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Prolactinoma
Turners syndrome
Hypothyroidism
Cushings syndrome
Hypothalamic amenorrhoea
Hyperthyroidism
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most likely
cause of menstrual abnormalities from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than
once, or not at all.
Explanation
Question 1
A 36 year old woman and her 40 year old partner have been referred to
the fertility clinic because of a failure to conceive after 18 months of
unprotected intercourse. The semen analysis is normal. The woman
has irregular periods every 3-6 months but no other symptoms and her
E
BMI is 27. The woman?s results are as follows: FSH (day 3) =
6mIU/ml, LH (day 3) = 8mIU/ml, prolactin = 110 ng/ml, progesterone
(day 21) = 3ng/ml, testosterone = 4.0pg/ml, DHEA, DHEA-sulphate
and thyroid function tests were normal.
Prolactinoma
Turners syndrome
Hypothyroidism
Cushings syndrome
Hypothalamic amenorrhoea
Hyperthyroidism
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most likely
cause of menstrual abnormalities from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than
once, or not at all.
Explanation
Question 2
A 35 year old woman and her 40 year old partner have been referred to
the fertility clinic because of a failure to conceive after 3 years of
unprotected intercourse. The semen analysis is normal. The woman
B
has irregular periods every 3-6 months but no other symptoms and her
BMI is 27. The woman?s results are as follows: FSH (day 3) =
20mIU/ml, LH (day 3) = 8mIU/ml, prolactin = 110 ng/ml,
Prolactinoma
Asherman?s syndrome
Hypothyroidism
Cervical stenosis
Hypothalamic amenorrhoea
Hyperthyroidism
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most likely
cause of amenorrhoea from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not
at all.
Explanation
Question 3
A 25 year old woman and her 24 year old partner attend the fertility
clinic because of a failure to conceive after 2 years of unprotected
intercourse. The man?s semen analysis is normal. The woman
complains of absent menses over the last 2 years. On examination, her
B
height is 1.6m and BMI is 22 but there are no abnormalities. FSH =
35mIU/ml, LH = 12mIU/ml, prolactin = 22ng/ml, testosterone =
1.5pg/ml and thyroid function tests and pelvic ultrasound scan are
normal. Karyotype shows 46XX / 45XO.
In-vitro fertilisation
Intra-uterine insemination
Clomephene citrate
Metformin
Carbegolline
Oocyte donation
Weight reduction
Weight gain
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most appropriate
initial management from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at
all.
Explanation
Question 4
A 24 year old woman with her 35 year old partner has been referred to
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the infertility clinic because of 2 years of primary infertility. The
woman has an irregular menstrual cycle every 2-4 months and her
partner's semen analysis shows a volume of 2.5ml, concentration of
30,million/ml and motility of 65%. The woman?s BMI is 34 and there
is no significant past medical history. Investigations have confirmed a
diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome.
Question 5
A 35 year old woman with her 45 year old partner has been referred to
the infertility clinic because of 2 years of primary infertility. The
woman has an irregular menstrual cycle every 2-4 months and her
partner?s semen analysis shows a volume of 3ml, concentration of
E
30,million/ml and motility of 60%. The woman?s BMI is 24 and there
is no significant past medical history. Investigations have confirmed a
diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome.
In-vitro fertilisation
Intra-uterine insemination
Clomephene citrate
Metformin
Carbegolline
Oocyte donation
Weight reduction
Weight gain
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most appropriate
initial management from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at
all.
Explanation
Question 6
A 34 year old woman with her 35 year old partner has been referred to
the infertility clinic because of 2 years of primary infertility. The
woman has a regular 28 day cycle and her periods are heavy with
severe dysmenorrhoea. She also complains of deep dyspareunia and
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intermittent lower abdominal and pelvic pain. Her BMI is 27.
Investigations have shown normal LH, FHS, Thyroid function tests,
prolactin and day 21 progesterone concentration confirms ovulatory
cycles. Her partner?s semen analysis is normal.
