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Original Title: Fluid Mechanics TYS Exp 251

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WORKBOOK

Detailed Explanations of

Mechanical Engineering

Fluid Mechanics and Machines

Fluid Properties

T1 : Solution

The thickness of the glycerin layer is same on either side of the plate

t = thickness of glycerin layer

=

(15 3 )

2

= 6.0 mm

V

t

Fs = Total shear force (considering both sides of the plate)

2AV

t

A = Area of plate = 0.8 0.8 = 0.64 m2

W s = 110 N

= 0.64 0.003 = 0.00192 m3

= 2A =

Here,

Weight of steel plate,

Volume of the plate

Shear force,

Up thrust on submerged plate

Fs =

=

Wu =

Effective weight of the plate

=

Total force required to pull the plate =

= 48

0.006

(1260 9.81) 0.00192 = 23.73 N

We = Ws Wu =110 23.73 = 86.27 N

F = Fs + We = 48 + 86.27 = 134.27 N

T2 : Solution

At any radius

r r0

u =r

=

r

V

du

= =

h

h

dy

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dr

sin

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Workbook

d(Torque) = dT = r d(Force)

= r 2r

= r

=

Torque,

dr

sin

r

dr

2r

h

sin

2 1 3

r dr

h sin

2

r0

r0 3

T=

0 dT = h sin 0 r

T=

4

r0

2h sin

dr

T3 : Solution

= 981 kg/m3

= 0.2452 N/m2

Mass density,

Shear stress,

Velocity gradient,

du

= 0.2 s

dy

du

dy

0.2452 = 0.2

0.2452

= 1.226 Ns/m2

0.200

1.226

=

= 0.125 102 m2 / sec

981

( 1 cm2/s = 1 stoke)

= 12.5 cm2/s = 12.5 stoke

Copyright

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Fluid Statics

T1 : Solution

The projected area of gate will experience a horizontal force from two opposite directions as shown in

figure.

Acts at

2

= 58.86 kN

2

H1

(= 0.666 m) from bottom

3

H1

1

= 14.715 kN

2

fH

H2

fH

H

Acts at 2 (= 0.333 m) from bottom

3

Resultant force,

fr

fr

2 1

= 9.81 3 2 = 46.23 kN

4

2

1 2

2 = 23.11 kN

4 4

Minimum weight so that gate does not float away

= fr1 + fr2 = 69.34 kN

= 9.81 3

5m

A = (3 2) = 8.2360 m2

F = 1000 9.81 8.2360 1

F = 80.79 kN

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2m

T2 : Solution

O

3m

Copyright

Fluid Kinematics

T1 : Solution

Given:

ur = r sin , u = 2r cos

For physically possible flow, the continuity equation,

r

Now,

ur = r sin

Multiplying the above equation by r, we get

rur = r2 sin

Differentiating above equation w.r.t. r, we get

2

r sin

(rur ) =

r

r

= 2r sin

Now,

u = 2r cos

Differentiating the above equation w.r.t. , we get

(u ) =

(2r cos )

= 2r ( sin )

= 2r sin

( 2r is constant w.r.t. )

r

Hence the continuity equation is satisfied and the given velocity components represent a physically possible

flow.

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T2 : Solution

For the given fluid flow field

u = x 2y

v = y2z

u

= 2 xy

x

v

= 2yz

y

w

= 2 xy 2yz

z

For a case of possible steady incompressible fluid flow, the continuity equation should be satisfied.

w = 2xyz yz2

i.e.,

u v w

+

+

= 0

x y z

u v

w

,

and

, we get

x y

z

u v w

+

+

= 2xy + 2yz 2xy 2yz = 0

x y z

Hence the velocity field

Velocity at (2, 1, 3)

V = 22 1)i + (12 3)j (2 2 1 3 + 1 32)k

= 4i + 3j 21k

|V| =

2

Acceleration at (2, 1, 3)

The acceleration components ax, ay and az for steady flow rate

ax = u u + v u + w u

x

y

z

ay = u

v

v

v

+v

+w

x

y

z

az = u

w

w

w

+v

+w

x

y

z

u = x2 y ,

u

u

u

=0

= 2 xy ,

= x2 and

z

x

y

2

v = y z,

v

v

v

= 2yz ,

= y2

=0,

y

z

x

w = 2 xyz yz 2 ,

w

w

w

= 2 xz z 2 ,

= 2yz ,

= 2 xy 2yz

y

x

z

= 2x3y2 + x2y2z

= 2 (2)3 12 + 22 12 3 = 2 8 + 12

= 16 + 12 = 28 units

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Workbook

= 2y3z2 2xy3z y3z2

= 2 13 32 2 2 13 3 13 32 = 18 12 9 = 3 units

= 2x2y2z 2xy2z2 y2z3 + [4x2y2z + 2xy2z2 + 4xy2z2 + 2y2z3]

