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# 2016

WORKBOOK
Detailed Explanations of

## Try Yourself Questions

Mechanical Engineering
Fluid Mechanics and Machines

Fluid Properties

T1 : Solution
The thickness of the glycerin layer is same on either side of the plate
t = thickness of glycerin layer
=

(15 3 )
2

= 6.0 mm

V
t
Fs = Total shear force (considering both sides of the plate)

## Shear stress on one side of the plate = =

2AV
t
A = Area of plate = 0.8 0.8 = 0.64 m2
W s = 110 N
= 0.64 0.003 = 0.00192 m3

= 2A =

Here,
Weight of steel plate,
Volume of the plate
Shear force,
Up thrust on submerged plate

Fs =

=
Wu =
Effective weight of the plate
=
Total force required to pull the plate =

= 48
0.006

## g (volume of the plate)

(1260 9.81) 0.00192 = 23.73 N
We = Ws Wu =110 23.73 = 86.27 N
F = Fs + We = 48 + 86.27 = 134.27 N

T2 : Solution

r r0
u =r

=

r
V
du
= =
h
h
dy

## Considering an elemental area (2r ds) = 2r

dr
sin

Workbook

d(Torque) = dT = r d(Force)
= r 2r
= r
=
Torque,

dr
sin

r
dr
2r
h
sin

2 1 3
r dr
h sin
2

r0

r0 3

T=

0 dT = h sin 0 r

T=

4
r0
2h sin

dr

T3 : Solution
= 981 kg/m3
= 0.2452 N/m2

Mass density,
Shear stress,

du
= 0.2 s
dy

## Using the quation

du
dy

0.2452 = 0.2

0.2452
= 1.226 Ns/m2
0.200

1.226
=
= 0.125 102 m2 / sec
981

## = 0.125 102 104 cm2/s = 0.125 102 cm2/s

( 1 cm2/s = 1 stoke)
= 12.5 cm2/s = 12.5 stoke

Fluid Statics

T1 : Solution
The projected area of gate will experience a horizontal force from two opposite directions as shown in
figure.

## fH1 = w A1h1 = 9.81 3 2

Acts at

2
= 58.86 kN
2

H1
(= 0.666 m) from bottom
3

## fH2 = w A2h2 = 9.81 3 1

H1

1
= 14.715 kN
2

fH

H2

fH

H
Acts at 2 (= 0.333 m) from bottom
3

Resultant force,

fr

## fr1 = w Volume submerged

fr

2 1
= 9.81 3 2 = 46.23 kN
4
2

## fr2 = w Volume submerged

1 2
2 = 23.11 kN
4 4
Minimum weight so that gate does not float away
= fr1 + fr2 = 69.34 kN

= 9.81 3

5m

## F = rgAh = 1000 9.81 A h

A = (3 2) = 8.2360 m2
F = 1000 9.81 8.2360 1
F = 80.79 kN

2m

T2 : Solution
O

3m

Fluid Kinematics

T1 : Solution
Given:
ur = r sin , u = 2r cos
For physically possible flow, the continuity equation,

## (rur ) + (u ) = 0 should be satisfied.

r

Now,
ur = r sin
Multiplying the above equation by r, we get
rur = r2 sin
Differentiating above equation w.r.t. r, we get

2
r sin
(rur ) =
r
r

= 2r sin
Now,
u = 2r cos
Differentiating the above equation w.r.t. , we get

## ( sin is constant w.r.t. r)

(u ) =
(2r cos )

= 2r ( sin )
= 2r sin

( 2r is constant w.r.t. )

## (rur ) + (u ) = 2r sin 2r sin = 0

r

Hence the continuity equation is satisfied and the given velocity components represent a physically possible
flow.

## Mechanical Engineering Fluid Mechanics and Machines

T2 : Solution
For the given fluid flow field

u = x 2y

v = y2z

u
= 2 xy
x
v
= 2yz
y

w
= 2 xy 2yz
z
For a case of possible steady incompressible fluid flow, the continuity equation should be satisfied.

w = 2xyz yz2

i.e.,

u v w
+
+
= 0
x y z

## Substituting the values of

u v
w
,
and
, we get
x y
z

u v w
+
+
= 2xy + 2yz 2xy 2yz = 0
x y z
Hence the velocity field
Velocity at (2, 1, 3)

## V = x2 yi + y2zj (2xyz + yz2) k is a possible case of fluid flow.

V = 22 1)i + (12 3)j (2 2 1 3 + 1 32)k
= 4i + 3j 21k
|V| =

## 42 + 32 + ( 21) = 21.59 units

2

Acceleration at (2, 1, 3)
The acceleration components ax, ay and az for steady flow rate

