]Provisioning Coverage Ratio
[D]Profit Coverage Ratio
Provisioning Coverage Ratio
Provision coverage ratio refers to the percentage of the loan amount that the bank has set aside as
provisions to meet an eventuality where the loan might have to be written off it becomes irrecoverable.
In simple terms it can be explained as bad debts which becomes a loss to the bank. It is a measure that
indicates the extent to which the bank has provided (set aside money to bear the loss) against the
troubled part of its loan portfolio. Provision coverage ratio = Cumulative provisions / Gross NPAs Here
NPA means Non ?Performing Asset.
40. In context with the investment in securities, what exactly do we call the process under which the
value of the securities is taken into account at their current price ?
[A]Security Pricing
[B]Market Pricing
[C]Mark to Market
[D]Security Valuation
DECEMBER 12 2012
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1. Which 3 eminent persons nominated by the government for as members of Rajya Sabha on April 26,
2012 ?
Ans:- Sachin Tendulkar, actress Rekha and industrialist Anu Aga
2. Which indian Bollywood actress passed away recently ?
Ans:- Achla Sachdev
3. Who won India Open badminton 2012 Mens singles title ?
Ans:- Shon Wan Ho (South Korea)
4. Who won India Open badminton 2012 Womens singles title ?

Ans:- Li Xuerui(China)
5. Who won 6 NTR National Literary Award ?
Ans:- Ashokamitran (Tamil writer)
6. Name of new web-enabled mobile Phone launched by Nokia ?
Ans:- Asha 202
7. Who win 28th Asian snooker title ?
Ans:- Aditya Mehta (defeated Pankaj Advani)
8. Who has been elected as New President of France ?
Ans:- Francois Hollande (defeating the incumbent Nicolas Sarkozy)
9. Who became the first batsman to hit five consecutive Twenty20 half-centuries ?
Ans:- Virender Sehwag (In IPL-5)
10. Who were awarded with Kalpana Chawla excellence award on 6 May 2012 ?
Ans:- Miss India World Vinya Mishra and actress Sushma Seth
11. Which indian discus thrower created a new national record bywinning the silver medal at the Altius
Track Crew Throwdown meet in Maui Island, Hawaii ?
Ans:- Krishna Poonia (64.76 meters)
12. Who became the first-ever batsman to cross 2000 runs in the Indian Premier League ?
Ans:- Suresh Raina
13. Who has re-appointed as Attorney General of india ?
Ans:- Goolam E.Vahanvati
14. Which missile was successfully test-fired by pakistan on May 012 ?
Ans:- Hatf III Ghaznavi missile (Range 290 km)
15. What is HSRP ?
Ans:- High Security Registration number Plates
16. when was Indias first Parliament session held ?
Ans:- 13th May, 1952 ( On 13 may, 2012 Indian Parliament celebrate 60th anniversary)
17. When was the World red cross day celebrated?
Ans:- May 8th (every year)
18. Who won Junior Hockey World Cup 2012 ?
Ans:- Malaysia (defeated Pakistan)

19. Which mobile manufacturer became Number One Mobile Company in the World ?
Ans:- Samsung (Korean mobile company)
20. Who is elected as new chairman of Atomic Energy Commission of India ?
Ans:- Dr.Ratan Kumar Sinha
21. Who has been elected New Chairman of the Standing Committee of Parliament on Personnel
Public Grievances, Law and Justice ?
Ans:- Shantaram Naik
22. Which 2 Indian women Squash Players won the 16th Asian Team Squash Championship in Kuwait?
Ans:- Dipika Pallikal (ranked 14th) and Joshna Chinnappa (ranked 71st)
23. Name of The joint exercise carried out by the Army and the Indian Air Force in the desert of
Rajasthan ?
Ans:- Operation Shoorveer
24. Who has been elected as Chair of the ADBs( Asian Development Bank) Board of Governors,
India ?
Ans:- Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee
25. Who was sworn in as Russian president for 3rd time?
Ans:- Vladimir Putin
26. who has been selected as the brand ambassador of Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan (a programme of the
rural development ministry to spread awareness about sanitation and cleanliness in india) ?
Ans:- Vidya Balan
27. Who became the 1st player to win Barcelona title for 7 times?
Ans:- Rafael Nadal
28. Which English tean won 2012 FA Cup Final ?
Ans:- Chelsea (defeat Liverpool by 2-1)
29. Who has been conferred with his first American Honorary Doctorate by the Miami University ?
Ans:- A.R.Rahman
30. Which 3 northeastern Indian states will have its own high courts?
Ans:- Tripura, Manipur and Meghalaya
31. Who won the Madrid Masters woman singles title 2012 ?
Ans:- Serena Williams
32. Who won the men singles Madrid Masters title 2012?
Ans:- Roger Federer
33. Who became Worlds Oldest Women to climb the Mount Everest the worlds highest mountain
peak ?
Ans:- Tamae Watanabe (73-year-old)
34. who became the youngest Indian to win Asian Chess Championship 2012 ?
Ans:- Primarjan Negi (Negi is also the third Indian afer Krishnan Sasikaran (2003), Surya Sekhar
Ganguly (2009) and Pendyala Harikishna (2011) to win the Asian title.)
35. Who has been appointed as TRAI (Telecom Regulatory Authority of India) chairman for a 3 year
term?
Ans:- Rahul Khullar
36. Who is sworn in as the 24th President of France?
Ans:- Francois Hollande
37. Who is sworn in as the Prime Minister of France?
Ans:- Jean-Marc Ayrault
38. Which football club won the 2012 English Premier League Championship after 44 years?
Ans:- Manchester city
39. Who won the Football Champions League 2012 ?
Ans:- Chelesa
40. where was held 38th G-8 summit recently(May -2012) ?
Ans:- Camp David, Maryland (USA)
41. Who sworn in as the 19th Governor of Rajasthan ?
Ans:- Margaret Alva
42. Who won the mens Rome Masters (Italian Open ) 2012 for a record 6th time?
Ans:- Rafael Nadal (Spain)
43. Who won the womens Rome Masters 2012 (Italian Open) for 2nd time?
Ans:- Maria Sharapova (russia)
44. Who won the Mens doubles Rome Masters 2012 title?
Ans:- Marcel Garnollers and Marc Lopez
45. Who won the Womens doubles Rome Masters 2012 title?
Ans:- Sara Errani and Roberta Vinci