= 2 22 12 3 2 2 12 32 12 33

+[4 22 12 3 + 2 2 12 32 + 4 2 12 32 + 2 12 33]

= 24 36 27 + [48 + 36 + 72 + 54]

= 24 36 27 + 48 + 36 + 72 + 54 = 123

or

Resultant acceleration =

=

2

282 + ( 3 ) + 1232 =

784 + 9 + 15129

Copyright

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Fluid Dynamics

T1 : Solution

2

1

p2 p1

0.2 m

= 0.01

A1V1 = A2V2

0.4 m

2

3

0.22 V1 =

0.42 V2

4

4

V1 = 4V2

Head loss in pipe due to sudden expansion

he =

(V1 V2 )2

2

4V2 V2 )

(

=

2g

2g

Applying Bernoullis equation between section (1) and (2)

9V22

2g

2

p1 V12

+

+ z1 = p2 + V2 + z + h

2

e

2g

2g

p2 p1

V12 V22

he =

2g

( z1 = z2)

= 0.01

2g

2g

6V22

= 0.01

2g

0.01 9.81

= 0.18 m/s

3

2

2

3

Q = A2V2 = d2 V2 = 0.4 0.18 = 0.023 m /s

4

4

Q = 23 l/s

V2 =

Discharge,

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Workbook

T2 : Solution

D1 = 10 cm, A1 =

2

(0.1) = 7.854 103 m2

4

Energy line

HL = 0.119 m

Piezometric headline

0.570 m

0.452 m

0.4390 m

0.3598 m

C

L 20 cm

10 cm

1

2

D2 = 20 cm, A2 =

Q = V1A1 = V2A2

2

(0.2 ) = 3.142 102 m2

4

D

1

V2 = 1 V1 = V1

4

D2

Hence ,

HL =

(V1 V2 )2

2g

V1

V1

4

=

2g

9 V12

16 2g

p2 V22

p1 V12

+

+ Z 2 + HL

+

+ Z1 =

2g

2g

p2 p1

V2 V2

= 1 2 + Z1 Z 2 HL

2g 2g

3 V12

660

V2

1

9

= 1 1

+O =

8 2g

(0.85 9810)

2g 16 16

8

2 9.81 0.0792 = 4.1412

3

V1 = 2.035 m/s

Q = A1V1 = 7.854 103 2.035 m3/s

= 0.016 m3/s = 16.0 L/s

V12 =

Discharge

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Flow Measurement

T1 : Solution

Venturimeter: A venturimeter is a device used for measuring the rate of a flow of a fluid flowing through a

pipe. It consists of three parts :

(i) A short converging part,

(ii) Throat and

(iii) Diverging part.

....

....

It is based on the Principle of Bernoullis equation.

.... h

....

....

Pitot-tube: It is a device used for measuring the velocity of

....

....

flow at any point in a pipe or a channel. It is based on the

....

....

H

....

principle that if the velocity of flow at a point becomes zero, the

....

2

1

.

.

. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .

pressure there is increased due to the conversion of the kinetic

energy into pressure energy. In its simplest form, the pitot-tube

consists of a glass tube, bent at right angles as shown in Fig. (1).

Fig. (1)

Expr

ession for Rate of Flow Thr

ough V

enturimeter

Expression

Through

Venturimeter

Consider a venturimeter fitted in a horizontal pipe through which a fluid is flowing (say water), as shown in

Fig. (2),

Let

p1 = pressure at section (1)

v1 = velocity of fluid at section (1)

2

a = area at section (1) = d1

4

and d2, p2, v2, a2 are corresponding values at section (2).

Applying Bernoullis equation at section (1) and (2), we get

..

..

..

d1

...

...