ax = u u + v u + w u
x
y
z
ay = u

v
v
v
+v
+w
x
y
z

az = u

w
w
w
+v
+w
x
y
z

u = x2 y ,

u
u
u
=0
= 2 xy ,
= x2 and
z
x
y

2
v = y z,

v
v
v
= 2yz ,
= y2
=0,
y
z
x

w = 2 xyz yz 2 ,

w
w
w
= 2 xz z 2 ,
= 2yz ,
= 2 xy 2yz
y
x
z

## ax = x2y (2xy) + y2z (x)2 (2xyz + yz2) 0

= 2x3y2 + x2y2z
= 2 (2)3 12 + 22 12 3 = 2 8 + 12
= 16 + 12 = 28 units

Workbook

## ay = x2y (0) + y2z (2yz) (2xyz + yz2) (y2)

= 2y3z2 2xy3z y3z2
= 2 13 32 2 2 13 3 13 32 = 18 12 9 = 3 units

## az = x2y (2yz) + y2z (2xz z2) (2xyz + yz2) (2xy 2yz)

= 2x2y2z 2xy2z2 y2z3 + [4x2y2z + 2xy2z2 + 4xy2z2 + 2y2z3]
= 2 22 12 3 2 2 12 32 12 33
+[4 22 12 3 + 2 2 12 32 + 4 2 12 32 + 2 12 33]
= 24 36 27 + [48 + 36 + 72 + 54]
= 24 36 27 + 48 + 36 + 72 + 54 = 123

or

## Acceleration = axi + ay j + azk = 28i 3j + 123k

Resultant acceleration =
=

2
282 + ( 3 ) + 1232 =

784 + 9 + 15129

Fluid Dynamics

T1 : Solution

2
1

p2 p1

0.2 m

= 0.01

## Applying continuity equation between section (1) and (2), we get

A1V1 = A2V2

0.4 m

2
3

0.22 V1 =
0.42 V2
4
4
V1 = 4V2
Head loss in pipe due to sudden expansion

he =

(V1 V2 )2

2
4V2 V2 )
(
=

2g
2g
Applying Bernoullis equation between section (1) and (2)

9V22
2g

2
p1 V12
+
+ z1 = p2 + V2 + z + h
2
e
2g
2g

p2 p1
V12 V22
he =

2g

( z1 = z2)

## 16V22 V22 9V22

= 0.01
2g
2g
6V22
= 0.01
2g
0.01 9.81
= 0.18 m/s
3

2
2
3
Q = A2V2 = d2 V2 = 0.4 0.18 = 0.023 m /s
4
4
Q = 23 l/s

V2 =
Discharge,

Workbook

T2 : Solution

D1 = 10 cm, A1 =

2
(0.1) = 7.854 103 m2
4

Energy line
HL = 0.119 m

0.570 m

0.452 m
0.4390 m

0.3598 m

C
L 20 cm

10 cm
1
2

D2 = 20 cm, A2 =
Q = V1A1 = V2A2

2
(0.2 ) = 3.142 102 m2
4

D
1
V2 = 1 V1 = V1
4
D2

Hence ,

HL =

(V1 V2 )2
2g

V1

V1
4
=
2g

9 V12
16 2g

## By applying Bernoulli equation to sections (1) and (2)

p2 V22
p1 V12
+
+ Z 2 + HL
+
+ Z1 =
2g
2g
p2 p1
V2 V2
= 1 2 + Z1 Z 2 HL

2g 2g

3 V12
660
V2
1
9
= 1 1
+O =
8 2g
(0.85 9810)
2g 16 16
8
2 9.81 0.0792 = 4.1412
3
V1 = 2.035 m/s
Q = A1V1 = 7.854 103 2.035 m3/s
= 0.016 m3/s = 16.0 L/s

V12 =
Discharge

Flow Measurement

T1 : Solution
Venturimeter: A venturimeter is a device used for measuring the rate of a flow of a fluid flowing through a
pipe. It consists of three parts :
(i) A short converging part,
(ii) Throat and
(iii) Diverging part.
....
....
It is based on the Principle of Bernoullis equation.
.... h
....
....
Pitot-tube: It is a device used for measuring the velocity of
....
....
flow at any point in a pipe or a channel. It is based on the
....
....
H
....
principle that if the velocity of flow at a point becomes zero, the
....
2
1
.
.
. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .
pressure there is increased due to the conversion of the kinetic
energy into pressure energy. In its simplest form, the pitot-tube
consists of a glass tube, bent at right angles as shown in Fig. (1).
Fig. (1)

Expr
ession for Rate of Flow Thr
ough V
enturimeter
Expression
Through
Venturimeter
Consider a venturimeter fitted in a horizontal pipe through which a fluid is flowing (say water), as shown in
Fig. (2),
Let

## d1 = diameter at inlet or a at section (1)

p1 = pressure at section (1)
v1 = velocity of fluid at section (1)

2
a = area at section (1) = d1
4
and d2, p2, v2, a2 are corresponding values at section (2).
Applying Bernoullis equation at section (1) and (2), we get

..
..
..

d1

...
...
.. 2

Inlet

Throat

Fig. (2)

p1 v 12
p2 v 22
+
+ z1 =
+
+ z2
g 2 g
g 2g

## As pipe is horizontal, hence z1 = z2

11

Workbook
p1 v 12
p2 v 22
+
+
=
g 2g
g 2g

But

p1 p2 v 22 v 12
=

g
2g 2g

or

p1 p2
p1 p2
=h
is the difference of pressure heads at sections 1 and 2 and it is equal to h or
g
g