In-vitro fertilisation
Intra-uterine insemination
Clomephene citrate
Metformin
Carbegolline
Hystero-salpingogram
Weight reduction
Weight gain
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most appropriate
initial management from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at
all.
Explanation
Question 7
A 36 year old woman with her 35 year old partner has been referred to
the infertility clinic because of 2 years of primary infertility. The
woman has a regular and normal 28 day cycle, her BMI is 26 and she
has no other symptoms. Investigations have shown normal LH =
B
7.5mIU/ml, FHS = 17mIU/ml, Thyroid function tests, prolactin and
day 21 progesterone concentration confirms ovulatory cycles. Her
partner?s semen analysis is normal. Hystero-salpingogram confirms
bilateral patent fallopian tubes.
Serum prolactin
Day 21 progesterone
Neonatal 17-hydroxy-progesterone
concentration
Karyotype
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most appropriate
investigation from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
Question 8
An 38 year old woman has just had a forceps delivery and the neonate
has been found to have ambiguous external genitalia. Her medical
records show that she had amniocentesis at 18 weeks gestation
E
because of a high risk of Down?s syndrome on serum screening and
the fetus was found to have a 46XX karyotype.
Question 9
Freeze embryos
Termination of pregnancy
Transfer to ITU
Fluid restriction
Drain ascites
Diuretics
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most appropriate
management from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
A 35 year old woman with PCOS is undergoing IVF treatment. She
attends for embryo replacement 6 days after HCG administration and
complains of abdominal distension and pain with nausea and vomiting
B
Question 10
2-3 times per day over the previous 48h. Clinical examination showed
a mildly distended abdomen and ultrasound scan confirmed bilateral
ovarian enlargement 8-10cm. All her blood tests were normal.
10 random questions for EMQ Test
Options for Questions 1-1
A
Laparoscopy
Laparotomy
Instrunctions:Instructions: For each patient described below choose the single most appropriate
initial management option from the list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at
all.
Explanation
Question 1
Administer iv oxytocin
Administer im ergometrine
Blood transfusion
Administer im carboprost
Instrunctions:For each scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate
management from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or
not at all.
Explanation
Question 2
Chest X-ray
V/Q scan
CTPA
Pulmonary angiography
ECG
D-dimers
Spirometry
Instrunctions:For each of the scenarios below, select the single most appropriate subsequent
investigation from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
Question 3
Prolactinoma
Asherman?s syndrome
Hypothyroidism
Cervical stenosis
Hypothalamic amenorrhoea
Hyperthyroidism
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most likely
cause of amenorrhoea from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not
at all.
Explanation
Question 4
A 25 year old woman and her 24 year old partner attend the fertility
clinic because of a failure to conceive after 2 years of unprotected
intercourse. The man?s semen analysis is normal. The woman
complains of absent menses over the last 2 years. On examination, her
B
height is 1.6m and BMI is 22 but there are no abnormalities. FSH =
35mIU/ml, LH = 12mIU/ml, prolactin = 22ng/ml, testosterone =
1.5pg/ml and thyroid function tests and pelvic ultrasound scan are
normal. Karyotype shows 46XX / 45XO.
Prolactinoma
Asherman?s syndrome
Hypothyroidism
Cervical stenosis
Hypothalamic amenorrhoea
Hyperthyroidism
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most likely
cause of amenorrhoea from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not
at all.
Explanation
Question 5
In-vitro fertilisation
Intra-uterine insemination
Clomephene citrate
Metformin
Carbegolline
Oocyte donation
Weight reduction
Weight gain
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most appropriate
initial management from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at
all.
Explanation
Question 6
A 24 year old woman with her 35 year old partner has been referred to
the infertility clinic because of 2 years of primary infertility. The
woman has an irregular menstrual cycle every 2-4 months and her
partner's semen analysis shows a volume of 2.5ml, concentration of
J
30,million/ml and motility of 65%. The woman?s BMI is 34 and there
is no significant past medical history. Investigations have confirmed a
diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome.