46. Name of the bollywood movie, which has figured in the TIME magazines 10 greatest movies of the
millenium ?
Ans:- Devdas (directed by Sanjay Leela Bhansali)
47. Who is set to be Indias next football coach ?
Ans:- Wim Koevermans (former Dutch central defender)
48. Which indigenously built Missile was test- fired by india, at Chandipur, Odisha on 24 May 2012 ?
Ans:- Akash missile
49. Who won Indian Premier League Season 5 (IPL 2012) ?
Ans:- Kolkata Knight Riders (KKR) defeated the Chennai Super Kings (CSK)
50. Who won won the Man of the Tournament award in IPL 2012 ?
Ans:- Sunil Naraine (KKR)
51. Who won Orange Cap(highest run getter) of IPL-2012 ?
Ans:- Chris Gayle (Royal Challengers Banglore) 733 runs
52. Who Won Purple Cap (highest wicket- taker) of IPL 2012 ?
Ans:- Morne Morkel (Delhi Daredevils) 25 wickets ( for IPL-2012 Awards List Click Here)
53. Who won the Chennai Open 2012 Squash title ?
Ans:- Joshna Chinappa
54. Who won FIDE World Chess Championship 2012 title for the record fifth time ?
Ans:- Vishwanathan Anand (defeated Boris Gelfand-isreal)
55. Who became the first Indian Prime Minister to visit Myanmar after 25 years ?
Ans:- Dr.Manmohan Singh
56. Who won the 66th Santosh Trophy?
Ans:- Services team against Tamil Nadu
57. What is current economic growth rate of india in the January-March quarter of 2011-12 ?
Ans:- 5.3 percent (The figure is lowest in the past 9 years.)
58. Who assumed the charge as the 25th Chief of the Indian Army ?
Ans:- General Bikram Singh (He succeeded General V K Singh.)
59. As per Latest India state of forest Report 2011, Which indian state has the maximum forest cover
area in Country ?
Ans:- Madhya Pradesh

60. 2012 summer olympic games is of which Olympiad ?
Ans:- 30th (XXX) Olympiad
61. India conducted its first underground nuclear test

Ans. Rajasthan
62. Which of the following states in India is the largest in area?
Ans. Madhya Pradesh
63. A large sized nitrogenous plant based on the gas supplied through Hazira-Bijapur-Jagdishpur
pipeline is being set up at
Ans. Hazira
64. Fazilka-Abohar region is noted for
Ans.prosperous cotton textile industry
65. In which industry is sal wood used mostly?
Ans. Railway sleepers
66. Which of the following is the principal reason for the concentration of heavy industries in the South
Bihar region?
Ans. Availability of raw materials in the region
67. Out of the following, India earns the maximum foreign exchange from the export of
Ans. handicrafts
68. Kandla, situated on the Gulf of Kachchh, is well known for which of the following?
Ans. Export processing zone
69. The main centre of diamond cutting industry in India is
Ans.Jaipur
70 The Himalayan region inspite of having raw material for paper and pulp industry could not develop
so far. Which of the following is the most important factor for this?
Ans. Poor means of transport in the region
71. As per the latest figures available, out of the total sugar production in India, Maharashtra contributes
about
Ans. 23%
72. Where is the Hindustan Shipyard located?
Ans. Vishakhapatnam
73. The satellite freight city is being developed near which of the following cities?
Ans. Gurgaon
74. Which of the following states accounts for the largest share of industrial production and capital
investment?
Ans.Maharashtra
75. Consider the following statements:
The Rourkela steel plant obtains
1. hydel power from the Hirakud dam
2. coking coal from Jharia coalfields
3. iron ore from Baba Budon hills
Of these statements, the correct ones are:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
76. A group of tourists is interested in visiting some beaches in India. Which of the following groups of
cities would you suggest?

A. Calcutta, Bangalore, Baroda
B. Ahmedabad, Ranchi, Hyderabad
C. Bombay, Goa, Madras
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Only C
(d) Both A and B
(e) Both A and C
Ans. (c)
77. Which of the following cities is situated on the bank of river Saryu?
Ans.Ayodhya
78. Railway rolling stock is not manufactured at
Ans.Ahmedabad
79. Of the following cities, which one is situated along the banks of river Sabarmati?
Ans. Ahmedabad
80 .Which industry in India was worst affected be cause of the partition?
Ans.Jute and Cotton
81. Which of the following cities is known as Pink City?
Ans.Jaipur
82. Indian Standard Time is the time at which of the following longitudes East of Greenwich?
Ans. 82 .5
83. Which of the following places is not associated with Indias space programme?
Ans. Trombay
84. Garo and Khasi tribes are mainly found in

Ans.Meghalaya
85. In terms of the area of the countries, India ranks in the world.
Ans.7th
86. Which is the most urbanized state in India?
Maharashtra
Ans. (d)
87 In addition to the entire Union Territory of Delhi, the National Capital Region covers parts of the
states of
Ans. Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh
88. Ghotul, a tribal youth dormitory is found among the
Ans. M of Madhya Pradesh
89 Which one of the following organizations is responsible for production of topographical sheets?
Ans.Survey of India (501)
90. In terms of area, which of the following is the smallest state in India?
Ans.Sikkim
91. Indias oldest planetarium is located at