.. 2

Inlet

Throat

Fig. (2)

p1 v 12

p2 v 22

+

+ z1 =

+

+ z2

g 2 g

g 2g

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11

Workbook

p1 v 12

p2 v 22

+

+

=

g 2g

g 2g

But

p1 p2 v 22 v 12

=

g

2g 2g

or

p1 p2

p1 p2

=h

is the difference of pressure heads at sections 1 and 2 and it is equal to h or

g

g

p1 p2

in the above equation, we get

g

v 22 v 12

2g 2g

Now applying continuity equation at sections 1 and 2

h =

v1 =

a1v1 = a2v2 or

...(i)

a2v 2

a1

h =

or

a2v 2

a

1

v 22

2g

v22 = 2gh

2g

v2 =

Discharge,

Q = a2v2

= a2

v 22

2g

1 2 =

2

a1 2g a1

a12

a12 a22

2gh

a12

=

a12 a22

a1

2

a1 a22

a1

2gh

2

1

a a22

2gh =

a1a2

2

a1 a22

2gh

...(ii)

Equation (ii) gives the discharge under ideal conditions and is called, theoretical discharge. Actual discharge

will be less than theoretical discharge.

a1a2

Qact = Cd

a1 a22

2gh

...(iii)

Given

Cd = 0.96

venturimeter constant = 0.3 m2.5/s

venturimeter head, h = 0.2 m

Q =

Cd a1a2 2gh

2

a1 a22

a1a2 2g

2

a1 a22

is a

constant.

Check with dimensions =

Copyright

m 2 m 2 m/s2

(m 2 )2

m 2.5

s

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12

a a 2g

1 2

h

Q = Cd 2

2

a1 a2

= 0.96 3.0

T2 : Solution

For venturimeter

Applying Bernoullis equation

Q = A1V1 = A2V2

P1

V2

P

V2

+ Z1 + 1 = 2 + Z 2 + 2

2g

2g

g

g

V22 V12

= h2 h1 = h

2g

h =

Where

V1 =

Now,

P

+ Z = Piezometric head

g

A2

V2

A1

A2

1

A1

2

V2

= h

2g

V2 =

Q =

2g h

A

1 2

A1

Cd A2 2g h

D

1 2

D1

4

D2

V22 1

2

H = 2g C 2 1 1 D = 1 Cd

1

d

H = (1 Cd2)h

or

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1 Cd2 Q 2 D2

.

H =

1

Cd2 2gA22 D1

D 4

2

2

1 V2

D

2

2gCd

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Workbook

13

H = kQ2

H = (1 Cd2)h = kQ2

K =

1 Cd2

h

Q2

T3 : Solution

d1

d2

D.P.

water

Cd

Cd

Given,

=

=

=

=

=

=

100 mm = 0.1 m

50 mm = 0.05 m

250 Pa (Depression pressure)

1000 kg/m3

0.6

(for orifice plate)

0.9

(for venturi)

Q = C

a1 a2

a12 a22

2gh

a2 = 0.785 0.052 = 1.9625 103 m2

h =

a1a2

a12

a22

2gh =

Qorifice

Qventuri

Q0

QV

=

=

=

=

(D.P.) =

g

250

= 0.02548 m

9.81 1000

7.85 10 3 1.9625

(7.85)

(1.9625)

= 2.0268 10 3 m2

0.6 2.0268 103 0.707 = 8.597 104 m3/s

0.9 2.0268 103 0.707 = 1.2896 103 m3/s

0.8597 L/s

1.2896 L/s

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T1 : Solution

D

4fL V 2

.

H =

d 2g

15 =

0.02 1000 V

0.3 2 9.81

H = 15 meter

Additional pipe

2

So it will be friction factor and 4f = 0.02

V2 =

L = 1000 m

300 mm

15 0.3 2 9.81

0.02 1000

V = 2.101 m/sec

Flow rate, Q

4

& = 0.1485 m3/sec

Q

Q1 = Q2 + Q3

AV = AV + AV

V =

V

2

hf = 15 =

15 =

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4fL V 2 4fL V 2

d 2g

d 2g

0.02 500 V 2 0.02 500 1 V 2

+

.

0.3

2g

0.3

4 2g

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Workbook

15

15 = 2.124 V2

V = 2.657 m/sec

V =

Discharge rate

V

= 1.329 m/sec

2

Q = A.V =

Increase in discharge =

4

Q Q

= 26.47%.

Q

T2 : Solution

Using the Bernaullis equation, at points 1 and 2

Let p1, V1, Z1 be the pressure, velocity and head at point 1, and p2 V2, Z2, be the corresponding values

at point 2.