Intravenous labetalol
Blood transfusion
Antihypertensive treatment
Administer iv phenytoin
Instrunctions:For each patient described below choose the single most appropriate management
option from the list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
Question 7
Intravenous labetalol
Blood transfusion
Antihypertensive treatment
Administer iv phenytoin
Instrunctions:For each patient described below choose the single most appropriate management
option from the list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
Question 8
Induction of labour
Discharge home
Anti-hypertensive therapy
Instrunctions:For each patient described below choose the single most appropriate management
option from the list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
Question 9
Instrunctions:For each scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate tumour
stage from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
An 87 year old woman has been referred to the gynaecology clinic
because of a 7 day history of frank haematuria. A fungating lesion is
Question 10
identified on her cervix and histology confirms a squamous cell
carcinoma. Cystoscopy shows invasion of the bladder mucosa
Reassurance
Instrunctions:For each scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate
management from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or
not at all.
Explanation
A 20 year old student has been immunised against Rubella 2 weeks
before travelling to the UK. She attends as an emergency because she
Question 11 has missed a period and is found to be 10 weeks pregnant on
ultrasound scan. She is concerned about the effect of the vaccine on
her fetus
Avoid breast-feeding
Reassurance
Instrunctions:For each scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate
management from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or
not at all.
Explanation
A 30 year old woman has delivered her second child by caesarean
section for breech presentation. While she is in hospital, she is
Question 12
informed that her 5 year old daughter has chickenpox. She has had
chicken pox in the past but is concerned about taking her baby home
Instrunctions:For each scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate tumour
stage from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
A 67 year old woman is referred to the gynaecology clinic with a 6
weeks history of post-menopausal bleeding. Clinical examination
Question 13 shows a fungating lesion on the cervix extending into the lower third
of the vagina. On rectal examination, the tumour extends to the pelvic
side-wall.
Placental abruption
Cardiomyopathy
Placenta praevia
Chest infection
Pulmonary embolism
CVA
Pulmonary hypertension
Endocarditis
Sepsis
Haemorrhage
Substance misuse
M HELLP syndrome
Thromboembolism
Myocardial infarcation
Instrunctions:For each case described below, choose the single most likely cause of maternal
death from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
A 30 year old woman is re-admitted 3 days after spontaneous vaginal
delivery complaining of feeling generally unwell and having rigors.
She has a history of rheumatic fever and intravenous drug abuse.
Question 14
Clinical examination showed a temperature of 39C, bulky uterus with
offensive vaginal discharge and a new ejection systolic murmur. She
suffered a stroke 24h later and died.
Induce labour
Administer oseltamivir
Administer zanamivir
Instrunctions:For each scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate
management from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or
not at all.
Explanation
An H1N1 influenza pandemic has been declared and a 35 year old
woman presents with a 24 hour history of flu-like illness with
Question 15 diarrhoea and vomiting. Her temperature is 38.5C, pulse 90 / min and
respiratory rate is 20 / min. SO2 is 96% on air. She had a vaginal
delivery 3 days earlier and is breastfeeding.
Congenital syphilis
Turner?s syndrome
Parder-Willy syndrome
Cri-du-chat syndrome
Edward?s syndrome
Patau?s syndrome
Down?s syndrome
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most likely
cause of fetal abnormality from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more
than once, or not at all.
Explanation
A 42 year old epileptic on phenytoin is late booking for antenatal care.
The estimated gestation age by ultrasound scan is 22 weeks and the
Question 16
L
fetus is found to have an atrio-ventricular septal defect and a double
bubble sign in the upper abdomen
Quadruple test
Integrated test
Nuchal transluscency
Triple test
Anomaly scan
Amniocentesis
PCR
No investigation
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most important
investigation from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or
not at all.
Explanation
Question 17
Amniocentesis
Triple test
Quadruple test
Integrated test
Nuchal transluscency
Anomaly scan
PCR
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most appropriate
investigation from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or
not at all.
Explanation
A 30 year old woman is known to be a carrier of Haemophilia A.
Question 18 Amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation shows that she is carrying an
unaffected male fetus. She is now 20 weeks pregnant.