Ans. Calcutta
92. Consider the following satellites put into orbit by India
1. Bhaskara
2. INSAT-1 B
3. Rohini
4. APPLE
Ans. 2 and 4
93. What is SLV-3?
Ans. Indias space launching vehicle
94. Which one of the following is the most important reason for the establishment of the Vikram
Sarabhai Space Centre at Thumba?
Ans.The sea is near to the place in the East, West and South directions.
95. The first submarine built by India is
Ans. INS Shalki
96. The satellite Aryabhatta was built at
Ans.Bangalore
97. In which of the following regions is Dandakaranya located?
Ans.Orissa, MR and Andhra Pradesh
98. Onge tribe is mainly settled in which of the following States / Union Territories?
Ans.Meghalaya
99. Which of the following places is not associated with the launching of the space satellites?
Ans.Hassan
100. INSAT 2B was launched from

Ans. Kourou
1. What is the percentage of geographical area of India in the world area?
(a) 2.3%
(b) 3.2%
(c) 4%
(d) 5%
Ans. (a)
2. India- built remote sensing satellite Bhaskara II was put into space with the help of
(a) an intercosmos rocket from a soviet cosmodrome
(b) an SLV-3 rocket from Thumba
(c) an Ariana from French Guiana
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
3. Which one of the following is known as the Pearl City?
(a) Cochin
(b) Tuticorin
(c) Masulipatnam
(d) Rameshwaram
Ans. (b)
4. In which of the following places is Indias second satellite launching station being
developed?
(a) Sriharikota
(b) Trombay
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Vishakhapatnam
(e) Balasore
Ans. (e)
5. The highest number of tribal population in Tamil Nadu is
(a) Todas
(b) Irulas
(c) Kodas
(d) Malayalis
Ans. (a)
6. Kukis belong to which state?
(a) Nagaland
(b) Tripura
(c) Manipur
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
(e) Mizoram
Ans. (c)
7. Which one of the following pairs is not correct?
(a) Sriharikota Indias satellite launching centre
(b) Bangalore Indias space application centre
(c) Thumba Indias first earth satellite station
(d) SLV-3 Indias four stage rocket
Ans. (c)
8. In Mizoram, the settlement pattern is mostly of linear type along the ridges because
(a) the ridges are cooler than the valleys
(b) the valleys are densely forested
(c) the valleys are cooler than the ridges
(d) accessibility is easier on the ridge tops
Ans. (c)
9. The first district in India to have telephones in all its villages is
(a) Dakshina Kannada
(b) Nellore
(c) Gurdaspur
(d) Ahmednagar
Ans. (a)
10.The city of Surat is situated on the bank of the river
(a) Krishna
(b) Kaveri
(c) Tapti
(d) Godavari
Ans. (c)
11. What does Yugoslavia mean?
a. The land of the rising sun
b. The land of the midnight sun
c. The land of the Southern Slavs
d. The land of Yahoos
Ans. C
12. Which state of USA was once part of Russia?
a. Alaska
b. Louisiana
c. Florida
d. California
Ans. A
13. What did the Greeks call the present day Amu River in Iran?
a. Indus
b. Ganges
c. Jhelum
d. Oxus
Ans. D
14. Which of these is not a metal?
a. Gold
b. Diamond
c. Silver
d. Copper
Ans. B
15. Who won Wimbledon Mens Singles Championship in 2011?
a. Rafael Nadal
b. Andy Roddick
c. Roger Federer
d. Novak Djokovic
Ans. D
16. Who won the Olympic Gold Medal for hockey in 1980 Moscow Olympics?
a. India
b. UK
c. USA
d. USSR
Ans. A
17. What name was taken by Cardinal Joseph Sarto when he became pope?
a. John XXIII
b. Paul VI
c. Benedict XVI
d. Pius X
Ans. D
18. How many metres is one mile?
a. 1000
b. 100
c. 1609.344
d. 1705.212
Ans. C
19. What are vertebrates that live both under water and on land called?
a. Amphibians
b. Cats
c. Grasshoppers
d. Frogs
Ans. A
20. Who is the first President of the United States of America?
a. George Washington
b. Thomas Jefferson
c. James Monroe
d. John Adams
Ans. A
21. Who was born on August 15, 1769?
a. Winston Churchill
b. Queen Victoria
c. Napoleon Bonaparte
d. George V
Ans. C
22. Which city was previously known as Salisbury?
a. London
b. Paris
c. Harare
d. New York
Ans. C
23. Who is the author of The Namesake?
a. Jhumpa Lahiri
b. Tennessee Williams
c. Ian Fleming
d. Salman Rushdie
Ans. A
24. What is the number of squares on a chess board?
a. 72
b. 64
c. 32
d. 48
Ans. B
25. Which city was the summer capital of India during British Rule?
a. Nainital
b. Darjeeling
c. Simla
d. Ooty
Ans. C
26. The name of which city was changed to Petrograd and Leningrad?
a. Moscow
b. Tashkent
c. Kiev
d. St. Petersburg
Ans. D
27. Which film is in Aramaic and Latin?
a. The Ten Commandments
b. Ben-Hur
c. Apocalypto
d. The Passion of the Christ
Ans. D
28. Which of the following books is not part of Pentateuch?
a. Genesis
b. Numbers
c. Ruth
d. Exodus
Ans. C
29. Which of the following countries is landlocked?
a. Brazil
b. Cuba
c. Bolivia
d. Colombia
Ans. C
30. Which language is written in five scripts?
a. Hindi
b. Urdu
c. Konkani
d. Telugu
Ans. C
31. Which British monarch in 20th century was not crowned?