## Substituting this value of

p1 p2
in the above equation, we get
g

v 22 v 12

2g 2g
Now applying continuity equation at sections 1 and 2

h =

v1 =

a1v1 = a2v2 or

...(i)

a2v 2
a1

h =
or

a2v 2
a
1

v 22

2g

v22 = 2gh

2g

v2 =

Discharge,

Q = a2v2
= a2

v 22
2g

## a22 v 22 a12 a22

1 2 =

2
a1 2g a1

a12
a12 a22

2gh

a12
=
a12 a22
a1
2

a1 a22

a1

2gh

2
1

a a22

2gh =

a1a2
2

a1 a22

2gh

...(ii)

Equation (ii) gives the discharge under ideal conditions and is called, theoretical discharge. Actual discharge
will be less than theoretical discharge.

a1a2

Qact = Cd

a1 a22

2gh

...(iii)

## where Cd = Co-efficient of venturimeter and its value is less than 1.

Given
Cd = 0.96
venturimeter constant = 0.3 m2.5/s
venturimeter head, h = 0.2 m

Q =

Cd a1a2 2gh
2

a1 a22

## 2g is a known constant i.e.

a1a2 2g
2

a1 a22

is a

constant.
Check with dimensions =

m 2 m 2 m/s2
(m 2 )2

m 2.5
s

12

a a 2g
1 2
h
Q = Cd 2
2
a1 a2

= 0.96 3.0

## 0.2 = 0.1287 m3/s

T2 : Solution
For venturimeter
Applying Bernoullis equation

Q = A1V1 = A2V2

P1
V2
P
V2
+ Z1 + 1 = 2 + Z 2 + 2
2g
2g
g
g
V22 V12
= h2 h1 = h
2g

h =

Where

V1 =

Now,

P
g
A2
V2
A1

A2
1

A1
2
V2

= h
2g

V2 =

Q =

2g h
A
1 2
A1

Cd A2 2g h
D
1 2
D1

## Head loss between inlet and throat is given by

4
D2
V22 1
2
H = 2g C 2 1 1 D = 1 Cd
1
d

H = (1 Cd2)h

or

1 Cd2 Q 2 D2
.
H =
1
Cd2 2gA22 D1

D 4
2
2
1 V2
D

2
2gCd

Workbook

13

## As Cd, g, A2, D2, D1 are constant.

H = kQ2
H = (1 Cd2)h = kQ2
K =

1 Cd2
h
Q2

T3 : Solution

d1
d2
D.P.
water
Cd
Cd

Given,

=
=
=
=
=
=

100 mm = 0.1 m
50 mm = 0.05 m
250 Pa (Depression pressure)
1000 kg/m3
0.6
(for orifice plate)
0.9
(for venturi)

Q = C

a1 a2
a12 a22

2gh

## a1 = 0.785 0.12 = 7.85 103 m2

a2 = 0.785 0.052 = 1.9625 103 m2
h =
a1a2
a12

a22

2gh =
Qorifice
Qventuri
Q0
QV

=
=
=
=

(D.P.) =
g

250
= 0.02548 m
9.81 1000

7.85 10 3 1.9625

(7.85)

(1.9625)

= 2.0268 10 3 m2

## 2 9.81 0.02548 = 0.707m/s

0.6 2.0268 103 0.707 = 8.597 104 m3/s
0.9 2.0268 103 0.707 = 1.2896 103 m3/s
0.8597 L/s
1.2896 L/s

T1 : Solution
D

4fL V 2
.
H =
d 2g

15 =

0.02 1000 V
0.3 2 9.81

H = 15 meter
2

## Q f = 0.02 which is very high.

So it will be friction factor and 4f = 0.02

V2 =

L = 1000 m
300 mm

15 0.3 2 9.81
0.02 1000

V = 2.101 m/sec

## & = AV = (0.3)2 2.101

Flow rate, Q
4
& = 0.1485 m3/sec
Q

## Now addition same pipe of length is added in later half of pipe as

Q1 = Q2 + Q3

AV = AV + AV
V =

V
2

hf = 15 =
15 =

4fL V 2 4fL V 2

d 2g
d 2g
0.02 500 V 2 0.02 500 1 V 2
+
.
0.3
2g
0.3
4 2g

Workbook

15

15 = 2.124 V2
V = 2.657 m/sec
V =

Discharge rate

V
= 1.329 m/sec
2

Q = A.V =

Increase in discharge =

## .(0.3)2 2.657 = 0.18781 m3/sec

4

Q Q
= 26.47%.
Q

T2 : Solution
Using the Bernaullis equation, at points 1 and 2
Let p1, V1, Z1 be the pressure, velocity and head at point 1, and p2 V2, Z2, be the corresponding values
at point 2.