Triple test
Quadruple test
Integrated test
Amniocentesis
Nuchal transluscency
Anomaly scan
PCR
M Karyotype
Instrunctions:For each of the conditions described below, choose the single most appropriate
diagnostic tests from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or
not at all.
Explanation
Question 19 Down?s syndrome
Bladder re-training
Posterior repair
Paravaginal repair
Duloxetine
Amitriptyline
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most appropriate
treatment option from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once,
or not at all.
Explanation
A 30 year old woman presents 6 months after spontaneous vaginal
delivery with urinary leakage on coughing and straining. Clinical
Question 20
examination was normal and urinary leakage was not demonstrated
with coughing.
Cystoscopy
Cystometry
Colposuspension
Bladder retraining
Intra-venous urogram
Return to theatre
Catheterise
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most appropriate
initial management from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than
once, or not at all.
Explanation
A 45 year old woman complains of feeling wet all the time 10 days
after a radical hysterectomy for cervical cancer. Clinical examination
Question 21 showed a small amount of clear fluid in the vagina but no other
abnormalities. A three swab test showed a wet swab which was not
stained with dye.
Cystoscopy
MRI scan
Urodynamic studies
Bladder re-training
Urine electrolytes
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most important
investigation from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or
not at all.
Explanation
A 45 year old woman complained initially of urinary frequency
urgency and urge incontinence and also leaked urine on coughing or
straining. She was treated medically initially and her symptoms of
Question 22
urinary frequency and urgency have largely resolved. Over the last 6
months, she is finding that urinary leakage on coughing and straining
is increasingly affecting her social life.
Rhesus disease
Parvovirus infection
Beta thalassaemia
Syphilis infection
Idiopathic
Congenital toxoplasmosis
Alpha thalassaemia
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most likely
cause of fetal hydrops from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than
once, or not at all.
Explanation
A 24 year old woman with beta thalassaemia trait is referred for
growth scan at 30 weeks gestation in her first pregnancy and is found
Question 23 to have a hydropic fetus. She is Rhesus negative with no red cell
antibodies. Her partner has beta thalassaemia trait and all other
investigations are normal
Induction of labour
Termination of pregnancy
Septostomy
Amnioreduction
No treatment recommended
Instrunctions:For each scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate
management from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or
not at all.
Explanation
A 35 year old woman with twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome has
been treated at the fetal medicine unit and both pregnancies are
Question 24
progressing well. Corticosteroids had been administered at 30 weeks
gestation and she has attended for ultrasound scan at 32 weeks.
Lovset?s manoeuvre
Forceps delivery
Episiotomy
Inhaled salbutamol
McRobert?s manoeuvre
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most appropriate
management from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
A 34 year old woman with 3 previous vaginal deliveries presents in
spontaneous labour at 39 weeks gestation. The cervix is fully dilated
with thick meconium stained liquor. The CTG shows a base-line fetal
Question 25 heart rate of 135bpm with variability of 3-4bpm with variable
G
decelerations. There are 3-4 uterine contractions every 10 minutes.
The fetus is in a direct occipito-anterior position 1cm below the ischial
spines.
Instrunctions:For each scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate
management from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or
not at all
Explanation
A healthy 28 year old woman complains of irregular vaginal bleeding
Question 26 3 weeks after her first dose of depo-medroxyprogesterone acetate.
History and clinical examination are normal
Down?s syndrome
Turner?s syndrome
Maternal smoking
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most likely
cause of neonatal collapse from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more
than once, or not at all.
Explanation
Question 27 A 3 hour old neonate weighing 4900g at birth
Down?s syndrome
Turner?s syndrome
Maternal smoking
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most likely
cause of neonatal collapse from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more
than once, or not at all.
Explanation
Question 28 A 6 hour old neonate with ambiguous genitalia
Down?s syndrome
Turner?s syndrome
Maternal smoking
Instrunctions:For each of the case histories described below, choose the single most likely
cause of neonatal collapse from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more
than once, or not at all.