a. George V
b. Edward VIII
c. George VI
d. William IV
Ans. B
32. Who was told Beware the Ides of March.?
a. Julius Caesar
b. Augustus Caesar
c. Mark Antony
d. Cleopatra
Ans. A
33. Which countrys postal stamps have the name Helvetia?
a. Finland
b. Iceland
c. Switzerland
d. Swaziland
Ans. C
34. Yen is the currency of which country?
a. Japan
b. China
c. Nepal
d. Bhutan
Ans. A
35. Which is the national flower of Australia?
a. Red Rose
b. Lotus
c. Tulip
d. Golden Wattle
Ans. D
36 Literacy in India according to 2011 census:

(A) 74.06 %
(B) 75.06%-Answer
(C)76.08%
(D)77.01%
37. Name of the director of the film The dirty picture which got thumbs up from film critics recently:
(A) Ekta kapoor
(B) Abhinav Kashyap

(C) Gurvinder Singh
(D) Milan Luthria-Answer
38.Besides USA and France, India has a Civil Nuclear Deal with
a) Britain
b) Russia-Answer
c) Germany
d) Australia
39.Name the gene found by the neuroscientists, which could help in creating and altering memory.
a) Mpas 4
b) Npas 4-Answer
c) Npas 3
d) Mpas 2
5.Which of the following is NOT a missile developed by the Defence Research and Development.
Organisation (DRDO) ?
a) Shaurya
b) Pinaka-Answer
c) Brahmos
d) Agni
40.Who is crowned Miss India Earth 2012?
A) Prachi mishra-Answer
B) Vanya mishra
C)Rochelle maria rao
D)Erica fernandez
41 Highest divident paying company
a. TCS
b. Reliance Mobile
c. ITC
d. None of these-Answer(ONGC)
42. Recently RBI changed repo rate in % :
a. 7.75%
b. 7.5%
c.8%-Answer
d.8.5%
43 Pradeep Saurabh bagged the prestigious International Indu Sharma Katha Samman-2012 for his
novel..
a) Teesari Aankh
b) Teesri Tali-Answer
c) Teesri Manjil
d) Teesri Tasveer
44. The Union cabinet of India on 22 December 2011 approved __ percent share for minorities within
the 27% OBC quota in jobs and university seats.
a) 4.5-Answer
b) 5.6
c) 3.4
d) 5
IBPS Bank PO CWE Reasoning ,Quantitative Aptitude,General awareness and
Computer Questions
IBPS Bank PO CWE Reasoning Questions
Directions (questions 1 to 5): Read the following information and answer the questions given
below.
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
(a) Data inadequate
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different.
Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)
7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit
4 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the
two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which
immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4s and 6s together are there?
54462635642843766483
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The
letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th
number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric
in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a
vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U
is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the
alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the
remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th
letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V
WXYZ
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)
12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of
letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English
alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)
13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one
does not belong to the group?

Ans (d)
14. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its
letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has
between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)
15. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to
SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(d) ADAMRAN
(e)None of these
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women
are working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the
scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I
have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right
and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting
point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed
by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.
21. ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
22. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
23. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
24. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these

Ans (a)
25. ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
Directions (questions 1 to 5):Read the following information and answer the questions
given below.
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
(a) Data inadequate
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different.
Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)
7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit
4 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the
two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which
immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4s and 6s together are there?
54462635642843766483
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The
letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th
number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric
in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)
Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or
before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A,
E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English
alphabet.
(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the
alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the
remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th
letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V
WXYZ
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)
12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of
letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English
alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)
13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one
does not belong to the group?
Ans (d)
14. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its
letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has
between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)
15. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to
SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(d) ADAMRAN
(e)None of these
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women
are working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the
scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I
have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)
20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned right
and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the starting
point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be
formed by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.
21. ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
22. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
23. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)
24. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)
25. ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these