1 V22

hL = 1-

C 2g

30 cm

60 cm

p2 V22

p1 V12

+

+ Z 2 + hL

+

+ Z1 =

rg 2g

r g 2g

1 V22

hL = 1 0.65 2g

hL = 0.2899

V22

2g

Q = A1V1 = A2V2

Also,

p

p

2

2

(60) V1 =

(30) V2

4

4

V1 =

V2

4

2

V2

V2

80 103

100 103

1 V2

+ 2 + Z 2 + 0.2899 2

+

+ Z 1 =

1000 9.81 2g 4

1000 9.81 2g

2g

Flow rate,

10.1936 +

V22

V22

= 8.1549 + 1.2899

32g

2g

[ Z1 = Z2]

V22

V2

- 2

2g 32g

V22 = 32.5886

V2 = 5.7086 m/s

Q = A2V2 =

p

2

(0.3) 5.7086

4

Q = 0.4035 m3/s

Copyright

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16

1 V22

hL = 1-

Cc 2g

Also,

1 (5.7086)

1

hL =

0.65

2 9.81

hL = 0.48158 m

T3 : Solution

D1 = 50 cm = 0.5 m, D2 = 40 cm = 0.4 m, D3 = 30 cm = 0.3 m

(i) We know for the pipe connected in series

Leq

Deq

Leq

5

(0.4)

L

L1

L

+ 25 + 35

5

D1 D2 D3

1800

5

(0.5)

1200

5

(0.4)

600

5

(0.3)

Leq = 4318.22 m

Leq

(ii)

Deq

On solving,

(iii)

On solving,

3600

5

Deq

L

L1

L

+ 25 + 35

5

D1 D2 D3

1800

5

(0.5)

1200

5

(0.4)

600

5

(0.3)

Deq = 0.38570 m

Deq = 38.57 cm

Deq 5

Leq

1/ 2

0.55

L

eq

1/ 2

D15

=

L1

1/ 2

0.5 5

=

1800

D 5

+ 2

L2

1/ 2

1/ 2

D 5

+ 3

L3

0.45

+

1200

1/ 2

1/ 2

0.35

+

600

1/ 2

Leq = 377.345 m

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Dimensional Analysis

T1 : Solution

As per Reynolds model law

rVr lr

= 1

r

Discharge scale ratio,

Vr lr

r = 1

r

lr

Qr = Vr Ar = Vr lr2

Vr =

r

lr2 = r lr

lr

T2 : Solution

According to Reynolds model law

Vr Lr

r = 1

According to Froudes model law,

...(i)

Vr

gr Lr = 1

or

Vr

= 1

Lr

( gr = 1)

Lr

Vr =

Qr = ArVr

= Lr2 Vr

Copyright

...(ii)

from eq. (ii)

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18

= Lr 2 Lr

Q = Lr 5/ 2

(iii) Kinematic viscosity scale ratio,

r = VrLr

r =

Lr Lr

= Lr 3/ 2

T3 : Solution

Given:

p is a function of D, l, V , , k

p = f (D, l, V, , , k) or f1 (p, D, l, V, , , k) = 0

...(i)

Total number of variables,

n = 7

Writing dimensions of each variables,

Dimension of

p = Dimension of pressure = ML1T2

D = L, l = L, V = LT1, = ML1T1, = ML3, k = L

Number of fundamental dimensions, m = 3

Number of -terms

= nm=73=4

Now equation (i) can be grouped in 4 -terms as

f1 (1, 2, 3, 4) = 0

Each -term contains m + 1 or 3 + 1 = 4 variables, Out of four variables, three are repeating variables.

Choosing D, V, as the repeating variables, we have the four -terms as

1 = D a1 .V b1 . c1 . p

2 = D a2 .V b2 . c2 . l

3 = D a3 .V b3 . c3 .

4 = D a4 .V b4 . c4 .k

1 = D a1 .V b1 . c1 . p

First -term

Substituting dimensions on both sides,

a1

1

M0L0T0 = L . LT

) .(ML ) .(ML T )

b1

3 c1

Power of M,

0 = c1 + 1

Power of L,

0 = a1 + b1 3c1 1

Power of T,

0 = b1 2

Substituting the value of a1, b1 and c1 in 1,

1 2

c1 = 1

a1 = b1 + 3c1 + 1 = 2 3 + 1 = 0

b1 = 2

1 = D 0 .V 2 .1 . p = p

V 2

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Workbook

19

Second -term

Substituting dimensions on both sides,

M0L0T0 = La2 . LT 1

) .(ML )

b2

3 c 2

.L

Power of M,

0 = c2

Power of L,

0 = a2 + b2 3c2 + 1

Power of T,

0 = b2

Substituting the values of a2, b2, c2 in 2.

2 = D 1.V 0 .0 .l =

c2 = 0

a2 = b2 + 3c2 1 = 1

b2 = 0

l

D

3 = D a3 .V b3 . c3 .

Third -term

M0L0T0 = La3 . LT 1

) .(ML )

b3

c3

.ML1T 1

Power of M,

0 = c3 + 1

Power of L,

0 = a3 + b3 3c3 1

Power of T,

0 = b3 1

Substituting the values of a3, b3 and c3 in 3.