Explanation
A 6 hour old neonate delivered by rotational forceps delivery for
prolonged second stage of labour. Initial examination showed
Question 29
C
epicanthic folds with up-slanting palpebral fissures and a loud systolic
murmur
Instrunctions:For each scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate plan for
labour from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at
all.
Explanation
A 35 year old woman has attended the consultant antenatal clinic at 36
Question 30 weeks gestation to discuss her birth plan. Her BMI was 42 at booking I
and 45 at 36 weeks. Her pregnancy is otherwise uncomplicated
Instrunctions:For the statement below, select the single most appropriate option from the above
list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
Question 31 The Nd:YAG laser
No further treatment
Adjuvant chemotherapy
Intracavitary radiotherapy
Intra-peritomeal chemotherapy
Unilateral salpingo-oophrectomy
TAH
Instrunctions:For each scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate
management from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or
not at all.
Explanation
A 37 year old woman with a complex ovarian mass had a staging
laparotomy with unilateral salpingo-oophrectomy to conserver
fertility. Peritoneal washings, the omentum and peritoneal biopsies are
Question 32 negative. There is a poorly differentiated clear cell adenocarcinoma
B
confined to the ovary and the ovarian capsule is not invaded. There is
invasion of lymphovascular space. Biopsies from the conserved ovary
and lymph nodes are normal.
Laser ablation
Cryotherapy
Intracavitary radiotherapy
Instrunctions:For each scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate
management from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or
not at all.
Explanation
A 42 year old mother of 5 children is found to have severe dyskaryosis
Question 33 on routine cervical smear. Colposcopy and biopsy confirms carcinoma A
in-situ.
LLETZ
Intracavitary radiotherapy
Combined chemo-radiotherapy
Cryotherapy
Instrunctions:For each scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate
management from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or
not at all.
Explanation
A 32 year old mother of 4 children has a cervical smear showing
Question 34 severe dyskaryosis. Colposcopy identifies a 3 x 4 mm lesion on the
ectocervix. Punch biopsy confirms a squamous cell carcinoma with
depth of invasion of 1.5mm. There is no invasion of the lymphovascular space. The woman has completed her family.
Intracavitary radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
Palliative care
Instrunctions:For each scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate
management from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or
not at all.
Explanation
A healthy 60 year old woman presents with a 6 months history of postcoital bleeding. Clinical examination identifies a 3cm ulcerated lesion
on the cervix extending into the upper third of the vagina. Biopsy
Question 35
G
confirms squamous cell carcinoma. MRI scan confirms that the
tumour is limited to the upper third of the vagina and there is
parametrial invasion. The pelvic side-wall is not involved.
Norgeston (Levonorgestrel)
Progestogen-only pill
Depo-medroxyprogesterone acetate
Copper IUCD
Levonorgestrel IUS
Etonorgestrel implant
Male condom
Instrunctions:For each scenario described below, choose the contraceptive option that should
not be used (UKMEC category 3 or 4) from the above list of options. Each option may be used
once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
Intracavitary radiotherapy
Instrunctions:For each scenario described below, choose the appropriate treatment option that is
associated with the lowest risk of morbidity from the above list of options. Each option may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
Explanation
A healthy 67 year old woman has been referred to the gynaecology
oncology clinic with a 3 months history of post-menopausal bleeding.
Endometrial biopsy shows a well differentiated endometrial
Question 38
carcinoma. MRI scanning shows that the tumour is confined to the
inner 50% of the myometrium but extends to the endocervical glands.
There is no invasion of the cervical stroma
Perform amniotomy
Reassess in 2 hours
Reassess in 3 hours
Reassess in 4 hours
CTG
K
M No additional intervention
Instrunctions:For each scenario described below, choose the single most appropriate
management from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or
not at all.
Explanation
A 34 year old woman with a dichorionic-diamniotic twin pregnancy
presents in spontaneous labour at 37 weeks gestation. At 08:00, the
Question 39
cervix is 4cm dilated with intact membranes. At 12:00, the cervix is
5cm dilated with intact membranes. She is contracting 3-4 in 10.