Ans (b)
At the start of game, A and B between them had four times as much money as C while B & C
together had three times as much as A. At the end, A & B between them had three times as
much as C, while B & C together had twice as much as A. B finished Rs. 200 poorer at the
end. A, B, C are the only players.
1. What fraction of the total money did C have at the beginning of the game ?
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/8
(c) 2/9
(d) 1/5
2. What fraction of the total money did A win (or lose)?
(a) won 1/12
(b) lost 1/6
(c) lost 1/3
(d) won 1/5
3. What amount did B start with ?
(a) Rs. 575
(b) Rs. 375
(c) Rs. 825
(d) Rs. 275
4. What amount did C win (lose)?
(a) lost Rs. 50
(b) won Rs. 75
(c) lost Rs. 125
(d) won Rs. 175
5. How much money did A have at the end of the game?
(a) Rs. 375
(b) Rs. 500
(c) Rs. 325
(d) Rs. 1100
IBPS Bank PO CWE Quantitative Aptitude Questions
1 A sum of money doubles itself in four years at compound interest in scheme 1. The same
sum doubles itself in six years at simple interest in scheme 2. What is the ratio of the
respective number of years required in scheme 1 and scheme 2 for a sum to become eight
times itself ?
a) 2: 7 b) 2 : 3 c) 1 : 3 d) 1 : 4 e) none of these Ans 2:7
2. Tap T1 can fill an empty tank in 9 hours. Two emptying taps , tap T2 and T3 can empty it
in 18 hours and 27 hours respectively, if they are fitted at the bottom of the tank. But tap T2 is
fitted at 1/3rd of the height of the tank and Tap T3 is fitted at 2/3rd of the height of the tank.
In how much time will the tank be filled, if all the three taps are opened simultaneously when
the tank is empty?
a) 27 hours b) 26 2/3 hours c) 251/2 hours d) 24 hours e) none of these
Till the level reaches 1/3rd of the tank, neitherof the emptying taps will function.
So,the filling tap will take 9 x 1/3 = 3 hours to fill 1/3rd of the tank
From here till 2/3rd of the height is reached, tap T1 and tap T2 are functional.
1/3 x 1(1/9-1/18) = 6 hours
The last 1/3rd of the tank, all the three taps will function they will fill tank in
1/3 * (1/(1/9-1/18 1/27) = 18 hours
So, a total of ( 3+ 6 + 18) = 27 hours. Choice (1)
3 Two men starting from the same place walk at the rate of 5 kmph and 5.5 kmph
respectively. What time will they take to be 8.5 km apart, if they walk in the same direction ?
a) 4 hrs 15 min b)8 hrs 30 min c)17hrs e) none of these Ans 17 hrs
4 The calendar for the year 2005 is the same as for the year
a) 2010 b)2011 c) 2012 d)2013 e) none of these Ans 2012
5.A printer numbers the pages of a book starting with 1 and uses 3189 digits in all. How
many pages does the book have ?
a) 1000 b)1074 c) 1075 d)1080 E) 1084 Ans 1074
6 In a garden, there are 10 columns and 12 rows of mango trees. The distance between the
two trees is 2 metres and a distance of 1 metre is left from all sides of the boundary of the
garden. The width of the garden is :
a) 20m b) 22m c) 24m d) 26m e) 29m Ans 22 m
7In a certain railway network there are 25 railway stations. Earlier the tickets issued
contained only the destination stations name. Now the officials want to print tickets with
both starting and destination stations names on them. How many more kinds of tickets than
in previous method are to be printed in the new method?
a. 50 b. 250 c. 575 d. 600 e) None of these Answer: Option (c)
8 A and B throw dice, one after the other, until one of them throws a 5 and the person who
throws a 5 first wins the game. If A begins the game, then the probability that B wins the
game is ..
a. 5/11 b. c. 7/11 d. 6/11 e) None of these Answer: Option (a)
IBPS Bank PO CWE Data Interpretation Questions
41. Of every dollar received by the federal government, how much (in cents) is from
coporate sources?
1. 32
2. 70
3. 30
4. 35
5. 29 Answer : 1
42. what percentage of the federal revenue is derived from borrowings?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
0.2%
0.02%
2.7%
1.2%
2.5% Answer : 3
IBPS Bank PO CWE computer Awareness
1. Which among the following is a device , that is used in computers to add external
components?
(A)Storage Device such as USB
(B)Keyboard
(C)Ports / System Boards

(D)RAM
Answer
2. The term Round-trip delay time, used in telecommunication is replaced in computers with
which among the following?
(A)Access time
(B)Response time
(C)Entrance time
(D)Ping Time
Answer(d)
3. The terms push and pull services in context with the Banking are used in which among
the following generally?
(A)Rural Banking
(B)Unit Banking
(C)Online Banking
(D)Mobile Banking
Answer(d)
4. Consider the following in context with the CVV or Card security code of an ATM or Credit
Card:
1.Magnetic Stripe
2.Front of the in embossed or printed digits
3.Back of the card as a separate group of 3 digits to the right of the signature strip
At which among the above locations CVV or Card Security Code of an ATM is found?
(A)1 & 2
(B)2 & 3
(C)1 & 3
Ans C
(D)1, 2 & 3 Answer
6. What do we call the process of collecting, organizing, storing and otherwise maintaining a
complete historical record of programs and other documents used or prepared during the
different phases of the system?
(A)Segmentation
(B)Documentation
(C)Data Management
(D)Data History
Answer(B)
7. Which among the following is an example of Card not present transaction in context
with the Credit / Debit Cards?
(A)A person paying a restaurant bill by giving details of his credit card
(B)A person making an online purchase using his / her credit card
(C)A person making a purchase using mobile banking
(D)Both 2 & 3
Answer(d)
8. Consider the following:

1. Application software
2. Hardware
3. Operating systems
The PDF documents are dependent upon which among the above to display the text, fonts,
graphics, and other information contained by them?
(A)Only 1
(B)1 & 2
(C)1, 2 & 3
(D)None of them
Answer(d)
9. As a person working in internet banking environment, why you should be aware of the
Dictionary attack?
(A)It is used to inject worms or viruses in the system
(B)It is used to determine a password
(C)It is used to access customers account by determining other details
(D)It is used for stealing info from the Credit Card
Answer(b)
10. Consider the following:

1. Software
2. Hardware
3. Internet Programs
The terms Bug and Debugging are generally used in which among the above?
(A)1 & 2
(B)2 & 3
(C)1 & 3
(D)1, 2 & 3
Answer(D)
11. What is ISO 9362 is related to in context with Banking Technology?
(A)RTGS Transfers
(B)NEFT Transfers
(C)SWIFT Transfers
(D)All of them
Answer
12. The Clearing House Interbank Payments System or CHIPS is a clearing system for large
value transactions in which among the following countries / regions?
(A)United States
(B)United Kingdom
(C)Entire Europe
(D)Australia
Answer(A)
13. The terms Goodput , Throughput and Maximum throughput are most closely associated
with which among the following in computers?
(A)Bit Rate
(B)Response Time
(C)Command Line Interface
(D)Random memory
Answer(A)
14. Which among the following is the time period during which a computer is malfunctioning
or not operating correctly due to machine failures?
(A)Downtime
(B)Uptime
(C)Response time
(D)Runtime
Answer(A)
15. What would be the number of bytes, transferred at the rate of 1 Kilobit per second?
(A)100
(B)108
(C)125
(D)140
Answer
16. Which public sector bank was the banking partner in Commonwealth Games 2010?
(a) Central Bank of India
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Bank of Baroda
(d) None of these
Answer-(a)
17 A group of attribute/field in a database is known as a______.
a) Record -ans
b) File
c) Database
d) Entry
e) None
18 Which layer of OSI model, firstly make use of unit of data called Packet?
a) Datalink Layer
b) Transport Layer
c) Network Layer-ans
d) Presentation Layer
e) None
19 Which layer of OSI model, firstly make use of unit of data called Packet?
a) Datalink Layer
b) Transport Layer
c) Network Layer-ans
d) Presentation Layer
e) None
20 A computer programmer
a) can draw only flowchart
b) can enter data quickly
c) does all the thinking for a computer-ans
d) can operate all type of computer equipment
e) None
21 A Trojan horse is
a) An ad ware program
b) A virus disguised as a useful program.-ans
c) A program that blows up every time you use it
d) A spy ware which steal information over internet
e) None
22 A goal of data mining includes which of the following?
a) To confirm that data exists
b) To create a new data warehouse
c) To analyze data for expected relationships-ans
d) To explain some observed event or condition
e) None of the above
23 A goal of data mining includes which of the following?