3 = D 1.V 1. 1. =

DV

4 = D a4 .V b4 . c4 .k

Fourth -term

or

c3 = 1

a3 = b3 + 3c3 + 1 = 1 3 + 1 = 1

b3 = 1

M0L0T0 = La4 . LT 1

) .(ML )

b4

Power of M,

0 = c4

Power of L,

0 = a4 + b4 3c4 + 1

Power of T,

0 = b4

Subsituting the values of a4, b4, c4 in 4.

4 = D 1.V 0 . 0 .k =

c4

.L

(Dimension of k = L)

c4 = 0

a4 = b4 + 3c4 1 = 1

b4 = 0

k

D

p l

k

f1

, ,

, = 0

2 D DV D

V

or

p

V

l

k

,

= ,

D

DV

D

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Boundary Layer

T1 : Solution

Given:

u

y

=

U

1/ 7

on Kar

man momentum integral equation

Von

Karman

0

u

u

=

1 dy

2

0

U

U

x

U

y

=

x 0

1/7

y 1/ 7 y 1/ 7 y 2 / 7

1 dy =

0 1/ 7 2 / 7 dy

x

y 2 / 7 +1

y 1/ 7 +1

=

x 1 1/ 7 2 2 / 7

+

1

1

7 y 8/7 7 y 9/7

7 8 / 7 7 9 / 7

x 8 1/ 7 9 2 / 7 0 x 8 1/ 7 9 2 / 7

7

7 7

7

=

=

x 8

9 x 72

72 x

In the above expression, the integration limits should be from to . But as the laminar sub-layer is very

thin that is is very small. Hence the limits of integration are taken from 0 to .

Now,

0 =

U 2

72

x

...(i)

0 = 0.0225U 2

U

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1/ 4

...(ii)

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Workbook

21

Equating the two values of 0 given by equation (i) and (ii), we have

7

2

U 2

= 0.0225U

72

x

U

7

= 0.0225

U

72 x

1/4 = 0.0225

Integrating, we have

1/ 4

1/ 4

1

1/ 4

72

7 U

1/ 4 +1

= 0.2314

U

1

+ 1

4

1/ 4

x = 0.2314

U

1/ 4

1/ 4

x+C

1/ 4

4

x+C

5 / 4 = 0.2314

U

5

Where C is constant of integration.

To determine the value of C, let us assume turbulent boundary layer starts from the leading edge, though

in actual practice the turbulent boundary layer starts after the transition from laminar boundary layer. The

laminar layer exists for a very short distance and hence this assumption will not affect the subsequent

analysis.

At x = 0, = 0 C = 0

or

4 5 / 4 = 0.2314

U

5

5/4

1/ 4

0.2314 5

=

U

4

1/ 4

0.2314 5 1/ 4

=

U

4

= 0.37

U

4/5

0.2314 5

=

4/5

1/ 5

x4 / 5

1/ 5

= 0.37

U x

x4 / 5

1/ 5

1/ 5

4/5

1

= 0.37

Re x

1/ 5

x=

0.37 x

(R )

1/ 5

...(iii)

ex

From eq. (iii), it is clear that varies as x4/5 in turbulent boundary layer while in case of laminar boundary

layer varies as

x.

(ii) Shear stress ((0) at any point from leading edge is given by eq. (ii)

2

0 = 0.0225U

U

1/ 4

Copyright

www.madeeasypublications.org

22

0 = 0.0225U 2

1/ 5

4/5

U 0.37

x

0.0225 2

4 / 5

U 2

=

4/5

4/5

2

0.37 (U ) x

= 0.0225 2

U 2

1

(0.37)1/ 4 U x

U 2

= 0.0577

2 U x

1/ 4

1/ 4

1/ 5

1/ 5

...(iv)

U 2

FD = 0 b d x = 0.0577

0

0

2

U

L

U 2

= 0.0577

2

U

= 0.0577

U 2

2 U

1/ 5

1

x

1/ 5

b dx

b x 1/ 5d x

0

1/ 5

5 U 2

= 0.0577

4

2 U

U 2

= 0.072

2

U

1/ 5

x4 / 5

b

4/ 5 0

1/ 5

b L4 / 5

1/ 5

b L4 / 5

CD =

FD

, where A = L b

1

AU 2

2

1/ 5

U 2

0.072

b L4 / 5

2 U

=

U 2

bL

= 0.072

U

0.072

Re1/L 5

1/ 5

1

= 0.072

UL

L1/ 5

1/ 5

UL

Q ReL =

This is valid for ReL > 5 105 but less than 107.