1 V22

hL = 1-
C 2g

30 cm

60 cm

p2 V22
p1 V12
+
+ Z 2 + hL
+
+ Z1 =
rg 2g
r g 2g

1 V22

hL = 1 0.65 2g

hL = 0.2899

V22
2g
Q = A1V1 = A2V2

Also,

p
p
2
2
(60) V1 =
(30) V2
4
4

V1 =

V2
4

## Using the Bernaullis equation

2

V2
V2
80 103
100 103
1 V2
+ 2 + Z 2 + 0.2899 2
+
+ Z 1 =
1000 9.81 2g 4
1000 9.81 2g
2g

Flow rate,

10.1936 +

V22
V22
= 8.1549 + 1.2899
32g
2g

[ Z1 = Z2]

V22
V2
- 2
2g 32g

V22 = 32.5886
V2 = 5.7086 m/s

Q = A2V2 =

p
2
(0.3) 5.7086
4

Q = 0.4035 m3/s

16

1 V22
hL = 1-
Cc 2g

Also,

1 (5.7086)

1

hL =
0.65
2 9.81

hL = 0.48158 m
T3 : Solution

## L1 = 1800 m, L2 = 1200 m, L3 = 600 m

D1 = 50 cm = 0.5 m, D2 = 40 cm = 0.4 m, D3 = 30 cm = 0.3 m
(i) We know for the pipe connected in series
Leq
Deq

Leq
5

(0.4)

L
L1
L
+ 25 + 35
5
D1 D2 D3
1800
5

(0.5)

1200
5

(0.4)

600
5

(0.3)

Leq = 4318.22 m
Leq

(ii)

Deq

On solving,

(iii)

On solving,

3600

5
Deq

L
L1
L
+ 25 + 35
5
D1 D2 D3
1800
5

(0.5)

1200
5

(0.4)

600
5

(0.3)

Deq = 0.38570 m
Deq = 38.57 cm
Deq 5

Leq

1/ 2

0.55
L
eq

1/ 2

D15
=

L1

1/ 2

0.5 5
=
1800

D 5
+ 2
L2

1/ 2

1/ 2

D 5
+ 3
L3

0.45
+
1200

1/ 2

1/ 2

0.35
+
600

1/ 2

Leq = 377.345 m

Dimensional Analysis

T1 : Solution
As per Reynolds model law
rVr lr
= 1
r

## Viscosity scale ratio,

Discharge scale ratio,

Vr lr
r = 1
r
lr
Qr = Vr Ar = Vr lr2

Vr =

r
lr2 = r lr
lr

T2 : Solution
According to Reynolds model law
Vr Lr
r = 1
According to Froudes model law,

...(i)

Vr
gr Lr = 1
or

Vr
= 1
Lr

( gr = 1)
Lr

Vr =

Qr = ArVr
= Lr2 Vr

...(ii)
from eq. (ii)

18

## Mechanical Engineering Fluid Mechanics and Machines

= Lr 2 Lr

Q = Lr 5/ 2
(iii) Kinematic viscosity scale ratio,
r = VrLr
r =

## from eq. (i)

Lr Lr

= Lr 3/ 2
T3 : Solution
Given:
p is a function of D, l, V , , k

p = f (D, l, V, , , k) or f1 (p, D, l, V, , , k) = 0
...(i)
Total number of variables,
n = 7
Writing dimensions of each variables,
Dimension of
p = Dimension of pressure = ML1T2
D = L, l = L, V = LT1, = ML1T1, = ML3, k = L
Number of fundamental dimensions, m = 3
Number of -terms
= nm=73=4
Now equation (i) can be grouped in 4 -terms as
f1 (1, 2, 3, 4) = 0
Each -term contains m + 1 or 3 + 1 = 4 variables, Out of four variables, three are repeating variables.
Choosing D, V, as the repeating variables, we have the four -terms as
1 = D a1 .V b1 . c1 . p
2 = D a2 .V b2 . c2 . l
3 = D a3 .V b3 . c3 .
4 = D a4 .V b4 . c4 .k
1 = D a1 .V b1 . c1 . p
First -term
Substituting dimensions on both sides,

a1
1
M0L0T0 = L . LT

) .(ML ) .(ML T )
b1

3 c1

Power of M,
0 = c1 + 1
Power of L,
0 = a1 + b1 3c1 1
Power of T,
0 = b1 2
Substituting the value of a1, b1 and c1 in 1,

1 2

c1 = 1
a1 = b1 + 3c1 + 1 = 2 3 + 1 = 0
b1 = 2

1 = D 0 .V 2 .1 . p = p
V 2

Workbook

19

Second -term
Substituting dimensions on both sides,

M0L0T0 = La2 . LT 1

) .(ML )
b2

3 c 2

.L

## Equation powers of M, L, T on both sides,

Power of M,
0 = c2
Power of L,
0 = a2 + b2 3c2 + 1
Power of T,
0 = b2
Substituting the values of a2, b2, c2 in 2.
2 = D 1.V 0 .0 .l =

c2 = 0
a2 = b2 + 3c2 1 = 1
b2 = 0

l
D

3 = D a3 .V b3 . c3 .