a) To confirm that data exists
b) To create a new data warehouse
c) To analyze data for expected relationships
d) To explain some observed event or condition

e) None of the above-ans
24 The process of finding errors in softwares source code

a) Debugging -ans
b) Compiling
c) Testing
d) Running
e) None
25 The section of CPU which selects, interprets and sees to the execution of program
instructions?
a) ALU
b) Control Unit -ans
c) Register Unit
d) Processing Unit
e) None
IBPS Bank PO CWE General Awareness
1.According to latest World Tourism Organization figures, which country is the most
popular tourist destination with 78.95 million tourist arrivals ?
(1)USA
(2)France
(3)China
(4)Spain
(5)Non of these Ans : (2)
2.Who is the present President of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) ?

(1)N. Chandrasekaran
(2)B. Muthuraman
(3)Kris Gopalakrishnan
(4)N.R. Narayana Murty
3.Which company has been declared The 5th Maharatna Company ?

(1)NMDC
(2)CIL
(3)BHEL
(4)GAIL
(5)MTNL Ans : (2)
4.Which tennis player won his 7th straight Monte Carlo Masters title in April 2011 ?
(1)David Ferrer
(2)Roger Federer
(3)Rafael Nadal
(4)Novak Djokovic
5.Which bank has entered into an agreement with Deutsche Bank to buy its credit card
business in India ?
(1)ICICI Bank
(2)Axis Bank
(3)Yes Bank ]
(4)HDFC
(5)Induslnd Bank Ans : (5)
6.Who smashed a world record 15 sixes in a one day international cricket match, in April
2011 ?
(1)Chris Gayle
(2)Shane Waston
(3)Virender Sehwag
(4)Brendon McCullum
7.According to the World Tourism Organization figures released in April 2011, what is
Indias rank with regard to the number of tourist arrivals?
(1)35
(2)47
(3)52
(4)11
(5) Non of these
Ans : (2)
8.Who is the president Chairman of the Indian Banks Association (IBA)?

(1)M.V. Nair
(2)Ramnath Pradeep
(3)M.D. Mallya
(4)K.R. Kamath
(5)Prateep Chaudhari Ans : (3)
9.Which programme is aimed at the development of infrastructure service in cities ?

(1)NREGP
(2)JNNURM
(3)VAMBAY
(4)PURA
(5)IAY Ans : (2)
10.Who is the author of the book Wide Angle?
1)Richard Hadlee
(2)Adam Gilchrist
(3)Anil Kumble
(4)Shane Warne
(5)Imran Khan Ans : (3)
11.The 2012 ICC is World Twenty20 cricket championship is to be held in which of the
following countries ?
(1)India
(2)West Indies
(3)Bangladesh
(4)Sri Lanka
(5)England Ans : (4)
12.Which of the following books was written by Margaret Atwood, the Booker
prizewinner?
(1)The Sea of Poppies
(2)Shame
(3)The Blind Assassin
(4)Shalimar, the Clown
(5)An Area of Darkness Ans : (3)
13.Who is the chairman of the Nalanda Mentor Group, that is related to the following
Nalanda University?
(1)M.S. Swaminathan
(2)Amartya sen
(3)Prof. Yash Pal

(4)V. Ramakrishnan
(5)V. Radhakrishnan Ans : (2)
14.Who is called The Father of White Revolution in India?

(1)M.S. Swaminathan
(2)V.S. Ramachandran
(3)Amruta Patel
(4)Medha Patkar
(5 Ans :
(5)
15.India is yet to sign a civil nuclear agreement with which of the following countries ?
(1)USA
(2)Russia
(3)France
(4)Mongolia
(5)South Korea Ans : (5)
16.The Justice B.K. Somasekhara Commission of Inquiry is related to which of the

following states ?
(1)Orissa
(2)Karnataka
(3)Assam
(4)Maharashtra
(5)Andhra Pradesh Ans : (2)
17.Which of the following prizes/awards is given for progress in regulation ?
(1)Kalinga Prize
(2)Prizker Prize
(3)Templeton Prize
(4)Magsaysay Award
18.Identify the mismatched pair
BOOK
AUTHOR
1.The Catcher in the Rye J.D Salinger
2.If God was a Banker Ravi Subramanian
3.The Eighth Ring
K.M. Mathew
4.Asian Drama
Amartya Sen
5.Dreams From My Father: A Story of Race and InheritanceBarack Obama Ans : (4)
19.April 24 is celebration in India as
(1)National Public Sector Day

(2)National Panchayat Raj Day
(3)National Statistics Day
(4)National Sports Day
20.Which of the following companies manufacture Blackberry smartphones?
(1)Samsung
(2)Motorola
(3)Onida
(4)Nokia
April 29 2013
IBPS CWE PO Clerical Specilists officers aptitude and reasoning solved question papers
Ibps Aptitude and reasoning questions with answers and detailed explanations for
clerical PO officers and specilists officers posts.In IBPS examination wrriten test conists
aptitude,reasoning,bank based general awareness,computer questions,data
intrepreatation and data analysis.For IBPS exam preparation we have to earn and
practice easy methods to solve questions within the time limit.Here are some reasoing
and aptitude model question papers with answers and detailed explnations for your
upcming bank,ibps psu and IT companies writen test
1. How many such pairs of digits are there in number '36725918' each of which
has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in
descending order within the number ?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
Ans: (d)
2.
What should come next in the following number series ?