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Copyright

Workbook

23

T2 : Solution

Given:

Ist velocity profile

u

3 y 1 y

=

U

2 2

or

u =

3U y U y

2 2

2

u

3U 1 U

y 1

3

=

y

2 2

At y = 0,

2

u

3U 3U 0 1 3U

=

=

y y =0

2 2 2

u

As y

is positive. Hence flow will not separate or flow will remain attached with the surface.

y = 0

elocity pr

ofile

2 nd V

Velocity

profile

2

u

y y

= 2

U

y

y

u = 2U U

at y = 0,

u

y 1

y 1

= 2U 2 U 3

y

2

u

0 1

0 1

2 U 3 = 0

2

U

=

y y =0

u

= 0 , the flow is on the verge of separage.

As y

y = 0

3 rd velocity profile

u

y y

= 2 +

U

Copyright

y

y

u = 2U + U

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24

At y = 0,

u

1

y 1

= 2U + 2U

y

u

2U

2U

0 1

+ 2U =

=

y

y = 0

u

As y

is negative the flow has separated.

y = 0

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Copyright

T1 : Solution

Reynolds number,

Re =

=

= 420

1.50

(a) As this value is less than 2000, the flow is laminar. In laminar flow in a conduit

0 =

8V 8 1.50 5.0

=

= 600 Pa

D

0.10

hf =

(c) Power expended

32 VL

D

32 1.50 5.0 12

(1260 9.81)(0.1)2

= 23.3 m

P = Qhf

2

Discharge

Power,

(0.1)

5.0 = 0.03927 m3 /s

4

P = (1260 9.81) 0.03927 23.3

= 11309.8 W = 11.31 kW

Q = AV =

T2 : Solution

(a) For two-dimensional laminar flow between parallel plates

um = Maximum velocity =

(b) Since

Copyright

3

V

2

3

1.40 = 2.10 m/s

2

2

dp B

V =

d x 12

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26

dp

=

= 12250

d = B2

x

(0.012 )2

0.012

dp B

0 =

2 = 12250 2 = 73.5 Pa

x

d

Boundary shear stress

dp B

y

=

d x 2

At y = 0.002 m

1.

Velocity

0.012

0.002 = 49 Pa

2

(12250 )

1 dp

By y 2

2 d x

1

2

12250 0.012 0.002 (0.002 )

2 0.105

= 1.167 m/s

T3 : Solution

Given:

At R:

R

2

Flow is turbulent

At

We know

Given, at

Also at,

u = 1.5 m/s

u = 1.35 m/s

y

u -u

= 5.75log10 + 3.75

R

U*

y = R, u = 1.5 m/s

1.5 - u

= 3.75

U*

y =

...(i)

R 0.1

=

0.05 m, u = 1.35

2

2

1

1.35 - u

= 5.75log10 + 3.75

2

U*

1.35 - u

= 2.0190

U*

...(ii)

1.5 - u

= 1.857

1.35 - u

1.5 - u = 1.857(1.35 - u )

1.5 - u = 2.507 - 1.857u

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Copyright

Workbook

27

1.857 u - u = 1.007

0.857 u = 1.007

u = 1.175 m/s

Q = u R 2

Q = 1.175 (0.1)2

Q = 0.0369 m3/s

R

u

= 5.75log10 + 4.75

k

U*

Also, from eq. (i)

15 - u

= 3.75

U*

Also,

1.5 - 1.175

= 3.75

U*

U* = 0.0866 m/s

0.1

1.175

= 5.75log10 + 4.75

0.0866

k

k = 2.9 103 m

k = 2.9 mm

R

1

= 2log10 + 1.74

k

f

0.1

1

+ 1.74

= 2log10

2.9 10-3

f

f = 0.043

Copyright

www.madeeasypublications.org

10

Hydraulic Machines

T1 : Solution

Given: Velocity of jet,

V1 = 35 m/s

Velocity of vane,

u1 = u2 = 20 m/s

Angle of jet at inlet,

= 30

Angle made by the jet at outlet with the direction of motion of vanes = 120

Angle

= 180 120 = 60

(a) Angle of vanes tips

From inlet velocity triangle

u2

Vw 2

V2

Vf

Vr 2

Outlet velocity

triangle

2

120

Vf1

17.50

tan = V u = 30.31 20 = 1.697

w1

1

By sine rule,

Motion

of vane

Vr1

sin90

Vf1

sin

or

Vr1

17.50

=

sin59.49

1

Vr1 =

Now,

Direction of

motion of

vane

V1

Vr 1

Vf1

u1

Vw1

17.50

= 20.31 m/s

0.862

Vr2

sin120

www.madeeasypublications.org

u2

sin (60 )