Third -term

## Subsituting dimensions on both sides.

M0L0T0 = La3 . LT 1

) .(ML )
b3

c3

.ML1T 1

## Equating the powers of M, L, T on both sides,

Power of M,
0 = c3 + 1
Power of L,
0 = a3 + b3 3c3 1
Power of T,
0 = b3 1
Substituting the values of a3, b3 and c3 in 3.
3 = D 1.V 1. 1. =

DV

4 = D a4 .V b4 . c4 .k

Fourth -term
or

c3 = 1
a3 = b3 + 3c3 + 1 = 1 3 + 1 = 1
b3 = 1

M0L0T0 = La4 . LT 1

) .(ML )
b4

## Equating the power of M, L, T on both sides

Power of M,
0 = c4
Power of L,
0 = a4 + b4 3c4 + 1
Power of T,
0 = b4
Subsituting the values of a4, b4, c4 in 4.
4 = D 1.V 0 . 0 .k =

c4

.L

(Dimension of k = L)
c4 = 0
a4 = b4 + 3c4 1 = 1
b4 = 0

k
D

p l
k
f1
, ,
, = 0
2 D DV D
V

or

p
V

l
k
,
= ,
D
DV
D

Boundary Layer

T1 : Solution
Given:

u
y
=
U

1/ 7

## (i) Substituting this value in V

on Kar
man momentum integral equation
Von
Karman
0
u
u
=
1 dy

2
0

U
U
x
U

y

=
x 0

1/7

y 1/ 7 y 1/ 7 y 2 / 7
1 dy =
0 1/ 7 2 / 7 dy

x

y 2 / 7 +1
y 1/ 7 +1

=
x 1 1/ 7 2 2 / 7
+

1
1

7 y 8/7 7 y 9/7
7 8 / 7 7 9 / 7

x 8 1/ 7 9 2 / 7 0 x 8 1/ 7 9 2 / 7

7
7 7
7
=
=
x 8
9 x 72
72 x

In the above expression, the integration limits should be from to . But as the laminar sub-layer is very
thin that is is very small. Hence the limits of integration are taken from 0 to .
Now,

0 =

U 2
72
x

...(i)

## But the value of 0 for turbulent boundary layer is given,

0 = 0.0225U 2
U

1/ 4

...(ii)

Workbook

21

Equating the two values of 0 given by equation (i) and (ii), we have

7
2
U 2
= 0.0225U
72
x
U

7
= 0.0225
U
72 x

1/4 = 0.0225

Integrating, we have

1/ 4

1/ 4

1
1/ 4

72

7 U

1/ 4 +1
= 0.2314
U
1
+ 1
4

1/ 4

x = 0.2314
U

1/ 4

1/ 4

x+C

1/ 4

4
x+C
5 / 4 = 0.2314
U
5
Where C is constant of integration.
To determine the value of C, let us assume turbulent boundary layer starts from the leading edge, though
in actual practice the turbulent boundary layer starts after the transition from laminar boundary layer. The
laminar layer exists for a very short distance and hence this assumption will not affect the subsequent
analysis.
At x = 0, = 0 C = 0

or

4 5 / 4 = 0.2314

U
5

5/4

1/ 4

0.2314 5
=
U
4

1/ 4

0.2314 5 1/ 4
=
U
4

= 0.37
U

4/5

0.2314 5
=

4/5

1/ 5

x4 / 5

1/ 5

= 0.37
U x

x4 / 5
1/ 5
1/ 5

4/5

1
= 0.37

Re x

1/ 5

x=

0.37 x

(R )

1/ 5

...(iii)

ex

From eq. (iii), it is clear that varies as x4/5 in turbulent boundary layer while in case of laminar boundary
layer varies as

x.

(ii) Shear stress ((0) at any point from leading edge is given by eq. (ii)
2
0 = 0.0225U
U

1/ 4

22

0 = 0.0225U 2
1/ 5

4/5
U 0.37
x

0.0225 2
4 / 5
U 2
=

4/5
4/5
2
0.37 (U ) x

= 0.0225 2

U 2

1
(0.37)1/ 4 U x

U 2
= 0.0577
2 U x

1/ 4

1/ 4

1/ 5

1/ 5

...(iv)

## (iii) Drag force (FD) on one side of the plate is

U 2

FD = 0 b d x = 0.0577
0
0
2
U
L

U 2
= 0.0577

2
U

= 0.0577

U 2

2 U

1/ 5

1
x

1/ 5

b dx

b x 1/ 5d x
0

1/ 5

5 U 2
= 0.0577
4
2 U
U 2
= 0.072

2
U

1/ 5

x4 / 5
b

4/ 5 0

1/ 5

b L4 / 5

1/ 5

b L4 / 5

## (iv) Drag co-efficient, CD is given by

CD =

FD
, where A = L b
1
AU 2
2
1/ 5

U 2

0.072

b L4 / 5
2 U
=
U 2
bL

= 0.072
U

0.072
Re1/L 5

1/ 5

1
= 0.072
UL
L1/ 5

1/ 5

UL
Q ReL =

This is valid for ReL > 5 105 but less than 107.