6881268612368812346861234568?
a) 6
b) 1
c) 4
d) 8
e) None of these
Ans: (d)
3. In a certain code PAGE is written as '3%7@', SORE is written as '89@'. How is

'PEAS' written in that code ?
a) 3@8
b) 3@%9
c) 3@%8
d) 3%@8
Ans: (c)
4. If '@' means 'X', '' means '' and '$' means '-' then 6 % 12 3 @ 8 $ 3 = ?
a) 37
b) 35
c) 39
d) 33
e) None of these
Ans: (b)
5. In a certain code ''MOUSE' is written as PRUQC'. How is 'SHIFT' written in that
code ?
a) VKIRD
b) VKIDR
c) VJIDR
d) VIKRD
e) None of these
Ans: (b)
6. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters 'OEHM' using
each letter only once in each word ?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
Ans: (b)
7. Among A, B, C, D and E each scoring different, marks in a test, C scored more
than D but not as much as E. E scored more than A who scored less than B. Who
did score third highest marks ?
a) B
b) A
c) C
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
Ans: (d)
8. 'K' walked 5 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked for 10 metres. He
then took a right turn and walked for 20 metres, and again took right turn and walked
again took right turn and walked 10 metres. How far he is from the starting point ?
a) 20 metres
b) 15 metres
c) 25 metres
d) 30 metres
Ans: (c)
9. Pointing to a girl, Mr. Suraj said "she is the only daughter of my father's son-inlaw". How is the girl related to Mr. Suraj ?
a) Niece
b) Cousin
c) Sister
d) Daughter
e) Cannot be determined
Ans: (a)
10. Sneha correctly remembers that her father's birthday is before 16th June but
after 11th June whereas her younger brother correctly remembers that their father's
birthday is after 13th June but before 18th June and her elder brother correctly
remembers that their father's birthday is on an even date. On what date in June is
definitely their father's birthday ?
a) sixteenth
b) Twelfth
c) Fourteenth or Sixteenth
d) Data Inadequate
e) None of these
Ans: (e) According to Sneha her father's birthday may be on 12th, 13th 14th or 15th
June. According to brother of Sneha their father's birthday may be on 14th, 15th,
16th or 17th June. Even date ==> 14th June.
11 How many such digits are there in the number '37152869' each of which is as
far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in
ascending order within the number ?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
e) More than three
Ans: (c)
12. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONFIRM each of which
has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
Ans: (c)
13. 'KN' is related to 'QT' in the same way as 'DG' related to
a) JN
b) IM
c) JM
d) IN
e) IL
Ans: (c)
Directions (14-15) : Following questions are based on the five three digit numbers
given below
518 849 365 783 291
14. If the position of first and third digits in each number are interchanged, which of
the following will be the second digit of third highest number ?
a) 1
b) 4
c) 8
d) 9
e) 6
Ans: (e)
518 ==> 815 : 849 ==>948 ;
365 ==>563; 783 ==>387;
291==>192;
Third highest number ==> 563
15. If the first digit in all the numbers starting with an even digit is replaced by a
number preceding it, then which of the following will be the sum of the first digit of the
resulting highest and the lowest numbers ?
a) 4
b) 8
c) 7
d) 6
e) 3
518 ==> 518 : 849 ==>749 ;
365 ==>365; 783 ==>783;
291==>191;
Highest number ==> 783
Lowest number ==> 191
Required sum ==> 7 + 1 = 8
Ans: (b)
Directions (16-20) : In each of the questions below are given four statements
followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
16. Statements :
All coins are glasses
Some glasses are cups
Some cups are boxes
All boxes are pins
Conclusions :
I. Some coins are cups
II. Some pins are glasses
III. Some cups are pins
(a) None follows
(b) Only I follows
(c) Only III follows
(d) Only II and III follow
(e) None of these
Ans : (c) Some cups are boxes -> Particular Affirmative (I-type)
All boxes are pins -> Universal Affirmative (A- type)
I + A => I-type of Conclusion ; some cups are pins

This is Conclusion III.
17. Statements :
Some pens are pencils
All pencils are caps
All caps are buses
Some buses are trains
Conclusions :
I. Some trains are caps
II. Some pens are buses
III. Some pencils are trains
(1) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) None follows
(e) All I, II and III follow
Ans : (b) Some pens are pencils -> I type
All pencils are caps -> A type
I+A => I-type of conclusion; some pens are caps
All pencils are caps
All caps are buses
A +A => A-type of conclusion "All pencils are buses"
Some pens are caps
All caps are buses
I+A => I-type of conclusion "Some pens are buses ". This is conclusion II
18. Statements :
All shirts are skirts
All skirts are banks
All banks are roads
All roads are brushes
Conclusions :
I. All banks are skirts
II. All roads are banks
III. Some brushes are shirts
a) Only I follows
b) Only III follows
c) Only I and III follow
d) All I, II and III follow
e) None follows
Ans : (b) All shirts are skirts
A+A => A -type of Conclusion "All shirts are banks".
All banks are roads

A+A => A-type of conclusion "All skirts are roads".
All banks are roads (A-type)
All roads are brushes
A+A => A-type of conclusion "All shirts are brushes".
Conclusion III is Converse of it.
19.
Statements :
Some fishes are plates
Some plates are spoons
Some spoons are plants
All plants are crows
Conclusions: I. Some plates are crows
II. Some crows are spoons
III. Some plants are spoons
a) Only I follows
b) Only I and II follow
c) None follows
d) Only II and III follow
e) Either I or III follow
Ans : (d) Some spoons are plants (I-type)
All plants are crows (A-type)
I+A => I-type of conclusion
"Some spoons are crows".
Conclusion II is Converse of it
Conclusion III is Converse of the third Premise
20.
Statements :
Some eggs are hens
Some hens are ducks
All ducks are pigeons
All pigeons are sparrows
Conclusions :
I. All ducks are sparrows
II. No egg is duck
III. Some sparrows are hens
a) Only I follows
b) Only I and II follow
c) Only III follows
d) Only I and III follow
e) All I, II and III follow
Ans (d) Some hens are ducks (I-type)
All ducks are pigeon (A-type)
I+A => I-type of conclusion
"Some hens are pigeons".