Copyright

Workbook

29

20

20.31

=

sin (60 )

0.886

or

20 0.866

= 0.852 = sin( 58.50)

20.31

sin(60 ) =

60 = 58.50

= 60 58.50 = 1.49

1

V + Vw 2 u1

g w1

...(i)

The value of Vw 2 is obtained from outlet velocity triangle

Work done/unit weight

1

[30.31+ 0.30] 20 = 62.40 Nm/N

9.81

(c) Efficiency

Energy supplied per kg

62.40 62.40 2 9.81

=

= 99.94%

35 35

V12

2g

T2 : Solution

Gross head, Hg = 220 m, Net head, H = 200 m, CV = 0.98, N = 200 rpm, power = 3.7 MW, u1=u2=u

u

V1 = 0.46, D = ?

Given:

V1 = CV 2gH

= 0.98

u1

2 9.81 200

V1 = Vw1

Vr1

= 61.4 m/sec

A

Speed of wheel

u = 0.46 V1

= 0.46 61.4 = 28.24 m/sec

u=

DN

= 28.24

60

[u = u1 = u2]

28.24 60

D =

200

Copyright

Vr2

B

V2

= 16

u2

Vf

C

Vw2

D = 2.697 m

Vr2 = Vr1 = V1 u

= 61.4 28.24

= 33.16 m/sec

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30

= 33.16 cos 16 28.24

Vw2 = 3.635 m/sec

Blade efficiency,

b =

2u ( Vw1 + Vw2 )

V12

61.42

b = 0.974

Hydraulic efficiency

=

u ( Vw1 + Vw2 )

gH

9.81 200

= 0.936 = 93.6%

T3 : Solution

Given: Gross head,

Hg = 500 m

hf =

Net head,

Discharge,

Angle of deflection

Angle,

Speed ratio,

Co-efficient of velocity,

Q = 2.0 m3/s

= 165

= 180 165 = 15

= 0.45

Cv = 1.0

Velocity of jet,

Hg 500

=

= 166.7 m

3

3

2gH

Velocity of wheel,

u = Speed ratio

or

u = u1 = u2 = 0.45

= 44.473 m/s

u2

Also

Vw

15

Vr

Vf

V2

Vr2 cos = u2 + Vw 2

or

or

B

Vr

Vw

C

1

165

V1

= 6.57 m/s

Work done by the jet on the runner per second is given by equation as

aV1 Vw1 + Vw 2 u = Q Vw1 + Vw 2 u

( aV1 = Q)

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Workbook

31

=

=

= 6362.63 kW

1000

1000

h =

2 Vw1 + Vw 2 u

V12

80.86 80.86

= 0.9731 or 97.31%

T4 : Solution

Given data

(i) Horse power at the base of nozzle =

QH

9.81 0.18 32 103

=

= 56.51 kW

1000

1000

1

Qv2

2

2

1

0.18

1

KE = 1000 0.18

= 51.84 kW

6

2

1000

7500 10

= 56.51 51.84 = 4.67 kW

m =

(ii)

Power delivered by water to runner

44

94

=

Runner

Power

100

Power supplied to the runner is equal to the kinetic energy of the jet

i.e.

KE = 51.84 kW

Power lost in runner = KE Runner power

= 51.84 46.81 = 5.03 kW

(iii) Power lost in mechanical friction = Runner power shaft power

= 46.81 44 = 2.81 kW

T5 : Solution

Given: Head,

H = 60 m

Speed,

N = 200 rpm

Shaft power,

SP = 95.6475 kW

Velocity of bucket,

u = 0.45 Velocity of jet

Overall efficiency,

0 = 0.85

Co-efficient of velocity,

Cv = 0.98

Design of Pelton wheel means to find diameter of jet (d), diameter of wheel (D), Width and depth of buckets

and number of buckets on the wheel

Copyright

www.madeeasypublications.org

32

(i) Velocity of jet,

Bucket velocity,

But

u =

15.13 =

or

D=

Overall efficiency

But

DN

60

D 200

60

60 15.13

= 1.44 m

200

0 = 0.85

0 =

=

=

WP

g Q H

WP

1000

95.6475 1000

1000 9.81 Q 60

95.6475 1000

95.6475 1000

=

= 0.1912 m3 /s

0 1000 9.81 60 0.85 1000 9.81 60

Q =

0.1912 =

d =

( WP = gQH)