Workbook

23

T2 : Solution
Given:
Ist velocity profile
u
3 y 1 y

=
U
2 2

or

u =

3U y U y

2 2

## Differentiating w.r.t y, the above equation becomes,

2

u
3U 1 U
y 1
3
=
y
2 2

At y = 0,

2
u
3U 3U 0 1 3U

=
=
y y =0
2 2 2

u
As y
is positive. Hence flow will not separate or flow will remain attached with the surface.
y = 0

elocity pr
ofile
2 nd V
Velocity
profile
2

u
y y
= 2
U

y
y
u = 2U U

at y = 0,

u
y 1
y 1
= 2U 2 U 3
y

2
u
0 1
0 1

2 U 3 = 0
2
U
=
y y =0

u
= 0 , the flow is on the verge of separage.
As y
y = 0

3 rd velocity profile
u
y y
= 2 +
U

y
y
u = 2U + U

## Mechanical Engineering Fluid Mechanics and Machines

24

At y = 0,

u
1
y 1
= 2U + 2U
y

u
2U
2U
0 1
+ 2U =

=
y

y = 0

u
As y
is negative the flow has separated.
y = 0

T1 : Solution

Reynolds number,

Re =

## VD 1260 5.0 0.10

=
= 420

1.50

(a) As this value is less than 2000, the flow is laminar. In laminar flow in a conduit
0 =

8V 8 1.50 5.0
=
= 600 Pa
D
0.10

## (b) In laminar flow the head loss

hf =
(c) Power expended

32 VL
D

32 1.50 5.0 12

(1260 9.81)(0.1)2

= 23.3 m

P = Qhf
2

Discharge
Power,

(0.1)

5.0 = 0.03927 m3 /s
4
P = (1260 9.81) 0.03927 23.3
= 11309.8 W = 11.31 kW

Q = AV =

T2 : Solution
(a) For two-dimensional laminar flow between parallel plates

um = Maximum velocity =

(b) Since

3
V
2

3
1.40 = 2.10 m/s
2

2
dp B
V =

d x 12

26

## 12V 12 0.105 1.40

dp
=
= 12250
d = B2
x
(0.012 )2

0.012
dp B
0 =
2 = 12250 2 = 73.5 Pa
x
d

## (c) Shear stress at any y from the boundary

Boundary shear stress

dp B

y
=

d x 2

At y = 0.002 m
1.
Velocity

0.012

0.002 = 49 Pa
2

(12250 )

1 dp

By y 2
2 d x

1
2
12250 0.012 0.002 (0.002 )

2 0.105
= 1.167 m/s

T3 : Solution
Given:
At R:
R
2
Flow is turbulent

At

We know
Given, at

Also at,

u = 1.5 m/s
u = 1.35 m/s

y
u -u
= 5.75log10 + 3.75
R
U*
y = R, u = 1.5 m/s
1.5 - u
= 3.75
U*

y =

...(i)

R 0.1
=
0.05 m, u = 1.35
2
2

1
1.35 - u
= 5.75log10 + 3.75
2
U*

1.35 - u
= 2.0190
U*

...(ii)

## Dividing eq. (i) by eq. (ii)

1.5 - u
= 1.857
1.35 - u
1.5 - u = 1.857(1.35 - u )
1.5 - u = 2.507 - 1.857u

Workbook

27

1.857 u - u = 1.007
0.857 u = 1.007
u = 1.175 m/s

Q = u R 2
Q = 1.175 (0.1)2
Q = 0.0369 m3/s

R
u
= 5.75log10 + 4.75
k
U*
Also, from eq. (i)
15 - u
= 3.75
U*

Also,

1.5 - 1.175
= 3.75
U*

U* = 0.0866 m/s

0.1
1.175
= 5.75log10 + 4.75
0.0866
k
k = 2.9 103 m
k = 2.9 mm

R
1
= 2log10 + 1.74
k
f
0.1
1
+ 1.74
= 2log10
2.9 10-3
f

f = 0.043

10

Hydraulic Machines

T1 : Solution
Given: Velocity of jet,
V1 = 35 m/s
Velocity of vane,
u1 = u2 = 20 m/s
Angle of jet at inlet,
= 30
Angle made by the jet at outlet with the direction of motion of vanes = 120
Angle
= 180 120 = 60
(a) Angle of vanes tips
From inlet velocity triangle

u2

Vw 2
V2

Vf

Vr 2

Outlet velocity
triangle
2

120

## Vf1 = V1 sin = 35 sin 30 = 17.50 m/s

Vf1
17.50
tan = V u = 30.31 20 = 1.697
w1
1

By sine rule,

Motion
of vane

Vr1
sin90

Vf1
sin

or

Vr1
17.50
=
sin59.49
1

Vr1 =

Now,

Direction of
motion of
vane

V1

Vr 1

Vf1

u1

Vw1

17.50
= 20.31 m/s
0.862

## From outlet velocity triangle, by sine rule

Vr2
sin120

u2
sin (60 )

Workbook

29

20
20.31
=
sin (60 )
0.886

or

20 0.866
= 0.852 = sin( 58.50)
20.31

sin(60 ) =

60 = 58.50
= 60 58.50 = 1.49

1
V + Vw 2 u1
g w1

...(i)