All ducks are pigeons (A-type)
All pigeons are sparrows
A+A => A-type of conclusion "All ducks are sparrows". This is conclusion I
Some hens are pigeons (I -type)
All pigeons are sparrows (A-type)
I + A = > I - type of conclusion
"Some hens are sparrows ".
Conclusion III is converse of it.
Directions (21-24) : In the following questions , the symbols @, , $, % and * are
used with the following meanings as illustrated below :
PQ means 'P is not smaller than Q
P * B means P is not greater than Q
PQ means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
P$Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q
P%Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true,
find which of the conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true
and give your answers accordingly.
21. Statements : K L, L% O, O @ M, M*N
Conclusions : I. N O
II. M $ L
III. K * N
IV. L @ N
a) Only II is true
b) Only I and II are true
c) Only I is true
d) Either I or II is true
e) None is true
Ans : (b)
22.
Statements : A * B, B $ C, C%D, D E
Conclusions : I. D$A
II. B$D
III. E%C
IV. A @ E
a) Only I is true
b) Only either I or II is true
c) Only I and IV are true
d) None is true
e) Only IV is true
Ans : (d)
23. Statements : F$P, P @ R, R S, S % T

Conclusions : I. R % F
II. S * P
III. P T
IV. S % F
a) Only I, II and III are true
b) Only I and II are true
c) Only III and IV are true
d) Only I, II and IV are true
e) All are true
Ans : (d)
24.
Statements : G % H, H * I, I $ J, J @ K
Conclusions : I. G % I
II. G % J
III. K $ I
IV. H * J
a) Only I is true
b) Only II is true
c) Only I, II and III are true
d) Only either I or II and III are true
e) All is true
Ans : (a)
Directions (25-30) : Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. C is fourth to
the left of F who is fifth to right of E. D is third to the right of A who is not immediate
neighbour of E or F. B is third to left of H who is not immediate neighbour of E.
25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in
the above sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group ? a) HFE
b) DCG
c) BHF
d) AEF
e) CGB
Ans : (d) Except in A E F, in all others the arrangement is anticlockwise
26. Who is between D and E ?

a) C
b) B
c) A
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
Ans : (b) B is between D and E
27. Which of the following pairs are sitting between A and D ?
a) FB
b) GB
c) FG
d) FE
e) GE
Ans : (c) G and F are sitting between A and D
28. Who is third to the right of E ?
a) B
b) F
c) D
d) G
e) None of these
Ans : (e) A is third to the right of E
29. Who is to the immediate right of A ?
a) G
b) B
c) F
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
Ans : (d) G is to the immediate right of A
30. What is D's position with respect to B ?
(i) immediate right
(ii) fourth to the right
(iii) third to the left

(iv) immediate left
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) Only B and C
d) Only D
e) Only either A or D
Ans : (d) D is to the immediate left of B

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IBPS CWE clerical examination November 2013 December 2013 groups of students sharing their

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18..Which of the following contains 11 digit alphanumeric codes? IFSC code

19.Loan can't be provided below which rate: Base Rate

21.Venue of Olympic 2020 Tokyo

22.Yerevon is the capital of Armenian

23.Full form of EDC Electronic Data Capture Machine

(Ans) (4) Nephew (5) Cannot be determined

(1) D > B * A * Cm(2) D + B - C * A

(Ans) (3) D - B - A x C (4) D + B x A x C

(5) None of these

Explanation : W > X < Y * Z

IBPS PO CWE Clerical free solved sample placement papers,IBPS PO CWE

6 26 134 666 3334 16666 ?

From statement II,

(E) None of these

28. 7% hike in stock prices of a leading car manufacturing company.

following five areas(A) Politics

Hence she buys material worth Rs.6481

i.e., 1/5 x sqrt(X) x 3 = 37.2 - 3.6

1. TVS Electronics Ltd

3. a one - time act

3. logical operators -Answer

following fractions by March 2012?

4 Which of the following pheno-menon is considered responsible for Global Warming?

Ans (A)Increase policy rates

15 OPEC is a group of countries which are_______

(A)Shooting (B)Taekwando C)Squash (D)Wushu

18: Who is the VC and CEO of HDFC bank?

Ans (A)Rs. 54835

(1) Pear 2) Mango (3) Orange (4) Apple (5) Radish

11. (1) 117 (2) 74(3) 153 (4) 108 (5) 99

15. Pain : Misery

4, 6, 12, 14, 28, 30, ........

Free online mock test for IBPS-CWE Clerical 2012 Exam

2. 200 20 100 = ........

5. 2.65 - 0.5 = ..........

3 In India Census is done after a gap of every____________

4 Which of the following pheno-menon is considered responsible for Global Warming?

7The purchase of shares and bonds of Indian companies by Foreign Institutional

15 OPEC is a group of countries which are_______

18: Who is the VC and CEO of HDFC bank?

(d) Rs 902000 crore

31 Who won the womens Kabaddi World Cup championship?

33 Who has been elected as Russian President?

35 Who has been appointed as MD of Hyundai Motor India Ltd.?

36. Which Chinese Electric company has started office in India?

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3. Why was the young man late for the competition ?