d V1 = d 2 33.62

4

4

4 0.1912

= 0.085 m = 85 mm

33.62

Width of bucket

= 5 d = 5 85 = 425 mm

Depth of bucket

= 1.2 d = 1.2 85 = 102 mm

(iv) Number of buckets on the wheel is given by eq. as

Z = 15 +

D

1.44

= 15 +

2d

2 0.085

T6 : Solution

Inlet diameter,

D1 = 1.0 m

Rotational speed,

N = 400 rpm

Area of flow,

A = 0.25 m2

H = 65 m

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Workbook

33

u1 =

D1N

1 400

=

= 20.94 m/s

60

60

Discharge,

Q = A Vf1 = 0.25 8 = 2 m3/s

Power developed by the wheel is expressed as

P = Q(u1Vw1 u2Vw2)

= 1000 2 (20.94 25 u2 0) 103 = 1047 kW

h =

Hydraulic efficiency,

u1Vw1 u2 Vw2

100

gH

20.94 25 u2 0

=

100 = 82.1%

9.81 65

T7 : Solution

Given data:

Discharge,

Head,

Speed of runner,

Q = 10 m3/s

H = 30 m

N = 300 rpm

Radial velocity of flow at inlet, Vf1 = 0.3 2gH

Overall efficiency, 0 = 80%

Hydraulic efficiency, h = 90%

(i) The power developed by the turbine is given by

P = QH 0

= 9.81 1000 10 30

80

= 2354.40 kW (Ans.)

100

u1 = 0.9 2gH

But,

u1 =

D1N

60

0.9 2gH =

D1N

60

D1 300

60

= 1.39 m (Ans.)

0.9 2 9.81 30 =

Copyright

D1

Also,

B1 = 0.315 m (Ans.)

www.madeeasypublications.org

34

(iii) Mechanical efficiency is given by

m =

u1Vw1 u2 Vw 2

gH

where Vw1 is whirl velocity at inlet and Vw2 is whirl velocity at outlet

But it is given that discharge at outlet is radial.

Vw2 = 0

m =

m =

u1Vw1 u2 0

gH

u1Vw1

gH

90

=

100

9.81 30

Vw1 = 12.13 m/s

tan =

tan =

Vf1

Vw1

0.3 2 9.81 30

12.13

= tan1 (0.6)

= 30.96 31 (Ans.)

Vf1

tan = V u

w1

1

tan =

0.3 2 9.81 30

12.13 0.9 2 9.81 30

= 36.87

D2 =

D1

1.39

=

= 0.695 m

2

2

T8 : Solution

Given:

Head,

Hub diameter,

Speed,

www.madeeasypublications.org

H = 12 m

Db = 0.35 D0

N = 100 rpm

Copyright

35

Workbook

Vane angle at outlet,

u2

= 15

Flow ratio

Vf1

2gH

= 0.6

Vf = V2

2

Vr 2

tan =

Vf2 Vf1

=

u2 u2

(Q Vf

= Vf1 = 9.2

)

V1

9.2

= u

2

tan 15

9.2

= 34.33 m/s

tan15

u1 = u2 = 34.33

u1 =

D0 100

D0 N

or 34.33 =

60

60

D0 =

60 34.33

= 6.55 m

100

Vr1

Vf1

u2 =

Discharge through turbine is given by eq. as

Q =

4

4

4

=

=

=

=

25 m

200 rpm

9 cumec = 9 m3/s

90% = 0.90

T9 : Solution

Given:

Head,

Speed,

Discharge,

Efficiency,

H

N

Q

0

0 =

Work developed

P

=

g Q H

Water power

1000

P = 0

=

g Q H

1000

= 1986.5 kW

1000

Using equation

Copyright

Ns =

N P

H

5/4

200 1986.5

255 / 4

= 159.46 rpm

www.madeeasypublications.org

36

P = 1986.5 kW

(iii) As the specific speed lies between 51 and 255, the turbine is a Francis turbine.

T10 : Solution

Given:

Q = 0.04 m3/s

Hg = 20 m

0 =

f

l

D

0

=

=

=

=

rgQH

P

0.015

100 m

0.15 m

70%, 0 = 0.7

2

4f lQ 2

hf =

= 10.534 m

5

5 =

12D

12 (0.15)

Hnet = Hg + hf = 20 m + 10.534

Hnet = 30.534 m

0 =

rgQHnet

1000

P

1000

0.70 =

P

P =

kW

0.7

P = 17.116 kW

Hence power required to derive the pump is 17.116 kW.

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