## Vw1 = 30.31 m/s and u1 = 20 m/s

The value of Vw 2 is obtained from outlet velocity triangle

## Vw 2 = Vr 2 cos u2 = 20.31cos1.49 20.0 = 0.30 m/s

Work done/unit weight

1
[30.31+ 0.30] 20 = 62.40 Nm/N
9.81

(c) Efficiency

## Work done per kg

Energy supplied per kg
62.40 62.40 2 9.81
=
= 99.94%
35 35
V12
2g

T2 : Solution
Gross head, Hg = 220 m, Net head, H = 200 m, CV = 0.98, N = 200 rpm, power = 3.7 MW, u1=u2=u
u
V1 = 0.46, D = ?

Given:

## Speed of jet at vena contracta i.e. max. speed of jet

V1 = CV 2gH
= 0.98

u1

2 9.81 200

V1 = Vw1
Vr1

= 61.4 m/sec
A

Speed of wheel

u = 0.46 V1
= 0.46 61.4 = 28.24 m/sec
u=

DN
= 28.24
60

[u = u1 = u2]

28.24 60
D =
200

Vr2
B

V2

= 16

u2

Vf
C

Vw2

D = 2.697 m
Vr2 = Vr1 = V1 u
= 61.4 28.24
= 33.16 m/sec

30

## Vw2 = Vr2 cos 16 u

= 33.16 cos 16 28.24
Vw2 = 3.635 m/sec
b =

2u ( Vw1 + Vw2 )

V12

## 2 28.24 (61.4 + 3.635)

61.42

b = 0.974
Hydraulic efficiency
=

u ( Vw1 + Vw2 )
gH

## 28.24 (61.4 + 3.635)

9.81 200

= 0.936 = 93.6%

T3 : Solution

Hg = 500 m

hf =

Discharge,
Angle of deflection
Angle,
Speed ratio,
Co-efficient of velocity,

Q = 2.0 m3/s
= 165
= 180 165 = 15
= 0.45
Cv = 1.0

Velocity of jet,

## V1= Cv 2gH = 1.0 2 9.81 333.3 = 80.86 m/s

Hg 500
=
= 166.7 m
3
3

2gH

Velocity of wheel,

u = Speed ratio

or

u = u1 = u2 = 0.45

= 44.473 m/s

u2

Also

Vw

15
Vr

Vf

V2

## Vr2 = Vr1 = 44.473

Vr2 cos = u2 + Vw 2
or

## Vw 2 = 44.473 cos 15 36.387

or

B
Vr
Vw

C
1

165

V1

= 6.57 m/s
Work done by the jet on the runner per second is given by equation as
aV1 Vw1 + Vw 2 u = Q Vw1 + Vw 2 u

( aV1 = Q)

Workbook

31

=

=
= 6362.63 kW
1000
1000

h =

2 Vw1 + Vw 2 u
V12

## 2 [80.86 + 6.57] 36.387

80.86 80.86

= 0.9731 or 97.31%
T4 : Solution
Given data

## H = 32 m; Q = 0.18 m3/s; A = 7500 mm2; S.P. = 44 kW; m = 94%

(i) Horse power at the base of nozzle =

QH
9.81 0.18 32 103
=
= 56.51 kW
1000
1000

1
Qv2
2

2

1
0.18
1

KE = 1000 0.18
= 51.84 kW
6
2
1000
7500 10

## Power lost in the nozzle = Power at the base of nozzle KE

= 56.51 51.84 = 4.67 kW
m =

(ii)

## Power available at the shaft

Power delivered by water to runner

44
94
=
Runner
Power
100

## Runner Power = 46.81 kW

Power supplied to the runner is equal to the kinetic energy of the jet
i.e.
KE = 51.84 kW
Power lost in runner = KE Runner power
= 51.84 46.81 = 5.03 kW
(iii) Power lost in mechanical friction = Runner power shaft power
= 46.81 44 = 2.81 kW
T5 : Solution
H = 60 m
Speed,
N = 200 rpm
Shaft power,
SP = 95.6475 kW
Velocity of bucket,
u = 0.45 Velocity of jet
Overall efficiency,
0 = 0.85
Co-efficient of velocity,
Cv = 0.98
Design of Pelton wheel means to find diameter of jet (d), diameter of wheel (D), Width and depth of buckets
and number of buckets on the wheel

32

## Mechanical Engineering Fluid Mechanics and Machines

(i) Velocity of jet,

Bucket velocity,

But

u =

15.13 =

or

D=

## (ii) Diameter of the jet (d)

Overall efficiency
But

DN
60

D 200
60
60 15.13
= 1.44 m
200

0 = 0.85
0 =

## SP 95.6475 95.6475 1000

=
=
WP
g Q H
WP

1000
95.6475 1000
1000 9.81 Q 60

95.6475 1000
95.6475 1000
=
= 0.1912 m3 /s
0 1000 9.81 60 0.85 1000 9.81 60

Q =

## Q = Area of jet Velocity of jet

0.1912 =

d =

( WP = gQH)

d V1 = d 2 33.62
4
4
4 0.1912
= 0.085 m = 85 mm
33.62

## (iii) Size of buckets

Width of bucket
= 5 d = 5 85 = 425 mm
Depth of bucket
= 1.2 d = 1.2 85 = 102 mm
(iv) Number of buckets on the wheel is given by eq. as

Z = 15 +

D
1.44
= 15 +
2d
2 0.085

## = 15 + 8.5 = 23.5 Say 24

T6 : Solution
Inlet diameter,

D1 = 1.0 m

Rotational speed,

N = 400 rpm

Area of flow,

A = 0.25 m2

H = 65 m

Workbook

33

## Let the peripheral velocity at inlet and outlet be u1 and u2 respectively

u1 =

D1N
1 400
=
= 20.94 m/s
60
60

Discharge,
Q = A Vf1 = 0.25 8 = 2 m3/s
Power developed by the wheel is expressed as
P = Q(u1Vw1 u2Vw2)
= 1000 2 (20.94 25 u2 0) 103 = 1047 kW
h =

Hydraulic efficiency,

u1Vw1 u2 Vw2

100
gH

20.94 25 u2 0
=
100 = 82.1%
9.81 65

T7 : Solution
Given data:
Discharge,
Speed of runner,

Q = 10 m3/s
H = 30 m
N = 300 rpm

## Peripheral velocity at inlet, u1 = 0.9 2gH

Radial velocity of flow at inlet, Vf1 = 0.3 2gH
Overall efficiency, 0 = 80%
Hydraulic efficiency, h = 90%
(i) The power developed by the turbine is given by
P = QH 0
= 9.81 1000 10 30

80
= 2354.40 kW (Ans.)
100

u1 = 0.9 2gH
But,

u1 =

D1N
60

0.9 2gH =

D1N
60

D1 300
60
= 1.39 m (Ans.)

0.9 2 9.81 30 =

D1

Also,

## 10 = 1.39 B1 0.3 2 9.81 30

B1 = 0.315 m (Ans.)

34

## Mechanical Engineering Fluid Mechanics and Machines

(iii) Mechanical efficiency is given by
m =

u1Vw1 u2 Vw 2
gH

where Vw1 is whirl velocity at inlet and Vw2 is whirl velocity at outlet
But it is given that discharge at outlet is radial.

Vw2 = 0

m =

m =

u1Vw1 u2 0
gH
u1Vw1
gH

90
=
100
9.81 30
Vw1 = 12.13 m/s

## If is the guide vane angle at inlet, then

tan =

tan =

Vf1
Vw1

0.3 2 9.81 30
12.13

= tan1 (0.6)
= 30.96 31 (Ans.)

## (iv) If is the inlet angle at runner vane, then

Vf1
tan = V u
w1
1

tan =

0.3 2 9.81 30
12.13 0.9 2 9.81 30

= 36.87

D2 =

D1
1.39
=
= 0.695 m
2
2

T8 : Solution
Given:
Hub diameter,
Speed,

H = 12 m
Db = 0.35 D0
N = 100 rpm

## Where D0 = Dia. of runner

35

Workbook
Vane angle at outlet,

u2

= 15

Flow ratio

Vf1

2gH

= 0.6

Vf = V2
2

Vr 2

tan =

Vf2 Vf1
=
u2 u2

(Q Vf

= Vf1 = 9.2

)
V1

9.2
= u
2

tan 15

9.2
= 34.33 m/s
tan15
u1 = u2 = 34.33

u1 =

D0 100
D0 N
or 34.33 =
60
60

D0 =

60 34.33
= 6.55 m
100

Vr1

Vf1

u2 =

## Db = 0.35 D0 = 0.35 6.35 = 2.3 m

Discharge through turbine is given by eq. as

Q =

4
4

4

=
=
=
=

25 m
200 rpm
9 cumec = 9 m3/s
90% = 0.90

T9 : Solution
Given:
Speed,
Discharge,
Efficiency,

H
N
Q
0

0 =

Work developed
P
=
g Q H
Water power
1000

P = 0
=

g Q H
1000

= 1986.5 kW
1000

Using equation

Ns =

N P
H

5/4

200 1986.5
255 / 4

= 159.46 rpm

36

## (ii) Power generated

P = 1986.5 kW
(iii) As the specific speed lies between 51 and 255, the turbine is a Francis turbine.
T10 : Solution
Given:

Q = 0.04 m3/s
Hg = 20 m
0 =

f
l
D
0

=
=
=
=

rgQH
P
0.015
100 m
0.15 m
70%, 0 = 0.7
2

## 4 0.015 100 (0.04)

4f lQ 2
hf =
= 10.534 m
5
5 =
12D
12 (0.15)

Hnet = Hg + hf = 20 m + 10.534
Hnet = 30.534 m
0 =

rgQHnet
1000
P

1000
0.70 =
P

P =

## 9.81 0.04 30.534

kW
0.7

P = 17.116 kW
Hence power required to derive the pump is 17.116 kW.